Student name:__________

TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F'

if the statement is false.
1) A joint application development session is where
employees meet, sometimes for several days, to define or
review the business requirements for the system.

⊚ true
⊚ false

2) Business requirements are the specific business the entire systems

requests the system must meet to be successful, so the development effort.
analysis phase is critical because business requirements drive

⊚ true
⊚ false

3) Business requirements include the process of

transferring information from a legacy system to a new
system.

⊚ true
⊚ false

4) Conversion modifies software to meet specific user or

business requirements.

⊚ true
⊚ false

5) Off-the-shelf application software supports general customization to meet the

business processes and does not require any specific software organization’s needs.

⊚ true
⊚ false

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6) The systems development life cycle (SDLC) is the planning and analysis
overall process for developing information systems, from through implementation
and maintenance.

⊚ true
⊚ false

7) The planning phase establishes a high-level plan of the

intended project and determines project goals.

⊚ true
⊚ false

8) Conversion occurs when a person or event is the

catalyst for implementing major changes for a system to meet
business changes.

⊚ true
⊚ false

9) Brainstorming is a technique for generating ideas by

encouraging participants to offer as many ideas as possible in
a short period without any analysis until all the ideas have
been exhausted.

⊚ true
⊚ false

10) Requirements management is the process of managing

changes to the business requirements throughout the project.

⊚ true
⊚ false

11) Projects are

typically dynamic in

Version 1 2
nature, and change should be expected and anticipated for
successful project completion.

⊚ true
⊚ false

12) A requirements definition document prioritizes all of

the business requirements by order of importance to the
company.

⊚ true
⊚ false

13) Sign-off is the users’ actual signatures indicating they

approve all of the business requirements.

⊚ true
⊚ false

14) The analysis phase establishes descriptions of the

desired features and operations of the system, including
screen layouts, business rules, process diagrams, pseudo code,
and other documentation.

⊚ true
⊚ false

15) The design phase establishes descriptions of the

desired features and operations of the system, including
screen layouts, business rules, process diagrams, pseudo code,
and other documentation.

⊚ true
⊚ false

16) The testing phase

Version 1 3
takes all the detailed design documents from the design phase
and transforms them into the actual system.

⊚ true
⊚ false

17) Software engineering is a disciplined approach for methods, techniques, or

constructing information systems through the use of common tools.

⊚ true
⊚ false

18) Software engineers use computer-aided software support for the

engineering (CASE) software tools that provide automated development of the system.

⊚ true
⊚ false

19) Control objects for information and related technology same time establishing
(COBIT) is a set of best practices that helps an organization to appropriate controls to
maximize the benefits of an information system, while at the ensure minimum errors.

⊚ true
⊚ false

20) Object-oriented language is a programming method

that provides for interactive modules to a website.

⊚ true
⊚ false

21) Scripting languages group data and corresponding

processes into objects.

⊚ true
⊚ false

Version 1 4
22) Fourth generation languages (4GL) are programming WHERE NAME IS
languages that look similar to human languages. For example, ‘SMITH’."
a typical 4GL command might state, "FIND ALL RECORDS

⊚ true
⊚ false

23) The development phase brings all the project pieces requirements defined in the
together into a special testing environment to eliminate errors analysis phase.
and bugs, and verify that the system meets all the business

⊚ true
⊚ false

24) Bugs are defects in the code of an information system.

⊚ true
⊚ false

25) Test conditions detail the steps the system must

perform along with the expected result of each step in the
implementation phase the organization places the system into
production so users can begin to perform actual business
operations with it.

⊚ true
⊚ false

26) Detailed user documentation is created that highlights

how to use the system and how to troubleshoot issues or
problems.

⊚ true
⊚ false

Version 1 5
27) Training is also provided for the system users and can
be online or in a classroom.

⊚ true
⊚ false

28) Online training runs over the Internet or on a CD or

DVD, and employees complete the training on their own time
at their own pace.

⊚ true
⊚ false

29) Workshop training is held in a classroom environment

and led by an instructor.

⊚ true
⊚ false

30) A help desk is a group of people who respond to

users’ questions.

⊚ true
⊚ false

31) Development testing assesses if the entire system

meets the design requirements of the users.

⊚ true
⊚ false

32) Alpha testing occurs when programmers test the

system to ensure it is bug-free.

⊚ true
⊚ false

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33) Development testing verifies that separate systems can
work together passing data back and forth correctly.

⊚ true
⊚ false

34) Integration testing verifies that the units or pieces of

code function correctly when integrated together.

⊚ true
⊚ false

35) User acceptance testing (UAT) determines if the

system satisfies the user and business requirements.

⊚ true
⊚ false

36) User acceptance testing tests individual units or pieces

of code for a system.

⊚ true
⊚ false

37) Unit testing uses both the legacy system and new
system until all users verify that the new system functions
correctly.

⊚ true
⊚ false

38) Plunge implementation discards the legacy system

completely and immediately migrates all users to the new
system.

Version 1 7
 ⊚ true ⊚ false

39) Pilot implementation involves a small group of people

using the new system until it is verified that it works
correctly, then the remaining users migrate to it.

⊚ true
⊚ false

40) Pilot implementation installs the new system in phases

(for example by department) until it is verified that it works
correctly.

⊚ true
⊚ false

41) Corrective maintenance makes system changes to

repair design flaws, coding errors, or implementation issues.

⊚ true
⊚ false

42) Corrective maintenance makes system changes to

reduce the chance of future system failure.

⊚ true
⊚ false

43) Internal reports present data that is distributed inside

the organization and is intended for employees within an
organization. Internal reports typically support day-to-day
operations monitoring that supports managerial decision
making.

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 ⊚ true ⊚ false

44) Detailed internal reports present information with little

or no filtering or restrictions of the data.

⊚ true
⊚ false

45) Exception reports organize and categorize data for

managerial perusal.

⊚ true
⊚ false

46) Summary internal reports highlight situations

occurring outside of the normal operating range for a
condition or standard.

⊚ true
⊚ false

47) Information system control reports ensure the

reliability of information, consisting of policies and their
physical implementation, access restrictions, or recordkeeping
of actions and transactions.

⊚ true
⊚ false

48) Information systems audit reports assess a company’s

information system to determine necessary changes and to
help ensure the information systems’ availability,
confidentiality, and integrity.

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 ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) Post-implementation reports are formal reports or

audits of a project after it is up and running.

⊚ true
⊚ false

50) Preventative maintenance makes system changes to

reduce the chance of future system failure.

⊚ true
⊚ false

51) Preventing liabilities is a business-related consequence

of failed software.

⊚ true
⊚ false

52) The implementation phase involves taking all of the transforming them into the
detailed design documents from the design phase and actual system.

⊚ true
⊚ false

53) Process modeling involves graphically representing

the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute
information between a system and its environment.

⊚ true
⊚ false

54) A data flow

diagram (DFD) illustrates

Version 1 10
the movement of information between external entities and
the processes and data stores within the system.

⊚ true
⊚ false

55) A data flow diagram involves graphically representing

the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute
information between a system and its environment.

⊚ true
⊚ false

56) Process modeling illustrates the movement of data stores within the
information between external entities and the processes and system.

⊚ true
⊚ false

57) Computer-aided software engineering (CASE) tools

are software suites that automate systems analysis, design,
and development.

⊚ true
⊚ false

58) Control objects for information and related technology

(COBIT) are software suites that automate systems analysis,
design, and development.

⊚ true
⊚ false

59) First generation machine language is difficult for

people to understand.

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 ⊚ true ⊚ false

60) Second generation assembly language is difficult for

people to understand.

⊚ true
⊚ false

61) Third generation high-level programming languages,

such as C+ and Java, are high-level programming languages.

⊚ true
⊚ false

62) Fourth generation programming languages look

similar to human languages.

⊚ true
⊚ false

63) Fifth generation programming languages are used for

artificial intelligence and neural networks.

⊚ true
⊚ false

64) The traditional waterfall methodology is a sequential, implementation and

activity-based process in which each phase in the SDLC is maintenance.
performed sequentially from planning through

⊚ true
⊚ false

65) Scrum is a
sequential, activity-based

Version 1 12
process in which each phase in the SDLC is performed
sequentially from planning through implementation and
maintenance.

⊚ true
⊚ false

66) A prototype is a smaller-scale representation or design for an information

working model of the users’ requirements or a proposed system.

⊚ true
⊚ false

67) A methodology is a set of policies, procedures,

standards, processes, practices, tools, techniques, and tasks
that people apply to technical and management challenges.

⊚ true
⊚ false

68) Plunge implementation is a set of policies, procedures,

standards, processes, practices, tools, techniques, and tasks
that people apply to technical and management challenges.

⊚ true
⊚ false

69) The oldest and the best-known software development

methodology is the waterfall methodology, a sequence of
phases in which the output of each phase becomes the input
for the next.

⊚ true
⊚ false

70) The oldest and the

Version 1 13
best-known software development methodology is the agile each phase becomes the
methodology, a sequence of phases in which the output of input for the next.

⊚ true
⊚ false

71) Prototyping is a modern design approach by which the

designers and system users use an iterative approach to build
the system.

⊚ true
⊚ false

72) Discovery prototyping builds a small-scale it meets the user and

representation or working model of the system to ensure that business requirements.

⊚ true
⊚ false

73) Iterative development consists of a series of tiny

projects. It has become the foundation of multiple agile
methodologies.

⊚ true
⊚ false

74) Waterfall development consists of a series of tiny

projects. It has become the foundation of multiple agile
methodologies.

⊚ true
⊚ false

75) An agile
methodology aims for
customer satisfaction

Version 1 14
through early and continuous delivery of useful software
components developed by an iterative process using the bare
minimum requirements.

⊚ true
⊚ false

76) Rapid application development (RAD) methodology

(also called rapid prototyping) emphasizes extensive user
involvement in the rapid and evolutionary construction of
working prototypes of a system to accelerate the systems
development process.

⊚ true
⊚ false

77) Extreme programming (XP) methodology, like other previous phase is

agile methods, breaks a project into four phases, and complete.
developers cannot continue to the next phase until the

⊚ true
⊚ false

78) The rational unified process (RUP) methodology, development of software

owned by IBM, provides a framework for breaking down the into four gates.

⊚ true
⊚ false

79) Gate one of the rational unified process (RUP)

methodology includes inception and ensures that all
stakeholders have a shared understanding of the proposed
system and what it will do.

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 ⊚ true ⊚ false

80) Gate two of the rational unified process (RUP) architecture to support and
methodology is elaboration and expands on the agreed-upon build it.
details of the system, including the ability to provide an

⊚ true
⊚ false

81) Gate three of the rational unified process (RUP)

methodology is construction and includes building and
developing the product.

⊚ true
⊚ false

82) Gate four of the rational unified process (RUP)

methodology is transition, and the primary questions
answered in this phase address ownership of the system and
training of key personnel.

⊚ true
⊚ false

83) The scrum methodology uses small teams to produce intervals, to achieve an
small pieces of software using a series of sprints, or 30-day appointed goal.

⊚ true
⊚ false

84) Project milestones are any measurable, tangible,

verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to
complete a project or part of a project.

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 ⊚ true ⊚ false

85) Project deliverables represent key dates when a certain

group of activities must be performed.

⊚ true
⊚ false

86) Discovery prototyping builds a small-scale meets the user and

representation or working model of the system to ensure it business requirements.

⊚ true
⊚ false

87) Rational unified process (RUP) methodology, owned development of software

by IBM, provides a framework for breaking down the into four "gates."

⊚ true
⊚ false

88) Scrum methodology, uses small teams to produce intervals, to achieve an

small pieces of software using a series of "sprints," or 30-day appointed goal.

⊚ true
⊚ false

89) A communication plan defines the how, what, when, stakeholders and is key for
and who regarding the flow of project information to managing expectations.

⊚ true
⊚ false

90) The executive sponsor is the person or group who

provides the financial resources for the project.

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 ⊚ true ⊚ false

91) Project constraints are factors considered to be true,

real, or certain without proof or demonstration.

⊚ true
⊚ false

92) Project assumptions are specific factors that can limit resources, and
options, including budget, delivery dates, available skilled organizational policies.

⊚ true
⊚ false

93) A project objective is any measurable, tangible, complete a project or part

verifiable outcome, result, or item that is produced to of a project.

⊚ true
⊚ false

94) The project management office (PMO) is an internal

department that oversees all organizational projects.

⊚ true
⊚ false

95) Project assumptions represent key dates when a

certain group of activities must be performed.

⊚ true
⊚ false

96) Project objectives are quantifiable criteria that must be

met for the project to be considered a success.

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 ⊚ true ⊚ false

97) The project requirements document defines the

specifications for product/output of the project and is key for
managing expectations, controlling scope, and completing
other planning efforts.

⊚ true
⊚ false

98) The project scope statement links the project to the requirements, and current
organization’s overall business goals. It describes the business boundaries for the project.
need (the problem the project will solve) and the justification,

⊚ true
⊚ false

99) The project managers are individuals and

organizations actively involved in the project or whose
interests might be affected as a result of project execution or
project completion.

⊚ true
⊚ false

100) The responsibility matrix defines all project roles and

indicates what responsibilities are associated with each role.

⊚ true
⊚ false

101) Status reports are periodic reviews of actual

performance versus expected performance.

⊚ true
⊚ false

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102) A kill switch is a trigger that enables a project
manager to close the project before completion.

⊚ true
⊚ false

103) A Gantt chart is a graphical network model that

depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships between them.

⊚ true
⊚ false

104) A dependency is a logical relationship that exists

between the project tasks or between a project task and a
milestone.

⊚ true
⊚ false

105) A dependency is a trigger that enables a project

manager to close the project before completion.

⊚ true
⊚ false

106) A kill switch is a logical relationship that exists

between the project tasks or between a project task and a
milestone.

⊚ true
⊚ false

107) Gantt charts define dependency between project tasks

before those tasks are scheduled.

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 ⊚ true ⊚ false

108) A critical path for a project is the series of activities

that determine the earliest time by which the project can be
completed.

⊚ true
⊚ false

109) A PERT chart is a simple bar chart that lists project

tasks vertically against the project’s time frame, listed
horizontally.

⊚ true
⊚ false

110) In the past, outsourcing was often used tactically, as a that did not form part of an
quick-fix, short-term solution to a particular need or problem overall business strategy.

⊚ true
⊚ false

111) Outsourcing is a common approach using the

professional expertise within an organization to develop and
maintain the organization’s information technology systems.

⊚ true
⊚ false

112) In-sourcing is an arrangement by which one

organization provides a service or services for another
organization that chooses not to perform them in-house.

⊚ true
⊚ false

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113) Offshore outsourcing is using organizations from
developing countries to write code and develop systems.

⊚ true
⊚ false

114) In-sourcing (in-house development) uses the combining both technical

professional expertise within an organization to develop and and business skills.
maintain its information technology systems. In-sourcing has
been instrumental in creating a viable supply of IT
professionals and in creating a better-quality workforce

⊚ true
⊚ false

115) In-sourcing has been instrumental in creating a viable

supply of IT professionals and in creating a better-quality
workforce combining both technical and business skills.

⊚ true
⊚ false

116) Outsourcing is an arrangement by which one

organization provides a service or services for another
organization that chooses not to perform them in-house.

⊚ true
⊚ false

117) Onshore outsourcing occurs when engaging another

company within the same country for services.

⊚ true
⊚ false

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118) Nearshore outsourcing occurs when contracting an
outsourcing arrangement with a company in a nearby country.
Often this country will share a border with the native country.

⊚ true
⊚ false

119) Offshore outsourcing occurs when using organizations

from developing countries to write code and develop systems.
In offshore outsourcing, the country is geographically far
away.

⊚ true
⊚ false

120) Offshore outsourcing occurs when engaging another

company within the same country for services.

⊚ true
⊚ false

121) Onshore outsourcing occurs when contracting an

outsourcing arrangement with a company in a nearby country.
Often this country will share a border with the native country.

⊚ true
⊚ false

122) Nearshore outsourcing occurs when using

organizations from developing countries to write code and
develop systems. In offshore outsourcing, the country is
geographically far away.

⊚ true
⊚ false

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123) Human resources is the most common outsourced function.

⊚ true
⊚ false

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that functions and operations of
best completes the statement or answers the question. the intended system?
124) In which phase does the firm analyze its end-user
business requirements and refine project goals into defined

D) testing phase
A) analysis phase
B) design phase
C) development phase

125) What are the specific business requests the system

development effort must meet to be successful?

D) sign-off
A) legacy system
B) conversion
C) business requirements

126) What is the process of transferring information from a

legacy system to a new system?

D) sign-off
A) off-the-shelf software
B) conversion
C) business requirements

127) What modifies software to meet specific user or

business requirements?

D) sign-off
A) software customization
B) conversion
C) business requirements

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128) Which software supports general business processes meet the organization’s
and does not require any specific software customization to needs?

D) application
A) systems development life cycle software
B) customized software
C) off-the-shelf application software

129) What is the overall process for developing information

systems, from planning and analysis through implementation
and maintenance?

D) legacy system
A) systems development life cycle
B) software customization
C) off-the-shelf application software

130) Which phase establishes a high-level plan of the

intended project and determines project goals?

D) planning
A) testing phase phase
B) analysis phase
C) maintenance phase

131) What is a person or event that is the catalyst for

implementing major changes for a system to meet business
changes?

D) change agent
A) change controller
B) change over
C) change management

132) What is a technique

for generating ideas by

Version 1 25
encouraging participants to offer as many ideas as possible in
a short period without any analysis until all the ideas have
been exhausted?

C) test conditions
A) brainstorming D) bugs
B) change agent

133) What is the process of managing changes to the

business requirements throughout the project?

D) change agent
A) requirements documentation
B) requirements management
C) requirements definition document

134) Which document prioritizes all of the business

requirements by order of importance to the company?

D) change agent
A) requirements documentation
B) requirements management
C) requirements definition document

135) What contains the users’ actual signatures indicating

they approve all of the business requirements?

D) sign-off
A) change agent
B) requirements management
C) requirements definition document

136) Which phase takes all the detailed design documents

from the design phase and transforms them into the actual
system?

A) testing phase

Version 1 26
 D) planning
B) analysis phase phase
C) development phase

137) What is a disciplined approach for constructing

information systems through the use of common methods,
techniques, or tools?

D) software
A) software customization
B) software testing
C) software engineering

138) What do software engineers use as tools to provide

automated support for the development of the system?

D) computer-
A) software aided software engineering
B) IEEE (CASE)
C) control objects for information and related
technology (COBIT)

139) What is a set of best practices that helps an controls to ensure

organization to maximize the benefits of an information minimum errors?
system, while at the same time establishing appropriate

D) computer-
A) software customization aided software engineering
B) CASE (CASE)
C) control objects for information and related
technology (COBIT)

140) What is a programming method that provides for

interactive modules to a website?

B) object-
A) scripting language oriented language

Version 1 27
 C) fourth generation language D) pseudocode

141) What language groups data and corresponding

processes into objects?

D) pseudocode
A) scripting language
B) object-oriented language
C) fourth generation language

142) What languages are programming languages that look

similar to human languages?

D) pseudocodes
A) scripting languages
B) object-oriented languages
C) fourth generation languages

143) What means fake code, an information description of

how the computer program should work?

D) pseudocode
A) scripting language
B) object-oriented language
C) fourth generation language

144) What is intended for human reading and not machine

reading?

D) pseudocode
A) scripting language
B) object-oriented language
C) fourth generation language

145) What refers to a unique set of keywords along with a special syntax for

Version 1 28
organizing program instructions that execute computer commands?

D) testing
A) programming language document
B) database
C) design document

146) Which phase brings all the project pieces together into defined in the analysis
a special testing environment to eliminate errors and bugs, phase?
and verify that the system meets all the business requirements

D) planning
A) testing phase phase
B) analysis phase
C) development phase

147) What are defects in the code of an information

system?

D) programming
A) testing language
B) bugs
C) insects

148) What details the steps the system must perform along users can begin to perform
with the expected result of each step in the implementation actual business operations
phase the organization places the system into production so with it?

C) test conditions
A) testing phase D) bugs
B) testing documentation

149) What is created to highlight how to use the system and

how to troubleshoot issues or problems?

C) scope
A) detailed user documentation
B) requirements definition document

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document
D) development document

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150) What is provided for the system users and can be
online or in a classroom?

D) testing phase
A) training
B) testing
C) implementation phase

151) What runs over the Internet or on a CD or DVD, and

employees complete the training on their own time at their
own pace?

D) corrective
A) online training maintenance
B) workshop training
C) help desk

152) What is held in a classroom environment and led by an

instructor?

D) corrective
A) online training maintenance
B) workshop training
C) help desk

153) What is a group of people who respond to users’

questions?

D) corrective
A) online training maintenance
B) workshop training
C) help desk

154) What assesses whether the entire system meets the

design requirements of the users?

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 D) system testing
A) alpha testing
B) development testing
C) integration testing

155) What occurs when programmers test the system to

ensure it is bug-free?

D) system testing
A) alpha testing
B) development testing
C) integration testing

156) What verifies that separate systems can work together

passing data back and forth correctly?

D) system testing
A) alpha testing
B) development testing
C) integration testing

157) What verifies that the units or pieces of code function

correctly when integrated together?

D) system testing
A) alpha testing
B) development testing
C) integration testing

158) What determines if the system satisfies the user and

business requirements?

D) user
A) alpha testing acceptance testing
B) development testing
C) integration testing

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159) What tests individual units or pieces of code for a system?

D) user
A) unit testing acceptance testing
B) development testing
C) integration testing

160) Which implementation uses both the legacy system

and new system until all users verify that the new system
functions correctly?

D) phased
A) parallel implementation implementation
B) plunge implementation
C) pilot implementation

161) Which implementation discards the legacy system

completely and immediately migrates all users to the new
system?

D) phased
A) parallel implementation implementation
B) plunge implementation
C) pilot implementation

162) Which implementation is a small group of people

using the new system until it is verified that it works
correctly, then the remaining users migrating to it?

D) phased
A) parallel implementation implementation
B) plunge implementation
C) pilot implementation

163) Which implementation installs the new system in

phases (for example by department) until it is verified that it
works correctly?

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 D) phased
A) parallel implementation implementation
B) plunge implementation
C) pilot implementation

164) What makes system changes to repair design flaws,

coding errors, or implementation issues?

D) phased
A) corrective maintenance implementation
B) preventative maintenance
C) pilot implementation

165) What makes system changes to reduce the chance of

future system failure?

D) phased
A) corrective maintenance implementation
B) preventative maintenance
C) pilot implementation

166) Which reports present data that is distributed inside

the organization and is intended for employees within an
organization?

D) exception
A) internal reports reports
B) detailed internal reports
C) summary internal reports

167) Which internal reports present information with little

or no filtering or restrictions of the data?

D) exception
A) internal reports reports
B) detailed internal reports
C) summary internal reports

Version 1 34
168) Which internal reports organize and categorize data
for managerial perusal?

D) exception
A) internal reports reports
B) detailed internal reports
C) summary internal reports

169) Which reports highlight situations occurring outside of

the normal operating range for a condition or standard?

D) exception
A) internal reports reports
B) detailed internal reports
C) summary internal reports

170) Which of the following is a business-related

consequence of successful software?

D) increased
A) increased revenue expenses
B) damage to brand reputation
C) increased liabilities

171) Which of the following is a business-related

consequence of failing software?

D) All of the
A) decrease productivity answer choices are correct.
B) damage to brand reputation
C) increased liabilities

172) What is the systems development life cycle?

plan of the intended project

A) a process that involves establishing a high-level and determining project

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goals systems from planning and
B) a process that involves analyzing end-user analysis through
business requirements and refining project goals into defined implementation and
functions and operations of the intended system maintenance
C) a process that involves describing the desired
features and operations of the system
D) the overall process for developing information

173) What is the overall process for developing information

systems from planning and analysis through implementation
and maintenance?

D) project
A) systems development life cycle development life cycle
B) project management
C) systems management

174) Which of the following represents the phases in the

SDLC?

maintain
A) plan, analysis, design, test, maintain, develop, D) analysis, plan,
implement develop, design, test,
B) analysis, plan, design, test, develop, maintain, implement, maintain
implement
C) plan, analysis, design, develop, test, implement,

175) What is the analysis phase in the SDLC?

D) involves
A) involves establishing a high-level plan of the placing the system into
intended project and determining project goals production so users can
B) involves analyzing end-user business begin to perform actual
requirements and refining project goals into defined functions business operations with
and operations of the intended system the system
C) involves describing the desired features and
operations of the system

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176) Which phase of the SDLC gathers business requirements?

C) test
A) plan D) design
B) analysis

177) What is a session in which employees meet, requirements for the

sometimes for several days, to define or review the business system?

D) data flow
A) joint application development diagram
B) requirements management
C) process modeling

178) What is a business requirement?

meet to be successful
A) a nonspecific business request the system must D) the specific
meet to be successful methodology the system
B) a specific business request the system must meet must meet to be successful
to be successful
C) the nonspecific methodology the system must

179) What is the design phase in the SDLC?

D) involves
A) involves establishing a high-level plan of the placing the system into
intended project and determining project goals production so users can
B) involves analyzing end-user business begin to perform actual
requirements and refining project goals into defined functions business operations with
and operations of the intended system the system
C) involves describing the desired features and
operations of the system

180) What is the implementation phase in the SDLC?

intended project and

A) involves establishing a high-level plan of the determining project goals

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 users can begin to perform
B) involves analyzing end-user business actual business operations
requirements and refining project goals into defined functions with the system
and operations of the intended system
C) involves describing the desired features and
operations of the system
D) involves placing the system into production so

181) What is a set of policies, procedures, standards, apply to technical and

processes, practices, tools, techniques, and tasks that people management challenges?

C) waterfall
A) project plan D) agile
B) methodology

182) What is a project manager?

controls the entire project

A) an individual who is an expert in project planning D) a graphic
and management, defines and develops the project plan, and representation of the
tracks the plan to ensure that the project is completed on time processes that capture,
and on budget manipulate, store, and
B) the business need (the problem the project will distribute information
solve) and the justification, requirements, and current between a system and its
boundaries for the project environment
C) a formal, approved document that manages and

183) What is the project scope?

controls the entire project

A) an individual who is an expert in project planning D) a graphic
and management, defines and develops the project plan, and representation of the
tracks the plan to ensure that the project is completed on time processes that capture,
and on budget manipulate, store, and
B) the business need (the problem the project will distribute information
solve) and the justification, requirements, and current between a system and its
boundaries for the project environment
C) a formal, approved document that manages and

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184) What is a project plan?

D) a graphic
A) an illustration of the movement of information representation of the
between external entities and the processes and data stores processes that capture,
within the system manipulate, store, and
B) software suites that automate systems analysis, distribute information
design, and development between a system and its
C) a formal, approved document that manages and environment
controls the entire project

185) What is process modeling?

D) a graphic
A) an illustration of the movement of information representation of the
between external entities and the processes and data stores processes that capture,
within the system manipulate, store, and
B) software suites that automate systems analysis, distribute information
design, and development between a system and its
C) a formal, approved document that manages and environment
controls the entire project

186) What is a data flow diagram (DFD)?

D) a graphic
A) an illustration of the movement of information representation of the
between external entities and the processes and data stores processes that capture,
within the system manipulate, store, and
B) software suites that automate systems analysis, distribute information
design, and development between a system and its
C) a formal, approved document that manages and environment
controls the entire project

187) What are computer-aided software engineering

(CASE) tools?

A) an illustration

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of the movement of information between external entities and capture, manipulate, store,
the processes and data stores within the system and distribute information
B) software suites that automate systems analysis, between a system and its
design, and development environment
C) a formal, approved document that manages and
controls the entire project
D) a graphic representation of the processes that

188) What involves graphically representing the processes between a system and its
that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute information environment?

D) process
A) data flow diagram modeling
B) computer-aided software engineering (CASE)
tools
C) systems development life cycle

189) What illustrates the movement of information between

external entities and the processes and data stores within the
system?

D) process
A) data flow diagram modeling
B) computer-aided software engineering (CASE)
tools
C) systems development life cycle

190) What are software suites that automate systems

analysis, design, and development?

D) process
A) data flow diagram modeling
B) computer-aided software engineering (CASE)
tools
C) systems development life cycle

191) Which machine language is difficult for people to understand?

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 D) Fourth-
A) First-generation machine language generation machine
B) Fifth-generation machine language language
C) Third-generation machine language

192) Which assembly language is difficult for people to

understand?

D) Fourth-
A) Fifth-generation machine language generation machine
B) Second-generation machine language language
C) Third-generation machine language

193) Which high-level programming language uses C+ and

Java?

D) Fourth-
A) First-generation machine language generation machine
B) Second-generation machine language language
C) Third-generation machine language

194) Which programming language looks similar to human

languages?

D) Fourth-
A) First-generation machine language generation machine
B) Second-generation machine language language
C) Third-generation machine language

195) Which programming language is for artificial

intelligence and neural network?

D) Fourth-
A) Fifth-generation machine language generation machine
B) Second-generation machine language language
C) Third-generation machine language

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196) Which of the following is an issue related to the waterfall methodology?

requirements in advance
A) flaws in accurately defining and articulating the D) All of the
business problem answer choices are correct.
B) managing costs, resources, and time constraints
C) assumes users can specify all business

197) What consists of a series of tiny projects?

D) scope creep
A) waterfall methodology
B) iterative development
C) scope creep parking lot

198) Which methodology aims for customer satisfaction point that uses the bare
through early and continuous delivery of useful software minimum requirements?
components developed by an iterative process with a design

D) extreme
A) rad methodology programming
B) agile methodology
C) waterfall methodology

199) Which of the following describes agile methodology?

D) All of the
A) fast and efficient answer choices are correct.
B) small and nimble
C) lower cost

200) Which of the following is not a primary form of agile

methodology?

C) RUP
A) RAD D) scrum
B) SDLC

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201) What is an activity-based process in which each phase implementation and
in the SDLC is performed sequentially from planning through maintenance?

D) extreme
A) RAD methodology programming
B) agile methodology
C) waterfall methodology

202) What emphasizes extensive user involvement in the

rapid and evolutionary construction of working prototypes of
a system to accelerate the systems development process?

D) extreme
A) RAD methodology programming
B) agile methodology
C) waterfall methodology

203) What breaks a project into tiny phases, and developers

cannot continue on to the next phase until the first phase is
complete?

D) extreme
A) RAD methodology programming
B) agile methodology
C) waterfall methodology

204) What is the success rate for a project using the

waterfall methodology?

C) 4 in 10
A) 1 in 10 D) 8 in 10
B) 2 in 10

205) Which of the

following is a fundamental
of the RAD methodology?

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 through an interactive and
A) focus initially on creating a prototype that looks iterative construction
and acts like the desired system approach
B) actively involve system users in the analysis, D) All of the
design, and development phases answer choices are correct.
C) accelerate collecting the business requirements

206) Which methodology provides a framework for

breaking down the development of software into four gates?

C) RAD
A) scrum D) RUP
B) XP

207) Which of the following is not one of the four gates in

the RUP methodology?

C) construction
A) inception D) transition
B) collaboration

208) Which gate in the RUP methodology expands on the provide an architecture to
agreed-upon details of the system, including the ability to support and build it?

C) construction
A) inception D) transition
B) elaboration

209) Which gate in the RUP methodology includes building

and developing the project?

C) construction
A) inception D) transition
B) elaboration

210) Which methodology is owned by IBM?

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 C) RAD
A) scrum D) RUP
B) XP

211) Which methodology uses small teams to produce intervals, to achieve an

small pieces of deliverable software using sprints, or 30-day appointed goal?

C) RUP
A) scrum D) RAD
B) XP

212) Which methodology ends or begins each day with a

stand-up meeting to monitor and control the development
effort?

C) RUP
A) scrum D) RAD
B) XP

213) How many days is a typical sprint in the scrum

methodology?

C) 30 days
A) 2 days D) 90 days
B) 10 days

214) Which gate ensures that all stakeholders have a shared

understanding of the proposed system and what it will do?

C) gate three
A) gate one D) gate four
B) gate two

215) Which gate expands on the agreed-upon details of the

system, including the ability to provide an architecture to
support and build it?

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 C) gate three
A) gate one D) gate four
B) gate two

216) Which gate includes building and developing the

product?

C) gate three
A) gate one D) gate four
B) gate two

217) Which gate answers primary questions addressing

ownership of the system and training of key personnel?

C) gate three
A) gate one D) gate four
B) gate two

218) Which gate is inception?

C) gate three
A) gate one D) gate four
B) gate two

219) Which gate is elaboration?

C) gate three
A) gate one D) gate four
B) gate two

220) Which gate is transition?

C) gate three
A) gate one D) gate four
B) gate two

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221) Which gate is construction?

C) gate three
A) gate one D) gate four
B) gate two

222) What are the three primary variables (or triple

constraints) in any project?

D) time, cost,
A) time, cost, expense quality
B) time, expense, requirements
C) time, cost, scope

223) What is the number one reason that IT projects fall

behind schedule or fail?

D) change in
A) change in business goals during the project technology during the
B) lack of support from business management project
C) poor planning or poor project management

224) Which of the following is a characteristic of a

successful project?

D) All of the
A) delivered on time answer choices are correct.
B) delivered within budget
C) meets the business’s requirements

225) What is a project?

C) any
A) a temporary activity undertaken to create a measurable, tangible,
unique product, service, or result verifiable outcome, result,
B) the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and or item that is produced to
techniques to project activities in order to meet or exceed complete a project or part
stakeholder needs and expectations from a project of a project

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 D) key dates when a certain group of activities must be performed

226) What are project deliverables?

a project
A) a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a D) key dates
unique product or service when a certain group of
B) the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and activities must be
techniques to project activities in order to meet or exceed performed
stakeholder needs and expectations from a project
C) any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome,
result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of

227) What is a project manager?

be performed
A) the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and D) an individual
techniques to project activities in order to meet or exceed who is an expert in project
stakeholder needs and expectations from a project planning and management
B) any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome,
result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of
a project
C) key dates when a certain group of activities must

228) Which of the following does a project manager

perform?

D) All of the
A) defines and develops the project plan answer choices are correct.
B) tracks the plan to ensure all key project
milestones are completed on time
C) expert in project planning and management

229) What is an internal department that oversees all

organizational projects?

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 D) project
A) project deliverables milestones
B) project scope
C) project management office

230) The Project Management Institute (PMI) develops the three areas it focuses
procedures and concepts necessary to support the profession on?
of project management. Which of the following is not one of

(management)
A) the distinguishing characteristics of a practicing D) recognition of
professional (ethics) professional attainment
B) content and structure of the profession’s body of (accreditation)
knowledge (standards)
C) change in business goals during project planning

231) Who are the individuals and organizations actively

involved in the project or whose interests might be affected as
a result of project execution or project completion?

D) All of the
A) project managers answer choices are correct.
B) project stakeholders.
C) executive sponsors

232) Who is the person or group who provides the financial

resources for the project?

D) project team
A) project manager
B) project stakeholders
C) executive sponsor

233) What defines the how, what, when, and who regarding
the flow of project information to stakeholders and is key for
managing expectations?

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 D) project
A) communication plan deliverable
B) executive sponsor
C) project assumptions

234) What are factors considered to be true, real, or certain

without proof or demonstration?

D) project
A) project plan deliverable
B) project constraints
C) project assumptions

235) What are specific factors that can limit options, and organizational
including budget, delivery dates, available skilled resources, policies?

D) project
A) project objectives deliverables
B) project constraints
C) project assumptions

236) What is any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome,

result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of
a project?

D) project
A) project milestone deliverable
B) project objective
C) project assumption

237) What represents key dates when a certain group of

activities must be performed?

D) project
A) project milestones deliverables
B) project objectives
C) project assumptions

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238) What are quantifiable criteria that must be met for the
project to be considered a success?

D) project
A) project milestones deliverables
B) project objectives
C) project assumptions

239) What defines the specifications for product/output of scope, and completing
the project and is key for managing expectations, controlling other planning efforts?

D) project
A) project milestones deliverables
B) project objectives
C) project requirements document

240) What statement links the project to the organization’s

overall business goals?

D) project
A) project milestones deliverables
B) project objectives
C) project scope statement

241) Who are individuals and organizations actively

involved in the project or whose interests might be affected as
a result of project execution or project completion?

D) project testers
A) project stakeholders
B) project managers
C) project planners

242) What defines all project roles and indicates what

responsibilities are associated with each role?

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 D) project
A) communication plan deliverables
B) responsibility matrix
C) project assumptions

243) What are intangible benefits?

reportable
A) benefits that are difficult to quantify or measure D) periodic
reviews of actual
B) benefits that are easy to quantify and typically performance versus
measured to determine the success or failure of a project expected performance
C) the gains attributable to your project that are

244) What are tangible benefits?

reportable.
A) benefits that are difficult to quantify or measure. D) periodic
reviews of actual
B) benefits that are easy to quantify and typically performance versus
measured to determine the success or failure of a project. expected performance
C) the gains attributable to your project that are

245) What is feasibility?

D) a periodic
A) difficult to quantify or measure review of actual
B) easy to quantify and typically measured to performance versus
determine the success or failure of a project expected performance
C) the measure of the tangible and intangible
benefits of an information system

246) What is economic feasibility?

identified system
A) a measure of the cost-effectiveness of a project requirements to solve the
B) a measure of how well a solution meets the problems and take

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advantage of opportunities solution and the
C) a measure of the project time frame to ensure that availability of technical
it can be completed on time resources and expertise
D) a measure of the practicality of a technical

247) What is operational feasibility?

D) a measure of
A) a measure of the cost-effectiveness of a project the practicality of a
B) a measure of how well a solution meets the technical solution and the
identified system requirements to solve the problems and take availability of technical
advantage of opportunities resources and expertise
C) a measure of the project time frame to ensure that
it can be completed on time

248) What is schedule feasibility?

D) a measure of
A) a measure of the cost-effectiveness of a project the practicality of a
B) a measure of how well a solution meets the technical solution and the
identified system requirements to solve the problems and take availability of technical
advantage of opportunities resources and expertise
C) a measure of the project time frame to ensure that
it can be completed on time

249) What is technical feasibility?

D) a measure of
A) a measure of the cost-effectiveness of a project the practicality of a
B) a measure of how well a solution meets the technical solution and the
identified system requirements to solve the problems and take availability of technical
advantage of opportunities resources and expertise
C) a measure of the project time frame to ensure that
it can be completed on time

250) What is political

feasibility?

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 D) a measure of
A) a measure of how well the solution will be the practicality of a
accepted in a given opportunity technical solution and the
B) a measure of how well a solution meets the availability of technical
identified system requirements to solve the problems and take resources and expertise
advantage of opportunities
C) a measure of the project time frame to ensure that
it can be completed on time

251) What is legal feasibility?

D) a measure of
A) a measure of how well the solution will be the practicality of a
accepted in a given opportunity technical solution and the
B) a measure of how well a solution can be availability of technical
implemented within existing legal and contractual obligations resources and expertise
C) a measure of the project time frame to ensure that
it can be completed on time

252) What measures the cost-effectiveness of a project?

D) technical
A) economic feasibility feasibility
B) operational feasibility
C) schedule feasibility

253) What measures how well a solution meets the advantage of

identified system requirements to solve the problems and take opportunities?

D) technical
A) economic feasibility feasibility
B) operational feasibility
C) schedule feasibility

254) What measures the project time frame to ensure that it

can be completed on time?

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 D) technical
A) economic feasibility feasibility
B) operational feasibility
C) schedule feasibility

255) What measures the practicality of a technical solution

and the availability of technical resources and expertise?

D) technical
A) economic feasibility feasibility
B) operational feasibility
C) schedule feasibility

256) What measures how well the solution will be accepted

in a given opportunity?

D) legal
A) political feasibility feasibility
B) operational feasibility
C) schedule feasibility

257) What measures how well a solution can be

implemented within existing legal and contractual
obligations?

D) legal
A) political feasibility feasibility
B) operational feasibility
C) schedule feasibility

258) What is a status report?

benefits of an information
A) difficult to quantify or measure
B) easy to quantify and typically measured to
determine the success or failure of a project
C) the measure of the tangible and intangible

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system
D) a periodic review of actual performance versus
expected performance

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259) Which of the following are tangible benefits?

D) increased
A) improved decision making quantity or sales
B) improved community service
C) improved goodwill

260) Which of the following are intangible benefits?

D) increased
A) improved decision making quantity or sales
B) decreased expenses
C) decreased response time

261) What are project constraints?

provides the project

A) specific factors that can limit options manager with the authority
B) factors that are considered to be true, real, or to apply organizational
certain without proof or demonstration resources to project
C) quantifiable criteria that must be met for the activities
project to be considered a success
D) a document issued by the project initiator or
sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and

262) What are project assumptions?

provides the project

A) specific factors that can limit options manager with the authority
B) factors that are considered to be true, real, or to apply organizational
certain without proof or demonstration resources to project
C) quantifiable criteria that must be met for the activities
project to be considered a success
D) a document issued by the project initiator or
sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and

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263) What is a project charter?

provides the project

A) specific factors that can limit options manager with the authority
B) factors that are considered to be true, real, or to apply organizational
certain without proof or demonstration resources to project
C) quantifiable criteria that must be met for the activities
project to be considered a success
D) a document issued by the project initiator or
sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project and

264) An organization must identify what it wants to do and

how it is going to do it. What does the "what" part of this
question focus on?

D) All of the
A) justification of the project answer choices are correct.
B) definition of the project
C) expected results of the project

265) An organization must identify what it wants to do and

how it is going to do it. What does the "how" part of this
question focus on?

D) expected
A) justification of the project results of the project
B) definition of the project
C) analysis of project risks

266) Which of the following is not a technique for

choosing strategic projects?

D) develop a
A) categorize projects project plan
B) perform a financial analysis
C) focus on organizational goals

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267) What is project scope?

a project
A) quantifiable criteria that must be met for the D) definition of
project to be considered a success the work that must be
B) products, services, or processes that are not completed to deliver a
specifically a part of the project product with the specified
C) any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, features and functions
result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of

268) What are project objectives?

a project
A) quantifiable criteria that must be met for the D) definition of
project to be considered a success the work that must be
B) products, services, or processes that are not completed to deliver a
specifically a part of the project product with the specified
C) any measurable, tangible, verifiable outcome, features and functions
result, or item that is produced to complete a project or part of

269) What do SMART criteria for successful objective

creation include?

D) specific,
A) specific, metrics, agreed-upon, real, time-valued metrics, agreed-upon,
realistic, time-framed
B) specific, measurable, agreed-upon, realistic, time-
framed
C) specific, measurable, accurate, real, time-valued

270) Which of the following is a characteristic of a well-

defined project plan?

D) All of the
A) easy to read answer choices are correct.
B) appropriate to the project’s size
C) communicated to all key participants

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271) What is the most important part of the project plan?

D) scope creep
A) slack
B) specification
C) communication

272) What is a graphical network model that depicts a

project’s tasks and the relationships between those tasks?

D) work
A) Gantt chart breakdown structure
B) PERT chart
C) dependency

273) What is the logical relationship that exists between the

project tasks or between a project task and a milestone?

C) dependency
A) resource D) activity
B) task

274) What is a simple bar chart that depicts project tasks

against a calendar?

D) work
A) Gantt chart breakdown structure
B) PERT chart
C) dependency

275) What type of chart typically displays the critical path?

D) three
A) Gantt chart interdependent variables
B) PERT chart
C) work breakdown structure

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276) What is the critical path?

D) the path from

A) the path from resource to task that passes through start to finish that passes
all critical components of a project plan through all the tasks that
B) the path between tasks to the project’s finish that are critical to completing
passes through all critical components of a project plan the project in the longest
C) the series of activities that determine the earliest amount of time
time by which the project can be completed

277) The critical path is a series of activities that determine

the ________ time by which the project can be completed.

C) earliest
A) latest D) slack
B) between

278) In a Gantt chart, tasks are listed ________, and the

project’s time frame is listed ________.

D) horizontally;
A) vertically; horizontally horizontally
B) horizontally; vertically
C) vertically; vertically

279) What is a concise written description of the project’s

intended work?

D) work
A) project charter breakdown structure
B) kill switch
C) dependency

280) What is the amount of time an activity may be delayed

without delaying a succeeding activity or the project finish
date?

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 C) dependency
A) project charter D) slack
B) kill switch

281) What is the tendency to permit changes that exceed a

project’s scope and may wreak havoc on the schedule, work
quality, and budget?

C) dependency
A) scope creep D) slack
B) kill switch

282) What is a list of additional ideas or bells and whistles

proposed during a project?

D) project
A) scope creep spotlight chart
B) kill switch
C) scope creep parking lot

283) What is a monitoring dashboard that uses red, yellow,

and green color coding to indicate the status of each project
task?

D) project
A) work breakdown structure spotlight chart
B) monitoring dashboard
C) scope creep parking lot

284) What is a plan that breaks down a project’s goals into

the many deliverables required to achieve it?

D) project
A) work breakdown structure spotlight chart
B) monitoring dashboard
C) scope creep parking lot

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285) What subdivides complex activities into their most manageable units?

D) project
A) work breakdown structure spotlight chart
B) monitoring dashboard
C) scope creep parking lot

286) What question is asked repeatedly when creating a

work breakdown structure?

D) Will we need
A) What will have to be done to accomplish X? outsourcing?
B) Can we afford to add additional features?
C) What will scope creep look like?

287) Which of the following includes a common reason

why change occurs?

D) All of the
A) a misunderstanding of the initial scope answer choices are correct.
B) shifts in planned technology that force
unexpected and significant changes to the business
C) an omission in defining initial scope

288) What is the outsourcing option that includes the most

remote location and indirect customer control?

D) None of the
A) onshore outsourcing answer choices are correct.
B) nearshore outsourcing
C) offshore outsourcing

289) What is the outsourcing option that includes the

closest location and direct customer control?

C) offshore
A) onshore outsourcing
B) nearshore outsourcing

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outsourcing
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

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290) All of the following are challenges of outsourcing,
except:

D) reduced hiring
A) contract length frustration and expense
B) competitive edge
C) confidentiality

291) What is a common approach using the professional organization’s information

expertise within an organization to develop and maintain the technology systems?

D) offshore
A) in-sourcing outsourcing
B) outsourcing
C) business process outsourcing

292) What is an arrangement by which one organization chooses not to perform

provides a service or services for another organization that them in-house?

D) offshore
A) in-sourcing outsourcing
B) outsourcing
C) business process outsourcing

293) What is it called when a company uses organizations

from developing countries to write code and develop systems?

D) offshore
A) in-sourcing outsourcing
B) outsourcing
C) business process outsourcing

294) Which of the following is a benefit an organization

can receive from outsourcing?

A) financial

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savings D) All of the
B) increase technical abilities answer choices are correct.
C) market agility

ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a successful software

separate sheet of paper. development.
295) Explain the business benefits associated with

296) Describe the seven phases of the systems development

life cycle.

297) Summarize the different software development

methodologies.

298) Explain project management and the role the triple

constraints play when managing a project.

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299) Describe the project stakeholder’s and executive
sponsor’s roles in choosing strategic projects.

300) Describe the two primary diagrams most frequently

used in project planning.

301) Identify the three primary areas a project manager

must focus on managing to ensure success.

302) Explain the three different types of outsourcing along

with their benefits and challenges.

Answer Key

Test name: Chapter

9

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1) TRUE
2) TRUE
3) FALSE
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8) FALSE
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14) FALSE
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20) FALSE
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22) TRUE
23) FALSE
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31) FALSE
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43) TRUE
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45) FALSE
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51) FALSE
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64) TRUE
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74) FALSE
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84) FALSE

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85) FALSE
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90) TRUE
91) FALSE
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94) TRUE
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99) FALSE
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103) FALSE
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106) FALSE
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113) TRUE
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120) FALSE
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122) FALSE
123) FALSE
124) A
125) C
126) B

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127) A
128) C
129) A
130) D
131) D
132) A
133) B
134) C
135) D
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140) A
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148) C
149) A
150) A
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152) B
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154) A
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157) D
158) D
159) A
160) A
161) B
162) C
163) D
164) A
165) B
166) A
167) B
168) C

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169) D
170) A
171) D
172) D
173) A
174) C
175) B
176) B
177) A
178) B
179) C
180) D
181) B
182) A
183) B
184) C
185) D
186) A
187) B
188) D
189) A

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190) B
191) A
192) B
193) C
194) D
195) A
196) D
197) B
198) B
199) D
200) B
201) C
202) A
203) D
204) A
205) D
206) D
207) B
208) B
209) C
210) D

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211) A
212) A
213) C
214) A
215) B
216) C
217) D
218) A
219) B
220) D
221) C
222) C
223) C
224) D
225) A
226) C
227) D
228) D
229) C
230) C
231) B

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232) C
233) A
234) C
235) B
236) D
237) A
238) B
239) C
240) C
241) A
242) B
243) A
244) B
245) C
246) A
247) B
248) C
249) D
250) A
251) B
252) A

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253) B
254) C
255) D
256) A
257) D
258) D
259) D
260) A
261) A
262) B
263) D
264) D
265) C
266) D
267) D
268) A
269) B
270) D
271) C
272) B
273) C

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274) A
275) B
276) C
277) C
278) A
279) A
280) D
281) A
282) C
283) B
284) A
285) A
286) A
287) D
288) C
289) A
290) D
291) A
292) B
293) D
294) D

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295) Software development uses the systems and increase in
development life cycle to create software. The productivity.
benefits associated with successful software
development include increase in revenues,
repair to brand reputation, limited liabilities,
296) Planning phase involves establishing a defined in the
high-level plan of the intended project and analysis phase.
determining project goals. Analysis phase Implementation
involves analyzing end-user business phase involves
requirements and refining project goals into placing the system
defined functions and operations of the into production so
intended system. Design phase involves users can begin to
describing the desired features and operations perform actual
of the system, including screen layouts, business operations
business rules, process diagrams, pseudo code, with the system.
and other documentation. Development phase Maintenance phase
involves taking all of the detailed design involves performing
documents from the design phase and changes,
transforming them into the actual system. corrections,
Testing phase involves bringing all the project additions, and
pieces together into a special testing upgrades to ensure
environment to test for errors, bugs, and the system
interoperability in order to verify that the continues to meet
system meets all the business requirements the business goals.
297) There are a number of different software developed by an
development methodologies including agile iterative process
methodology that aims for customer with a design point
satisfaction through early and continuous that uses the bare
delivery of useful software components minimum

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requirements. Waterfall methodology follows framework for
an activity-based process in which each phase breaking down the
in the systems development life cycle (SDLC) development of
is performed sequentially from planning software into four
through implementation and maintenance. gates. Scrum uses
Rapid application development methodology small teams to
(RAD) emphasizes extensive user produce small
involvement in the rapid and evolutionary pieces of
construction of working prototypes of a deliverable software
system to accelerate the systems development using sprints, or 30-
process. Extreme programming (XP) day intervals, to
methodology breaks a project into tiny phases, achieve an
and developers cannot continue on to the next appointed goal.
phase until the first phase is complete.
Rational unified process (RUP) provides a
298) A project is a temporary or short-term interdependent, and
endeavor undertaken to create a unique if you change one,
product, service, or result, such as developing the others must
a custom ecommerce site or merging change. The three
databases. Project management is the primary activities
application of knowledge, skills, tools, and performed by a
techniques to project activities to meet project project manager
requirements. A project manager is an include choosing
individual who is an expert in project planning strategic projects,
and management, defines and develops the setting the project
project plan, and tracks the plan to ensure the scope, and
project is completed on time and on budget. managing resources
The triple constraints are scope, resources, and and maintaining the
time. These three components are project plan.

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299) Project stakeholders are individuals and project. Techniques
organizations actively involved in the project for choosing
or whose interests might be affected as a result strategic projects
of project execution or project completion. include focusing on
While all stakeholders are important, one organizational
stands out as having the most impact on the goals, categorizing
success or failure of a project. That person is projects, and
the executive sponsor or the person or group performing a
who provides the financial resources for the financial analysis.
300) A PERT (program evaluation and review listed horizontally.
technique) chart is a graphical network model A Gantt chart works
that depicts a project’s tasks and the well for
relationships between those tasks. A representing the
dependency is a logical relationship that exists project schedule. It
between the project tasks or between a project also shows actual
task and a milestone. A Gantt chart is a simple progress of tasks
bar chart that depicts project tasks against a against the planned
calendar. In a Gantt chart, tasks are listed duration.
vertically, and the project’s time frame is
301) The three primary areas a project communications,
manager must focus on managing to ensure and change.
success are managing people,
302) Onshore outsourcing is engaging another benefits associated
company within the same country for services. with outsourcing
Nearshore outsourcing is contracting an include increased
outsourcing arrangement with a company in a quality and
nearby country. Offshore outsourcing is using efficiency of a
organizations from developing countries to process, service, or
write code and develop systems. The many function; reduction

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of operating expenses and exposure to risks length of contracts,
involved with large capital investments; and losing competitive
access to outsourcing service provider’s advantages, and
expertise, economies of scale, best practices, risking a breach of
and advanced technologies. Outsourcing confidential
comes with several challenges, including information.

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