Problem 2.

1
Solution:
a)
We want to show that energies in quantum mechanics must be real. To this end, we assume the
energies can be complex E=E+i Γ and show that normalisable states require Γ =0 if they are to
remain normalized for all times t .

The time evolution of a stationary state with initial condition ψ ( x , 0 ) is given by:

ψ ( x , t )=ψ ( x ) e−iEt /ℏ
In order for normalization condition:
∞

∫ |ψ ( x ,t )| dx=1
2

−∞

2
To hold at all times, we require that |ψ ( x , t )| is time independent.

Assume the energy is E=E0 +i Γ .

−i( E0+i Γ)t / ℏ
ψ ( x , t )=ψ ( x ) e
Γt /ℏ −i E0 t /ℏ
¿ ψ ( x) e e
2 2
|ψ| =|ψ| e2 Γt/ ℏ
∞ ∞

∫ |ψ ( x ,t )| dx=e 2 Γt /ℏ ∫ |ψ| dx
2 2

−∞ −∞

The second term is independent of t , so if the product is to be 1 for all time, the first term (e 2 Γt /ℏ) also
be constant, and hence Γ =0.

Or, in another way:

The complex conjugate of above equation:
¿ ¿ −( E0+i Γ)t / ℏ
ψ ( x ,t )=ψ ( x ) e
The normalization condition is expressed as follows:
∞

∫ |ψ ( x ,t )| dx=1
2

−∞

2 2
|ψ| =|ψ ( x , t )| e−(E −i Γ )t / ℏ e−(E +i Γ )t /ℏ
0 0

2 −2 Γ t /ℏ
¿|ψ ( x , t )| e
−2 Γ t
We require =0, which forces Γ =0, since ℏ ≠ 0 and certainly 2 ≠ 0.
ℏ
Or in another way:
∞

∫ ψ ¿(x ,t ) ψ (x ,t ) dx=1
−∞

∫ ψ ¿ ( x ) ψ ( x ) e−i E t / ℏ ei E t /ℏ e2 Γ t /ℏ dx=1
0 0

−∞

2
These terms e−i E t /ℏ e i E t / ℏ cancel out. Since |ψ ( x )| =1, the term e 2 Γt /ℏ must equal 1 as well.
0 0

∞
e
2 Γt /ℏ
∫ ψ ¿ ( x ) ψ ( x ) dx=1
−∞

∫ |ψ ( x )| dx=1
2 Γt /ℏ 2
e
−∞

∫ |ψ ( x )| dx=1, the value of e 2 Γt /ℏ must be equal to one:

2
Since the normalization condition is
−∞

2 Γt /ℏ
e =1
2 Γt
=0
ℏ
Γt=0
∞

∫ |ψ ( x )| dx=1 is to hold for all t , Γ must be zero.

2
Therefore, the equation
−∞

b)

A function ψ (x ) satisfying (TISE):

2 2
−ℏ ∂ ψ
+Vψ (x)=Eψ(x )
2 m ∂ x2
Can always be chosen real.
¿ ¿
Suppose we have a complex ψ , i.e. ψ ≠ ψ . Since the TISE is purely real, if ψ is a solution, ψ is also
a solution (this can be seen by taking the complex conjugate of the TISE).
¿ ¿ ¿
Therefore, we can construct ψ R =ψ +ψ or ψ R =i(ψ−ψ ) which both have the property ψ R =ψ R, i.e.,
they are real.
This says that if you give me some complex ψ that is a solution to the Schrödinger equation, I will
¿
always be able to make a physically equivalent solution ψ R =ψ +ψ that is purely real. By physically
equivalent, I mean that it corresponds to the same energy E , expectation values and I will get the
same results from performing measurements.

Or in another way:
If ψ satisfies Eq. 2.5, the time independent Schrödinger equation is:
 2 2
−ℏ ∂ ψ
+Vψ=Eψ
2 m ∂ x2
Express the Schrödinger equation in terms of complex conjugate of the wave function:
2 2 ¿
−ℏ ∂ ψ ¿ ¿
2
+V ψ =E ψ
2m ∂ x
¿
So ψ also satisfies Eq. 2.5.

Now if ψ 1 and ψ 2 satisfy Eq. 2.5, so too does any linear combination of them (ψ 3=c1 ψ 1+ c 2 ψ 2)

Assume ψ 1 and ψ 2 be the wave functions satisfying the time independent Schrödinger equation. The
linear combination of these wave functions is given as follows:
ψ 3=c1 ψ 1+ c 2 ψ 2
Hence:

( )
2 2 2 2 2
−ℏ ∂ ψ 3 −ℏ ∂ ψ1 ∂ ψ2
+V ψ 3 = c 1 +c 2 + V ( c1 ψ 1+ c 2 ψ 2 )
2 m ∂ x2 2m ∂ x2 ∂ x2

[ ] [ ]
2 2 2 2
−ℏ ∂ ψ 1 −ℏ ∂ ψ 2
¿ c1 +V ψ 1 +c 2 + V ψ2
2 m ∂ x2 2 m ∂ x2

¿ c 1 E ψ 1 +c 2 Eψ 2

¿ E ( c 1 ψ 1 + c2 ψ 2 )
2 2
−ℏ ∂ ψ 3
+V ψ 3=E ψ 3
2 m ∂ x2
Then:

−ℏ2 ∂ (ψ +ψ )
[ ][ ]
2 ¿
( ¿
) −ℏ2 ∂2 ψ −ℏ2 ∂2 ψ ¿
2
+V ψ +ψ = 2
+V ψ + 2
+ V ψ¿
2m ∂x 2m ∂ x 2m ∂ x
¿
¿ E ψ+E ψ
¿ E ( ψ +ψ ¿ )
¿
Thus, the wave function ( ψ +ψ ) satisfies the Schrödinger equation.
¿ ¿
Thus, ( ψ +ψ ) and i (ψ −ψ ) , both of which are real satisfiers the Schrödinger equation, eq. 2.5.

Conclusion: From any complex solution, we can always construct 2 real solutions (of course if is
already real, the second one will be zero).
1
Therefore, the wave function ψ=
2
[ ( ψ +ψ ¿ )−i ( i ( ψ−ψ ¿ ) ) ] and can be expressed as linear
combination of 2 real solutions.
Comprehension: What does this mean?
The wave function plays a crucial role in describing the behaviour of particles. Sometimes, the wave
function can be complex, meaning it has both real and imaginary components.
c)

If ψ (x ) satisfies eq. 2.5, then changing variables x−Z

Problem 2.2
Solution:
We are asked to show essentially that the energy E must be greater than or equal to the minimum
value of the potential energy V (x ) for every normalizable solution to the Schrödinger equation. That
means that, when a particle is in potential energy field described by V (c), its total mechanical energy
Etotal must exceed or be equal to the minimum potential energy V min for the particle to be in bound
state. If Etotal <V min , the particle doesn’t have enough energy to overcome the potential energy barrier
and remains confined to a finite region of space.
So:

E>V (x)
When E is greater than the potential energy V (x ), the difference represents the kinetic energy of the
particle, allowing it to move freely in space without being confined by the potential energy barrier.
The Schrödinger time independent wave equation is expressed as follows:
2
d ψ 2m ( )
= [V x −E ] ψ
dx
2
ℏ
2
d ψ
Here, E is the energy of the particle, ψ is the wave function, 2 is the second derivative of the
dx
wave function, m is the mass of the mass of the particle, ℏ is the reduced Planck’s constant, x is the
position variable, and V is the potential of the barrier.

So, the problem suggests that if E<V min, then the second derivative of the wave function will always
have the same sign. That means that the curvature of the wave function and its slope, will consistently
either be positive or negative throughout.
If the wave function departs from zero in positive direction (starts increasing), it will continue to do so
without turning back. This is because the curvature, dictated by second derivative, will consistently
have the same sign. Similarly, if the wave function starts decreasing, it will continue to do so without
turning back.
Thus:

The graph between the wave function and the position variable (x ) is shown below:
From the graph above, at the point where ψ departs from 0 (zero) in the positive direction, the slope is
positive and increasing. The ψ goes on increasing with x and never returns to zero. (this behaviour is
observed in scenarios where particle is confined within a potential well) The case is same in the
negative direction also.
So it has to go to zero as x →−∞ (else it would not be normalizible). But, when the slope is positive,
it cant ever turn over back towards the axis, because that would require negative second derivative.
Same with negative slope.
In neither case is there any way for it to come back to zero, as it must (at x → ∞ ) in order to be
normalizable.

Problem 2.3
Solution:
From the Schrödinger equation for an infinite square well we have:
2
d ψ −2 mE (
2
= 2
ψ eq . 2.23i Griffit h s )
dx ℏ
From boundary conditions, we have:

ψ ( 0 )=ψ ( a )=0(eq .2.26 i Griffiths)

Where a is the width of the well.

For E=0:
2
∫ dd xψ2 dx=∫ 0 dx
2
d ψ
2
=0
dx
dψ
=B
dx
Integrating again:
dψ
dx =∫ B dx
dx
ψ ( x )=∫ B dx =Bx + A

Thus:

ψ ( x )=A + Bx
Applying the boundary conditions, we get:

ψ ( 0 )=0implies → A=0
ψ ( a )=0 implies → aB=0 which further implies → B=0
For E=0:

ψ=0+0 ( x )
¿0
For E< 0:
2
d ψ 2
2
=K ψ (eq . 2.24 i Griffit h s)
dx

Where k =
√ −2 mE
ℏ2
The general solution for this equation is:
kx −kx
ψ ( x )=A e + B e
Now, we apply the boundary conditions to determine the constant A and B:

When x=0 , ψ ( 0 )=0, which implies that:

A+ B=0
Leading to:
A=−B
kx −kx
ψ ( x )=−B e + B e
When x=a , ψ ( a )=0, which implies that:
ka −ka
−B e +B e =0

B ( e−ka−e ka )=0
B=0
Or
ka −ka
e =e
However, B=0 → A=0

This gives:
ψ ( x )=0
Since B cannot be zero (otherwise ψ ( x )=0 everywhere, which is not a physically meaningful
solution) we must have that:

Iif e ka =e−ka, then:

2 ka
e =1
k =0
Again, it gives ψ ( x )=0, since for E=0 and E< 0 there are no acceptable (normalizable) solutions.

This is consistent with the fact that for E< 0, the particle is confined to a region where its kinetic
energy is negative, which is not physically allowed. Therefore, there are no acceptable wave functions
for E< 0.

Problem 2.4
Solution:
The expression for wave function of an infinite square well:

ψ ( x )=
√ 2
a
sin ( )
nπx
a
Here, ψ (x ) is the wave function of an infinite square well, a is the width of an infinite square well, n
is the principle quantum number, x is the position of the particle.

The expression for the expectation value or average value of position ¿ is:
a
¿ x >¿∫ x|ψ| dx
2

Thus:

(√ ( ))
a 2
2 nπx
¿ x >¿∫ x sin dx
0 a a
a
¿
2
a0
∫ x sin2 nπx
a
dx ( )
nπx
Assume that y= . On differentiation:
a
nπ
dy = dx
a
The limits are as follows:
When x=0 then y=0, and when x=a then y=nπ .

Then, the average value of position is:

 nπ
2 a a
¿ x >¿ ∫ y sin ydy ∙
2
∙
a0 nπ nπ
2 nπ
¿
2 a
a nπ ( ) ∫ y sin y dy
0
2

( ) ∫ y [ 1−cos2 2 y ] dy
2 nπ
2 a
¿
a nπ 0

[ ]
nπ
1−cos 2 y
∫y 2
dy=¿
0

∫( )
nπ
y y cos ( 2 y )
¿ − dy
0 2 2
nπ nπ
1 1
¿
20
∫ y dy− ∫ y cos ( 2 y ) dy
20
Since:
nπ 1+1 2
y y
∫ y dy = 1+1 =
2
0

And:
nπ

∫ y cos ( 2 y ) dy=¿
0

∫ f g ' =fg−∫ f ' g

f=y
'
g =cos ( 2 y )
'
f =1
sin ( 2 y )
g=
2
y sin ( 2 y ) sin ( 2 y )
¿ −∫ dy
2 2
sin ( 2 y )
∫ 2
dy=¿

y=2 y
du=2 dy
1
¿
4
∫ sin ( u ) du
 cos ( u )
¿−
4
cos ( 2 y )
¿−
4
So:

y sin ( 2 y ) y sin ( 2 y )
−∫ dy
2 2
y sin ( 2 y ) cos ( 2 y )
¿ +
2 4
Thus:

[ ]
2
a y sin 2 y cos 2 y
¿ 2 2
−y −
n π 2 2 4
Hence:

[ ]
2 2
a n π cos 2 nπ 1
¿ x >¿ 2 2
−nπ ( 0 )− +
n π 2 4 4

[ ]
2 2
a n π 1 1
¿ 2 2
− +
n π 2 4 4

[ ]
2 2
2a n π
¿ 2 2
n π 2
a
¿
2
(Independent of n ).

a
Therefore, the average value of position is .
2
The expression for expectation value or average value of x 2 is:
nπ

( ) y sin y ( nπa ) dy
2
2
2
¿ x >¿ ∫ a
a 0 nπ
2 2

3 nπ
¿
2 a
a nπ ( ) ∫ y sin y dy
0
2 2

2
u= y
2
dv =sin ( y ) dy
1
v= ( y −sin(2 y )/2)
2
∫ udv =uv−∫ vdu
∫ y 2 sin2 ( y ) dy=uv−∫ vdu

(( ))
nπ

2 (
1 2 1
¿ y − sin ( 2 y ) |0 −∫
4
nπ 1
0 2
y−
2 )
sin (2 y )
( 2 y ) dy

nπ
1
2 ( 2 1
¿ ( nπ ) − sin ( 2 nπ )−0+0 −∫ y − ysin
4 0
2 2y
2
du ) ( )
1 2 1
4
1 3 1
3 4 ( nπ
¿ ( nπ ) − sin ( 2 nπ ) − y − y cos ( 2 y ) |0
2 )
1 2 1 1 3 3 1
¿ ( nπ ) − ∙ 0− n π + ( nπ ) cos ( 2nπ )
2 4 3 4
1 2 2 1 3 3 1
¿ n π −0− n π + nπ ∙ 1
2 3 4
1 2 2 1 3 3 1 2
¿ n π − n π + n π
2 3 4

( )
2
nπ nπ 1
¿ 1− +
2 3 2

¿a
2
[ 1
−
1
3 2 ( nπ )2 ]
Therefore, the expectation value or average value of x 2 is a −
2
3 2 ( nπ )2 [
.
1 1
]
The expectation value or average value of momentum is:

¿ p>¿ m d < x> ¿ ¿

dt

¿m
d a
dt 2 ()
¿0
Therefore, the expectation value or average value of momentum is 0 .

According to the time independent Schrödinger wave equation:

2
−ℏ ∂
ψ=E n ψ
2 ∂x

( )
2
∂ 2 m En
ψ=− 2
ψ
∂x ℏ

The expectation value or average value of ¿ p2 >¿ is:

 ( )
2
∂
¿ p >¿ ∫ ψ −iℏ
2 ¿
ψ dx
∂x
2
∂
¿−ℏ ∫ ψ
2 ¿
2
dx
∂x
Hence:
2
∂
¿ p >¿−ℏ ∫ ψ
2 2 ¿
2
dx
∂x

¿ p >¿−ℏ ∫ ψ
2 2 ¿
( −2 m En
ℏ
2 ) ψ dx

¿ 2 m E n∫ ψ ψ dx
¿

2
¿ p >¿ 2 m E n(1)
¿ 2 m En

( )
2 2 2
2 n π ℏ
¿ p >¿ 2 m 2
2ma
2 2 2
n π ℏ
¿ 2
a
2 2 2
n π ℏ
Therefore, the average value of ¿ p2 >¿ is 2 .
a
The value of σ x is:

σ x =√ ¿ x 2>−¿ x ¿2

σ x= a
√ 2
[ 1 1
− 2 2 −
3 2n π
a2
4 ]
¿ a2
√ [ 1 1
− 2 2−
3 2n π 4
1
]
¿ a2
√ [ 1 1
− 2 2
12 2 n π ]
¿
√ a2 1
[ 2
− 2 2
4 3 n π ]
σ x=
√ a2 1
[
−
2
4 3 n2 π 2 ]
Therefore, the value of σ x is
√ [
a2 1 2
]
− 2 2 .
4 3 n π

The value of σ p is:

σ p=√ ¿ p 2>−¿ p ¿ 2

σ p=
√ n 2 π 2 ℏ2
a
2
−0

nπℏ
¿
a
nπℏ
Therefore, the value of σ p is .
a
The product of σ x and σ p is:

(√ [ (]) nπaℏ )
2
a 1 2
σ x σ p= − 2 2
4 3 n π

¿
2 3 √
ℏ n2 π 2
−2

The product is smallest for the state n=1. Thus:

√
2 2
ℏ (1) π
σ x σ p= −2
2 3

¿
ℏ π2
2 3 √
−2

ℏ
σ x σ p>
2
Therefore, the product σ x σ p is satisfied the uncertainty principle. It comes closest to uncertainty limit
at the state n=1.

Problem 2.5
Solution:
a)
It is given that:

ψ ( x , 0 ) =A [ ψ 1 ( x ) +ψ 2 ( x ) ]

|ψ| =|A| [ ( ψ ¿1 +ψ ¿2 ) ( ψ 1+ ψ 2) ]
2 2

2
[ 2 2
¿| A| |ψ 1| −|ψ 2| +ψ 1 ψ 2 +ψ 2 ψ 1
¿ ¿
]
Normalization condition is:

∫|ψ|2 dx =1
| A| ∫ (|ψ 1| −|ψ 2| +ψ ¿1 ψ 2+ψ ¿2 ψ 1 ) dx=1
2 2 2

Given that ψ 1 and ψ 2 are orthonormal states:

∫|ψ 1|2 dx=1

And:

∫|ψ 2|2 dx=1

And:

∫ ψ ¿1 ψ 2 dx =0
And:

∫ ψ ¿2 ψ 1 dx =0
2
| A| ( 2 ) =1
1
A=
√2

b)

[−i (
ℏ )
−i ( ) ]
E1 t E 2t
1 ℏ
ψ ( x , t )= ψ1e +ψ 2 e
√2
2
We have En =n ℏω.

E1=ℏ ω
And
E2=4 ℏ ω
2
nℏ
Here, ω= 2.
2 ma
Now, using the wave function for an infinite square well, we have:

ψ n=
√ 2
a
sin
πnx
a

ψ ( x , t )=
1
√2 [√ 2
a
sin
a( )
πx −iωt 2
e + sin
a a√
2 πx −i 4 ωt
e ( ) ]
¿
1
√2[√ ][ ( ) ( ) ]
2
a
sin
πx −iωt
a
e +sin
2 πx −i 4 ωt
a
e

¿
√a
e
[ ( ) ( ) ]
1 −iωt
sin
πx
a
+sin
2 πx −i 3 ωt
a
e

Then:

|ψ ( x , t )| = a
2 1
[ sin2 ( πxa )+ sin ( 2aπx )+sin ( πxa ) sin ( 2aπx ) [ e
2 −i 3 ωt
+e 3 ωt ]
]
Trigonometric identity:
1
sin ( α ) sin ( β ) =
2
[ cos ( α −β )−cos ( α + β ) ]

2 1
|ψ ( x , t )| = sin2
πx
+ sin2
a [ ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
2 πx
+2 sin
πx
a
sin
2 πx −i3 ωt 3 ωt
[e +e ]
a a a ]
c)
Now:

¿ x >¿∫ x|ψ ( x ,t )| dx
2

a
1
¿
a0
∫ x ¿¿

∫ x sin2 ( πxa )=∫ x

a [1−cos ( 2aπx )]
0 0
2

[ ( ( 2aπx )) dx ]
a
1
¿
2
∫ x−xcos
0

Where:
2
x
∫ x dx= 2
And:
a

∫ x cos ( 2 aπx ) dx=¿

0

u=x

dv =cos ( 2aπx ) dx
du=dx
v=
2π
a
sin ( )
2 πx
a

∫ u dv =uv−∫ v du
∫ x ∙cos ( 2 aπx ) dx= 2 aπx sin ( 2 aπx )−∫ 2aπ sin ( 2 aπx ) dx

∫
2π
a
sin
2 πx
a ( )
dx=
2 πx
a
sin
2 πx
a
−
2π
a ( ) ( )( −a
2π
cos (
a ))
2 πx

¿
2 πx
a
sin
2 πx
a
+ ( ) ( )( 2aπ )( cos( 2aπx ))
2π
a

¿
2 πx
a
sin
2 πx
a
+ ( ) ( )(cos ( 2 aπx ))
a
2π

[ ( ) ( )( ( ))]
a
a 2 πx a 2 πx
¿ ( x ) sin + cos
2π a 2π a 0

¿
So:

[∫ ( ( 2 aπx )) dx ]
a
1
x−xcos
2 0

{ }
( 2aπx ) − cos ( 2 aπx ) |
2
sin
1 x a
¿ −x
( 2aπ ) ( 4aπ )
0
2 2 2

[ ( )]
a

¿
x
−x
2
x sin( )− ( )
2 πx
a
cos
2 πx
a
2
( 4aπ ) 8 πa
2

2
0

[ ]
2
a
¿ −0−0
4
2
a
¿
4
a

( )
2
nπx a
Thus, ∫ x sin
2
= , which is independent of nωt .
0 a 4
So, we have:
a a

∫ x sin nπx
0 a 0
2
( )
=∫ x sin
2 2 πx
a ( )
2
a
¿
4
Now:

( ))
a

∫x
0
sin
πx
a
sin
2 πx
a (
dx 2 cos ( 3 ωt ) dx

a
¿ 2 cos ( 3 ωt )∫ x sin(
0
πx
a
)sin
2 πx
a ( )
dx

Use 2 sin A sin B=cos ( A−B )−cos ( A +B ), the above integral becomes:
a

∫ x (sin πx
a
sin
2 πx
a
dx ) 2 cos ( 3 ωt ) dx
0

[ ( πxa )−cos ( 3aπx )] dx

a
¿ cos ( 3 ωt ) ∫ x cos
0

[ ]
a

sin
πx
sin ( )
3 πx
( )
( ) ( )
2
a a πx a a2 3 πx
( )
¿ cos 3 ωt x + 2 −x − 2 cos
π
a
π a
()
3π
a
9π a
( ) 0

[ ]
2 2
−2 a 2 a
¿ cos ( 3 ωt ) 2
+ 2
π 9π

( )[ ]
2
−2 a 1
¿ cos ( 3 ωt ) 2
1−
π 9
2
16 a
¿−cos ( 3 ωt ) 2
9π
Now I substitute these values into the above integral:

¿ x >¿
[
1 a 2 a2 16 a2
+ −
a 4 4 9π2
cos 3 ωt
]
¿
a
2 [
32
1− 2 cos ( 3 ωt )
9π ]
()
2 2
32 a 3π ℏ
This is an oscillatory function, with amplitude ¿ and angular frequency ¿ 3 ω=
9π 2
2 2
2 ma
d)
¿ p>¿ m d < x> ¿ ¿
dt
a
¿m ¿
2
16 maω
¿ 2
sin ( 3 ωt )
3π
2 2
π ℏ
We have ω= 2 , so:
2 ma

¿ p>¿
16 ma π 2 ℏ2
3 π 2 2m a2 [ ]
sin ( 3 ωt )

8ℏ
¿ sin ( 3 ωt )
3a
e)
We have:
2 2 2
n π ℏ
En = 2
2ma
Thus:
2 2
π ℏ
E 1= 2
2ma
2 2
2π ℏ
E 2= 2
ma

Since ψ ( x , 0 ) =A [ ψ 1 ( x ) +ψ 2 ( x ) ] , the probability of E1 and E2 is equal, and the total probability is 1,

so:
1
P1=P2=
2
1
¿ H >¿ ( E1 + E 2)
2

¿
[
1 π 2 ℏ2 4 π 2 ℏ 2
+
2 2 ma2 2 m a2 ]
[ ]
2 2
1 5π ℏ
¿
2 2 m a2
2 2
5π ℏ
¿ 2
4ma

Problem 2.6
Solution:
a)
The given wave function is:

ψ ( x , 0 ) =A [ ψ 1 ( x ) +e iφ ψ 2 ( x ) ]

Normalization of the given equation is:

2
|ψ ( x , 0 )| =1
A
2
[∫|ψ | dx +∫|ψ | dx ]=1
1
2
2
2

∫|ψ 1|2 dx=1

∫|ψ 2|2 dx=1
A
2
[∫|ψ | dx +∫|ψ | dx ]=1
1
2
2
2

A [ 1+1 ] =1
2

2 1
A=
2
1
A=
√2
1
The normalization constant A of the given function is .
√2
For the infinite square well, we know:

ψ n=
√ 2
a
sin
nπx
a ( )
ψ 1=
√ 2
a
sin
πx
a ( )
ψ 2=
√ 2
a
sin
a ( )
2 πx

ψ ( x , 0 ) =A [ ψ 1 ( x ) +e iφ ψ 2 ( x ) ]

ψ ( x , 0) =
1
√2 [√ 2
a
sin
a( )
πx
+
2
a √
sin
a ( )
2 πx iφ
e ]
¿
1
√a [ ( )
sin
πx
a
+ eiφ sin
2 πx
a ( )]
b)
From the general definition:
 −E n t

ψ n ( x , t )=ψ n ( x ) e ℏ

[ ]
−E 1t −E2 t

ψ ( x , t )=
1
√a
sin
πx
a
e ( ) ℏ iφ
+e sin ( )
2 πx
a
e ℏ

Now, from En =n2 ℏω:

E1
=ω
ℏ
If n=1. And:

E2
=4 ω
ℏ
If n=2.

ψ ( x , t )=
√a [
1 −iωt
e sin
πx
a ( )
+ eiφ e−i (4 ωt) sin
2 πx
a ( )]
¿
1 −iωt
√a
e sin
πx
a [ ( ) ( ) ]
+sin
2 πx −i (3 ωt ) iφ
a
e e

| | | |[ ( ) ]|
2

( )
2
1
2 πx 2 πx −i (3 ωt ) iφ
|ψ ( x , t ) = sin +sin e e
a √ a a

| ( ) |
2
1
¿ sin
a
πx
a
+ sin
2 πx
a ( )
[ cos ( 3 ωt−φ )−i sin ( 3 ωt−φ ) ]

| ( ) |
2

¿
1
a
sin
πx
a
+ sin
2 πx
a ( )
cos ( 3 ωt−φ )−i sin
2 πx
a
sin ( 3 ωt−φ ) ( )
{[ ( ) ][ ( ) ]}
2 2

¿
1
a
sin
πx
a
+sin
2 πx
a ( )
cos ( 3 ωt−φ ) + sin
2 πx
a
sin ( 3 ωt−φ )

¿
1
a[ ( )
sin2
πx
a
+sin 2
2 πx
a ( )
cos2 ( 3 ωt−φ )+ 2sin
πx
a
sin
2 πx
a ( ) ( )
cos ( 3 ωt −φ ) +sin 2
2 πx
a ( )
sin 2 ( 3 ωt−φ )
]
¿
1
a[ ( )
sin2
πx
a
+sin 2
2 πx
a
+2 sin
πx
a ( )
sin
2 πx
a ( ) ( )
cos ( 3 ωt−φ )
]
c)
The average value of x is:
a
¿ x >¿∫ ψ ( x , t ) x ψ ( x , t)
¿

0
 a
¿ ∫ x|ψ ( x ,t )| dx
2

{ }
a a a
¿
1
a 0
2

0
( ) 0
( ) ( ) ( )
∫ x sin πxa dx +∫ x sin 2 2 aπx dx+2 ∫ x sin πxa sin 2 aπx cos ( 3 ωt−φ ) dx

¿
1
a {[
∫x
a

0
1−cos

2
] [ 2 0
]
( 2aπx ) dx +∫ x 1−cos( 4aπx ) dx +∫ x cos πx −cos 3 πx cos ( 3 ωt−φ ) dx
a

[ ( a ) ( a )]
a

0
}
¿
a
2
1−
[ ( )
32
9π
2
cos ( 3 ωt−φ )
]
It has got a phase difference factor (φ) than the earlier result, so t=0 should be shifted.

Special cases.
We have:

¿ x >¿
a
2[ ( )
1−
32
9π
2
cos ( 3 ωt−φ )
]
π
For φ= :
2

[ ]
iπ
ψ ( x , 0 ) =A ψ 1 ( x )+ e 2 ψ 2 ( x )

¿ A [ ψ 1 ( x ) +iψ 2 ( x ) ]

Then in ¿ x >¿:

cos (3 ωt−φ¿)=cos 3 ωt− ( π

2
¿ )
¿ sin ( 3 ωt )

a a
¿ x >¿ −
2 2 ( )( 932π )sin 3 ωt
2

a
¿ x >¿ starts at and for φ=π :
2

ψ ( x , 0 ) =A [ ψ 1 ( x ) +e iπ ψ 2 ( x ) ]

¿ A [ ψ 1 ( x )−ψ 2 ( x ) ]

¿ x >¿
a
2[ ( )
1+
32
9π
2
cos 3 ωt
]
¿ x >¿ starts at
a
2 [ ( )]
1+
32
9π
2 (put t=0 in the above equation).

Problem 2.7
Solution:

Problem 2.8
Solution:
a)
Since the particle starts in the left half of the well:
a
ψ ( x , 0 ) =A 0< x <
2
¿ 0, otherwise
Normalization:

∫|ψ|2 dx =1
∫ A 2 dx=1
a
A [ x ] =1
2 2
0

2 a
A =1
2

A=
√ 2
a
b)
From:

√
a
C n=
2
a0
∫ sin nπx
a ( )
ψ ( x , 0 ) dx

√∫
a
C 1=
2
a 0
sin ( πxa )ψ ( x ,0 ) dx
¿
√ 2
a
¿
 √ [√ ]
a
2

¿
2
a
2
a0
∫ sin
πx
a
dx( )

[()]
a/ 2
πx
cos
−2 a
¿
a π
a 0

−2 a
¿ ∙ [ 0−1 ]
a π
2
¿
π
So:
2
P1=|C 1|

4
¿ 2
π
¿ 0.405

Problem 2.9
Solution:
We have:

¿ H >¿ ∫ ψ ( x , 0 ) Hψ ( x ,0 ) dx

The given wave function is:

ψ ( x , 0 ) =Ax ( a−x ) , 0 ≤ x ≤ a
Now:
2 2
−ℏ ∂
H= +V
2 m ∂ x2
However, V =0 for 0 ≤ x< a (inside an infinite square well), so:
2 2
−ℏ ∂
H=
2 m ∂ x2
2 2
−ℏ ∂
Hψ ( x , 0 )= [ Ax ( a−x ) ]
2m ∂ x 2

[ ]
2 2
−ℏ ∂
¿ [ Ax ( a−x ) ]
2 m ∂ x2
 2
−ℏ
¿ [ Aa ( 0 )−2 A ]
2m
2
ℏ
¿A
m
Now:

¿ H >¿ ∫ ψ ( x , 0 ) Hψ ( x , 0)
2 a
ℏ
¿A ∫ Ax ( a− x ) dx
m 0

[ ]
a
ℏ2 x 2 x3
¿A a −
m 2 3 0

[ ( ) ( )]
2 3 3
ℏ a a
¿A −0 − −0
m 2 3

[ ]
2 3 3
ℏ a a
¿A −
m 2 3

[ ]
2 3
ℏ a
¿A
m 6
Normalization:
a

∫|ψ ( x , 0 )| dx=1
2

a
¿| A| ∫ x ( a−x ) dx=1
2 2 2

2
¿| A| ¿

[[ ] ]
a
3 5 4
x2 x 2ax
¿| A| a
2
+ − =1
3 5 4 0

[ ]
5 5 5
2 a a a
¿| A| + − =1
3 5 2
2 30
| A| = 5
a

A=
√ 30
a5
Substituting this into equation 1 gives:
 2 3
30 ℏ a
¿ H >¿ 5
∙ ∙
a m 6
2
5ℏ
¿ 2
ma

Problem 2.10
Solution:
−mω 2

( )
1
mω 2ℏ
x
ψ 0 ( x )= 4
e
πℏ
a)
The raising operator is given by:
a 1
+¿= ( −ip+mωx ) ¿
√ 2 ℏmω

Such that:
1
ψ n ( x )= ¿¿
n!
Or:
1
ψ n ( x )= a
n! + ¿ψ n −1
(x)¿

ψ 1 ( x ) =a+¿ψ 0 ¿

−mω 2

( )e
1
1
[−ip+mωx ] mω
x
2ℏ
¿ 4
√2 ℏmω πℏ
d
Using p=−iℏ , we get:
dx

( ){ }
1 −mω 2
1 mω d 2ℏ
x
ψ1 (x )= 4
−ℏ + mωx e
√ 2 ℏ mω π ℏ dx

( ){ ( }
−mω 2

)
1
1 mω −2 xmω 2ℏ
x
¿ 4
−ℏ +mωx e
√2 ℏmω πℏ 2ℏ

( ) {2 mωx e }
1 −mω 2
1 mω 2ℏ
x
¿ 4
√ 2 ℏ mω πℏ
Similarly:
1
ψ2 (x )= a+¿ψ ¿
√2 1
 ( ( )[ ( ) {2 mωx e }]
−mω 2

)
1
1 1 d 1 mω 2ℏ
x
¿ −i −iℏ +m ωx 4
√2 √ 2 ℏmω dx √ 2 ℏmω πℏ

{ [ ]+ mωx( x e ) }
−mω 2 −mω 2 −mω 2

( )
1
1 mω 1 2ℏ
x
2mωx 2ℏ
x
2ℏ
x
¿ 4
−ℏ e −x e
√2 πℏ ℏ 2ℏ

( ) [ ]
1 −mω 2
1 mω 1 x
¿ 4
e 2ℏ
[ mω x 2−ℏ+mω x2 ]
√2 πℏ ℏ
Solving further:

( ) [ ]
1 −mω 2
1 mω 1 x
¿ 4
e 2ℏ
{2 mω x 2−ℏ }
√2 πℏ ℏ

( )[ ]
1 −mω 2
1 mω 2mω 2 2ℏ
x
ψ 2= 4
x −1 e
√2 π ℏ ℏ

( )[ ]
1 −mω 2
1 mω 2mω 2 2ℏ
x
Therefore, the wave function is ψ 2= 4
x −1 e .
√ 2 πℏ ℏ
b)

Below sketch shows the wave function of ψ 0:

Below sketch shows the wave function of ψ 1:

?

Below sketch shows the wave function of ψ 2:

?
c)

The functions ψ 0 and ψ 2 are even, whereas ψ 1 is an odd function, ∫ ψ 2 ψ 1 dx and ∫ ψ 0 ψ 1 dx

¿ ¿

vanish as the product is odd.

So, the only integral we need to evaluate is:

( ( )( )( )
+∞ −mω 2 −mω 2

)
1 1
1 mω 2mω 2 x mω x
∫ ψ 2 ψ 0 dx=∫
¿

√2 ℏ π
4
ℏ
x −1 e 2ℏ
ℏπ
4
e 2ℏ
dx
−∞

[ ( )∫ ]
1 +∞ −mω 2
1 mω
( 2 mω x −1 ) dx
x
2ℏ 2
¿ 2
e
√2 ℏπ −∞ ℏ

√ [ ∫ ]
+∞ −mω 2 +∞ −mω 2
mω 2 mω x x
dx−∫ e
2 2ℏ 2ℏ
¿ x e dx
2 ℏ π ℏ π −∞ −∞

Put:
mω 2
x =t
ℏ

x =t
2
( mωℏ )
Differentiating and rearranging the above equation:
2m ω
x dx=dt
ℏ
∞

∫ x 2 −mℏ ω x 2 dx
−∞
 ∞
¿ 2∫ ( mℏω ) t e −t dt ℏ

√
1
0 2 ℏ 2 mω
t
mω

√
∞ 1
ℏ ℏ
¿2 ∫
m ω 2 mω 0
−t
t 2 e dt

Using the definition of a Γ function:

√
∞ −m ω 2
ℏ ℏ 3
()
x
∫x 2
e ℏ
=2 Γ
m ω 2 mω 2
−∞

¿2
√ ℏ ℏ
Γ
m ω 2 mω 2
1
()
¿
ℏ
2m ω
2
ℏ 1
∙ √π
mω 2 √
¿
ℏ ℏ
2m ω m ω
√π
√
¿
ℏ ℏπ
2m ω m ω √
Following similar procedure:
∞ −m ω 2 ∞ −m ω 2
x x
∫e ℏ
dx=2∫ e ℏ
dx
−∞ 0

¿
√ ℏπ
mω
Substituting these into above integral gives:

√ [ ]√ [ √ √ ]
∞ −m ω 2 +∞ −m ω 2
mω 2 mω x x mω 2 m ω ℏ ℏπ πℏ
∫
2 ℏ π ℏ −∞
2
x e ℏ
dx− ∫ e ℏ
dx = ∙
2ℏ π ℏ 2 m ω m ω
−
mω
−∞

¿0
Or in another way:
1 +∞ −mω 2
1 mω
( ) ∫( 2mω 2
)
x
2ℏ
2
x −1 e dx
√2 ℏ π −∞ ℏ

√ (∫ )
+∞ −mω 2 ∞ −mω 2
mω x 2 mω x
¿−
2ℏπ
e ℏ
dx− ∫
ℏ −∞
2
x e ℏ
dx
−∞

¿−
√ (√ mω
2ℏπ
π ℏ 2m ω ℏ
mω
−
πℏ
ℏ 2 m ω mω √ )
¿0
Or in another way (the most simple way):
∞

∫ x 2 (e ¿ ¿ −mω
ℏ
2
x ) dx ¿
−∞

¿ x2 (−mω
ℏ
x) 2

mω 4
¿− x
ℏ
∞

∫ −mℏ ω x 4 dx
−∞

Since x 4 is an even function, the integral over the entire real line will be symmetric about the origin,
and thus the integral will be zero.
¿0

Problem 2.11
Solution:
a)
The ground state wavefunction of the harmonic oscillator is given by:
−m ω 2

( )
1
mω 2ℏ
x
ψ 0 ( x )= 4
e (eq . 2.60 iGriffit h s )
ℏπ
The first excited state wavefunction of the harmonic oscillator is given by:

√ ( ) [e ] (eq . 2.61 iGriffit h s )

1 −m ω 2
2 mω mω 2ℏ
x
ψ1 (x )= x 4
ℏ ℏπ

( ) √
1
mω 4
As it says in the problem, we let =α and mω x=ξ . So:
ℏπ ℏ
2

ψ 0=α e−ξ / 2

And
2

ψ 1=√ 2 αξ e−ξ /2

x=
√ ℏ
mω
ξ

dx=
√ ℏ
mω
dξ

2
We note that ψ 0 is even, and ψ 1 is odd. In either case |ψ| is even, so:
¿ x >¿∫ x|ψ| dx=0
2

Thus:

¿ p>¿ m d < x> ¿ =0 ¿

dt
These results hold for any stationary state of the harmonic oscillator. So, for the ground state
of harmonic oscillator, the wavefunction is symmetrically distributed around the origin, and
that is why we get zero. Now:
n=0:
∞

∫ x 2 e−ξ dx
2
2 2
¿ x >¿α
−∞

(√ ) √
∞ 2
ℏ ℏ
¿∫
2
2 2 −ξ
ξ α e dξ
−∞ mω mω
3/ 2 ∞

( ) ℏ
∫ ξ 2 e−ξ d ξ
2
2
¿α
mω −∞

( )
3 /2
ℏ
∫ ξ 2 e−ξ d ξ
2
2 2
¿ x >¿ α
mω −∞

∫ ξ 2 e−ξ d ξ , we first recognize it as the Gaussian integral, which is

2

To evaluate the integral

−∞
defined as:
∞

∫ e−x dx =√ π
2

−∞

∫ y 2 e− y dy
2

−∞

∞
1
¿ ∫ e dy
2
−y
2 −∞
Or
∞ ∞

∫y dy=2 ∫ y e
2 2
2 −y 2 −y
e dy
−∞ −∞

Why we have 2?
2
The factor of 2 comes from symmetry. Since y 2 e− y is an even function, the graph is symmetric about
the y−¿axis.

Thus:
 ∞

( )
3 /2
ℏ
∫ ξ 2 e−ξ d ξ
2
2 2
¿ x >¿ α
mω −∞

( )
3/ 2
ℏ 1
¿α
2
∙ √π
mω 2

( ) ( ) ( √2π )
ℏ 32 mω 1
¿ ∙ 2
mω ℏπ

mω 1 √ π
¿( ) ( ℏ π) 2
3 1
ℏ 2 2
∙
mω

1 √π
¿(
mω π) 2
) (
3 1
ℏ 2 2

1 √π
mω √π) 2
(
¿( )
3
ℏ 2

( ) 12
3
ℏ
¿ 2
mω

¿ (
2 m ω)
3
1 ℏ 2

( )
3 1
1 ℏ
¿ 2
2 ( m ω )3
3 /2
1 ℏ
¿
2 ( mω )3/ 2

¿ √ ℏ3
2 √ ( m ω)
3

ℏ
¿
2 √ m3 ω3
ℏ
¿
2m ω
Now, the average value of ¿ p2 >¿ is given by:

( )
2
2 ℏ d
¿ p >¿ ψ 0 ψ 0 dx
i dx

( ( ) ) √
2
∞ −ξ 2
mω d ℏ
¿∫ α e
2
2
−ℏ2 α e−ξ /2 dξ
−∞ ℏ d ξ2 mω

√
∞
mω
∫ ( ξ2−1 ) e−ξ d ξ
2
2 2
¿−α ℏ
ℏ −∞
¿−α 2 ℏ2
√ mω
ℏ ( √2π − √ π )
( )
1
mω 4
Since =α :
ℏπ

( √ ) √ mωℏ ( √2π )
1
mω
¿ ℏ2 2
πℏ
mωℏ
¿
2
For n=1:
2

ψ 1=√ 2 αξ e−ξ /2

x=
√ ℏ
mω
ξ

dx=
√ ℏ
mω
dξ

( )
1
mω 4
=α
ℏπ

Similarly, the results ¿ x >¿, ¿ p>¿ for ψ 1 will be zero. Let’s calculate now the others:
∞

∫ x 2 ξ2 e−ξ dx
2
2 2
¿ x >¿2α
−∞

√
∞

∫ ( mω )ξ e
ℏ 4 −ξ ℏ
2
2
¿2α dξ
−∞ mω

( ) ∙ 34 √ π
3/ 2
2 ℏ
¿α
mω

¿ 2(
π ℏ mω mω ) 4
) ( ) (
1 1
mω ℏ ℏ 3
2
∙ √π 2

¿ (
2 mω )
3 ℏ

3ℏ
¿
2mω
And:

( )
2
2 ℏ d
¿ p >¿ ψ 0 ψ 0 dx
i dx
 ( ( ) ) √
2
∞ −ξ 2
mω d ℏ
¿ ∫ √2 α ξ e
2
2
−ℏ2 √ 2 α ξ e−ξ /2 dξ
−∞ ℏ d ξ2 mω

√
∞
mω
∫ ξ ( ξ −3 ξ ) e dξ
2
2 2 3 −ξ
¿2ℏ α
ℏ −∞

¿−2ℏ 2 α 2
√ mω 3
ℏ 4
3
√π − √π
2 ( )
( ) √ mωℏ ( 34 √ π− 32 √ π )
1
mω
¿−2ℏ 2 2
πℏ

πℏ √ ℏ ( 4 )
¿−2ℏ ( )
mω mω −3 √ π
2
1
2

√
2 2 2
3ℏ m ω
¿−
2 πℏ
2

3 ℏ 2 mω
¿−
2 √πℏ
2
3ℏ mω
¿−
2√ π ℏ
3 ℏm ω √π
¿− ∙
2 √π √π
3 ℏm ω√π
¿−
2π
3 ℏm ω√π
¿−
2π
3 mωℏ
¿
2

b)
n=0:

σ x =√ ¿ x 2>−¿ x ¿2

¿ (√ 2 mω
ℏ
)−0
σ x=
√ ℏ
2m ω

σ p=√ ¿ p 2>−¿ p ¿ 2
¿
√ mωℏ
2
−0

σ p=
√ mω ℏ
2
Thus:

σ x σ p= (√ 2 mℏω )( √ mω2 ℏ )
ℏ
¿
2
Right at the uncertainty limit.
n=1:

σ x=
√ 3ℏ
2m ω
−( 0 )
2

σ x=
√ 3ℏ
2m ω

σ p=
√ 3ℏm ω
2
−0

σ p=
√ 3ℏm ω
2
Hence:

σ x σ p= (√ 23mℏω )( √ 3 ℏ2m ω )
Using this property √ a ∙ √ b=√ ab :

¿
√ 3 ℏ 3ℏ mω
2mω
∙
2

¿
√ 9ℏ 2 m ω
4mω

¿
√ 9ℏ 2
4
3ℏ
¿
2
3ℏ ℏ
¿ >
2 2
Therefore, this follows the uncertainty principle.
 c)
n=0:
For the ground state ψ 0, the kinetic energy of the harmonic oscillator is given by:

¿ T > ¿ ¿ p 2> ¿ ¿
2m
m ωℏ
¿T>¿
4m
1
¿ ℏω
4
1
Therefore, the average kinetic energy of the harmonic oscillator in its ground state is ℏω.
4
The average potential energy of the harmonic oscillator in its ground state is given by:
1 2 2
¿ V >¿ m ω < x > ¿
2
1
¿ mω
2
2 ℏ
2 mω ( )
1
¿ ℏω
4
1
Therefore, the average potential energy of the harmonic oscillator in its ground state is ℏ ω.
4
n=1:

For the first excited state ψ 1, the kinetic energy of the harmonic oscillator is given by:

¿ T > ¿ ¿ p 2> ¿ ¿
2m
3ℏ mω
¿
4m
3
¿ ℏω
4
3
Therefore, the average kinetic energy of the harmonic oscillator in its first excited state is ℏ ω.
4
The average potential energy of the harmonic oscillator in its first excited state is given by:
1 2 2
¿ V >¿ m ω < x > ¿
2
1
¿ V >¿ m ω
2
2 3ℏ
2 mω ( )
 3
¿ ℏω
4
Therefore, the average potential energy of the harmonic oscillator in its first excited state is
3
ℏ ω.
4
n=0:
The sum of the kinetic and potential energies of the harmonic oscillator in its ground state is
given by:
¿ H >¿<T >+¿ V >¿

¿ H >¿ ( 14 + 14 )ℏ ω
1
¿ ℏω
2
n=1:
The sum of the kinetic and potential energies of the harmonic oscillator in its first excited
state is given by:
¿ E1 >¿< T >+¿ V > ¿

¿ E1 >¿ ( 34 + 34 )ℏ ω
3
¿ ℏω
2
This is what we expect from the energy eigenvalue formula for a harmonic oscillator:

( 12 )ℏ ω
En = n+

So, this is as expected.

Problem 2.12
Solution:
From Eq. 2.70:

x=
√ ℏ
2m ω
¿

p=i
√ ℏm ω
2
¿

So:
¿ x >¿∫ ψ n x ψ n dx
¿

¿ x >¿
√ ℏ
2mω
∫ ψ ¿n ¿ ¿
But (Eq. 2.67 ):

a +¿ψ =√n +1 ψ
n n+ 1 ¿

a−¿ψ =√ nψ
n n−1 ¿

So:

¿ x>
√ ℏ
2mω
¿

¿ x >¿
√ ℏ
2mω
[ √n+ 1∫ ψ ¿n ψ n+1 dx+ √ n∫ ψ ¿n ψ n−1 dx ]
¿0
Because of orthogonality.
It means that inner product between the 2 different wave functions is zero:

¿ ψ n∨ψ m > ¿∫ ψ n ψ m dx=0

¿

If these wavefunctions are orthogonal:

∫ ψ ¿n ψ m dx=0
In this case, the wavefunctions ψ n (x ) and ψ n+ 1(x ) correspond to different eigenstates (i.e., n ≠ n+1),
and thus, they are orthogonal to each other. But that doesn’t mean that if we have different wave
functions that they are orthogonal. It applies when dealing with functions corresponding to different
energy eigenstates of a system.
So, this is an important property of wavefunctions in the context of energy eigenstates!
Now:

¿ p>¿ m d < x> ¿ ¿

dt
¿0
2 ℏ
x= ¿¿
2m ω
So:
ℏ
2
¿ x >¿
2mω
∫ ¿
ψn ¿ ¿

But:
a +¿ ψ =a
2
+ ¿¿ ¿ ¿
n
¿ a+ ¿ ( √n +1ψ )¿
n+ 1

¿ √ n+1 √ n+2ψ n+2

¿ √ (n+ 1)(n+2)ψ n+2

And:
a−¿ ψ =a
2
−¿¿ ¿ ¿
n

¿√¿¿
And:
a +¿a −¿ ψ n=¿¿ ¿

¿ a+ ¿ ( √n ψ )= √ n(n)ψ n ¿
n−1

And:
a−¿a + ¿ψ n =a( √n+ 1 ψn+ 1 )¿
¿

¿ √ (n+ 1)(n+1)ψ n

¿(n+1)ψ n
Thus:
ℏ
2
¿ x >¿
2mω
∫ ¿
ψn ¿ ¿

Using the orthonormality condition of a wave function:

∫ ψ ¿n ( x ) ψ n ' ( x ) dx=δ (n−n' )

And the property of the Dirac delta function:
1 for n=n'
δ ( n−n ) ={
'
0 for n≠ n '
So:

∫ ψ ¿n ( x ) ψ n +2=¿ ∫ ψ ¿n ( x ) ψ n−2 ¿
¿0
And:

∫ ψ ¿n ( x ) ψ n dx=1
ℏ
2
¿ x >¿
2mω
[ √( n+1 )( n+2 ) ∙ 0+√ n ( n−1 ) ∙ 0+n ∙ 1+ ( n+1 ) ∙1 ]
ℏ
¿ ( n+n+1 )
2m ω
¿ x 2> ¿( 2 n+1
2 )2mω
ℏ

¿ x > ¿ (n+ )
2 1 ℏ
2 mω
Now:

2 −ℏ m ω
p= ¿¿
2
ℏm ω
¿− ¿
2
2 ℏm ω
¿ p >¿− [0−n−( n+1 ) +0]
2
ℏm ω
¿ ( 2 n+1 )
2

¿ n+( 12 ) mℏ ω
Now:

¿ T > ¿ ¿ p 2> ¿ ¿
2m

¿ ( )
1
2m
1
n+ mℏ ω
2

¿ ( n+ )ℏ ω
1 1
2 2

Now:

σ x =√ ¿ x 2>−¿ x ¿2

¿ (√ n+ 12 ) mℏω
σ p=√ ¿ p 2>−¿ p ¿ 2

¿ (√ n+ 12 )m ω ℏ
Then:

σ x σ p=(√ n+ 12 ) mℏω ∙(n+ 12 ) mω ℏ

¿ ℏ ( n+ )
1
2
 ℏ
¿
2
So, it follows the uncertainty principle.

Problem 2.13
Solution:
a)
The given wave function in the harmonic oscillator potential is as follows:

ψ ( x , 0 ) =A [ 3ψ 0 ( x ) +4 ψ 1 ( x ) ]

I use normalization condition to determine the value of A :

∫|ψ ( x , 0 )| dx=1
2

| A| [ 9∫ |ψ ( x , 0 )| dx +16∫|ψ ( x , 0 )| dx +12∫ ψ ¿0 ψ 1 ( x ) dx +12∫ ψ ¿1 ( x ) ψ 0 ( x ) dx ]=1

2 2 2

¿| A| ∫ ( 9|ψ 0| +12 ψ 0 ψ 1 +12ψ 1 ψ 0 +16|ψ 1| ) dx

2 2 ¿ ¿ 2

Using orthonormality, the integrals ∫ ψ 0 ψ 1 ( x ) dx and ∫ ψ 1 ( x ) ψ 0 ( x ) dx are equal to zero and above
¿ ¿

equation can be rewritten as follows:

2
| A| [ 9+ 9+0+16 ] =1
2
¿ 25| A|
1
A=
5
1
Thus, the value of A is .
5
b)
The wave function for different states in a harmonic oscillator is given by the following expression:
− En t /ℏ
ψ n ( x , t )=ψ n ( x ) e
Using the above expression, the wavefunction for given harmonic oscillator is rewritten as follows:

[ ]
−E 0 t − E1 t

ψ ( x , t )= A 3 ψ 0 ( x ) e ℏ
+4 ψ 1 ( x ) e ℏ

The energy of different states in a harmonic oscillator is given by the following expression:

En = n+ ( 12 )ℏ ω
Using above expression for energy, the energy for ground state (n=0) is given as follows:
E0 = 0+ ( 12 )ℏ ω
ℏω
¿
2
And energy of first excited state (n=1) is given as follows:

E1= 1+ ( 12 ) ℏ ω
3
¿ ℏω
2
Thus:

[ ]
−iωt −3 iωt
2 2
ψ ( x , t )= A 3 ψ 0 ( x ) e + 4 ψ1 (x ) e

[ ]
−iωt −3 iωt
1 2 2
¿ 3 ψ0 (x ) e + 4 ψ1 ( x) e
5
Now:

[ ( )]
2
1 2
2
()
|ψ ( x , t )| = ∨ 3 ψ 0 ( x ) cos
5
ωt
2
−i 3 ψ 0 ( x ) sin( )
ωt
2
+ 4 ψ 1 ( x ) cos
3 ωt
2 ( )
−i 4 ψ 1 ( x ) sin
3 ωt
2
| ( )
1
¿ ∨¿ ¿
25

{[ ( )] [ ( )] }
2 2

¿
1
25
3 ψ 0 ( x ) cos
ωt
2 ( )
+4 ψ 1 ( x ) cos
3 ωt
2
2
−i 3 ψ 0 ( x ) sin ( )
ωt
2
+ 4 ψ 1 ( x ) sin
3 ωt
2

Since i 2=−1:

{[ ( )] [ ( )] }
2 2

¿
1
25
3 ψ 0 ( x ) cos
ωt
2 ( )
+4 ψ 1 ( x ) cos
3 ωt
2
+ 3 ψ 0 ( x ) sin ( )
ωt
2
+ 4 ψ 1 ( x ) sin
3 ωt
2

Now using ( a+ b )2=a2+ b2 +2 ab:

2
|ψ ( x , t )| = 25
1
{ 9 ψ 0 ( x ) cos
2
( ωt2 )+ 16 ψ ( x ) cos ( 32ωt )+24 ψ ( x ) ψ ( x ) cos ( 32ωt ) cos( ωt2 )+ 9ψ ( x ) sin ( ωt2 )+16
1
2
0 1 0
2

Since sin2 θ+cos 2 θ=1 and sin A sin B+cos A cos B=cos( A−B):

|ψ ( x , t )| =
2 1
25 [
9ψ 0 ( x ) +16 ψ 21 ( x ) +24 ψ 0 ( x ) ψ 1 ( x ) cos
3 ωt ωt
2
−
x ( )]
1
¿
25
[ 9 ψ 0 ( x )+ 16 ψ 1 ( x ) +24 ψ 0 ( x ) ψ 1 ( x ) cos ( ωt ) ]
2

Thus:
 1
[ 9ψ 0 +16 ψ 1 +24 ψ 0 ψ 1 cos ( ωt ) ]
2
|ψ ( x , t )| = 2
25

(With ψ in place of ψ , the frequency would be E −E

2
=[ ( ) ℏω−
15 ( 2)
1
ℏω
=2 ω]
) 2 1
ℏ 2 2
c)
∞
¿ x >¿ ∫ x |ψ ( x , t )| dx
2

−∞

1
¿ x >¿
25
[ 9 ∫ x ψ 0 dx +16 ∫ x ψ 1 dx +24 cos ( ωt )∫ x ψ 0 ψ 1 dx ]
2 2

For harmonic oscillator potential:

( )
1 /2
mω
ψ 0 ( x )=
πℏ
And:

√
−imω 2

( )
1 /4
mω 2mω 2ℏ
x
ψ1 (x )= xe
πℏ ℏ

But ∫ x ψ 0 dx=∫ x ψ 1 dx=0 , so:

2 2

√ √
−mω 2 −mω 2
mω 2 mω x x
¿
πℏ ℏ
∫xe 2ℏ
xe 2ℏ
dx

√ ( )∫
∞ −mω 2
2 mω 2 2ℏ
x
¿ x e dx
π ℏ −∞

Since:

∫ x 2 e−a x dx
2

Using Gaussian integral technique:

∞

∫ e−x dx =√ π
2

−∞

∫ x 2 e−a x dx
2

2
u=x
du=2 x dx
2 u
x=
2
∞
1
∫x dx= ∫ e du
2
2 −a x −au
e
2 −∞
 ∞
1 1 √π
∫
2 −∞
−au
e du= ∙
2 √a

¿ √π
2√ a

¿ √π
2 a3/ 2
So:

√ (√ )
3

¿
2 mω
π ℏ ( )
2 √π 2
1 ℏ
2 mω

¿
√ ℏ
2 mω
So:

¿ x >¿
24
√
ℏ
25 2mω
cos ( ωt )

Then:
d
¿ p>¿ m < x> ¿
dt

¿m ( √
d 24 ℏ
dt 25 2mω
cos ( ωt ) )
¿−
25 √
24 mωℏ
2
sin ( ωt )

If ψ 2 (x) is taken instead of ψ 1 (x) , the only change is the frequency:

E 2−E0
v=
ℏ

E2= 2+ ( 12 ) ℏ ω
5
¿ ℏω
2
And ground state energy is:

E0 = 0+ ( 12 )ℏ ω
ℏω
¿
2
v=
5
2 () ()
ℏω−
1
2
ℏω

ℏ
¿2ω
From Ehrenfest’s theorem, we have the following equation:
∂v
d < p> ¿ =−¿ >¿ ¿
dt ∂x

d
d < p> ¿ = −
dt dt
24
25 ( √ 2 sin ( ωt )) ¿
( ) ℏ ωm

¿− ( 2425 ) √ mω2 ℏ ω cos ( ωt )

1 2 2
V = mω x
2
∂V 2
=mω x
∂x
So:
∂V 2
−¿ >¿−m ω < x >¿
∂x

¿−m ω2
24 ℏ
25 2 mω√cos ( ωt )

¿−
24 24 ℏm ω
25 25 2 √ω cos ( ωt )

So, Ehrenfest’s theorem holds.

d)
1
ψ ( x )=
5
[ 3 ψ 0 ( x ) +4 ψ 1 ( x ) ]
3 4
¿ ψ 0 ( x )+ ψ 1 ( x )
5 5
ℏω
E0 =
2
3ℏω
E 1=
2
ℏω 3ℏ ω
Thus, the energies of the particle are and .
2 2
The probabilities are given as follows:
 ()
2
2 3
|c0| = 5
9
¿
25
And:

()
2
2 4
|c1| = 5
16
¿
25
9 16
Thus, the probabilities are and .
25 25

Problem 2.14
Solution:

( )
1 /4
mω 2
−ξ / 2
ψ 0= e
πℏ
So:
2
P=|ψ 0| dx

√
∞
mω
∫ e−ξ dx
2

¿2
πℏ x 0

2
(factor 2 is because of symmetry, e−ξ is symmetric about the origin)
∞

∫ e−ξ d ξ= √2π
2

We need to normalize it:

∞

∫ |ψ 0| dx =1
2

−∞

√
−mω 2

( )
1 /4
mω mω 2ℏ
x
ψ 0= e
πℏ πℏ

√ √
∞
mω ℏ
∫
2
−ξ
P=2 e dξ
π ℏ mω ξ 0

Classically allowed region extends out to:

1 2 2 1
m ω x 0 =E0= ℏ ω
2 2
Or:

x 0=
√ ℏ
mω
So:
ξ 0=1
∞
2
∫
2
−ξ
P= e dξ
√π 1
¿2¿
(In notation of CRC Table)
¿ 0.157

Problem 2.15
Solution:
We have to use this equation:

−2(n− j)
a j+ 2= a
( j+1)( j+2) j
For fixed n=5:

j=1:
−2(5−1) −4
a 3= a1 = a
(1+1)(1+ 2) 3 1
j=3:
−2(5−3) −1 4
a 5= a3 = a3 = a1
(3+1)(3+2) 5 15
j=5:
−2 (5−5)
a 7= a =0
(5+1)(5+2) 5
Therefore, we have:
4 3 4 5
H 5 ( ξ )=a1 ξ− a 1 ξ + a1 ξ
3 15
Thus:
a1
H 5 ( ξ )= ( 15 ξ−20 ξ 3 +4 ξ5 )
15
In Hermite polynomial series, the coefficient of ξ k is typically proportional to 2k . Thus, by
convention, the coefficient of ξ 5 is taken to be 25. Therefore:

4 a1 5
=2
15
a 1=120
Then, the required coefficient becomes:
3 5
H 5 ( ξ )=120 ξ−160 ξ + 32ξ
Which agrees with Table 2.1.
Now, for fixed n=6:

j=0:
−2(5−0)
a 2= a =−6 a0
(0+1)(0+2) 0
j=2:
−2(5−2) −2
a 4= a 2= a =4 a0
(2+ 1)(2+2) 3 2
j=4 :
−2(5−4) −2 −8
a 6= a= a= a
(4+1)(4 +2) 4 15 4 15 0
j=6:
−2(5−6)
a 8= a =0
(6+ 1)(6+ 2) 6
Therefore, we have:

2 4 8 6
H 6 ( ξ )=a 0−6 a 0 ξ +4 a0 ξ − ξ a0
15
The coefficient of ξ 6 is 26 so:

6 −8
2= a
15 0
a 0=−15 ∙ 8

¿−120
Thus:
2 4 6
H 6 ( ξ )=−120+720 ξ −480 ξ +64 ξ

Problem 2.16
Solution:
a)
Rodriguez formula is:

( )
n
n ξ 2
d −ξ
2

H n ( ξ )=(−1 ) e e
dξ
For n=3:

( )
3
ξ
2
d −ξ
2

H 3 ( ξ )=−e e
dξ
And for n=4 :

( )
4
ξ
2
d −ξ
2

H 4 ( ξ )=e e
dξ
So:
d −ξ
( e )=−2 ξ e−ξ
2 2

dξ

( )
2
d ( e−ξ ) =−2 [ ξ e−ξ (−2 ξ ) + e−ξ ]
2 2 2

dξ

¿−2 e−ξ (−2 ξ 2+1 )

2

¿ e−ξ (−2+ 4 ξ 2 )
2

( ) (e
3
d −ξ
2

)= d [ (−2+ 4 ξ 2 ) e−ξ ]
2

dξ dξ

¿ [ ( 8 ξ ) + (−2+ 4 ξ ) (−2 ξ ) ] e
2
2 −ξ

¿ [ 8 ξ +4 ξ−8 ξ 3 ] e−ξ
2

¿ [ 12 ξ−8 ξ 3 ] e−ξ
2

( )
4
d ( e−ξ ) =e−ξ [ 12−24 ξ 2 ]+ e−ξ (−2 ξ ) ( 12 ξ−8 ξ 3 )
2 2 2

dξ

¿ e−ξ ( 12−48 ξ 2 +16 ξ 4 )

2

So:
3
H 3 ( ξ )=−12 ξ+ 8 ξ

H 4 ( ξ )=+ eξ ξ−ξ ( 12−48 ξ 2+16 ξ 4 )

2 2

2 4
H 4 ( ξ )=12−48 ξ +16 ξ
b)
H n +1 ( ξ )=2 ξ H n ( ξ )−2n H n−1 (ξ )

H 5 ( ξ )=2 ξ H 4 −8 H 3

¿ 2 ξ ( 12−48 ξ 2 +16 ξ 4 )−8 (−12 ξ+8 ξ 3 )

3 5
H 5 ( ξ )=120 ξ−160 ξ + 32ξ
And:

H 6 ( ξ )=2 ξ H 5 −10 H 4

¿ 2 ξ ( 120 ξ−160 ξ 3 +32 ξ 5 )−10 ( 12−48 ξ 2+16 ξ 4 )

2 4 6
H 6 ( ξ )=−120+720 ξ −480 ξ +64 ξ
c)
d H5 2 4
=120−480 ξ +160 ξ
dξ

¿ 10 ( 12−48 ξ 2+16 ξ 4 )
¿ ( 2) ( 5) H 4

d H5
=10 H 4
dξ
And:
d H6 3 5
=1440 ξ−1920 ξ +384 ξ
dξ

¿ 12 ( 120 ξ−160 ξ 3+32 ξ 5 )

¿ ( 2) ( 6) H 5

d H6
=12 H 5
dξ
d)
Rodrigues formula is:

( )
n
n 2
ξ d −ξ
2

H n ( ξ )=(−1 ) e e
dξ
For n=0:

( )
0
0 2
ξ d −ξ
2

H 0 ( ξ )=(−1 ) e e
dξ
¿1
d −z +2 zξ
(e ) =(−2 z+2 ξ ) e−z +2 zξ
2 2

dz
Setting z=0 :

H 1 ( ξ )=2 ξ
2
d ( −z +2 zξ ) d (
= [ −2 z+2 ξ ) e ]
2 2
−z +2 zξ
2
e
dz dt

¿ [−2+ (−2 z +2 ξ )2 ] e− z +2 zξ
2

Setting z=0 :
2
H 2 ( ξ )=−2+4 ξ
3
d ( −z +2 zξ ) d
= { [−2+ (−2 z+2 ξ ) ] e }
2 2
2 −z +2 zξ
3
e
dz dz

¿ { 2 (−2 z +2 ξ ) (−2 ) + [−2+ (−2 z +2 ξ ) ] (−2 z+ 2 ξ ) } e

2 −z2+ 2 zξ

Setting z=0 :

H 3 ( ξ )=−8 ξ + (−2+ 4 ξ 2 ) (2 ξ )
3
H 3 ( ξ )=−12 ξ+ 8 ξ

Problem 2.17
Solution:

The exponential e ikx can be expressed as:

ikx
e =cos kx +i sin kx
And:
−ikx
e =cos kx−i sin kx
Now we consider the expression:
ikx −ikx
A e +B e =¿
¿ A ( cos kx+i sin kx ) + B ( cos kx−isin kx )
¿ ( A+ B ) cos kx −i ( A−B ) sin kx
¿ C cos kx + D sin kx
C= A+ B
D=i ( A−B )

( ) ( )
ikx −ikx ikx −ikx
e +e e −e
C cos kx + D sin kx=C +D
2 2i
 1 ikx 1 −ikx
¿ ( C−iD ) e + ( C +iD ) e
2 2
ikx −ikx
¿ A e +B e
With:
1
A= (C−iD)
2
1
B= ( C +iD )
2

Problem 2.18
Solution:
Equation 2.95 says:

( )
2
ℏk
i kx− t
2m
ψ= A e

( )
2
ℏk
−i kx− t
¿ 2m
ψ =A e
The probability current is given as:

( )
¿
iℏ ∂ψ ¿ ∂ψ
J= ψ −ψ
2m ∂x ∂x

[ (Ae ( )) ( −i ( kx−
2m )
)(
−i ( kx−
2m ) ∂
i ( kx−
) (
2m )
)]
ℏk 2 ℏk 2 ℏk 2 ℏk 2
iℏ i kx−
2m
t
∂ t t t
¿ Ae − Ae Ae
2m ∂x ∂x

[
2 ( 2m ) ∂
−i ( kx−
2m )
−i ( kx −
(
2m ) ∂
i ( kx−
2m )
) ( )]
ℏk 2 ℏk 2 ℏ k2 ℏk 2
iℏ i kx− t t
2
t t
¿ |A| e e −| A| e e
2m ∂x ∂x

[
iℏ| A| i(kx− 2 m t ) −i(kx− 2 m t ) −i ( kx−
2m ) ( 2m )
]
2 2 2 2
2 ℏk ℏk ℏk ℏk
t i kx− t
¿ e e (−ik )−e e (ik)
2m
2
iℏ| A|
¿ (−ik−ik )
2m
2
iℏ| A|
J= (−2 ik )
2m
2
−2i 2 kℏ| A|
¿
2m
ℏk 2
¿ | A|
m
The positive value of probability current implies that the flow is in the positive direction (since we
have + k ). It flows in the positive (x ) direction as we would expect.

ℏk 2
Hence, the probability current is | A| and it flows in the positive direction.
m

Problem 2.19
Solution:
a)
We have:

( ( ) ( ))
∞
nπx 2 πx
f ( x )=∑ an sin +b n cos
n=0 a a

( ) ( )
∞ ∞
nπx nπx
f ( x )=a0 sin ( 0 ) + ∑ a n sin +b0 cos ( 0 )+ ∑ bn cos
n=1 a n=1 a

( ) ( )
∞ ∞
nπx nπx
¿ 0+ ∑ an sin +b 0+ ∑ bn cos
n =1 a n=1 a

( ) ( )
−inπx
∞
an inπx ∞
b inπx −inπx
¿ b 0+ ∑ e a −e a + ∑ n e a −e a
n=1 2 i n=1 2

( an bn inπx
)
−a n bn −inπx
( )
∞ ∞
¿ b 0+ ∑ + e +∑
a
+ e a
n=1 2i 2 n=1 2i 2

Let C 0=b 0:

1
2
(−i a n+ bn ) for n=1 , 2 ,3 , …
C n={
1
( i a−n+ b−n ) for n=−1 ,−2 ,−3 , …
2
+∞ inπx
f ( x )= ∑ Cn e a

n=−∞

b)
+∞ inπx
( x )= ∑ Cne a

n=−∞

a −inπx

∫ f (x ) e a
dx
−a

+∞ a inπx −inπx
¿ ∑ Cn ∫ e a
e a
dx
n=−∞ −a

For n ≠ m:
a nπ
i(n−m )
∫e a
dx=¿ ¿
−a

[e ]
nπ +a
i ( n−m )
a
−a
¿
[(
i n−m )
π
a ]
i (n−m)π −i (n −m )π
e −e
¿
( i ( n−m) π
a )
cos ( n−m ) π +i sin ( n−m ) π −cos ( n−−m ) π + isin ( n−m ) π
¿
( i ( n−ma ) π )
(−1 )n−m +0− (−1 )n−m+ 0
¿
i ( n−m ) π
a
a nπ
i(n−m )
∫e a
dx=¿ 0 ¿
−a

Whereas for n=m:

a nπ a
i ( n−m )
∫e a
dx=∫ dx
−a −a

a
¿ [ x ]−a

¿ a−(−a)
¿2a
So, the term which survives in summation is for n=m only:
a −inπx
2 a C m=∫ f (x )e a

−a

So, for n=m:

a −inπx
1
C n= ∫ f (x)e
2 a −a
a
dx

c)
From part (a ), we have:
+∞ −inπx
f ( x )= ∑ Cn e a

n=−∞

And from part (b ) we have:

 a −inπx
1
C n= ∫ f ( x ) e a
dx
2 a −a
The given new variables are:
nπ
k=
a
And:

F ( k )=
√ 2
π
a Cn

C n=
1 π
a 2 √
F(k )

√
+∞
1 π
f ( x )= ∑ a 2
F ( k ) eikx ∆ k
n=−∞

π
Where ∆ k= .
a
From:

F ( k )=
√ π
a
a Cn

√
a
2 1
¿
π
∙a∙ ∫
2 a −a
−ikx
f ( x ) e dx

a
1
¿ ∫
√2 π −a
−ikx
f ( x ) e dx

d)
As a → ∞ , k becomes a continuous variable. So, summation is replaced by integration in the
expression for f (x) :
+∞
1
f ( x )= ∫
√ 2 π −∞
−ikx
f ( k ) e dk

And the expression for F (k ) is the same, with limits extending to ∞ on both sides:
+∞
1
F ( k )= ∫
√2 π −∞
−ikx
f ( x ) e dx

Problem 2.20
Solution:
a)
The normalization condition is given by:
∞

∫ |ψ ( x ,0 )| dx=1
2

−∞

∫ ¿¿¿
−∞

×
¿ A∫ ¿¿
−∞

The function e−a∨ x∨¿ ¿ is an even function. Thus, the above integral can be rewritten as follows:
∞
A
2
∫ 2 e−2ax dx=1
0

( )
−2 ax ∞
e 2
2A =1
−2 a 0
2
−A −2 ax ∞
( e )0 =1
a
2
−A ( −∞ 0 )
e −e =1
a
2
−A
( 0−1 )=1
a
2
A
=1
a
A=√ a
Thus, the normalized wavefunction is ψ ( x , 0 ) =√ a e−a∨x∨¿¿ .

b)
+∞
1
φ ( k )= ∫
√2 π −∞
−ikx
ψ ( x , 0 ) e dx

+∞
1
∫
−ikx

( k )= √ a e−a∨x∨¿e dx
¿
√2 π −∞
+∞
√ a e−a∨x∨¿ [ cos kx−isin kx ] dx ¿
¿ ∫
√2 π −∞

¿ √a ¿
√2 π
Cosine function is even function and sine function is odd function. Thus, in the above integration sine
term vanish out and integration for cosine function is written as follows:
 √ (∫ )
∞
a
φ ( k )= e−a|x|cos kx dx−0
2π −∞

√ ( ( ) dx )
∞ ikx −ikx
a −ax e + e
¿ 2∫ e
2π 0 2

√
∞
a
¿ ∫
2π 0
e ( e +e ) dx
−ax ikx −ikx

√
∞
a ( −(−ik +a ) x −(ik +a ) x )
¿ ∫e
2π 0
+e dx

√ [( ) ( )]
( ) ∞ ( ) ∞
a e− −ik +a x e− ik +a x
¿ +
2π −(−ik +a) 0 −(ik +a) 0

¿
√ (
a 1
2 π ik−a )
( e−∞ −e 0 )− 1 ( e−∞−e 0 )
( ik+ a )

¿
√ a
(
2 π ik−a
1
( 0−1 )− 1 ( 0−1 )
( ik+ a ) )
φ ( k )=
√ 2 π (
a −1
ik−a
+
( ik+ a ) )
1

¿
√ ( )
a − (ik +a )+ ( ik−a )
2 π ( ik−a )( ik +a )

¿
√ ( 2π )
a ik−a+ik−a
( ik )2−a 2

√ ( )
φ ( k )=
a −2 a
2 π −k 2−a2

¿
√ ( )a 2a
2 π k + a2
2

√ ( )
φ ( k )=
2a a
π k + a2
2

c)

i ( kx−
2m )
2
+∞ ℏk
1 t
ψ ( x , t )= ∫
√2 π −∞
φ (k ) e dk

i ( kx−
2m )
( √ ( ))
2
+∞ ℏk
1 2a a t
ψ ( x , t )= ∫
√2 π −∞ π k 2+ a2
e dk
 i ( kx−
2m )

√ ( )
2
+∞ ℏk
a 2a 1 t
¿
√2 π
∫ 2
π −∞ k +a 2
e dk

i ( kx−
2m )
2
3 /2 +∞ ℏk
a
( 1
)
t
¿
π
∫ k 2 + a2
e dk
−∞

d)

For a large a , ψ (x , 0) is a sharp narrow spike, whereas φ ( k )=

well-defined but momentum is ill-defined.

√ 2 a is broad and flat. The position is
π

√
3
2a
For a small a , ψ (x , 0) Is broad and flat, whereas π is a sharp narrow spike. The position
φ ( k )= 2
k
is ill-defined and momentum is well-defined.

Problem 2.21
Solution:
The wave function is:
2

ψ ( x , 0 ) =A e−a x
a)
Normalization condition:
+∞

∫ A e−a x A e−a x dx=1

2 2

−∞

+∞

∫ e−2 a x dx=1
2 2

| A|
−∞

Using the standard integral:

√
+∞
π
∫ e−a x dx =
2

−∞ a

| A|
2

√ π
2a
=1

( )
1/4
2a
A=
π
b)
The wave function in the coordinate space is given by:
 ∞
1
ψ ( x , t )= ∫
√2 π −∞
φ (k ) e
i ( kx−wt )
dx

2
ℏk
Here, ω= .
2m
The wavefunction in the momentum space is given by:
∞
1
φ ( k )= ∫
√2 π −∞
−ikx
ψ ( x , 0 ) e dx

∞
1
A ∫ e e dx
2
−a x −ikx
φ ( k )=
√2 π −∞
∞
1
A∫ e
2
−(a x +ikx)
¿ dx
√ 2 π −∞

Let b=ik :
∞
1
A∫e
2
−(a x +bx )
φ ( k )= dx
√2 π −∞
Now, following the hint given in the question leads to:
2
∞ ∞ b
− y 2+
1
∫e dx= ∫ e
2
−(a x +bx ) 4a
dy
−∞ −∞ √a
2
b ∞
1 4a
e ∫ e− y dy
2

¿
√ a −∞
2
b
1 4a
¿ e √π
√a

√
2
b
π 4a
¿ e
a
∞
1
A∫e
2
−(a x +bx )
φ ( k )= dx
√ 2 π −∞

√
2
k

( )
1/ 4
2a 1 π 4a
φ ( k )= e
π √2 π a
2
k

( )
1 /2
1 4a
¿ e
√ 2 aπ
2
−k
1
¿ 1/ 4
e 4a
( 2 aπ )
∞
1
ψ ( x , t )= ∫
√2 π −∞
φ (k ) e
i ( kx−wt )
dx
 i ( kx−
2m )
2
∞ −k 2 ℏk
1 1 t
1/ 4 ∫
ψ ( x , t )= e 4a e dk
√2 π ( 2 aπ ) −∞

¿
1 1
∫ e
−(
4a 2m)
+ ∞
k −(ikx)
dk
[ 1 i ℏt 2
]
√2 π ( 2 aπ )1/ 4 −∞
[ ]
2 −1
−x 1 ikt

¿
1 1 √π e 4
+
4a 2m

√2 π ( 2 aπ )1/ 4
( 1 ikt
+
4a 2m )
2

( ) e−a x /(1+2 i ℏat /m )

1/ 4
2a
¿

√
π 2 i ℏat
1+
m
Thus, the stationary state is:
2

( ) e−a x /(1+2 i ℏat /m )

1/ 4
2a
ψ ( x , t )=

√
π 2i ℏat
1+
m
c)
The probability density of the wave function is given by:
2

( ) e−2 a x /(1 +2i ℏ at/ m)

1/ 2
|ψ ( x , t )| = 2 a
2

π 2 iℏ at
1+
m
2 ℏat
Let θ= :
m
2
2 −a x
−a x (1−iθ)
e

√
(1+iθ)
2 2a e
|ψ ( x , t )| =
π √ (1+iθ) √ (1−iθ )

2 [ 1−iθ +1+iθ ]
2 2
−a x ax
− =−a x 2
1+ iθ 1−iθ 1+θ
2
−2 a x
¿ 2
1+θ
2
−2 a x

√
2
1+ θ
2 2a e
|ψ| =
π √ 1+θ2

√(
a
ω=
)
2
Consider 2ℏ at :
1+
m
ω=
√ a
1+θ 2

√ 2 a −2 x ω ω 2 2

c= e
π √a

√ 2 2 2

¿ ω e−2 x ω
π
2
As t increases, the graph of |ψ| flattens out and broadens:

So when t=0 , the wave function corresponds to initial state, typically ground state. The peak is sharp,
indicating well-defined position for the particle. As time progresses (t >0), the wave function spreads
out, leading to broader and lower peak.
d)
The expectation value of x is given by:
+∞
¿ x >¿ ∫ x |ψ| dx
2

−∞

√
+∞
2
¿∫ x
2 2
−2 x ω
ωe dx
−∞ π
The integrand is odd and hence, it becomes zero.
Therefore, the average value of x is ¿ x >¿ 0.

(√ )
+∞ 2
2
¿ x 2> ¿ ∫ x 2
2 2

ω e−2 x ω dx
−∞ π
2 ∞
2ω
∫ x2 e−4 x ω dx
2 2

¿
π −∞

2 2
u=2 x ω
2
du=4 x ω dx
2 1
x dx= 2
du
4ω

¿
√ 2
ω
1 π
π 4 ω 2 2 ω2 √
 1
¿ 2
4ω
And:

¿ p>¿ m d < x> ¿ ¿

dt
¿ p>¿ 0
+∞
¿ p >¿ ∫ ψ p ψ dx
2 2

−∞

d
p=−iℏ
dx
+∞ 2
¿ p >¿ ℏ
2 2
∫ ψ ∂∂ xψ2 dx
−∞

2
Let ψ=B e−b x :

( )
1/ 4
2a 1 a
Here B= and b= .
π √1+iθ 1+iθ
2
∂ψ d
=B [−2 bx e ]
2
−b x
2
∂x dx
d
(−b x 2 )=−2bx
dx
d −b x
( e )=−2 bx e−b x
2 2

dx
d
(−b x 2 ) e−b x =−2bx ∙ e−b x + (−b x 2 ) ∙ (−2bx e−b x )
2 2 2

dx
2 2

¿ 2 b x 2 e−b x −e−b x ∙2 bx

¿ 2 Bb [ 2 b x e ]
2 2
2 −b x −b x
−e

¿−2 bB e−b x [ 1−2 b x 2 ]

2

Consider:
2
∂ψ 2
=−2 b|B| ( 1−2 b x ) e
¿ 2 − ( b +b ) x ¿ 2

ψ 2
∂x
But:

¿ a a
b+ b = +
1+iθ 1−iθ
2a
¿ 2
1+ θ
 2
¿2ω

|B| =
2

√ √ 2a 1
π 1+ θ2

¿
√ 2
π
ω

2
∂ψ 2
=−2 b|B| ( 1−2 b x ) e
¿ 2 − ( b +b ) x ¿ 2

ψ 2
∂x

∂2 ψ 2
√
ω ( 1−2 b x 2 ) e−(b +b ) x
¿ 2

ψ¿ 2
=−2 b
∂x π
+∞ 2
¿ p >¿−ℏ
2 2
∫ ψ ¿ ∂∂ xψ2 dx
−∞

√
+∞
2
ω ∫ ( 1−2 b x ) e
2 2
2 2 2 −2 ω x
¿ p >¿ 2 b ℏ dx
π −∞

√
+∞
2
ω ∫ (e ) dx
2 2
2 2 2 −2 ω x
2 −2 ω x −2 b x e
¿2bℏ
π −∞

¿ 2 b ℏ2
√ [√
2
π
ω
π
2ω 2
−2 b
1 π
4 ω 2 ω2
2
√ ]
¿ p2 >¿ 2 b ℏ2 1−
[ b
2ω
2 ]
But:

(( )( ))
2
b 1 1+θ
1− 2
=1−
2ω 1+iθ 2a

¿ 1− ( 1−iθ
2 )
1+ iθ
¿
2
a
¿
2b

¿ p2 >¿ 2 b ℏ2 ( 2ab )
2
¿aℏ
The uncertainty in position is:

σ x =√ ¿ x 2>−¿ x ¿2
 1
¿
2ω
And:

σ p=√ ¿ p 2>−¿ p ¿ 2

¿ ℏ √ a−0
¿ℏ√a
e)
The product of uncertainty in position and momentum of a particle is:
1
σ x σ p= ℏ √a
2ω
ℏ √a
¿
2 ω
ℏ
¿
2
√ 1+θ
2

√ ( )
2
ℏ 2 ℏat
¿ 1+
2 m
ℏ
¿
2
At time t=0 , the system comes closest to the uncertainty limit.

Problem 2.22
Solution:
a)
+1

∫ ( x 3−3 x 2 +2 x−1 ) δ ( x+ 2 ) dx
−3

b
The given function is in the form of ∫ f ( x ) δ ( x −c ) dx:
a

b
( )
∫ f ( x ) δ ( x −c ) dx={0 iff ccdoes
if c lie∈between a∧b
'
n tlie ∈between a∧b
a

Dirac delta function of δ (x +2) survives only at x=−2. The integral must be calculated at x=−2.
+1

∫ ( x 3−3 x 2 +2 x−1 ) δ ( x−(−2 ) ) dx=f (−2 )

−3

The function f (−2) is:

 3 2
f (−2 )=(−2 ) −3 (−2 ) +2 (−2 )−1
¿−8−12−4−1
¿−25
b)
∞
The given function is in the form of ∫ ( cos nx ) δ ( x−θ ) dx :
0

∫ ( cos nx ) δ ( x−θ ) dx=cos nθ

0

Dirac delta function of δ ( x −π ) survives only at x=π . The integral must be calculated at x=π :
∞

∫ ( cos 3 x +2 ) δ ( x−π ) dx=cos 3 π + 2

0

¿−1+2
¿1
c)
+1

∫ e (|x|+3) δ ( x−2 ) dx=0

−1

Since x=2 is outside the domain of integration.

Therefore, the given integral value is 0 .

Problem 2.23
Solution:
a)
The given delta function is given by:
∞ ∞

∫ f ( x ) D1 ( x ) dx= ∫ f ( x ) D2 ( x ) dx
−∞ −∞

Let y=cx .

y
x=
c
1
dx= dy
c
For c >0 , the limits of y are from −∞ →+∞ .

For c <0 , the limits of y are from + ∞ →−∞.

For c >0 , the property of the Dirac delta function is:
+∞ +∞

∫ f ( x ) δ ( cx ) dx =
−∞
1
c −∞ c ()
∫ f y δ ( y ) dy
1
¿ f (0 )
c
+∞
Since ∫ f ( x ) δ ( x ) dx=0:
−∞

For c <0 , the property of the Dirac delta function is:

+∞ +∞

−∞ −∞
()
∫ f ( x ) δ ( cx ) dx = 1c ∫ f cy δ ( y ) dy
+∞
¿
−1
∫ f
c −∞ c
y
()
δ ( y ) dy

−1
¿ f (0)
c
Compare this equation with the dirac delta function as follows:
1
δ ( cx )=
¿ c∨¿ δ ( x ) ¿
b)
The given step function is given by:
1 if x >0
θ ( x )={
0 ifx< 0
Consider:

( )
+∞ +∞ +∞ +∞
dθ df
∫ f ( x) dx
dx=f (x) ∫ dθ− ∫
dx
∫ dθ dx
−∞ −∞ −∞ −∞

+∞
+∞ df
¿ [ f ( x ) θ ( x ) ]−∞− ∫ θ ( x ) dx
−∞ dx
b b
Since ∫ f ( x ) g ( x ) dx=[ f ( x ) g ( x ) ] a−∫ f ( x ) g ( x ) dx
' b '

a a

Using the property of θ(x ):

+∞ +∞

∫ f ( x ) dθ
dx
dx=f ( ∞ ) −∫
df
θ ( x ) dx
−∞ −∞ dx

For x >0, the value of θ is 1 and for x <0 the value of θ is zero and hence, the above expression is
modified as follows:
 ∞
¿ f ( ∞ )−f ( x )0

¿ f (0)
+∞
¿ ∫ f ( x ) δ ( x ) dx
−∞

From the above equation, it is clear that:

dθ
=δ ( x )
dx

Problem 2.24
Solution:
…

Problem 2.25
Solution:
…

Problem 2.26
Solution:

The Fourier transform of a function f (x) is:

+∞
1
F ( x )= ∫ f ( x ) e−ikx dx
√ 2 π −∞
Let f ( x )=δ( x ):
+∞
1
δ (x )= ∫
√ 2 π −∞
−ikx
δ ( x ) e dx

Using the property:

+∞

∫ f ( x ) δ ( x ) dx=f (0)
−∞

1
δ ( k )=
√2 π
+∞
1
f ( x )=
√ −∞
2 π
∫ ikx
F ( k ) e dk

The inverse Fourier transform is:

 +∞
1
δ (x )= ∫
√ 2 π −∞
ikx
δ ( k ) e dk

+∞
1 1 ikx
δ (x )= ∫
√ 2 π −∞ √ 2 π
e dk

+∞
1
¿ ∫ e ikx dk
2 π −∞
Thus:
+∞
1
δ (x )= ∫ eikx dk
2 π −∞

Problem 2.27
Solution:
a)

The sketch of the double delta function potential V ( x )=−α [ δ ( x+ a ) +δ ( x −a ) ] is shown below.
Here, α and a are positive constants:

How?

To sketch the double-delta function potential V (x ) we need to understand its behaviour.

The double delta-function potential typically consists of 2 Dirac delta functions located at x=± a and
weighted by α . The potential goes to infinity at these points and its zero elsewhere.

b)
The Schrödinger equation for the double delta function is given below:
2
d ψ ( x ) 2 mα 2mE
2
+ 2 [ δ ( x−a ) +δ ( x−a ) ] ψ ( x ) + 2 ψ ( x )=0
dx ℏ ℏ
For x=± a , the Schrödinger equation becomes as follows:
 2
d ψ ( x ) 2 mE
+ 2 ψ ( x )=0
d x2 ℏ
2mE
Since the problem deals with the bound state that is for energy less than zero, the term 2 is taken
ℏ
as −k 2. Then:
2
d ψ (x) 2
−k ψ ( x )=0
d x2
The potential is symmetric and hence the wave function is either even or odd. The bound state
solutions for E< 0 requires that the even or odd wave function vanishes at infinity.

The general even solutions of the wave functions are:

ψ +¿ ( x )= A e−kx
x>a ¿

−kx kx
¿ Be + C e 0< x< a
kx −kx
¿ B e +C e −a < x< 0
kx
¿ A e x ←a
Apply boundary conditions at x=a :
−ka −ka ka
Ae =B e +C e
2 ka
A=B+ C e
Apply the condition that the first derivatives of the wave functions to be continuous at x=0 :

d
dx
…

Problem 2.28
Solution:
The potential is:

V ( x )=−α [ δ ( x+ a ) +δ ( x −a ) ]
The wavefunction takes the following form:
ikx −ikx
ψ= A e + B e x ←a
ikx −ikx
¿Ce + De −a< x <a
ikx
¿ F e x >a
Apply continuity of ψ at −a :
−ika ika −ika ika
Ae +B e =C e +D e
e +ika [ A e−2 ika + B ] =e +ika [ C e−2 ika+ D ]
Let e−2 ika=β :

βA+ B=βC+ D
Apply continuity of ψ at a :
ika −ika ika
C e +D e =F e

e
ika
[ C + D e−2ika ]=F e ika
F=C+ βD
Apply discontinuity in ψ ' at (−a ):

( Cik e−ika−Dik e ika )−ik ( Aik e−ika −Bik e ika )= −2 mα

2
( A e−ika + B e ika)
ℏ
−2 mα
ik ( C e −D e ) −ik ( A e −B e )= ( A e−ika + B eika )
−ika ika −ika ika
2
ℏ
−2 mα
Ce
−ika
−De −Ae
ika −ika
+B e =
ika
2
[ A e−ika + B e ika ]
ℏ

e
ika
[ C e−2ika −D− A e−2 ika+ B ]= 2miα
2
ika
e (A e
−2 ika
+ B)
ℏ k

[ βC−D ] −( A e−2 ika−B ) = 2 miα

2
[ A β+ B ]
ℏ k
2 miα
βC−D= 2
[ A β + B ] + ( A β−B )
ℏ k
2 imα
Let γ = 2 :
ℏ k
βC−D=γ [ A β+ B ] + A β−B
¿ γ [ Aβ+ B ] + Aβ−B
βC−D= Aβ [ γ +1 ] +B ( γ −1 )
Apply discontinuity in ψ ' at a :

ikF e −ik ( C e −D e
ika ika −ika
) =−2 miα
2
Fe
ika

ik e F=e ik ( C−D e
ika ika −2 ika
)− 2 miα
2
ika
F e ( ik )
iℏ k
2imα
F=( C−βD ) + 2
F
ℏ k
 2 imα
( C−βD )=F− 2
F
ℏ k
( C−βD )=F [ 1−γ ]
C+ βD +C−βD=F + F−Fγ
2 C=( 2−γ ) F
C+ βD−( C−βD ) =F −( 1−γ ) F
2 βD=γF

2 D= ( βγ ) F
Adding equations 1 and 3:

βA+ B+ Aβ ( γ +1 ) + ( γ −1 ) B=βC + D+ βC−D 2 βC

¿ βA ( 1+ γ +1 ) + Bγ

2 C=( γ + 2 ) A+ ( γβ ) B
Type equation here .
…
Comprehension: What is the purpose of solving this problem?
It is to calculate the transmission coefficient for 1D potential barrier in QM. This coefficient
represents the probability of a particle passing through the barrier, and it’s important in understanding
the behaviour of quantum systems. (Important in studying transmissions of electrons in
semiconductors or designing quantum devices)

Problem 2.29
Solution:
The wave function for a finite square well is:

ψ ( x )=F e−kx x> a

¿ D sin ( lx ) 0< x <a
¿−ψ (−x ) x< 0

Here, k =
√−2 mE and l= √ 2m ( E+V 0 ).
ℏ ℏ
The continuity of ψ ( x ) at a is:
−ka
Fe =D sin ( la )
The continuity of ψ '(x ) at a is:
−ka
−kF e =Dl cos ( la )

−k F e
−ka
Dl cos (la )
=
Fe
−ka
D sin ( la )
−k =l cot (la )

ka=−la cot(la)
a √ −2 mV 0
Assume la=z and z 0= :
ℏ
ka=−z cot z
Now:

√( a √ 2 mV 0
)
2

√ z −z =2
0
2
ℏ
−( la )
2

√( ) ( )
2 2
a √ 2 mV 0 √ 2m(E+ V 0) a
√ z −z =2
0
2
ℏ
−
ℏ

√
2 2
a a
¿ 2 ( 2 mV 0 ) − 2 ( 2 mE+ 2m V 0 )
ℏ ℏ

¿
√ −a2
ℏ
2
( 2 mE )

a
¿ √−2 mE
ℏ

√ z −z =ka
2
0
2

√ z −z =−z cot z
2
0
2

1 2 2 −z cot z
√ z −z = z
2 0

√ z 0− z2
z
2
=−cot z

−cot z=
√( z )
z0 2
−1

The solution for the equation is:

For a wide, deep well:
Intersections are at π , 2 π , 3 π , etc. This is the same as:
2 2 2
n π ℏ
En +V 0 ≅ 2
2 m(2 a )
But here is n even. This fills in the rest of the states for the infinite state.

Shallow, narrow well.

π
If z 0 < , there is no odd bound state.
2
2 2
ℏ π
The condition on V 0 is V 0 < 2.
8ma
Thus, there need not be a bound state every time.
Comprehension:
First, we need to define the wave function for finite square well, then understand the potential energy
function for finite square well, which is typically zero inside the well and negative constant V 0
outside the well. Then solve it graphically, by finding allowed energy levels. By solving ka=−z cot z
, we found the intersections z which correspond to allowed energy levels En inside the well. In the
π
case of wide and deep well, the intersections occur at z=nπ - And for shallow and narrow, if z 0 < ,
2
there are no odd bound states.
We apply continuity in the case of finite square well potential, because continuity condition ensure
that the wave function and its derivative are continuous at the edges of the well.
Continuity conditions are commonly applied when dealing with bound states in finite square well but
not always!
In this case, at the edges of the well ( x=−a and x=a ) the wave function should smoothly transition
from the region inside the well to the region outside of the well. Imposing continuity ensures that this
transition occurs without any discontinuities.

Problem 2.30
Solution:
The wave function is given by:
−kx
ψ ( x )=F e for x > a
ψ ( x )=D cos ( lx ) for 0< x< a
Here, k =
√−2 mE and l= √ 2m ( E+V 0 ).
ℏ ℏ
Normalization of wavefunction gives:
+∞

∫ |ψ| dx =1
2

−∞

+∞
2 ∫ |ψ| dx =1
2

−∞

+∞ +∞
2 ∫ |ψ| dx + ∫ |ψ| dx=1
2 2

−∞ −∞

From the given wavefunction:

(∫| | )
a ∞
D cos (lx ) dx+∫|F| e
2 2 2 −2 kx
2 dx =1
0 a

(| | ∫ )
a ∞
1+cos (2lx)
+2|F| ∫ e dx =1
2 2 −2 kx
2 D
0
2 a

a
1+cos (2lx)
∫ 2
=¿
0

a
1
¿
20
∫ ¿¿

[ ]
a
1 sin (2 lx )
¿ x+
2 2l 0

( )
−2 kx ∞

( )
a
x sin 2lx
2 2 e
2|D| + +2|F| =1
2 4l 0 −2k a

+2|F| (
−2 k )
2|D| ( +
4l )
−2 ka
a sin 2la
2 e 2
=1
2
At x=a , from continuity of ψ :
−ka
Fe =D cos la
ka
F=D e cos la

( ) ( )
−2 ka
2 a sin 2la 2 e
2|D| + +2|F| =1
2 4l −2 k

( ) ( )
−2ka
a sin 2la 2 e
+2|D e cos la|
2
2|D|
ka
+ =1
2 4l −2k
 ( )
2
|D| a+ sin 2la + cos la =1
2

2l k
dψ
At x=a , from the continuity of , k =l tan la:
dx

( )
2
|D| a+ sin 2la + cos la =1
2

2l k
We use the identities:

sin ( 2 x )=2 sin ( x ) cos (x)

2 2
cos (2 x )=cos ( x ) −sin ( x )
2 2
cos ( x )=1−sin ( x )

cos 2 ( la )=1−sin2 (la )

3
cos (la )
¿
sin la

( )
3
|D| a+ 2 sinla cos la + cos la =1
2

2l l sin la

2
|D| a+ ( cos la
lsin la
(sin2 la +cos 2 la) =1 )
Now:

2
|D| a+ ( cos la
lsin la )
( 1 ) =1

Since k =l tan la:

( l tan1 la )=1
2
|D| a+

|D| ( a+ )=1
2 1
k
2 1
|D| =
(a+ 1k )

√
1
D=
( a+ 1k )
 √
1
F= e ka cos la
(a+ 1k )
ka
e cos la
¿

√
1

( a+ 1k )

Problem 2.31
Solution:
This is a finite square well case.
The formula for the allowed energies is:
a
z 0=
ℏ
√2 mV 0
Where z 0 is the even energy state and a is the width of the finite square well.

And:
z=la

(( )√ )
2
2 a 2 2
z −z =
0 2 mV 0 −( la )
ℏ
2
2 2 2 ma V 0 2
z 0−z = 2
−l a
ℏ
The width of the square potential well is 2 a and the depth is V 0, then the area is:

α =( 2 a ) ( V 0 )

α
V 0=
2a
Thus:

z 0=
a
ℏ
2m
α
2a √ ( )
z 0= √ a
(√ ) mα
ℏ2
Dirac delta function is a single peak function. Single peak function means the probability of finding
the electron in the single peak region is high.
So, for the Dirac delta function the width (a ) tends to zero.

a→0
If a → 0, then from equation z 0 this means z 0 is very small.

The constant (l ) for the region x >0 is:

l=
√ 2m ( E+V 0 )
ℏ
2
2 2 2 ma V 0 2 2
z −z =
0 2
−l a
ℏ

( √2 m ( E +V
)
2
2 2 2 ma V 0
2
0 ) 2
z −z =
0 − a
ℏ
2
ℏ
2 2 2
2 2 2 ma V 0 2 ma E 2 ma V 0
z −z =
0 2
− 2
− 2
ℏ ℏ ℏ
2
2 2 −2 ma E
z 0−z = 2
ℏ

k=√
2 mE
ℏ

( )
2
( k 2 ) a2= √2 mE a2
ℏ
2
2 −2 m a E
2
k a= 2
ℏ
2
2 2 −2 ma E
z 0−z = 2
ℏ
2 2 2
z 0−z =k^ a

tan z =
√( z0 2
z )−1

For small values of z , tan z ≈ z . Then:

z=
√(
) z0 2
z
−1

z =( ) −1
2
2 z 0
z
4 2 2
z =z 0−z
4 2 2
z =k a
 4 2 2
z 0 =k a
2
z 0=ka

( ( √ ))
2
2 mα
( z0 ) = √ a 2
ℏ

2 maα
z 0= 2
ℏ
maα
ka= 2
ℏ
mα
k= 2
ℏ
mα √2 mE
=
ℏ2 ℏ

( ) ( )
2
mα 2
=
√ 2mE
ℏ
2
ℏ
2
mα
E= 2
2ℏ
2
mα
Thus, the bound state energy is E= 2.
2ℏ
This is the same as the energy equation for the delta function.
The transmission coefficient for the finite well is:

( )
2
V 2 2a
−1
T =1+
4 E ( E+ V 0 )
sin
ℏ
√2 m ( E+V 0 )
For V 0 ≫ E , neglect the term E , because E is very small compared to V 0 :
2
−1
T =1+
V0
4 EV0
sin
2 2a
ℏ
√ 2 mV 0 ( )
( )
V0 2 2a
−1
T =1+
4E
sin
ℏ
√2 mV 0
For small angles of sine, sin x 2 → x 2. Then:

( )
V0 2a 2
−1
T =1+
4E ℏ
√2 mV 0
2 2
−1 2 ma V 0
T =1+ 2
Eℏ
 α
But V 0= :
2a

( )
2
2 α
2 ma
−1 2a
T =1+ 2
Eℏ
−1 mα
T =1+ 2
2Eℏ
This is the same as in the case of delta potential.

Problem 2.32
Solution:
Following the hint given in the equation, (From the equation we get using the continuity condition on
ψ at a ).
ika
C sin la+ D cos la=F e
2 ika
C sin la+ D sinla cos la=F e sinla
Using the continuity condition, we get:

l [ C cos la−D sin la ]=ik F e

ika

2 ika cos la
Cco s la−D cos la sin la=ikF e
l

[
C=F e ika sin la+
ik
l
cos la
]
2 ika 2 −ik ika
C sin lacos la + D cos la=F e cos la−C cos la sin la−Dsin la= F e sin la
l
D=F e
ika
[ cos la−
ik
l
sin la ]
From the continuity condition on ψ at −a we have:
−ika ika
Ae +B e =−C sin ( la ) + D cos (la)

A e−ika +B eika=−F eika sin la

[ ik
l ] ik
[
cos la sin la+ F eika cos la− sin la cos la
l ]
A e−ika +B eika=−F eika −sin 2 la−
[ ik
l
ik
sinla cos la+ cos2 la− sin la cos la
l ]
A e−ika +B eika=F eika cos 2 la−
[ ik
l
sin 2la
]
dψ
Now, substituting the values of C and D into the continuity condition on at −a we get:
dx
ik ( A e−ika −B e ika )=l cos la F eika sin la+
[ ik
l ] [ ik
cos la +l sin la F e ika cos la− sinla
l ]
A e−ika−B e ika=
−il
k [
ik ik
F e ika cos lasin la+ cos 2 la +cos la sin la− sin2 la
l l ]
¿
−il
k [ ik
F eika sin ( 2 la ) + cos ( 2 la )
l ]
[
2 A e−ika=F e aka 2 cos ( 2 la ) −isin ( 2 la )
[ ]]
k l
−
l k
−¿ 2 ika A
e
F= ¿
( k 2 +l 2 )
cos 2 la−i sin 2 la
2 kl

2 B e ika=F eika i
[ [ ]] l k
− sin 2 la
k l

B=F ¿
Then the transmission coefficient becomes:

||
2
A
−1
T =
F
¿¿¿
2
sin ( 2 la ) 2 2 2
¿ cos 2 ( 2 la )+ ( k +l )
( 2lk )2

[ ]
2
2 ( k 2 +l 2 )
¿ 1+sin 2la −1+
( 2lk )2

Since cos 2 ( 2 la )=1−sin 2 (2la ):

−1
T =1+sin ( 2 la )
2
[ ( k 2−l2 )
( 2 kl )
2
]
However:

k=
√2 mE
ℏ
And:

l=
√ 2m ( E+V 0 )
ℏ
2a
ℏ √
2 la= 2m ( E+V 0 )
And:

2 2 −2m V 0
k −l = 2
ℏ
Also:

( )
2
2m 2
2
V0
(k 2−l 2) ℏ
=

(2( 2ℏm )( √ E ( E+V ) ))

2
( 2 kl ) 2
2 0

( )
2
2m 2
2
V0
ℏ
¿
( ℏ ) E ( E+V )
2
2m
4 2 0

V0
¿
4 E ( E+ V 0 )

)[ ]
2
−1
T =1+sin
2
( 2a
ℏ √ em ( E+V 0 )
V0
4 E ( E+V 0 )
2
¿ 1+
V0
4 E ( E+ V 0 )
sin
2 2a
ℏ √
2 m ( E+V 0 ) ( )
Thus, the transmission coefficient is:
2
−1
T =1+
V0
4 E ( E+ V 0 )
sin
2 2a
ℏ √ (
2 m ( E+V 0 ) )
Confirming Eq. 2.172.

This is the same as what we got.

Problem 2.33
Solution:
…

Problem 2.34
Solution:
a)
The expression for the Schrödinger wave equation is given by:

2 2m
∇ ψ+ 2
( E−V ) ψ=0
ℏ
The given potential is:
0 if x ≤ 0
V ( c )={
V 0 if x >0

For E<V 0, then the wave function takes the form:

ikx −ikx
ψ= A e + B e x <0
−kx
¿ Fe x >0
Here:

k=√
2 mE
ℏ
And:

κ=
√ 2 m(V 0−E)
ℏ
Continuity of ψ at x=0 gives:

A+ B=F
Continuity of ψ ' at x=0 gives:

ik ( A−B )=−κF
ik
( A−B )=F
κ
−ik
A+ B= ( A−B)
κ

(
A 1+
ik
κ
=−B )
−ik
κ
+1 ( )
B
=
( 1+ )
ik
κ
A
( −ikκ +1)
Now, the reflection coefficient:

||
2
B
R=
A
 ik
1+
κ 2
¿∨ |
ik
1−
κ

k2
1+
κ2
¿
k2
1+ 2
κ
¿1
Even though the wave function penetrates the barrier, it is eventually completely reflected.
Thus, the reflection coefficient is 1.

b)

For E>V 0, the wave function is given by:

ilx −ilx
A e + B e x< 0
ψ={
F eilx x >0
Continuity of ψ at 0 :

A+ B=F
Continuity of ψ ' at 0 :

ik ( A−B )=ilF
k
F= ( A−B )
l
k
A+ B= ( A−B )
l

( kl )=−B (1+ kl )
A 1−

B
=
( k
l
−1 )

A
(1+ kl )
Now, the reflection coefficient is given by:

|
2
B
R=¿
A
 ( )
2
k
−1
l
R=
(1+ kl )
2

¿(
l+ k )
2
k−l

¿
( )(
( k−l )2 ( k −l )2
( l+ k )2 ( k −l )2 )
( k −l )4
¿
( k 2−l2 )
But:

2 2 2mV0
k −l = 2
ℏ
And:

√ 2m ( √ E− E−V )
k −l=
ℏ
√ 0

( )
2
2m 4
2 ( √ E− √ E−V 0 )
ℏ
R=
( )
2
2m 2
2
V0
ℏ

( √ E−√ E−V 0 )
4

R=
V 20
c)
The following figure shows the speed of the transmitted wave and speed of the incident wave:

From the definition of transmission coefficient, we have:

Pt
T=
Pi
2
|F| v t
¿ 2
|A| v i
Here, Pi is the probability of finding the incident particle in the box corresponding to the time interval
dt , and Pt is the probability of finding the transmitted particle in the associated box to the right of the
barrier.
However:

v t √ E−V 0
=
vi √E

√ ||
2
E−V 0 F
T=
E A
d)

For E>V 0:

F= A+ B

F= A+ A
( k
l
−1 )

( kl +1)
F= A 1+
[ k−l
k +l ]
¿A
[ ]
2k
k +l
The transmission coefficient is given by:

||
2
l F
T=
k A

( ) ( kl )
2
2k
¿
k+ l
4 kl
¿
( k +l )2

4 kl ( k−l )2
T= 2
( k 2−l 2 )

T=
4
( 2m
ℏ
2 ) √ E ( E−V ) ( √ E−√ E−V )
0
2m
0
ℏ
2

( )
2
2m 2
2
V0
ℏ

4 √ E ( E−V 0 ) [ √ E−√ E−V 0 ]

2

¿ 2
V0
The sum of the reflection and transmission coefficients is given by:
2
4 kl ( k −l )
T + R= 2
+ 2
( k +l ) ( k +l )

( k +l )2
¿ 2
( k +l )
¿1

4 √ E ( E−V 0 ) [ √ E−√ E−V 0 ]

2

Thus, the transmission coefficient is 2

.
V0

Problem 2.35
Solution:
a)
For the given potential, we have the wave function:

ψ ( x )=A e ikx + B e−ikx x< 0

ilk
¿ F e x> 0

Where k =
√2 mE and l=
√ 2m(E+ V 0) .
ℏ ℏ
Continuity of ψ at x=0 is:

A+ B=F
Continuity of ψ ' at x=0 :

ik ( A−B )=ilF
k
A+ B= ( A−B )
l

( kl )=−B (1+ kl )
A 1−

( )
k
1−
B l
=−
A k
1+
l

The reflection coefficient is:

||
2
B
R=
A
 ( )
k
1−
l 2
¿∨ |
k
1+
l

( √ E+V 0 −√ E
)
2

¿
√ E+V 0+ √ E

( ) √
2
V0
1+ −1
E
¿

√ V0
1+ +1
E

V0
It is given that E= , thus:
3
V0
=3
E

( )
2
R=
√ 1+ 3−1
√ 1+3+1

()
2
1
¿
3
1
¿
9
1
Hence, the probability of reflection is .
9
b)
The scattering of cliff is shown below:

The cliff is 2D, and if the car drops straight down, the potential as a function of distance of the car
from the vertical is −mgx , so there is no discontinuous drop in potential for the falling car.

Thus, this does not correctly represent the cliff.

c)
The total probability is:
R+T =1
T =1−R
1
T =1−
9
8
¿
9
¿ 0.889
8
Hence, the probability of transmission is 0.899 or .
9

Problem 2.36
Solution:

Problem 2.37
Solution:
It is given that:

ψ ( x , 0 ) =A sin3 ( πxa )
We have:
3
sin 30=3 sinθ−4 sin θ

sin3 ( πxa )= 14 [3 sin ( πxa )−sin ( 3aπx )]

Using this in the given wave function, we get:
A
ψ ( x , 0) = ¿
4

ψ ( x , 0) =
√
A a
4 2
[ 3 ψ 1 ( x )−ψ 3 (x )]

Since ψ n ( x )=
√ a
2
sin ( )
nπx
a
.

ψ ( x , 0 ) =A
√[ a 3
2 4
1
ψ 1 ( x )− ψ 3 ( x )
4 ]
Normalizing the above equation (the sum of the square of the coefficients should be equal to 1, we
get:
 ( )(( ) ( ) )=1
2 2
2 a 3 −1
| A| +
2 4 4

| A| ( a2 )( 169 + 161 )=1

2

| A| ( )( )=1
a 10
2

2 16
2 16
| A| =
5a
4
A=
√5 a

ψ ( x , 0) =
4 a 3
√5 a 2 4 √[ 1
ψ 1 ( x )− ψ 3 ( x )
4 ]
1
¿ [ 3 ψ 1 ( x )−ψ 3 (x )]
√10
Then, the wave function at time t is given by:

1
ψ ( x , t )= ¿
√10

¿ ψ ( x , t )| =
2 1
10 [ 2 2
9|ψ 1| +|ψ 3| −6|ψ 1||ψ 3|cos
E 3−E1
ℏ (t )]
( )
a
9 1 6 E3−E 1
¿ x >¿∫ x|ψ ( x ,t )| dx=
2
< x ¿1 + < x ¿3− cos t
0 10 10 10 ℏ
a

∫ x ψ 1 ( x ) ψ 3 ( x ) dx
0

a
However, ¿ x ¿ n= is the expectation value of x in the n th stationary state:
2

¿ x >¿
9 a 1 a 6
+ + cos
10 2 10 2 10
E3−E 1 a
ℏ 0
( )
t ∫ x ψ 1 ( x ) ψ 3 ( x ) dx

The integral in the above equation gives:

( )∫ x [sin ( πxa ) sin ( 3aπx )] dx

a
2
¿
a 0

[ ( 2aπx )−cos( 4aπx )] dx

a
¿ ( 1
a )∫ x
0
cos

( )∫ [ x cos ( 2aπx )− x cos ( 4aπx )] dx

a
1
¿
a 0
 [( ) ( ) ( ) ( )]
a

¿
1
a
xa
2π
sin
2 πx
a
+
a 2
2π
cos
a ( )
2 πx xa
−
4π
sin
4 πx
a
−
a 2
4π
cos
4 πx
a 0

¿0
So the average of x becomes:

¿ x >¿
9 a
+
10 2 10 2() ()
1 a
+0

10 a
¿
20
a
¿
2
The expectation value of energy is given by:
∞
¿ H >¿ ∑ |c n| E n
2

n=1

From the wave equation, we have:

1
ψ ( x , 0)= [ 3 ψ 1 ( x )−ψ 3 ( x)]
√ 10
From above equation, we have:
3
c 1=
√ 10
−1
c 3=
√ 10
Also:
2 2
π ℏ
E 1= 2
2ma
2 2
9π ℏ
E3 = 2
2 ma
So:
2 2
¿ H >¿ c 1 E1+ c 3 E 3

¿ ( ) ( )
3 2
√ 10
E1 +
−1
√ 10
E3

( )( ) ( )( )
2 2 2 2 2
3 π ℏ −1 9π ℏ
¿ +
√ 10 2ma
2
√ 10 2m a
2

( ) ( )
2 2 2 2
9 π ℏ 1 9π ℏ
¿ +
10 2 m a2 10 2 ma2
 2 2
9π ℏ
¿ H >¿ 2
10 ma

Problem 2.38
Solution:
a)
According to Eq. 2.39, the most general solution to time-dependent Schrödinger equation for the
infinite square well is:
∞
ψ ( x , t )=∑ c n ψ n ( x ) e−i(n π ℏ/ 2 m a )t
2 2 2

n=1

Now:
2 2 2 2 2
n π ℏ n π ℏ 4ma
T=
2ma π ℏ
2 2
2ma
2
¿2π n
Thus:
2 2 2
ℏ/2 m a )(t+T )
e−i (n π =¿
2 2 2 2
ℏ/2 m a )t −i 2 π n
¿ e−i (n π e
And since n2 is an integer:
2

e−i 2 π n =1
Thus:

ψ ( x , t+T )=ψ (x , t)

b)
The classical revival time is the time it takes the particle to go down and back:
2a
T c=
v
With velocity given by:
1 2
E= m v
2

v=
√ 2E
m
T c =a
√ 2m
E
c)
The 2 revival times are equal if:
T =T c

4 m a2
πℏ
=a
2m
E √
4ma
πℏ
=
2m
E √
( )
2
4 ma 2m
=
πℏ E
2m
E=
( )
2
4 ma
πℏ
2 2
2mπ ℏ
E= 2 2
16 m a
2 2
π ℏ
¿ 2
8 ma
Or:
2 2
π ℏ
E= 2
8ma
E1
¿
4

Problem 2.39
Solution:
From Problem 2.7 , we have:

2 √3
A=
√ a3
Thus:

d ψ 2 √3
= ∙
dt a √ a
…
Problem 2.40
Solution:
a)
The wave function of a particle in the harmonic oscillator is:

( (√ ) ) −( )x
2 mω 2
mω
ψ ( x , 0 ) =A 1−2 x e 2ℏ
ℏ

Consider the standard notations:

ξ= (√ mωℏ ) x
And:

(√ )
1/ 2
mω
α=
ℏ
2 −ξ 2/ 2
ψ ( x , 0 ) =A (1−2 ξ ) e
The normalization constant is:
A=α

(√ )
1 /2
mω
¿
ℏ
Thus:
2
2
ψ ( x , 0 ) =α ( 1−2 ξ ) e−ξ /2
It can be expressed as a linear combination of the first three stationary states (Eq. 2.60 and 2.63, and
Problem 2.10):
2

ψ 0 ( x )=α e−ξ /2

ψ 1 ( x ) =√ 2 αξ e−ξ / 2
α 2 −ξ / 2 2

ψ2 (x )= (2 ξ −1) e
√2
The linear combination of the first three stationary states are:

ψ ( x , 0 ) =c 0 ψ 0 + c1 ψ 1+ c 2 ψ 2
Thus:

ψ ( x , 0 ) =c 0 ( α e
−ξ 2/ 2
) +c 1 ( √ 2αξ e−ξ /2 ) +c 2 ( α2 (2 ξ −1)e )
2
2 −ξ2 /2
 (
ψ ( x , 0 ) =α c 0+ √ 2 c 1 ξ+ √ 2 ξ 2 c2−
1
)
2

c 2 e−ξ /2

√2
We solve for c o , c 1, and c 2:

α √2 c 2=4 A
4A
c 2=
√2 α
2√ 2 A
¿
α
Then:

α √ 2 c 1=−4 A

−2 √ 2 A
c 1=
α
And:

(
α c 0−
c2
√2 ) =A

c 0= ( ) A c2
+
α √2

A 2√ 2 A
c 0= +
α √2 α
A
¿ ( 1+2 )
α
3A
¿
α

The condition for normalization is:

2 2 2
|c0| +|c 1| +|c 2| =1

( )( )( )
2 2
3 A 2 −2 √ 2 A 2 √2 A
+ + =1
α α α
2 2 2
9A 8 A 8 A
2
+ 2 + 2 =1
α α α
2
A
25 2
=1
α

A= ( α5 )
Hence:
3A
C 0=
α

¿
( ( ))
3 α
α 5

3
C 0=
5
And:

c 1= (−2√α2 A )( α5 )
−2 √ 2
c 1=
5
And:

c 1= ( 2 √α2 A )( α5 )
2 √2
c 1=
5

b)
The expectation value of energy is given by:

¿ H >¿ ∑ |c n| n+
2
( 12 ) ℏω
Thus:

(( 12 ) ℏω)+|c | ((1+ 12 ) ℏω)+|c | ((2+ 12 ) ℏω)

¿ H >¿|c0| 0+
2
1
2
2
2

¿|c | ( ℏω )+|c | ( ℏω)+|c | ( ℏω)

1 2 3 52 2
0 1 2
2 2 2
Hence:

( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( 52 ℏω )
2 2
3 2
1 −2 √ 2 3 2 √2
¿ H >¿ ℏω + ℏω +
5 2 5 2 5

¿ ( ℏω ) + ( ℏω ) + ( ℏω )
9 1 8 3 8 5
25 2 25 2 25 2
ℏω
( 9+24+ 40 )
50
 73
¿ H >¿ ℏω
50
c)
The wave function of the particle is:
−iωt −3 iωt −5 iωt
2 2 2
ψ ( x , t )=c 0 ψ 0 e +c 1 ψ 1 e + c2 ψ 2 e

Thus:

( ) ( )
−iωt −3 iωt −5 iωt
ψ ( x , t )=
3
ψ e
5 0 () 2
− √ ψ1 e
2 2
5
2
+ √ ψ2 e
2 2
5
2

−3 iωt −iωt
2 2
e ∙e =¿
a b a+b
e ∙e =e
−2 iωt
2 −iωt
¿e =e
−5 iωt −iωt
2 2
e ∙e =¿
−4 iωt
¿e 2
=e−2iωt
Thus:

[( ) ( √ ) ]
−iωt
¿e 2 3
5
ψ 0−
2 2
5
ψ 1 e−iωt + √ ψ 2 e−2 iωt
2 2
5 ( )
−2 iωt
e =1
=cos (−2ωt ) +i ( sin (−2 ωt ) )
−2 iωt
e
The value of sin(−2 ω t) is:

sin (−2 ω t )=0

Thus:

=cos (−2ωt ) +i ( sin (−2 ωt ) )

−2 iωt
e
−2 iωt
e =cos (−2ωt ) +i ( 0 )
¿ cos (−2 ωt )
1=cos(2¿ ω t)¿
cos 2 π=cos(2 ω t)
2 π =2 ω t
π
t=
ω
 π
Thus, the smallest possible value of T is .
ω

Problem 2.41
Solution:
Everything in Section 2.3 .2 still applies, except that there is an additional boundary condition
ψ ( 0 )=0:
Eliminates all the even solutions (n=0 , 2 , 4 , … ¿, leaving only the odd solutions. So:

The Hamiltonian of a particle of mass which oscillates under influence of 1D harmonic potential is:
2
^ p^ 1 2 2
H= + m ω ^x
2m 2
The time-independent Schrödinger equation is:
^
H |ψ >¿ E|ψ >¿
The solution of the time-independent Schrödinger equation is given as follows:
−1 2 2
α x
2
ψ n ( x )=A e H n (α )
The corresponding values of the Hermite polynomials are:

H 0 ( αx ) =1

H 1 ( αx )=2 αx
2
H 2 ( αx )=4 ( αx ) −2
2
H 3 ( αx )=8 ( αx ) −12 ( αx )
The following figure depicts the first 2 stationary states of the full harmonic oscillator:

The corresponding energy levels are expressed as:

( 12 )ℏω
En = n+

Where n=1 ,2 , 3 , …

The following figure depicts the first 2 stationary states of the half harmonic oscillator:
From the figure, the wave function vanishes at x=0 .

So, the solution of the time-independent Schrödinger equation becomes zero.

−1 2 2
α x
2
Ae H n ( αx ) =0

The above equation is satisfied by only odd integers of n . Thus, the corresponding energy levels are
expressed as follows:

( 12 )ℏω,n=1 ,3 , 5 , …
En = n+

E =(1+ ) ℏω = ℏω
1 3
1
2 2

E =(3+ ) ℏω = ℏω
1 7
2
2 2

E =(5+ ) ℏω = ℏω
1 11
3
2 2
Thus, the allowed energies of the half harmonic oscillator are:
3 7 11
ℏω, ℏω , ℏω
2 2 2

Problem 2.42
Solution:
a)
The given wave function is:
2

ψ ( x , 0 ) =A e−a x eilx
Normalization:
∞

∫ |ψ ( x )| dx=1
2

−∞

∫ e−2 a x dx=1
2 2

| A|
−∞
| A|
2

√ π
2a
=1

( )
1/4
2a
A=
π
b)
We know that:
∞
1
ψ ( x , t )= ∫
√2 π −∞
φ (k ) e
−i (kx−ωt )
dk

2
ℏk
Where ω= .
2m
∞
1
φ ( k )=
√ −∞
2 π
∫ −ikx
ψ ( x , 0 ) e dx

1/ 4 ∞
1 2a
( ) ∫ e−a x eilx e−i k x dx
2

φ ( k )=
√2 π π −∞

1/ 4 ∞
1 2a
( ) ∫ e−a x +ilx −i kx dx
2

φ ( k )=
√2 π π −∞

Following the method of completing the squares, integrals of this kind are evaluated as follows, by
letting:
2
2 2 b
a x +bx= y −
4a
Thus:
2
∞ ∞ b
− y 2−
1
∫e dx= ∫ e
2
−(a x +bx ) 4a
∙ dy
−∞ −∞ √a
2
b ∞
1 4a
e ∫ e− y dy
2

¿
√ a −∞
2
b
1 4a
¿ e ∙ √π
√a

√
2
b
π 4a
¿ e
a
Thus:
2
− ( k−l )
1
φ ( k )= e 4a

( 2 πa )1 / 4
 ( ) dk
2 2
∞ − ( k−l ) ℏk l
1 1 i kx−
ψ ( x , t )= ∫e
√2 π ( 2 πa )1 /4 −∞
4a
e 2m

( ) dk
2 2 2
∞ −(k +l +2 kl) ℏk l
1 1 i kx−
ψ ( x , t )= ∫e
√2 π ( 2 πa )1 /4 −∞
4a
e 2m

( )=¿
2
ℏk l
i kx−
2m
e
s

¿
1 1
∫ e 4a
e
∞
− k
[ 4a+
−l 2
[ 2 1 i ℏl
m ] (
−k kx+
l
2a )]
dk
√2 π ( 2 πa )1 / 4 −∞
…

Problem 2.43
Solution:
Schrödinger’s equation for particle in 1D is written as follows:
2 2
−ℏ d
ψ ( x )+ V ( x ) ψ ( x )=E ψ ( x)
2 m d x2

The wavefunction is ψ 1 for region x=−a≤ x ≤ 0 . Thus, SCH in this region is given as follows:
2 2
−ℏ d
ψ 1 + ( 0 ) ψ 1=E ψ 1
2 m d x2
2 2
−ℏ d
ψ 1=E ψ 1
2 m d x2
Rearrange:
2
d −2 mE
ψ=
2 1
ψ1
dx ℏ
 2mE
Since k = 2 :
ℏ
2
d 2
ψ =−k ψ 1
2 1
dx
Thus, solution to above-mentioned equation is given as follows:

ψ 1= A sin ( kx ) + B cos (kx )

Now we consider ψ 2 for region x=0 ≤ x ≤ a . Thus, SCH for this region is given as follows:
2 2
−ℏ d
ψ + ( 0 ) ψ= Eψ
2 m d x2
2 2
−ℏ d
ψ 2=E ψ 2
2 m d x2
Rearrange:
2
d −2 mE
ψ=
2 2
ψ2
dx ℏ
2mE
Since k = 2 :
ℏ
2
d 2
ψ =−k ψ 2
2 1
dx
Thus, solution to above-mentioned equation is given as follows:

ψ 2=C sin ( kx )+ D cos(kx)

Wavefunction and its derivative should be continuous and single valued everywhere. Thus:

[ A sin ( kx ) + B cos ( kx ) ] x=0=[ C sin ( kx ) + D cos ( kx ) ]x=0

B=D
And:
A=C
Thus:
ψ 1=ψ 2

¿ A cos ( kx )+ B sin ( kx )
Since well is symmetric. The wavefunctions must be even and odd. Consider even solutions as
follows:
That wave function for the potential is given as follows:

ψ ( x )=A sin kx + B cos kx

Condition for even solutions is given as follows:
ψ ( x )=ψ (−x)
Thus, solution of wavefunction is given as follows:

ψ ( x )=ψ (−x)
¿ A sin (−kx ) + B cos(−kx )
¿−A sin kx +B cos kx
Thus:

ψ ( x )=− A sin kx + B cos kx (−a< x <0)

¿ A sin kx + B cos kx (0< x< a)
Now, we use boundary conditions to find energy as follows:
Wavefunction must be continuous at x=0 . Thus:

¿
B=B
Wavefunction is zero at x=a .

Thus:

ψ ( x ) |x=a =0
Hence:
¿
A sin ka+ B cos ka=0
Rearrange:
B
tan ka=
A
B=− A tan kA
At x=0 , derivative of wvefunction is discontinuous. Therefore, use the discontinuity equation for
even solutions as follows:
s
…

Problem 2.44
Solution:

Problem 2.45
Solution:
Problem 2.46
Solution:

Problem 2.47
Solution:
Considering the double square well:

a)

i)
Consider the width of the barrier is zero (b=0) is shown below:

The above square well is seeming ordinary finite square.

Thus, the wave function inside square well is sinusoidal and outside is exponential decay.

Since the square well is symmetric the wave function (ψ 1) in the ground state is sin function and in
the first excited state (ψ 2) is cosine functions are shown below:

Thus:

b=0 → Ordinary finite square well. Exponential decay outside, sinusoidal inside (cos for ψ 1, sin for
ψ 2). No nodes for ψ 1, one node for ψ 2.
ii)
s
…
Problem 2.48
Solution:
a)
2 2
Let V 0=32ℏ /m a . This is just like the odd bound states for the finite square well, since they are the
ones that go to zero at the origin. Referring to the solution to Problem 2.29 , the wave function is:

ψ ( x )={D sin lx , l=√ 2m(E+ V 0)/¿ ℏ (0< x <a)¿ F e−κx , κ= √

−2m E
(x> a)
ℏ
And the boundary conditions at x=a yield:

−cot z=
√( z0 2
z )
−1

With:

z 0=
√ 2m V 0 a
ℏ

¿
√ 2 m(32 ℏ2 /m a2)
a
ℏ
¿8

Referring to the figure (Problem 2.29 ) and noting that ( 52 ) π=7.85< z <3 π=9.42, we see that there
0

are 3 bound states.

b)
Let:
a a
I 1=∫ |ψ| dx=|D| ∫ sin lx dx
2 2 2

0 0

¿|D|
[ 2 x 1
− sin lx cos lx |a0
2 2l ]
| |[ ]
2 a 1
¿D − sin lacos la
2 2l
∞ ∞
I 2=∫ |ψ| dx=|F| ∫ e
2 2 −2 κx
dx
a a

−2 κ a
2e
|
¿F |
2κ
But continuity at x=a :
−κ a
Fe =D sin la
So:
2
2 sin la
I 2=|D|
2κ
Normalizing:

[ ]
2
2 a 1 sin la
1=I 1 + I 2 =|D| − sin la cos la+
2 2l 2κ

¿
1
2κ
2
[ κ
| D| κ a− sin lacos la+sin2 la
l ]
κ
But (referring again to Problem 2.29 ) =−cot la, so:
l
1 2 (1+κ a)
| D| [ κ a+ cotla sin lacos la+sin2 la ]=|D|
2
¿
2κ 2κ
So:
2 2κ
|D| =
( 1+ κ a )
And the probability of finding the particle outside the well is:
…

Problem 2.49
Solution:

Problem 2.50
Solution:

Problem 2.51
Solution:

Problem 2.52
Solution:

Problem 2.53
Solution:
Problem 2.54
Solution: