Instrumentation All

1. A D&ATIS is:
A) an ATIS message received by datalink.
B) an ATIS message broadcasted on HF when out of the VHF radio range from the airport.
C) a short ATIS that only includes parameters that have changed from previous ATIS record.
D) a Diversion ATIS for the alternate airport.

2. In a datalink system, the downlink communications consist in transmitting

data:
A) from the aircraft to the ground.
B) from the ground to the aircraft.
C) from the airline maintenance to the aircraft.
D) from the flight deck to the cabin.

3. In a datalink system, the uplink communications consist in transmitting

data:
A) from the aircraft to the airline maintenance.
B) from the flight deck to the cabin.
C) from the ground to the aircraft.
D) from the aircraft to the ground.

4. Comparing the media used to transmit datalink communications, the

appropriate classification from the slowest to the fastest data transmission
rate is:
A) SATCOM, VHF datalink, HF datalink.
B) SATCOM, HF datalink, VHF datalink.
C) HF datalink, SATCOM, VHF datalink.
D) HF datalink, VHF datalink, SATCOM.

5. Which air&ground radio link is currently best suited for voice

communication in polar areas?
A) SSR Mode S datalink
B) HF &analogue&
C) VHF &analogue&
D) Aeronautical Mobile&Satellite Service &AMSS& geostationary communications satellites

6. “The on&board devices that can transmit and receive datalink

communication can be: & 1 & VHF COM & 2 & HF COM & 3 & SATCOM & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 3.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 1.
D) 1, 2.
7. The characteristics of the SATCOM transmissions, used for datalink
communications are:
A) no line of sight limitation, no variable quality of signals disturbed by ionospheric
conditions.
B) line of sight limitation, variable quality of signals depending on ionospheric conditions.
C) line of sight limitation, no variable quality of signals disturbed by ionospheric conditions.
D) no line of sight limitation, variable quality of signals depending on ionospheric conditions.

8. Which channels are currently used for datalink transmissions by Air Traffic
Services?
A) SATCOM, HF and UHF.
B) VHF, SATCOM and UHF.
C) VHF and SATCOM only.
D) VHF, SATCOM and HF.

9. The datalink communications between the aircraft and the ground can be
performed by the following system:
A) EGPWS.
B) ACARS.
C) CVR.
D) FWS &Flight Warning System&.

10. “The basic on&board datalink communication system is typically

composed by the following sub systems: & 1 & Communication Management
Unit &CMU& & 2 & Multi&purpose Control and Display Unit &MCDU& & 3 &
Audio Control Panel &ACP& & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 2, 3.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 1, 3.

11. “The units that can be connected to the Communication Management Unit
&CMU& are: & 1 & EGPWS & 2 & HF Communication Unit & 3 & Multipurpose
Control and Display Unit &MCDU& & 4 & VHF Communication Unit & 5 &
Satcom & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3, 4.
B) 2, 4, 5.
C) 2, 3, 4, 5.
D) 1, 3.

12. Which of the following ATC clearances can be received via the datalink
application?
A) Take off, En route, Landing.
B) Departure, Oceanic.
C) Departure, Take off, En route.
D) Departure, En route, Landing.

13. Which types of ATC messages may be sent via datalink?

A) Pre&departure clearances, landing clearances, and oceanic clearances.
B) Pre&departure clearances, taxi clearances, take&off clearances, and landing clearances.
C) Pre&departure clearances, ATIS, and oceanic clearances.
D) Taxi clearances, in&flight flight&level&change clearances, and take&off clearances.

14. “What are the functions of the on&board ATSU &Air Traffic Services
Unit&? & To enable access to all available communications media,…”
A) select the appropriate ATC centre for data link throughout the flight, and manage engine
thrust.
B) select the appropriate ATC centre for data link throughout the flight, and manage EGPWS
warnings.
C) manage the HMI &Human Machine Interface&, and select the appropriate ATC centre for
datalink throughout the flight.
D) manage the HMI &Human Machine Interface&, and manage engine thrust.

15. The ACARS allows air/ground datalink communications for:

A) Airline Operational Communication only &AOC&.
B) Airline Operational and Air Traffic Communications &AOC & ATC&.
C) Air Traffic Control Communication only &ATC&.
D) Airline Operational and Public Communications &AOC & PC&.

16. “The systems that can be connected to the Communication Management

Unit &CMU&, are: & 1 & Flight Director & 2 & VHF & 3 & HF & 4 & SATCOM &
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 4.
B) 1, 2.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 2, 3, 4.

17. The ground routing of the ATC datalink communications is performed:

A) by the airline ground network interconnected to the ATC network.
B) by each ATC local network of the FIR airspace where the aircraft flies into.
C) by service providers &SITA, ARINC& that can be interconnected to provide continuity of
the transmissions.
D) by the GSM &mobile phone& providers interconnected to provide continuity of
transmissions.

18. “The uplink datalink message “” AT [time] CLIMB TO AND MAINTAIN

[altitude]”” means:”
A) after the climb the specified altitude is to be maintained from the specified time.
B) after the climb the specified altitude is to be maintained until the specified time.
C) at the specified time a climb to the specified altitude is to be started and the specified
altitude is to be maintained.
D) at the specified time the specified altitude is to be reached.
19. The CPDLC is a FANS application that consists in:
A) transmitting datalink formatted messages between the pilot and ATC controller.
B) connecting the aircraft to the appropriate ATC centre.
C) establishing air/ground connection to verify if the datalink communication can be
performed.
D) sending automatically aircraft surveillance data to the air traffic controller.

20. The ADS is a FANS application which consists in:

A) exchanging messages relative to route modifications and transfer of ATC centre.
B) connecting the aircraft to the appropriate ATC centre.
C) sending automatically aircraft surveillance data to the air traffic controller.
D) establishing automatic air/ground connection to verify if the datalink communication can
be performed.

21. With regard to ADS:

A) the set of data to downlink is defined automatically, without any crew action.
B) the set of data to downlink is defined manually by the pilot.
C) a notification phase is only required for the emergency mode.
D) a notification phase is not required.

22. “The different types of ADS contracts can be: & 1 & periodic: at periodic
time intervals & 2 & on demand: when asked for by the ATC & 3 & on event:
whenever a specified event occurs & The combination that regroups all of the
correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 1, 3.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 2, 3.

23. The FANS concept includes:

A) an improvement in the accuracy of the navigation systems aiming to carry out RNAV
approaches.
B) a datalink communication between the aircraft and the ATC centres to replace the voice
communication.
C) an enhanced detection of the nearby terrain.
D) an enhanced detection of the Clear Air Turbulence.

24. “The CPDLC messages may concern: & 1 & Route modifications & 2 &
Speed changes & 3 & Voice contact request & 4 & Emergency messages & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 4.
B) 1, 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2.
D) 3, 4.

25. “The uplink datalink message “” AT [position] CLIMB TO [altitude] AND

MAINTAIN “” is part of the:”
A) TAWS application.
B) AFN application.
C) ADS application.
D) CPDLC application.

26. “The uplink datalink messages “” CLIMB TO REACH [altitude] BY [time]””

means:”
A) a climb is to commence at a rate such that the specified level is reached at or after the
specified time.
B) a climb is to commence at a rate such that the specified level is reached at or before the
specified time.
C) a climb is to commence at or after the specified time.
D) a climb is to commence at or before the specified time.

27. “The datalink communication message “”CHECK STUCK MICROPHONE

[frequency]”” refers to a request from:”
A) the pilot to the ATC to solve a continuous transmission issue with the voice frequency.
B) the ATC to the pilot to revert to the voice communication by pushing and holding a few
seconds the mike button.
C) the ATC to the pilot to transmit blind.
D) the ATC to the pilot to check microphone buttons due to a continuous transmission
detected on the frequency.

28. When sent, a MAYDAY datalink message to the ATC has the following
effect on ADS:
A) no change to the current contract in process.
B) the ADS contract is switched to high periodic reporting rate.
C) the ADS current contract is stopped.
D) the ADS current contract reporting rate is unchanged but includes more data.

29. The FANS concept makes use of…

A) voice communication for air navigation system position updating.
B) conventional communication only and satellite navigation.
C) satellite communication and satellite navigation.
D) VOR&DME position updating for air navigation.

30. FANS was developed by ICAO…

A) to provide a more efficient, safe, and cost&effective system for communication.
B) in order to automate and distribute departure slots.
C) to effectively monitor aircraft systems` status information and fuel consumption.
D) to allow more aircraft to safely and efficiently utilise a given volume of airspace.

31. FANS routes or airspace where this applies are…

A) associated with a given RNP &Required Navigation Performance& value.
B) controlled by ICAO`s central ATC facility.
C) associated with a specific FANS route or airspace sequence number.
D) only used during hours of increased traffic volume.
32. The Notification phase &LOG ON& is a FANS application which consists in:
A) transmitting datalink messages between the pilot and ATC controller.
B) sending automatically aircraft surveillance data to the ATS facility.
C) requesting to transfer datalink communication to the next ATC centre on the route.
D) establishing air/ground connection to verify if the datalink communication can be
performed.

33. The notification phase &LOG ON& is a FANS application which consists in
transmitting aircraft information and:
A) associated datalink capability, prior to operating any datalink communications with ATC.
B) aircraft position to the airport ground controller to request the datalink taxi clearance.
C) park stand to the airport pre&flight controller to request the datalink pre&departure
clearance &PDC&.
D) aircraft position to request the datalink clearance to enter an airspace.

34. “The CPDLC function consists in exchanging messages relative to: & 1 &
Route modifications & 2 & Crossing constraints & 3 & Transfer of ATC centre
& 4 & Speed changes & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3, 4.
B) 3.
C) 1, 3, 4.
D) 2, 4.

35. A MAYDAY datalink message can be sent to the ATC via the:
A) CPDLC application.
B) ACAS application.
C) ADS application.
D) AFN application.

36. A new data base should be downloaded to the Flight Management System
&FMS& on a cycle of every:
A) 30 days.
B) 90 days.
C) 14 days.
D) 28 days.

37. “The role of the FMS is to aid the flight crew with: & 1 & immediate actions
in case of emergency procedure & 2 & navigation & 3 & in&flight performance
optimisation & 4 & electronic check&lists & The combination that regroups all
of the correct statements is:”
A) 3, 4.
B) 2, 3, 4.
C) 2, 3.
D) 1, 2.
38. “The role of the FMS is to: & 1 & aid the crew with navigation & 2 & shut
down the engine in case of a malfunction & 3 & automatically avoid conflicting
traffic when autopilot engaged & 4 & reduce crew workload & 5 & aid fuel
efficiency & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 4, 5.
B) 1, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 2, 3, 4, 5.

39. “Components of the FMS are: & 1 & CDU &Control and Display Unit& & 2 &
Database & 3 & FMC &Flight Management Computer& & 4 & electronic
check&lists & 5 & GPWS mode controller & The combination that regroups all
of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 1, 2, 4, 5.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 3, 4.

40. “The most common sensors interfacing a FMS to compute the aircraft
position along the flight plan are: & 1 & GPS & 2 & NDB & 3 & DME & 4 &
LOCALIZER & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 2, 3.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 1, 4.

41. “The FMC determines and update present aircraft position from the
following systems: & 1 & GPS & 2 & IRS & 3 & Radio aids & 4 & ACARS & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2, 4.
D) 3.

42. “The FMC determines and update present aircraft position from the
following systems: & 1 & LOC & 2 & DME & 3 & IRS & 4 & GPS & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 2, 3, 4.
C) 3, 4.
D) 1, 2, 3, 4.

43. “The FMC determines and update present aircraft position from the
following systems: & 1 & SATCOM & 2 & GPS & 3 & DME & 4 & IRS & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3, 4.
B) 2, 4.
C) 1, 2, 4.
D) 1, 3.

44. “Under normal conditions, in a dual FMS architecture: & &NB: FMC = Flight
Management Computer&”
A) one FMC is used by the captain, the other by the first officer. The FMC`s are not
synchronised.
B) the master FMC is ON, the other is OFF and ready to start in case a failure of the master
FMC.
C) only one FMC feeds the two FMS`s.
D) “one FMC is working as the master and the other as a slave

45. “Under normal conditions, in a dual FMS architecture, the master FMC
sends its commands to the: & &NB: FMC = Flight Management Computer&”
A) autopilot, flight director, and autothrottle.
B) the first officer instruments.
C) the captain instruments.
D) the captain autopilot.

46. What is the core functionality of the FMS?

A) Construction of the two&dimensional aircraft trajectory for navigation purposes.
B) Construction of the flight plan and of the four&dimensional aircraft trajectory.
C) Construction of the flight plan and of the two&dimensional aircraft trajectory.
D) Flight plan construction and communication.

47. “The FMS provides the following functions: & 1 & aircraft position
computation & 2 & traffic advisories emission & 3 & lateral flight plan
management & 4 & aid for fuel management & The combination that regroups
all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3, 4.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 2, 3, 4.
D) 1, 2, 4.

48. “The FMS provides the following functions: & 1 & traffic advisories
emission & 2 & resolution advisories emission & 3 & aid for fuel management
& 4 & lateral flight plan management & The combination that regroups all of
the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 4.
B) 3, 4.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 1, 3, 4.

49. “The FMS can provides the following functions: & 1 & lateral and vertical
flight plan management & 2 & de icing management & 3 & aircraft position
computation & 4 & terrain awareness and warning & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3, 4.
B) 4.
C) 1, 3.
D) 1, 2, 3.

50. “Which statement is correct as regards a dual Flight Management System

&FMS&? & Note: FMC = Flight Management Computer”
A) “In `Dual Mode` both FMCs independently process the pilots` inputs
B) there is zero cross&checking between the FMCs.”
C) In `Independent Mode` both FMCs are decoupled, and there is zero cross&checking
between them.
D) “In `Single Mode` both FMCs are decoupled

51. “In a dual FMS architecture, when an incompatibility between the two
FMC`s occurs: & &NB: FMC = Flight Management Computer&”
A) both FMC`s are automatically switched OFF.
B) one FMC is automatically switched OFF.
C) “both FMC`s are working independently
D) they are linked only to their own peripherals.”

52. Which statement concerning FMS design is correct?

A) The FMS computer combines FADEC and FBW &Fly&By&Wire& functions.
B) The FMS Control Display Unit allows engagement of Autopilot and Autothrottle.
C) The FMS computer integrates performance management with Area Navigation.
D) The FMS computer is the interface between the Autoflight system and EFIS.

53. “The FMS provides the following functions: & 1 & vertical flight plan
management & 2 & aid for fuel management & 3 & lateral flight plan
management & 4 & terrain awareness and warning & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 3, 4.
C) 2, 3, 4.
D) 1, 2, 4.

54. “The FMS provides the following functions: & 1 & aid for fuel management
& 2 & lateral flight plan management & 3 & check&list completion & 4 & aircraft
position computation & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 2, 3.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 3, 4.
D) 1, 2, 4.

55. The validity period of the navigation data base of a FMS is:
A) one calendar month.
B) 3 calendar months.
C) 28 days.
D) 14 days.
56. “The FMS navigation database includes the following data: & 1 & airports &
2 & obstacles & 3 & navaids & 4 & airways & 5 & terrain. & The combination
that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3, 4.
B) 2, 5.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 1, 3, 4, 5.

57. “The FMS navigation database includes the following data: & 1 & airports &
2 & take off speeds & 3 & navaids & 4 & terrain & 5 & runways & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 3, 4, 5.
B) 1, 2, 5.
C) 1, 3, 5.
D) 1, 2, 3.

58. The duration of a FMS navigation database loaded before expiring is:
A) 28 days.
B) 15 days.
C) 2 months.
D) 3 months.

59. “The FMS navigation database includes the following data: & 1 & obstacles
& 2 & navaids & 3 & SID, STAR and approaches procedures & 4 & waypoints &
5 & airways & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
B) 1, 2, 4.
C) 2, 3, 4, 5.
D) 1, 3, 5.

60. Which Flight Management System databases are typically loadable?

A) The navigation database and the user database.
B) The performance database and the user database.
C) The navigation database and the operating system.
D) The navigation database and the performance database.

61. The aircraft database of the Flight Management Computer is updated

A) manually every month.
B) automatically after touchdown.
C) continuously during flight.
D) only after a software update.

62. The performance factor is used to correct predicted fuel flow when the
actual aircraft drag and the engine performance differs from the nominal
model due to
A) the aircraft type.
B) the aircraft`s age.
C) the aircraft`s take&off weight.
D) weather conditions.

63. “Which of the following statements regarding the “”performance factor”” is

correct? & It is a…”
A) positive factor that is used to show the percentage increase in fuel consumption when
there is an abnormal increase in drag.
B) cost index used to show the efficiency of the aircraft as a percentage of the nominal
performance.
C) positive or negative factor that is used to correct the predicted fuel flow.
D) positive or negative factor that is used to calculate the percentage error in fuel
consumption due to differences between nominal and icing conditions.

64. The data base of a FMC &flight management computer& is divided into two
major sections:
A) aeroplane performance and fuel saving.
B) navigation and meteorology.
C) aeroplane performance and navigation.
D) inertial and navigation.

65. “The FMS navigation database includes the following data: & 1 & obstacles
& 2 & waypoints & 3 & SID, STAR & 4 & terrain & 5 & magnetic variation & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 3, 5.
C) 2, 3, 5.
D) 1, 2, 4.

66. “The FMS enables to fly an optimum flight profile. For this, the FMC &Flight
Management Computer& uses: & 1 & flight&crew entered flight plan data & 2 &
data from ADC & 3 & aircraft position & 4 & a memorised relief world data base
& 5 & data from the FMC navigation data base & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 5.
B) 1, 2, 3, 5.
C) 2, 3, 4.
D) 1, 3, 5.

67. Concerning the FMS, the cost index is computed by dividing:

A) aircraft cruise speed by fuel cost.
B) fuel cost by aircraft operating cost.
C) aircraft operating cost by fuel cost.
D) fuel cost by aircraft cruise speed.

68. Concerning the FMS, entering a cost index of zero results in:
A) minimum airspeed.
B) maximum cruising airspeed.
C) maximum range airspeed.
D) minimum range airspeed.

69. Concerning the FMS, entering a cost index of zero:

A) does not influence fuel consumption.
B) results in maximum trip fuel.
C) results in minimum trip fuel.
D) does not influence the FMS cruising speed.

70. The FMS vertical navigation management is generally performed based on:
A) a mix of baro and GPS altitudes.
B) the geometric altitude input from the Terrain Awareness and Warning System &TAWS&.
C) the GPS altitude computed by the GPS receiver.
D) the baro altitude input from the ADC.

71. “The “”overfly”” symbol related to a waypoint on an FMS page indicates

that:”
A) the aircraft is required to pass directly over this waypoint.
B) turn anticipation is permitted.
C) time estimate is given for this waypoint.
D) fuel prediction is given for this waypoint.

72. For a FMS designed with the lateral navigation &NAV or LNAV& capability
coupled to the autopilot, the FMS lateral command output is:
A) a lateral acceleration.
B) a calibrated airspeed &CAS& and a cross track distance &XTK&.
C) a longitudinal acceleration and a roll rate.
D) a bank angle or a heading demand.

73. The FMS cross track &XTK& is:

A) the distance error between the FMS computed position and the IRS computed position.
B) the distance error between the FMS computed position and the GPS computed position.
C) the angular distance error, to the left or right from the desired track &DT& to the aircraft
track &TK&.
D) the abeam distance error, to the left or right from the desired flight plan leg to the aircraft
position.

74. “For a FMS designed with the vertical navigation capability coupled to the
autopilot, the FMS vertical command output can be: & 1 & an angle of attack &
2 & a flight path angle & 3 & a speed target & The combination that regroups
all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 2, 3.
C) 1, 2.
D) 2.
75. “For most FMS the fuel prediction function, which computes the remaining
fuel along the flight plan, takes into account the following situations: & 1 & the
gross weight if the aircraft & 2 & the current wind computed or the resulting
ground speed & 3 & the additional drag in case the landing gear remains
extended & 4 & the additional drag resulting in a missing fuselage or wing
element in compliance with the CDL &Configuration Deviation List& & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 3.
D) 1, 2.

76. “The FMS FLIGHT PLAN or LEG page displays the following parameters
relative to the flight plan legs or waypoints: & 1 & distance & 2 & altitude
constraint or prediction & 3 & waypoint elevation & 4 & track & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 4.
B) 1, 3, 4.
C) 2, 3, 4.
D) 1, 2, 3.

77. “The FMS FLIGHT PLAN or LEG page displays the following parameters
relative to the flight plan legs or waypoints: & 1 & aircraft position &Long /
Lat& & 2 & speed & 3 & distance & 4 & track & The combination that regroups
all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 1, 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 3, 4.
D) 2, 3, 4.

78. The fuel management performed by most FMS along the flight plan is
considered as:
A) an accurate function which can be considered as the prime source to determine the
remaining fuel quantity along the flight plan.
B) a function which helps the crew to estimate the remaining fuel quantity along the flight
plan but should not be considered as an accurate and reliable source.
C) an accurate and very reliable function providing that the fuel on board quantity has been
properly initialised by the crew before start up.
D) the prime source to manage the fuel consumption along the flight.

79. When two waypoints are entered on the FMS flight plan page, a track
between the two fixes is computed and can be displayed on the Navigation
map display &ND&. This leg created is:
A) a rhumb&line.
B) a great circle arc.
C) two great circle arcs joined by a straight segment.
D) two rhumb&lines joined by a straight segment.
80. “The FMS FLIGHT PLAN or LEG page displays the following parameters
relative to the flight plan legs or waypoints: & 1 & track & 2 & magnetic
variation & 3 & waypoint elevation & 4 & speed & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 3, 4.
C) 1, 4.
D) 1, 2, 4.

81. The FMS Required Time of Arrival &RTA& function can provide:
A) a time slot computed for the arrival time at destination, using the current aircraft speed
and speed constraints along the flight plan.
B) a speed target to satisfy a time constraint entered at a flight plan waypoint.
C) a time prediction at the active TO waypoint complying with the wind computation.
D) a time prediction at the flight plan waypoints based on the current speed and speed
constraints along the flight plan.

82. “A FMS can correct its fuel computations for the following non&standard
configurations: & 1 & landing gear down. & 2 & speed brakes extended. & 3 &
one engine out. & 4 & slats / flaps not fully retracted. & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 4.
B) 2, 3.
C) 4.
D) 3.

83. “Some FMS have an autotuning function. & Which parameters can be
automatically tuned?”
A) Radio navigation frequencies.
B) HF frequencies.
C) VHF communication and navigation frequencies.
D) VHF communication frequencies.

84. One of the main functionalities of a Flight Management System is the…

A) graphical representation of all aircraft systems and checklists.
B) graphical representation of all aircraft systems.
C) construction of the three&dimensional aircraft trajectory.
D) construction of the four&dimensional aircraft trajectory.

85. In flight, which navigation receivers are typically used for flight
management position updating?
A) DME, VOR, LOC, and LORAN receivers.
B) DME, VOR, LOC, and INS receivers.
C) DME, NDB, and GPS receivers.
D) DME, VOR, LOC, and GPS receivers.

86. The FMS Cost Index is used to adapt the

A) Specific Fuel Consumption to the fuel density.
B) take&off thrust to the Outside Air Temperature.
C) performance index to the actual wind.
D) flight path to the direct operating cost.

87. The FMS automatically tunes radio navigation facilities in the database
based on the
A) closest radio facility.
B) best available signals in terms of geometry and strength.
C) radio navigation facility with the highest frequency.
D) performance factor of the aircraft database.

88. During a loss of GPS signal, the FMS position…

A) will remain stable because GPS is only a secondary sensor for normal operations.
B) will be completely reset.
C) may deviate from the actual position.
D) will be calculated using the data from the current navigation database.

89. “Concerning the FMS, the parameters used to work out the vertical flight
profile are: & 1 & zero fuel weight & 2 & cost index & 3 & fuel quantity & 4 &
oxygen quantity available for flight crew & 5 & minimum safe enroute altitude
& The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 2, 3, 5.
C) 1, 2, 5.
D) 3, 4, 5.

90. Concerning the FMS, entering a high cost index results in:
A) minimum trip fuel.
B) high airspeed and high fuel consumption.
C) minimum airspeed.
D) maximum range airspeed.

91. The FMS lateral offset function consists in:

A) flying a FMS selected lateral pattern used for search and rescue operations.
B) creating a new waypoint using a reference flight plan waypoint and a distance From this
waypoint along the flight plan legs.
C) displaying the lateral cross track deviation &XTK& of the aircraft according to the active
flight plan leg.
D) flying along the flight plan legs with a constant right or left offset manually entered on the
FMS CDU.

92. “For most FMS the fuel prediction function, which computes the remaining
fuel along the flight plan, takes into account the following parameters: & 1 &
the additional drag in case the landing gear can not be retracted & 2 & the
cruise flight level & 3 & the additional drag in case the flaps are blocked and
partly extended & 4 & the current wind computed or the resulting ground
speed & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3, 4.
B) 1, 3.
C) 1, 2, 4.
D) 2, 4.

93. “On the CDU of an FMS, the message “”Insufficient Fuel”” is displayed
if…”
A) too little fuel is on board for diversion when the flight crew initiates a go&around
procedure.
B) the fuel quantity falls to 25 & of the total capacity of the fuel tanks.
C) the refuelling process on the ground is stopped before the required amount of fuel is on
board.
D) the calculated estimated fuel at the destination airport is less than the fuel reserve value
entered.

94. The component used to enter the flight plan routing in the FMS is the:
A) Multipurpose Control and Display Unit &MCDU&.
B) Flight Director system &FD&.
C) Flight Management Computer &FMC&.
D) Automatic Flight and Control System &AFCS&

95. What is the purpose of a Multi Control Display Unit?

A) It provides the primary human/machine interface for data entry and system architecture.
B) It provides the primary human/machine interface for autoflight mode management.
C) It calculates the required primary flight control surface deflections.
D) It provides the primary human/machine interface for data entry and navigation
management.

96. The display of the FMS CDU &Control Display Unit& shows
A) an alphabetical performance and navigation database.
B) an integrated DME and Horizontal Situation Indicator.
C) a combined weather radar, collision avoidance, and terrain indicator.
D) a title, a number of selectable lines, and a scratchpad.

97. Alarms are standardised and follow a code of colours. Those requiring
action but not immediately, are characterised by the following colour:
A) red.
B) green.
C) flashing red.
D) amber.

98. If immediate recognition and corrective or compensatory action by the

crew is required, the flight warning system &FWS& generates:
A) a distress message.
B) an advisory message.
C) a caution message.
D) a warning message.
99. If immediate crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action will
be required, the flight warning system &FWS& generates:
A) a caution message.
B) a warning message.
C) an advisory message.
D) an urgency message.

100. If crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action may be

required, the flight warning system &FWS& generates:
A) a call message.
B) a caution message.
C) a warning message.
D) an advisory message.

101. The flight warning system &FWS& generates a caution message if:
A) immediate recognition and corrective or compensatory action by the crew is required.
B) crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action may be required.
C) immediate crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action will be required.
D) crew awareness is required and corrective or compensatory action by the crew is
immediately required.

102. The flight warning system &FWS& generates an advisory message if:
A) crew awareness is required and corrective or compensatory action by the crew is
required.
B) immediate recognition and corrective or compensatory action by the crew is required.
C) immediate crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action will be required.
D) crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action may be required.

103. If warning, caution, or advisory lights are installed in the flight deck, they
must, unless otherwise approved by the Authority, be amber for:
A) warning lights.
B) advisory lights.
C) caution lights.
D) other urgency messages.

104. Lights indicating a hazard which may require immediate corrective action
must be:
A) amber.
B) yellow.
C) magenta.
D) red.

105. If warning, caution, or advisory lights are installed in the flight deck, they
must, unless otherwise approved by the Authority, be green, for:
A) caution lights.
B) advisory lights.
C) warning lights.
D) safe operation lights.

106. Concerning the flight warning system &FWS&, if aural signals are
provided, the signal for:
A) a caution should always take priority over that for a warning.
B) an advisory should always take priority over that for a caution.
C) an advisory should always take priority over that for a warning.
D) a warning should always take priority over that for a caution.

107. Concerning the flight warning system &FWS&, advisory messages may
be:
A) any colour except green.
B) red.
C) any colour except amber.
D) any colour except red, and preferably not amber.

108. Concerning the flight warning system &FWS&, warning messages:

A) are never associated to a fire engine.
B) are inhibited by caution messages.
C) indicate that subsequent crew action may be required.
D) are highest priority alert messages.

109. Concerning the flight warning system &FWS&, caution messages:

A) are the next highest priority alert messages after warning messages.
B) are inhibited by advisory messages.
C) indicate that immediate recognition and corrective or compensatory action by the crew is
required.
D) are the highest priority alert messages.

110. When the flight warning system &FWS& identifies an overspeed condition
&airspeed exceeding VMO/MMO&, it generates:
A) a caution message.
B) an advisory message.
C) a call message.
D) a warning message.

111. “The flight warning system &FWS&: & 1 & draws the attention of the crew
to the existence of an abnormal condition & 2 & supplies indications to the
crew to identify an abnormal condition & 3 & transmits automatically to ATC
urgency messages & 4 & can not generate alerts in case of engine
malfunctions & 5 & prioritises warnings & The combination that regroups all of
the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 4, 5.
B) 1, 2, 4.
C) 1, 2, 5.
D) 1,4.
112. “The flight warning system &FWS&: & 1 & increases the situation
awareness of the crew & 2 & transmits automatically to ATC distress
messages & 3 & supplies suitable indications to the crew of the action
necessary to avoid impending danger & 4 & prioritises warnings & 5 & can not
generate alerts in case of aerodynamic limits exceeding & The combination
that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3, 5.
B) 2, 3, 4, 5.
C) 1, 4, 5.
D) 1, 3, 4.

113. In case of impending stall, the flight warning system &FWS& generates:
A) a warning message.
B) a caution message.
C) an urgency message.
D) an advisory message.

114. For compatibility between the different components of a flight warning

system, the priority from the highest to the lowest is:
A) GPWS, Stall, TCAS, Windshear.
B) TCAS, Stall, Windshear, GPWS.
C) Stall, Windshear, GPWS, TCAS.
D) Stall, TCAS, GPWS, Windshear.

115. The flight warning system &FWS& generates a warning message if:
A) immediate crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action will be required.
B) immediate recognition and corrective or compensatory action by the crew is required.
C) crew awareness is required and subsequent crew action may be required.
D) immediate crew awareness is required and corrective or compensatory action by the crew
may be required.

116. If warning, caution, or advisory lights are installed in the flight deck, they
must, unless otherwise approved by the Authority, be red for:
A) advisory lights.
B) warning lights.
C) caution lights.
D) other distress messages.

117. Lights indicating the possible need for future corrective action must be:
A) red.
B) amber.
C) Magenta.
D) red and white striped.

118. TCAS II uses for its operation:

A) the replies from the transponders of other aircraft.
B) both the replies from the transponders of other aircraft and the ground&based radar
echoes.
C) the echoes from the ground air traffic control radar system.
D) the echoes of collision avoidance radar system especially installed on board.

119. Concerning the TCAS II:

A) No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a serviceable SSR
transponder.
B) “In one of the system modes, the warning: “”PULL UP”” is generated.”
C) “In one of the system modes, the warning: “”TOO LOW TERRAIN”” is generated.”
D) No protection is available against aircraft not equipped with a serviceable FMS.

120. The TCAS II generates avoidance resolutions:

A) only in the vertical plane
B) based on speed control
C) in horizontal and vertical planes
D) only in the horizontal plane

121. TCAS makes use of:

A) FMS.
B) airborne weather radar system.
C) transponders fitted in the aircraft.
D) ground radar.

122. “TCAS II may provide: & 1 & a TA &Traffic Advisory& & 2 & a horizontal
RA &Resolution Advisory& & 3 & a vertical RA &Resolution Advisory& & 4 & a
ground proximity warning & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4.
D) 1, 2.

123. “The TCAS computer uses the following data: & 1 & TAS & 2 &
Configuration &gear / flaps& & 3 & Pressure altitude from the mode C
transponder & 4 & Height from the radio altimeter & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 2, 4.
C) 2, 3, 4.
D) 1, 3, 4.

124. When an intruder is equipped with a transponder without altitude

reporting capability, the TCAS II may issue a:
A) “””traffic advisory”” and vertical “”resolution advisory””.”
B) “””traffic advisory”” and horizontal “”resolution advisory””.”
C) “””traffic advisory”” only.”
D) “””traffic advisory””, vertical and horizontal “”resolution advisory””.”

125. When an intruder is equipped with a serviceable mode C transponder, the

TCAS II can generate a:
A) traffic advisory and horizontal resolution advisory.
B) traffic advisory, vertical and horizontal resolution advisory.
C) traffic advisory and vertical resolution advisory.
D) vertical traffic advisory and an horizontal resolution advisory.

126. When a TCAS II generates a corrective resolution advisory:

A) no action is required: vertical speed, heading and IAS can remained unchanged.
B) the heading must be effectively modified without delay.
C) the vertical speed must be effectively modified without delay.
D) the IAS must be effectively modified without delay.

127. A preventative resolution advisory of a TCAS II:

A) requests the pilot to modify the heading of his aircraft.
B) requests the pilot to modify the speed of his aircraft.
C) requests the pilot to modify effectively the vertical speed of his aircraft.
D) advises the pilot to monitor the vertical speed.

128. A TCAS II traffic advisory is displayed as:

A) a red full square.
B) a white or cyan empty lozenge.
C) an amber solid circle.
D) a white or cyan solid lozenge.

129. A TCAS II resolution advisory is displayed as:

A) a white or cyan solid lozenge.
B) an amber solid circle.
C) a red full square.
D) a white or cyan empty lozenge.

130. A TCAS II proximate traffic is displayed as:

A) an amber solid circle.
B) a white or cyan empty lozenge.
C) a white or cyan solid lozenge.
D) a red full square.

131. “The TCAS II data display devices can be in the form of: & 1 & a specific
dedicated screen & 2 & a screen combined with the weather radar & 3 & a
variometer represented on a liquid crystal screen which allows the display of
Traffic Advisory &TA& and Resolution Advisory &RA& & 4 & an EFIS screen &
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4.
D) 3, 4.

132. A TCAS II provides:

A) a simple intruder proximity warning.
B) the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance
manoeuvre within the horizontal plane only.
C) the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance
manoeuvre within both the vertical and horizontal planes.
D) the intruder relative position and possibly an indication of a collision avoidance
manoeuvre within the vertical plane only.

133. “The main function&s& of a TCAS is to: & 1 & alert the crew to ground
proximity & 2 & alert the crew to possible conflicting traffic & 3 & provide
terrain alerting and display & 4 & automatically resolve conflict when autopilot
engaged & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 4.
B) 1, 3.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4.
D) 2.

134. “Concerning the TCAS II: & 1 & Neither advisory nor traffic display is
provided for aircraft that do not have an operating transponder & 2 & TCAS II
operation is independent of ground&based ATC & 3 & TCAS II has feeds from
the radioaltimeter & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 2.
C) 2, 3.
D) 1, 3.

135. “Your aircraft is TCAS II equipped

A) 3
B) “three dimensional
C) your TCAS can generate both TAs &Traffic Advisories& and RAs &Resolution
Advisories&.”
D) “two dimensional only

136. “Your aircraft is TCAS II equipped

A) 4
B) “three dimensional
C) your TCAS cannot generate RAs &Resolution Advisories&.”
D) “two dimensional only

137. “Your aircraft and an intruder are both TCAS II equipped. & The
information relating to this intruder available on your TCAS equipment is:”
A) “two dimensional only
B) your TCAS can generate both TAs &Traffic Advisories& and RAs &Resolution
Advisories&.”
C) “three dimensional
D) avoidance manoeuvres between both aircraft cannot be co&ordinated.”

138. Your aircraft is TCAS II equipped. To be able to generate a resolution

advisory &RA&, the intruder must be at least equipped with:
A) a transponder mode C.
B) a transponder mode B.
C) a transponder mode A.
D) a TCAS II.

139. “Your aircraft and an intruder both are TCAS II equipped. & Your TCAS
determines the relative height of the intruder by:”
A) interrogating the ATC ground station.
B) using the range function of the weather radar.
C) comparing the mode C pressure altitudes of the two aircraft.
D) comparing the GPS heights of the two aircraft.

140. Your TCAS can determine the bearing of an intruder by:

A) using the bearing function of the on&board weather radar.
B) comparing the GPS positions of the two aircraft.
C) using two specific antennas.
D) measuring the time lapse between the transmission of an interrogation signal and the
reception of a reply signal.

141. Your aircraft is TCAS II equipped. To be able to generate a traffic advisory

&TA&, the intruder must be at least equipped with:
A) a transponder mode C.
B) a TCAS II.
C) a transponder mode A.
D) a transponder mode S.

142. When the TCAS II generates a Resolution Advisory &RA&, the associated
intruder appears on TCAS display as a:
A) solid red circle.
B) solid red square.
C) solid amber square.
D) solid amber circle.

143. Concerning the TCAS II, when receiving a resolution advisory &RA&, crew
members should:
A) immediately engage autopilot which will be temporarily controlled by the TCAS.
B) try to establish visual contact with the intruder before taking any evasive action.
C) immediately initiate the required manoeuvre.
D) disregard this RA if the own aircraft is equipped with a mode S transponder.

144. The TCAS II has inputs from the radio altimeter in order to:
A) gradually inhibit the resolution advisories &RAs& when getting closer to the ground.
B) determine the relative height of the intruder.
C) stop the TCAS operation below 2500 AGL.
D) alert the crew from a dangerous proximity of the ground.

145. When a TCAS Resolution Advisory &RA& climb instruction is generated,

the required vertical speed range displayed on the vertical speed indicator:
A) always takes into account the stall margin.
B) takes into account a 1.3 Vs stall margin.
C) does not take into account the stall margin.
D) takes into account a 1.1 Vs stall margin.

146. In case of complete failure of the transponder, the TCAS will:

A) no longer operate normally.
B) continue to operate normally.
C) operate in the Traffic Advisory &TA& mode only.
D) operate in the Resolution Advisory &RA& mode only.

147. “A TCAS Resolution Advisory &RA& voice message “”CLIMB & CLIMB
NOW”” repeated twice is generated:”
A) “after a “”CLIMB”” resolution advisory when the climb rate is too weak.”
B) “each time after a “”CLIMB”” resolution advisory is generated.”
C) “after a “”DESCEND”” resolution advisory when a reversal in the vertical manoeuvre
sense is required.”
D) when clear of conflict and when the aircraft is below the cruise altitude.

148. When comparing a TCAS Traffic Advisory &TA& and a Resolution

Advisory &RA&, which of the following statements is correct?
A) “A RA indicates the relative position of the intruder
B) a TA provides a vertical traffic avoidance manoeuvre.”
C) “A TA indicates the relative position of the intruder
D) an RA provides a vertical traffic avoidance manoeuvre.”

149. The anticollision logic of a TCAS II is based on the following criteria:

A) distance.
B) time.
C) velocity.
D) acceleration.

150. “&For this question use annex 022&007 issue date October 2008& & On
the ND, the TCAS generates the intruder aircraft symbol represented in the
annex. The correct intruder vertical information is:”
A) 300 ft below, descending.
B) 30 ft below, descending.
C) 300 ft above, descending.
D) 30 ft below, vertical separation reduced to less than 30 feet.

151. “&For this question use annex 022&007 issue date October 2008& & On
the ND, the TCAS generates the intruder aircraft symbol represented in the
annex. The correct intruder vertical information is:”
A) 3000 ft below, descending.
B) 3000 ft above, descending.
C) 300 ft below, descending.
D) 300 ft below, vertical separation reduced to less than 300 feet.

152. In the event of a traffic conflict, TCAS II presents warnings to the crew
such as:
A) “””Glide Slope”””
B) “””Too low terrain”””
C) “””Climb”” or “”Descent”””
D) “””Turn left”” or “”Turn right”””

153. Your aircraft and an intruder both are TCAS II equipped. If the transponder
of the intruder is switched off or unserviceable:
A) the intruder remains visible to your TCAS equipment, but only RAs &resolution
advisories& can be generated.
B) the intruder is invisible to your TCAS equipment.
C) the information available to your TCAS equipment is two dimensional only.
D) the intruder remains visible to your TCAS equipment, but only TAs &traffic advisories&
can be generated.

154. Your aircraft and an intruder are TCAS II equipped. Your TCAS can
generate:
A) co&ordinated traffic advisories.
B) co&ordinated resolution advisories.
C) resolution advisories co&ordinated with the ATC instructions.
D) traffic advisories co&ordinated with the ATC instructions.

155. Your aircraft and an intruder are both TCAS II equipped. Your TCAS:
A) can generate co&ordinated resolution advisories by activating the on&board radar
system.
B) can generate co&ordinated resolution advisories.
C) cannot generate co&ordinated resolution advisories.
D) can generate co&ordinated resolution advisories by interrogating the radar ground
station.

156. “Your aircraft and an intruder both are TCAS II equipped. & Your TCAS
determines the range of the intruder by:”
A) measuring the time lapse between the transmission of an interrogation signal and the
reception of a reply signal from the transponder of the intruder.
B) measuring the time lapse between the transmission of an interrogation signal and the
reception of a reply signal from the ground station.
C) comparing the GPS positions of the two aircraft.
D) using the range function of the on&board weather radar.

157. The upper antenna of the TCAS II is:

A) omnidirectional to improve the surveillance of intruders.
B) directional and separate from the transponder antenna.
C) directional because it is merged with the transponder antenna.
D) omnidirectional because it is merged with the transponder antenna.

158. “&For this question use annex 022&008 issue date October 2008& & On
the ND, the TCAS generates the intruder aircraft symbol represented in the
annex. The correct intruder vertical information is:”
A) level at your altitude, associated with a traffic advisory &TA&.
B) level at your altitude, associated with a resolution advisory &RA&.
C) at your altitude, climbing with a vertical speed greater than 500 ft/min.
D) at your altitude, climbing, associated with a traffic advisory &TA&.

159. The Flight Warning System

A) gives evasive manoeuvres to avoid collisions with terrain and/or aircraft.
B) automatically performs corrective actions in case of level 1, 2, and 3 alerts.
C) receives, categorises, and gives status messages from aircraft systems.
D) holds the built&in test equipment to examine the various aircraft systems.

160. Flight warning systems provide alerts, appropriate for the severity and the
flight phase, to the flight crew using…
A) aural, tactile, and/or temperature alerts.
B) visual and/or aural alerts.
C) visual, aural, and/or sensorial illusion alerts.
D) visual and/or motion&cueing alerts.

161. “Which of the items listed below are correct as regards the following
statement? & The purpose of the Flight Warning System is to & 1. give an alert
in case of failures, & 2. test relevant aircraft systems, & 3. take corrective
actions, & 4. show engine parameters.”
A) 1 only.
B) 1 and 2.
C) 1, 2, and 3.
D) 1, 3, and 4.

162. “On a large aeroplane, the input data of the stall warning system are: & 1
& angle of attack & 2 & weight & 3 & bank angle & 4 & configuration &slats /
flaps& & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 4
B) 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2.
D) 1, 2, 4.

163. “The stall warning computer uses the following data: & 1 & mass of the
aeroplane & 2 & angle of attack & 3 & wing flap deflection & 4 & position of the
landing gear & 5 & TAT & 6 & pressure altitude & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3, 5.
B) 2, 3.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4.
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.

164. “On a large aeroplane, the computer of a stall warning system receives
information about the: & 1 & angle of attack & 2 & engine RPM. & 3 &
configuration & 4 & pitch and bank angles & 5 & sideslip & The combination
that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
C) 1, 5.
D) 1, 2, 3, 4.

165. “The stall warning system of a large aeroplane includes: & 1 & an angle of
attack sensor & 2 & a computer & 3 & an independent pitot probe & 4 & a
transmitter of the flap/slat position indicating system & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 3.
C) 2, 4.
D) 1, 2, 4.

166. A stall warning system makes use of:

A) attitude.
B) groundspeed.
C) TAS.
D) angle of attack.

167. On a large aeroplane and according to the CS25: when the speed is
reduced, the stall warning must begin:
A) at the stall speed +/& 5&.
B) at a speed exceeding the stall speed by not less than 5 kt or 5& CAS.
C) exactly at the stall speed.
D) at a speed exceeding the stall speed by not less than 10 kt or 10& CAS.

168. On a large aeroplane and according to the CS25: the regulatory margin
between the stall and stall warning is:
A) 5 kt or 5& of the CAS whichever is the greater.
B) 5 kt or 5& of the CAS whichever is the lower.
C) VS0 + 5&
D) VS0 + 5kt.

169. On a large aeroplane and according to the CS25: the stall warning system
must provide an alarm with sufficient margin to prevent inadvertent stalling:
A) with the flaps not retracted only, whatever the position of the landing gear.
B) with the flaps fully extended and gear down only.
C) with the flaps and landing gear in any normal position.
D) with the flaps down and gear up only.

170. “On most aeroplanes, the stall warning is inhibited: & 1 & when the flaps
are retracted & 2 & when the aeroplane is on the ground & 3 & when
encountering a windshear & 4 & upon receiving a GPWS alert & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3.
B) 2, 4.
C) 1, 2.
D) 2.

171. According to CS 25.207 &c&, stall warning must begin:

A) at a speed &Vsw& exceeding the speed at which the stall is identified by not less than five
knots or five percent CAS, whichever is greater.
B) at the stalling speed plus five knots.
C) at a speed &Vsw& which is five knots or five percent CAS lower than the speed at which
the stall is identified, whichever is lower.
D) at the stalling speed plus five percent CAS.

172. “To stop the warning generated by a stall warning system, the pilot: & 1 &
can push the inhibit aural warning button. & 2 & can switch off the stall
warning system. & 3 & must leave the stall conditions. & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 3.
C) 2, 3.
D) 3.

173. “A stall warning system can use to warn the flight crew by: & 1 & an aural
warning. & 2 & a stick shaker connected to the control column. & 3 & a
vibration device connected to the autothrottle. & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 2.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 1, 3.

174. The stick shaker is part of the:

A) Stall Protection System.
B) Flight Envelope Protection &FEP& system.
C) Automatic Flight Control System &AFCS&.
D) Stall Warning System &SWS&.

175. “At high angles of attack and according to the type of aeroplane, the stall
protection system can: & 1 & extend the flaps to the full position. & 2 &
increase thrust. & 3 & inhibit the pitch trim orders in the nose down direction.
& The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 2, 3.
D) 1, 3.

176. “At high angles of attack and according to the type of aeroplane, the stall
protection system can: & 1 & inhibit the pitch trim orders in the nose up
direction. & 2 & retract the speed brakes. & 3 & increase thrust. & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 3.
C) 1, 2.
D) 1, 3.

177. The main input of a stall protection system is:

A) the angle of attack.
B) the g load.
C) the airspeed.
D) the pitch angle.

178. A Stall Protection System can activate the…

A) Automatic Pitch Trim just before the wing stalls.
B) Stick Shaker just before the horizontal stabiliser stalls.
C) Autothrottle when the speed drops below a minimum limit.
D) Autopilot when the Angle of Attack becomes too high.

179. What is an aircraft stall protection system?

A) A system that triggers the TAWS terrain warning.
B) A system that protects the aircraft from an impending stall without pilot intervention.
C) An autopilot degraded mode.
D) A system that warns the pilot of an impending stall.

180. “To stop the warning generated by an overspeed warning system, the
pilot: & 1 & can push the inhibit aural warning button. & 2 & can switch off the
overspeed warning system. & 3 & must reduce the airspeed. & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 3.
C) 2, 3.
D) 3.

181. “In a mechanical instrument, the VMO/MMO pointer &barberpole&

connects to which of the items listed below? & 1. Aneroid capsule & 2.
Differential pressure capsule & 3. Temperature&sensitive capsule”
A) 1 and 2.
B) 1, 2, and 3.
C) 2 only.
D) 1 only.

182. “To warn the flight crew, an overspeed warning system can use: & 1 & an
aural warning. & 2 & a stick shaker connected to the control column. & 3 & a
vibration device connected to the autothrottle. & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 2.
D) 1, 2.

183. An overspeed warning is provided to…

A) prevent inadvertent excursions below limit speed VS &Stall Speed&.
B) prevent inadvertent excursions beyond limit speed VD &Design Diving Speed&.
C) prevent inadvertent excursions beyond limit speeds, VMO/MMO &Maximum Operating
Limit Speed/Mach number&.
D) alert crew of an impending engine overspeed condition.

184. “A large aeroplane must be fitted with a take&off configuration warning. &
During the initial portion of the take&off roll, which of these statements are
correct or incorrect? & I & An aural warning is provided if the longitudinal trim
device is in a position that would not allow a safe take&off. & II & An aural
warning is provided if the parking brake is unreleased.”
A) I is correct, II is correct.
B) I is correct, II is incorrect.
C) I is incorrect, II is correct.
D) I is incorrect, II is incorrect.

185. “A large aeroplane must be fitted with a take&off configuration warning. &
During the initial portion of the take&off roll, which of these statements are
correct or incorrect? & I & An aural warning is provided if the elevator is not in
a safe position for take&off. & II & An aural warning is provided if the brake
pressure is too low.”
A) I is incorrect, II is incorrect.
B) I is correct, II is correct.
C) I is correct, II is incorrect.
D) I is incorrect, II is correct.

186. “A large aeroplane must be fitted with a take&off configuration warning. &
During the initial portion of the take&off roll, which of these statements are
correct or incorrect? & I & An aural warning is provided if the elevator is not in
a safe position for take&off. & II & An aural warning is provided if the brake is
unreleased.”
A) I is correct, II is incorrect.
B) I is correct, II is correct.
C) I is incorrect, II is incorrect.
D) I is incorrect, II is correct.
187. “The take&off warning of a large transport aeroplane must provide to the
pilot an aural warning if during the initial take&off roll: & 1 & take&off thrust is
not fully applied. & 2 & the flaps are not in the approved range for take&off. & 3
& speed brakes are extended. & 4 & the parking&brake is unreleased. & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3, 4.
B) 1, 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 2.

188. “A large aeroplane must be fitted with a take&off configuration warning. &
During the initial portion of the take&off roll, which of these statements are
correct or incorrect? & I & An aural warning is provided if the longitudinal trim
device is in a position that would not allow a safe take&off. & II & An aural
warning is provided if the parking brake is released.”
A) I is incorrect, II is incorrect.
B) I is correct, II is incorrect.
C) I is incorrect, II is correct.
D) I is correct, II is correct.

189. “The take&off warning of a large transport aeroplane must provide to the
pilot an aural warning if during the initial take&off roll: & 1 & one engine fails.
& 2 & the longitudinal trim is not in the approved range for take&off. & 3 &
take&off thrust is not fully applied. & The combination that regroups all of the
correct statements is:”
A) 2.
B) 1.
C) 1, 3.
D) 1, 2, 3.

190. The altitude alerting system:

A) alerts the flight crew upon approaching a pre&selected altitude.
B) generates a signal once the aircraft is steady at the pre&selected altitude.
C) alerts the flight crew in case of ground proximity.
D) alerts the flight crew in case of an autopilot disengagement.

191. The purpose of the altitude alert system is to generate a visual and aural
warning to the pilot when the:
A) altimeter setting differs from the standard setting above the transition altitude.
B) aeroplane altitude differs from a selected altitude.
C) aeroplane altitude is equal to the decision altitude.
D) proximity to the ground becomes dangerous.

192. “The function of the altitude alerting system is to alert the flight crew: & 1
& upon approaching a pre&selected altitude & 2 & upon approaching a
pre&selected altitude, during climb only & 3 & of a loss of altitude during
take&off or missed approach & 4 & of a wrong landing configuration & 5 &
when deviating from the selected altitude & The combination that regroups all
of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 5.
B) 2, 5.
C) 3, 4.
D) 1, 3, 4.

193. “An altitude alert system must at least warn the crew: & 1 & when
approaching the pre&selected altitude & 2 & when the aeroplane is
approaching the ground too fast & 3 & in case of a given deviation above or
below the pre&selected altitude & 4 & in case of excessive vertical speed & 5 &
when approaching the ground with the gear retracted & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3, 4
B) 2, 4, 5
C) 1, 3
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

194. The radio altimeter is required to indicate zero height AGL as the main
wheels touch down on the runway. For this reason, it is necessary to:
A) adjust the gross height according to the aeroplane instantaneous pitch angle.
B) compensate for residual height and cable length.
C) change the display scale in short final, in order to have a precise readout.
D) have a specific radio altimeter dedicated to automatic landing.

195. “The radio altimeter: & 1 & operates in the 1600&1660 kHz range & 2 &
operates in the 4200&4400 MHz range & 3 & measures a frequency difference
& 4 & measures an amplitude difference & The combination that regroups all
of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 4.
B) 2, 3.
C) 1, 3.
D) 2, 4.

196. The data supplied by a radio altimeter:

A) concerns only the decision height.
B) indicates the distance between the ground and the aircraft.
C) is used only by the radio altimeter indicator.
D) is used by the automatic pilot in the altitude hold mode.

197. During the approach the radio altimeter indicates 950 ft. This is:
A) the height of the lowest wheels with regard to the ground.
B) the relative height of the aircraft with regard to the runway.
C) the height of the pilot eyes with regard to the ground.
D) the relative height of the aircraft above airport level &AAL&.

198. “The radio altimeter supplies data to the following system&s&: & 1 &
altitude alert system & 2 & TCAS & 3 & GPWS & 4 & automatic landing system
& The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 4.
B) 3.
C) 2, 3, 4.
D) 3, 4.

199. In a radio altimeter, the height measurement is based upon:

A) a pulse transmission, for which time between transmission and reception is measured on
a circular scanning screen.
B) a wave transmission, for which the frequency shift by DOPPLER effect after ground
reflection is measured.
C) a frequency modulation wave, for which the frequency difference between the transmitted
wave and the received wave after ground reflection is measured.
D) a triangular amplitude modulation wave, for which modulation phase shift between
transmitted and received waves after ground reflection is measured.

200. A radio altimeter can be defined as a:

A) self&contained on&board aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft
B) self&contained on&board aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft
C) ground radio aid used to measure the true altitude of the aircraft
D) ground radio aid used to measure the true height of the aircraft

201. The maximum range for indication of a radio altimeter is typically from the
ground to:
A) 10 000 ft.
B) 500 ft.
C) 2 500 ft.
D) greater than 10 000 ft.

202. A radio altimeter operates in the following frequency band:

A) 4200 KHz to 4400 KHz.
B) 1600 GHz to 1660 GHz.
C) 1600 KHz to 1660 KHz.
D) 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz.

203. A radio altimeter operates in the following frequency band:

A) VHF &Very High Frequency&.
B) SHF &Super High Frequency&.
C) VLF &Very Low Frequency&.
D) HF &High Frequency&.

204. The signal transmitted by a radio altimeter is:

A) a frequency modulated carrier wave.
B) a pulse modulated carrier wave.
C) a combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation.
D) an amplitude modulated carrier wave.
205. A radio altimeter uses:
A) four antennas: two for the transmission, and two for the reception.
B) two antennas: one for the transmission, and an other for the reception.
C) two antennas: one interrogates other aircraft transponders, and an other for the
reception.
D) a single antenna for simultaneous transmission and reception.

206. A typical radio&altimeter installation consists of

A) four antennas: two longitudinal and two lateral antennas that use Doppler techniques.
B) two antennas: one continuously transmitting and the other continuously receiving a radio
signal.
C) three antennas placed longitudinally: one for transmission and two redundant receive
antennas.
D) one antenna that is alternately transmitting and receiving radio pulses.

207. The GPWS generates the following sound signal or signals when the
aircraft is sinking after a take&off or a go&around:
A) DON`T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP
B) DON`T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if the sink rate overshoots a
second level
C) DON`T SINK repetitive only
D) WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive only

208. “The GPWS warns the crew in case of: & 1 & deviation above or below the
selected altitude & 2 & deviation below the selected altitude & 3 & unsafe
terrain clearance with flaps not in landing configuration & 4 & unsafe terrain
clearance with landing gear not down & The combination that regroups all of
the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3.
B) 1, 4.
C) 3, 4.
D) 2, 3, 4.

209. The operating range of a GPWS is from:

A) the ground to 500 ft
B) the ground to 1000 ft
C) the ground to 2500 ft
D) 30 ft to 5000 ft

210. “The GPWS automatically provides distinctive warning to the flight crew
in case of: & 1 & impeding stall & 2 & excessive descent rate & 3 & altitude
loss after take&off or go&around & 4 & unsafe terrain clearance with flaps not
in landing configuration & 5 & dangerous ground proximity & 6 & downward
glide&slope deviation & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 2, 3, 4, 5.
B) 1, 3, 4, 5.
C) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
D) 1, 2, 6.

211. In case of excessive descent rate, the GPWS generates the following aural
warnings:
A) “””TOO LOW, TERRAIN”” &twice& followed by “”TOO LOW GEAR”” &twice&.”
B) “””TERRAIN, TERRAIN”” followed by “”WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP”” &twice&.”
C) “””DON`T SINK, DON`T SINK””.”
D) “””SINK RATE, SINK RATE”” followed by “”WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP”” &twice&.”

212. “If the GPWS activates, and alerts the pilot with an aural warning “”DON`T
SINK”” &twice&, it is because:”
A) at too low altitude, the aeroplane has an excessive rate of descent.
B) the aeroplane experiences an unexpected proximity to the terrain, with landing gear
retracted.
C) during take&off or missed approach manoeuvre, the aeroplane has started to loose
altitude.
D) the aeroplane experiences an unexpected proximity to terrain, without landing&flap
selected.

213. The aural alert associated with the mode 1 &excessive descent rate& of
the GPWS is:
A) “””TERRAIN””.”
B) “””SINK RATE””.”
C) “””DON`T SINK””.”
D) “””TOO LOW TERRAIN””.”

214. The aural alert associated with the mode 2 &excessive terrain closure
rate& of the GPWS is:
A) “””SINKRATE””.”
B) “””CLIMB””.”
C) “””DON`T SINK””.”
D) “””TERRAIN””.”

215. The aural alert associated with the mode 3 &altitude loss after take&off or
go&around& of the GPWS is:
A) “””TERRAIN””.”
B) “””DON`T SINK””.”
C) “””SINKRATE””.”
D) “””TOO LOW TERRAIN””.”

216. The aural alert&s& associated with the mode 4 of the GPWS &unsafe
terrain clearance while not in the landing configuration& is &are&:
A) “””TOO LOW FLAPS””, “”TOO LOW GEAR””, “”GLIDE SLOPE”””
B) “””TOO LOW GEAR””, “”TOO LOW FLAPS””, “”TOO LOW TERRAIN”””
C) “””TOO LOW, TERRAIN”” only.”
D) “””TOO LOW””, “”CHECK FLAPS””, “”CHECK GEAR””.”
217. The aural alert associated with the mode 5 &excessive deviation below
Glideslope& of the GPWS is:
A) “””MONITOR GLIDESLOPE””.”
B) “””GLIDESLOPE””.”
C) “””CAUTION GLIDESLOPE””.”
D) “””TOO LOW GLIDESLOPE””.”

218. “The aural alert&s& associated with the mode 1 &excessive descent rate&
of the GPWS is &are&: & 1 & “”TERRAIN”” & 2 & “”DON`T SINK”” & 3 &
“”SINKRATE”” & 4 & “”PULL UP”” & The combination that regroups all of the
correct statements is:”
A) 2, 4.
B) 3, 4.
C) 1.
D) 2.

219. “The aural alert&s& associated with the mode 2 &excessive terrain
closure rate& of the GPWS is &are&: & 1 & “”TERRAIN”” & 2 & “”SINKRATE””
& 3 & “”TOO LOW TERRAIN”” & 4 & “”PULL UP”” & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 4.
B) 1, 4.
C) 3, 4.
D) 3.

220. “The aural alert&s& associated with the mode 3 &altitude loss after
take&off or go&around& of the GPWS is &are&: & 1 & “”DON`T SINK”” & 2 &
“” SINKRATE “” & 3 & “”TERRAIN”” & 4 & “”PULL UP”” & The combination
that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2.
B) 1.
C) 2, 4.
D) 3, 4.

221. “The aural alert&s& associated with the mode 5 &excessive deviation
below Glideslope& of the GPWS is &are&: & 1 & “”TERRAIN”” & 2 & “”TOO
LOW GLIDESLOPE”” & 3 & “”GLIDESLOPE”” & 4 & “”PULL UP”” & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 2, 4.
D) 3.

222. “The GPWS warns the crew in case of: & 1 & excessive descent rate & 2 &
excessive terrain closure rate & 3 & potential mid&air collision threat & 4 &
serious mid&air collision threat & 5 & unsafe terrain clearance with landing
gear not down & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements
is:”
A) 4.
B) 1, 2, 3, 5.
C) 1, 2, 5.
D) 1, 2, 4, 5.

223. “The GPWS can warn the crew in case of: & 1 & excessive climb rate & 2
& unsafe terrain clearance when not in landing configuration & 3 & descent
path angle greater than 5 degrees & 4 & windshear & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 4.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 2.
D) 3.

224. In the case of altitude loss during the initial climb after take off, a GPWS
generates the aural alert:
A) “””TOO LOW FLAPS””.”
B) “””TOO LOW GEAR””.”
C) “””DON`T SINK””.”
D) “””TERRAIN AHEAD””.”

225. “The input data of a GPWS computer are: & 1 & vertical speed & 2 & radio
altimeter height & 3 & baro altitude & 4 & glidepath deviation & 5 & gear and
flaps position & 6 & flight path angle & The combination that regroups all of
the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 4, 5.
B) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6.
C) 1, 2, 5, 6.
D) 2, 3, 4, 6.

226. “The GPWS uses the following data: & 1 & CAS & 2 & radio altitude & 3 &
glide slope deviation & 4 & flaps position & 5 & gear position & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3, 5.
B) 2, 4, 5.
C) 2, 3, 4.
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

227. “The input data to the GPWS originate from the: & 1 & transponder & 2 &
angle of attack sensor & 3 & auto throttle system & 4 & ADC & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 4.
B) 2.
C) 1, 4.
D) 3, 4.
228. “The operation of the GPWS is governed by laws taking the aircraft height
into account as well as: & 1 & the descent rate & 2 & the climb rate & 3 & the
aircraft configuration & 4 & the selected engine rpm & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 1, 2, 4.
C) 2, 4.
D) 2, 3.

229. “The GPWS generates a warning in the following cases: & 1 & excessive
descent rate & 2 & excessive terrain closure rate & 3 & altitude loss after
take&off or go&around & 4 & unsafe terrain clearance with abnormal gear/flaps
configuration & 5 & excessive deviation under the glidepath & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 4.
B) 1, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
D) 1, 2, 5.

230. “The aural alert&s& associated with the mode 4 of the GPWS &unsafe
terrain clearance while not in the landing configuration& is &are&: & 1 &
“”TOO LOW GEAR “” & 2 & “”TOO LOW TERRAIN “” & 3 & “”TOO LOW
FLAPS”” & 4 & “”PULL UP”” & The combination that regroups all of the
correct statements is:”
A) 2, 4.
B) 2.
C) 1, 2.
D) 1, 2, 3.

231. “The GPWS can warn the crew in case of: & 1 & excessive deviation
below selected altitude & 2 & windshear & 3 & excessive terrain closing rate &
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 2, 3.
C) 3.
D) 1.

232. “The GPWS receives data from the following systems: & 1 & landing gear
and flaps systems & 2 & engine control computer &FADEC or ECU& & 3 &
radio altimeter & 4 & TCAS & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3, 4.
B) 1, 3.
C) 3, 4.
D) 1, 2.

233. The EGPWS:

A) has nothing to do with the GPWS.
B) is an enhanced GPWS which warns the crew if the aircraft is not in the appropriate
configuration for take&off.
C) is an enhanced GPWS which has a its own world terrain database.
D) is an enhanced GPWS which is able to provide resolution advisories in the lateral plane.

234. “The EGPWS may contain the following functions: & 1 & Abnormal
Take&off Configuration &ATC& & 2 & Terrain Clearance Floor &TCF& & 3 &
Predictive Wind Shear &PWS& & 4 & Terrain Look Ahead Alerting & 5 &
Terrain Alerting and Display &TAD& & The combination that regroups all of the
correct statements is:”
A) 2, 4, 5.
B) 1, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2, 3, 5.
D) 2, 3, 4, 5.

235. When EGPWS terrain is displayed, if the computed aircraft position

becomes less accurate:
A) the EGPWS has its own position sensors thus the terrain display accuracy won`t be
degraded.
B) the EGPWS will perform a correction of position thus the terrain display accuracy won`t
be degraded.
C) the terrain display will diverge from the real terrain environment around the aircraft
position.
D) it has no consequence on the terrain display.

236. “If the computed aircraft position becomes less accurate, the affected
EGPWS function&s& is &are&: & 1 & the “”FIVE HUNDRED”” voice call out & 2
& the excessive rate of descent & 3 & the terrain display on the navigation
display & 4 & the negative climb rate or altitude loss after takeoff & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 3, 4.
B) 3.
C) 4.
D) 1, 2.

237. The EGPWS terrain display can use the following colours:
A) green, yellow, red, white.
B) green, yellow, red, blue.
C) green, red.
D) white, amber, red.

238. When installed, a Terrain Awareness & Warning System &TAWS& must be
coupled to
A) a four&dimensional Flight Management System.
B) a one&dimensional Vertical Speed Indicator.
C) a two&dimensional terrain database.
D) a three&dimensional position sensor.
239. Which of the following correctly lists the inputs required for a TAWS?
A) FMS, GPS, and airshow.
B) Air Data System, IRS, ILS, radio altimeters, FMS, and GPS.
C) Air Data System, IRS, ILS, and radio altimeters.
D) FMS and GPS only.

240. One of the functions of the Enhanced GPWS is terrain alerting. Depending
on aircraft speed, the response time left to the pilot in case of a terrain warning
alert is
A) 20 s & 30 s.
B) 40 s & 60 s.
C) 30 s & 40 s.
D) 10 s & 20 s.

241. “The EGPWS may contain the Terrain Look&Ahead Alerting function
A) 2
B) the same caution and warning envelopes than the mode 2 GPWS &excessive terrain
closure rate&.
C) an electronic map of the world giving ground elevation.
D) a specific radar to detect any high ground in conflict with the flight path of the aircraft.

242. “If the computed aircraft position becomes less accurate, the affected
EGPWS function&s& is &are&: & 1 & the excessive rate of descent & 2 & the
terrain display on the ND & 3 & the flight into terrain when not in landing
conditions & 4 & the excessive deviation below ILS glide path & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3, 4.
B) 2.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 3.

243. Which one of the following is a disadvantage when using CRT displays in
the cockpit of an aircraft?
A) They provide only a monochromatic image.
B) CRT displays can only be made in relatively small sizes.
C) This type of display is more expensive than all other alternatives.
D) They generate a lot of heat and need active cooling systems.

244. Which one of the following is an advantage associated with LCD

displays?
A) They consume relatively little power.
B) They can be operated over a wide range of temperatures.
C) Images remain clearly visible even under strong direct light.
D) They have a greater viewing angle than CRT displays.

245. An ADI is an Attitude Indicator

A) whose scale shows attitude commands.
B) combined with a directional gyro.
C) that shows pitch, roll, and yaw angles.
D) with a Flight Director Indicator.

246. A mechanical ADI is based on…

A) the Air Data Computer signals.
B) an electric gyroscopic direction indicator.
C) attitude information from an Inertial Reference System.
D) an electric or vacuum&driven gyroscope.

247. Which of the following can be displayed on a typical mechanical ADI? 1.

Air speed 2. Roll attitude 3. Pitch attitude 4. Altitude 5. Flight Director
command bars 6. Glideslope
A) 2, 3, 5, and 6
B) 1, 2, 5, and 6
C) 3, 4, 5, and 6
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

248. According to CS 25 concerning the electronic display systems, the colour

associated with a warning&type alert is:
A) amber.
B) magenta.
C) red.
D) yellow.

249. According to CS 25 concerning the electronic display systems, the red

colour is associated with the following alert:
A) caution.
B) advisory.
C) warning.
D) status.

250. According to CS 25 concerning the electronic display systems, the colour

associated with a caution&type alert is:
A) red.
B) amber or yellow.
C) magenta.
D) white.

251. According to CS 25 concerning the electronic display systems, the

amber/yellow colours are associated with the following alert:
A) caution.
B) status.
C) warning.
D) advisory.
252. According to CS 25 concerning the electronic display systems, the colour
associated with an engaged mode is:
A) green.
B) white.
C) magenta.
D) amber.

253. According to CS 25 concerning the electronic display systems, the green

colour is associated with the following indication:
A) status.
B) advisory.
C) engaged mode.
D) armed mode.

254. According to CS 25 concerning the electronic display systems, the colour

associated with an armed mode is:
A) white or cyan.
B) green.
C) yellow.
D) magenta.

255. According to CS 25 concerning the electronic display systems, the

white/cyan colours are associated with the following indication:
A) warning.
B) caution.
C) armed mode.
D) engaged mode.

256. According to CS 25 concerning the electronic display systems, when

exceeding the limits of the flight envelope, the colour accepted to alert the
flight crew is:
A) red.
B) amber.
C) yellow.
D) magenta.

257. An EFIS includes the following components:

A) display unit&s& only.
B) symbol generator, display unit&s&, control panel.
C) FMS, symbol generator, display unit&s&.
D) ADC, inertial navigation computer, display unit&s&.

258. According to CS 25 concerning electronic display systems, display

features should be colour coded as follows:
A) red for warnings, magenta for autopilot or flight director engaged modes.
B) red for flight envelope and system limits, green for autopilot or flight director engaged
modes.
C) red for caution & abnormal sources, white for flight envelope limits.
D) amber for the system limits, white for autopilot or flight director engaged modes.

259. The remote light sensor of an EFIS is a

A) small camera that measures the light intensity of the display units.
B) potentiometer that measures the position of the brightness switch.
C) photodiode that measures ambient light conditions.
D) solar cell that supplies power during a total electrical failure.

260. On a modern aircraft, the flight director modes are displayed on the:
A) control panel of the flight director only.
B) upper strip of the ECAM &Electronic Centralised A/C Management&.
C) upper strip of the PFD &Primary Flight Display&.
D) upper strip of the ND &Navigation Display&.

261. “The source of the data displayed on the Primary Flight Display &PFD&
and Navigation Display &ND& are: & 1 & Inertial Navigation System & 2 & FMS
& 3 & Weather Radar & 4 & Radio altimeter & 5 & ADC & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 3, 5.
B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 2, 4, 5.

262. The core purpose of an EFIS system is to…

A) depict, electronically, ADI and HSI information.
B) give airspeed and vertical speed indications.
C) display system schematics and failure indications.
D) display engine instrument and system schematic information.

263. The Primary Flight Display &PFD& displays information dedicated to:
A) engines and alarms.
B) weather situation.
C) piloting.
D) systems.

264. “The Primary Flight Display &PFD& of an EFIS equipped aircraft displays
the following parameters: & 1 & radio height & 2 & IAS & 3 & Localizer and
Glide slope deviation pointers & 4 & flight director modes & 5 & autopilot
modes & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3, 5.
B) 2, 5.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
D) 3, 4.

265. The Primary Flight Display &PFD& of an EFIS equipped aircraft can
display information relative to the following conditions:
A) altitude capture, TCAS resolution advisory, autopilot and flight director mode changes.
B) altitude capture, braking system, autopilot and flight director mode changes.
C) pressurisation failure, altitude capture, TCAS resolution advisory.
D) low engine oil pressure, terrain alerts, windshear detection.

266. “The PFD of an EFIS equipped aircraft displays the following parameters:
& 1 & auto&throttle modes & 2 & attitude & 3 & vertical speed & 4 & flight
director command bars & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 4.
B) 2, 4.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4.
D) 2, 3.

267. The Flight Mode Annunciator &FMA& is displayed on the:

A) ND.
B) flight director selector panel.
C) autopilot selector panel.
D) PFD.

268. “The following information can be displayed on a Primary Flight Display

&PFD&: & 1 & IAS. & 2 & vertical speed. & 3 & TAS. & 4 & selected airspeed. &
5 & radio altitude. & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 4, 5.
B) 1, 2, 3, 5.
C) 1, 3, 4, 5.
D) 1, 2, 3, 4.

269. “The following information can be displayed on a Primary Flight Display

&PFD&: & 1 & traffic information from the ACAS. & 2 & Flight Path Vector. & 3
& altitude. & 4 & ILS indications. & 5 & lower selectable airspeed. & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3, 4.
B) 1, 3, 4, 5.
C) 2, 3, 4.
D) 2, 3, 4, 5.

270. A Primary Flight Display…

A) is an electromechanical instrument with attitude information.
B) presents the actual thrust mode settings.
C) presents all the parameters necessary for flight path control.
D) presents all the parameters necessary for navigation control.

271. The EFIS flight path vector &FPV& may show

A) excessive vertical speed of an intruding aircraft.
B) Resolution Advisory pitch commands.
C) the glide angle.
D) the airspeed trend arrow.

272. In an EFIS equipped aircraft, the V1 speed reference is the

A) take&off safety speed and is normally indicated on the airspeed indicator tape on the
Primary Flight Display.
B) rotation speed and is normally indicated on the airspeed indicator tape on the Primary
Flight Display.
C) take&off decision speed and is normally indicated on the airspeed indicator tape on the
Primary Flight Display.
D) take&off decision speed and is normally indicated on the vertical speed indicator tape on
the Navigation Display.

273. The PFD of an EFIS equipped aircraft displays the following parameters:
A) IAS, attitude, altitude, heading.
B) altitude, attitude, heading, engine parameters.
C) attitude, heading, altitude, systems information.
D) attitude, heading, IAS, navigation map in Plan layout mode.

274. “The following information can be displayed on a Primary Flight Display

&PFD&: & 1 & attitude. & 2 & maximum airspeed warning. & 3 & selected
heading. & 4 & decision height. & 5 & ground speed. & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3, 5.
B) 1, 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2, 5.
D) 1, 2, 4, 5.

275. The EFIS Navigation Display &ND& may show

A) Magnetic Heading, track, and course&related information.
B) information from ground&, weather&, primary&, and secondary radar.
C) present position in latitude and longitude coordinates.
D) speed information such as Mach number, IAS, Groundspeed, and Wind Velocity.

276. A Navigation Display…

A) is a full&colour aircraft systems navigation display.
B) provides all the parameters required for flight path control.
C) is an electronic instrument showing published navigation charts.
D) provides a mode&selectable flight progress display.

277. Which option correctly lists the modes of a typical Navigation Display?
A) MAP &or ARC&, VOR &or ROSE VOR&, APP &or ROSE LS& and PLAN.
B) Heading, Track, Traffic and Weather Radar.
C) MAP &or ARC&, VOR &or ROSE VOR&, TAKE OFF &TO& and PLAN.
D) Heading, Track and Weather Radar.
278. What data are displayed on the Navigation Display &ND& of an EFIS
equipped aircraft?
A) The flight plan, weather radar, terrain map, and intruder alerts.
B) The flight plan, engine failure, navigation aids, and resolution advisories.
C) A terrain map, navigation aids, bearings, and flight director active modes.
D) Intruder alerts, altitude, autopilot active modes, and weather radar.

279. “Which of the following information can be displayed on the Navigation

Display &ND& with the MAP &or ARC& mode? & 1. Selected and current track
& 2. Decision height & 3. TAS & 4. Ground speed & 5. Wind direction and
speed”
A) 1 and 4 only.
B) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only.
C) 1, 3, 4, and 5 only.
D) 1, 3, and 5 only.

280. In a typical aircraft EFIS display, the glideslope deviation indication

consists of a
A) moving numerical tape display.
B) numerical display only.
C) dial and pointer display.
D) moving pointer on a scale.

281. “&For this question use annex ECQB&022&010&v2016&03&. & In the

associated EHSI / ND display image, the mode being displayed would be
defined as”
A) MAP or ARC mode.
B) ROSE VOR mode.
C) ROSE LS mode.
D) PLAN mode.

282. On the navigation display &ND& of an EFIS equipped aircraft, the colours
used are:
A) magenta or red for the active waypoint &TO waypoint&, amber for medium precipitation.
B) white or blue for the active waypoint &TO waypoint&, red for medium precipitation.
C) magenta or white for the active waypoint &TO waypoint&, green for light precipitation.
D) amber or white for the active waypoint &TO waypoint&, yellow for high precipitation.

283. “The following information can be displayed on the Navigation Display

&ND& with the MAP &or ARC& mode: & 1 & selected and current heading. & 2
& next waypoint distance. & 3 & weather radar information. & 4 & autopilot
mode. & 5 & landing capacity. & The combination that regroups all of the
correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 4, 5.
D) 2, 3, 4.
284. Which option lists the correct modes displayed on the Navigation Display
of an EFIS equipped aircraft?
A) MAP or ARC &covering approximately 45° either side of the current heading&, ROSE
&orientated to instantaneous track up& and PLAN &flight plan map orientated to Magnetic
North&.
B) MAP or ARC &covering approximately 45° either side of the instantaneous track&, ROSE
&orientated to current heading up& and PLAN &flight plan map orientated to True North&.
C) MAP or ARC &covering approximately 45° either side of the instantaneous track&, ROSE
&orientated to instantaneous track up& and PLAN &flight plan map orientated to True
North&.
D) MAP or ARC &covering approximately 45° either side of the instantaneous track&, ROSE
&orientated to current heading up& and PLAN &flight plan map orientated to Magnetic
North&.

285. On an electronic display unit, the source of the vibrations sensed by an

engine vibration monitoring system:
A) can be displayed &N1 or N2&.
B) cannot be displayed because low and high pressure shafts are damaged by the same
frequencies.
C) cannot be displayed because of too much interference inside the engines.
D) cannot be displayed because low and high pressure shaft vibrate at the same frequency.

286. “On an electronic display unit, the following N1 parameters can be

displayed: & 1 & present N1. & 2 & commanded N1. & 3 & maximum N1
operating limit. & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements
is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 2, 3.
C) 1, 3.
D) 1, 2, 3.

287. “On an Electronic Flight Instrument System &EFIS&, the following fuel
data may be displayed: & 1 & fuel density. & 2 & fuel quantity in each tank. & 3
& total fuel quantity. & 4 & fuel temperature. & The combination that regroups
all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3, 4.
B) 1, 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 2, 3.

288. “On an Electronic Flight Instrument System &EFIS&, the following fuel
data may be displayed: & 1 & fuel quantity in each tank. & 2 & total fuel
quantity. & 3 & fuel type. & 4 & fuel temperature. & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 4.
B) 1, 2, 4.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4.
D) 2, 3.
289. “On an Electronic Flight Instrument System &EFIS&, the following EGT
parameters may be displayed: & 1 & instantaneous EGT. & 2 & commanded
EGT. & 3 & maximum continuous EGT limit. & 4 & maximum takeoff EGT limit.
& The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3, 4.
B) 1, 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 1, 4.

290. In relation to aircraft integrated electronic displays, the abbreviation

ECAM stands for
A) Engine Centralised Aircraft Monitor.
B) Electronic Centralised Aircraft Monitor.
C) Electronic Control Assist Monitor.
D) Electronic Centralised Alert Manager.

291. In relation to aircraft integrated electronic displays, the abbreviation

EICAS stands for
A) Electronic Indication and Crew Alarm System.
B) Electronic Indication and Crew Alerting System.
C) Engine Indication and Central Alerting System.
D) Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System.

292. What technologies are used for data storage in aircraft recording
systems?
A) Scratch foil and capacitors.
B) Electric wire and optical discs.
C) Chip circuits and magnetic tape.
D) Chip circuits and capacitors.

293. “According to CS25, a CVR &Cockpit Voice Recorder& must record: & 1 &
communications transmitted from or received in the aeroplane by radio & 2 &
communications of flight&crew members on the flight deck via the area
microphone & 3 & communications of flight&crew members on the flight deck
using the aeroplane`s interphone system & 4 & audio signals identifying
navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or speaker & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 4.
B) 1, 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 3.
D) 1, 2.

294. “The purpose of the Cockpit Voice Recorder &CVR& is to record: & 1 &
the audio environment in the flight deck. & 2 & specific aircraft performance
parameters. & 3 & the communications of crew members using the interphone
system. & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1.
B) 1, 3.
C) 2.
D) 1, 2, 3.

295. “The purpose of the Cockpit Voice Recorder &CVR& is to record: & 1 &
the communications transmitted or received by radio. & 2 & the
communications of crew members using the public address system. & 3 &
some air data parameters. & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 1.
C) 3.
D) 1,3.

296. The purpose of a Cockpit Voice Recorder is to…

A) transmit, in the event of an accident, cabin and flight crew conversation data to the
operator`s base.
B) preserve pilot communication data from take&off to landing, after which the information is
automatically erased.
C) preserve, in the event of an accident, vital audio information that is recoverable for use by
accident investigators.
D) transmit voice communication data to the operator`s base that can be used by managers
to assess radiotelephony skills.

297. A CVR consists of…

A) a tape recorder, Underwater Locating Device, area microphone, and control unit.
B) an Event Mark Device, Emergency Locator Transmitter, test button, and erase button.
C) an Underwater Locating Device, illuminating light, speakers, tape recorder, and control
unit.
D) a Digital Flight Data Acquisition Unit, area microphone, erase button, and tape recorder.

298. “Which of the following must a Cockpit Voice Recorder record? & 1.
Audio or voice signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into
a headset or speaker. & 2. The aural environment of the flight deck. & 3.
Flight&crew members on the flight deck using the aeroplane`s interphone
system. & 4. Flight&crew members using the aeroplane`s interphone system
between cabin crew stations &if installed&. & 5. Voice communications
transmitted from or received in the aeroplane by radio. & 6. Flight&crew
members on the flight deck using the public address system &if installed&.”
A) 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
B) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
C) 2, 3, 5, and 6 only
D) 1, 2, 3, 5, and 6

299. A Cockpit Voice Recorder must record…

A) flight data, voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a
headset or speaker and voice communications: transmitted from or received in the
aeroplane by radio, and of flight&crew members on the flight deck.
B) voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or
speaker and voice communications: transmitted from or received in the aeroplane by radio,
of flight&crew members on the flight deck, of flight&crew members on the flight deck using
the aeroplane`s interphone system, and of flight&crew members on the flight&deck using the
public address system &if installed&.
C) voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or
speaker and data recording flight and engine parameters.
D) voice or audio signals identifying navigation or approach aids introduced into a headset or
speaker and voice communications: transmitted from or received in the aeroplane by radio,
of flight&crew members on the flight deck, of flight&crew members on the flight deck using
the aeroplane`s interphone system including calls between cabin crew stations &if
installed&, and of flight&crew members on the flight&deck using the public address system
&if installed&.

300. When pressing the EVENT&button on the flight data recorder control
panel:
A) the recording is marked, enabling this event to be found rapidly at a subsequent analysis.
B) a event mark is set on the recording, after that the recording is automatically stopped.
C) the recording is rewound so that whatever happens after this event is recorded.
D) the recording is automatically stopped upon this event.

301. “The purpose of the Flight Data Recorder &FDR& is to record specific
parameters such as: & 1 & pressure altitude. & 2 & propulsive/thrust power on
each engine. & 3 & the audio environment in the flight deck. & 4 & heading. &
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 4.
B) 1, 2, 4.
C) 2, 4.
D) 2, 3, 4.

302. The EVENT button of a Flight Data Recorder &FDR& is used to:
A) Set a time mark on a data storage.
B) Stop and store the previous recordings.
C) Erase the recording starting from a particular time.
D) Switch to a second data storage.

303. A Flight Data Recorder together with an ACMS &Aeroplane Condition

Monitoring System& can be used for…
A) sending cockpit aural warnings to the operator`s maintenance base.
B) transmitting aircraft location data to ground stations during flight.
C) accident analysis and trouble&shooting.
D) relaying pilot communications to ground stations.

304. The Flight Data Recorder makes use of…

A) “an area microphone, a headset jack and an “”event”” button.”
B) “a recording system, an “”event”” button, and an underwater locating device.”
C) an erase button, a recording system, and an area microphone.
D) an underwater locating device, an erase button, and a headset jack.
305. The main purpose of a Flight Data Recorder is to collect and record
aircraft data and…
A) show any malfunctions on the Primary Flight Display.
B) transmit it to ground stations for engineering analysis.
C) store it onto a medium designed to survive an accident.
D) automatically erase it after landing.

306. The factors that determine the type and number of parameters recorded
by a Flight Data Recorder are the recording…
A) duration and maximum flight time of the aircraft.
B) capacity and applicable operational requirements.
C) duration and reliability of its systems.
D) capacity and number of flight crew.

307. “The purpose of the Flight Data Recorder &FDR& is to record specific
parameters such as: & 1 & time. & 2 & attitude. & 3 & airspeed. & 4 &
flaps/slats configuration or cockpit selection. & The combination that regroups
all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3, 4.
B) 2, 3.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 2, 3, 4.

308. Parameters recorded by a Flight Data Recorder include…

A) landing gear position, pressure altitude, and pilot communications.
B) attitude, heading, and thrust/power on each engine.
C) time or relative time count, aural cockpit warnings, and airspeed.
D) airspeed, attitude, and announcements by cabin crew members.

309. What is the purpose of a Flight Data Recorder &FDR&?

A) The data collected in the FDR can help investigators determine the cause of an accident.
B) The FDR records flight data in order to improve the safety of flight operations.
C) The data collected in the FDR is used by engineers to monitor aircraft performance and
anticipate an impending system failure.
D) The FDR records all voice communication on the flight deck to help investigators to
identify the cause of an incident or accident.

310. By what means are messages from an Aeroplane Condition Monitoring

System &ACMS&transmitted to the maintenance base?
A) Digital datalink, without crew notification.
B) The Flight Data Recorder, when the aircraft is on the ground.
C) The commander, through VHF or HF voice communication.
D) Conventional analogue radios, with crew notification.

311. An Aeroplane Condition Monitoring System &ACMS& makes use of

aircraft input data and also…
A) a headset jack, a data management unit, and outputs &e.g. a printer or ACARS&.
B) an area microphone, a recording unit, and an erase button.
C) a data management unit, a recording unit, and outputs &e.g. a printer or ACARS&.
D) an erase button, a data management unit, and a headset jack.

312. “The Central Processing Unit &CPU& of a computer essentially consists

of: & 1 & an Arithmetic and Logic Unit &ALU& & 2 & a control and timing unit &
3 & registers & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements
is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 3.
C) 1, 2.
D) 2, 3.

313. A machine for manipulating data according to a list of instructions is a:

A) a computer.
B) a programme.
C) an ALU &arithmetic and logic unit&.
D) a chip circuit.

314. In computing, a digital circuit that performs basic operations is:

A) a microprocessor.
B) a central processing unit &CPU&.
C) an arithmetic and logic unit &ALU&.
D) a control unit.

315. In computing, what is the function of a control unit?

A) It ensures sequencing and co&ordination of operations.
B) It is a user/computer interface.
C) It performs simple arithmetic operations.
D) It performs complex arithmetic operations.

316. In computing, the unit which ensures sequencing and co&ordination of

operations is &are& the:
A) central processing unit &CPU&.
B) input and output devices.
C) control unit.
D) arithmetic and logic unit &ALU&.

317. Computer main memory comes in two principal varieties:

A) arithmetic memory and logic memory.
B) data memory and instruction memory.
C) software memory and hardware memory.
D) random access memory &RAM& and read&only memory &ROM&.

318. “Which of these statements about the random access memory &RAM&
are correct or incorrect? & 1. Data stored are lost after the power is switched
off. & 2. It can be read and written to anytime the processor commands it.”
A) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
B) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.
C) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.
D) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.

319. “The characteristics of the random access memory &RAM& are: & 1 &
rapid access. & 2 & read and write access. & 3 & volatile type. & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 1, 2.
C) 2, 3.
D) 1, 2, 3.

320. In computer architecture, a bus is a system that:

A) ensures sequencing and co&ordination of operations.
B) transfers data between computer components.
C) performs basic logic operations.
D) performs basic arithmetic operations.

321. “In computer architecture, which of these statements about a bus are
correct or incorrect? & 1. A bus ensures sequencing and co&ordination of
operations. & 2. A bus transfers data between computer components.”
A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
B) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
C) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.
D) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.

322. In computer architecture, the hardware is defined as:

A) the programmes which make up the operating system &OS&.
B) the non&volatile memory &RAM, random access memory&.
C) the non&volatile memory &ROM, read only memory&.
D) the physical components of a computer system.

323. In computer architecture, the software is defined as:

A) a collection of computer programmes.
B) the storage structure inside the central processing unit &CPU&.
C) the volatile memory &RAM, random access memory&.
D) the physical components of a computer system.

324. “Which of these statements about computer architecture are correct or

incorrect? & 1. The software part includes the programmes that make up the
operating system &OS&. & 2. The hardware part includes the physical
components of the computer.”
A) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
B) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.
C) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
D) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.

325. “Which of these statements about computer architecture are correct or

incorrect? & software part does not include the programmes that make up the
operating system &OS&. & hardware part includes the physical components of
the computer.”
A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
B) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.
C) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.
D) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.

326. “Which of these statements about computer architecture are correct or

incorrect? & software part includes the programmes that make up the
operating system &OS&. & hardware part does not include the physical
components of the computer.”
A) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.
B) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
C) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.
D) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.

327. “In computing, what is meant by the term “”multitasking””?”

A) Multiple tasks share common resources, such as a the same central processing unit
&CPU&.
B) Two or more central processing units &CPUs& are used within a single computer.
C) Multiple tasks are carried out by several processors.
D) Two or more arithmetic and logic units &ALUs& are used within a single computer.

328. “In computing, which of these statements about multitasking are correct
or incorrect? & 1. Multitasking gives the appearance of running several
programs simultaneously. & 2. The central processing unit &CPU& switches
rapidly between each programme in turn.”
A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
B) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.
C) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
D) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.

329. “Which of these statements about computer architecture are correct or

incorrect? & 1. Multitasking and multiprocessing are based on the same
hardware configuration. & 2. Multitasking method is a software solution.”
A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
B) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
C) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.
D) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.

330. “Which of these statements about computer architecture are correct or

incorrect? & 1. Multiprocessing configuration is a software solution. & 2.
Multiprocessing configuration results in more powerful performance than
multitasking method.”
A) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.
B) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
C) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.
D) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.

331. “Which of these statements about computer architecture are correct or

incorrect? & 1. Multiprocessing configuration is a hardware solution. & 2.
Multitasking method results in more powerful performance than
multiprocessing configuration.”
A) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
B) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.
C) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
D) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.

332. A modern computer makes use of different internal buses to….

A) send and receive analogue and digital data.
B) separate the hardware from the software.
C) supply electrical power to the different devices.
D) transfer address&, data& and control signals.

333. A type of storage medium that is read from and written to by use of a laser
beam is…
A) a USB stick.
B) a flash memory card.
C) an optical disc.
D) a magnetic tape.

334. For internal communication with the memory, the CPU makes use of.
A) four buses: two serial& and two parallel buses.
B) three buses: one address bus, one data bus, and one control bus.
C) two uni&directional buses for two&way communication.
D) one bi&directional bus for two&way communication.

335. A type of storage medium read from, and written to, using a laser beam
is…
A) a floppy disk.
B) a hard disk.
C) an optical disk.
D) a magnetic disk.

336. In computing, what is the function of the arithmetic and logic unit
&ALU&?
A) It controls the flow of data through the processor.
B) It is a digital circuit that performs basic operations.
C) It directs the various components of a computer.
D) It decodes instructions in the programme step by step.

337. “In computing, what is the function of a control unit? & 1 & It controls the
flow of data through the processor. & 2 & It performs basic operations. & 3 & It
co&ordinates the activities of the other units with the processor. & 4 & It
stores all the instructions. & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 3, 4.
C) 1, 3.
D) 2, 3, 4.

338. “In a basic computer, the input and output devices are typically: & 1 & a
printer. & 2 & a keyboard. & 3 & a display. & 4 & an optical disc. & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3, 4.
B) 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 2, 3.

339. In computer architecture, the system that ensures the transfer of data
between computer components is:
A) an arithmetic and logic unit &ALU&.
B) a bus.
C) a control unit.
D) a memory.

340. “Which of these statements about computer architecture are correct or

incorrect? & software part does not include the programmes that make up the
operating system &OS&. & hardware part does not include the physical
components of the computer.”
A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.
B) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
C) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.
D) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.

341. “In computing, what is meant by the term “”multiprocessing””?”

A) Two or more random access memory &RAM& structures are used for a rapid access to
data and instructions.
B) Two or more central processing units &CPUs& are used within a single computer.
C) Multiple tasks share common resources, such as a the same central processing unit
&CPU&.
D) Multiple tasks share common resources, such as a the same arithmetic and logic unit
&ALU&.

342. A computer output providing data on several connections and carrying

different information simultaneously is called a:
A) Parallel bus.
B) Serial bus.
C) Phase shift bus.
D) Universal serial bus.

343. The technique of a computer memory is based on the use of

A) back&up batteries.
B) non&volatile storage devices.
C) capacitors.
D) magnetised tapes.

344. What is considered a peripheral device for the Digital Air Data Computer
&DADC&?
A) Standby altitude and airspeed indicator.
B) Angle of attack vane.
C) Radio altimeter.
D) Vertical accelerometer.

345. The software used to run the ATSU applications &ATC and AOC&:
A) is only approved and tested by the company.
B) is only approved and tested by the manufacturer.
C) is certified according to CS 25/CS29.
D) is certified according to an equipment certification standard &ED12B, DO178B&.

346. For a large transport aeroplane equipped with a fly&by&wire flight control
system, the software used for flight controls:
A) is certified at the highest level of safety &level A&.
B) is only approved and tested by the manufacturer.
C) is only approved and tested by the company.
D) is certified at the lowest level of safety &level E&.

347. For a large transport aeroplane equipped with a fly&by&wire flight control
system and a FMS:
A) the operating system of the FMS encompasses the software used for the fly&by&wire
flight control system.
B) the software used for the FMS encompasses the software used for the fly by wire flight
control system.
C) the operating system of the FMS is certified at a level higher than the software used for
flight controls.
D) the operating system of the FMS is certified at a level equal or lower than the software
used for flight controls.

348. What is, in computer terminology, an operating system?

A) The central processing unit`s control unit.
B) The bus structure that allows data communication.
C) The programme that controls a computer`s basic functions.
D) The control display unit that allows computer control.
349. What are the specific levels of safety criticality regarding the use of
software in airborne systems?
A) Five levels: no effect, minor, major, hazardous, and catastrophic.
B) Two levels: caution and warning.
C) Three levels: A, B, and C.
D) Four levels: 0, 1, 2, and 3.

350. If an aircraft software failure is classified as level A, it is…

A) major.
B) minor.
C) catastrophic.
D) hazardous.

351. In computing, an assembly language is a low level language that…

A) is easy to maintain but slow to execute.
B) is generally used to solve execution performance issues.
C) is easy for advanced programming and interpretation of script.
D) is portable and can be directly executed on different hardware platforms.

352. The engine instrument utilising a bellows type sensor is:

A) a fuel pressure gauge.
B) an oil temperature gauge.
C) a manifold pressure gauge.
D) an oil pressure gauge.

353. A Bourdon tube is a:

A) vibration detector.
B) smoke detector.
C) turbine temperature probe.
D) pressure sensor.

354. A pressure is defined as a:

A) force per unit area.
B) density per unit volume.
C) density per unit area.
D) force per unit volume.

355. A pressure of 6000 psi is equivalent to approximately:

A) 4 bar.
B) 4000 bar.
C) 40 bar.
D) 400 bar.

356. A pressure of 200 bar is equivalent to approximately:

A) 3000 psi.
B) 3 psi.
C) 300 psi.
D) 30 psi.

357. A pressure of 1 bar is equivalent to:

A) 100 Pascal.
B) 10 Pascal.
C) 1000 Pascal.
D) 100000 Pascal.

358. In ISA conditions, the static pressure at mean sea level is 1013.25 hPa or:
A) 14.5 psi or 29.92 in Hg.
B) 1.45 psi or 2.92 in Hg.
C) 14.5 psi or 2.92 in Hg.
D) 1.45 psi or 29.92 in Hg.

359. “The front probe of an EPR system becomes blocked during take&off due
to debris ingestion or icing
A) 1
B) higher than the actual value of EPR.
C) the LP turbine exhaust pressure.
D) lower than the actual value of EPR.

360. The Bourdon tube is used to measure:

A) pressure.
B) temperature.
C) a flow rate.
D) quantity.

361. “According to the range of pressure to be measured &low, medium,

high&, different types of pressure sensors are used. & Classify the following
sensors by order of increasing pressure for which they are suitable: & 1 &
bellows type & 2 & Bourdon tube type & 3 & aneroid capsule type”
A) 2, 1, 3.
B) 3, 2, 1.
C) 3, 1, 2.
D) 1, 2, 3.

362. “An aneroid capsule: & 1 & measures differential pressure & 2 &
measures absolute pressure & 3 & is used for low pressure measurement & 4
& is used for very high pressure measurement & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 4.
B) 2, 3.
C) 1, 4.
D) 1, 3.

363. A pressure of 3000 psi is equivalent to approximately:

A) 2000 bar.
B) 200 bar.
C) 20 bar.
D) 2 bar.

364. The Hydraulic System Pressure Indicator holds…

A) a diaphragm that receives a hydraulic signal from the accumulator.
B) a transducer that receives an electric signal from a remote pressure sensor.
C) a bellows that receives a mechanical signal from a Bourdon tube.
D) an aneroid capsule that receives a pneumatic signal from the hydraulic reservoir.
365. A thermocouple consists of:
A) a junction of two dissimilar metals.
B) two layers of identical metals, one being longer than the other.
C) several layers of identical metals, but with different thickness.
D) two layers of identical metals, both having the same size.

366. A millivolt meter measuring the electromotive force between the hot
junction and the cold junction of a thermocouple can be directly graduated in
temperature values provided that:
A) the temperature of the hot junction is maintained at 15°C approximately.
B) the temperature of the hot junction is maintained constant.
C) the temperature of the cold junction is maintained constant.
D) the temperature of the hot junction remains the same as the temperature of the cold
junction.

367. Turbine outlet temperatures can be measured with sensors of the

following type:
A) Bourdon tube.
B) liquid thermometer.
C) bi&metallic strip.
D) thermocouple.

368. “Given: & C = temperature in Celsius. & F = temperature in Fahrenheit. &

The correct relationship between these different units is:”
A) C = &F x 1.8& + 32.
B) F = C & 273.
C) F = &C x 1.8& + 32.
D) C = F & 273.

369. “Given: & C = the temperature in Celsius. & K = the temperature in Kelvin.
& F = the temperature in Fahrenheit. & Which of these statements about
temperature units are correct or incorrect? & 1. C = K & 273. & 2. F = &C x 1.8&
+ 32.”
A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
B) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
C) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.
D) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.

370. A bi&metallic strip is used to convert:

A) a pressure change into mechanical displacement.
B) a pressure change into electromotive force.
C) a temperature change into mechanical displacement.
D) a temperature change into electromotive force.

371. A temperature change is converted into mechanical displacement by the

following temperature sensor:
A) a resistance.
B) a bi&metallic strip.
C) a Bourdon tube.
D) a thermo&couple.

372. When a conductor is subject to a thermal gradient, it generates an

electrical potential: this property describes the operating principle of the
following temperature type sensor:
A) bi&metallic strip.
B) Bourdon tube.
C) thermocouple.
D) resistance.

373. “Given: & E = electromotive force &emf& & T = temperature to be

measured & K = constant & The relationship that applies to a thermocouple
is:”
A) E = K x T
B) E = K / T
C) E = K & T
D) E = K / T?

374. “Which of these statements about temperature units are correct or

incorrect? & 1. 15° Celsius = 273° Kelvin. & 2. 15° Celsius = 59° Fahrenheit.”
A) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.
B) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
C) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.
D) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.

375. “Which of these statements about temperature units are correct or

incorrect? & 1. 20° Celsius = 68° Fahrenheit. & 2. 0° Celsius = 273° Kelvin.”
A) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.
B) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
C) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
D) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.

376. “Given: & C = temperature in Celsius. & K = temperature in Kelvin. & The
correct relationship between these different units is:”
A) K = C + 273.
B) K = C x 1.8 + 32.
C) C = K x 1.8 + 32.
D) C = K + 273.

377. When temperature rises, a thermo&couple increases its…

A) length.
B) current.
C) voltage.
D) resistance.

378. The type of sensor that is typically used for temperature measurements
up to 500° C is…
A) a temperature&dependent resistor.
B) a bi&metallic strip.
C) an expansion type system.
D) a thermocouple.

379. Temperature measurement with a thermocouple requires in principle:

A) no power supply.
B) direct current.
C) alternating current.
D) battery power.

380. A thermocouple type temperature sensor is composed of:

A) a single&wire metal winding.
B) two dissimilar metals joined together at one end &called hot junction or measuring
junction&.
C) two identical metals joined together at one end &called hot junction or measuring
junction&.
D) two identical metals joined together at both ends &called hot and cold junctions&.

381. The sensors used to measure the exhaust gas temperature of an aircraft
equipped with gas turbine engines are:
A) based on metallic parts whose expansion/contraction is measured.
B) thermocouples.
C) based on metallic conductors whose resistance increases linearly with temperature.
D) capacitors whose capacitance varies proportionally with temperature.

382. “Given: & C = the temperature in Celsius. & K = the temperature in Kelvin.
& F = the temperature in Fahrenheit. & Which of these statements about
temperature units are correct or incorrect? & 1. C = K + 273. & 2. F = &C x 1.8&
+ 32.”
A) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
B) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.
C) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
D) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.

383. “Given: & E = electromotive force &emf& & T = temperature to be

measured & K = constant & The relationship that applies to a thermocouple
is:”
A) E = K x SQRT &T&
B) E = K x T
C) E = K x T?
D) E = K + T

384. “Given: & C = temperature in Celsius. & K = temperature in Kelvin. & The
correct relationship between these different units is:”
A) K = C & 273.
B) C = K & 273.
C) K = C x 1.8 + 32.
D) C = K x 1.8 + 32.

385. The operating principle of a thermocouple which is known as the

thermoelectric effect is:
A) A conductor that is subject to a thermal gradient expands.
B) A conductor that is subject to a thermal gradient generates a voltage.
C) The internal resistance of a conductor that is subject to a thermal gradient increases.
D) The internal resistance of a conductor that is subject to a thermal gradient decreases.

386. A capacitance&type quantity measurement system is based on the

variation of:
A) the distance between the two plates of a capacitor.
B) the permeability of a capacitor.
C) the dielectric of a capacitor.
D) the plate surface of a capacitor.

387. In a compensated capacitance type quantity indicating system, the

contents gauge of a half&full fuel tank indicates a fuel mass of 8000 kg. If a
temperature rise increased the volume of fuel by 5&, the indicated fuel mass
would:
A) decrease by 5&.
B) remain the same.
C) increase by 10&.
D) increase by 5&.

388. “The indication of a fuel float gauge varies with: & 1 & pitch angle & 2 &
accelerations & 3 & fuel temperature & The combination that regroups all of
the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 2, 3.
C) 1, 3.
D) 1, 2.

389. The float type fuel quantity measurement system is calibrated in:
A) volume units and the indication varies with the temperature of the fuel.
B) volume units and the indication does not vary with the temperature of the fuel.
C) mass units and the indication varies with the temperature of the fuel.
D) mass units and the result that the indication does not vary with the temperature of the
fuel.

390. Concerning a fuel gauge system, the most relevant fuel parameter is:
A) mass.
B) density.
C) volume.
D) permittivity.

391. The basic principle of a capacitance fuel gauge system is that the:
A) capacitance of a capacitor only depends on the density of the liquid on which it is
immersed.
B) capacitance of a capacitor depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is immersed.
C) internal resistance of a capacitor depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is
immersed.
D) electromotive force of a capacitor depends on the nature of the dielectric in which it is
immersed.

392. “Given the following parameters, in a capacitance fuel gauge, the correct
formula is: & A = area of plates & D = distance between plates & E = dielectric
permittivity”
A) Capacitance = A x D / E
B) Capacitance = E x A / D
C) Capacitance = E x D / A
D) Capacitance = E x D x A

393. “A float type fuel gauge: & 1 & supplies a mass information & 2 & supplies
information independent of aircraft`s manoeuvres and attitude changes & 3 &
supplies information all the more accurate as the tank is full & 4 & is typically a
DC powered system & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 1, 3, 4.
B) 4.
C) 1.
D) 1, 2, 3, 4.

394. “Which of these statements about fuel quantity measurement are correct
or incorrect? & 1. The quantity of fuel can be measured by volume. & 2. The
quantity of fuel can be measured by mass.”
A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
B) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
C) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.
D) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.

395. Which of these statements about the fuel mass unit is correct?
A) 1 lb = 2.2 kg.
B) 1 lb = 4.5 kg.
C) 1 kg = 0.45 lb.
D) 1 kg = 2.2 lb.

396. “Given: & Q = charge &Coulombs&. & U = potential difference between

the plates &Volt&. & The capacitance C &Farads& is defined as:”
A) C = Q / U.
B) C = U x Q.
C) C = U? / Q.
D) C = U / Q.

397. “Which of these statements about a capacitor are correct or incorrect? &
1. The capacitance is proportional to distance between plates. & 2. The
capacitance is proportional to the relative permittivity.”
A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.
B) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
C) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.
D) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.

398. “Which of these statements about a capacitor are correct or incorrect? &
1. The capacitance is proportional to the surfaces of the plates. & 2. The
capacitance is proportional to the relative permittivity.”
A) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.
B) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.
C) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
D) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.

399. Changes in temperature of the fuel affect its density, volume and
dielectric value Er. An increase in temperature causes:
A) a decrease in volume, decrease in density and decrease in Er.
B) a decrease in volume, increase in density and increase in Er.
C) an increase in volume, increase in density and increase in Er.
D) an increase in volume, decrease in density and decrease in Er.

400. Changes in temperature of the fuel affect its density, volume and
dielectric value Er. A decrease in temperature causes:
A) a decreases in volume, increases in density and increases in Er.
B) an increases in volume, decreases in density and decreases in Er.
C) an increases in volume, increases in density and increases in Er.
D) a decreases in volume, decreases in density and decreases in Er.

401. Which of these statements about the fuel mass unit is correct?
A) 1000 lb = 2200 kg.
B) 1 t = 450 lb.
C) 1 t = 2200 lb.
D) 1000 lb = 4500 kg.

402. Which of these statements about the fuel mass unit is correct?
A) 1 kg = 0.45 lb.
B) 1 lb = 2.2 kg.
C) 1 lb = 0.45 kg.
D) 1 kg = 0.22 lb.

403. The unit used to measure the capacitance of a capacitor is the:

A) Farad.
B) Hz.
C) Watt.
D) Joule.

404. “Given: & Q = charge &Coulombs&. & U = potential difference between

the plates &Volt&. & C = capacitance &Farads&. & The correct relationship
between these parameters is:”
A) Q = C / U.
B) Q = U / C.
C) Q = U? / C.
D) Q = C x U.

405. “Which of these statements about a capacitor are correct or incorrect? &
1. The capacitance is proportional to distance between plates. & 2. The
capacitance is proportional to the surfaces of the plates.”
A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.
B) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
C) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.
D) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.

406. A capacitive fuel quantity measurement system provides the following

indication:
A) The volume of the fuel.
B) The mass of the fuel.
C) The inductivity of the fuel.
D) The density&volume of the fuel.

407. The disadvantage&s& of a float type fuel quantity measuring system

compared to a capacitance fuel measuring system is &are& that the…
A) indications are influenced by aircraft attitude variations and accelerations only.
B) design is complex.
C) indications are influenced by aircraft attitude variations, accelerations, and temperature
variations.
D) indications are influenced by aircraft attitude variations, accelerations, and temperature
variations, and the complex design.
408. When compared with the volumetric fuel flow meter, the mass fuel flow
meter takes into account the fuel:
A) turbulent flow in the line.
B) permittivity.
C) density.
D) pressure.

409. “Fuel flow can be expressed in: & 1 & kg per m3. & 2 & lb per m3. & 3 & lb
per hour. & 4 & kg per hour. & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 1.
C) 4.
D) 3, 4.

410. “Which statements about fuel flow are correct or incorrect? & 1. Fuel flow
may be measured by volume per unit of time. & 2. Fuel flow may be measured
by mass per unit of time.”
A) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.
B) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
C) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
D) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.

411. By integrating a flow with respect to time we obtain:

A) the diameter of the line.
B) the cross section of the line.
C) a pressure.
D) a volume or a mass.

412. Total fuel consumption is obtained by:

A) integrating the fuel flow with respect to time.
B) subtracting the remaining fuel from the initial fuel quantity.
C) subtracting the initial fuel quantity from the remaining fuel.
D) differentiating the fuel flow with respect to time.

413. The Mechanical Fuel Flowmeter consists of

A) a Bourdon tube.
B) a venturi.
C) an impeller.
D) a spring&loaded vane.

414. How is total fuel consumption calculated?

A) By subtracting the volume of the remaining fuel in the tanks from the initial fuel total.
B) By integrating the rate of fuel consumption over an hour.
C) By dividing total distance flown by the volume of fuel used.
D) By differentiating the rate of fuel consumption over the flight time.

415. Engine speed is most commonly displayed as a:

A) ratio with the maximum measured power.
B) percentage of design RPM.
C) percentage of a maximum measured power.
D) ratio with the measured torque.
416. A three&phase electrical tachometer utilises a generator feeding:
A) a synchronous motor turning a drag cup.
B) directly a drag cup.
C) directly a voltmeter.
D) directly a galvanometer.

417. One of the disadvantages of an electronic tachometer is the …

A) necessity of a power supply.
B) generation of spurious signals at the commutator.
C) high influence of line resistance on the indication.
D) influence of temperature on the indication.

418. A magnetic tachometer consists amongst others of …

A) a permanent magnet turning inside a non magnetic drag cup.
B) a three phases generator connected to an asynchronous motor.
C) a single&phase generator connected to a synchronous motor.
D) a single&phase generator connected to an asynchronous motor.

419. The operating principle of an electronic tachometer probe is to measure

the:
A) frequency of the sequence of electric impulses created by a notched wheel rotating in a
magnetic field.
B) electromotive force produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
C) magnetic field produced by a dynamo or an alternator.
D) rotation speed of an asynchronous motor energised by an alternator.

420. “In a three&phase synchronous motor type tachometer: & 1 & the
transmitter is a direct current generator & 2 & the voltage is proportional to the
transmitter drive speed & 3 & the frequency is proportional to the transmitter
drive speed & 4 & the speed indicating element is a galvanometer & 5 & the
speed indicating element is an asynchronous motor driving a magnetic
tachometer & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 3, 5.
B) 1, 4.
C) 1, 2.
D) 2, 5.

421. A three&phase electrical tachometer consists of:

A) a three&phase generator and a synchronous motor turning a drag&cup assembly.
B) three interconnected dynamos along a phonic wheel.
C) three speed probes and a phonic wheel.
D) a speed probe and a phonic wheel.

422. The electronic tachometer sensor is composed of:

A) a notched wheel rotating in front of a permanent magnet.
B) the rotor of a three&phase A.C. generator.
C) a circular magnet with four poles.
D) the rotor of a single phase A.C. generator.

423. The different types of tachometers are …

A) mechanical, electrical, electronic.
B) magnetic, electrical, helical.
C) electrical, mechanical, density.
D) magnetic, capacitance, electronic.

424. “The different types of tachometer are: & 1 & electrical. & 2 & mechanical.
& 3 & electronic. & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements
is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 3.
C) 2, 3.
D) 1, 2.

425. A Tachometer measures

A) angular speed.
B) engine vibration.
C) angular momentum.
D) engine operating hours.

426. The EPR is computed by:

A) multiplying compressor inlet pressure by turbine discharge pressure.
B) dividing turbine discharge pressure by compressor inlet pressure.
C) dividing compressor discharge pressure by turbine discharge pressure.
D) multiplying compressor discharge pressure by turbine inlet pressure.

427. The two main sources of information used to calculate turbojet thrust are
the:
A) fan rotation speed &or N1& or the total pressure at the low pressure turbine outlet.
B) high pressure turbine rotation speed or the EPR.
C) fan rotation speed &or N1& or the EPR.
D) fan rotation speed &or N1& or the total pressure at the high pressure compressor outlet.

428. The EPR &Engine Pressure Ratio& is:

A) the ratio of the turbine outlet total pressure to the ambient total pressure.
B) the difference between the compressor inlet total pressure and the turbine outlet total
pressure.
C) the ratio of the compressor outlet total pressure to the compressor inlet total pressure.
D) the ratio of the turbine outlet total pressure to the compressor inlet total pressure.

429. Concerning the thrust measurement, the N1 is defined as the:

A) first stage compressor speed.
B) second stage compressor speed.
C) high pressure shaft speed.
D) low pressure shaft speed.

430. On a N1 indicator, the maximum N1 admissible:

A) may be greater than 100&.
B) is always less than 100&.
C) is 100&.
D) is approximately 99&.

431. The sensor&s& feeding the EPR&indicator is&are&:

A) tachometer located on the shaft of the N2 compressor.
B) tachometer located on the shaft of the N1 compressor.
C) pressure probes, one located upstream from the compressor inlet, and the other
downstream from the turbine outlet.
D) temperature probes, one located upstream from the compressor inlet, and an other
downstream from the turbine outlet.

432. “The parameters used to represent thrust are: & 1 & N1 &low pressure
shaft speed&. & 2 & N2 &high pressure shaft speed&. & 3 & EGT. & 4 & EPR. &
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 4.
B) 1, 3.
C) 4.
D) 1, 2.

433. In a turbine engine, what is the parameter N1, which is used to represent
thrust?
A) N1 refers to the rotational speed of the high speed spool which consists of the high
pressure compressor and the high pressure turbine.
B) “N1 refers to the rotational speed of the low speed spool which consists of the fan, the low
pressure compressor and the low pressure turbine
C) the indication is usually calibrated in percent RPM.”
D) “N1 is the ratio of the turbine discharge and the compressor inlet pressure

434. Torque can be determined by measuring the:

A) ratio Pt7/Pt2.
B) the twist of a torque shaft of a known length.
C) ratio Pt2 / Pt7.
D) change in frequency between the torque shaft and the reference shaft.

435. A torque may be expressed in:

A) Watt.
B) RPM.
C) Newton per meter &N/m&.
D) Newton meter &N m&.

436. “Given: & P = power. & T = torque. & n = RPM. & The correct relationship
is:”
A) P = T x n.
B) P = T x GS.
C) P = T / n.
D) P = T x TAS.

437. The sensors of the Electronic Torquemeter system measure the…

A) angular speed of the propeller or rotor.
B) twist in the engine output shaft.
C) oil pressure in the gearbox.
D) torsion in the propeller or rotor blades.

438. “Which of the below statements is/are correct regarding the operating
principle of an oil torque meter? & 1. Axial movement is generated by the
helically cut gears. & 2. Axial force is proportional to the torque.”
A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
B) Both 1 and 2 are correct.
C) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect.
D) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
439. Newton metre &N m& is the SI unit of…
A) pressure.
B) torque.
C) power.
D) force.

440. An oil torque meter makes use of the following phenomenon:

A) as power is increased, the torque shaft twists &the torque shaft is connected to both the
engine and the propeller`s reduction gear box&.
B) axial movement is generated when helically cut gears are used to transfer power from
one shaft to another.
C) axial movement is generated when cylindrically cut gears are used to transfer power from
one shaft to another.
D) as power is increased, the torque shaft expands &the torque shaft is connected to the
engine only&.

441. The magnitude of a torque is defined as:

A) force times RPM.
B) force divided by its lever arm.
C) force times its lever arm.
D) force divided by RPM.

442. The operating principle of an electronic torque meter is:

A) axial thrust and movement is generated when cylindrically cut gears are used to transfer
power from one shaft to another.
B) as power is increased, the torque shaft expands.
C) axial thrust and movement is generated when helically cut gears are used to transfer
power from one shaft to another.
D) as power is increased, the torque shaft twists.

443. On an twin&engine aeroplane, the synchroscope uses the following

principle:
A) a piezoelectric sensor measures the vibrations on each engine.
B) it mathematically subtracts the vibrations of both engines.
C) it mathematically subtracts the RPM of both engines.
D) it measures the frequency difference between the two engine driven alternators.

444. On an twin&engine aeroplane, the synchroscope can consists of:

A) a rotor fed by the alternator driven by the master engine, and a stator fed by the alternator
driven by the engine to be synchronised.
B) a galvanometer fed by two alternators.
C) an ammeter fed by two tacho&genny.
D) a voltmeter fed by two tacho&genny.

445. On a multi&engine aircraft, a synchroscope provides an indication of the

difference in…
A) vibration &Hz& between the engines.
B) speed &RPM& between the engines.
C) voltage &V& between the electrical generators.
D) exhaust gas temperature &°C&between the engines.

446. “Which of the following statements is/are correct as regards a

synchroscope on a multi&engine aircraft? & A synchroscope is used to… & 1.
reduce structural vibration and noise & 2. achieve symmetrical thrust and fuel
consumption.”
A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
B) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
C) Both 1 and 2 are correct.
D) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect.

447. A synchroscope indicates whether two or more engines are

A) operating at the same speed as it helps reduce the noise and vibration.
B) operating at the same EGT as it increases the total engine power.
C) producing the same power as it helps to reduce the induced drag.
D) producing the same torque as it enhances aircraft handling.

448. A synchroscope is used on aeroplanes to:

A) set several engines to the same speed.
B) reduce the rpm of each engine.
C) achieve optimum control of on&board voltages.
D) reduce the vibration of each engine.

449. In an engine vibration monitoring system for a turbojet any vibration

produced by the engine is:
A) directly proportional to engine speed.
B) inversely proportional to engine speed.
C) amplified and filtered before being fed to the flight deck indicator.
D) fed directly to the flight deck indicator without amplification or filtering.

450. A vibration indicator receives a signal from different sensors

&accelerometers&. It indicates the:
A) vibration amplitude at a given frequency
B) acceleration measured by the sensors, expressed in g
C) vibration period expressed in seconds
D) vibration frequency expressed in Hz

451. The output from an engine vibration transducer is:

A) always filtered to remove unwanted frequencies.
B) inversely proportional to engine speed.
C) directly proportional to engine speed.
D) fed directly to the indicator in the flight deck without amplification or filtering.

452. “In a vibration monitoring system, a filter: & 1. erases any output which is
normal to the engine. & 2. allows through to the amplifier any frequency that is
considered to be harmful to the engine.”
A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.
B) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
C) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
D) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.

453. The value shown by the indicator of a vibration monitoring system is 4.

This is:
A) 4&.
B) 4& or 4 kHz depending on the type of aircraft.
C) 4 Hz.
D) a level of vibration without any unit.
454. Which type&s& of sensor may be used in an engine vibration monitoring
system?
A) Piezoelectric crystal sensors only.
B) Tachometers only.
C) Magnet and piezoelectric crystal sensors.
D) Tachometers and piezoelectric crystal sensors.

455. Any vibration displayed on an engine vibration monitoring system of a

turbojet:
A) is directly proportional to engine speed.
B) indicates rotor imbalance.
C) varies inversely with the square of the engine speed.
D) is presented without any amplification or filtering.

456. Why is an engine vibration monitoring system installed on jet engines?

A) To dampen changes in an engine`s vibration level, in order to meter the fuel flow.
B) To register engine vibrations during flight in turbulent conditions.
C) It monitors the vibration at the engine pylon, to indicate an impending engine separation.
D) It monitors for changes in an engine`s vibration level, to indicate a possible engine failure.

457. If the pilot increases the reference pressure using the sub&scale setting
knob, the altitude indicated by the altimeter:
A) decreases if QNH < 1013 hPa.
B) increases.
C) decreases if QNH > 1013 hPa.
D) decreases.

458. A pitot tube covered by ice which blocks the ram air inlet will affect the
following instrument&s&:
A) vertical speed indicator.
B) airspeed indicator.
C) altimeter.
D) airspeed indicator, altimeter and vertical speed indicator.

459. The pitot tube is attached to a mast in order:

A) not to disturb the aerodynamic flow around the aircraft.
B) to protect it from icing.
C) to locate it outside the boundary layer.
D) to ease accessibility during maintenance checks.

460. Dynamic pressure measurement circuit requires the use of the following
pressure probes:
A) total pressure and standard pressure.
B) static pressure only.
C) total pressure and static pressure.
D) total pressure only.

461. On a non&pressurised aircraft, the use of an alternate static source fed

from within the cabin results that the static pressure sensed is likely to be:
A) higher than ambient pressure due to position error.
B) lower than ambient pressure due to position error.
C) lower than ambient pressure due to aerodynamic suction.
D) higher than ambient pressure due to aerodynamic suction.

462. “Given: & Pt = total pressure & Ps = static pressure & Dynamic pressure
is:”
A) Pt / Ps
B) &Pt & Ps& / Pt
C) &Pt & Ps& / Ps
D) Pt & Ps

463. “Given: & Pt = total pressure & Ps = static pressure & Pso = static
pressure at sea level & Dynamic pressure is:”
A) Pt & Ps
B) &Pt & Ps& / Ps
C) Pt & Pso
D) &Pt & Pso& / Pso

464. “Given: & Pt = total pressure & Ps = static pressure & Pd = dynamic
pressure”
A) Pd = Pt / Ps
B) Pd = Pt + Ps
C) Ps = Pt + Pd
D) Pt = Pd + Ps

465. “Given: & Pt = total pressure & Ps = static pressure & Pso = static
pressure at sea level & The CAS is a function of:”
A) &Pt & Pso& / Ps
B) Pt & Pso
C) Pt / Ps
D) Pt & Ps

466. During a climb, if the total pressure head is suddenly completely clogged
up by ice, the sensed total pressure remains constant and:
A) the static pressure decreases, implying a decreasing IAS.
B) the static pressure increases, implying a decreasing IAS.
C) the static pressure decreases, implying an increasing IAS.
D) the IAS remains also constant.

467. The static pressure position error:

A) affects the alternate static port only.
B) is a direct effect of a blockage of the static port.
C) is caused by disturbed airflow around the static ports.
D) is a direct effect of heating of the static ports.

468. “The alternate static source of a light non&pressurised aircraft is located

in the flight deck
A) 1
B) lower than ambient pressure due to aerodynamic suction.
C) higher than ambient pressure if QNH is greater than 1013 hPa.
D) higher than ambient pressure due to aerodynamic suction.

469. “The alternate static source of a light non&pressurised aircraft is located

in the flight deck
A) 4
B) indicate a high rate of descent.
C) be blocked.
D) indicate a slight momentary descent.

470. The error caused by the location of the static pressure source is known
as:
A) barometric error.
B) instrument error.
C) hysteresis effect.
D) position error.

471. “If the pitot tubes ice up during flight, the affected indication&s& is
&are&: & 1 & altitude & 2 & vertical speed & 3 & airspeed & The combination
that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 3.
C) 1, 3.
D) 1.

472. “If, during a descent: & & the pneumatic altimeter reading is constant & &
the vertical speed indicator shows zero & & the IAS is increasing & the most
likely explanation is that:”
A) the total pressure head is completely blocked.
B) the static ports are completely blocked.
C) there is a leakage in the static pressure line.
D) the antenna of the radio altimeter is completely iced up.

473. “Concerning the pitot and static system, the position error varies with: &
1 & altimeter setting & 2 & Mach number & 3 & angle of attack & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1 and 2.
B) 2 and 3.
C) 1 and 3.
D) 1, 2 and 3.

474. The alternate static source is used:

A) when the drain holes freeze.
B) to compensate the static pressure error.
C) when the static ports become blocked.
D) to compensate the hysteresis of the aneroid capsule.
475. The open&ended tube parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft
senses the:
A) static pressure.
B) total pressure.
C) dynamic pressure.
D) total pressure plus static pressure.

476. How is the reading of the Airspeed Indicator &ASI& affected when ice
blocks the static air ports?
A) The Airspeed Indicator no longer indicates any change in speed.
B) The Airspeed Indicator shows an increase in speed with a decrease in altitude.
C) The Airspeed Indicator shows a decrease in speed with a decrease in altitude.
D) The on board emergency system switches automatically to the standby static pressure
port.

477. “Given: & M is the Mach number & Ts is the static temperature & Tt is the
total temperature”
A) Ts = Tt /&1+0.2. M?&
B) Ts = Tt/& 0.2 M?&
C) Ts = Tt.&0.2. M?&
D) Ts = Tt.&1+0.2. M?&

478. Total Air Temperature &TAT& is:

A) “higher or equal to Static Air Temperature &SAT&
B) TAT is a function of Mach number and SAT.”
C) “lower than Static Air Temperature &SAT&
D) TAT is a function of altitude and SAT.”

479. “Given: & Mach number M = 0.70 & RAT &Ram Air Temperature& = & 48
°C & Recovery factor &Kr& of the temperature probe = 0.85 & The SAT is:”
A) & 68 °C.
B) & 45 °C.
C) & 65 °C.
D) & 51 °C.

480. The aeroplane outside air temperature probe measures the:

A) static air temperature, this must be corrected for compressibility effects to obtain the total
air temperature.
B) static air temperature, this must be corrected for ram rise and recovery factor to obtain the
total air temperature.
C) total air temperature, this must be corrected for ram rise and recovery factor to obtain the
static air temperature.
D) total air temperature, this must be corrected for compressibility effects to obtain the static
air temperature.

481. “A temperature sensor has a recovery factor of 0,95. & The temperature
measured is equal to:”
A) ram air temperature &RAT& + 95 & of the ram rise.
B) 95 & of the ram air temperature &RAT&.
C) 95 & of the static air temperature &SAT&.
D) static air temperature &SAT& + 95& of the ram rise.

482. “An aeroplane is flying at FL320 and Mach number 0.79. & The OAT is
&53°C. & Considering that the probe recovery coefficient is 0.96, RAT &ram air
temperature& is:”
A) &19°C
B) &4°C
C) &27°C
D) &22°C

483. “An aeroplane is flying at FL180 and Mach number 0.36. & The indicated
total air temperature is & 5°C. & Considering that the probe recovery
coefficient is 0.84, OAT is:”
A) Standard
B) Standard + 10°C
C) Standard + 20°C
D) Standard + 30°C

484. “An aeroplane is flying at FL300 and Mach number 0.76. & The indicated
total air temperature is & 19°C. & The OAT is…”
A) Standard
B) Standard + 26°C
C) Standard & 26°C
D) Standard & +10°C

485. “The angle of attack transmitter placed laterally on the forward part of the
fuselage supplies an electrical signal which can indicate the angular position
of: & 1 & a specific slaved pitot probe & 2 & a vane detector & 3 & a conical
slotted probe & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements
is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 2.
C) 2, 3.
D) 1, 3.

486. “An angle of attack sensor may consist of: & 1 & an inertial system
computing the difference between flight path and flight attitude & 2 & a slotted
probe which positions itself to determine the angle of attack & 3 & a vane
detector which positions the rotor of a synchro&transmitter & & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 2, 3.
C) 1, 2.
D) 1, 3.
487. If the static source of an altimeter becomes blocked during a descent the
instrument will:
A) indicate height when the subscale setting is on QNH.
B) gradually indicate zero.
C) continue to display the reading at which the blockage occurred.
D) under&read.

488. In a servo&assisted altimeter, the small movements of:

A) the pointers are detected by a very sensitive electro&magnetic pick&off.
B) the capsules are detected by a very sensitive electro&magnetic pick&off.
C) the capsules are not taken into account.
D) the capsules are inhibited.

489. The QNH is by definition the value of the:

A) altimeter setting so that the altimeter, on the apron of the aerodrome for which it is given,
reads the elevation.
B) atmospheric pressure at the level of the ground overflown by the aircraft.
C) altimeter setting so that the altimeter, on the apron of the aerodrome for which it is given,
reads zero.
D) atmospheric pressure at the sea level of the location for which it is given.

490. When flying in cold air &colder than standard atmosphere&, the altimeter
will:
A) show the actual height above ground.
B) show the actual height above the sea level.
C) overread.
D) underread.

491. “The altimeter is subject to the position error

A) 1
B) Mach number.
C) flight time at high altitude.
D) deformation of the aneroid capsule.

492. When flying in cold air &colder than standard atmosphere&, indicated
altitude is:
A) the same as the true altitude.
B) lower than the true altitude.
C) higher than the true altitude.
D) equal to the standard altitude.

493. Due to its conception, the altimeter measures a:

A) temperature altitude.
B) pressure altitude.
C) density altitude.
D) true altitude.
494. “The altimeter consists of one or several aneroid capsules located in a
sealed casing. & The pressures in the aneroid capsule &i& and casing &ii& are
respectively:”
A) &i& total pressure &ii& static pressure
B) &i& static pressure at time t &ii& static pressure at time t & dt
C) &i& vacuum &or a very low pressure& &ii& static pressure
D) &i& static pressure &ii& total pressure

495. The altimeter is subject to static pressure error. This error results from:
A) incorrect pressure sensing caused by disturbed airflow around the static ports.
B) frictions inside the instrument.
C) imperfect elasticity of the aneroid capsules.
D) cabin pressure slightly lower than outside air pressure due to airflow over the fuselage.

496. The altimeter is subject to static pressure error. This error varies
according to:
A) angle of attack and OAT.
B) TAS and OAT.
C) TAS and altimeter setting.
D) TAS and angle of attack.

497. “The alternate static source of a light non&pressurised aircraft is located

in the flight deck and when used usually: & 1 & the airspeed indicator tends to
under&read & 2 & the airspeed indicator tends to over&read & 3 & the altimeter
tends to under&read & 4 & the altimeter tends to over&read & The combination
that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3.
B) 1, 3.
C) 2, 4.
D) 1, 4.

498. “The altimeter indicates 10000 ft with a subscale setting of 1013.25 hPA.
OAT is +5° C. & The pressure altitude of the aircraft is…”
A) 9600 ft.
B) 10400 ft.
C) 10000 ft.
D) 697 hPa.

499. “The altimeter indicates 12000 ft with a subscale&setting of 1013.25 hPa.

QNH is 999 hPa. & The pressure altitude of the aircraft is…”
A) 11580 ft.
B) 12420 ft.
C) 644 hPa.
D) 12000 ft.

500. “The altimeter indicates 17000 ft with a subscale&setting of 1013.25 hPa.

QNH is 1031 hPa. & The pressure altitude of the aircraft is…”
A) 16460 ft.
B) 17540 ft.
C) 17000 ft.
D) 527 hPa.

501. “The altimeter indicates 15000 ft with a subscale&setting of 1013.25 hPa.

OAT is &21° C. & The pressure altitude of the aircraft is…”
A) 572 hPa.
B) 15360 ft.
C) 14640 ft.
D) 15000 ft.

502. “The altimeter indicates 11000 ft with a subscale&setting of 1013.25 hPa.

QNH is 1023 hPa. OAT is +3° C. & The pressure altitude of the aircraft is…”
A) 10260 ft.
B) 11740 ft.
C) 11000 ft.
D) 670 hPa.

503. “The altimeter indicates 16000 ft with a subscale&setting of 1013.25 hPa.

QNH is 993 hPa. OAT is &3° C. & The pressure altitude of the aircraft is…”
A) 17700 ft.
B) 549 hPa.
C) 14300 ft.
D) 16000 ft.

504. The altimeter indicates true altitude:

A) when the temperature on the ground is +20 °C with a lapse rate of 2 °C per 1000 m, and
correct QNH is set.
B) in standard atmosphere only.
C) when the temperature on the ground is +15 °C with a lapse rate of 2 °C per 1000 m, and
correct QFE is set.
D) when at mean sea level pressure is equal to 1013,25 hPa, temperature is equal to +15°C
and density is equal to 1,225 kg/m3.

505. If the static source to an altimeter becomes blocked during a climb, the
instrument will:
A) continue to indicate the reading at which the blockage occurred.
B) gradually return to zero.
C) under&read by an amount equivalent to the reading at the time that the instrument
became blocked.
D) over&read.

506. The altimeter is supplied with:

A) differential pressure.
B) static pressure.
C) total pressure.
D) dynamic pressure.
507. The purpose of the vibrating device of an altimeter is to:
A) reduce the effect of friction in the linkages.
B) allow damping of the measurement in the unit.
C) reduce the pressure error.
D) inform the crew of a failure of the instrument.

508. When flying in warm air &warmer than standard atmosphere&, indicated
altitude is:
A) equal to the standard altitude.
B) lower than the true altitude.
C) the same as the true altitude.
D) higher than the true altitude.

509. An aircraft is equipped with one altimeter that is compensated for position
error and another one altimeter that is not. Assuming all other factors are
equal, during a straight symmetrical flight:
A) the error between the two altimeters does not depend on the speed.
B) the lower the speed, the greater the error between the two altimeters.
C) the greater the speed, the greater the error between the two altimeters.
D) the greater the speed, the lower the error between the two altimeters.

510. An altimeter contains one or more aneroid capsules. Inside these

capsules is:
A) dynamic pressure and outside is static pressure.
B) a very low residual pressure and outside is static pressure.
C) static pressure and outside is dynamic pressure.
D) static pressure and outside a very low residual pressure.

511. “The alternate static source of a light non&pressurised aeroplane is

located in the flight deck
A) 2
B) is blocked.
C) tends to over&read.
D) indicates zero.

512. The vertical speed indicator is fed by:

A) differential pressure.
B) static pressure.
C) dynamic pressure.
D) total pressure.

513. The response time of a vertical speed detector may be decreased by

adding a:
A) return spring.
B) bimetallic strip.
C) correction based on an acceleration sensor.
D) second calibrated port.

514. A vertical speed indicator measures the difference between:

A) the instantaneous static pressure and the static pressure delayed by means of a flow
restriction.
B) the total pressure and the static pressure.
C) the dynamic pressure and the static pressure.
D) the instantaneous total pressure and the total pressure delayed by means of a flow
restriction.

515. The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator is based on the
measurement of the rate of change of:
A) Kinetic pressure
B) Total pressure
C) Static pressure
D) Dynamic pressure

516. If the static ports are completely clogged up by ice during a climb, the
vertical speed indicator shows:
A) a constant rate of climb, even if the aircraft is levelling out.
B) an increasing rate of climb if the ambient static pressure decreases.
C) zero.
D) a descent if the ambient static pressure is less than the pressure in the instrument.

517. If the static source of an airspeed indicator becomes blocked during a

descent the instrument will:
A) under&read
B) read zero
C) continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage
D) over&read

518. Maintaining CAS and flight level constant, a fall in ambient temperature
results in:
A) higher TAS because air density decreases.
B) lower TAS because air density decreases.
C) higher TAS because air density increases.
D) lower TAS because air density increases.

519. In standard atmosphere, when descending at constant CAS:

A) TAS remains constant.
B) TAS decreases.
C) TAS first increases and then remains constant below the tropopause.
D) TAS increases.

520. A leak in the total pressure line of a non&pressurised aircraft to an

airspeed indicator would cause it to:
A) underread in a climb and over&read in a descent.
B) overread.
C) overread in a climb and under&read in a descent.
D) underread.

521. An aeroplane is descending from FL 390 to ground level at maximum

speed. The limit&s& in speed is &are&:
A) MMO only during all the descent.
B) initially VMO, then MMO below a given flight level.
C) initially MMO, then VMO below a given flight level.
D) VMO only during all the descent.

522. One must take the compressibility into account only for aircraft with:
A) TAS greater than approximately 200 km/h.
B) IAS greater than approximately 100 km/h.
C) IAS greater than approximately 200 kt.
D) TAS greater than approximately 100 kt.

523. EAS can be obtained from the following data:

A) TAS and pressure altitude.
B) CAS and pressure altitude.
C) IAS and pressure altitude.
D) IAS and air density.

524. In the absence of position and instrument errors, CAS is equal to:
A) TAS.
B) IAS.
C) IAS and EAS.
D) EAS.

525. The limits of the yellow arc &caution speed range& of an airspeed
indicator are:
A) VLE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
B) VNO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
C) VFE for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.
D) VLO for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit.

526. The limits of the green scale of an airspeed indicator are:

A) VS1 for the lower limit and VLO for the upper limit
B) VS1 for the lower limit and VNE for the upper limit
C) VS1 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit
D) VS0 for the lower limit and VNO for the upper limit

527. The maximum operating speed VMO is expressed in:

A) CAS or TAS.
B) CAS or EAS.
C) TAS only.
D) TAS or EAS.
528. “After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud, the inlet of the
pitot tube is blocked. & The pilot begins a stabilised descent and finds that the
IAS:”
A) decreases abruptly towards zero
B) decreases steadily
C) increases abruptly towards VNE
D) increases steadily

529. “During a climb, the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator
becomes blocked
A) 2
B) increases by 1& per 600 FT.
C) decreases until reaching the stall speed.
D) decreases by 1& per 600 FT.

530. CAS is obtained from IAS by correcting for the:

A) manoeuvring error.
B) density.
C) position and instrument errors.
D) position and density errors.

531. VNO is the maximum speed:

A) with flaps extended in landing position.
B) not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution.
C) which must never be exceeded.
D) at which the flight controls can be fully deflected.

532. VNE is the maximum speed:

A) not to be exceeded except in still air and with caution
B) at which the flight controls can be fully deflected
C) which must never be exceeded
D) with flaps extended in landing position

533. VFE is the maximum speed:

A) at which the flaps can be operated when flying in turbulence.
B) with the flaps extended.
C) with the flaps extended in the take&off configuration.
D) with the flaps extended in the landing configuration.

534. Considering an airspeed indicator, a second striped needle, if installed,

indicates:
A) VMO.
B) VNE or VMO, depending on which is the lowest.
C) VNE.
D) VNE or VMO, depending on which is the higher.
535. On the airspeed indicator of a multi&engine piston light aeroplane, the
blue line corresponds to the:
A) best single&engine rate of climb speed.
B) minimum ground control speed.
C) single&engine holding speed.
D) minimum air control speed.

536. “Given: & Pt = total pressure & Ps = static pressure & Pd = dynamic
pressure & The airspeed indicator measures:”
A) Pt&Ps
B) Pd & Ps
C) Pt & Pd
D) Ps &Pt

537. “An aeroplane is cruising at FL 60 with a TAS of 100 kt in standard

atmosphere. & In these conditions: & 1 & the TAS is approximately 10& higher
than the IAS. & 2 & the difference between the EAS and the CAS is negligible.
& 3 & the speed displayed on the airspeed indicator is a CAS if the position
error and instrument error are zero. & The combination that regroups all of the
correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3.
B) 1, 3.
C) 1, 2.
D) 1, 2, 3.

538. “An airspeed indicator includes a capsule

A) 4
B) a very low residual pressure and outside is static pressure.
C) dynamic pressure and outside is static pressure.
D) static pressure and outside is dynamic pressure.

539. The pressure capsule of an airspeed indicator is sensitive to the

difference:
A) &dynamic pressure& & &static pressure&.
B) &total pressure& & &dynamic pressure&.
C) &dynamic pressure& & &total pressure&.
D) &total pressure& & &static pressure&.

540. An airspeed indicator displays:

A) EAS.
B) TAS.
C) IAS.
D) CAS.

541. In the absence of position and instrument errors, IAS is equal to:
A) CAS.
B) EAS.
C) TAS.
D) CAS and EAS.

542. EAS is obtained from CAS by correcting for:

A) position error.
B) instrument error.
C) compressibility.
D) density.

543. “TAS is obtained from the CAS by correcting for the: & 1 & instrument
error & 2 & compressibility error & 3 & position & 4 & density & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3, 4.
B) 2.
C) 4.
D) 2, 4.

544. “TAS is obtained from the IAS by correcting for the: & 1 & instrument
error & 2 & position error & 3 & compressibility & 4 & density & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 3, 4.
B) 1, 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 3, 4.
D) 1, 2.

545. TAS is equal to:

A) CAS corrected for instrument error, compressibility and density.
B) IAS corrected for compressibility and density.
C) CAS corrected for instrument error, position error, compressibility and density.
D) IAS corrected for instrument error, position error, compressibility and density.

546. TAS is equal to the EAS only if:

A) P = 1013,25 hPa, OAT = 15°C and TAS > 200 kt.
B) P = 1013,25 hPa, OAT = 15°C and TAS < 200 kt.
C) P = 1013,25 hPa and OAT = 273° K.
D) P = 1013,25 hPa and OAT = 15°C.

547. EAS is equal to:

A) TAS corrected for compressibility.
B) IAS corrected for compressibility.
C) CAS corrected for density.
D) IAS corrected for position error, instrument error and compressibility.

548. TAS is obtained from EAS by correcting for:

A) instrument error.
B) compressibility.
C) position and instrument errors.
D) density.
549. “CAS is obtained from IAS by correcting for the: & 1 & position error. & 2
& compressibility . & 3 & instrument error. & 4 & density. & The combination
that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3, 4.
B) 3.
C) 1, 3.
D) 1, 3, 4.

550. “EAS is obtained from CAS by correcting for: & 1 & position error & 2 &
compressibility & 3 & instrument error & 4 & density & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2.
B) 4.
C) 2, 4.
D) 1, 2, 3, 4.

551. When climbing at a constant CAS in standard atmosphere:

A) TAS decreases.
B) TAS first decreases, then remains constant above the tropopause.
C) TAS increases.
D) TAS remains constant.

552. With EAS and air density, the following can be determined:
A) CAS.
B) CAS and TAS.
C) IAS
D) TAS.

553. With CAS and pressure altitude, the following can be determined:
A) nothing.
B) TAS.
C) EAS.
D) EAS and TAS.

554. Whilst maintaining a constant CAS, if pressure altitude decreases:

A) EAS does not depend on altitude.
B) EAS decreases.
C) EAS remains constant.
D) EAS increases.

555. Considering the relationship between CAS and EAS:

A) EAS may be lower or greater than CAS, depending on air density.
B) EAS is always greater than or equal to CAS.
C) EAS is always lower than or equal to CAS.
D) EAS may be lower or greater than CAS, depending on pressure altitude.
556. If the pitot tube becomes completely blocked during a descent, the
airspeed indicator:
A) under&reads.
B) over&reads.
C) indicates a constant speed.
D) under&reads or over&reads, depending on the air density.

557. “The alternate static source of a light non&pressurised aeroplane is

located in the flight deck
A) 1
B) the airspeed indicator tends to over&read.
C) the airspeed indicator indicates a consistent decreasing speed.
D) the airspeed indicator tends to under&read.

558. The limits of the green arc of an airspeed indicator are:

A) VS1 and VMO.
B) VS0 and VNE.
C) VS1 and VNO.
D) VS1 and VNE.

559. TAS is equal to:

A) EAS corrected for density.
B) CAS corrected for density.
C) CAS corrected for compressibility.
D) EAS corrected for compressibility.

560. Which variable is needed to calculate and obtain the TAS from the CAS?
A) Compressibility and density.
B) Compressibility and temperature.
C) Density.
D) Compressibility.

561. EAS is equal to:

A) TAS corrected for compressibility and density.
B) TAS corrected for compressibility.
C) CAS corrected for density.
D) CAS corrected for compressibility.

562. TAS is equal to:

A) EAS corrected for compressibility.
B) CAS corrected for density.
C) CAS corrected for compressibility and density.
D) EAS corrected for compressibility and density.

563. “During descent, the total pressure probe of the airspeed indicator
becomes blocked. In this case: & 1 & IAS becomes greater than CAS & 2 & IAS
becomes lower than CAS & 3 & while trying to maintain IAS constant, VMO
may be exceeded & 4 & while trying to maintain IAS constant, aeroplane may
stall & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3.
B) 2, 4.
C) 1, 3.
D) 1, 4.

564. The limits of the white scale of an airspeed indicator are:

A) VS0 for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit
B) VS1 for the lower limit and VFE for the upper limit
C) VS0 for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit
D) VS1 for the lower limit and VLE for the upper limit

565. In the absence of position and instrumental errors, IAS is equal to:
A) CAS
B) EAS
C) TAS
D) KAS

566. When at MSL under ISA conditions, the EAS is:

A) lower than the TAS.
B) higher than the TAS.
C) equal to the TAS.
D) independent of the TAS.

567. “EAS is obtained from the IAS by correcting for the: & 1 & instrument
error & 2 & position error & 3 & density & 4 & compressibility & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 4.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4.
D) 1, 2.

568. CAS is equal to:

A) EAS corrected for compressibility and density.
B) IAS corrected for position and instrument errors.
C) IAS corrected for compressibility.
D) EAS corrected for density.

569. Concerning the airspeed indicator, IAS is:

A) the indicated airspeed corrected for instrument error only.
B) the indicated reading on the instrument.
C) the indicated reading on the instrument without errors.
D) the indicated airspeed corrected for instrument and position errors.

570. TAS can be obtained from the following data:

A) CAS and pressure altitude.
B) CAS and air density.
C) EAS and air density.
D) EAS and pressure altitude.

571. Whilst maintaining a constant CAS, if pressure altitude increases:

A) EAS does not depend on altitude.
B) EAS remains constant.
C) EAS decreases.
D) EAS increases.

572. In the absence of position and instrument errors:

A) IAS = CAS.
B) IAS = EAS.
C) CAS = EAS.
D) CAS = TAS.

573. In case of static blockage, the airspeed indicator:

A) over&reads in climb and under&reads in descent.
B) over&reads in climb only.
C) under&reads in climb and over&reads in descent.
D) under&reads in descent only.

574. When climbing at a constant Mach number:

A) CAS decreases.
B) CAS increases.
C) difference between surrounding conditions and standard atmosphere must be known to
deduce the CAS variation.
D) CAS remains constant.

575. Mach meter readings are subject to:

A) density error.
B) setting error.
C) temperature error.
D) position error.

576. Whilst maintaining constant CAS and flight level, if OAT increases:
A) Mach number decreases.
B) TAS decreases.
C) TAS increases.
D) Mach number increases.

577. If OAT increases whilst maintaining a constant CAS and flight level:
A) Mach number remains constant.
B) TAS decreases.
C) TAS remains constant.
D) Mach number decreases.
578. Whilst maintaining constant CAS and flight level, if OAT decreases:
A) Mach number decreases.
B) TAS increases.
C) TAS decreases.
D) Mach number increases.

579. The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of:

A) the differential pressure measurement
B) the outside temperature
C) the total pressure
D) the static pressure

580. The principle of the Mach indicator is based on the computation of the
ratio:
A) &Pt & Ps& / Pt
B) &Pt + Ps& / Ps
C) Pt / Ps
D) &Pt & Ps& / Ps

581. The Mach number is the:

A) CAS divided by the local speed of sound.
B) IAS divided by the local speed of sound.
C) EAS divided by the local speed of sound.
D) TAS divided by the local speed of sound.

582. The Mach number is:

A) the ratio of the TAS to the speed of sound at the altitude considered.
B) “a direct function of temperature
C) it varies in proportion to the square root of the absolute temperature.”
D) the ratio of the CAS to the speed of sound at the altitude considered.

583. The speed of sound at the sea level in standard atmosphere is:
A) 1059 kt.
B) 644 kt.
C) 661 kt.
D) 332 kt.

584. During a climb at a constant Mach number below the tropopause in

standard atmosphere:
A) CAS and TAS decrease.
B) CAS increases and TAS decreases.
C) CAS and TAS increase.
D) CAS decreases and TAS increases.

585. Below the tropopause in standard atmosphere, when descending at a

constant CAS:
A) Mach number increases and the speed of sound decreases.
B) Mach number and the speed of sound increase.
C) Mach number decreases and the speed of sound increases.
D) Mach number and the speed of sound decrease.

586. During a descent at a constant CAS below the tropopause in standard

atmosphere:
A) Mach number and TAS decrease.
B) Mach number and TAS increase.
C) Mach number increases and TAS decreases.
D) Mach number decreases and TAS increases.

587. During a descent at a constant Mach number below the tropopause in

standard atmosphere:
A) CAS increases and TAS decreases.
B) CAS and TAS decrease.
C) CAS and TAS increase.
D) CAS decreases and TAS increases.

588. At flight level and Mach number constant, if OAT increases, the CAS:
A) increases.
B) decreases.
C) remains constant.
D) decreases if OAT is lower than standard temperature, increases in the opposite case.

589. At flight level and Mach number constant, if OAT decreases, the CAS:
A) decreases if OAT is lower than standard temperature, increases in the opposite case.
B) increases.
C) remains constant.
D) decreases.

590. “An aeroplane is cruising at FL 220. The auto&throttle maintains a

constant CAS. & If the OAT increases, the Mach number:”
A) decreases if OAT is lower than standard temperature, increases in the opposite case.
B) decreases.
C) increases.
D) remains constant.

591. “An aeroplane is cruising at FL 190. The auto&throttle maintains a

constant CAS. & If the OAT decreases, the Mach number:”
A) decreases.
B) increases.
C) remains constant.
D) decreases if OAT is lower than standard temperature, increases in the opposite case.

592. When climbing at a constant Mach number through an isothermal layer,

the CAS:
A) remains constant.
B) decreases if OAT is lower than the standard temperature, increases if higher.
C) increases.
D) decreases.

593. When climbing at a constant CAS through an isothermal layer, the Mach
number:
A) remains constant.
B) decreases.
C) increases.
D) decreases if OAT is lower than the standard temperature.

594. The maximum TAS is obtained at:

A) the maximum Flight Level.
B) all the Flight Level&s& where M =MMO.
C) all the Flight Level&s& where CAS =VMO.
D) the Flight Level at which simultaneously CAS = VMO and M = MMO.

595. During a climb at a constant IAS below the tropopause in standard

atmosphere:
A) the Mach number and the TAS decrease.
B) the Mach number decreases and the TAS increases.
C) the Mach number increases and the TAS decreases.
D) the Mach number and the TAS increase.

596. During a descent at a constant IAS below the tropopause in standard

atmosphere:
A) Mach number decreases and TAS increases.
B) Mach number increases and TAS decreases.
C) Mach number and TAS decrease.
D) Mach number and TAS increase.

597. Assuming the flight level and Mach number remain constant, when the
OAT decreases:
A) CAS and TAS both decrease.
B) CAS remains constant and TAS increases.
C) CAS decreases and TAS increases.
D) CAS remains constant and TAS decreases.

598. Assuming the flight level and Mach number remain constant, when the
OAT increases:
A) CAS remains constant and TAS decreases.
B) CAS and TAS both increases.
C) CAS remains constant and TAS increases.
D) CAS increases and TAS decreases.

599. When climbing at a constant CAS:

A) the difference between surrounding conditions and standard atmosphere must be known
to deduce the Mach number variation.
B) Mach number decreases.
C) Mach number remains constant.
D) Mach number increases.

600. When descending at a constant CAS:

A) Mach number remains constant.
B) the difference between surrounding conditions and standard atmosphere must be known
to deduce the Mach number variation.
C) Mach number increases.
D) Mach number decreases.

601. If OAT decreases when at a constant TAS:

A) the difference between surrounding conditions and standard atmosphere must be known
to deduce the Mach number variation.
B) Mach number decreases.
C) Mach number increases.
D) Mach number remains constant.

602. If OAT increases when at a constant TAS:

A) Mach number increases.
B) the difference between surrounding conditions and standard atmosphere must be known
to deduce the Mach number variation.
C) Mach number remains constant.
D) Mach number decreases.

603. If OAT decreases when at a constant Mach number:

A) TAS remains constant only if the flight level remains constant.
B) TAS increases.
C) TAS decreases.
D) TAS decreases only if the flight level remains constant.

604. Below the tropopause in standard atmosphere, when descending at a

constant Mach number:
A) CAS remains constant.
B) TAS decreases.
C) CAS decreases.
D) TAS increases.

605. When descending at a constant Mach number:

A) the difference between surrounding conditions and standard atmosphere must be known
to deduce the CAS variation.
B) CAS decreases.
C) CAS increases.
D) CAS remains constant.

606. Below the tropopause in standard atmosphere, when climbing at a

constant Mach number:
A) CAS remains constant.
B) TAS increases.
C) TAS decreases.
D) CAS increases.

607. “When descending at a constant CAS in a standard atmosphere: & 1 &

TAS increases & 2 & TAS decreases & 3 & Mach number increases & 4 & Mach
number decreases & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 2, 3.
B) 1, 3.
C) 2, 4.
D) 1, 4.

608. “The Mach number is equal to: & NB: “”a”” indicates the local speed of
sound.”
A) IAS/a
B) CAS/a
C) TAS/a
D) EAS/a

609. The Mach meter is subject to position error. This error results from:
A) incorrect altimeter setting.
B) incorrect pressure sensing caused by disturbed airflow around the pitot tube and/or static
ports.
C) imperfect elasticity of the capsules.
D) non standard atmospheric conditions.

610. The Mach meter is subject to position error. This error concerns:
A) pitot tubes only.
B) pitot tubes and static ports.
C) static ports only.
D) alternate static sources only.

611. The Mach number is subject to position error. This error varies with:
A) TAS and OAT.
B) Mach number and angle of attack.
C) OAT only.
D) TAS only.

612. “The Mach number is subject to position error. This error varies with: & 1
& angle of attack & 2 & OAT & 3 & Mach number & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 3.
C) 3.
D) 1.

613. An aeroplane is flying at FL140 with a CAS of 260kt in standard

conditions. The Mach number is:
A) 0.43
B) 0.53
C) 0.51
D) 0.41

614. During a climb at a constant CAS below the tropopause in standard

atmosphere:
A) the Mach number decreases and the speed of sound increases.
B) the Mach number and the speed of sound increase.
C) the Mach number and the speed of sound decrease.
D) the Mach number increases and the speed of sound decreases.

615. During a climb at a constant Mach number below the tropopause in

standard atmosphere:
A) IAS decreases and TAS increases.
B) IAS and TAS decrease.
C) IAS increases and TAS decreases.
D) IAS and TAS increase.

616. “With regard to EAS and CAS: & 1 & EAS is always greater than CAS & 2
& EAS is always smaller or equal to CAS & 3 & the relationship between EAS
and CAS depends on Mach number only & 4 & the relationship between EAS
and CAS depends on air density only & The combination that regroups all of
the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 1, 4.
C) 2, 3.
D) 2, 4.

617. If the outside temperature at 35 000 ft is &40°C, the local speed of sound
is:
A) 686 kt.
B) 595 kt.
C) 307 kt.
D) 247 kt.

618. During a climb at a constant CAS below the tropopause in standard

atmosphere:
A) TAS decreases and Mach number increases.
B) TAS and Mach number increase.
C) TAS and Mach number decrease.
D) TAS increases and Mach number decreases.
619. Sound propagates through the air at a speed which only depends on:
A) temperature.
B) temperature and the pressure.
C) pressure.
D) density.

620. When descending at a constant CAS through an isothermal layer, the

Mach number:
A) decreases.
B) increases.
C) remains constant.
D) increases if OAT is lower than the standard temperature, decreases if higher.

621. Speed of sound is proportional to:

A) the square of the absolute temperature.
B) the square root of the absolute temperature.
C) the square of the TAS.
D) the square root of the TAS.

622. The parameter that determines the relationship between EAS and TAS is:
A) density.
B) Mach number.
C) pressure altitude.
D) OAT.

623. If OAT increases when at a constant Mach number:

A) TAS increases.
B) TAS decreases.
C) TAS decreases only if the flight level remains constant.
D) TAS remains constant only if the flight level remains constant.

624. “When climbing at a constant CAS in a standard atmosphere: & 1 & TAS
decreases & 2 & TAS increases & 3 & Mach number increases & 4 & Mach
number decreases & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 2, 3.
B) 2, 4.
C) 1, 4.
D) 1, 3.

625. An aeroplane is flying at FL300 with a TAS of 470kt in standard

conditions. The Mach number is:
A) 0.83
B) 0.80
C) 0.82
D) 0.53
626. During a descent at a constant Mach number below the tropopause in
standard atmosphere:
A) IAS and TAS decrease.
B) IAS and TAS increase.
C) IAS increases and TAS decreases.
D) IAS decreases and TAS increases.

627. Whilst maintaining constant CAS and flight level, if OAT decreases:
A) TAS remains constant.
B) TAS increases.
C) Mach number remains constant.
D) Mach number increases.

628. In an ADC, the altitude is computed from the:

A) static pressure.
B) OAT.
C) IRS.
D) measurement of elapsed time for a radio signal transmitted to the ground surface and
back.

629. “An air data computer & 1 & supplies GS and drift angle & 2 & determines
TAT and true altitude & 3 & receives static pressure and total pressure & 4 &
supplies TAS to the INS computer & 5 & determines Mach number and OAT &
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 5.
B) 1, 2.
C) 3, 4, 5.
D) 2, 3, 4.

630. “The measured input data of an ADC are: & 1 & OAT & 2 & TAT & 3 &
static pressure & 4 & total pressure & The combination that regroups all of the
correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 3, 4.
C) 2, 3, 4.
D) 1, 2, 3, 4.

631. The ADC uses the following parameters as input data:

A) TAS, altitude, vertical speed, OAT.
B) TAS, CAS, altitude, total air temperature.
C) static pressure, total pressure, total air temperature.
D) static pressure and total pressure only.

632. The ADC uses, among others, the following parameters as input data:
A) TAS, baro altitude, TAT.
B) static pressure, total pressure, TAT.
C) Mach number, baro altitude, CAS.
D) total pressure, static pressure, TAT, EGT.

633. “The data output from the ADC are: & 1 & Barometric altitude & 2 & Mach
number & 3 & CAS & 4 & TAS & 5 & OAT & The combination that regroups all
of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3, 4.
B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
C) 1, 4.
D) 1, 3, 5.

634. “The output data from an ADC are used by: & 1 & Transponder & 2 & EFIS
via the symbol generator & 3 & Automatic Flight Control System &AFCS& &
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 3.
C) 2, 3.
D) 1, 2.

635. “The input data of an ADC are: & 1 & OAT & 2 & TAT & 3 & static pressure
& 4 & total pressure & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 4.
B) 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4.
D) 1, 3, 4.

636. “Given: & Ts = static air temperature &SAT& & Tt = total air temperature
&TAT& & Kr = recovery coefficient & M = Mach number & The total
temperature can be expressed by the formula:”
A) Tt = Ts &1+0.2 M?&
B) Tt = Ts / &1+0.2 Kr.M?&
C) Tt = Ts &1+0.2 Kr.M?&
D) Tt = Ts &1&0.2 M?&

637. “The output data calculated by the ADC are: & 1 & Attitude & 2 & Pressure
altitude & 3 & TAT & 4 & TAS & 5 & CAS & The combination that regroups all of
the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3, 4, 5.
B) 1, 3, 4, 5.
C) 2, 3, 5.
D) 1, 2, 4.

638. The magnetic poles are the two positions on the Earth`s surface where
the lines of the magnetic field:
A) are entirely vertical.
B) make a 45° angle with the local vertical.
C) are entirely horizontal.
D) make a 90° angle with the geographical equator.

639. The Earth`s north magnetic pole is:

A) located approximately in northern Russia.
B) merged with the Earth`s north geographical pole.
C) merged with the Earth`s true north.
D) located approximately in northern Canada.

640. The location of the Earth`s magnetic poles:

A) periodically wander &as much as 15 km every year&.
B) is the same as the geographical poles.
C) is static in time.
D) is static in time with respect to the geographical poles.

641. The force of attraction or repulsion between two magnets:

A) is proportional to the distance between them.
B) is independent of the distance between them since a compass is able to aligns itself
everywhere on the surface of the earth.
C) can not be measured.
D) varies inversely as the square of the distance between them.

642. The magnetic variation at any point on the Earth`s surface is the angle:
A) between the horizontal component of the magnetic field and true north direction.
B) made by a compass needle with the horizontal.
C) made by a compass needle during a steady turn.
D) made by a compass needle with the local vertical.

643. The magnetic dip at any point on the Earth`s surface is the angle:
A) made by a compass needle with the local vertical.
B) made by a compass needle during a steady turn.
C) between the horizontal component of the magnetic field and true north direction.
D) made by a compass needle with the horizontal.

644. The inclination of the earth magnetic field at the North magnetic Pole is
equal to:
A) 90°.
B) 180°.
C) 45°.
D) 0°.

645. “Which of these statements about the properties of a simple bar magnet
are correct? & 1. North or south poles can exist separately. & 2. Magnetism is
concentrated at the extremities of the bar.”
A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
B) Both 1 and 2 are correct.
C) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
D) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect.

646. What is a magnetic meridian of the Earth`s magnetic field?

A) The vertical component of magnetic force lines.
B) The deviation of magnetic force lines.
C) The horizontal component of magnetic force lines.
D) The variation of magnetic force lines.

647. “Which of these statements about the properties of a simple bar magnet
are correct or incorrect? & 1. & North or south poles cannot exist separately. &
2. & Magnetism is concentrated at the extremities of the bar.”
A) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct.
B) 1 is correct, 2 is incorrect.
C) 1 is correct, 2 is correct.
D) 1 is incorrect, 2 is incorrect.

648. The magnetic variation:

A) varies proportionally with the bank angle of the aircraft.
B) is caused by the different locations of the geographic North Pole and the magnetic North
Pole.
C) varies inversely with the bank angle of the aircraft.
D) is caused by the inclination of the Earth`s magnetic field lines.

649. The inclination of the earth magnetic field at the magnetic equator is equal
to:
A) 90°.
B) 180°.
C) 0°.
D) 45°.

650. The purpose of a magnetic compass calibration is to:

A) correct for magnetic variation.
B) correct for deviations.
C) determine the magnetic variation.
D) determine the residual deviations.

651. The purpose of a magnetic compass compensation is to:

A) determine the magnetic variation.
B) determine the residual deviations.
C) correct for deviations.
D) correct for magnetic variation.

652. Which of the following statements about hard and soft iron in relation to
magnetism is correct?
A) Hard iron magnetism is of a permanent nature and soft iron is of a non&permanent
nature.
B) Both hard and soft hard iron are of a permanent nature.
C) Both hard and soft iron are of a non&permanent nature.
D) Hard iron is of a non&permanent nature and soft iron is of a permanent nature.

653. An electromagnet is a type of magnet in which:

A) the magnetic field is produced by the flow of an electric current.
B) the Earth`s magnetic field is concentrated in a soft iron bar.
C) the Earth`s magnetic field is concentrated in a hard iron bar.
D) the magnetic field is produced by static electricity.

654. The principle of the compass swinging procedure is to:

A) correct for deviation due to soft iron magnetism only.
B) correct for deviation due to soft and hard iron magnetism.
C) correct for deviation due to hard iron magnetism only.
D) determine the amount by which the compass readings are affected by hard and soft iron
magnetism.

655. On a compass deviation correction card, the…

A) residual deviation is noted after the compass swing procedure.
B) residual deviation is noted before the compass swing procedure.
C) deviation compensation is noted before the compass swing procedure.
D) deviation compensation is noted after the compass swing procedure.

656. The residual deviation after the compass swing procedure is…
A) noted on a compass deviation correction card.
B) almost zero, so can be disregarded for the flight.
C) indicated on the magnetic compass by small red dots.
D) eliminated when the avionics are switched on.

657. An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn to
the right. If the initial heading was 330°, after 30 seconds of the turn the direct
reading magnetic compass reads:
A) more or less than 060° depending on the pendulous suspension used.
B) 060°.
C) less than 060°.
D) more than 060°.

658. When an aircraft on a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere

accelerates, the effect of the acceleration error causes the magnetic compass
to:
A) to turn faster than the actual turning rate of the aircraft.
B) indicate a turn towards the south.
C) lag behind the turning rate of the aircraft.
D) indicate a turn towards the north.

659. “The fields affecting a direct reading magnetic compass originate from: &
1 & magnetic masses & 2 & ferrous metal masses & 3 & non ferrous metal
masses & 4 & direct currents & The combination that regroups all of the
correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3, 4
B) 1, 2, 3, 4
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 4

660. In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in an

easterly direction, a direct reading magnetic compass indicates:
A) no apparent turn.
B) an apparent turn to the south.
C) an apparent turn to approximately the heading 080°.
D) an apparent turn to the north.

661. In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a

southerly direction, a direct reading magnetic compass indicates:
A) an apparent turn to the east.
B) an apparent turn to the north.
C) no apparent turn.
D) an apparent turn to the west.

662. In the northern hemisphere, during a take&off run in a westerly direction,

a direct reading magnetic compass indicates:
A) no apparent turn.
B) an apparent turn to the north.
C) an apparent turn to approximately the heading 255°.
D) an apparent turn to the south.

663. In the northern hemisphere, accelerating in an easterly direction, a direct

reading magnetic compass indicates:
A) an apparent turn to approximately the heading 100°.
B) an apparent turn to the south.
C) no apparent turn.
D) an apparent turn to the north.

664. “The direct reading magnetic compass is no more reliable when

approaching: & 1 & the magnetic poles & 2 & the magnetic equator with a east
or west heading & 3 & the magnetic equator with a north or south heading &
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 1.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 1, 3.

665. A pilot wishes to turn right on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a
latitude of 20° North. Using a direct reading magnetic compass, in order to
achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of:
A) 170°
B) 160°
C) 200°
D) 180°

666. A pilot wishes to turn left on to a northerly heading with 10° bank at a
latitude of 50° North. Using a direct reading magnetic compass, in order to
achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of:
A) 000°
B) 330°
C) 345°
D) 030°

667. The effect of the turning error of a direct reading magnetic compass:
A) does not depend on the magnetic latitude.
B) decreases when the magnetic latitude increases.
C) increases when the magnetic latitude increases.
D) decreases when the magnetic longitude increases.

668. For a given bank angle, turning errors on a direct reading compass are:
A) greatest on north/south headings and at high latitudes.
B) greatest on east/west headings and at high latitudes.
C) greatest on east/west headings, and are least at high latitudes.
D) greatest on north/south headings, and are least at high latitudes.

669. At the magnetic equator, when accelerating on a westerly heading, a

direct reading pivot suspended compass:
A) indicates a turn to the south.
B) underreads the heading.
C) indicates the correct heading.
D) overreads the heading.

670. For a direct reading magnetic compasses, in the northern hemisphere, it

can be said that:
A) on an easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the South.
B) on a westerly heading, a longitudinal deceleration causes an apparent turn to the North.
C) on a westerly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the South.
D) on an easterly heading, a longitudinal acceleration causes an apparent turn to the North.

671. In the northern hemisphere, during an acceleration in an easterly

direction, the direct reading compass indicates:
A) a heading of East.
B) an apparent turn to the South.
C) a decrease in heading.
D) an increase in heading.

672. Parallax error is caused by:

A) the effect of aircraft accelerations.
B) temperature effect.
C) pressure effect.
D) reading at an oblique angle.

673. The turning errors of a direct reading magnetic compass are:

A) maximum at the magnetic poles.
B) minimum at the magnetic poles.
C) minimum at a latitude of 45°.
D) maximum at the magnetic equator.

674. The centre of gravity of the compass rose of a direct reading magnetic
compass lies below the pivot point in order to reduce the influence of the:
A) magnetic variation.
B) magnetic inclination.
C) parallax error.
D) position error.

675. Because of Earth`s magnetic field, a compass placed anywhere on Earth

will turn so that the north pole of the magnet inside the compass points
towards the:
A) south geographical pole.
B) north geographical pole.
C) north magnetic pole.
D) south magnetic pole.

676. The role of a Direct Reading Magnetic Compass on large aircraft is to

provide…
A) a back&up direction indication.
B) the main direction indication for the Commander.
C) information for calibrating compass swings.
D) the main direction indication for the Co&Pilot.

677. An aircraft in the northern hemisphere makes an accurate rate one turn to
the left. If the initial heading was 070°, after 20 seconds of the turn the direct
reading magnetic compass should read:
A) less than 010°.
B) 350°.
C) more than 010°.
D) less than 350°.

678. When accelerating on an easterly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the

compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass turns:
A) clockwise indicating an apparent turn toward the North.
B) clockwise indicating an apparent turn toward the South.
C) anti&clockwise indicating an apparent turn toward the South.
D) anti&clockwise indicating an apparent turn toward the North.
679. A direct reading compass should be swung again when:
A) there is a large change in magnetic longitude.
B) the aircraft has made more than a stated number of landings.
C) the aircraft has been stored for a long period.
D) there is a large and permanent change in magnetic latitude.

680. “An aircraft in the northern hemisphere is making an accurate rate one
turn to the right. & If the initial heading was 135°, after 30 seconds the direct
reading magnetic compass reads:”
A) less than 225°.
B) more or less than 225° depending on the pendulous suspension used.
C) more than 225°.
D) 225°.

681. When decelerating on a westerly heading in the Northern hemisphere, the

compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass turns:
A) clockwise giving an apparent turn toward the south.
B) anti&clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south.
C) clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north.
D) anti&clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north.

682. In the northern hemisphere, during deceleration following a landing in a

northerly direction, a direct reading magnetic compass indicates:
A) no apparent turn.
B) an apparent turn to the east.
C) an apparent turn to the south.
D) an apparent turn to the west.

683. In the northern hemisphere, during a deceleration following a landing in a

westerly direction, a direct reading magnetic compass indicates:
A) an apparent turn to approximately the heading 290°.
B) an apparent turn to the south.
C) an apparent turn to the north.
D) no apparent turn.

684. A pilot wishes to turn left on to a southerly heading with 20° bank at a
latitude of 20° North. Using a direct reading magnetic compass, in order to
achieve this he must stop the turn on an approximate heading of:
A) 190°
B) 160°
C) 200°
D) 180°

685. The magnetic heading can be obtained from the compass heading by
using a:
A) compass deviation card.
B) map showing the isoclinic lines.
C) map showing the isogonic lines.
D) magnetic variation correction card.

686. Concerning the direct reading magnetic compass:

A) acceleration errors are due to the angle of dip.
B) turning error is due to the vertical component of the earth`s magnetic field.
C) acceleration errors are due to Schüler oscillations
D) errors of parallax are due to the oscillation of the compass rose

687. “In the northern hemisphere, an aircraft takes&off on a runway with an

alignment of 045°. & During the take&off run, the compass indicates:”
A) a value below 045°.
B) 045°.
C) a value above 045°.
D) 225°.

688. At what headings is the acceleration error of a direct reading compass at

its maximum?
A) West and North.
B) East and South.
C) East and West.
D) North and South.

689. When accelerating on a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere, the

compass card of a direct reading magnetic compass will turn:
A) anti&clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north.
B) anti&clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south.
C) clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the north.
D) clockwise giving an apparent turn towards the south.

690. In a remote indicating compass system the amount of deviation caused

by aircraft magnetism and electrical circuits may be minimised by:
A) using a vertically mounted gyroscope instead of a horizontally mounted one.
B) mounting the detector unit &flux valve& in the wingtip.
C) positioning the gyroscope in the centre of the aircraft.
D) mounting the detector unit &flux valve& in the cockpit.

691. The main reason for mounting the detector unit of a remote reading
compass in the wingtip of an aeroplane is:
A) to maximise the units exposure to the earth`s magnetic field.
B) to ensure that the unit is in the most accessible position on the aircraft for ease of
maintenance.
C) to minimise the influence of the aircraft magnetic field.
D) by having detector units on both wingtips, to cancel out the deviation effects caused by
the aircraft structure.
692. The purpose of a flux valve is to…
A) electronically sense the horizontal component of the Earth`s magnetic field.
B) sense the horizontal and vertical components of the Earth`s magnetic field.
C) sense the actual magnetic variation at aircraft’s location, to manually correct the compass
reading.
D) electronically sense the vertical component of the Earth`s magnetic field.

693. The information that is sensed by a flux valve is used in the…

A) Directional Gyro Indicator &DGI&.
B) Direct Reading Magnetic Compass.
C) aircraft`s Air Data Computer.
D) Remote Reading Magnetic Compass.

694. In the building principle of a gyroscope, the best efficiency is obtained

through the concentration of the mass:
A) on the periphery and with a high rotational speed.
B) on the periphery and with a low rotational speed.
C) close to the axis and with a low rotational speed.
D) close to the axis and with a high rotational speed.

695. A laser gyro can measure:

A) an acceleration and a rotation motion.
B) an acceleration.
C) a rotation motion.
D) an acceleration and a speed.

696. The principle of a laser gyro is based on:

A) a gyroscope associated with a laser compensating for apparent wander due to the
rotation of the earth.
B) a gyroscope associated with a laser compensating for gimballing errors.
C) two rotating cavities provided with mirrors.
D) frequency difference between two laser beams rotating in opposite direction.

697. Without any external action, the spin axis of a free gyroscope is fixed with
reference to:
A) the earth.
B) the apparent vertical.
C) the aircraft.
D) space.

698. “A directional gyro is corrected for an apparent drift due to the earth`s
rotation at latitude 30°S. During a flight at latitude 60°N, a drift rate of 15.5°/h to
the right is observed. & The apparent wander due to change of aircraft position
is:”
A) 2.5° per hour to the left.
B) 2.5° per hour to the right.
C) 5° per hour to the left.
D) 5° per hour to the right.

699. A gyro begins to process when:

A) The gyro speed drops.
B) A force is applied at right angles to its rotational axis.
C) A force is applied parallel or at 180° to its rotational axis.
D) The gyro speed increases.

700. The rigidity of a gyroscope is greater when its rotational speed is…
A) lower and the mass of the spinning wheel is located further from the axis of rotation.
B) higher and the mass of the spinning wheel is closer to the axis of rotation.
C) higher and the mass of the spinning wheel is located further from the axis of rotation.
D) lower and the mass of the spinning wheel is closer to the axis of rotation.

701. “A free gyro has the axis of the spinning rotor horizontal and aligned with
the geographic meridian. & If this free gyro is situated at latitude 60° N, the
apparent drift rate according to the earthbound observer is…”
A) 7.5° per hour to the right.
B) 13° per hour to the left.
C) 13° per hour to the right.
D) 7.5°per hour to the left.

702. Which option correctly describes real wander and apparent wander?
A) “Real wander is the discernable movement of the spin axis due to the reference frame in
space
B) apparent wander is the actual misalignment of the spin axis due to mechanical defects in
the gyroscope.”
C) “Real wander is the discernable movement of the spin axis due to the movement of the
aircraft over the Earth`s surface
D) apparent wander is the actual misalignment of the spin axis due to mechanical defects in
the gyroscope.”

703. “The properties of a gyroscope are: & 1 & rigidity in space & 2 & rigidity
on earth & 3 & precession & 4 & Schuler oscillations & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 2, 3.
C) 1, 4.
D) 2, 4.

704. “&For this question use annex 022&001 issue date October 2008& & The
diagram on appended annex shows three gyro assemblies: A, B and C. Among
these gyros: & & One is a roll gyro &noted 1& & & One is a pitch gyro &noted
2& & & One is a yaw gyro &noted 3& & The correct matching of gyros and
assemblies is:”
A) 1A, 2B, 3C
B) 1B, 2C, 3A
C) 1B, 2A, 3C
D) 1C, 2B, 3A

705. In a turn at a constant angle of bank, the rate of turn is:

A) proportional to the aircraft TAS.
B) independent to the aircraft TAS.
C) inversely proportional to the aircraft TAS.
D) proportional to the aircraft weight.

706. The rate&of&turn is the:

A) yaw rate in a turn.
B) change&of&heading rate of the aircraft.
C) aircraft speed in a turn.
D) pitch rate in a turn.

707. On the ground, during a right turn, the rate of turn indicator indicates:
A) needle in the middle, ball to right
B) needle to the right, ball to right
C) needle to the right, ball to left
D) needle in the middle, ball to left

708. On the ground, during a left turn, the rate of turn indicator indicates:
A) needle to the left, ball to the left
B) needle to the left, ball to the right
C) needle in the middle, ball to the right
D) needle in the middle, ball to the left

709. If, in flight, the needle and ball of turn and slip indicator are on the right,
the aircraft is:
A) turning left with not enough right rudder deflection for a co&ordinated turn.
B) turning right with too much right rudder deflection for a co&ordinated turn.
C) turning right with not enough right rudder deflection for a co&ordinated turn.
D) turning left with too much right rudder deflection for a co&ordinated turn.

710. If, in flight, the needle of a turn and slip indicator is on the right and the
ball on the left, the aircraft is:
A) turning right with too much right rudder deflection for a co&ordinated turn.
B) turning right with not enough right rudder deflection for a co&ordinated turn.
C) turning left with too much right rudder deflection for a co&ordinated turn.
D) turning left with not enough right rudder deflection for a co&ordinated turn.

711. “A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. & Rate of
turn depends upon: & 1 & bank angle & 2 & aeroplane speed & 3 & aeroplane
weight & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 2, 3.
D) 1, 2.
712. The rate of turn given by the rate of turn indicator is valid:
A) for the cruising speed.
B) with flaps retracted only.
C) for all airspeeds.
D) for the airspeed range for which the calibration of the instrument has taken place.

713. The spin axis of a rate of turn indicator gyroscope is parallel to the…
A) roll axis.
B) normal axis.
C) lateral axis.
D) longitudinal axis.

714. The gyroscope of a rate of turn indicator has…

A) 0 degree of freedom.
B) 1 degree of freedom.
C) 3 degrees of freedom.
D) 2 degrees of freedom.

715. “Which of the following uses a rate gyroscope? & 1. Directional

gyroscope indicator & 2. Rate of turn indicator & 3. Artificial horizon”
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1, 2, and 3
D) 2 only

716. An airborne instrument equipped with a gyro with one degree of freedom
and a horizontal spin axis is a…
A) remote indicating compass.
B) rate of turn indicator.
C) fluxgate compass.
D) directional gyro.

717. At a low bank angle, the measurement of rate&of&turn consists of

measuring the…
A) yaw rate of the aircraft.
B) pitch rate of the aircraft.
C) roll rate of the aircraft.
D) bank of the aircraft.

718. If, in flight, the needle and ball of turn and slip indicator are on the left, the
aircraft is:
A) turning left with too much left rudder deflection for a coordinated turn.
B) turning left with not enough left rudder deflection for a coordinated turn.
C) turning right with too much left rudder deflection for a coordinated turn.
D) turning right with not enough left rudder deflection for a coordinated turn.
719. Which statement is correct concerning the gyroscope in the rate of turn
indicator?
A) It has two degrees of freedom.
B) It has its rotor spin axis parallel to the roll axis and with one degree of freedom.
C) It has its rotor spin axis parallel to the pitch axis and with one degree of freedom.
D) It has its rotor spin axis parallel to the yaw axis.

720. “&For this question use annex 022&005 issue date October 2008& & The
diagram representing straight and level flight is:”
A) diagram 4.
B) diagram 2.
C) diagram 1.
D) diagram 3.

721. “&For this question use annex 022&005 issue date October 2008& &
Diagram 1 in the annex represents:”
A) a left turn with too much rudder.
B) a left turn with insufficient rudder.
C) straight and level flight.
D) a right turn with insufficient rudder.

722. “&For this question use annex 022&005 issue date October 2008& &
Diagram 2 in the annex represents:”
A) straight and level flight.
B) a right turn with insufficient rudder.
C) a left turn with too much rudder.
D) a left turn with insufficient rudder.

723. “&For this question use annex 022&005 issue date October 2008& &
Diagram 4 in the annex represents:”
A) a left turn with too much rudder.
B) straight and level flight.
C) a right turn with insufficient rudder.
D) a left turn with insufficient rudder.

724. “&For this question use annex 022&006 issue date October 2008& & The
diagram which shows a 40° left bank and 15° nose up attitude is:”
A) diagram 4.
B) diagram 3.
C) diagram 2.
D) diagram 1.

725. “&For this question use annex 022&006 issue date October 2008& & The
diagram which shows a 20° left bank and 18° nose down attitude is:”
A) diagram 2.
B) diagram 4.
C) diagram 1.
D) diagram 3.

726. “&For this question use annex 022&006 issue date October 2008& & The
diagram which shows a 40° right bank and 8° nose down attitude is:”
A) diagram 3.
B) diagram 4.
C) diagram 2.
D) diagram 1.

727. “&For this question use annex 022&006 issue date October 2008& &
Diagram 1 in the annex is showing:”
A) a 20° left bank and 18° nose down attitude.
B) a 40° left bank and 15° nose up attitude.
C) a 40° right bank and 8° nose down attitude.
D) a 40° left bank and 15° nose down attitude.

728. “&For this question use annex 022&006 issue date October 2008& &
Diagram 2 in the annex is showing:”
A) a 40° right bank and 8° nose down attitude.
B) a 20° left bank and 18° nose down attitude.
C) a 40° left bank and 15° nose down attitude.
D) a 40° left bank and 15° nose up attitude.

729. “&For this question use annex 022&006 issue date October 2008& &
Diagram 3 in the annex is showing:”
A) a 40° left bank and 15° nose up attitude.
B) a 40° right bank and 8° nose down attitude.
C) a 20° left bank and 18° nose down attitude.
D) a 40° left bank and 15° nose down attitude.

730. “&For this question use annex 022&005 issue date October 2008& & The
diagram representing a left turn with insufficient rudder is:”
A) diagram 4.
B) diagram 1.
C) diagram 3.
D) diagram 2.

731. “&For this question use annex 022&005 issue date October 2008& & The
diagram representing a left turn with too much rudder is:”
A) diagram 1.
B) diagram 2.
C) diagram 3.
D) diagram 4.

732. During a rate&one turn, the heading of the aircraft changes at a rate of…
A) 6 degrees per second.
B) 540 degrees per minute.
C) 720 degrees per minute.
D) 3 degrees per second.

733. If, in flight, the needle of a turn and slip indicator is on the left and the ball
on the right, the aircraft is:
A) turning left with too much left rudder deflection for a co&ordinated turn.
B) turning left with not enough left rudder deflection for a co&ordinated turn.
C) turning right with too much left rudder deflection for a co&ordinated turn.
D) turning right with not enough left rudder deflection for a co&ordinated turn.

734. “&For this question use annex 022&005 issue date October 2008& & The
diagram representing a right turn with insufficient rudder is:”
A) diagram 2.
B) diagram 1.
C) diagram 3.
D) diagram 4.

735. “&For this question use annex 022&005 issue date October 2008& &
Diagram 3 in the annex represents:”
A) straight and level flight.
B) a right turn with insufficient rudder.
C) a left turn with too much rudder.
D) a left turn with insufficient rudder.

736. “&For this question use annex 022&006 issue date October 2008& &
Diagram 4 in the annex is showing:”
A) a 40° left bank and 15° nose down attitude.
B) a 40° left bank and 15° nose up attitude.
C) a 40° right bank and 8° nose down attitude.
D) a 20° left bank and 18° nose down attitude.

737. The pendulous vane can be found on:

A) a gyromagnetic indicator.
B) a directional gyro indicator.
C) an air driven artificial horizon.
D) a strap down inertial system.

738. The gyro axis of an electric artificial horizon is tied to the:

A) earth`s horizontal by two mercury level switches and two torque motors.
B) earth`s vertical by two mercury level switches and two torque motors.
C) earth`s local horizontal by a pendulum.
D) earth`s local vertical by a pendulum.

739. Considering an air driven artificial horizon, when an aircraft decelerates

on ground during the landing, the result is a…
A) correct and constant pitch indication.
B) false nose&up indication.
C) false nose&down indication.
D) right or left wing down indication depending on the runway direction.

740. The artificial horizon uses a gyroscope with…

A) two degrees of freedom, and an automatic erection system attempts to align its rotor spin
axis with the horizontal plane.
B) two degrees of freedom, and an automatic erection system attempts to align its rotor spin
axis to the local vertical.
C) one degree of freedom, and an automatic erection system attempts to align its rotor spin
axis to the local vertical.
D) one degree of freedom, and an automatic erection system attempts to align its rotor spin
axis with the horizontal plane.

741. Considering an air driven artificial horizon, when an aircraft accelerates

during the take&off run, the result is a…
A) false nose&down indication.
B) correct and constant pitch angle indication.
C) false nose&up indication.
D) right or left wing down indication depending on the runway direction.

742. When an aircraft has turned 360 degrees with a constant attitude and
bank, the pilot observes the following on a classic artificial horizon:
A) too much nose&up and bank too high
B) too much nose&up and bank correct
C) attitude and bank correct
D) too much nose&up and bank too low

743. After the initial 90 degrees of a turn at constant pitch and bank angles, a
classic artificial horizon indicates…
A) too much nose&up and too little bank.
B) pitch and bank correct.
C) too much nose&up and too much bank.
D) too much nose&up and bank correct.

744. “&For this question use annex 022&006 issue date October 2008& & The
diagram which shows a 40° left bank and 15° nose down attitude is:”
A) diagram 3.
B) diagram 2.
C) diagram 1.
D) diagram 4.

745. The purpose of the attitude indicator is to indicate the aircraft`s…

A) angle of bank and rate of heading change.
B) orientation with respect to the horizon in roll and yaw.
C) orientation with respect to the horizon in pitch and roll.
D) rate of heading change.
746. Which statement is correct as regards the display of the attitude
indicator?
A) The yellow or white aircraft symbol remains fixed to the instrument casing.
B) The yellow or white aircraft symbol moves so that it remains parallel with the horizon.
C) The blue/brown background moves so that it remains parallel to the aircraft`s lateral axis.
D) The blue/brown background remains fixed to the aircraft`s lateral axis.

747. For an aircraft flying a true track of 360° between the 5°S and 5°N
parallels, the precession error of the directional gyro due to apparent drift is
equal to…
A) &5° per hour.
B) +5° per hour.
C) 15° per hour.
D) approximately 0° per hour.

748. “Which of the following statements are correct? & A directional gyro is…
& & 1. a gyroscope free to rotate around two axes. & & 2. a gyroscope free to
rotate around one axis. & & 3. capable of self&orientation around an earth&tied
direction. & & 4. incapable of self&orientation around an earth&tied direction.”
A) 2 and 4
B) 2 and 3
C) 1 and 4
D) 1 and 3

749. The maximum error of a directional gyro due to the Earth`s rotation is…
A) 180° per hour.
B) 90° per hour.
C) 5° per hour.
D) 15° per hour.

750. “Among the systematic errors of the directional gyro, the error due to the
Earth`s rotation makes the north reference turn in the horizontal plane. & At a
mean latitude of 45°N, this reference turns by…”
A) 7.5° per hour to the right.
B) 15° per hour to the right.
C) 7.5° per hour to the left.
D) 10.5° per hour to the right.

751. Due to the rotation of the Earth, the apparent drift of a directional gyro
with a N&S spin axis at a latitude of 30°N is…
A) 2° per hour to the right.
B) 15° per hour to the left.
C) 11° per hour to the left.
D) 7.5° per hour to the right.
752. Due to the rotation of the Earth, the apparent drift of a directional gyro
with a N&S spin axis at a latitude of 45°N is…
A) 2° per hour to the right.
B) 15° per hour to the left.
C) 11° per hour to the right.
D) 7° per hour to the left.

753. Due to the rotation of the Earth, the apparent drift of a directional gyro
with a N&S spin&axis at a latitude of 30°S is…
A) 15° per hour to the right.
B) 2° per hour to the left.
C) 11° per hour to the right.
D) 7.5° per hour to the left.

754. The indication of the directional gyro is valid only for a limited period of
time. The causes of this inaccuracy are rotation of the Earth and…
A) longitudinal accelerations, and the aircraft`s movement over the surface of the Earth.
B) longitudinal accelerations, and the vertical component of the Earth`s magnetic field.
C) the aircraft`s movement over the surface of the Earth, and the vertical component of the
Earth`s magnetic field.
D) the aircraft`s movement over the surface of the Earth.

755. “The indications on a directional gyroscope are subject to errors. Which

option correctly lists the most significant errors, based on the items listed
below? & 1. Apparent wander due to the Earth`s rotation & 2. Apparent wander
due to change of aircraft position & 3. Gimballing errors & 4. North change & 5.
Mechanical defects”
A) 1, 2, 4, and 5.
B) 2, 3, and 5 only.
C) 3, 4, and 5 only.
D) 1, 2, 3, and 5.

756. The characteristics of the gyroscope used in a gyromagnetic compass

system are…
A) one degree of freedom, and the spin axis is maintained in the vertical plane by an
erection system.
B) one degree of freedom, and the spin axis is maintained in the horizontal plane by an
erection system.
C) two degrees of freedom, and the spin axis is maintained in the horizontal plane by an
erection system.
D) two degrees of freedom, and the spin axis is maintained in the vertical plane by an
erection system.

757. The latitude at which the apparent wander of a directional gyro is equal to
0 is…
A) the North Pole.
B) latitude 45°.
C) the Equator.
D) latitude 30°.

758. The apparent wander of a directional gyro is 15°/hour…

A) at the North Pole.
B) at the Equator.
C) at the latitude 45°.
D) at the latitude 30°.

759. Concerning the directional gyro, the apparent drift rate due to the Earth`s
rotation is a function of…
A) magnetic longitude.
B) latitude and longitude.
C) latitude.
D) longitude.

760. “The heading read on the dial of a directional gyro is subject to errors,
one of which is due to the movement of the aircraft. & This error…”
A) is, in spite of this, insignificant and may be neglected.
B) is dependent on the ground speed of the aircraft, its true track, and the latitude of the
flight.
C) is at its greatest value when the aircraft follows a meridional track.
D) shows itself by an apparent rotation of the horizontal axis of the gyroscope, which seems
to turn at 15° per hour to the right in the northern hemisphere.

761. An airborne instrument equipped with a gyro with two degrees of freedom
and a horizontal spin axis is…
A) an artificial horizon.
B) a directional gyro.
C) a turn indicator.
D) a fluxgate compass.

762. In a gyromagnetic compass, the direction of the earth`s magnetic field is

given by the:
A) direct indicating compass.
B) flux valve.
C) ADC.
D) directional gyro.

763. In a gyromagnetic compass, the signal feeding the slaving amplifier

comes from the:
A) directional gyro unit.
B) error detector.
C) directional gyro erection device.
D) flux valve.

764. In the gyromagnetic compass, the heading information from the flux valve
is sent to the:
A) error detector.
B) amplifier.
C) heading indicator.
D) erector system.

765. “The flux valve of a gyromagnetic compass: & 1 & feeds the error detector
& 2 & feeds the direct indicating compass & 3 & supplies the earth`s magnetic
field direction & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements
is:”
A) 2, 3.
B) 1, 3.
C) 3.
D) 1, 2.

766. “A gyromagnetic compass consists of: & 1 & a gyro with its axis
perpendicular to the normal axis &the z&axis& of the aircraft & 2 & a vertical
axis gyro & 3 & a magnetic North detector & 4 & an erection mechanism to
maintain the gyro axis horizontal & 5 & a torque motor to make the gyro
precess in azimuth & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 1, 4.
B) 2, 3, 5.
C) 1, 3, 4, 5.
D) 2, 3.

767. In a gyromagnetic compass, the flux valve feeds the:

A) erecting system.
B) heading indicator.
C) amplifier.
D) error detector.

768. A directional gyro consists of a:

A) 2 degrees&of&freedom vertical axis gyro.
B) 1 degrees&of&freedom horizontal axis gyro.
C) 1 degrees&of&freedom vertical axis gyro.
D) 2 degrees&of&freedom horizontal axis gyro.

769. “In a gyromagnetic compass, the gyro axis: & 1 & is maintained vertical &
2 & is maintained horizontal & 3 & is servo&controlled in azimuth & 4 & is free
in azimuth & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 4.
B) 1, 4.
C) 1, 3.
D) 2, 3.

770. The function of a flux detection unit is to…

A) measure the engine fuel flow.
B) measure the phase of an AC generator.
C) compare the direction of the Earth`s magnetic field with the direction of the IRS.
D) sense the strength and direction of magnetic fields.

771. The annunciator of a remote indicating compass system is used:

A) to check the operation of the slaving loop.
B) to set the `heading` pointer.
C) to compensate for deviation.
D) to set local magnetic variation.

772. “The drift of the azimuth gyro in an inertial unit induces an error. If “”t”” is
the elapsed time, the average total error is:”
A) proportional to t? &t squared&.
B) proportional to t.
C) sinusoidal.
D) proportional to t/2.

773. “In an inertial navigation system, the integration process: & 1 & amounts
to making a time division & 2 & amounts to making a time multiplication & 3 &
enable to get accelerations from position & 4 & enable to get position from
accelerations & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements
is:”
A) 1, 4.
B) 1, 3.
C) 2, 3.
D) 2, 4.

774. “To obtain the instantaneous position from the accelerations, it is

necessary to: & 1 & integrate twice the acceleration with respect to time & 2 &
know the initial position & 3 & know the initial speed & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 1, 3.
D) 1, 2.

775. To obtain the instantaneous position from the accelerations:

A) it is necessary to integrate twice the acceleration with respect to time, and to know the
initial speed only.
B) it is necessary to integrate twice the acceleration with respect to time, and to know the
initial position and the initial speed.
C) it is necessary to integrate twice the acceleration with respect to time, and to know the
initial position only.
D) integrating twice acceleration with respect to time is sufficient.

776. To obtain at a given moment the instantaneous speed from the

accelerations:
A) it is necessary to integrate the acceleration once with respect to time, and to know the
initial speed only.
B) it is necessary to integrate the acceleration once with respect to time, and to know the
initial speed and the initial position.
C) it is necessary to integrate the acceleration once with respect to time, and to know the
initial position only.
D) integrating the acceleration once with respect to time is sufficient.

777. In an inertial navigation system, the principle used to obtain the change in
speed is:
A) single integration of position with respect to time.
B) single integration of acceleration with respect to time.
C) double integration of acceleration with respect to time.
D) double integration of position with respect to time.

778. “In an inertial navigation system, the principle used to obtain position is:
& 1 & single integration of acceleration with respect to time & 2 & double
integration of acceleration with respect to time & 3 & double integration of
speed with respect to time & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 2.
B) 1 or 2.
C) 1.
D) 1 or 3.

779. “In an inertial navigation system, to know the distance travelled, it is

necessary to: & 1 & integrate once the speed with respect to time & 2 & to
know the initial position & 3 & to know the initial speed & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 1, 3.
C) 1.
D) 1, 2, 3.

780. In an inertial navigation system, to know the distance travelled:

A) it is necessary to integrate once the speed with respect to time, and to know the initial
speed.
B) integrating once the speed with respect to time is sufficient.
C) it is necessary to integrate once the speed with respect to time, and to know the initial
position.
D) it is necessary to integrate once the speed with respect to time, and to know the initial
speed and the initial position.

781. “With regard to position computation, comparing the radio navigation

system &VOR/DME& and the inertial navigation system: & 1 & the radio
position is accurate when in DME range & 2 & the radio position may be
obtained whatever the position on the earth & 3 & the inertial position may be
obtained whatever the position on the earth & The combination that regroups
all of the correct statements is:”
A) “2
B) “
C) 3.
D) 1, 3.

782. “To obtain the instantaneous speed from the accelerations, it is

necessary to: & 1 & integrate once the acceleration with respect to time & 2 &
know the initial position & 3 & know the initial speed & & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 2.
C) 1.
D) 1, 3.

783. In an inertial navigation system, integrating once the speed in gives:

A) a position.
B) an instantaneous acceleration.
C) a distance travelled.
D) an average acceleration.

784. The operating principle of an inertial system consists in:

A) measuring the acceleration of the aircraft and performing integrations to elaborate the
ground speed and the position.
B) measuring the position of the aircraft and performing integrations to elaborate the ground
speed and acceleration.
C) measuring the acceleration, speed and position of the aircraft.
D) measuring the earth rotation and performing integrations to elaborate the aircraft ground
speed and position.

785. In an inertial navigation system, the ground speed is computed:

A) by integrating the measured accelerations.
B) with TAS and W/V provided by the ADC.
C) with TAS and W/V from RNAV data.
D) by integrating gyroscopes precessions in N/S and E/W directions.

786. In an inertial navigation system, the input&s& required to obtain a wind

direction and velocity readout is&are&:
A) IAS.
B) altitude and OAT.
C) TAS.
D) Mach number.

787. “The alignment phase of an IRS consists of: & 1 & searching for the local
vertical & 2 & searching for the true North & 3 & searching for the latitude & 4
& searching for the longitude & 5 & comparison between the computed
longitude and the one entered by the pilot & 6 & comparison between the
computed latitude and the one entered by the pilot & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
B) 1, 2, 3, 6.
C) 1, 2, 4, 5.
D) 3, 4.

788. Considering a stabilised platform inertial system, the principle of

operation requires the use of at least:
A) 2 rate gyros and 2 accelerometers.
B) 3 rate gyros and 2 accelerometers.
C) 3 rate gyros and 4 accelerometers.
D) 2 rate gyros and 3 accelerometers.

789. “Considering a stabilised platform inertial system, this platform: & 1 &
can be servo&controlled in azimuth & 2 & is kept levelled during alignment
phase only & 3 & is always kept levelled & The combination that regroups all
of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 3.
C) 1, 3.
D) 2.

790. “In a stabilised platform inertial system, the accelerations are measured in
an axis co&ordinate system which is: & &NB: aircraft`s body axis co&ordinate
system = pitch, roll and yaw axis&”
A) fixed in absolute space.
B) free from the aircraft`s body axis co&ordinate system.
C) merged with only two axes of the aircraft`s body axis co&ordinate system: the roll and the
pitch axis.
D) merged with the aircraft`s body axis co&ordinate system.

791. If the longitudinal acceleration of an aircraft is zero, its velocity:

A) is constant.
B) decreases.
C) is zero.
D) increases.

792. The parameters that are sensed and used by an IRS for a full successful
alignment are:
A) earth rotation and gravity.
B) earth magnetic field and earth rotation.
C) longitude and gravity.
D) earth rotation and longitude.

793. The alignment phase of a gyro stabilised platform consists of:

A) levelling the platform and determining its orientation.
B) aligning the platform axes with the aircraft axis &pitch, roll, yaw&.
C) aligning the platform axes with the aircraft roll axis only.
D) aligning the platform axes with the aircraft pitch axis only.

794. The principle of the Schuler oscillations is used in the design of a:

A) a rate of turn indicator.
B) a directional gyro.
C) an artificial horizon.
D) a stabilised platform inertial system.

795. Should an stabilised inertial platform be displaced from the horizontal, it

would oscillate with a period of about:
A) 84 seconds.
B) 8 minutes.
C) 84 minutes.
D) 4 minutes.

796. As a result of the failure of the ADC, the inertial navigation system will no
longer provide information about:
A) the time &TIME& at the next waypoint &WPT&.
B) the wind direction and velocity.
C) the ground speed.
D) the drift angle.

797. “Considering a stabilised platform inertial system: & 1 & the rate gyros
and the accelerometers are mounted on the same platform & 2 & the rate gyros
and the accelerometers are mounted on two separated platforms & 3 & the
principle of operation requires at least 2 rate gyros & 4 & the principle of
operation requires at least 2 accelerometers & The combination that regroups
all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 1, 4.
C) 2, 3.
D) 2, 4.

798. The alignment of a gyro stabilised inertial platform consists in positioning

the platform relative to:
A) the pitch axis only.
B) the pitch and roll axis.
C) the vertical axis and true north.
D) the roll axis only.

799. What is the average position error of a stabilised&platform Inertial

Navigation System &INS&?
A) 1.5 NM/hour or more.
B) 0.5 NM/hour or less.
C) 3.0 NM/hour or more.
D) 1 NM/hour or less.

800. What is the main cause of position error overtime in a stabilised&platform

Inertial Navigation System &INS&?
A) Imperfections in the mirrors, their coatings, and misalignment.
B) Imperfections within gyro bearings and mass imbalances.
C) Imperfections in the power supply of the INS.
D) The Earth`s rotation.

801. In an inertial navigation systems, a TAS input is:

A) required for the Automatic Flight Control System &AFCS& to compute a heading
according to track.
B) required to provide a wind direction and velocity read out.
C) required for polar navigation only.
D) not required.

802. The purpose of the TAS input to the inertial navigation system is for:
A) the computation of wind velocity.
B) the computation of magnetic heading.
C) position update in Navigation mode.
D) position update in Attitude mode.

803. The full alignment of a stabilised platform inertial system can be carried
out:
A) at any time as long as an accurate position is computed by the FMS.
B) during any phase of flight.
C) on the ground only and when the aircraft is at a full stop.
D) on the ground or when in straight and levelled flight.

804. “The positions of the mode selector of an inertial navigation unit are: OFF
& STBY & ALIGN & NAV & ATT: & 1 & in “”STBY””, the unit aligns on the local
geographic co&ordinate system & 2 & the “”ATT”” position is used during
automatic landing &LAND mode& & 3 & in “”NAV”” the co&ordinates of the
start position can be entered & 4 & the platform is levelled before azimuth
alignment & 5 & in cruise, the unit can only be used in “”NAV”” mode & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 4.
B) 2, 5.
C) 4.
D) 1, 3, 5.

805. If the navigation function of an INS is inoperative, the back up mode if

existing, used to operate the INS is:
A) the ATT mode which supplies attitude and heading data.
B) the GS mode which supplies ground speed and heading data.
C) the ATT mode which allows to maintain pitch angle only.
D) the OFF mode which turns off the navigation mode but recovers the heading mode.
806. If the navigation function of an INS is inoperative and the control rotary
switch is set to ATT, the output data of the INS is &are&:
A) attitude and ground speed.
B) position and attitude.
C) attitude and heading.
D) position only.

807. If the navigation function of an INS is inoperative and the control rotary
switch is set to ATT, the output data of the INS are:
A) attitude and heading.
B) attitude, TAS and heading.
C) ground speed and heading.
D) attitude and ground speed.

808. “When the rotary knob on the INS control panel is set to “”NAV”” mode, it
is:”
A) the navigation mode allowing use of all the functions of the system except heading.
B) the alignment function in flight.
C) the normal operating mode allowing use of all the functions of the system.
D) the navigation mode allowing use of all the functions of the system except attitude.

809. When an INS loses its alignment reference during flight, the…
A) pilot must select ALIGN on the mode selector unit and wait for about 10 minutes.
B) INS loses all functionality and should be switched off to save electrical power.
C) NAV mode is lost until the next alignment is carried out on the ground.
D) pilot must select STBY on the mode selector unit and wait for about 3 minutes before
switching to the ALIGN mode.

810. “On the control panel of the Inertial Navigation System a caption “”BAT””
&or “”ON BAT, or “”ON DC””, according to the aircraft type& illuminates. This
means that the…”
A) system is fed by DC current instead of the normal AC current supply, leading to a reduced
system performance.
B) initial alignment process is on&going and that the system is currently fed via a DC bus
bar.
C) normal electrical supply is lost and that the system is currently fed by the aircraft`s battery
or a back&up battery.
D) voltage of the battery, supplying electrical power to the system during normal operation,
has dropped.

811. In a strapdown inertial system, the accelerations are measured in an axis

co&ordinate system which is fixed regarding to the:
A) aircraft`s body axes co&ordinate system &pitch, roll, yaw&
B) absolute space.
C) earth`s axes co&ordinate system &longitude, latitude&.
D) earth`s axes co&ordinate system &X, Y, Z&
812. The energy required to operate a strapdown inertial system is supplied
by:
A) the bleed air system.
B) the electrical system.
C) the hydraulic system.
D) a dedicated pneumatic system.

813. The alignment of an inertial system can be successfully performed:

A) in all phases of flight outside areas of turbulence.
B) in all phases of flight.
C) when the aircraft is stationary.
D) when the aircraft is taxiing.

814. “Concerning an IRS: & 1 & the aircraft may be moved during the
alignment & 2 & the aircraft must not be moved during alignment & 3 &
exceptionally, the alignment can be done in flight & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 1.
C) 2.
D) 2, 3.

815. Compare an IRS with an INS. Which statement is correct?

A) Components that are part of an IRS include accelerometers, torque motors, and gimbals.
B) Only the INS makes use of a ring laser gyro.
C) The INS is a more modern development of the IRS.
D) Only the IRS has a strapped&down system that is solidly mounted to the aircraft chassis.

816. “An inertial reference and navigation system is a “”strapdown”” system

when:”
A) the gyroscopes and the accelerometers are fixed regarding to the aircraft`s body axes
co&ordinate system.
B) the gyroscopes and the accelerometers are mounted on a stabilised platform.
C) only the gyroscopes, and not the accelerometers, are fixed regarding to the aircraft`s
body axes co&ordinate system.
D) only the gyroscopes, and not the accelerometers, are mounted on a stabilised platform.

817. If an aircraft is equipped with three operational IRS, the respective

positions computed by the three IRS:
A) are likely to differ slightly.
B) will remain exactly the same.
C) will differ only if one IRS detects a malfunction.
D) will differ only if a wrong position has been inserted during the alignment phase.

818. Considering a strapdown inertial system, the operating principle requires

the use of at least:
A) 2 laser gyros and 3 accelerometers.
B) 3 laser gyros and 2 accelerometers.
C) 3 laser gyros and 3 accelerometers.
D) 2 laser gyros and 2 accelerometers.

819. An inertial navigation system:

A) can only operate when interfacing with the radionavigation equipment.
B) can only operate when communicating with ground installations.
C) can operate as stand alone equipment without any interface with other navigation
equipment.
D) can only operate when interfacing with the GPS equipment.

820. “In order to align an IRS, it is required to insert the local geographical
co&ordinates. This enables the IRS to: & 1 & compare the computed latitude
with the one entered by the pilot & 2 & compare the computed longitude with
the one entered by the pilot & 3 & use the longitude & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 2.
C) 1, 3.
D) 2, 3.

821. In a strap&down inertial system, accelerations are measured in reference

with:
A) the absolute space axes co&ordinate system &X, Y, Z&.
B) the direction of true north.
C) the aircraft`s body axes co&ordinate system &longitudinal, lateral, normal&.
D) the earth`s axes co&ordinate system &X, Y, Z&.

822. Compared to a conventional gyroscope, a Ring Laser Gyroscope &RLG&

has the following characteristics:
A) no run&up time and very low sensitivity to gravitational &`g`& forces.
B) low power requirement and long run&up time.
C) high accuracy and high sensitivity to gravitational &`g`& forces.
D) high reliability and long run&up time.

823. Considering a strapdown inertial system, the IRU &Inertial Reference

Unit& measures:
A) angular rates only.
B) accelerations and angular rates.
C) angular accelerations only.
D) linear accelerations only.

824. The alignment of a strapdown inertial system consists in:

A) positioning the platform relative to the local vertical and true north.
B) positioning the accelerometers.
C) positioning the gyroscopes and accelerometers relative to the fuselage axis.
D) measuring the earth rotation and local gravitation to position the reference co&ordinate
system.

825. “The output data of an IRS include: & 1 & present position &lat, long& & 2
& altitude & 3 & ground speed & 4 & true heading & The combination that
regroups all the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 4.
B) 1, 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 1, 3, 4.

826. “The output data of an IRS include: & 1 & true heading & 2 & drift angle &
3 & ground speed & 4 & Mach number & & The combination that regroups all
of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2, 4.
D) 1, 3, 4.

827. “The output data of an IRS are: & 1 & true track & 2 & Mach number & 3 &
present position &lat, long& & 4 & true heading & 5 & attitude & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3, 4.
B) 2, 5.
C) 3.
D) 1, 3, 4, 5.

828. “The output data of an IRS include: & 1 & present position &lat, long& & 2
& TAS & 3 & attitude & 4 & ground speed & The combination that regroups all
of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3, 4.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 2, 3, 4.
D) 1, 2, 4.

829. “The output data of an IRS include: & 1 & radio height & 2 & attitude & 3 &
true track & 4 & static pressure & The combination that regroups all of the
correct statements is:”
A) 2, 4.
B) 1, 3, 4.
C) 2, 3.
D) 2, 3, 4.

830. “The output data of an IRS include: & 1 & present position &lat, long& & 2
& total pressure & 3 & static air temperature & 4 & true heading & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 4.
B) 1, 3.
C) 2, 3.
D) 1, 2, 4.

831. “The output data of an IRS include: & 1 & true track & 2 & attitude & 3 &
number of satellites tracked & 4 & true heading & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3, 4.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 2, 3, 4.
D) 1, 2, 4.

832. “The output data of an IRS include: & 1 & number of satellites tracked & 2
& Mach number & 3 & ground speed & 4 & true track & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 3, 4.
B) 1, 4.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4.
D) 2, 3.

833. “The output data of an IRS include: & 1 & satellites status & 2 & altitude &
3 & drift angle & 4 & present position &lat, long& & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3, 4.
B) 4.
C) 2, 4.
D) 3, 4.

834. The attitude data computed by an IRS can be used by the:

A) stall warning system.
B) GPWS.
C) TCAS.
D) auto pilot system.

835. A ring laser gyro is:

A) a device which measures the earth rate precession.
B) used for stabilising the INS platform.
C) an optical accelerometer.
D) a device which measures angular rates around its sensitive axis.

836. The accelerometers of a strap&down inertial system are in line with:

A) the axes of the earth space co&ordinate system &X, Y, Z&
B) the axes of the absolute space co&ordinate system &X, Y Z&.
C) the geographical directions &N/S, E/W&.
D) the axes of the aircraft`s body co&ordinate system &longitudinal, lateral, normal&.
837. If the position data &lat, long& is no longer computed an IRS, the affected
system&s& is &are&:
A) the FMS.
B) the ADC and the TCAS.
C) the FMS and the TCAS.
D) the TCAS.

838. The sideslip indication displayed on the PFD &Primary Flight Display& is
a data derived from the:
A) stall protection system.
B) yaw damper.
C) IRS.
D) Automatic Flight Control System &AFCS&.

839. “The position data &lat, long& computed by an IRS can be used by the: &
1 & yaw damper & 2 & FMS & 3 & radio altimeter & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2.
B) 2, 3.
C) 1, 3.
D) 1, 2, 3.

840. A strapdown inertial system consists of:

A) accelerometers attached to the aircraft chassis and gyroscopes which are not.
B) gyroscopes attached to the aircraft chassis and accelerometers which are not.
C) a platform attached to the aircraft chassis and which includes gyroscopes and
accelerometers.
D) a platform free of the aircraft chassis which includes gyroscopes and accelerometers.

841. When considering a Laser Gyro, how can the `lock in` effect be described
using the choices below?
A) Special functional processing of the gyro is needed to measure very small rotational
speeds.
B) Lock In` is achieved when a Laser Gyro is used which uses a blue ray laser beam.
C) Lock In` means that a third laser beam is produced inside the Laser gyro to avoid
dithering.
D) Special functional processing of the gyro is needed to measure very high rotational
velocities.

842. A ring laser gyro can measure:

A) acceleration in all directions.
B) rotation in all directions.
C) rotation about its sensitive axis.
D) acceleration about its sensitive axis.

843. The full alignment of an IRS will be successful if the following data is
inserted by the pilot:
A) aircraft true heading.
B) aircraft position &latitude and longitude&.
C) airport elevation.
D) aircraft magnetic heading.

844. “The output data of an IRS include: & 1 & angle of attack & 2 & altitude & 3
& ground speed & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements
is:”
A) 2.
B) 1, 2.
C) 1, 3.
D) 3.

845. “The output data of an IRS include: & 1 & attitude & 2 & altitude & 3 &
present position &lat, long& & 4 & static air temperature & The combination
that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 3, 4.
C) 1, 3.
D) 1, 2, 3, 4.

846. The position data &lat, long& computed by an IRS can be used by the:
A) TCAS.
B) ADC.
C) ILS receiver.
D) FMS.

847. The sideslip indication displayed on the PFD can derive its information
from the:
A) compass.
B) yaw damper.
C) ADC.
D) inertial system.

848. The drift of the gyroscopes of a stand alone inertial system:

A) induces a bounded position error.
B) is not an error source.
C) is the main error source.
D) induces a position error that decreases along the flight.

849. The position error of a stand alone inertial system:

A) remains constant.
B) is sinusoidal.
C) increases along the time.
D) increases up to 2 NM due to the drift error of the gyroscopes, then stabilises.

850. The position error of a stand alone inertial system is:

A) constant along the flight with an accuracy depending on the accuracy of the
accelerometers.
B) small and constant along the flight.
C) small a few minutes after initialisation and increases along the flight.
D) large a few minutes after initialisation and reduces along the flight.

851. The accuracy of the altitude computed by a stand&alone inertial system…

A) increases with flight time.
B) is bounded.
C) decreases with flight time.
D) is poor at the beginning of the flight.

852. The position error of a stand alone inertial system increases by

approximately:
A) 8 to 10 NM per hour.
B) 6 to 8 NM per hour.
C) 0.5 to 2 NM per hour.
D) 0.01 to 0.2 NM per hour.

853. The navigation precision of a stand alone inertial system decreases along
the flight, due to:
A) the motion of the aircraft.
B) the accelerations of the aircraft.
C) the drift of the gyroscopes.
D) the meteorological conditions.

854. “Compared with a stabilised platform inertial system, a strapdown inertial

system: & 1 & is able to align while the aircraft is moving & 2 & has a quicker
alignment phase & 3 & is more reliable over time & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 2, 3.
D) 3.

855. “Compared with a stabilised platform inertial system, a strapdown inertial

system: & 1 & is more accurate but less reliable over time & 2 & measures the
accelerations in a co&ordinate system fixed to the aircraft body axes
co&ordinate system &pitch, roll and yaw axis& & 3 & doesn`t need any initial
position to be inserted by the flight crew & The combination that regroups all
of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 2.
C) 1.
D) 1, 2.

856. The time for a normal alignment &not a quick alignment& of a strapdown
inertial system is:
A) 1 to 2 minutes.
B) 3 to 10 minutes.
C) less than 1 minute.
D) 15 to 20 minutes.

857. The alignment time of a strapdown inertial system takes longer time when
the aircraft is:
A) at a high latitude.
B) at a high longitude.
C) at a location where the magnetic variation is greater than 15 degrees.
D) close to the equator.

858. On the INS control panel, the rotary knob can be selected to OFF, NAV or
ATT positions. The correct statement is:
A) “NAV is the normal system setting
B) the ATT position is the back up position in case of failure of the navigation function.”
C) “NAV is the normal system setting
D) the OFF position is the back up position in case of failure of the navigation function.”

859. “Compared with a stabilised platform inertial system, a strapdown inertial

system: & 1 & takes longer time to align & 2 & takes shorter time to align & 3 &
is more reliable over time & 4 & is less reliable over time & The combination
that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 4.
B) 1, 3.
C) 2, 3.
D) 2, 4.

860. “Which of the following items are outputs generated by an Inertial

Reference System &IRS&? & 1. True heading & 2. Magnetic heading & 3. TCAS
traffic information & 4. Groundspeed & 5. Latitude and longitude of the
position & 6. EGPWS modes 1 to 7”
A) 1, 2, 4, and 5
B) 2, 4, 5, and 6
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 5, and 6

861. In an autopilot system:

A) the inner loops provide the stability functions and the outer loops provide the guidance
functions.
B) the outer loops provide the stability functions and the inner loops provide the guidance
functions.
C) the inner loops provide the guidance functions only.
D) the outer loops provide the stability functions only.

862. In an autopilot system, the function that controls the movements around
the centre of gravity of the aircraft is provided by the:
A) outer loop systems.
B) Inertial Reference System &IRS&.
C) inner loop systems.
D) synchronisation system.

863. In an autopilot system, the functions that control the path of the aircraft
are the:
A) guidance functions.
B) stability functions.
C) inner loop functions.
D) attitude functions.

864. An inner loop control &stabilisation& is…

A) controlled directly by the pilot.
B) controlled directly by the pilot through the flight control computer.
C) closed through the flight control computer at the junction point of the controller stick.
D) closed through the flight control computer directly to the actuator.

865. What is the basic principle of a closed loop system?

A) Measurement of the controlled variable, calculation of the control error, and adjustment of
the controlled variable to reduce/remove the control error.
B) Adjustment of the controlled variable based on a fixed setting.
C) Measurement of an independent variable, calculation of the control error, and adjustment
of the controlled variable to reduce/remove the control error.
D) Calculation of the control error, adjustment of the controlled variable to reduce/remove
the control error, and without feedback.

866. A closed loop control system in which a small power input controls a
much larger power output in a strictly proportionate manner is known as:
A) an autopilot.
B) a feedback control circuit.
C) an amplifier.
D) a servomechanism.

867. During an automatic landing, between 50 FT AGL and touch down, the
autopilot maintains:
A) a constant vertical speed.
B) a vertical speed depending on the GPS height.
C) a constant flight path angle with reference to the ground.
D) a vertical speed depending on the radio altimeter height.

868. An aeroplane is equipped with an autopilot and an auto&throttle. When

the altitude hold mode &ALT HOLD& is active:
A) the IAS is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator.
B) the TAS is maintained constant by the autopilot by means of elevator.
C) the IAS is maintained constant by the auto&throttle system.
D) the TAS is maintained constant by the auto&throttle system.
869. If, in the event of a failure, there is no significant out&of&trim condition or
deviation of flight path or attitude but the landing is not completed
automatically, such an automatic landing system is considered as:
A) fail&passive.
B) fail&safe.
C) fail&operational.
D) fail&redundant.

870. “When an aircraft, operating in the VOR coupled mode, enters the “”cone
of confusion”” over a VOR station, the roll channel of the autopilot:”
A) remains always coupled to the selected VOR radial.
B) temporarily maintains existing heading.
C) is damped by a trim input signal from the lateral trim system.
D) is temporarily disconnected.

871. “On a large aeroplane, an autopilot comprises, in addition to the mode

display devices, the following fundamental elements: & 1 & Airflow valve & 2 &
Sensors & 3 & Comparators & 4 & Computers & 5 & Amplifiers & 6 &
Servo&actuators & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 6.
B) 2, 3, 4, 5.
C) 2, 3, 4, 5, 6.
D) 1, 3, 4, 6.

872. During a Category II automatic approach, the height information is

supplied by the:
A) transponder.
B) GPS.
C) radio altimeter.
D) FMS navigation database.

873. The basic modes of an autopilot consist of:

A) controlling the path of the aircraft vertically only.
B) controlling the movement of the centre of gravity of the aircraft.
C) stabilising the aircraft around its centre of gravity.
D) controlling the path of the aircraft horizontally or vertically.

874. The guidance functions of an autopilot consist of:

A) stabilising and controlling the movements around the yaw axis.
B) stabilising and controlling the movements around the centre of gravity.
C) controlling the movements of the centre of gravity in three&dimensional space.
D) stabilising and controlling the movements around the pitch and roll axes.

875. “Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the

aeroplane guidance are: & 1 & pitch angle hold & 2 & wings level hold & 3 &
IAS or Mach number hold & 4 & altitude hold & 5 & VOR radial hold & 6 & yaw
damping & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 3, 4, 5.
B) 1, 2, 3, 6.
C) 1, 2, 6.
D) 1, 3, 4, 5.

876. “The IAS or Mach hold mode is provided by: & 1 & the autopilot pitch
channel in the climb mode at a constant IAS or Mach number & 2 & the
auto&throttles in the climb mode at a constant IAS or Mach number & 3 & the
autopilot pitch channel in the altitude or glide path hold mode & 4 & the
auto&throttles in the altitude or glide path holding mode & The combination
that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 4.
B) 2, 4.
C) 1, 3.
D) 2, 3.

877. When being engaged, and without selecting a particular mode, an

autopilot enables:
A) aircraft guidance functions only.
B) all stabilising and guidance functions.
C) a constant speed on track, wings horizontal.
D) attitude or vertical speed hold.

878. When the autopilot is engaged, the role of the automatic pitch trim is to:
A) block the elevator and pilot the aircraft only via the trim tab actuator or the horizontal
stabiliser.
B) respond to altitude changes in Altitude Hold mode.
C) synchronise the longitudinal loop.
D) relieve the autopilot servo motor and return the aircraft in&trim when disconnecting the
autopilot.

879. The autopilot synchronisation function:

A) is inhibited when the automatic pilot is engaged.
B) prevents uncommanded surface deflection when the automatic pilot is disengaged.
C) when failed will prevent autopilot engagement.
D) is activated only when the automatic pilot has been engaged.

880. The sequence of the automatic landing comprises several phases, from
final approach to touch&down. Transition from one phase to another is
triggered by:
A) the DME of the ILS.
B) the altimeter set to the QNH.
C) the distance left before the touch down zone.
D) the radio altimeter.
881. During an automatic landing, the guidance signals in the vertical plane
under 50 ft are computed according to the:
A) radio altitude.
B) barometric altitude with the altimeter set to the QNH.
C) barometric altitude with the altimeter set to the 1013,25.
D) barometric altitude with the altimeter set to the QFE.

882. “According to CS25, the definition of the control wheel steering mode
&CWS& is: & “”Where the pilot has the ability to make inputs to the:”
A) “automatic pilot by movement of the alternate control wheel””.”
B) “automatic pilot by movement of the normal control wheel””.”
C) “flight director by movement of the normal control wheel””.”
D) “flight director by movement of the alternate control wheel””.”

883. A flight control system is fail&passive if, in the event of a failure:

A) the system operates as a fail&operational hybrid landing system.
B) the system operates as a fail&operational system.
C) there is no significant out&of&trim condition or deviation of flight path or attitude but the
landing is not completed automatically.
D) there is no significant out&of&trim condition or deviation of flight path or attitude and the
landing is completed automatically.

884. “Concerning a fail&operational flight control system, in the event of a

failure: & 1 & the system will operate as a fail&passive system & 2 & the
landing is not completed automatically & 3 & the landing is completed
automatically & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements
is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 1, 2.
C) 2.
D) 3.

885. “Concerning a fail&passive flight control system, in the event of a failure:

& 1 & there may be a significant deviation of flight path or attitude & 2 & there
is no significant deviation of flight path or attitude & 3 & the landing is not
completed automatically & 4 & the landing is completed automatically & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 4.
B) 1, 3.
C) 2, 3.
D) 2, 4.

886. In the event of a failure, a fail&operational flight control system will

operate as a:
A) fail&passive system.
B) fail&safe system.
C) fail&operational hybrid system.
D) fail&redundant system.
887. When engaged in the pitch angle hold mode, the autopilot uses data
issued by the:
A) ADC.
B) Flight Management Computer &FMC&.
C) attitude reference system.
D) Inertial Vertical Speed Indicator.

888. When engaged in the FMS lateral navigation mode &NAV or LNAV& the
autopilot uses the command provided by the:
A) track selector.
B) FMS.
C) VOR receiver.
D) VOR or Localizer receiver.

889. “The components of an autopilot system are the: & 1 & actuators & 2 &
autopilot mode control panel & 3 & mode annunciator panel &FMA& & 4 &
computer & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 1, 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 4.
D) 1, 2, 4.

890. “On a large aeroplane, the computer of the autopilot system uses, among
others, input signals from the: & 1 & ADC & 2 & attitude reference System & 3
& ILS receiver & 4 & autopilot mode control panel & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3, 4.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 2, 3, 4.
D) 1, 4.

891. The computer of the autopilot system can use, among others, the
following parameters:
A) altitude, vertical speed, heading, attitude, GPS position.
B) CAS, altitude, vertical speed, heading, attitude.
C) CAS, altitude, temperature, inertial position, attitude.
D) altitude, heading, temperature, fuel flow, attitude.

892. The purpose of the autopilot Control Wheel Steering &CWS& mode is:
A) to allow the pilot to manoeuvre the aeroplane through the autopilot with conventional
control column inputs.
B) to control the nose wheel steering during low visibility take off and landing.
C) to control the nose wheel steering during automatic landing.
D) to capture and hold the altitude selected with the control wheel on the mode control
panel.
893. “The computer of the autopilot system uses, among others, input signals
from the: & 1 & attitude reference system & 2 & mode annunciator panel
&FMA& & 3 & ADC & 4 & autopilot mode control panel”
A) 1, 4.
B) 1, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4.
D) 2, 3.

894. “In an autopilot system, the basic stabilisation modes are: & 1 & altitude
hold & 2 & pitch angle hold & 3 & bank angle & 4 & IAS hold & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3, 4.
B) 1.
C) 2, 3.
D) 1, 2, 3.

895. When engaging the autopilot, the function providing a smooth `take&over`
is the:
A) automatic synchronisation function.
B) automatic pitch trim function .
C) automatic CWS &Control Wheel Steering& function .
D) Mach trim function.

896. When disengaging the autopilot, the function providing a smooth

`hand&over` is the:
A) automatic CWS &Control Wheel Steering& function.
B) automatic synchronisation function.
C) automatic pitch trim function.
D) Mach trim function.

897. “&For this question use annex 022&002 issue date October 2008& & The
block diagram of an auto&pilot is shown in the annex. & For each control
channel &pitch, roll and yaw& the control law is the relationship between the
commanded deflection of the control surface by the computer &BETA c& and
the:”
A) aircraft response S on all three channels.
B) offset EPSILON at the computer input.
C) pilot command E.
D) aircraft response S on the relevant channel.

898. “The lateral guidance modes of an autopilot system are: & 1 & Speed hold
& 2 & Localiser intercept and track & 3 & Track hold & 4 & FMS lateral
navigation & 5 & Pitch angle hold & The combination that regroups all of the
correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3, 5.
B) 2, 3, 4.
C) 2, 4.
D) 1, 2, 3, 4.

899. “The vertical guidance modes of an autopilot system are: & 1 & FMS
vertical navigation & 2 & Flight path angle hold & 3 & Glide slope intercept and
track & 4 & Altitude hold & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is…”
A) 1, 2, 3, 4.
B) 1.
C) 1, 3, 4.
D) 2, 3, 4.

900. “The lateral guidance modes of an autopilot system are: & 1 & Heading
hold & 2 & Speed hold & 3 & FMS lateral navigation & 4 & TAS hold & 5 &
Localizer intercept and track & The combination that regroups all of the
correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3, 5.
B) 1, 3, 4.
C) 2, 5.
D) 1, 2, 3, 5.

901. “In an autopilot system, the guidance modes are: & 1 & Pitch angle hold &
2 & IAS and Mach number hold & 3 & Altitude hold & 4 & Glide slope intercept
and track & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is…”
A) 4.
B) 1, 2, 3, 4.
C) 2, 3, 4.
D) 3.

902. “The automatic synchronisation function of an autopilot control system:

& 1 & operates only when the autopilot is engaged & 2 & prevents the aircraft`s
control system from jerking when disengaging the autopilot & 3 & prevents the
aircraft`s control system from jerking when engaging the autopilot & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 2.
C) 3.
D) 1, 3.

903. A pilot engages the control wheel steering &CWS& of a conventional

autopilot and carries out a manoeuvre in roll. When the control wheel is
released, the autopilot will:
A) maintain the track and the flight attitude obtained at that moment.
B) restore the flight attitude and the rate of turn selected on the autopilot control display unit.
C) maintain the flight attitude obtained at that moment.
D) roll wings level and maintain the heading obtained at that moment.

904. “Among the following functions of an autopilot, those related to the

aeroplane stabilisation are: & 1 & pitch angle hold & 2 & IAS or Mach number
hold & 3 & wings level hold & 4 & VOR radial hold & The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3, 4.
B) 1, 3.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 2, 4.

905. An autopilot system:

A) must provide automatic take off functions.
B) must provide at least aircraft stabilisation functions.
C) must provide at least aircraft guidance functions.
D) may provide automatic take off functions.

906. A flight control system is fail&operational if, in the event of a failure:

A) there is no significant out&of&trim condition or deviation of flight path or attitude but the
landing is not completed automatically.
B) the approach only can be completed automatically.
C) the approach, flare and landing can be completed automatically.
D) the landing is not completed automatically.

907. “Concerning a fail&passive flight control system, in the event of a failure:

& 1 & there may be a significant deviation of flight path or attitude & 2 & there
is no significant deviation of flight path or attitude & 3 & there is no significant
out&of&trim condition & 4 & there may be a significant out&of&trim condition
& The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 4.
B) 1, 3.
C) 2, 3.
D) 1, 4.

908. “The CS 25 gives the following definition: “”Where the pilot has the ability
to make inputs to the automatic pilot by movement of the normal control
wheel””. & The corresponding mode is:”
A) alternate wheel steering &AWS&.
B) nose wheel steering &NWS&.
C) control wheel steering &CWS&.
D) automatic wheel steering &AWS&.

909. “The components of an autopilot system are the: & 1 & actuators & 2 &
autopilot mode control panel & 3 & EFIS control panel & 4 & mode annunciator
panel &FMA& & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements
is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 2, 3, 4.
C) 1, 2, 4.
D) 3, 4.
910. The principal function of the synchroniser circuit in an autopilot pitch
channel is to:
A) Ensure that the power settings of the autothrust synchronises with the aircraft pitch.
B) Ensure a smooth transition in pitch after switching on the autopilot.
C) Synchronise aircraft heading with the GPS heading.
D) Synchronise aircraft attitude with the altitude.

911. The autopilot system…

A) instructs the Flight Director system to move the control surfaces.
B) controls the FMS.
C) instructs the FMS to move the control surfaces.
D) includes a set of servo actuators that move the control surfaces.

912. “The vertical guidance modes of an autopilot system are: & 1 & Pitch
angle hold & 2 & Altitude hold & 3 & Track hold & 4 & Glide slope intercept and
track & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 4.
B) 2, 4.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 1.

913. Flight Director Information supplied by an FD computer is presented in

the form of command bars on the following instrument:
A) HSI Horizontal Situation Indicator.
B) ADI Attitude Director Indicator.
C) RMI Radio Magnetic Indicator.
D) BDHI Bearing Distance Heading Indicator.

914. The flight director provides information for the pilot:

A) to join a desired track with a constant bank angle of 25°.
B) to remain within the flight envelope.
C) to join to a desired path with the optimum attitude.
D) to join a desired track with a 45° intercept angle.

915. “The vertical command bar of a flight director: & 1 & repeats the position
information given by the EHSI & 2 & repeats the position information given by
the VOR & 3 & supplies information about the direction and magnitude of the
corrections to be applied to the bank of the aircraft The combination that
regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 3.
D) 1, 3.

916. “The vertical command bar of a flight director: & 1 & repeats the position
information given by the ILS in the horizontal plane & 2 & repeats the position
information given by the ILS in the vertical plane & 3 & supplies information
about the direction and magnitude of the corrections to be applied to the bank
of the aircraft & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements
is:”
A) 2, 3.
B) 1, 3.
C) 3.
D) 1.

917. “The horizontal command bar of a flight director: & 1 & repeats the
position information given by the ILS in the horizontal plane & 2 & repeats the
position information given by the ILS in the vertical plane & 3 & supplies
information about the direction and magnitude of the corrections to be applied
to the pitch angle of the aircraft & The combination that regroups all of the
correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 2, 3.

918. The horizontal command bar of a flight director:

A) supplies information about the direction and magnitude of the corrections to be applied to
the pitch angle of the aircraft.
B) repeats the position information given by the ILS in the vertical plane.
C) supplies information only about the direction of the corrections to be applied to the pitch
angle of the aircraft.
D) repeats the position information given by the ILS in the horizontal plane.

919. The command bars of a flight director:

A) are always displayed during take&off.
B) may be displayed when flying manually or with the autopilot engaged.
C) are displayed only when flying manually.
D) are displayed only when the autopilot is engaged.

920. “Considering a flight director of the command bars type: & 1 & the vertical
bar is always associated with the roll channel & 2 & the vertical bar may be
associated with the pitch channel & 3 & the horizontal bar may be associated
with the roll channel & 4 & the horizontal bar is always associated with the
pitch channel & & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements
is:”
A) 1, 2, 3, 4.
B) 1, 4.
C) 1, 3, 4.
D) 1, 2, 4.

921. Considering a flight director of the command bars type:

A) the vertical bar is associated with the pitch channel.
B) the horizontal bar is associated with the pitch channel.
C) the horizontal bar is associated with the roll channel.
D) the horizontal bar shows pitch trim position.

922. “During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the G/S
mode &tracking of ILS Glide Slope&. The position of the horizontal command
bar indicates: & 1 & the position of the aircraft relative to the ILS Glide Slope &
2 & the correction to be applied to the pitch angle in order to capture and
follow the ILS Glide Slope & 3 & the pitch angle of the aircraft & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 1, 2.
C) 2.
D) 1.

923. During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the LOC
mode &tracking of Localizer beam&. The position of the vertical command bar
indicates:
A) the instantaneous deviation between the aircraft position and the Localizer beam.
B) the correction to be applied to the bank angle in order to capture and follow the Localizer
beam.
C) the position of the aircraft relative to the Localizer beam.
D) the banke angle of the aircraft.

924. Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is
engaged in the LOC mode &tracking of localizer beam&. If the aircraft is left of
the Localizer beam, the vertical command bar:
A) deviates to the left, whatever the attitude of the aircraft is.
B) will be centred if the pilot is applying the correct bank angle in order to return on the
Localizer beam.
C) deviates to the right, whatever the attitude of the aircraft is.
D) is automatically centred since the LOC mode is engaged.

925. Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is
engaged in the LOC mode &tracking of localizer beam&. If the aircraft is right
of the Localizer beam, the vertical command bar:
A) is automatically centred since the LOC mode is engaged.
B) will be centred if the pilot is applying the correct bank angle in order to return on the
Localizer beam.
C) cannot be centred.
D) will be centred only when established on the Localizer beam.

926. Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is
engaged in the G/S mode &tracking of ILS Glide Slope&. If the aircraft is below
the ILS Glide Slope, the horizontal command bar:
A) deviates upward, whatever the attitude of the aircraft is.
B) deviates downward, whatever the attitude of the aircraft is.
C) will be centred if the pilot is applying the correct pitch angle in order to return on the ILS
Glide Slope.
D) is automatically centred since the G/S mode is engaged.

927. Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is
engaged in the G/S mode &tracking of ILS Glide Slope&. If the aircraft is above
the ILS Glide Slope, the horizontal command bar:
A) is automatically centred since the G/S mode is engaged.
B) will be centred if the pilot is applying the correct pitch angle in order to return on the ILS
Glide Slope.
C) cannot be centred.
D) will be centred only when established on the ILS Glide Slope.

928. When intercepting a selected radial, the flight director indicates the:
A) bank angle to reach the selected radial over a minimum distance.
B) bank angle to intercept the selected radial with a 30° angle.
C) optimum instantaneous bank angle to reach the selected radial.
D) bank angle to reach the selected radial in minimum time.

929. The command bars of a flight director are displayed on an:

A) ILS
B) HSI
C) ADI
D) RMI

930. An aircraft flies steadily on a heading 270°. The flight director is engaged
in the heading select mode &HDG SEL&, heading 270° selected. If a new
heading 360° is selected, the vertical bar:
A) disappears, the new heading selection has deactivated the HDG mode.
B) deviates to its right stop as long as the aeroplane is more than 10° off the new selected
heading.
C) deviates to the right and will be centred as soon as you roll the aircraft to the bank angle
calculated by the flight director.
D) deviates to the right and remains in that position until the aircraft has reached heading
360°.

931. The position of the Flight Director command bars:

A) repeats the ADI and HSI information.
B) enables the measurement of deviation from a given position.
C) only displays information relating to radio&electric deviation.
D) indicates the manoeuvres to execute, in order to achieve or maintain a flight attitude.

932. The output data of the flight director computer are:

A) three channels: pitch, roll and side slipping.
B) three channels: pitch, roll and yaw.
C) two channels: pitch and yaw.
D) two channels: pitch and roll.

933. “The parameters taken into account by the flight director computer in the
altitude hold mode &ALT HOLD& are: & 1 & altitude deviation & 2 & engine
rpm & 3 & ground speed & 4 & pitch angle & The combination that regroups all
of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 4.
B) 1.
C) 1, 3.
D) 1, 2.

934. “The purpose&s& of the flight director system is &are& to: & 1 & give the
position of the aircraft with reference to a VOR radial. & 2 & give the position
of the aircraft with reference to waypoints. & 3 & to aid the pilot when flying
manually. & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 2, 3.
C) 3.
D) 1, 3.

935. The flight director command bars provide the pilot with corrections to
apply to:
A) pitch and/or bank angles.
B) pitch and/or bank angles, and yaw.
C) pitch angle only.
D) bank angle only.

936. The position of the command bars of a flight director enables the pilot to
know:
A) the direction and magnitude of the corrections to apply on the controls.
B) the position of the aircraft.
C) only the direction of the corrections to apply on the controls.
D) the attitude of the aircraft.

937. The flight director computer continuously:

A) compares the current attitude with the computed attitude.
B) compares the computed attitude with the ACAS signals.
C) compares the computed attitude with the EGPWS signals.
D) computes the required attitude for the autopilot synchronisation.

938. Concerning the command bars of a flight director:

A) it is possible to remove them by switching the flight director OFF.
B) autopilot must be first disengaged to remove them.
C) it is not possible to remove them on some types of flight director systems.
D) autopilot must be first engaged before removing them.

939. During a final approach, the flight director is engaged in the G/S mode
&tracking the ILS Glide Slope&. If the horizontal command bar is deviating
upward, it means that:
A) the aircraft is below the glide slope.
B) the pitch angle must be reduced.
C) the pitch angle must be increased.
D) the aircraft is above the glide slope.

940. The vertical command bar of a flight director:

A) supplies information only about the direction of the corrections to be applied to the bank
of the aircraft.
B) repeats the position information given by the VOR.
C) repeats the position information given by the EHSI.
D) supplies information about the direction and magnitude of the corrections to be applied to
the bank of the aircraft.

941. The command bars of a flight director:

A) are always displayed when the autopilot is engaged.
B) are displayed only if the autopilot is engaged.
C) may be displayed when flying manually.
D) are always displayed during take&off.

942. The Flight Director system…

A) provides inertial reference position data to control inputs along a selected and computed
flight path.
B) computes the FMS performance data using the autopilot system.
C) guides the pilot towards a selected flight path when manually flying.
D) is the set of servo actuators that actually do the control movement.

943. The Flight Director is engaged in the Heading Select mode &HDG SEL&,
with heading 180° selected. When the heading is 160°, the vertical bar of the
FD…
A) is centred if the aircraft has a 20° right drift.
B) cannot be centred.
C) is centred if the aircraft has a 20° left drift.
D) is centred if the bank angle of the aircraft is equal to the bank angle computed by the
Flight Director computer.

944. “&For this question use annex 022&004 issue date October 2008& &
Considering the diagram n°1, the flight director command bars position
indicates that you should:”
A) bank your aircraft to the right and increase the pitch angle.
B) bank your aircraft to the right and reduce the pitch angle.
C) bank your aircraft to the left and increase the pitch angle.
D) bank your aircraft to the left and reduce the pitch angle.

945. “Command bars of the flight director may be present on the: & 1 & HSI & 2
& CDU & 3 & ADI & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 3.
C) 1.
D) 1, 2, 3.

946. The vertical command bar of a flight director:

A) repeats the position information given by the ILS in the vertical plane.
B) supplies information only about the direction of the corrections to be applied to the bank
of the aircraft.
C) supplies information about the direction and magnitude of the corrections to be applied to
the bank of the aircraft.
D) repeats the position information given by the ILS in the horizontal plane.

947. During a final approach, if the flight director system is engaged in the G/S
mode &tracking of ILS Glide Slope&, the position of the horizontal command
bar indicates:
A) the position of the aircraft relative to the ILS Glide Slope.
B) the correction to be applied to the pitch angle in order to capture and follow the ILS Glide
Slope.
C) the instantaneous deviation between the aircraft position and the ILS Glide Slope.
D) the pitch angle of the aircraft.

948. “During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the LOC
mode &tracking of localizer beam&. The position of the vertical command bar
indicates: & 1 & the position of the aircraft relative to the localizer beam & 2 &
the bank angle of the aircraft & 3 & the correction to be applied on the bank
angle in order to capture and follow the Localizer beam & The combination
that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 1, 3.
C) 3.
D) 1.

949. “The position of the command bars of a flight director enables the pilot to
know: & 1 & the direction and magnitude of the corrections to apply on the
controls & 2 & only the direction of the corrections to apply on the controls & 3
& the attitude of the aircraft & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 2.
B) 1, 3.
C) 1.
D) 2, 3.

950. During a final approach, the flight director is engaged in the LOC mode
&tracking the localizer&. If the vertical command bar is deviating to the left, it
means that the aircraft:
A) must be rolled to the right.
B) is right of the LOC beam.
C) must be rolled to the left.
D) is left of the LOC beam.
951. Considering a flight director of the command bars type:
A) the vertical bar is associated with the pitch channel.
B) the vertical bar is associated with the roll channel.
C) the horizontal bar is associated with the roll channel.
D) the vertical bar shows yaw commands.

952. In order to know in which mode the auto&throttles are engaged, the crew
will check the:
A) FMA &Flight Mode Annunciator&.
B) throttles position.
C) TCC &Thrust Control Computer&.
D) ND &Navigation Display&.

953. The purpose of the Flight Mode Annunciator &FMA& is to:

A) check and confirm in which modes the automatic flight control systems are armed and/or
engaged.
B) visually announce any EGPWS alarm.
C) check and confirm the aeroplane configuration.
D) visually announce any ACAS alarm.

954. “On a Flight Mode Annunciator &FMA&, the pilot can check: & 1 & the
engaged and armed modes of the autopilot. & 2 & the automatic landing
capacity. & 3 & the ACAS mode. & The combination that regroups all of the
correct statements is:”
A) 1.
B) 3.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 1, 2.

955. The purpose of the Flight Mode Annunciator &FMA& is to:

A) check and confirm in which mode the FMS is operating.
B) visualise the instantaneous flight path of the aeroplane.
C) visualise any input made by the pilot on the control commands.
D) check and confirm any selection made by the pilot on the autopilot control panel.

956. The Flight Mode Annunciator…

A) instructs the Flight Director system to perform the required control movements.
B) indicates the proper operation of the Yaw Damper system.
C) instructs the Autopilot system to perform the required control movements.
D) is the only reliable source of information about which Autopilot and Flight Director
functions are in use.

957. “On a Flight Mode Annunciator &FMA&, the pilot can check: & 1 & the
flight director modes. & 2 & the flaps/slats position. & 3 & the auto&throttle
modes. & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 2.
C) 1.
D) 1, 2, 3.

958. Autopilot engagement status can be checked on the:

A) ECAM.
B) PFD.
C) ND of the pilot in command.
D) ND.

959. If, in the event of a failure, the approach, flare and landing can be
completed by the remaining part of the automatic system, such an automatic
landing system is considered as:
A) fail&hard.
B) fail&passive.
C) fail&operational.
D) fail&soft.

960. The purpose of an automatic landing system is to:

A) make the landing possible in poor weather conditions.
B) have a smoother flare than when manually flying.
C) make the landing possible in case of a short runway.
D) have a safer go&around in case of autopilot failure.

961. Following an automatic landing, with the ROLL OUT mode engaged, the
autopilot:
A) performs an automatic go&around if speed is too high.
B) applies full reverse thrust to shorten the landing distance.
C) remains engaged until the runway is fully vacated.
D) controls the rudder and nose wheel steering to keep the aeroplane on the localiser
centreline.

962. “When performing an automatic landing, some additional operational

limitations may apply, like: & 1 & maximum headwind or crosswind. & 2 &
airport maximum pressure altitude. & 3 & runway conditions. & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 1, 3.
C) 2.
D) 1.

963. Which of the following aircraft components are incorporated in an

Autoland system?
A) Flight controls, hydraulics, and radio altimeter&s&.
B) Autopilot&s&, autothrust, and radio altimeter&s&.
C) Autopilot&s&, autothrust, and control columns.
D) Flight controls, hydraulics, and control columns.
964. Which one of the following statements is true with regard to the operation
of a Mach trim system:
A) It operates over the full aeroplane speed range.
B) It only operates when the autopilot is engaged.
C) It operates to counteract the larger than normal forward movements of the wing centre of
pressure at high subsonic airspeeds.
D) It only operates above a pre&determined Mach number.

965. The automatic trim is a component of the autopilot pitch channel. Its
function is to:
A) automatically disengage the autopilot in the case of an excessive pitch up.
B) reset the attitude, after engaging the autopilot.
C) transfer a stabilised aeroplane to the pilot during autopilot disengagement.
D) set the attitude to an instantaneous value before engaging the autopilot.

966. “When using the autopilot, the function&s& of the automatic pitch trim is
&are& to: & 1 & off&load any steady state elevator deflection & 2 & ease the
steady state load of the rudder as much as possible & 3 & cancel out of trim
force during autopilot disengagement & The combination that regroups all of
the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 2, 3.
C) 1, 3.
D) 1.

967. The purpose of a trim system of a large transport aeroplane is to:

A) automatically extend the slats when approaching the stalling speed.
B) have the same manoeuvrability with the left or the right control command.
C) move the control commands when the autopilot is engaged.
D) adjust the neutral position of a control surface.

968. “When flying a fly&by&wire aeroplane manually, the automatic pitch trim
system eliminates the need for the pilot to make control column inputs to
compensate for: & 1 & a windshear. & 2 & slats/flaps configuration changes. &
3 & thrust changes. & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 2, 3.
B) 3.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 1, 2.

969. “When flying a fly&by&wire aeroplane manually, the automatic pitch trim
system eliminates the need for the pilot to make control column inputs to
compensate for: & 1 & thrust changes. & 2 & gear configuration changes. & 3
& a terrain proximity warning. & The combination that regroups all of the
correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3.
B) 1, 2, 3.
C) 1, 3.
D) 1, 2.

970. The purpose of the Mach trim system is to counteract:

A) Thrust oscillations at high Mach number.
B) The pitch down tendency at high Mach number.
C) Dutch roll oscillations.
D) The pitch up tendency at high Mach number.

971. The purpose of a trim system is to adjust the aerodynamic forces on the
control surfaces…
A) and is used to rotate the aircraft during go&around.
B) so that the aircraft maintains the set attitude if the controls are released.
C) so that less force is required to move the controls.
D) and is used to rotate the aircraft during take&off.

972. Regarding a trimmable horizontal stabiliser on a large transport

aeroplane, the most common basic design is that the horizontal stabiliser…
A) is moved by hydraulically actuated control tabs.
B) moves in response to lateral control column/stick movement.
C) is moved by a hydraulically actuated jack.
D) trim is adjusted by control tabs.

973. The purpose of the auto&trim function in an autopilot is to…

A) control the elevator trim tab in order to relieve elevator load.
B) trim the throttles to obtain smooth engine&power variation.
C) tell the pilot when elevator trimming is required.
D) help the autopilot to compensate for crosswind influence.

974. On a fly&by&wire aeroplane, when is the automatic trim available?

A) During manual flight and when the autopilot is engaged.
B) In all control laws, but only if the autopilot is engaged.
C) In all control laws.
D) During manual flight only.

975. A Mach trim system…

A) compensates for Mach tuck caused by the rearward movement of the shock wave as an
aircraft accelerates.
B) compensates for Mach tuck by trimming the stabiliser down.
C) is activated by the pilot when reaching the limiting Mach number to trim attitude.
D) compensates for the forward movement of the centre of pressure, due to the forward
movement of the shock wave, as speed increases.

976. On a conventional aeroplane, what does the automatic pitch trim system
do?
A) When force on the elevator control is detected, the system moves the trim to relieve the
load.
B) When force on the elevator control is detected, it directs the pilot to trim the elevator to
relieve the load.
C) It is a system used to compensate for incorrect pilot inputs.
D) It is an autopilot mode to ensure the correct rotation rate is maintained during take&off.

977. Mach Trim is a device to compensate for:

A) the backward movement of the aerodynamic centre at high Mach numbers by moving the
stabiliser to nose&up.
B) the effects of fuel transfer between the main tanks and the tank located in the horizontal
tail
C) the effects of temperature variation during a climb or descent at constant Mach
D) weight reduction resulting from fuel consumption during the cruise

978. The purpose of an aeroplane automatic trim system is to position the

stabiliser automatically to off&load the:
A) elevator and rudder.
B) elevator.
C) rudder.
D) elevator, rudder and ailerons.

979. “The automatic pitch trim: & 1 & ensures the aeroplane is properly
trimmed when the autopilot is engaged & 2 & permits the elevator to always be
in neutral position with respect to horizontal stabiliser & 3 & ensures the
aeroplane is properly trimmed when the autopilot is disengaged & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 2, 3.
C) 1, 2.
D) 1, 3.

980. The Mach trim system:

A) compensates the pitch up tendency at high Mach numbers.
B) increases the static longitudinal stability of an aeroplane by adjusting the horizontal
stabiliser according to Mach number.
C) ensures optimum C.G. location by transferring fuel into the horizontal stabiliser.
D) adjust the horizontal stabiliser position during a high speed stall.

981. For an aeroplane fitted with mechanical flight control system, the
automatic pitch trim system:
A) is active whenever the autopilot is armed.
B) is active whenever the autopilot is engaged.
C) is active whenever the autopilot is disengaged.
D) is active whenever the flight director is engaged.

982. On a fly&by&wire aeroplane, what does the automatic pitch trim system
do?
A) It trims the aeroplane, if the autopilot has been engaged.
B) It performs the rotation during take&off.
C) If the pitch attitude and then releases control pressure, the system maintains the current
pitch rate setting.
D) If the PIC changes pitch attitude and, at the desired attitude, releases control pressure,
the system holds that new attitude.

983. The yaw damper system controls:

A) the rudder, with the angular rate about the yaw axis as the input signal.
B) the ailerons, with Mach Number as the input signal.
C) the rudder, with Mach Number as the input signal.
D) the ailerons, with the angular rate about the yaw axis as the input signal.

984. “The Yaw Damper system: & 1 & counters any wrong pilot action on the
rudder pedals & 2 & counters Dutch roll & 3 & is active only when autopilot is
engaged & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2.
B) 1, 2.
C) 2, 3.
D) 1, 2, 3.

985. When available, the yaw damper indicator supplies the pilot with
information regarding the:
A) yaw damper action on the rudder
B) rudder position
C) rudder displacement by the rudder pedals
D) yaw damper action only on the ground

986. The yaw damper affects:

A) ailerons only.
B) all control surfaces in a co&ordinated way.
C) rudder only.
D) ailerons and rudder.

987. “Given: & MH = magnetic heading of the aircraft & Omega = yawing rate of
the aircraft & The yaw damper computer sends a motion order to the rudder
if:”
A) the derivative of Omega with respect to time is equal to zero.
B) the derivative of MH with respect to time is not equal to zero.
C) the derivative of Omega with respect to time is not equal to zero.
D) the derivative of MH with respect to time is equal to zero.

988. The yaw damper system sends a motion order to the rudder if the yawing
rate of the aircraft:
A) is not constant.
B) is > 0 only.
C) is constant.
D) is > 1 only.

989. The commands sent out by the yaw damper computer:

A) are inhibited when the pilot acts on the rudder pedals.
B) are inhibited when the autopilot is engaged.
C) are added to or subtracted from the rudder deflection orders sent out by the pilot or the
autopilot.
D) inhibit the rudder deflection orders sent out by the pilot or the autopilot.

990. The yaw damper system acts on:

A) the rudder and the ailerons if necessary.
B) the rudder only.
C) the rudder and the speed brakes if necessary.
D) the rudder and the roll trim if necessary.

991. When the yaw damper system sends motion orders to the rudder:
A) a feedback is provided on the roll trim only.
B) a feedback is provided on the rudder pedals and the roll trim.
C) a feedback is provided on the rudder pedals only.
D) no feedback is provided on the rudder pedals.

992. The yaw damper system acts on:

A) the rudder and simultaneously moves the rudder pedals.
B) the ailerons and simultaneously moves the roll trim.
C) the ailerons without moving the roll trim.
D) the rudder without moving the rudder pedals.

993. In a yaw damper system, sensing of a disturbance in yaw is usually

provided by:
A) a rate gyro or a set of accelerometers.
B) the measure of the roll rate.
C) the measure of the ailerons movements.
D) the measure of the rudder movements.

994. “An aircraft is in a steady right turn, with not enough right rudder
&slipping turn&. & The yaw damper system:”
A) acts only in case of skidding turns &turn with not enough bank&.
B) is not designed to provide a balanced turn.
C) acts on the right rudder pedal to provide a balanced turn.
D) acts on the left rudder pedal to provide a balanced turn.

995. “An aircraft is in a steady left turn, with too much left rudder &skidding
turn&. & The yaw damper system:”
A) acts only in case of slipping turns &turn with too much bank&.
B) acts on the right rudder pedal to provide a balanced turn.
C) is not designed to provide a balanced turn.
D) acts on the left rudder pedal to provide a balanced turn.

996. The yaw damper system is operative:

A) only when flying manually.
B) only if the flight director is engaged.
C) during manual or automatic flight.
D) only if the autopilot is engaged.

997. The Yaw Damper system is designed to increase the damping ratio of…
A) pitch oscillation.
B) Dutch roll.
C) aileron roll.
D) phugoid roll.

998. “The flight envelope protection function&s& consist&s& in: & 1 & alerting
the flight crew in case of dangerous proximity with the ground & 2 & avoiding
mid&air collision & 3 & preventing the aircraft from exceeding some
aerodynamic limits & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 1, 3.
B) 1.
C) 3.
D) 1, 2, 3.

999. “The main inputs to the flight envelope protection system are: & 1 &
GPWS signals & 2 & ACAS signals & 3 & angle of attack & 4 & bank angle &
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 3, 4.
B) 1, 2.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4.
D) 2, 3, 4.

1000. “The flight envelope protection &FEP& can include: & 1 & the stall
protection. & 2 & the overspeed protection. & 3 & the maximum vertical speed
protection. & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 1, 3.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 2, 3.

1001. “If the speed exceeds VMO/MMO and according to the type of aeroplane,
the overspeed protection function can: & 1 & extend the speed brakes. & 2 &
reduce thrust to idle. & 3 & inhibit the pitch trim orders in the nose down
direction. & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2.
B) 2.
C) 1, 2, 3.
D) 3.

1002. Which of the following is an example of a flight envelope protection

system that generates warning signals to indicate when a limit is being
approached &referred to as a soft flight envelope protection system&?
A) The stick shaker.
B) The dynamic trim.
C) The rudder ratio limiter.
D) The Mach tuck under.

1003. “The flight envelope protection system prevents the aircraft from
exceeding the limits of the following parameters &among others&: & 1 & cabin
altitude & 2 & bank angle & 3 & angle of attack & 4 & speed & 5 & pitch angle &
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 4
B) 2, 5.
C) 2, 3, 4, 5.
D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.

1004. “The flight envelope protection system prevents the aircraft from
exceeding the limits of the following parameters &among others&: & 1 & N1 &
2 & angle of attack & 3 & speed & 4 & pitch angle & 5 & flight level & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3, 4.
B) 2.
C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
D) 2, 3, 4, 5.

1005. “The flight envelope protection function&s& consist&s& in: & 1 &
automatically performing an evasion manoeuvre if necessary & 2 & preventing
the aircraft from exceeding the limits for specific flight parameters & 3 &
alerting the flight crew in case of dangerous proximity with a threatening
traffic & 4 & preventing any incursion beyond an ATC clearance & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3, 4.
B) 2.
C) 1, 3.
D) 1, 2.

1006. “If the speed exceeds VMO/MMO and according to the type of aeroplane,
the overspeed protection function can: & 1 & reduce thrust to idle. & 2 & send
a pitch up order. & 3 & inhibit the pitch trim orders in the nose up direction. &
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 2, 3.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 1, 2, 3.
1007. A flight envelope protection system is a system…
A) that generates a signal during flight when engine parameters only are exceeded.
B) required to generate an ACAS warning.
C) that generates a control signal when the aircraft exceeds the flight envelope limit.
D) that generates a signal when the engines have exceeded the start envelope limit.

1008. During the take&off ground run, the auto&throttles hold:

A) a Mach number.
B) V2 under 1500 ft.
C) an IAS.
D) a computed N1.

1009. “The auto&throttle enables to hold: & 1 & TAS & 2 & Mach number & 3 &
IAS & 4 & N1 & The combination that regroups all of the correct statements
is:”
A) 1, 2, 3, 4.
B) 2, 3, 4.
C) 2, 3.
D) 1, 2, 3.

1010. “An automatic thrust control system can be: & 1 & armed. & 2 & active. &
3 & disconnected. & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3.
B) 2, 3.
C) 1, 3.
D) 1, 2.

1011. When an automatic thrust control system is in the THRUST mode:

A) thrust is adjusted to maintain a selected speed.
B) thrust is adjusted to maintain a selected vertical speed.
C) the autothrottle or autothrust system is disconnected.
D) thrust is set to a computed thrust according to a performance database.

1012. When an autothrust system &A/THR& is in the SPEED mode, the A/THR
is:
A) active.
B) armed.
C) disarmed.
D) disconnected.

1013. The Autothrottle system controls engine thrust in response to…

A) Flight Management Computer calculations and the Onboard Performance Tool.
B) mode requests from the flight crew and from the Autopilot.
C) mode requests from the flight crew and from the Flight Management Computer.
D) Flight Management Computer calculations and the Autopilot.
1014. An Autothrottle system provides flight envelope protection…
A) by reducing the aircraft bank angle.
B) by adjusting the aircraft attitude.
C) by using the FADEC.
D) through reversion modes.

1015. An Autothrottle system protects against…

A) EGT limits.
B) engine icing.
C) engine sub&idle conditions.
D) current thrust limit.

1016. During engine start…

A) the Autothrottle system is not used.
B) the Autothrottle uses ambient conditions to assist starting.
C) the Autothrottle protects against wet start.
D) the Autothrottle protects against hot start.

1017. An autothrottle is a system that automatically…

A) maintains the desired auto&control mode of the cabin pressure.
B) controls the aeroplane`s thrust setting.
C) moves the aeroplane`s control surfaces.
D) controls the overpressure relief valve.

1018. An autothrottle adjusts thrust to maintain a constant speed during…

A) take&off and approach.
B) taxi and take&off.
C) taxi, cruise and approach.
D) cruise and approach.

1019. Which flight envelope protection mode&s& can an autothrottle system

provide?
A) Maximum take&off thrust reversion.
B) Roll rate reversion.
C) Maximum and minimum speed reversion.
D) Maximum and minimum attitude reversion.

1020. “&For this question, use annex ECQB&022&009&v2015&09&. & On this

Mode Control Panel, which switch is used to select the Autothrottle OFF?”
A) 2
B) 1
C) 3
D) 4

1021. When take&off mode is engaged, the auto&throttle

A) ensures the correct aeroplane angle of attack is maintained.
B) sets thrust to a pre&set, fixed thrust setting.
C) continuously varies thrust to maintain the target speed.
D) can never be disengaged.

1022. During an automatic approach, the auto&throttle:

A) can be operated in the SPEED mode &holding of IAS&.
B) can be operated in the N1 mode &holding of N1&.
C) can not be used because the autopilot is engaged.
D) can be operated in the GS mode &holding of Ground Speed&.

1023. During a climb with the autopilot engaged in the V/S mode &holding of
vertical speed&, the auto&throttle:
A) can be operated in the N1 / EPR mode &holding of N1 or EPR&.
B) can be operated in the SPEED mode &holding of IAS&.
C) can be operated in the SPEED &holding of IAS & or N1 &holding of N1& modes.
D) is not available.

1024. Considering a modern thrust computer, during a steady climb:

A) N1 and N2 remain constant.
B) N1 is automatically adjusted as aircraft climbs.
C) N2 is automatically adjusted as aircraft climbs and N1 remains constant.
D) N1 is automatically adjusted as aircraft climbs and N2 remains constant.

1025. “The auto&throttle: & 1 & can capture and maintain the N1 RPM & 2 &
can capture and maintain the N2 RPM & 3 & can capture and maintain an IAS &
4 & is always engaged automatically at the same time as the autopilot & The
combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:”
A) 1, 4.
B) 1, 3, 4.
C) 1, 3.
D) 2, 3.

1026. “The auto&throttle system of a large aeroplane has the following

mode&s&: & 1 & IAS hold & 2 & Mach hold & 3 & AOA hold & 4 & N1 or EPR
hold & 5 & flight path hold & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 1, 2, 3, 5.
B) 1, 2, 4.
C) 2, 4.
D) 1, 4, 5.

1027. The autothrottle system:

A) can be engaged in the TAS mode & holding of constant TAS & during a final approach.
B) can be engaged in the GS mode & holding of constant Ground Speed & during a final
approach.
C) can be used for take&off.
D) is automatically disconnected when the aircraft is on the ground.
1028. “In order to know in which mode the auto&throttle is engaged, the crew
will check the: & 1 & auto&throttle ARM switches & 2 & auto&throttle
disengage switches & 3 & autopilot mode control panel & 4 & mode
annunciator panel &FMA& & The combination that regroups all of the correct
statements is:”
A) 3.
B) 1, 3.
C) 4.
D) 2, 4.

1029. When an automatic thrust control system is in the SPEED mode:

A) it maintains the selected airspeed.
B) it maintains the selected vertical speed.
C) thrust is constant and the pilot manually adjusts the pitch to maintain the selected
airspeed.
D) thrust is constant and the autopilot adjusts the pitch to maintain the selected airspeed.

1030. During an automatic approach, the auto&throttle:

A) can be operated in the N1 / EPR mode &holding of N1 or EPR&.
B) can be operated in the SPEED mode &holding of IAS&.
C) is not available.
D) can be operated in the SPEED &holding of IAS& or N1 &holding of N1& modes.

1031. On an aeroplane with an autothrottle system, can thrust be set

manually?
A) Yes, by pushing the go&around switch.
B) Yes, by disarming the autothrottle system.
C) No, setting thrust manually is not possible.
D) Yes, by entering the required thrust with the manual N1 selector button.