FORCE

Section - 1 Objective

Q1. Which of the following is an example of non-contact force?

1. Tension
2. Friction
3. Magnetic
4. Normal reaction

Q2. An unbalanced force can …………

1. Start a motion
2. Stop a motion
3. Change the shape and size
4. All of these

Q3. Inertia of the body depends on its

1. Acceleration
2. Momentum
3. Mass
4. Velocity

Q4. Slope of velocity – time graph gives

1. Velocity
2. Acceleration
3. Mass
4. Length

Q5. Area under the graph of velocity v/s time graph gives

1. Displacement
2. Acceleration
3. Mass
4. Length

Q6. A motor car running at the rate of 7m/s can be stopped by the brakes in
10m.Find the ratio of the total resistance to the motion (when the brakes are on) to
the weight of the car.
 1. 1
2. 0.25
3. 1
4. 25

Q7. A ball is thrown vertically upwards and reaches to a maximum height of

15m.Calculate the velocity with which the ball was thrown upwards.

1. 23m/s
2. 43m/s
3. 12m/s
4. 17m/s

Q8. A truck of mass 5x103 kg starting from rest travels a distance 0.5km in 10s
when a force is applied on it. Find the force applied

1. 500 dyne
2. 50000 N
3. 50000 dyne
4. 500 N

Q9. How much acceleration will be produced in a body of mass 10kg acted upon by a
force of 2Kgf?

1. 19.6 m/s2
2. 1.96 m/s2
3. 200 m/s2
4. 43.2 m/s2

Q10. A body has a mass of 10 kg than it weight is

1. 20N
2. 50N
3. 125N
4. 98N

Section - 2 Subjective

Q1. Define force. Explain any two examples of contact and non-contact force.

Q2. Define the term linear momentum. State its units.

Q3. State Newton’s laws of motion.

Q4. A car of mass 500g travels with a uniform velocity of 25m/s for 5s.The brakes
are then applied and the car is uniformly retarded and comes to the rest in further
10s.Calculate:

 The retardation
 The distance which the car travels after the brakes are applied
 The force exerted by the brakes.

Q5. A ball is dropped from the top of a tower 100m high and at the same time
another ball is projected vertically upwards from the ground with a velocity of
25m/s. Find the height where the two balls will meet?

Q6. Define one Newton. State the relation between S.I unit and C.G.S unit of force.

Q7. (A) Name the device used for measuring (i) mass (ii) weight

(B) A body weighs 360N on the earth than what would be its approximate weight on
the moon. Give reason for your answer

Solutions

Objective Problems

1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (D)
Subjective Problems:

Q4. (a) 2.5m/s2

(b) 125m

(c) 1.25N

Q5. H = 21.6 (from the ground)

Q7. (A) (i) Beam balance or Physical Balance (ii) Spring balance

(B) 60N since gmoon = gearth /6

FORCE

Section 1 - Objective

Q1. …………. is the tendency of a force to rotate an object about an axis.

1. Mass
2. Inertia
3. Torque
4. Centre of gravity

Q2. S.I unit if couple is

1. N-m
2. dyne-m
3. N-m/s2
4. N

Q3. C.G of a triangular lamina is at its.

1. Centre
2. Outside
3. Centroid
4. NOT

Q4. The point through which all the weight appears to act for any orientation of the
objects is

1. Velocity point
2. Centre of gravity
3. Torque
4. NOT

Q5. The coordinates of edges of a square are O (0, 0), A(0,4),B (4,4),C (4,0)
respectively, the center of gravity of square is at coordinates

1. (0, 2)
2. (2, 0)
3. (2, 2)
4. (0, 0)
Q6. A windmill is pushed by four external forces as shown. Calculate the force F
required to make the windmill standstill.

1. 2N
2. 4N
3. 6N
4. NOT

Q7. When a particle moves with constant speed in circular path, its motion is said to
be

1. Linear motion
2. Circular motion
3. Both a & b
4. Not

Q8. Uniform circular motion is an example of

1. Accelerated motion
2. Unaccelerated motion
3. Linear motion
4. NOT

Q9. The principle involved in construction of beam balance is

1. Principle of moments
2. Principle of inertia
3. Principle of velocity
4. Principle of superposition

Q10. Which of the following quantity remains constant in U.C.M?

1. Velocity
2. Acceleration
3. Speed
4. Force
Q11. A particle moves in a circle of radius 20cm with a linear speed of 10 m/s. Find
its angular velocity?

1. 0.5 rad/s
2. 50 rad/s
3. 500 rad/s
4. 100 rad/s

Q12. A particle travels in a circle of radius 20 cm at a speed that uniformly

increases. If the speed changes from 5 m/s to 6 m/s in 2s. Find the angular
acceleration.

1. 5 rad/s
2. 10 rad/s2
3. 0.0025 rad/s2
4. 2.5 rad/s2

Section 2 - Subjective

Q1. Define U.C.M with any 3 examples.

Q2. Distinguish between centripetal and centrifugal force.

Q3. Differentiate between Uniform circular motion and /uniform linear motion.

Q4. Two forces each of magnitude 2N act vertically upwards and downwards
respectively on two ends of uniform rod of length 1 m which is pivoted at its center.
Draw the diagram of the arrangement and determine the resultant moment of force
about the mid-point of the rod.

Q5. State the condition when force produces a) Translational motion b) rotational
motion.

Q6. Define Centre of gravity.

Q7. What do you mean by equilibrium of a body? State the conditions of equilibrium.

Q8. What is meant by moment of force? If the moment of force is assigned a

negative sign then will the turning tendency of the force be clockwise or anticlockwise?

Q9. A uniform metre scale can be balanced at the 70cm mark when a mass of
0.05Kg is hung from the 94cm mark.
 1. Draw the diagram of the arrangement
2. Find the mass of the metre scale

Solutions

Objective Problems:

1. 3
2. 1
3. 3
4. 2
5. 3
6. 4
7. 2
8. 1
9. 1
10. 3
11. 2
12. 4

Subjective Problems

Q8. Clockwise

Q9. 2. m = 0.06kg
WORK ENERGY POWER

Section 1 - Objective

Q1. The work done by all the forces (external & internal) on a system equals to
change in

1. Total Energy
2. kinetic energy
3. Potential Energy
4. Not

Q2. Work done on a body is a …………. quantity

1. Scalar
2. Vector
3. Both a & b
4. Not

Q3. If the angle between force and displacement is 0o, then work done is

1. 0
2. F.s
3. F/s
4. Not

Q4. The work done is said to be negative if force and displacement are in ________
direction A

1. same
2. opposite
3. neither a nor b
4. Not

Q5. A ball of mass 200g falls from a height of 5m. What will be its kinetic energy
when it just reaches the ground?

1. 100 J
2. 10 J
3. 9.8 J
4. 98 J
Q6. A body of mass 50kg has a momentum of 3000 Kg.m/s. Calculate its Kinetic
energy and velocity.

1. 90000J & 60m/s

2. 900J & 60m/s
3. 90000J & 6m/s
4. 6000J & 630m/s

Q7. An electric heater of power 3 kw is used for 10 h, how much energy does it
consume?

1. 300 KWh
2. 1.08 x 108 J
3. both a & b
4. 30 erg

Q8. 6.4kJ of energy causes a displacement of 64m in a body in the direction of force
in 2.5sec. Calculate its power

1. 100Hp
2. 123Hp
3. 8.6 Hp
4. 3.4 Hp

Q9. A block of mass 5 Kg slides down on an incline of inclination 300& length 10 m.

Find the work done by the force of gravity

1. 245
2. 490 J
3. 0J
4. 300 J

Q10. When mass and velocity of the body are doubled then its K.E will ……….

1. increase by 8 times
2. decrease by 8times
3. Increase by 4 times
4. remain same

Section- II Subjective

Q1. Define the following

 1. 1 Joule
2. Power
3. Gravitational Potential energy
4. Mechanical energy

Q2. State the units of the following

1. Work
2. Energy
3. Power

Q3. Calculate the K.E of mass 0.1 Kg and momentum 20 Kg.m/s

Q4. A porter lifts a suitcase weighting 20 Kg from the platform and puts it on his
head 2 m above the platform. Calculate the work done by the porter on the suitcase.

Q5. An elevator weighting 500 Kg is to be lifted up at a constant velocity of 0.2 m/s.

What will be the minimum horsepower of the motor to be used?

Q6. What is the main energy transformation that occurs in:

1. Photosynthesis in green leaves

2. Charging of a battery

Q7. (i) Define one kilowatt hour. How is it related to joule?

(ii) How can the work done be measured if the force is applied at an angle to the
direction of displacement?

Q8. An object of mass ‘m’ is allowed to fall freely from point A. at a height h above
the ground Calculate the total mechanical energy of the object at

1. point A (topmost point)

2. point C (lowest point)
3. point B(between A and C
4. State the law which is verified by your calculations in parts (i), (ii), and (iii).

Solutions

Objective Problems

1. 2
2. 1
 3. 2
4. 2
5. 3
6. 1
7. 2
8. 4
9. 1

WORK ENERGY POWER

Section 1 - Objective

Q1. Renewable source of energy is

1. Coal
2. Fossil fuels
3. Natural gas
4. Solar energy

Q2. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are moving with equal kinetic energy. What is
the ratio of their momentum?

1. m1:m2
2. √m1:√m2
3. m2:√m1
4. NOT

Q3. A bag of rice weights 200 Kg. To what height should it be raised so that its
potential energy may be 9800 J?

1. 5m
2. 10 m
3. 20 m
4. 40 m

Q4. A conventional source of energy is

1. Solar
 2. Nuclear
3. Coal
4. Wind

Q5. A pendulum is oscillating on either side of its rest position. The correct statement
is

1. It has only K.E

2. It has only P.E
3. The T.E is constant
4. NOT

Q6. ……………. is the main source of energy to the earth

1. Sun
2. Moon
3. Petrol
4. Diesel

Q7. In an electric toaster ……… energy converts to …………energy.

1. Sound to electrical
2. Electrical to heat
3. Heat to electrical
4. NOT

Q8. While swinging the bob has only …….. energy at the extreme positions.

1. Potential
2. Kinetic
3. Heat
4. Light

Q9. When a body is thrown vertically upwards, than

1. Potential energy changes into Kinetic energy

2. Kinetic energy changes into potential energy
3. Heat energy changes into light energy
4. NOT

Q10. A ball of mass 0.2kg is thrown vertically upwards with an initial velocity of
20m/s. Calculate the maximum potential energy it gains as it goes up.
 1. 20J
2. 30J
3. 40J
4. 243 J

Section 2 - Subjective

 Q1. Explain the energy changes that take place in the oscillating pendulum.
 Q2. Distinguish between renewable & non-renewable sources of energy.
 Q3. Mention the advantages and disadvantages of using nuclear energy for
producing electricity.
 Q4. A car weighting 600 Kg travels with 30m/s stops at a distance of 50 m
decelerating uniformly. What is the force exerted by the brakes? What is the
work done by the brakes?
 Q5. What do you mean by energy degradation?

Solutions for Section 1 & 2

Objective Problems :

(1) D (2) B (3) A (4) C (5) C

(6) A (7) B (8) A (9) B (10) C
Subjective Prob lems

Ans 3. 2000J

Ans 4. F = 5400N and W= 270000J

Ans 6. (i) Light energy changes into chemical energy

(ii) Electrical energy changes into chemical energy

Ans 7. (i) 1KWh = 3.6 x 106 J

(ii) W = F.d. cos Ө

MACHINES

Section 1 - Objective

Q1. The mechanical advantage of a machine is 5. Find the effort necessary to lift 100
N.

1. 0.05 N
2. 20 N
3. 50 N
4. 100 N

Q2. To calculate the mechanical advantage, divide the resistance force by the

1. Friction
2. Ideal mechanical advantages
3. Work
4. Effort force

Q3. A baseball bat would be an example of a:

1. First order lever

2. Second order lever
3. Third order lever
4. Inclined plane

Q4. A sloping surface used to raise object is called an

1. Inclined plane
2. Wedge
3. Screw
4. Wheel and axle

Q5. A system of levers with a velocity ratio 25 overcomes a resistance of 3300N

when an effort of 165N is applied. Find then the mechanical advantage.

1. 20
2. 40
3. 60
4. NOT
Q6. A cook uses a “fire tong” of length 35cm to lift a piece of burning coal of mass
200gm. If he applies his effort at a distance of 7cm from the fulcrum, then the
efforts in S.I units is:

1. 10N
2. 20N
3. 40N
4. 60N

Q7. A uniform plane of sea saw is 8m long and is supported in the centre. A boy
weighing 50Kgf sits at a distance of 2.5m from the fulcrum. Where must another boy
weighing 40 Kgf sit, so as to balance the plank?

1. 2m
2. 4m
3. 3.125m
4. 4.75m

Q8. A beam balance is an example of:

1. Inclined plane
2. Lever of first order
3. Lever of second order
4. Lever of third order

Q9. A force applied to a machine to do mechanical work is called

1. Effort
2. Load
3. Efficiency
4. Output

Q10. A simple machine whose MA is always greater than 1 is

1. Inclined plane
2. Levers
3. Pulley
4. Ideal machine

Q11. A _ _ _ _ _ system is a device to transfer the rotator motion from one point to
the other

1. Pulley
 2. Lever
3. Gear
4. Inclined plane

Q12. Unit of gear ratio is

1. m
2. Sec
3. Km
4. Unit less

Q13. The MA of an ideal single movable pulley is

1. 1
2. 2
3. <2
4. <1

Q14. A single movable pulley is used as:

1. Force multiplier
2. Speed multiplier
3. Device to change the direction of effort
4. All of the above

Q15. A single string system has 5 pulleys. If an effort of 50 Kgf is required to raise a
load of 150 Kgf, then find the efficiency of the system.

1. 60%
2. 80%
3. 10%
4. NOT

Section 2 - Subjective

Q1. Define simple Machine and state its function.

Q2. Define: 1. Velocity ratio 2. Mechanical Advantage3. Efficiency 4. Ideal Machine 5.

Lever

Q3. State the relationship between mechanical advantage, velocity ratio and
efficiency.
Q4. Draw the labeled sketch of class I, class II and class III. levers Give the two
examples of each kind of lever.

Q5. A two gear system has one wheel with 50 teeth and another wheel with 10
teeth. Find the gain in speed and gain in torque which can be obtained by their
combination?

Q6. Distinguish between single fixed pulley and single movable pulley.

Q7. With reference to the term mechanical advantage, velocity ratio, and efficiency
of a machine, names the term that will not change for a machine of a given design?
Define the term stated by you.

Q8. A pulley system has a velocity ratio of 4 and efficiency of 90%. Calculate:

1. Mechanical Advantage
2. The effort required to raise a load of 300N by the system.

Solutions

Objective Problems

1. 2
2. 4
3. 3
4. 1
5. 1
6. 1
7. 3
8. 2
9. 1
10. 1
11. 3
12. 4
13. 2
14. 1
15. 1

Subjective Problems

Ans 5. Gain in speed = 10 & Gain in torque = 10

Ans 7. Velocity ratio

Ans 8. 1. MA = 3.6

2. 83.3 N

MACHINES

Section 1 - Objective

Q1. Light has _ _ _ _ _ _ nature

1. Dual
2. Single
3. Both A & B
4. NOT

Q2. An object in a denser medium when viewed from a rarer medium appears to be
raised. The shift is maximum for

1. Red light
2. Violet light
3. Yellow light
4. Green light

Q3. When a ray of light enters a transparent medium it undergoes change in

1. Frequency only
2. Wavelength only
3. Wavelength and velocity both
4. Velocity and frequency both

Q4. The speed of light in water is (µw=1.33)?

1. 2 x 108 m/s
2. 2.25 x 108 m/s
 3. 3 x 108 m/s
4. 2000 m/s

Q5. A ray of light is incident normally on a rectangular piece of glass. The value of
angle of refraction will be

1. 1800
2. 900
3. 450
4. 00

Q6. According to the principal of reversibility of light, the path of light is

1. Reversible
2. Irreversible
3. Straight
4. NOT

Q7. The lateral displacement depends on

1. Thickness of glass slab

2. Angle of incidence
3. Refractive index of glass
4. All of these

Q8. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. What is the critical angle for glass air
interface? (sin 420 = 2/3)

1. 240
2. 420
3. 37.50
4. 210

Q9. A total reflecting right angled isosceles prism can be used to deviate a ray of light
through:

1. 300
2. 600
3. 750
4. 900

Q10. The velocity of light in diamond is 121,000km/s, what is its refractive index?
 1. 1.33
2. 1.5
3. 2.48
4. 3.6

Section 2 - Subjective

 Q1. Define refraction. State the laws of refraction.

 Q2. i) With the help of a well-labelled diagram show that the apparent depth
of an object such as a coin in water is less than its real depth.
 ii) How is the refractive index of water related to the real depth and the
apparent depth of a column of water?
 Q3. State the factors affecting the refractive index of a medium.
 Q4. Draw a diagram showing refraction of light through glass slab.
 Q5. Derive the relation for angle of deviation produced by a triangular prism.
State the factors affecting it.
 Q6. State any 2 differences between the reflection of light from a plane
mirror and total internal reflection of light from a prism.
 Q7. Explain briefly what causes the twinkling of stars at night.
 Q8. With respect to air, the refractive index of water and benzene are 1.33
and 1.50 respectively. Calculate & the refractive index of benzene with
respect to water.

Solutions: to worksheet-6 Topic-Machines

Objective P roblems:

1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (D) 10. (C)

Subjective Problems:

(8) 1.12
REFRACTION THROUGH LENS

Section 1 - Objective

Q1. A virtual image smaller than the object can be formed by:

1. Convex lens
2. Concave lens
3. Concave mirror
4. Plane mirror

Q2. We put glass piece on a printed page; image of prints on the page has same size
when viewed from glass piece. The piece is:

1. Convex lens
2. Glass slab
3. Concave lens
4. Prism

Q3. Which of the following is diverging in nature ?

1. Plane mirror
2. Convex lens
3. Concave lens
4. None of these

Q4. If image formed by a lens is always diminished and between F and O then the
lens is:

1. Concave
2. Convex
3. Both A and B
4. None of these

Q5. If a convex lens is thin its focal length is:

1. Small
2. Large
3. Nothing can be said
4. None of these
Q6. A lens of power 6 D is put in contact with a lens of power -4 D. The
combination will behave like a:

1. Divergent lens of focal length 25 cm

2. Convergent lens of focal length 50 cm
3. Divergent lens of focal length 20 cm
4. Convergent lens of focal length 100 cm

Q7. If the magnification of a lens has negative value, the image is:

1. Virtual and erect

2. Real and inverted
3. A or B any
4. Neither A nor B

Q8. If an object of size 5 cm is placed 20 cm from a lens and its image of same size is
formed 20 cm from lens on other side, lens is :

1. Convex
2. Concave
3. Glass slab
4. Prism

Q9. Express the power of a concave lens of focal length 20cm with its sign.

1. 5D
2. -0.5D
3. -5D
4. 0.5D

Q10. A ray of light passing through optical centre suffers:

1. Reflection
2. Refraction
3. Total internal reflection
4. None of these

Section 2 - Subjective

Q1. A converging lens is used to obtain an image of an object placed in front of it.
The inverted image is formed between F2 and 2F2 of the lens.

1. Where is the object placed?

 2. Draw a ray diagram to illustrate the formation of the image obtained.

Q2. An erect, magnified, and virtual image is formed, when an object is placed
between the optical centre and principal focus of a lens.

1. Name the lens.

2. Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of the image with the above
stated characteristics.

Q3. Define lens. State the types of lenses

Q4. Define the following:

1. Centre of curvature
2. Principal axis
3. Optical centre
4. Power of a lens

Q5. Explain the construction and principle of a simple microscope with a ray diagram.

Q6. An object is placed 12 cm away from the optical centre of a lens. Its image is
formed exactly midway between the optical centre and the object.

1. What is the nature of the lens?

2. Is the image formed erect or inverted?
3. Draw a ray diagram to show the image formed.
4. Calculate the focal length of the lens used.

Q7. A 5 cm tall object is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex lens of
focal length 20 cm. The distance of the object from the lens is 30 cm Find the

1. Position,
2. Nature and
3. Size of the image formed.

Solutions for Section 1 & 2

Objective Pro blems:

1. (B)2. (B)3. (C)4. (A)5. (B)6. (B)7. (B)8. (A)9. (C)10. (D)
SPECTRUM

Section 1 - Objective

Q1. When a white light ray falls on a prism, the ray at its first surface suffers:

1. Only refraction
2. Only dispersion
3. Only deviation
4. Both deviation and dispersion

Q2. In the spectrum of white light by a prism, the colour at the extreme end opposite
to the base of prism is:

1. Violet
2. Yellow
3. Red
4. Blue

Q3. Which of the following is correct?

1. λblue>λyellow>λgreen
2. λyellow> λ green> λ blue

3. λyellow> λblue>λgreen
4. λgreen> λblue >λyellow

Q4. A radiation X is focused by a proper device on the bulb of a thermometer due to

which mercury in it shows a rapid increase. The radiation X is:

1. Infrared radiation
2. Visible light
3. Ultraviolet radiation
4. X-rays

Q5. The wavelength range of visible part of electromagnetic spectrum is:

1. 800 to 107 Ǻ
2. 4000 to 8000 Ǻ
3. 100 to 8000 Ǻ
4. 100 to 4000 Ǻ

Q6. Blue colour of sky is due to

 1. Dispersion of light
2. Scattering of light
3. Refraction of light
4. Reflection of light

Q7. Rainbow is formed due to

1. Reflection and dispersion of light through the water droplets

2. Total internal reflection, refraction and dispersion of light through the water
droplets
3. Only dispersion of light
4. Only refraction of light

Q8. Dispersion of light by a prism is due to the change in:

1. Frequency of light
2. Speed of light for different colours
3. Scattering
4. None of these

Q9. In white light of sun, maximum scattering by the air molecules present in the
earth’s atmosphere is for:

1. Red colour
2. Yellow colour
3. Green colour
4. Blue colour

Section 2 - Subjective

 Q1. Explain the cause of dispersion of white light through a prism

 Q2. Calculate the frequency of yellow light of wavelength 5500Ǻ. The speed of
light is 3x 108 ms-1
 Q3. Name three properties of ultraviolet radiation which are similar to visible
light
 Q4. What is meant by scattering of light?
 Q5. How does not intensity of scattered light depend on the wavelength of
incident light? State conditions when this dependence holds
 Q6. The cloud are seen white. Give reason?

Solutions for Section 1 & 2

1. D 2. C 3. B
4. A 5. B 6. B
7. B 8. B 9. D
Subjective:

2. .5.45×1014H3

SOUND

Section 1 - Objective

Q1. In which medium sound does travels faster:

1. Solid
2. Liquid
3. Gas
4. None of these

Q2. Nature of sound wave is:

1. Transverse
2. Longitudinal
3. Electromagnetic
4. NOT

Q3. Sound waves in air are

1. Longitudinal waves
2. Radio waves
3. Transverse waves
4. Electromagnetic waves

Q4. The density of medium through which longitudinal waves propagates is minimum
in a region which is called:
 1. Crest
2. Compression
3. Trough
4. Rarefaction

Q5. Mechanical waves can travel:

1. In vacuum as well as in a medium

2. In vacuum but not in a medium
3. In a medium but not in vacuum
4. Neither in a medium nor in vacuum

Q6. The minimum distance between the source of sound and the obstacle for an echo
to take place is (speed of sound us 340m/s)

1. 17m
2. 172m
3. 17cm
4. 34.4m

Q7. During summer, an echo is heard:

1. Sooner than during winter

2. Later than during winter
3. After same time as in winter
4. Rarely

Q8. The velocity of sound in air at 30°C is approximately:

1. 332ms-1
2. 350ms-1
3. 530ms-1
4. 32kms-1

Q9. Infrasonic frequency range is

1. Below 20Hz
2. 20Hz to 20 kHz
3. Above 20 kHz
4. No limit
Q10. Sound waves of wavelength λ travel from a medium in which their speed is V
into a medium in which their speed is 4V. The wavelength of the sound in the second
medium is:

1. λ
2. 2λ
3. 3λ
4. 4λ

Q11. A sonar echo takes 4.4s to return from a submarine. If the speed of sound in
water is 1500m/s then the distance of submarine from the sonar is:

1. 1500m
2. 3000m
3. 3300m
4. 3600m

Q12. Ultrasonic waves are used in :

1. SONAR
2. Emulsifications
3. Sonography
4. All of these

Section 2 - Subjective

 1. Distinguish between Transverse wave and Longitudinal wave.

 2. Define Echo and State its uses.
 3. State the working principle of SONAR.
 4.

1. A man stands at a distance of 68m from a cliff and fires a gun. After
what time interval will he hear the echo, if the speed of sound in air is
340m/s? (I.C.S.E - 2010)
2. If the man had been standing at a distance of 12m from the cliff
would he have heard a clear echo?

 5. A submarine emits a sonar pulse which returns from the underwater cliff
in 1 sec. If the speed of sound in salt water is 1500m/s, how far away is the
cliff?
 6. State the conditions for the formation of echo
Solutions for Section 1 & 2

Objective

1. A 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. A
7. A 8. B 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. D
Subjective

4. (i) 0.4s

(ii) No

5. 750 m

SOUND

Section 1 - Objective

Q1. When a body vibrates with its natural frequency, the force acting on the body is:

1. Zero
2. Proportional to its velocity
3. Proportional to its displacement
4. A constant force

Q2. The damped vibrations are with:

1. Amplitude decreasing with time

2. Amplitude increasing with time
3. Constant amplitude
4. First decreasing amplitude and then increasing amplitude

Q3. A tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz will resonate with frequency:

1. 128Hz
2. 256Hz
 3. 384Hz
4. 356 Hz

Q4. Speed of sound in air is 350ms-1. Fundamental frequency of an open organ pipe
of 50cm length will be:

1. 175Hz
2. 350Hz
3. 700Hz
4. 500Hz

Q5. An open pipe of length 33cm resonates with frequency of 1000Hz. If the speed
of sound is 330ms-1, then the frequency is:

1. The fundamental frequency of the pipe

2. The first harmonic of the pipe
3. The second harmonic of the pipe
4. The fourth harmonic of the pipe

Q6. The condition when frequency of the applied force is equal to the natural
frequency of the vibrating body is

1. Velocity
2. Resonance
3. Impedance
4. NOT

Q7. As an empty vessel is filled with water, its fundamental frequency:

1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains the same
4. None of these

Q8. Melodious sound is produced an in open ended organ pipe because:

1. Odd number of frequencies is generated

2. No any frequencies is generated
3. Even and odd number of frequencies are generated alternately
4. None of these
Q9. Beats are heard due to interference of two sound waves. The intensity of sound
changes from maximum to minimum in 100ms. Therefore, the difference in
frequencies of the two waves is:

1. 10Hz
2. 5Hz
3. 2.5Hz
4. 20Hz

Q10. Sound waves produced by a source are propagating in a medium. The

quantity/quantities that change from point to point is / are

1. Pressure
2. Elasticity
3. Temperature
4. None of these

Section 2 - Subjective

Q1. Distinguish between Free vibrations and Forced Vibrations

Q2. What do you mean by damped vibration? Draw the displacement time graph for
damped and undamped vibrations.

Q3. A person is tuning his radio set to a particular station. What is the person trying
to do to tune it.

 Name the phenomenon involved in tuning the radio set.

Q4 Define Resonance and write any 3 applications of resonance?

Solutions for Section 1 & 2

Objective

1. A 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. C

6. B 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. A
Subjective

Ans 3. (i) Frequency of Radio set = Frequency of Radio waves

(ii) Resonance

SOUND

Section 1 - Objective

Q1. By reducing the amplitude of a sound wave, its:

1. Pitch increases
2. Loudness decreases
3. Loudness increases
4. Pitch decreases

Q2. Two sounds A and B are of frequencies f and 2f respectively. Then:

1. Both sounds are identical

2. B is grave, A is shrill
3. B is shrill, A is grave
4. B is louder than A

Q3. Two sounds of same loudness and same pitch produced by two different
instruments differ in their :

1. Amplitudes
2. Frequencies
3. Wave forms
4. All the above

Q4. The unit of quantity on which pitch of the sound depends is:

1. Hertz
2. Meter
3. Meter/ second
4. Second

Q5. The unit of quantity on which loudness of sound depends is:

1. Meter
2. Hertz
 3. Zero
4. Infinite

Q6. Pitch of high frequency sound is:

1. High
2. Low
3. Zero
4. Infinite

Q7. Voice of a friend is recognized by its:

1. Pitch
2. Quality
3. Intensity
4. Velocity

Q8. When sound waves travelling in air enter into the medium of water, the quantity
which remains unchanged is:

1. Wavelength
2. Velocity
3. Frequency
4. None

Section 2 - Subjective

 Q1. Name the unit in which loudness of sound is measured

 Q2. Define the term intensity of a sound wave. State the unit in which it is
measured
 Q3. How is loudness of sound related to the intensity of wave producing it ?
 Q4. State the factors that determine

1. The pitch of a note

2. The loudness of the sound heard
3. The quality of the note

 Q5. Name the subjective property of

1. Sound related to its frequency

2. Light related to its wavelength
  Q6. Which characteristic of sound will change if there is a change in its
amplitude and waveform

1. Name one factor which affects the frequency of sound emitted due to
vibrations in air column.
2. Name the unit used for measuring the sound level.

Solutions: to worksheet-11 Topic-Sound

Objective

1. B 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. C
Subjective

Ans 1. Photon

Ans 4. Frequency

 Amplitude
 Wave form

Ans 5. Pitch

Colour

Ans 6. Loudness and Timbre

 Length of air column

 Decibel
CURRENT ELECTRICITY

Section 1 - Objective

Q1. How many electrons in 1s constitute a current of 1A?

1. 6.25 x 1018
2. 6.25 x 1012
3. 6.25 x 10 11

4. 6.25

Q2. 1 Coulomb is equal to

1. 1amp x 1 sec
2. 1 amp/1sec
3. 1 joule x 1 amp
4. None of these

Q3. When a body is negatively charged by friction, it means

1. The body has acquired excess of electrons

2. The body has acquired excess of protons
3. The body has lost some electrons
4. The body has lost some neutrons

Q4. A suitable unit for expressing the strength of electric field is:

1. C
2. C/m
3. N/C
4. (D) C/N
Q5. If I’ is the current through a wire and ‘e’ is the charge of electron, then number
of electrons in‘t’ seconds will be given by -

1. le/t
2. e/It
3. It/e
4. Ite

Q6. Conventionally, the direction of the current is taken as:

1. The direction of flow of negative

2. The direction of flow of atoms
3. The direction of flow of positive charges
4. The direction of flow of molecules

Q7. The space around a charge is called its:

1. Potential
2. Field
3. Field intensity
4. Potential Difference

Q8. What is not true for electric charge?

1. Electric charge is scalar quantity

2. Charge on a body may be positive or negative
3. S.I. unit of charge is coulomb
4. One Coulomb is charge of one electron

Q9. An electric bulb is connected in an electric circuit.10C charge flows through this
bulb in 5 sec. Find the current flowing through this bulb

1. 2A
2. 5.5A
3. 7.2A
4. 11A

Q10. Unit of conductivity is

1. Ωm
2. Siemen/meter
3. Km/hr
4. NOT
Section 2 - Subjective

 Q1. Define the term resistance. State its SI unit.

 Q2. Define

1. Conductors
2. Insulators
3. Electric Potential

 Q3. Explain any 3 factors affecting the resistance of a conductor

 Q4. State Ohms law. Is Ohms law valid for all conductors of electricity??
 Q5. Distinguish between ohmic & non ohmic resistors
 Q6. A wire of resistance 4Ω is redrawn by pulling, it such that its length gets
doubled, what is its new resistance?
 Q7. Find the specific resistance of a wire of length 1.1m, 0.4m in diameter &
having a total resistance of 4.2Ω

Solutions for Section 1 & 2

Objective

1. A 2. A 3. A 4. C 5. C
6. C 7. b 8. D 9. a 10. B
Subjective

6. 16Ω

7. 0.48 Ω m

CURRENT ELECTRICITY

Section 1 - Objective

Q1. A wire of resistance R is cut into n equal parts. These parts are then connected
in parallel. The equivalent resistance of combination will be :

1. nR
 2. R/n
3. n/R
4. R/n

Q2. Three resistances each of 8 Ω are connected to a triangle. The resistance between
any two terminals will be :

1. 12 Ω
2. 2Ω
3. 6Ω
4. 16/3 Ω

Q3. In how many parts (equal) a wire of 100 Ω be cut so that the resistance of 1 Ω
is obtained by connecting them in parallel?

1. 10
2. 5
3. 100
4. 50

Q4. If a wire of resistance of 1 Ω is stretched to double its length, then the resistance
will become :

1. 1/2 Ω
2. 2Ω
3. 1/4 Ω
4. 4Ω

Section 2 Subjective

Q1. Three resistance of value 1Ω, 2Ω and 3Ω are connected in parallel. If the
effective resistance of the circuit has to be 1Ω, then find the value of the resistance
to be connected in series to this circuit.

Q2. Define EMF of a cell.

Q3. When two resistors are joined in series, the equivalent resistance is 90Ω. When
the same resistors are joined in parallel, the equivalent resistance is 20Ω. Calculate
the resistance of the two resistors

Solutions for Section 1 & 2

Objective

1. D 2. D 3. A 4. D
Subj ective

1. R = 5/11 Ω

3. 60Ω and 30Ω

ELECTRIC POWER AND HOUSEHOLD CIRCUIT

Section 1 - Objective

Q1. Two heater wires of equal length are first connected in series and then in parallel
with a battery. The ratio of heat produced in the two cases is:

1. 2:1
2. 1:2
3. 4:1
4. 1:4

Q2. How much electrical energy in kilowatt hour is consumed in operating ten, 50
watt bulbs for 10hours per day in a month of 30 days?

1. 15
2. 150
3. 1500
4. 15000

Q3. An electric iron draws a current of 4A when connected to 220V mains. Its
resistance must be:

1. 40Ω
2. 55Ω
3. 100Ω
4. None of these
Q4. The resistance of a conductor is reduced to half the initial value keeping the
potential differences same as before. In doing so the heating effect in the conductor
will become

1. Half
2. one fourth
3. four times
4. double

Q5. Laws of heating effect of current was given by:

1. Faraday
2. Joule
3. Ohm
4. Maxwell

Q6. An electric iron is based upon the principle of:

1. Magnetic effect of current

2. Heating effect of current
3. Chemical effect of current
4. None of these

Q7. A fuse wire is always connected to the:

1. Neutral wire
2. Earth wire
3. Live wire
4. None of these

Q8. The heating effect of a current carrying conductor is due to :

1. Loss of kinetic energy of moving atoms

2. Loss of kinetic energy of moving electrons
3. Attraction between electrons and atoms
4. Repulsion between electrons and atoms

Q9. The correct relation between heat produced (H) and electric current I flowing is:

1. H∝ I
2. H ∝ 1/I
3. H ∝ I2
4. H ∝ 1/I2
Q10. Fuse wire is made up of:

1. Copper
2. Aluminum
3. Alnico
4. Lead tin alloy

Q11. Two heater wires of same length and material but of different thickness are
connected in series across a power supply. Then power dissipated:

1. Will be same in both

2. Will be more in thinner wire
3. Will be more in thicker wire
4. Cannot be predicted

Section 2 - Subjective

Q1. An electric kettle is rated 500W, 220V. It is used to heat 400g of water for 30
seconds. Assuming the voltage to be 220V, calculate the rise in the temperature of
the water. Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J/Kg °C

Q2. Calculate the resistance of an electric bulb which allows a 10A current when
connected to a 220V power source.

Q3. Name a few practical application of heating effect of current.

Q4. Out of the following bulbs rated 40W, 220V, 60W, 220V and 100W, 220V
which one will glow the brightest when connected in series to a supply of 220V??

Q5. Two lamps, one rated 100W at 220V and other 60W at 220 V are connected
in parallel to a 220V supply. What is current drawn from the supply line?

Q6. 15 bulbs of 60 W each run for 6hours daily and a refrigerator of 300W run for
5 hours daily. Work out per day bill at 3 rupees per unit.

Solutions for Section 1 & 2

Objective

1. D2. B3. B4. D 5. B 6. B

7. C 8. B9. C10. D11. B
Subjective
1. APPROX 9oc

5. 0.727A

6. Rs. 20.70

ELECTRIC POWER AND HOUSEHOLD CIRCUIT

Section 1 - Objective

Q1. Two heater wires of equal length are first connected in series and then in parallel
with a battery. The ratio of heat produced in the two cases is:

1. 2:1
2. 1:2
3. 4:1
4. 1:4

Q2. How much electrical energy in kilowatt hour is consumed in operating ten, 50
watt bulbs for 10hours per day in a month of 30 days?

1. 15
2. 150
3. 1500
4. 15000

Q3. The resistance of a conductor is reduced to half its initial value. Keeping potential
difference the sane In doing so the heating effects in the conductor will be:

1. Half
2. One-fourth
3. Four times
4. Double

Q4. Substances whose atoms have more free electrons are called:
 1. Conductors
2. Insulators
3. Electrolytes
4. Semi-conductors

Q5. Two electric lamps whose coils having different resistances are connected in series
with 210 V battery.Then:

1. Same amount of current flows through each lamp.

2. Same potential difference occurs in each lamp
3. Same power is consumed in each lamp
4. Same electrical energy is consumed by each lamp

Q6. Heating effect of a current carrying conductor is due

1. Loss of kinetic energy of moving atoms

2. Loss of kinetic energy of moving electrons
3. Attraction between electrons and atoms
4. Repulsion between electrons and atoms

Q7. The wire having a red plastic covering is a:

1. Live wire
2. Neutral wire
3. Earth wire
4. None of these

Q8. A switch is always connected to the:

1. Earth wire
2. Neutral wire
3. Live wire
4. None of these

Q9. When live wire and neutral wire come in direct contact, it leads to

1. Short-circuiting
2. Over loading
3. No damage
4. Unknown effect

Q10. High power electrical appliances are earthed to

 1. Avoid shock
2. Avoid
3. Make appliances look beautiful
4. Reduce the bill

Section 2 - Subjective

 Q1. Out of the following bulbs rated (40W, 220V), (60W, 220V) and (100W,
220V) which one will glow the brightest when connected in series to a supply
of 220V.
 Q2. Name two types of wiring system done for domestic wirings.
 Q3. What do you mean by earthing ?
 Q4. Write a note on three pin plug and socket.
 Q5. What is Fuse? Name the material of fuse.

Solutions for Section 1 & 2

Objective

1. C 2. B 3. D 4. a 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. A
Subjective

1. 40W

ELECTROMAGNETISM

Section 1 - Objective

Q1. When a bar magnet is broken into two pieces:

1. We will have a single pole on each piece

2. Each piece will have two unlike poles
3. Each piece will have two like poles
4. None of these
Q2. The magnetic field intensity produced due to a current carrying coil is maximum
at :

1. Any point
2. The centre of the coil
3. Any point lying on the axis of the coil
4. Points lying between centre of the coil and its circumference

Q3. The direction of magnetic lines of force produced by passing a direct current
through a the conductor is

1. Perpendicular to the conductor and coming outwards

2. Parallel to conductor
3. Concentric circular around the conductor
4. All the above

Q4. A magnetic compass is placed at a point near a bar magnet. Direction of

magnetic field at due to the magnet that point will be:

1. Tangential to compass needle

2. Normal to compass needle
3. Towards the south pole of compass needle
4. None of these

Q5. Magnetic field is:

1. Scalar
2. Vector
3. Sometimes scalar sometimes vector
4. Nothing can be said

Q6. A length of wire carries steady current. It is bent first to form circular plane coil
of one turn. The same length is now bent to give a double loop of smaller radius. The
magnetic field produced at the centre by the same current will be:

1. A quarter of its value

2. A half of first value
3. Four times its first value
4. Unaltered

Q7. Space around a magnet in which the presence can be felt by other magnet or
magnetic material is called
 1. Electric field
2. Magnetic field
3. Magnetic flux
4. None of these

Q8. Magnetic field lines are drawn with the help of:

1. Any magnet
2. Magnetic compass
3. Galvanometer
4. Ammeter

Q9. A current carrying wire carries current from west to east. What will be the
direction of magnetic field 1m above it?

1. North to south
2. South to west
3. East to west
4. West to east

Q10. If magnetic line of force are emerging out from a face of circular current
carrying conductor then that face will behave as:

1. North pole
2. South pole
3. North pole for some time and then south pole
4. Nothing can be said

Section 2 - Subjective

 Q1. State the rule that is used to find the direction of magnetic field acting at
a point near a current carrying straight conductor.
 Q2. What kind of magnetic field is produced due to a current carrying
solenoid?
 Q3. What are the factors on which the magnetic field due to a current
carrying solenoid depends?
 Q4. Distinguish between Temporary magnets and Permanent magnets.
 Q5. State the properties of magnets.

Solutions for Section 1 & 2

Objective
1. B 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. D
6. C 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. A

ELECTROMAGNETISM

Section 1 - Objective

Q1. A wire carrying a current of 5A is placed perpendicular to a magnetic induction

of 2T. The force on each centimeter of the wire is:

1. 1N
2. 100N
3. 0.1N
4. 10N

Q2. If a soft iron piece is buried under the surface of earth in the north and south
direction, then

1. It will acquire the properties of a magnet

2. Its properties will not change
3. It will behave like an insulator
4. Can’t say with surety

Q3. Force acting on a stationary charge Q in the magnetic field B is –

1. B QV
2. BV/Q
3. ZERO
4. BQ/V

Q4. A proton is moving with velocity 104m/s parallel to the magnetic field of
intensity 5Tesla. The force on the proton is –

1. 8 x 10-15 N
2. 104 N
3. 1.6 x 10-19 N
 4. Zero

Q5. A wire of length ‘l’ is placed in a magnetic field ‘B’. If the current in the wire is ‘I’,
then maximum magnetic force on the wire is:

1. BIL
2. B/IL
3. IL/B
4. I/BL

Q6. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. A magnet may exert force on a charged particle

2. A charged particle may move undeflected in a magnetic field
3. Moving charges are the source of magnetic field
4. All are correct

Q7. A magnetic field may:

1. Change the velocity of a charged particle

2. Change the speed of a charged particle
3. Change the KE of a charged particle
4. Stop a moving charged particle

Q8. Lenz’s law is a consequence of the law of conservation of:

1. Energy
2. Momentum
3. Angular momentum
4. Charge and mass

Q9. The induced emf produced when a magnet is inserted into a coil does not depend
upon:

1. The number of turns of coil

2. The resistance of coil
3. The magnetic moment of the magnet
4. The speed of approach of the magnet

Q10. Lenz’s law

1. Is the same as the right hand palm rule

2. Determines the magnitude of an induced emf
 3. Bears no relation to the law of conservation of energy
4. Is useful in deciding about the direction of an induced emf

Q11. A.C. used in our domestic consumption has a frequency

1. 60Hz
2. 50Hz
3. 30Hz
4. 100Hz

Q12. A solenoid having an iron core has its terminals connected across an ideal D.C
source. If the iron core is removed the current flowing through solenoid is:

1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. Remains unchanged
4. NOT

Q13. Direction of force acting on a current carrying conductor kept in a magnetic

field is given by

1. Fleming’s right hand rule

2. Fleming’s left hand rule
3. Lens’s rule
4. Faraday’s rule

Q14. The unit of induced emf is:

1. Ampere
2. Volt
3. Joule
4. Electron volt

Section 2 - Subjective

Q1. How can we find the direction of magnetic force on current carrying conductor?

Q2. What is an electromagnet? How does it differ from a permanent magnet? State
three factors on which strength of an electromagnet depends ?

Q3. State Fleming’s left hand rule.

Q4. State the principle of a motor.

Q5. Write faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction.

Q6. Write the five differences between AC and DC.

Q7. Give the working of slip rings in the AC generator.

Q8. State the types of transformer available.

Solutions for Section 1 & 2

Objective

1. C 2. A3. C 4. D 5. A 6. D 7. A
8. A9. B10. D11. B12. A13. B14. B

CALORIMETRY

Section 1 - Objective

Q1. 2000 J of energy is needed to heat 1kg of paraffin through 1°C. How much
energy is needed to heat 10kg of paraffin through 2°C?

1. 4000 J
2. 10,000 J
3. 20,000 J
4. 40,000 J

Q2. The most commonly used thermometric liquid is:

1. Water
2. Alcohol
3. Mercury
4. None of these

Q3. Absolute zero corresponds to:

1. -273 K
2. -273°C
3. 273°F
4. None of these
Q4. A temperature difference of 30°C in the Fahrenheit scale is:

1. 54°F
2. 27°F
3. 86°F
4. -54°F

Q5. With increase in temperature the density of a substance in general:

1. Increases
2. Decreases
3. First increases then decreases
4. First decreases then increases

Q6. γr is coefficient of real expansion of a liquid, γa is coefficient of apparent

expansion of a liquid and γg is coefficient of cubical expansion of the container then
the correct relation is:

1. γr =γa x γg
2. γr = γa ÷ γg
3. γr= γa– γg
4. γr= γa + γg

Q7. Per °C is unit of:

1. α
2. β
3. γ
4. All of these

Q8. Clock’s pendulum is made of invar because:

1. It is light in weight
2. It is easily available
3. Its coefficient of linear expansion is low
4. It is cheaply available

Q9. 1 kg of water at 20°C is, mixed with 800g of water at 80°C.Assuming that no
heat is lost to the surroundings calculate the final temperature of the mixture:

1. 24.44°C
2. 46.67°C
3. 44.44°C
 4. 54.44°C

Q10. How much heat would be required to convert 14kg of ice at 0°C into water of
0°C?

1. 4704 J
2. 4704 kJ
3. 336 J
4. 336 kJ

Q11. The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J/kg °C. Calculate the heat capacity
of 10kg of water per °C

1. 42 J
2. 420 J
3. 42 kJ
4. 420 kJ

Q12. The temperature of a metal coin is increased by 100°C and its diameter
increases by 0.15%. Its area increases by nearly:

1. 0.15%
2. 0.60%
3. 0.30%
4. 0.0225%

Q13. The change from solid to vapour directly at a constant temperature is called:

1. Condensation
2. Regelation
3. Vaporization
4. Sublimation

Q14. The specific latent heat of fusion of water is:

1. 80 cal g-1
2. 2260 J g-1
3. 80 J g -1

4. 336 J kg-1

Q15. Expansion in a substance is:

1. Directly proportional to rise in the temperature

 2. Inversely proportional to rise in the temperature
3. Independent of rise temperature
4. Cannot say

Section 2- Subjective

Q1. Define the following

1. Melting point
2. Latent heat
3. Vaporization

Q2. Distinguish between

1. Heat and temperature

2. Heat capacity and specific heat capacity

Q3. Calculate the amount of heat required to convert1kg of ice at -10°C into steam
at 100°C at normal pressure. Specific heat capacity of ice = 2100 J kg-1 K-1. Latent
heat of fusion of ice =3.36 x 106 J kg-1 , specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J
kg-1 K-1 and latent heat of vaporization of water =2.25 x 106 J kg -1.

Q4. An iron piece of mass 2kg has a thermal capacity of 966 J/0C.

1. How much heat is needed to warm it by 15 0C?

2. What is its specific heat capacity in SI units?

Q5. A source of heat supplies heat at a constant rate to a solid cube. The variation of
the temperature of the cube with the heat supplied is shown in the figure given below.

1. What does the slope of the part DE represent?

2. If CD = 2.5 AB, what does it mean
Solutions

Objective Problem s

1. D
2. C
3. B
4. C
5. B
6. D
7. D
8. C
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. C
13. D
14. A
15. A

Subject ive Problems

Q3. Q = 3.027 x 106 J

Q4. (i) 14490J

(ii) 483 J/Kg/0C

Q5. (i) Slope of the part DE of the graph represents the (ΔT/Q), i.e., the reciprocal of
the thermal capacity(Q/ΔT)of the vapour.

(ii) CD = 2.5 AB means the latent heat of vaporisation is 2.5 times the latent heat of
fusion.
THERMIONIC EMISSION AND RADIOACTIVITY

Section 1 - Objective

Q1. The minimum amount of energy required to emit electrons from a metal surface
is called the:

1. Ionization energy
2. Dissociation energy
3. Cohesive energy
4. Work function

Q2. The work function of tungsten coated with barium oxide is nearly:

1. 5eV
2. 10eV
3. 1eV
4. 0.01eV

Q3. The electron emitter must have:

 1. Low work function and low melting point
2. High work function and high melting point
3. High work function and low melting point
4. Low work function and high melting point

Q4. A TV tube requires an accelerating voltage of the order:

1. 150 volt
2. 1000 volt
3. 20 kV
4. 500 kV

Q5. Electrons was discovered by:

1. Neil Bohr
2. J.J. Thomson
3. R.A. Millikan
4. Rutherford

Q6. The charge on an atom is:

1. Positive
2. Negative
3. Neutral
4. None of these

Q7. Isotone of an element has –

1. Same number of electrons

2. Same number of protons
3. Same number of neutrons
4. Same number of neutrons and protons

Q8. An isotones of 32Ge76 is

1. 32 Ge77
2. 33Ge77

3. 36Ge77

4. 34Ge77

Q9. The triad of nuclei that is isotonic is:

1. 146C, 157N , 179F

 2. 126C, 147N ,199F

3. 146C, 147N, 179F

4. 146C, 147N, 199F

Q10. An example of nuclear fusion reaction is:

1. 23390Th + 10n → 23490Th

2. 2713Al + 42He → 3015P + 10n

3. 32He + 32He → 42He + 211H

4. 23992U → 23993Np + 0-1e

Q11. Which particle is used to bombard 13Al28 to give 15P31 and a neutron?

1. α-particle
2. Deuteron
3. Proton
4. Neutron

Q12. Gamma rays are:

1. High energy electrons

2. Low energy electrons
3. High energy electromagnetic waves
4. High energy positrons

Q13. Which of the following radiation is least penetrating?

1. α-particles
2. β- particles
3. X-rays
4. γ – radiations

Q14. Which of the following radiation suffers maximum deflection in a magnetic field ?

1. α-particles
2. β-particles
3. X-rays
4. γ – radiations

Section 2 - Subjective

Q1. Define the term work function of a metal

Q2. State any three properties of α ,β and γ rays.

Q3. What do you mean by thermionic emission? State its two properties

Q4. XRnY→ 86Po218 + alpha- particles. Find X And Y.

Q5. In the labelled diagram answer the following

 What is represented by symbols A, B, C, D and E?

 States the purpose of A,’B,C and D.

Q6. Give one use of radio – isotopes. What is meant by backgroung radiations?

Q7. Name a common device where a hot cathode ray tube is used.

 State the two properties which a substance should posses when used as
thermionic emitter.

Solutions: to worksheet-19 Topic-Thermionic Emission and

Radioactivity

1. 1. 1. 2.
1. 3. D 1. 4. C 1. 5. B 1. 6. C 1. 7. C
D C

1. 8. 1. 9. 1. 10. 1. 11. 1. 12. 1. 13. 1. 14.

B A C A C A B

Subjective Problems

4. X=88, Y = 222
5. (i) A – Indirectly heated cathode

B – Electron beam

C – Anode

D – Plates to apply electric field

E – Filament

(ii) Purpose:

A – indirectly heated cathode emits electrons by passing current in the filament.

B – waves on screen

C – anode imparts a large velocity to the electron beam passing through its hole.

D – electric field is produced by applying between the plates