Sample Paper-03 Class 12th NEET (2024)

PHYSICS
SECTION-A 5. A slab of copper of thickness b is inserted in
1. The electric potential V is given as a function of between the plates of parallel plate capacitor as
distance x(metre) by V = (5x2 + 10x – 9) volt. Value shown in figure. The separation between the plates
of electric field at x = 1 is; d
is d if b = , then the ratio of capacities of
(1) –20V/m (2) 6V/m 2
(3) 11V/m (4) –23V/m capacitors after and before inserting the slab will
be;
2. Two identical capacitors, have the same d
capacitance C. One of them is charged to potential
V1 and the other to V2. The negative ends of the
capacitors are connected together. When the
positive ends are also connected, the decrease in
energy of the combined system is? b

1 1
(1) C (V12 − V22 ) (2) C (V12 + V22 ) (1) 2 :1 (2) 2 : 1
4 4
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1: 2
1 1
(3) C (V1 − V2 )2 (4) C (V1 + V2 )2
4 4 6. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed
surface respectively is ϕ1 and ϕ2, then, charge
3. A condenser having a capacity of 6μF is charged to enclosed in closed surface is;
100 V and is then joined to an uncharged condenser 2 − 1  + 2
of 14μF and then removed. The ratio of the charges (1) (2) 1
0 0
on 6μF and 14μF and the potential of 6μF will be;
1 − 2
6 14 (3) (4) 0 (2 − 1 )
(1)
14
and 50 volt (2)
6
and 30 volt 0
6 14
(3) and 30 volt (4) and 0 volt 7. A parallel plate capacitor of area A, plate separation
14 6
d and capacitance C is filled with three different
4. An uncharged sphere of metal is placed inside a dielectric materials having dielectric constants K1,
K2 and K3 as shown. If a single dielectric material
charged parallel plate capacitor. The lines of force
is to be used to have the same capacitance C is this
will look like; capacitors, then its dielectric constant K is given by
++ + ++ ++ ++ + + ++ ++ ++ +

(1) (2)

1 1 1 1
(1) = + +
K K1 K 2 2 K3
+ + ++ ++ ++ + ++ + ++ ++ ++
1 1 1
(2) = +
K K1 + K 2 2 K3
(3) (4)
K1K 2
(3) K = + 2 K3
K1 + K 2
(4) K = K1 + K2 + 2K3
8. Equivalent resistance between the points A and B is
(in Ω)

A 1 1 1 1 1 B

(1) rotational motion only.

1 1 (2) translational motion only.
(1) (2) 1
5 4 (3) rotational as well as translational motion.
1 1 (4) neither rotational nor translational motion.
(3) 2 (4) 3
3 2
13. The torque required to hold a small circular coil of
9. The potential difference between points 𝐴 and 𝐵 of 10 turns, 2 × 10–4m2 area and carrying 0.5 A current
adjoining figure is in the middle of a long solenoid of 103 turns m–1
5 5 carrying 3 A current. With its axis perpendicular to
A B the axis of the solenoid is;
2V (1) 12π × 10–7 Nm (2) 6π × 10–7 Nm
5 5 (3) 4π × 10–7 Nm (4) 2π × 10–7 Nm
5 5
D C 14. A paramagnetic substance of susceptibility 3 × 10–
2 8
4
is placed in a magnetic field of 4 × 10–4 Am–1.
(1) V (2) V
3 9 Then the intensity of magnetization in the units of
4 Am–1 is;
(3) V (4) 2V (1) 1.33 × 108 (2) 0.75 × 10–8
3
(3) 12 × 10–8 (4) 14 × 10–8
10. From the graph between current I and voltage V
shown below, identify the portion corresponding to 15. The time period of a thin bar magnet in earth’s
negative resistance magnetic field is T. If the magnet is cut into equal
parts perpendicular to its length, the time period of
each part in the same field will be;
I E T T
C (1) (2)
B 2 4
D (3) 2T (4) 2T
V
A
(1) AB (2) BC 16. Which of the following figure correctly depicts the
(3) CD (4) DE Lenz’s law. The arrows show the movement of the
labelled pole of a bar magnet into a closed circular
11. An electron (q = 1.6 × 10–19 C) is moving at right loop and the arrows on the circle show the direction
angle to the uniform magnetic field 3.534 × 10–5T. of the induced current;
The time taken by the electron to complete a
circular orbit is;
(1) (2)
(1) 2μs (2) 4μs N N
(3) 3μs (4) 1μs

12. A current i1 carrying wire AB is placed near an

(3) (4)
another long wire CD carrying current i2 as shown S S
in figure. If free to move, wire AB will have;
17. An average induced e.m.f. of 1V appears in a coil 22. An LCR circuit contains R = 50 Ω, L = 1 mH and
when the current in it is changed from 10A in C = 0.1μF. The impedance of the circuit will be
opposite direction in 0.5 sec. Self-inductance of the minimum for a frequency of;
coil is; 105 −1 106 −1
(1) 25 mH (2) 50 mH (1) S (2) S
2 2
(3) 75 mH (4) 100 mH (3) 2π × 105 s–1 (4) 2π × 106s–1

18. The north and south poles of two identical magnets 23. The following series L – C – R circuit, when driven
approach a coil, containing a condenser, with equal by an e.m.f. source of angular frequency 70 kilo-
speeds from opposite sides. Then; radians per second, the circuit effectively behaves
Rear side
like;
1
S N S N
2 100 H 1 F 10
v v
Observer
Front side
(1) plate 1 will be negative and plate 2 positive.
(2) plate 1 will be positive and plate 2 negative. (1) purely resistive circuit.
(3) both the plates will be positive. (2) series R – L circuit.
(4) both the plates will be negative. (3) series R – C circuit.
(4) series L – C circuit with R = 0.
19. The time taken by an alternating current of 50 Hz
in reaching from zero to its maximum value will 24. A point source of electromagnetic radiation has an
be; average power output of 800 W. The maximum
(1) 0.5 s (2) 0.005 s value of electric filed at a distance 4.0 m from the
(3) 0.05 s (4) 5 s source is;
(1) 64.7 Vm–1
20. In an AC circuit the voltage applied is E = E0 sin
(2) 57.8 Vm–1
ωt. The resulting current in the circuit is
(3) 56.72 Vm–1
 
I = I 0 sin  t −  . The power consumption in the (4) 54.77 Vm–1
 2
circuit is given by; 25. The inductor shown in the figure has inductance
E I 0.44 H and carries a current in the direction shown
(1) P = 0 0 (2) P = zero
2 di
that is decreasing at a uniform rate = – 0.02 A/s.
E I dt
(3) P = 0 0 (4) P = 2E0 I 0
2 The value of Va – Vb is;
i
21. The graphs given below depict the dependence of a b
two reactive impedances X1 and X2 on the
L
frequency of the alternating e.m.f. applied (1) 4.4 mV (2) – 4.4 mV
individually to them. We can then say that;
(3) 8.8 mV (4) –8.8 mV

26. If an electromagnetic wave is propagate in a

Impedance

Impedance

X1 X2 medium with permittivity  and permeability μ,


then is the;
Frequency Frequency 
(1) X1 is an inductor and X2is a capacitor. (1) intrinsic impedance of the medium.
(2) X1 is a resistor and X2 is a capacitor. (2) square of the refractive index of the medium.
(3) X1 is a capacitor and X2 is an inductor. (3) refractive index of the medium.
(4) X1 is an inductor and X2 is a resistor. (4) energy density of the medium.
27. Fringe width in a YDSE is measured to be  . What 31. Which of the following statements are correct?
will be the fringe width if the wavelength of Statement I: In photoelectric effect, if the energy
absorbed by the electrons exceeds the work
incident light is tripled, the separation between the
function of the metal, then most loosely bound
slits is halved and the separation between the electrons emerge with maximum kinetic energy.
screen and the slits doubled? Statement II: In photoelectric effect, kinetic
(1) 6 (2) 12 energy of the emitted electrons is independent of
  the intensity of the radiation.
(3) (4) (1) I only
6 12 (2) II only
(3) I and II
28. A fish rising vertically up towards the surface of (4) Neither I nor II
water with speed 3ms–1 observes a bird diving
vertically down towards it with speed 9ms–1. The 32. Two capacitors of capacitances C1 = 3 F and
actual velocity of bird is; C2 = 9F are connected in series and the resulting
combination is connected across 300V. Match
quantities in List-I with their values in List-II.
List-I List-II
y (A) Potential across C1 (in V) (I) 75
(B) Potential across C2 (in V) (II) 225
(C) Energy stored in C1 (in J) (III) 2.5 × 10–2
(D) Energy stored in C2 (in J) (IV) 7.6 × 10–2
(1) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(2) A – IV; B – I; C – II; D – III
(1) 4.5 ms–1 (2) 5 ms–1 (3) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – IV
(3) 3.0 ms–1 (4) 3.4 ms–1 (4) A – IV; B – II; C – III; D – I

29. Consider the situation shown in figure. Water 33. Assertion (A): Interference pattern is made by
using blue light instead of red light, the fringes
 4
  w =  is filled in a beaker upto a height of 10
becomes narrower.
 3 Reason (R): In Young’s double slit experiment,
cm. A plane mirror fixed at a height of 5 cm from D
fringe width is given by relation B = .
the surface of water. Distance of image from the d
mirror after reflection from it of an object O at the (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
bottom of the beaker is; true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
5 cm (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
10 cm explanation of Assertion (A).
cm O'' (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
''''''
O (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
(1) 15 cm (2) 12.5 cm
34. When an independent positive charge moves from
(3) 7.5 cm (4) 10 cm
higher potential to lower potential, then match the
entries of List-I with the entries of List-II.
30. A ray of light incident normally on an isosceles List-I List-II
right angled prism travels as shown in the figure. (A) Its kinetic energy (I) will remain
The least value of the refractive index of the prism constant
must be; (B) Its potential energy (II) will decrease
A (C) Its mechanical energy (III) will increase
(1) (A) – (III); (B) – (II); (C) – (I)
(2) (A) – (II); (B) – (III); (C) – (I)
(3) (A) – (III); (B) – (I); (C) – (II)
90° (4) (A) – (I); (B) – (II); (C) – (III)
C B
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) 1.5 (4) 2.0
35. The energy stored in a parallel plate capacitor is 39. In the Bohr model of a hydrogen atom, the
Q2 centripetal force is furnished by the coulomb
given by VE = . Now which of the following
2C attraction between the proton and the electron. If a0
statements is not true? is the radius of the ground state orbit, m is the mass
I. The work done in charging a capacitor is and e is charge on the electron and ε0 is the vacuum
stored in the form of electrostatic potential permittivity, the speed of the electron is;
Q2 e
energy given by expression VE = . (1) 0 (2)
2C 0 a0 m
II. The net charge on the capacitor is Q.
III. The magnitude of the net charge on one plate e 40 a0 m
(3) (4)
of a capacitor is Q. 40 a0 m e
(1) I only (2) II only
(3) I and II (4) I, II and III
40. Four lowest energy levels of H-atom are shown in
SECTION-B the figure. The number of possible emission lines
36. Assertion (A): Electromagnets are made of soft would be;
n=4
iron.
n=3
Reason (R): Coercivity of soft iron is small.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the n=2
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A). n=1
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
(1) 3 (2) 4
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
(3) 5 (4) 6
explanation of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
41. A radioactive sample at any instant has its
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
disintegration rate 5000 disintegrations per minute.
After 5 min, the rate becomes 1250 disintegration
37. Statement I: In Young's experiment, the fringe
per minute. Then, its decay constant (per minute)
width for dark fringes is different from that for
is;
bright fringes.
(1) 0.8 loge 2 (2) 0.4 loge 2
Statement II: In Young's double slit experiment
(3) 0.2 loge 2 (4) 0.1 loge 2
the fringes are performed with a source of white
light; then only black and white fringes are
42. What is the current in the circuit shown below?
observed.
PN 300 – 1V
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. – 4V
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect. (1) 0 A (2) 10–2 A
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is (3) 1 A (4) 0.10 A
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are 43. The output Y of the logic circuit shown in figure is
incorrect. best represented as;
A
38. Wavelength of first line in Lyman series is λ. The B Y
III
wavelength of first line in Balmer series is; C II
I
5 36
(1)  (2)  (1) A + B  C (2) A + B  C
27 5
27 5 (3) A + B  C (4) A + B  C
(3)  (4) 
5 36
44. If two waves represented by y1 = 4 sin ωt and e
48. If of electron is 1.76 × 1011 C kg–1 and stopping
  m
y2 = 3 sin  t +  interfere at a point, the
 3 potential is 0.71 V, then the maximum velocity of
amplitude of the resulting wave will be about; the photoelectron is;
(1) 7 (2) 6 (1) 150 km/s (2) 200 km/s
(3) 5 (4) 3.5 (3) 500 km/s (4) 250 km/s

45. In Young’s double slit experiment, an interference 49. What is the de-Broglie wavelength of the α-particle
pattern is obtained on a screen by a light of accelerated through a potential difference V?
wavelength 6000Å coming from the coherent (1)
0.287
Å (2)
12.27
Å
sources S1 and S2. At certain point P on the screen V V
third dark fringe is formed. Then the path 0.101 0.202
(3) Å (4) Å
difference S1P – S2P in microns is; V V
(1) 0.75 (2) 1.5
(3) 3.0 (4) 4.5 50. The variation of wavelength λ of the Kα line with
atomic number Z of the target is shown by the
46. In Young’s double slit experiment with sodium following curve of;
vapour lamp of wavelength 589 nm and the slits

0.589 mm apart, the half angular width of the A
central maximum is;
(1) sin–1 (0.01) (2) sin–1 (0.0001)
B
(3) sin–1 (0.001) (4) sin–1 (0.1) C
Z
47. The log-log graph between the energy 𝐸 of an (1) A
electron and its de-Broglie wavelength  will be; (2) B
(3) C
(4) None of these
log 

log 

(1) log E (2) log E

log 

log 

(3) log E (4) log E

 Sample Paper- 03 Class 12th NEET (2024)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 6. Statement I: [Cr(H2O)6]3+ is an inner orbital

1. CH3COOH ⎯⎯⎯
NH3 /Δ
→ X ⎯⎯⎯⎯
Br2 /NaOH
→Y complex.
Product Y is: Statement II: H2O is a strong field ligand
(1) C2H5Br generally.
(2) CH3Br (1) Statement I and statement II both are correct.
(3) CH3OH (2) Statement I and statement II both are
incorrect.
(4) CH3NH2
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect.
2. For a certain reaction of order ‘n’ the time for half (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
2 − 2 1/2 correct.
change t1/2 is given by; t1/2 =  c0 , where
K
K is rate constant and c0 is initial concentration. 7. Mass of urea required to prepare 2.5 kg of 0.25
The value of n is: molal aqueous solution is:
(1) 1 (1) 38.12 g (2) 39.20 g
(2) 2 (3) 36.95 g (4) 37.50 g
(3) 0
(4) 0.5 8. Consider the following half-cell reactions:
I. A + e– → A– ; Eo = 0.96 V
3. For a gaseous reaction, following data is given: II. B– + e– → B2– ; Eo = –0.12 V
→ B,k1 = 1015 e−2000 / T
A ⎯⎯ III. C+ + e– → C ; Eo = +0.18 V
IV. D2+ + 2e– → D ; Eo = –1.12 V
→ D,k 2 = 1014 e−1000 / T
C ⎯⎯ To attain maximum emf, the correct cell set up is:
The temperature at which k1 = k2 is: (1) A | A– || D2+ | D (2) A– | A || D2+ | D
(1) 1000 K (3) A– | A || D | D2+ (4) D | D2+ || A | A–
(2) 2000 K
(3) 868.82 K 9. At 600 K, for the following reaction,
(4) 434.2 K CH3Br + OH– → CH3 OH + Br–
only 0.01% of the total number of collisions are
1 effective. The energy of activation is:
4. E° for Cl2 + e– → Cl– is 1.36 V. What is E° for
2 (1) 11.05 kJ mol–1 (2) 45.95 kJ mol–1
2Cl– → Cl2 + 2e–? (3) 0.454 kJ mol–1 (4) 4.80 kJ mol–1
(1) –1.36 V
(2) 0.68 V 10. An aqueous solution containing 1 M each of Au3+,
(3) –0.68 V Cu2+, Ag+, Li+ is being electrolysed by using inert
(4) +1.36 V electrodes. The values of standard potentials are:
E = 0.80 V, E = 0.34 V,
Ag + /Ag Cu 2+ /Cu
5. Considering the formation, breaking and strength
of hydrogen bond, predict which of the following E = 1.50 V, E = −3.03 V,
Au 3+ /Au Li + /Li
mixtures will show a positive deviation from
With increasing voltage, the sequence of
Raoult’s law?
deposition of metals on the cathode will be:
(1) Methanol and acetone
(1) Li, Cu, Ag, Au (2) Cu, Ag, Au
(2) Chloroform and acetone
(3) Au, Ag, Cu (4) Au, Ag, Cu, Li
(3) Nitric acid and water
(4) Phenol and aniline
 17. Glucose can be tested by:
11. (1) Tollen’s reagent (2) Fehling’s reagent
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
The product of the above reaction is:

(1) (2) 18. The bond angles of NH3, NH +4 and NH −2 are in the
order:
(1) NH −2 > NH3 > NH +4
(3) (4)
(2) NH +4 > NH3 > NH −2
(3) NH3 > NH −2 > NH +4
12. What is the order of basicity of:
p-methylaniline, m-methylaniline (4) NH3 > NH +4 > NH −2
(I) (II)
Aniline, o-methylaniline 19. The density (in g mL–1) of a 3.6 M sulphuric acid
(III) (IV) solution, i.e., 29% H2SO4 (molar mass = 98 g
(1) I > II > III > IV mol–1) by mass will be:
(2) I > II > IV > III (1) 1.45
(3) IV > I > II > III (2) 1.64
(4) II > I > IV > III (3) 1.88
(4) 1.22
Dry ether H O
13. ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ 'A' ⎯⎯⎯
2 → 'B'
+
H
20. Statement I: Helium and neon have smallest
The product ‘B’ is: atomic size among all the elements of group 18.
(1) (2) Statement II: Noble gases have highest ionization
energies in their respective periods.
(3) (4) (1) Statement I and statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I and statement II both are
incorrect.
14. A solution of 18 g of non-volatile, non-electrolyte (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
solute in 150 g of water was found to have a boiling incorrect.
point of 100.34°C. If Kb value for water is 0.51 K (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
kg mol–1, what is the molar mass of the solute? correct.
(1) 180 (2) 60
(3) 100 (4) 342 21. Assertion (A): In Hunsdiecker reaction, alkyl
chloride is formed in poor yield .
15. Amongst the following, the most stable complex is:
Reason (R): In this reaction, carbanion is formed
(1) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Co(ox)3]3– as an intermediate.
3–
(3) [Co(ONO)6] (4) [CoF6]3– (1) Assertion and Reason both are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
16. Statement I: Mn2O7 is acidic in nature. (2) Assertion and Reason both are true and
Statement II: KMnO4 is purple in colour due to Reason is not the correct explanation of
charge transfer. Assertion.
(1) Statement I and statement II both are correct. (3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(2) Statement I and statement II both are (4) Assertion and Reason both are false.
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is 22. Transition metals are less reactive because of their:
incorrect. (1) high I.P. and low melting point
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is (2) high I.P. and high melting point
correct.
(3) low I.P. and low melting point
(4) low I.P. and high melting point
23. Which of the following is not an actinide? 28. In a reaction of aniline, a colored product C was
(1) Curium (2) Californium obtained:
(3) Uranium (4) Erbium

24. Assertion (A): Phenol does not react with

NaHCO3.
Reason (R): Phenol is less acidic than H2CO3.
(1) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true The structure of C would be:
and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
Assertion (A). (1)
(2) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are true
and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.
(2)
(4) Assertion (A) and Reason (R) both are false.

25. When acidified solution of K2Cr2O7 is shaken with

(3)
aqueous solution of FeSO4, then:
(1) Cr2O72− is reduced to Cr3+ ions

(2) Cr2O72− ion is converted to CrO24− ions (4)

(3) Cr2O72− ion is reduced to Cr

(4) Cr2O72− ion is converted to CrO3 29. Among the following, the least basic amine in
gaseous phase is:
26. Which of the following is NOT an aromatic (1) Ethanamine
alcohol? (2) N-Ethylethanamine
(3) N, N-Diethylethanamine
(4) Methanamine
(1)

30. The compound having least dipole moment is:

(1) CH3 – Br
(2) CH3 – F
(2)
(3) CH3 – Cl
(4) CH3 – I

31. Which among the following will exist as a pair of

(3)
enantiomers?
(1) CH3CH2CH2 – OH
(4) None of these
(2) CH 3CHCH 3
|
27. Decreasing order of reducing power of hydrogen OH
halides is:
(3) CH3CH2CH2CH2 – OH
(1) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
(2) HF > HI > HBr > HCl (4) CH 3CH 2 CHCH 3
|
(3) HI > HF > HBr > HCl OH
(4) None of these
32. Major product (P) of the following reaction is: SECTION-B
36. In a complex, CFSE depends on:
CH 3 (1) Oxidation state of metal ion
|
CH 3 – C – CH = CH 2 ⎯⎯⎯
HBr
→(P) (2) Strength of ligand
| (3) Series (3d or 4d or 5d) of transition metals of
CH 3 different metals of same group
(4) All of these
CH3
| 37. Among the following the one that is ambidentate
(1) CH 3 – C – CH 2 – CH 2 – Br ligand is:
| (1) NO−2 (2) NO3−
CH3
(3) NO (4) C2 O−4

CH3
| 38. Find P in the following reaction sequence:
(2) CH3 – C – CH – CH 3
| |
CH3 Br
O
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
o
2
o →A
100 −130

(3)
O
H3O+
||
⎯⎯⎯→ P + CH3 − C − CH 3

(4)
(1) (2)

33. The final product for the given reaction is:

(3) (4) Both (1) and (3)
CH3 – CO – CH2 CH3 ⎯⎯⎯⎯
conc. HNO3
→
(1) CH3 – CH2 – OH + CH3CH2COOH
(2) CH3 – COOH + CH3 – COOH 39. The melting point is highest for:
(3) CH3OH + CH3 – CH2 – CH2OH (1) Primary amines
(2) Secondary amines
(4) CH3 – CH2 – OH + HCOOH
(3) Tertiary amines
(4) Cannot be predicted
34. Which of the following compounds will form
yellow precipitate when treated with alkaline I2 40. The basic strength order for the following
solution? compounds is:
(1) C2H5CHO (2) CH3 – O – CH3
O O
|| ||
(3) CH 3 – C – CH 3 (4)
Ph – C –H

35. [Co(NH3)4Br2]Cl can show:

(1) Geometrical isomerism only (1) 1>2>3
(2) Both geometrical and optical isomerism (2) 3>2>1
(3) Both geometrical and ionization isomerism (3) 2>1>3
(4) 2>3>1
(4) Both optical and ionization isomerism
41. The total number of -bonds in the final product is: 46. Glucose does not react with which of the
following?
(1) HCN
(2) NH2OH
(3) C6H5NHNH2
(4) NaHSO3
(1) 4 (2) 5
(3) 3 (4) 6 47. The correct boiling point order is:
(1) HF > H2O > NH3
42. The potential value of pH of acidic amino acid is: (2) H2O > HF > NH3
(1) 3 (2) 7 (3) NH3 > H2O > HF
(3) 10 (4) 12 (4) HF > NH3 > H2O

43. Sucrose is an example of: 48. Match the reaction given in List-I with the
(1) Monosaccharide statements given in List-II.
(2) Disaccharide List-I List-II
(3) Trisaccharide (A) Ammonolysis (I) Amine with a
(4) Tetrasaccharide lesser number of
carbon atoms
44. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct (B) Gabriel (II) Detection test for
option. phthalimide primary amines
synthesis
List-I List-II
(C) Hoffmann- (III) Reaction of
(Reaction) (Reagent/catalyst)
bromamide phthalimide with
(A) Cannizzaro (I) SnCl2/HCl reaction KOH and R–X
reaction Carbylamine Reaction of alkyl
(D) (IV)
(B) Stephen’s (II) NaOH reaction halides with NH3
reaction (1) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
(C) Clemmensen (III) Zn/Hg-conc. HCl (2) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
reduction (3) (A) – (I), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (II)
(D) Rosenmund’s (IV) Pd / BaSO 4 (4) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
method Boiling xylene
(1) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV) 49. Alanine is __________.
(2) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV) (1) an enzyme
(3) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I) (2) purine base of nucleic acid
(4) (A) – (I), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (III) (3) hormone
(4) -amino acid
45. KMnO4 on treatment with concentrated H2SO4
forms a compound (X) which decomposes 50. In solid state, PBr5 exist as:
explosively on heating forming (Y). (X) and (Y) (1) PBr5 (2) [PBr4]+ [PBr6]–
respectively are: (3) [PBr6] [PBr4] (4) [PBr4]+ [Br]–
+ –
(1) Mn2O7, MnO2 (2) Mn2O, Mn2O3
(3) MnSO4, Mn2O3 (4) Mn2O3, MnO2
 Sample Paper-03 Class 12th NEET (2024)

BOTANY
SECTION-A 8. How many meiotic (p) and mitotic divisions (q) are
1. From among the sets of terms given below, identify required for the development of 16 sperms from
those that are associated with the gynoecium. microspore mother cells in flowering plants?
(1) Stigma, ovule, embryo sac, placenta (1) p = 8 and q = 16
(2) Thalamus, pistil, style, ovule (2) p = 8 and q = 8
(3) Ovule, ovary, embryo sac, tapetum (3) p = 16 and q = 16
(4) Ovule, stamen, ovary, embryo sac (4) p = 2 and q = 16
2. Choose the correct statement from the following:
9. How many types of gametes are possible in the
(1) Cleistogamous flowers always exhibit
autogamy organism with the genotype AaBbCcDd?
(2) Chasmogamous flowers always exhibit (1) 32 (2) 4
geitonogamy (3) 8 (4) 16
(3) Cleistogamous flowers exhibit both autogamy
and geitonogamy 10. Mendel crossed a pure white-flowered recessive
(4) Chasmogamous flowers never exhibit pea plant with a dominant pure red-flowered plant.
autogamy The first generation of hybrids from the cross
should show;
3. The outermost and innermost wall layers of (1) 50% white-flowered and 50% red-flowered
microsporangium in an anther are respectively: plants.
(1) Endothecium and tapetum (2) all red-flowered plants.
(2) Epidermis and endodermis
(3) 75% red-flowered and 25% white-flowered
(3) Epidermis and middle layer
plants.
(4) Epidermis and tapetum
(4) all white-flowered plants.
4. The total number of nuclei involved in double
fertilisation in angiosperm are; 11. From the following test cross result, find out the
(1) two. (2) three. map distance between the genes A and B.
(3) four. (4) five. (a) Purple flower, long pollen (AaBb): 900
(b) Purple flower, round pollen (Aabb): 320
5. If tetraploid male plant is crossed with diploid (c) White flower, long pollen (aaBb): 315
female plant what will be ploidy level of (d) White flower, round pollen (aabb): 920
endosperm cells in the resulting seed is? (1) 36.7 mu (2) 25.8 mu
(1) 8n (2) 5n (3) 34.8 mu (4) 2.8 mu
(3) 4n (4) 3n
12. Male heterogamy is found in case of;
6. Assertion (A): Perisperm is a haploid tissue.
(1) XO type male in grasshopper.
Reason (R): Perisperm is the remains of nucellus
which surround the embryo in certain seeds. (2) XY type male in human.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the (3) ZW male in birds.
true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation (4) both (1) and (2)
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the 13. A boy has normal brother and a colour blind sister.
true, but Reason (R) is not a correct What is true about his parents?
explanation of Assertion (A). (1) His father was normal but mother was colour
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false. blind.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. (2) His father was colour blind but mother was
normal.
7. If 'Z' is an example of a very old viable seed (3) Both father and mother were colour blind.
excavated from Arctic tundra. Then 'z' is;
(4) Both father and mother were normal.
(1) Victoria. (2) date palm.
(3) neelakuranji. (4) lupine.
14. If a negro marries a white skin female, the 21. How many codons are used to code for all the 20
mulattoes are born. If such mulattoes intermarry, essential amino acids, in the genetic code dictionary?
progeny will show a gradual gradation of skin (1) 20 (2) 64
colour in the ratio of; (3) 61 (4) 60
(1) 9:3:3:1.
(2) 1:4:6:4:1. 22. Beta-galactosidase is synthesised by E.coli to
(3) 1:4:6:15:20:15:6:4:1. catalyse hydrolysis of _______ into _________and
(4) 1:6:15:20:15:6:1. glucose.
(1) galactose; lactose
15. A test cross (cross between F1 hybrid progeny and (2) galactose; glucose
parents either male (dominant) or female recessive) (3) lactose; galactose
is performed to distinguish between; (4) maltose; galactose
(1) two homozygous form.
(2) two heterozygous forms. 23. In translation, the first phase is;
(3) a homozygous dominant and a heterozygous (1) binding of mRNA to ribosome.
recessive form. (2) recognition of DNA molecule.
(4) a homozygous recessive and heterozygous (3) aminoacylation of trna.
dominant form. (4) recognition of an anti-codon.

16. How many genotypes and phenotypes are possible 24. With regard to mature mRNA in eukaryotes;
in inheritance of blood groups of human? (1) exons and introns do not appear in the mature
(1) 9,4 (2) 3,2 RNA.
(3) 3,3 (4) 6,4 (2) exons appear, but introns do not appear in the
mature RNA.
17. Which idea is depicted by a cross in which the F1 (3) introns appear but exons do not appear in the
generation resembles both the parents? mature RNA.
(1) Inheritance of one gene (4) both exons and introns appear in the mature
(2) Co-dominance RNA.
(3) Incomplete dominance
(4) Complete dominance 25. The RNA polymerase holoenzyme transcribes;
(1) the promoter, structural gene and the
18. In human beings 45 chromosomes/single X/XO terminator region.
abnormality causes; (2) the promoter and the terminator gene.
(1) Down’s syndrome. (3) the structural gene and the terminator regions.
(2) Klinefelter’s syndrome. (4) the structural gene only.
(3) Turner's syndrome.
(4) Edward's syndrome. 26. While analysing the DNA of an organism a total
number of 5,386 nucleotides were found out of
19. In three dimensional view the molecule of tRNA is; which the proportion of different bases were:
(1) L-shaped. (2) S-shaped. Adenine = 29%, Guanine = 17%, Cytosine = 32%
(3) Y-shaped. (4) E-shaped. and Thymine = 17%. Considering the Chargaff's
rule, it can be concluded that:
20. Which of the following is similar in DNA and RNA (1) it is a double-stranded circular DNA.
is that; (2) it is single-stranded DNA.
(1) both are polymer of nucleotides. (3) it is a double-stranded linear DNA.
(2) both have similar pyrimidine. (4) no conclusion can be drawn.
(3) both have similar sugar.
(4) both are genetic material.
27. The Severo Ochoa enzyme is; 32. Which one of the following is not a functional unit
(1) DNA polymerase. of an ecosystem?
(2) reverse transcriptase. (1) Energy flow (2) Decomposition
(3) polynucleotide phosphorylase. (3) Productivity (4) Stratification
(4) DNA development DNA polymerases.
33. What is common to Lantana, Eichhornia and
28. Biomass available for consumers and rate of African catfish?
(1) All are endangered species of India.
formation of new organic matter by consumers are
(2) All are key stone species.
respectively;
(3) All are mammals found in India.
(1) gross primary productivity and net primary
(4) All the species are neither threatened, nor
Productivity. indigenous species of India.
(2) net primary productivity and gross primary
Productivity. 34. Assertion(A): Equador has up to 10 times as many
(3) gross primary productivity and secondary species of vascular plants as a forest of the Midwest
Productivity. of the USA.
(4) net primary productivity and secondary Reason (R): In general, species diversity decreases
Productivity. as we move away from the equator toward the
poles.
29. Statement-I: In an ecosystem, abiotic factors (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
include the living components. true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
of Assertion (A).
Statement-II: In an ecosystem biotic factors include the
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the
non-living components true, but Reason (R) is not a correct
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. explanation of Assertion (A).
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is (3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
incorrect. (4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct. 35. Sacred groves in India are related with;
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are (1) aesthetic pleasure.
(2) the place where threatened species are
incorrect.
Protected.
(3) the place where only artificial plant breeding
30. Statement-I: Those animals that depend on the
is allowed.
primary carnivores for food are secondary (4) forest patches around the places of worship.
consumers.
Statement-II: Prime source of energy is sun for SECTION-B
grazing food chain. 36. In the rivet popper hypothesis A species that has an
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. important role in ecosystem can be compared to;
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is (1) a rivet on the wings.
incorrect. (2) a rivet on the seats.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is (3) rivets inside the window pan.
correct. (4) all of these.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are incorrect.
37. Maximum bird species can be observed in;
31. If 40 J of energy is trapped at producer level, then (1) Colombia located near the equator.
(2) New York at 41°.
how much energy will be available to eagle as food
(3) Greenland at 71° N.
in the following food chain?
(4) India.
Plant → Mice → Snake → eagle
(1) 0.04 J (2) 0.004 J 38. If B = 0.55, D = 0.45 and N = 1000, then dN/dt _____.
(3) 0.4 J (4) 0.0004 J (1) 5500 (2) 1000
(3) 100 (4) 4500
39. Competition is a rivalry between two or more 45. Which of the following is put into anaerobic sludge
organisms for obtaining the same resources. It is a digester for further sewage treatment?
type of; (1) Primary sludge
(1) positive interaction. (2) Floating debris
(2) negative interaction. (3) Effluents of primary treatment
(3) neither positive nor negative interaction.
(4) Activated sludge
(4) symbiotic relationship.

40. Which one of the following is not a parasitic 46. BOD of waste water is estimated by measuring the
adaptation? amount of;
(1) Development of adhesive organs (1) total organic matter.
(2) Loss of digestive organs (2) biodegradable organic matter.
(3) Loss of reproductive capacity (3) oxygen evolution.
(4) Loss of unnecessary sense organs (4) oxygen consumption.

41. Which one is true? 47. Glomus form a symbiotic relationship with plant…..
(1) Commensalism is when none of the (1) leaves
interacting partners affect each other.
(2) stem
(2) Symbiosis is when the interaction is useful to
both the interacting partners. (3) root
(3) Symbiosis is when populations affect each (4) stem and root
other.
(4) Commensalism is when the interaction is 48. Baculoviruses are pathogens that;
useful to both the partners. (1) attack insect and arthropods.
(2) placed in genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus.
42. A biologist studied the population of rats in a barn. (3) shows specific insecticidal application.
He found that the average natality was 250, average (4) all of these.
mortality 240, immigration 20 and emigration 30.
The net increase in population is; 49. What is the genetic disorder in which an individual has
(1) 05 (2) zero
an overall masculine development, gynaecomastia and
(3) 10 (4) 15
is sterile?
43. Which of the following is correct for r-selected (1) Down's syndrome
species? (2) Turner’s syndrome
(1) Large number of progeny with small size (3) Klinefelter's syndrome
(2) Large number of progeny with large size (4) Edward syndrome
(3) Small number of progeny with small size
(4) Small number of progeny with large size 50. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must
fulfil the traits given below, except;
44. Which of the following is correctly matched for the (1) it should be able to express itself in the form
product produced by them? of 'Mendelian characters'.
(1) Methanobacterium: Lactic acid
(2) it should be able to generate its replica.
(2) Penicillium notatum: Acetic acid
(3) Sacchromyces cerevisiae: Ethanol (3) it should be unstable structurally and
(4) Acetobacter aceti: Antibiotics Chemically.
(4) it should provide the scope for slow changes
that are required for evolution.
Sample Paper-03 Class 12th NEET (2024)

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A 5. No menstruation cycle occurs;

1. Assertion (A): Formation of sperm takes place in (a) before puberty.
seminiferous tubules of testes. (b) after 50 years.
Reason (R): Seminiferous tubules is lined with (c) during lactation.
male germ cells only. (d) between puberty and menopause.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true (1) (a) and (b)
and Reason (R) is correct explanation of (2) (a), (b) and (c)
Assertion (A). (3) (c) and (d)
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
but Reason (R) is not correct explanation of
Assertion (A). 6. At the time of pregnancy, the corpus luteum
(3) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false. secretes ____________ which maintains
(4) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true. pregnancy.
(1) relaxin (2) oxytocin
2. Which of the following lists correct constituents (3) prolactin (4) progesterone
of mammalian testes?
(1) Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells, Leydig cells 7. Which among the following statements is correct
(2) Graafian follicles, Sertoli cells, Seminiferous to indicate the difference between sperm and egg?
tubules (1) Cytoplasm in sperm is more abundant than in
(3) Sertoli cells, Seminiferous tubules, Leydig egg.
cells (2) Nucleus is clear in sperm and very compact
(4) Graafian follicles, Leydig cells, Seminiferous in egg.
tubules (3) Mitochondria form a sheath in egg and
diffuse in sperm.
3. Layers of an ovum from outside to inside is;
(1) corona radiata, zona pellucida and vitelline (4) Accessory membrane are absent in sperm but
oolemma. present in egg.
(2) zona pellucida, corona radiata and vitelline
oolemma. 8. Which of the following can be taken as
(3) vitelline membrane, zona pellucida and
corona radiata. characteristic demographic features of the
(4) zona pellucida, vitelline membrane and developing countries?
corona radiata. (a) High fertility rate
(b) Rapidly rising mortality rate
4. Which match(es) is/are incorrect? (c) Very young age distribution
(a) Spermatogonium – 46 chromosomes (d) Rapid population growth
(b) Spermatid – 46 chromosomes (e) Rapidly falling mortality rate
(c) Sperm – 23 chromosomes (f) Very old age distribution
(d) Secondary spermatocyte – 23 chromosomes (1) (a), (b) and (d)
(1) Only (b) (2) (a), (c), (d) and (e)
(2) (a), (b) and (c) (3) (a), (b), (c) and (e)
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (d) and (e)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
9. Which of the following methods prevent 14. Life cannot originate from inorganic materials at
conception? present because of;
(a) Increase in the thickness of cervical mucus (1) the high degree of environmental pollution.
(b) By preventing ovulation (2) very high amount of oxygen in the
(c) By making uterus unfit for implantation atmosphere.
(1) Only (b) (3) very high atmospheric temperature.
(2) Only (b) (4) the absence of raw materials.
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a) and (b) 15. Consider the following statements regarding the
genetic drift.
10. Sterilisation in males is ____________ and in (a) It is the change in the relative frequency with
females is ____________. which a gene variant (allele) occurs in a
(1) vasectomy; tubectomy population due to random sampling and
(2) tubectomy; vasectomy chance.
(3) vasectomy; vasectomy (b) The changes produced are always harmful to
(4) tubectomy; tubectomy the population.
(c) Changes due to genetic drift are not driven by
11. Which of the following define test tube baby environmental or adaptive pressures.
correctly? The correct statements include;
(1) Ova and sperms are collected and mixed in a (1) (a), (b) and (c)
test tube to form zygote. (2) (a) and (b)
(2) Ova and sperms are centrifuged in test tube (3) (a) and (c)
to form zygote. (4) (b) and (c).
(3) Ova and sperms are induced to fuse to form
zygote under controlled condition. 16. All these facts are true about the Neanderthal
(4) Embryogenesis is allowed to continue in test man except one. Identify it.
tube under controlled conditions. (1) Brain size was 1400 cc.
(2) They used hides to protect their bodies.
12. By the statement survival of the fittest, Darwin (3) They lived in east and central Asia about
meant that; 1,00,000– 40,000 years back.
(1) the strongest of all species survives. (4) Their fossils were discovered in Java in 1891.
(2) the most intelligent of the species survives.
(3) the cleverest of the species survives. 17. The unit of natural selection is the;
(4) the species most adaptable to changes (1) species.
survives. (2) individual organism.
(3) population.
13. Pasteur’s experiments and similar ones that (4) sub species.
followed, convinced most people that spontaneous
generation of life did not happen because; 18. What is golden rice?
(1) Pasteur was extremely meticulous. (1) A variety of rice grown along the yellow
(2) Pasteur did not boil his flask for a long time. river in China.
(3) Pasteur used very fine mesh screens to cover (2) Long-stored rice having yellow colour tint.
his flask. (3) Transgenic rice having the gene for beta-
(4) Pasteur’s swan-necked flasks ruled out the carotene.
objection that spoiled air could have (4) A wild variety of rice with yellow coloured
contaminated his experiments. grains.
19. Out of the following diseases which are caused 25. In colostrum, the antibodies that protect the
due to bacterial infection? newborn from certain diseases are of what type?
(a) Typhoid (1) IgG type
(b) Elephantiasis (2) IgA type
(c) Cholera (3) IgD type
(d) Tuberculosis (4) IgE type
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
(3) (a), (c) and (d). (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) 26. In which DNA sequence does the restriction
enzyme EcoR I always cleave the nitrogen
sequence?
20. Innate immunity is a _____ type of defence
(1) AAGCTT (2) GGATCC
mechanism.
(3) GAATTC (4) TGGCCA
(1) specific (2) non-specific
(3) congenital (4) Both (2) and (3)
27. Which of the following is the most accepted
definition of biotechnology by European
21. Interferon is protein that;
Federation of Biotechnology (EFB)?
(1) inactivates a virus.
(1) Maintenance of sterile ambiences for
(2) protects unattacked cells from virus.
enabling growth of desired
(3) prevents viruses from taking over the cellular
microbes/eukaryotic cells in large quantities.
machinery.
(2) Technique of using live organisms or
(4) Both (2) and (3)
enzymes from organisms to produce products
and processes useful to animals.
22. The microparticles coated with DNA to be
(3) Process which use genetically engineered
bombarded with gene guns for transformation are
animals only on a large scale for benefit of
composed of what?
mankind
(1) Silver or Platinum
(4) Integration of natural science and organisms
(2) Platinum or Zinc
cells, parts thereof and molecular analogies
(3) Silicon or Platinum
for products and services
(4) Gold or Tungsten

28. When a recombinant DNA is inserted within the

23. Ringworm disease in humans is caused by the
pathogen Microsporum, which belongs to the coding sequence of an enzyme, β -galactosidase;
same kingdom of organisms as? (1) this results in inactivation of the enzyme.
(1) Taenia, a tapeworm (2) this is called insertional inactivation.
(2) Wuchereria, a filarial worm (3) the colonies do not produce any colour.
(3) Rhizopus, a mould (4) All of these.
(4) Ascaris, a roundworm

24. Assertion (A): Cellular defence mechanism in 29. Function of ori site in a vector is to;
eukaryotes is RNAi. (1) initiate insertional inactivation.
Reason (R): RNAi is silencing of a specific (2) initiate replication.
tRNA. (3) code for the proteins involved in replication
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true of the plasmid.
and Reason (R) is correct explanation of (4) initiate antibiotic resistance.
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not correct explanation of 30. Gel electrophoresis is used for;
Assertion (A). (1) construction of rDNA.
(3) Only Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is (2) isolation of DNA.
false. (3) cutting of DNA.
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are (4) separation of DNA fragments according to
false. their size or length.
31. Which is true about RNAi process? SECTION-B
(1) It is a method of cellular defence. 36. A human female is born with millions of eggs
(2) It involves silencing of a specific mRNA due (primary oocyte at the time of birth, only some
to a complementary dsRNA molecule. 500 eggs get a chance of maturity). What is the
(3) dsRNA binds to mRNA and prevents its destiny of rest of the eggs?
translation. (1) Rest of the eggs differentiate back to thecal
(4) All of these. and granulosa cells.
(2) Rest of the eggs nurture the dominant
32. Assertion (A): Periodic abstinence is a method in follicular cell.
which couples avoid from coitus from day 17 to (3) Rest of the eggs move out of the ovary and
27 of menstrual cycle. are destroyed by leucocytes.
Reason (R): It is not a very effective method. (4) Rest of the eggs break down and are
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true absorbed, that is, degenerative follicular
and Reason (R) is correct explanation of atresia.
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true 37. A regular cycling woman is not menstruating,
but Reason (R) is not correct explanation of which one of the following is the most likely root
Assertion (A). cause of this?
(3) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false. (1) Maintenance of the hypertrophic endometrial
(4) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true. lining.
(2) Maintenance of high concentration of sex-
33. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct hormones in the bloodstream.
option. (3) Retention of well developed corpus luteum.
List I List II (4) Fertilisation of the ovum.
(A) Mons pubis (I) Embryo formation
38. Study the following sentences.
(B) Antrum (II) Sperm
(a) Testosterone influences the male secondary
(C) Inner cell (III) Female external
sexual characters.
embryo genitalia
(b) Gestation period in humans is approximately
(D) Acrosome (IV) Graafian follicle
266 days.
(1) (A)–(III), (B)–(IV), (C)–(II), (D)–(I)
(c) Bulbourethral glands secrete a vaginal
(2) (A)–(III), (B)–(IV), (C)–(I), (D)–(II)
lubricant.
(3) (A)–(III), (B)–(I), (C)–(IV), (D)–(II)
(d) Placenta secretes oxytocin.
(4) (A)–(I), (B)–(IV), (C)–(III), (D)–(II)
Identify the correct statements.
(1) (a) and (d)
34. Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted
(2) (b) and (c)
from;
(3) (c) and (d)
(1) dead bodies of humans gland.
(4) (a) and (b)
(2) pituitary gland of other mammals.
(3) pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs.
39. Which of the following statements is not correct
(4) adrenal glands of cattles.
about oral contraceptive pills?
(1) They have to be taken daily for a period of 21
35. Which is not true with respect to transgenic
days, starting preferably within the first five
animals and their contribution to human welfare?
days of menstrual cycle.
(1) Transgenic mice are being tested to ensure
(2) They contain small doses of progestogen-
safety of polio vaccine.
estrogen combination.
(2) Rosie’s milk contained human gene-insulin.
(3) They inhibit ovulation and implantation.
(3) Transgenic cows produce milk with less fat.
(4) Ovum and sperms are prevented from
(4) Transgenic sheep grow more wool.
physically meeting with the help of barriers.
40. Which of the following is true? 45. Which of the following is not a means of
(a) Generally MTP is safe during the first transmission of AIDS?
trimester. (1) Sexual contact with uninfected person
(b) Chances of contraception are nil until the (2) Transfusion of contaminated blood
mother breast-feeds the infant up to two (3) Sharing infected needles
years. (4) Child born to an HIV infected mother
(c) IUDs are very effective contraceptives.
(d) Pills may be taken up to one week after 46. Which of the following is a non-specific type of
coitus to prevent conception. defence that is present at the time of birth?
(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (1) Acquired Immunity
(3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (c) (2) Humoral immune response
(3) Cell mediated immunity
41. Select the false statement. (4) Innate immunity
(a) Dryopithecus was more ape-like.
(b) Ramapithecus was more man-like. 47. In the case of peppered moth (Biston betularia)
(c) Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus both were the black-coloured form became dominant over
hairy and walked like gorillas and the light-coloured form in England during
chimpanzees. industrial revolution. This is an example of;
(d) Homo erectus had brain capacity between (1) natural selection whereby the darker forms
650-800cc. were selected.
(e) Australopithecines lived in the East African (2) protective mimicry.
grassland probably 2 mya. (3) inheritance of darker colour character
(1) Only (b) (2) (b) and (c) acquired due to the darker environment.
(3) Only (d) (4) None of these (4) appearance of the darker coloured individuals
due to very poor sunlight.
42. Select the correct statements.
(a) The essence of Darwinian theory about 48. The role of DNA ligase in the construction of a
evolution is natural selection. recombinant DNA molecule involves;
(b) The rate of appearance of new forms is not (1) formation of phosphodiester bond between
linked to the life cycle or the life span. two DNA fragments.
(c) Adaptive ability is inherited. (2) formation of hydrogen bonds between sticky
(d) Mutation is random and directionless. ends of DNA fragments.
(1) (b) and (c) (2) (a), (c) and (d) (3) ligation of all purine and pyrimidine bases.
(3) Only (a) (4) All of these (4) None of these.

43. According to Hugo de Vries, speciation due to 49. Which of the following statements is true about
mutation is also known as saltation which means; bioreactor?
(1) single-step variation. (a) Bioreactor provides the optimal conditions
(2) variations at regular intervals. for obtaining the desired product.
(3) single-step large mutation. (b) Raw materials are biologically converted into
(4) huge change due to natural selection. specific products.
(c) A stirred tank reactor is horizontal in shape.
44. Mark the incorrect statement. (d) Large volume of cultures cannot be
(1) Each antibody has two antigen binding sites. processed.
(2) Typhoid infection promotes formation of (1) (a) and (b)
interferons. (2) (b) and (c)
(3) Antibody is represented as H2L2. (3) (c) and (d)
(4) Skin is part of physical barrier. (4) All of these
50. Critical research areas of biotechnology are;
(1) providing the best catalyst in the form of an
improved organism, usually a microbe or
pure enzyme.
(2) creating optimal conditions through
engineering for a catalyst to act.
(3) downstream processing technologies to
purify the protein organic compound.
(4) All of these.