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2nd PUC Physics Important MCQs

The document contains 15 multiple choice questions about electric charges and fields, and electric potential and capacitance. Some key points: 1) Questions 1-7 cover topics about electric charges and fields, including how charge is quantified and signs of charge on bodies. 2) Questions 8-11 cover electric potential, including how potential depends on charge and distance. Moving a positive charge to a higher potential point increases its potential energy. 3) Questions 12-15 cover capacitance and potential energy of charge configurations like charges on conducting spheres and at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. The final potential across parallel capacitors depends on their individual capacitances and initial potentials.

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Urav Sudhakar
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
1K views

2nd PUC Physics Important MCQs

The document contains 15 multiple choice questions about electric charges and fields, and electric potential and capacitance. Some key points: 1) Questions 1-7 cover topics about electric charges and fields, including how charge is quantified and signs of charge on bodies. 2) Questions 8-11 cover electric potential, including how potential depends on charge and distance. Moving a positive charge to a higher potential point increases its potential energy. 3) Questions 12-15 cover capacitance and potential energy of charge configurations like charges on conducting spheres and at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. The final potential across parallel capacitors depends on their individual capacitances and initial potentials.

Uploaded by

Urav Sudhakar
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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PARIVARTAN PHYSICS

PARIVARTAN PHYSICS
BOARD MCQ
Electric Charges and Fields

01. One metallic sphere A is given positive charge whereas another identical metallic
sphere B of exactly same mass as of A is given equal amount of negative charge.
Then,
(a) mass of A and mass of B still remain equal
(b) mass of A increases
(c) mass of B decreases
(d) mass of B increases

02. When 10 electrons are removed from a neutral metal sphere, then the charge
on the sphere becomes
(a) 16 μC (b) −16 μC
(c) 32 μC (d) −32 μC

03. Charge on α-particle is


(a) 4.8 10 C (b) 1.6 10 C
(c) 3.2 10 C (d) 6.4 10 C

04. Which of the following is correct regarding electric charge?


(i) If a body is having positive charge, then there is shortage of electrons.
(ii) If a body is having negative charge, then there is excess of electrons.
(iii) Minimum possible charge = ±1.6x10 C
(iv) Charge is quantised, i. e. Q= ± ne, where n = 1, 2, 3, 4 … ….

(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) (d) All of these

05. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk it


(a) gains electrons from silk (b) gives electrons to silk
(c) gains protons from silk (d) gives protons to silk

06. A comb runs through one’s dry hair attracts small bits of paper. This is due to
(a) comb is a good conductor
(b) paper is a good conductor
(c) the atoms in the paper get polarised by the charged comb
(d) the comb possesses magnetic properties

07. When a positively charged body is earthed electrons from the earth flow into the body. This
means the body becomes
(a) uncharged (b) charged positively
(c) charged negatively (d) an insulator

08. There are two charges + 1μC and + 5μC. The ratio of the forces acting on them will be

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(a) 1 : 5 (b) 1 : 1
(c) 5 : 1 (d) 1 : 25

09. The charges on two spheres are +7μC and −5 μC, respectively. They experience a force F.
If each of them is given an additional charge of − 2μC keeping the separation same, then
the new force of attraction will be
(a) F (b) F/ 2
(c) F / 3 (d) 2F

10. Two charges of equal magnitudes and at a distance r exert a force F on each other. If the
charges are halved and distance between them is doubled, then the new force acting on
each charge is
(a) F/ 8 (b) F / 4
(c) 4F (d) F/16

11. Two charges placed in air repel each other by a force of 10 N. When oil is introduced
between the charges, then the force becomes 2.5 x 10 N The dielectric constant of oil is
(a) 2.5 (b) 0.25
(c) 2.0 (d) 4.0

12. A charge q1 exerts some force on a second charge q2. If a third charge q3 is brought near
q2, then the force exerted by q1 on q2
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) remains the same (d) None of these

13. A cube of side b has a charge q at each of its vertices. The electric field due to this charge
distribution at the center of this cube will be times
(a) q/b (b) q/2b
(c) 32q/b (d) zero

14. The figure shows some of the electric field lines corresponding to an electric field. The
figure suggests

(a) E > E > E (b) E = E = E


(c) E = E > E (d) E = E < E

15. If E be the electric field strength of a short dipole at a point on its axial line and E that on
the equatorial line at the same distance, then
(a) E = 2E (b) E = 2E
(c) E = E (d) None of these

16. Electric field at a far away distance r on the axis of a dipole is E . What is the electric field at
a distance 2r on perpendicular bisector?
(a) (b) −
(c) (d) −

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17. When an electric dipole with electric dipole moment p is placed in a uniform electric field E,
then at what angle between p and E the value of torque will be maximum?
(a) 90° (b) 0°
(c) 180° (d) 45°

18. If the electric flux leaving and entering an enclosed surface respectively is φ1 and φ2, then
the electric charge inside the surface will be
(a) (φ + φ ) ε (b) (φ − φ ) ε
(c) (φ + φ ) /ε (d) (φ − φ ) /ε

19. If the flux of the electric field through a closed surface is zero, then
(i) the electric field must be zero everywhere on the surface
(ii) the electric field may be zero everywhere on the surface
(iii) the charge inside the surface must be zero
(iv) the charge in the vicinity of the surfaces must be zero
(a) (i), (ii) (b) (ii), (iii)
(c) (ii), (iv) (d) (i), (iii)

20. Consider the charge configuration and spherical Gaussian surface as shown in the figure.
Electric flux coming out of gaussian surface will be due to

(a) q (b) only the positive charges


(c) all the charges (d) + q and − q

QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY


01 D 02 A 03 C 04 D 05 B 06 C 07 A
08 B 09 A 10 D 11 D 12 C 13 D 14 C
15 B 16 A 17 A 18 B 19 B 20 C

MCQ Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance

01. Find the work done by some external force in moving a charge q = 4 µC from infinity to a
point, where electric potential is 10 V.
(a) 4 x 10 J (b) 2 x 10 J
(c) 8 x 10 J (d) 1 x 10 J

02. Equal charges are given to two spheres of different radii. The potential will
(a) be more on the smaller sphere
(b) be more on the bigger sphere
(c) be equal on both the spheres

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(d) depend on the nature of the materials of the spheres

03. Three charges 2𝑞, −𝑞, −𝑞 are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. At the centre
of the triangle,
(a) the field is zero but potential is non-zero
(b) the field is non-zero but potential is zero
(c) Both field and potential are zero
(d) Both field and potential are non-zero

04. In a region of constant potential


(a) the electric field is uniform
(b) the electric field is zero
(c) there can be no charge inside the region
(d) the electric field shall necessarily change if a charge is placed outside the region

05. Two plates are 2 cm apart and a potential difference of 10 V is applied between them, then
the electric field between the plates is
(a) 20 NC (b) 500 NC
(c) 5 NC (d) 250 NC

06. The electric potential V at any point 𝑂(x, y, z) all in meters in space is given by V=4x V . The
electric field at the point (1m, 0, 2m) in volt metre is
(a) 8 along negative X-axis (b) 8 along positive X-axis
(c) 16 along negative X-axis (d) 16 along positive Z-axis

07. The work done to move a charge along an equipotential from A to B


(a) cannot be defined as − ∫ 𝐸. 𝑑𝐼 (b) must be defined as − ∫ 𝐸. 𝑑𝐼
(c) is zero (d) can have a non-zero value

08. There is a uniform electric field of intensity E which is as shown. How many labelled points
have the same electric potential as the fully shaded point?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 8 (d) 11

09. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged, so that the potential on its surface is 10 V.
The potential at the center of the sphere is
(a) 0 V
(b) 10 V
(c) same as at point 5 cm away from the surface
(d) same as at point 25 cm away from the surface

10. Two conducting spheres A and B of radius a and b respectively are at same potential. The
ratio of surface charge densities of A and B is

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(a) b a (b) a b
(c) b a (d) a b

11. When a positive charge q is taken from lower potential to a higher potential point, then its
potential energy will
(a) decrease (b) increase
(c) remain unchanged (d) become zero

12. When one electron is taken towards the other electron, then the electric potential energy of
the system
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) remains unchanged (d) becomes zero

13. A capacitor of capacitance C1 is charged to potential V1 and then connected in parallel to


another capacitor of capacitance C2 and potential V2. Then final potential difference across
each capacitor will be
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

14. If three charges are placed at the vertices of equilateral triangle of charge q each, what is the
net potential energy, if the side of equilateral triangle is L cm?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

15. Three charges Q, + q and + q is placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side l as
shown in the figure. If the net electrostatic energy of the system is zero, then Q is equal to

(a) − (b) −𝑞
(c)+𝑞 (d) 𝑧𝑒𝑟𝑜

16. The capacity of a spherical conductor is


(a) (b)
(c) 4πε R (d) 4πε 𝑅

17. The capacity of parallel plate condenser depends on


(a) the type of metal used
(b) the thickness of plates
(c) the potential applied across on the plates
(d) the separation between the plates

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18. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is12 µF. If the distance between the plates is
doubled and area is halved, then new capacitance will be
(a) 8 µF (b) 6 µF
(c) 4 µF (d) 3µF

19. A parallel plate condenser has a capacitance 50 µF in air and 110 µF when immersed in an
oil. The dielectric constant K of the oil is
(a) 0.45 (b) 0.55
(c) 1.10 (d) 2.20

20. Three condensers each of capacitance 2 F are put in series. The resultant capacitance is
(a) 6 𝐹 (b) 𝐹
(c) 𝐹 (d) 5𝐹

QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY


01 A 02 A 03 B 04 B 05 B 06 A 07 C
08 B 09 B 10 A 11 B 12 B 13 A 14 C
15 A 16 C 17 D 18 D 19 D 20 C

01.(01) Find the work done by some external force in moving a charge q = 4 µC from infinity to
a point, where electric potential is 10 V.
(a) 4𝑥10 𝐽 (b) 2𝑥10 𝐽
(c) 8𝑥10 𝐽 (d) 1𝑥10 𝐽

02.(02) Equal charges are given to two spheres of different radii. The potential will
(a) be more on the smaller sphere
(b) be more on the bigger sphere
(c) be equal on both the spheres
(d) depend on the nature of the materials of the spheres

03.(05) Three charges 2𝑞, −𝑞, −𝑞 are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. At the
centre of the triangle,
(a) the field is zero but potential is non-zero
(b) the field is non-zero but potential is zero
(c) Both field and potential are zero
(d) Both field and potential are non-zero

04.(06) In a region of constant potential,

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(a) the electric field is uniform


(b) the electric field is zero
(c) there can be no charge inside the region
(d) the electric field shall necessarily change if a charge is placed outside the region

05.(11) Two plates are 2 𝑐𝑚 apart and a potential difference of 10 𝑉 is applied between them,
then the electric field between the plates is
(a) 20 𝑁𝐶 (b) 500 𝑁𝐶
(c) 5 𝑁𝐶 (d) 250 𝑁𝐶

06. (14) The electric potential V at any point 𝑂(x,y,z) all in metres) in space is given by 𝑉=4𝑥 𝑉
. The electric field at the point (1m, 0, 2m) in volt 𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑟𝑒 is
(a) 8, along negative X-axis
(b) 8, along positive X-axis
(c) 16, along negative X-axis
(d) 16, along positive Z-axis

07(01) The work done to move a charge along an equipotential from A to B


(a) cannot be defined as − ∫ 𝐸. 𝑑𝐼
(b) must be defined as − ∫ 𝐸. 𝑑𝐼
(c) is zero
(d) can have a non-zero value

08.(02) There is a uniform electric field of intensity E which is as shown. How many labelled
points have the same electric potential as the fully shaded point?

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 8 (d) 11

09.(04) A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged, so that the potential on its surface is 10
V. The potential at the centre of the sphere is
(a) 0 V
(b) 10 V
(c) same as at point 5 cm away from the surface
(d) same as at point 25 cm away from the surface

10.(11) Three concentric spherical shells have radii a b, and c 𝑐(𝑎 < 𝑏 < 𝑐) and have surface
charge densities σ, −σ and σ, respectively. If 𝑉 , 𝑉 and 𝑉 denote the potentials of the three
shell, … for 𝑐 = 𝑎 + 𝑏, we have
(a) 𝑉 = 𝑉 ≠ 𝑉 (b) 𝑉 = 𝑉 ≠ 𝑉
(c) 𝑉 ≠ 𝑉 ≠ 𝑉 (d) 𝑉 = 𝑉 = 𝑉

11. (01) When a positive charge q is taken from lower potential to a higher potential point, then
its potential energy will

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(a) decrease
(b) increase
(c) remain unchanged
(d) become zero

12.(02) When one electron is taken towards the other electron, then the electric potential energy
of the system
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains unchanged
(d) becomes zero

13.(06) Identify the wrong statement.


(a) The electrical potential energy of a system of two protons shall increase if the separation
between the two is decreased.
(b) The electrical potential energy of a proton-electron system will increase if the separation
between the two is decreased.
(c) The electrical potential energy of a proton-electron system will increase if the separation
between the two is increased.
(d) The electrical potential energy of a system of two electrons shall increase if the
separation between the two is decreased.

14.(09) If three charges are placed at the vertices of equilateral triangle of charge q each, what is
the net potential energy, if the side of equilateral triangle is l cm?
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

15.(10) Three charges Q, + q and + q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side
l as shown in the figure. If the net electrostatic energy of the system is zero, then Q is equal
to

(a) − (b) −𝑞
(c)+𝑞 (d) 𝑧𝑒𝑟𝑜

16.(03) The capacity of a spherical conductor is


(a) (b)
(c) 4πε R (d) 4πε 𝑅

17.(06) The capacity of parallel plate condenser depends on


(a) the type of metal used
(b) the thickness of plates

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PARIVARTAN PHYSICS

(c) the potential applied across on the plates


(d) the separation between the plates

18.(09) The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is12 µF. If the distance between the plates
is doubled and area is halved, then new capacitance will be
(a) 8 µF (b) 6 µF
(c) 4 µF (d) 3µF

19.(10) A parallel plate condenser has a capacitance 50 µF in air and 110 µF when immersed in
an oil. The dielectric constant K of the oil is
(a) 0.45 (b) 0.55
(c) 1.10 (d) 2.20

20.(02) Three condensers each of capacitance 2 F are put in series. The resultant capacitance is
(a) 6 𝐹 (b) 𝐹
(c) 𝐹 (d) 5𝐹

MCQ Current Electricity

01. Drift velocity v varies with the intensity of electric field as per the relation,
(a) v ∝ E (b) v ∝
(c) v ∝ constant (d) v ∝ E

02. When current flows through a conductor, then the order of drift velocity of electrons will
be
(a) 10 cms (b) 10 cms
(c) 10 cms (d) 10 cms

03. If n, τ and m respectively, represent the electron density, relaxation time and mass of the
electron, then the resistance R of a wire of length L and area of cross-section A will be
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

04. How much work is required to carry a 6 μC charge from the negative terminal to the
positive terminal of a 9 V battery?
(a) 54 x 10 J (b) 54 x 10 J
(c) 54 x 10 J (d) 54 x 10 J

05. The resistor of resistance R is connected to 25 V supply and heat produced in it is

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25 Js−1. The value of R is


(a) 225 Ω (b) 1 Ω
(c) 25 Ω (d) 50 Ω

06. The terminal potential difference of a cell is greater than its emf when it is
(a) being discharged (b) open circuit
(c) being charged (d) being either charged or discharged

07. Conductivity increases in the order of


(a) Al, Ag, Cu (b) Al, Cu, Ag
(c) Cu, Al, Ag (d) Ag, Cu, Al

08. If E is the emf of a cell of internal resistance r and external resistance R, then potential
difference across R is given as
(a) V = ( ) (b) V = E

(c) V = (d) V =
( ) ( )

09. Which of the following characteristics of electrons determines the current in a conductor?
(a) Drift velocity only (b) Thermal velocity only
(c) Both drift velocity and thermal velocity (d) Neither drift nor thermal velocity

10. A metal rod of length 10 cm and a rectangular cross-section of 1 cm × (1/2) cm is


connected to a battery across opposite faces. The resistance will be
(a) maximum when the battery is connected across 1cm x (1/2) cm faces
(b) maximum when the battery is connected across 10cm x (1) cm faces
(c) maximum when the battery is connected across 10cm x (1/2) cm faces
(d) same irrespective of the three faces

11. A charged particle having drift velocity of 7.5 x 10 ms in an electric field of


3 x 10 Vm , has a mobility (in m V S ) of
(a) 2.5 x 10 (b) 2.5 x 10
(c) 2.25 x 10 (d) 2.25 x 10

12. Which of the following graph represents the variation of resistivity (ρ) with temperature
(T) for copper?

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13. Two solid conductors are made up of same material, have same length and same resistance.
One of them has a circular cross-section of area A and the other one has a square cross-
section of area A . The ratio A / A is
(a) 1.5 (b) 1
(c) 0.8 (d) 2

14. Choose the correct statement.


(a) Kirchhoff’s first law of electricity is based on conservation of charge while the second
law is based on conservation of energy.
(b) Kirchhoff’s first law of electricity is based on conservation of energy while the second
law is based on conservation of charge.
(c) Kirchhoff’s both laws are based on conservation of charge.
(d) Kirchhoff’s both laws are based on conservation of energy.

15. The dimensions of mobility of charge carriers are


(a) [M T A ] (b) [M T A ]
(c) [M T A ] (d) [M T A ]

16. The temperature coefficient of resistance of an alloy used for making resistor is
(a) small and positive (b) small and negative
(c) large and positive (d) large and negative

17. The slope of the graph showing the variation of potential difference V on X -axis
and current on Y - axis gives conductor’s
(a) resistance (b) resistivity
(c) reciprocal of resistance (d) conductivity

18. The drift speed of electrons in copper wire of diameter d and length l is v. If the potential
difference across the wire is doubled, then the new drift speed becomes
(a) v (b) 2v
(c) 3v (d) v/2

19. If a wire is stretched to four times its length, then the specific resistance of the wire will
(a) become 4 times (b) become 1/4 times
(c) become 16 times (d) remain the same

20. To draw the maximum current from a combination of cells how should the cells be grouped?
(a) Parallel
(b) Series
(c) Depends upon the relative values of internal and external resistance
(d) Mixed grouping

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QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY


01 A 02 B 03 A 04 B 05 C 06 C 07 B
08 C 09 A 10 A 11 A 12 B 13 B 14 A
15 B 16 A 17 C 18 B 19 D 20 C

01.(05) Drift velocity v varies with the intensity of electric field as per the relation,
(a) v ∝ E (b) v ∝
(c) v ∝ constant (d) v ∝ E

02.(06) When current flows through a conductor, then the order of drift velocity of electrons
will be
(a) 10 cms (b) 10 cms
(c) 10 cms 1 (d) 10 cms

03.(02) If e, τ and m respectively, represent the electron density, relaxation time and mass of
the electron, then the resistance R of a wire of length l and area of cross-section A will be
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

04.(04) How much work is required to carry a 6μC charge from the negative terminal to the
positive terminal of a 9 V battery?
(a) 54 x 10 J (b) 54 x 10 J
(c) 54 x 10 J (d) 54 x 10 J

05.(06) The resistor of resistance R is connected to 25 V supply and heat produced in it is 25


Js−1. The value of R is
(a) 225 Ω (b) 1 Ω
(c) 25 Ω (d) 50 Ω

06. (01) The terminal potential difference of a cell is greater than its emf when it is
(a) being discharged
(b) open circuit
(c) being charged
(d) being either charged or discharged

07(04) Conductivity increases in the order of


(a) Al, Ag, Cu (b) Al, Cu, Ag
(c) Cu, Al, Ag (d) Ag, Cu, Al

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08.(06) If E is the emf of a cell of internal resistance r and external resistance R, then potential
difference across R is given as
(a) V = E /(R + r)
(b) V = E
(c) V = E /(1 + r/R)
(d) V = E /(1 + R/r)

09.(14) Which of the following characteristics of electrons determines the current in a


conductor?
(a) Drift velocity only
(b) Thermal velocity only
(c) Both drift velocity and thermal velocity
(d) Neither drift nor thermal velocity

10.(32) A metal rod of length 10 cm and a rectangular cross-section of 1cm × (1/2) cm is


connected to a battery across opposite faces. The resistance will be
(a) maximum when the battery is connected across 1cm x (1/2)cm faces
(b) maximum when the battery is connected across 10cm x (1)cm faces
(c) maximum when the battery is connected across 10cm x (1/2)cm faces
(d) same irrespective of the three faces

11. (01) A charged particle having drift velocity of 7.5 x10 ms in an electric field of
3 x10 Vm , has a mobility (in m V S ) of [NEET 2020]
(a) 2.5 x 10
(b) 2.5 x 10 −
(c) 2.25 x 10
(d) 2.25 x 10

12.(04) Which of the following graph represents the variation of resistivity (ρ) with
temperature (T) for copper?

13.(06) Two solid conductors are made up of same material, have same length and same
resistance. One of them has a circular cross-section of area A and the other one has a square
cross-section of area A . The ratio A / A is
[NEET 2020]
(a) 1.5 (b) 1
(c) 0.8 (d) 2

14.(55) Choose the correct statement.

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[CG PMT 2015]


(a) Kirchhoff’s first law of electricity is based on conservation of charge while the second
law is based on conservation of energy.
(b) Kirchhoff’s first law of electricity is based on conservation of energy while the second
law is based on conservation of charge.
(c) Kirchhoff’s both laws are based on conservation of charge.
(d) Kirchhoff’s both laws are based on conservation of energy.

15.(77) The dimensions of mobility of charge carriers are [Kerala CEE 2014]
(a) [M T A ]
(b) [M T A ]
(c) [M T A ]
(d) [M T A ]
(e) [M T A ]

16.(78) The temperature coefficient of resistance of an alloy used for making resistor is [Kerala
CEE 2014]
(a) small and positive
(b) small and negative
(c) large and positive
(d) large and negative
(e) zero

17.(101) Which one of the following electrical meter has the smallest resistance? [Kerala CET
2013]
(a) Ammeter
(b) Milliammeter
(c) Galvanometer
(d) Voltmeter
(d) Millivoltmeter

18.(104) The drift speed of electrons in copper wire of diameter d and length l is v. If the potential
difference across the wire is doubled, then the new drift speed becomes [Kerala CET 2013]
(a) v (b) 2v
(c) 3v (d) v/2
(e) v/4

19.(106) If a wire is stretched to four times its length, then the specific resistance of the wire will
[MP PMT 2013]
(a) become 4 times
(b) become 1/4 times
(c) become 16 times
(d) remain the same

20.(122) To draw the maximum current from a combination of cells, how should the cells be
grouped? [UP CPMT 2012]
(a) Parallel
(b) Series

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(c) Depends upon the relative values of internal and external resistance
(d) Mixed grouping
MCQ Moving Charges & Magnetism

01. Which of the following gives the value of magnetic field due to a small current element
according to Biot-Savart’s law?
∆ µ ∆
(a) (b)
µ ∆ µ ∆
(c) (d)

02. Magnetic field at a distance r from an infinitely long straight conductor carrying steady
current varies as
(a) 1/r (b) 1/ r
(c) 1/r (d) 1/ √r

03. The current is flowing from right to left direction along a power line. The direction of
magnetic field above the power line is
(a) away from observer (b) towards the observer
(c) cannot be determined (d) none of these

04. The magnetic field produced at the center of a current carrying circular coil of radius r is
(a) directly proportional to r (b) inversely proportional to r
(c) directly proportional to r (d) inversely proportional to r

05. An arc of a circle of radius R subtends an angle π / 2 at the centre. It carries a current I. The
magnetic field at the centre will be
µ µ
(a) (b)
µ µ
(c) (d)

06. The ratio of the magnetic field at center of a current carrying circular coil of the radius ‘a’
and at a distance ‘a’ from center of the coil on the axis of coil is
(a) (b) √2

(c) (d) 2√2

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07. While using Ampere’s law to determine the magnetic field inside a straight long solenoid, the
loop that is taken is
(a) a circular loop, co-axial with the solenoid
(b) a rectangular loop in a plane is perpendicular to the axis of the solenoid
(c) a rectangular loop in a plane containing the axis of the solenoid, the loop being totally
within the solenoid
(d) a rectangular loop in a plane containing the axis of the solenoid, the loop being partly
inside the solenoid and partly outside it

08. A strong magnetic field is applied on a stationary electron, then the electron
(a) moves in the direction of the field (b) moves in an opposite direction of the field
(c) remains stationary (d) starts spinning

09. A particle of mass m and charge Q moving with a velocity V enters a region of uniform
magnetic field of induction B. Then its path in the region is
(a) always circular (b) circular if V × B = 0
(c) circular if V . B = 0 (d) None of the above

10. An electron is moving in a circular path of radius r with speed V in a transverse magnetic
field B. The value of e /m for it will be
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

11. When a charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field its trajectory is
(a) always circular (b) Circular when θ = 0
(c) Circular when θ = 90 (d) Circular when 0 < θ < 90

12. A proton and an electron both moving with the same velocity V enter into a region of
magnetic field directed perpendicular to the velocity of the particles. They will now move in
circular orbits such that
(a) their time periods will be same
(b) the time period for proton will be higher
(c) the time period for electron will be higher
(d) their orbital radii will be same

13. Two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction attract each other because of
(a) potential difference between them (b) mutual inductance between them
(c) electric force between them (d) magnetic force between them

14. Two parallel conductor A and B of equal length carry currents I and 10I respectively, in the
same direction then
(a) A and B will repel each other with same force
(b) A and B will attract each other with same force
(c) A will attract B but B will repel A

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(d) A and B will attract each other with different forces

15. Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance d carry a current I ampere in the same
direction. They will
(a) attract each other with a force of µ i/2πd
(b) repel each other with a force of µ i /2πd
(c) attract each other with a force of µ i /2πd
(d) repel each other with a force of µ i/2πd

16. In a moving coil galvanometer, the deflection of the coil θ is related to the electrical current
I by the relation
(a) I ∝ tanθ (b) I ∝ θ
(c) I ∝ θ (d) I ∝ √θ

17. In order to increase the sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer one should decrease
(a) the strength of its magnet (b) the torsional constant of its suspension
(c) the number of turns in its coil (d) the area of its coil

18. Biot-Savart’s law indicates that the moving electrons (velocity v) produce a magnetic field B
such that
(a) B is perpendicular to v
(b) B is parallel to v
(c) it obeys inverse cube law
(d) it is along the line joining the electron and point of observation

19. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed V. It produces a magnetic field B
at the center of the circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

20. Two wires of same length are shaped into a square and a circle. If they carry same current,
then ratio of the magnetic moment is
(a) 2 ∶ π (b) π ∶ 2
(c) π ∶ 4 (d) 4 ∶ π

QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY


01 C 02 B 03 D 04 B 05 B 06 D 07 D
08 C 09 C 10 A 11 A 12 B 13 D 14 B
15 C 16 B 17 B 18 A 19 C 20 C

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MCQ Moving Charges & Magnetism

01.(01) Which of the following gives the value of magnetic field due to a small current element
according to Biot-Savart’s law?
∆/ µ ∆/
(a) (b)
µ ∆/ µ ∆/
(c) (d)

02.(02) Magnetic field at a distance r from an infinitely long straight conductor carrying steady
current varies as
(a) 1/r (b)1 / r
(c) 1/r (d)1 / √r

03.(04) The current is flowing in south direction along a power line. The direction of magnetic
field above the power line (neglecting earth’s field) is
(a) south (b) east
(c) north (d) west

04.(06) The magnetic field produced at the centre of a current carrying circular coil of radius r
is
(a) directly proportional to r
(b) inversely proportional to r
(c) directly proportional to r
(d) inversely proportional to r

05.(12) An arc of a circle of radius R subtends an angle π / 2 at the centre. It carries a current i.
The magnetic field at the centre will be
µ µ
(a) (b)
µ µ
(c) (d)

06.(16) The ratio of the magnetic field at centre of a current carrying coil of the radius a and at a
distance a from centre of the coil to the axis of coil is
(a) (b) √2

(c) (d) 2√2

07(19) While using Ampere’s law to determine the magnetic field inside a straight long solenoid,
the loop that is taken is
(a) a circular loop, co-axial with the solenoid
(b) a rectangular loop in a plane is perpendicular to the axis of the solenoid (c) a rectangular
loop in a plane containing the axis of the solenoid, the loop being totally within the solenoid
(d) a rectangular loop in a plane containing the axis of the solenoid, the loop being partly
inside the solenoid and partly outside it

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08.(01) A strong magnetic field is applied on a stationary electron, then the electron
(a) moves in the direction of the field
(b) moves in an opposite direction of the field
(c) remains stationary
(d) starts spinning

09.(02) A particle of mass m and charge Q moving with a velocity v enters a region of uniform
magnetic field of induction B. Then, its path in the region is
(a) always circular
(b) circular, if v × B = 0
(c) circular, if v ⋅ B = 0
(d) None of the above

10.(03) An electron is moving in a circular path of radius r with speed v in a transverse magnetic
field B. The value of e /m for it will be
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

11. (07) When a charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field, then its kinetic energy
(a) remains constant
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) becomes zero

12.(09) A proton and an electron both moving with the same velocity v enter into a region of
magnetic field directed perpendicular to the velocity of the particles. They will now move in
circular orbits such that
(a) their time periods will be same
(b) the time period for proton will be higher
(c) the time period for electron will be higher
(d) their orbital radii will be same

13.(02) Two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction attract each other because of
(a) potential difference between them (b) mutual inductance between them
(c) electric force between them
(d) magnetic force between them

14.(03) Two parallel conductor A and B of equal length carry currents I and 10I, respectively, in
the same direction, then (a) A and B will repel each other with same force
(b) A and B will attract each other with same force
(c) A will attract B but B will repel A
(d) A and B will attract each other with different forces

15.(04) Two thin long parallel wires, separated by a distance d carry a current i ampere in the
same direction. They will (a) attract each other with a force of µ i/2πd
(b) repel each other with a force of µ i /2πd

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(c) attract each other with a force of µ i /2πd


(d) repel each other with a force of µ i/2πd

16.(10) In a moving coil galvanometer, the deflection of the coil θ is related to the electrical
current i by the relation
(a) i ∝ tanθ (b) i ∝ θ
(c) i ∝ θ (d) i ∝ √θ

17.(11) In order to increase the sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer one should decrease
(a) the strength of its magnet
(b) the torsional constant of its suspension
(c) the number of turns in its coil
(d) the area of its coil

18.(01) Biot-Savart’s law indicates that the moving electrons (velocity, v) produce a magnetic
field B such that
[NCERT Exemplar]
(a) B is perpendicular to v
(b) B is parallel to v
(c) it obeys inverse cube law
(d) it is along the line joining the electron and point of observation

19.(24) An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field
B at the centre of the circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

20.(25) Two wires of same length are shaped into a square and a circle. If they carry same
current, then ratio of the magnetic moment is
(a) 2 ∶ π (b) π ∶ 2
(c) π ∶ 4 (d) 4 ∶ π

QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY


01 C 02 B 03 D 04 B 05 B 06 D 07 D
08 C 09 C 10 A 11 A 12 B 13 D 14 B
15 C 16 B 17 B 18 A 19 C 20 C

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MCQ Magnetism and Matter

01. The net magnetic flux through any closed surface kept in a magnetic field is
(a) zero (b)
(c) 4πμ (d)

02. Which one of the following is a non-magnetic substance?


(a) Iron (b) Nickel
(c) Cobalt (d) Brass

03. The SI unit of magnetic permeability is


(a) A m (b) A − m
(c) Henry m (d) No unit

04. The unit of magnetic susceptibility is


(a) H (b) Wb/m
(c) A/m (d) None of these

05. An example of a diamagnetic substance is


(a) Aluminium (b) copper
(c) iron (d) nickel

06. The universal property of all substances is


(a) diamagnetism (b) ferromagnetism
(c) paramagnetism (d) All of the above

07. Which magnetic materials have negative susceptibility?


(a) Diamagnetic materials (b) Paramagnetic materials
(c) Ferromagnetic materials (d) All of these

08. Identify the paramagnetic substance.


(a) Iron (b) Aluminium
(c) Nickel (d) Hydrogen

09. Which of the following is true?


(a)Diamagnetism is temperature dependent
(b)Paramagnetism is temperature dependent
(c)Paramagnetism is temperature independent
(d) None of the above

10. Magnetic permeability is maximum for


(a) diamagnetic substance (b) paramagnetic substance
(c) ferromagnetic substance (d) All of these

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11. The temperature at which a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic is called a


(a) neutral temperature (b) Curie temperature
(c) inversion temperature (d) critical temperature

12. The only property possessed by ferromagnetic substance is


(a) hysteresis (b) susceptibility
(c) directional property (d) attracting magnetic substances

13. The permanent magnet is made from which one of the following substances?
(a) Diamagnetic (b) Paramagnetic
(c) Ferromagnetic (d) Electromagnetic

14. If the magnetising field on a ferromagnetic material is increased, its permeability


(a) decrease (b) increase
(c) is unaffected (d) may be increase or decrease

15. Nickel shows ferromagnetic property at room temperature. If the temperature is increased
beyond Curie temperature, then it will show
(a) paramagnetic (b) anti-ferromagnetism
(c) diamagnetism (d) no magnetic property

QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY


01 02 A 03 D 04 C 05 D 06 B 07 A
08 A 09 B 10 B 11 C 12 B 13 A 14 C
15 A 16 A 17

MCQ Electromagnetic Induction

01. The magnetic flux linked with a vector area A⃗ in a uniform magnetic field B⃗ is
(a) B⃗ x A⃗ (b) A⃗ x B⃗
(c) B⃗ . A⃗ (d) B⃗ / A⃗

02. The unit of magnetic flux is


(a) Wbm (b) Wb
(c) H (d) Am

03. The direction of induced emf during electromagnetic induction is given by


(a) Faraday’s law (b) Lenz’s law
(c) Maxwell’s (d) Ampere’s law

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04. Two different loops are concentric and lie in the same plane. The current in the outer loop
is clockwise and increasing with time. The induced current in the inner loop, is
(a) clockwise
(b) zero
(c) counter-clockwise
(d) in a direction that depends on the ratio of the loop radii

05. There is a uniform magnetic field directed perpendicular and into the plane of the paper.
An irregular shaped conducting loop is slowly changing into a circular loop in the plane
of the paper. Then,
(a) current is induced in the loop in the anti-clockwise direction
(b) current is induced in the loop in the clockwise direction
(c) AC is induced in the loop
(d) No current is induced in the loop

06. A conducting rod of length L is falling with a constant velocity v perpendicular to a uniform
horizontal magnetic field B. A potential difference between its two ends will be
a) 2 BLv (b) BLv
(c) BLv (d) B L v

07. A coil of N turns and mean cross-sectional area A is rotating with uniform angular velocity
ω about an axis at right angle to uniform magnetic field B. The induced emf E in the coil
will be
(a) NBAsinωt (b) NBωsinωt
(c) NB/Asinωt (d) NBAωsinωt

08. The SI unit of inductance, can be written as


(a) weber/(ampere) (b) volt − second/ampere
(c) joule/(ampere) (d) ohm − (second)

09. If a current of 10 A changes in one second through a coil, and the induced emf is 10 V,
then the self-inductance of the coil is
(a) H (b) H
(c) H (d) 1 H

10. The self-inductance of a long solenoid cannot be increased by


(a) increasing its area of cross-section
(b) increasing its length
(c) changing the medium with greater permeability
(d) increasing the current through it

11. The self-inductance of a coil is L. Keeping the length and area same, the number of turns
in the coil is increased to four times. The self-inductance of the coil will now be
(a) L (b) L

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(c) 4 L (d) 16 L

12.In circular coil, when number of turns is doubled and resistance becomes of initial,
then inductance becomes
(a) 4 times (b) 2 times
(c) 8 times (d) No change

13.The self-inductance of solenoid of length L, area of cross-section S and having N turns is


(a) (b)
(c) μ N SL (d) μ NSL

14. A 50 mH coil carries a current of 2 A. The energy stored in joules is


(a) 1 (b) 0.1
(c) 0.05 (d) 0.5

15. A solenoid is placed inside another solenoid, the length of both being equal carrying same
magnitude of current. The parameters like radius and number of turns are in the ratio
1: 2 for the two solenoids. The mutual inductance on each other would be
(a) M = M (b) M = 2M
(c) 2M = M (d) M = 4M

16. Two coils of self-inductances L1 and L2 are placed closer to each other, so that total flux
in one coil is completely linked with other. If M is mutual inductance between them, then
(a) M = L L (b) M = L /L
(c) M = L L (d) M = (L /L )

17. The self-inductance L of a solenoid of length l and area of cross-section A, with a fixed
number of turns N increases as
(a) Both l and A increase (b) l decreases and A increases
(c) l increases and A decreases (d) Both l and A decrease

18. In electromagnetic induction, the induced charge in a coil is independent of


(a) change in the flux (b) time taken to change the flux
(c) resistance in the circuit (d) None of the above

19. A coil and a bulb are connected in series with a DC source, a soft iron core is then inserted
in the coil, then
(a) intensity of the bulb remains the same (b) intensity of the bulb decreases
(c) intensity of the bulb increases (d) the bulb ceases to glow

20. A magnet is brought towards a coil (i) speedily (ii) slowly, then the induced emf/induced
charge will be respectively
(a) more in first case/more in first case
(b) more in first case/equal in both case

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(c) less in first case/more in second case


(d) less in first case/equal in both case

QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY


01 C 02 B 03 B 04 C 05 A 06 B 07 D
08 B 09 D 10 D 11 D 12 B 13 A 14 B
15 A 16 C 17 B 18 B 19 B 20 B

01.(01) The magnetic flux linked with a vector area A⃗ in a uniform magnetic field B⃗
is
(a) B⃗ x A⃗ (b) A⃗ x B⃗
⃗ ⃗
(c) B . A (d) B⃗ / A⃗

02.(02) The unit of magnetic flux is


(a) Wbm (b) Wb
(c) H (d) Am

03.(10) The direction of induced emf during electromagnetic induction is given by


(a) Faraday’s law (b) Lenz’s law
(c) Maxwell’s (d) Ampere’s law

04.(11) Two different loops are concentric and lie in the same plane. The current in the outer
loop is clockwise and increasing with time. The induced current in the inner loop, is
(a) clockwise
(b) zero
(c) counter-clockwise
(d) in a direction that depends on the ratio of the loop radii

05.(14) There is a uniform magnetic field directed perpendicular and into the plane of the
paper. An irregular shaped conducting loop is slowly changing into a circular loop in the
plane of the paper. Then,
(a) current is induced in the loop in the anti-clockwise direction
(b) current is induced in the loop in the clockwise direction
(c) AC is induced in the loop
(d) No current is induced in the loop

06.(01) A conducting rod of length L is falling with a constant velocity v perpendicular to a


uniform horizontal magnetic field B. A potential difference between its two ends will be
a) 2 BLv (b) BLv
(c) BLv (d) B L v

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07(09) A coil of N turns and mean cross-sectional area A is rotating with uniform angular
velocity ω about an axis at right angle to uniform magnetic field B. The induced emf E in
the coil will be
(a) NBAsinωt (b) NBωsinωt
(c) NB/Asinωt (d) NBAωsinωt

08.(01) The SI unit of inductance, can be written as


(a) weber/(ampere) (b) volt − second/ampere
(c) joule/(ampere) (d) ohm − (second)

09.(03) If a current of 10 A changes in one second through a coil, and the induced emf is 10
V, then the self-inductance of the coil is
(a) H (b) H
(c) H (d) 1 H

10.(08) The self-inductance of a long solenoid cannot be increased by


(a) increasing its area of cross-section
(b) increasing its length
(c) changing the medium with greater permeability
(d) increasing the current through it

11. (09) The self-inductance of a coil is L. Keeping the length and area same, the number of
turns in the coil is increased to four times. The self-inductance of the coil will now be
(a) L (b) L
(c) 4 L (d) L

12.(10) In circular coil, when number of turns is doubled and resistance becomes of
initial, then inductance becomes
(a) 4 times (b) 2 times
(c) 8 times (d) No change

13.(11) The self-inductance of solenoid of length L, area of cross-section S and having N turns
is
(a) (b)
(c) μ N SL (d) μ NSL

14.(13) A 50 mH coil carries a current of 2 A. The energy stored in joules is


(a) 1 (b) 0.1
(c) 0.05 (d) 0.5

15.(07) A solenoid is placed inside another solenoid, the length of both being equal carrying
same magnitude of current. The parameters like radius and number of turns are in the
ratio 1: 2 for the two solenoids. The mutual inductance on each other would be
(a) M = M (b) M = 2M

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(c) 2M =M (d) M = 4M

16.(08) Two coils of self-inductances L1 and L2 are placed closer to each other, so that total
flux in one coil is completely linked with other. If M is mutual inductance between them,
then
(a) M = L L (b) M = L /L
(c) M = L L (d) M = (L /L )

17.(02) The self-inductance L of a solenoid of length l and area of cross-section A, with a fixed
number of turns N increases as
(a) Both l and A increase (b) l decreases and A increases
(c) l increases and A decreases (d) Both l and A decrease

18.(03) In electromagnetic induction, the induced charge in a coil is independent of


(a) change in the flux (b) time taken to change the flux
(c) resistance in the circuit (d) None of the above

19.(04) A coil and a bulb are connected in series with a DC source, a soft iron core is then
inserted in the coil, then
(a) intensity of the bulb remains the same (b) intensity of the bulb decreases
(c) intensity of the bulb increases (d) the bulb ceases to glow

20.(05) A magnet is brought towards a coil (i) speedily (ii) slowly, then the induced
emf/induced charge will be respectively
(a) more in first case/more in first case
(b) more in first case/equal in both case
(c) less in first case/more in second case
(d) less in first case/equal in both case

MCQ Alternating Current

01. The frequency of a sinusoidal wave E = 0.40 cos [2000t + 0.80] would be
(a) 1000 π Hz (b) 2000 Hz
(c) 20 Hz (d) 1000/π Hz

02. If a 220 V, 50 Hz, AC is applied to a resistor then instantaneous value of voltage is


(a) 220 √2 sin100πt (b) 220 sin100πt
(c) 220 √2 sin50πt (d) 220sin50πt

03. The instantaneous current in an AC circuit is I = √2sin (50t + π /4). The rms value of
current is
(a) √2 A (b) 50 A
(c) 90 A (d) 1 A

04. Ohm’s law expressed as E = IR

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(a) can never be applied to AC


(b) applies to AC in the same manner as to DC
(c) always applies to AC circuits when Z is substituted for R
(d) tells us that E = 0.707(E ) for AC

05.An alternating current of rms value 10 A is passed through a 12 Ω resistor. The maximum
potential difference across the resistor is
(a) 20 V (b) 90 V
(c) 169.70 V (d) None of these

06. The capacity of a pure capacitor is 1 F. In DC circuits, its effective resistance will be
(a) zero (b) infinite
(c) 1 Ω (d) 1/2 Ω

07. An inductance and a resistance are connected in series with an AC potential. In this
circuit,
(a)the current and pd across the resistance lead pd across the inductance by phase angle
π/ 2
(b)the current and the pd across the resistance lag behind pd across the inductance by
an angle π/ 2
(c)the current and the pd across the resistance lag behind the pd across the inductance
by an angle π
(d)the pd across the resistance lags behind the pd across the inductance by an angle π/
2 but the current in the resistance leads the pd across inductance by π/ 2

08. In L-R circuit, resistance is 8 Ω and inductive reactance is 6 Ω, then impedance is


(a) 2 Ω (b) 14 Ω
(c) 4 Ω (d) 10 Ω

09.In an AC circuit, a resistance R is connected in series with an inductance L. If phase angle


between voltage and current be 45°, the value of inductive reactance will be
(a) R /4 (b) R /2
(c) R (d) cannot be found with the given data

10. With increase in frequency of an AC supply, the impedance of an L-C-R series circuit
(a) remains constant
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) decreases at first, becomes minimum and then increases

11. The value of current at resonance in a series L-C-R circuit is affected by the value of
(a) R only (b) C only
(c) L only (d) L,C and R

12. An L-C-R series circuit is connected to a source of alternating current. At resonance the
applied voltage and current flowing through the circuit will have a phase difference of

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(a) zero (b) π/ 4


(c) π/ 2 (d) π

13. A series L-C-R circuit is operated at resonance. Then


(a) voltage across R is minimum (b) impedance is minimum
(c) impedance is maximum (d) current amplitude is minimum

14. An L-C-R series circuit connected to a source E is at resonance. Then


(a) the voltage across R is zero
(b) the voltage across R equals applied voltage
(c) the voltage across C is zero
(d) the voltage across C equals applied voltage

15.What is increased in step-down transformer?


(a) Voltage (b) Current
(c) Power (d) Current density

16. A transformer works on the principle of


(a) self-induction (b) electrical inertia
(c) mutual induction (d) magnetic effect of the electrical current

17. Quantity that remains unchanged in a transformer is


(a) voltage (b) current
(c) frequency (d) None of these

18. The ratio of secondary to the primary turns in a transformer is 3 : 2. If the power output
be P, then the input power neglecting all losses must be equal to
(a) 5 P (b) 1.5 P
(c) P (d) (2/5)P

19. The transformation ratio in the step-up transformer is


(a) 1
(b) greater than one
(c) less than one
(d) the ratio greater or less than one depends on the other factors

20.The core used in a transformer and other electromagnetic devices is laminated so that
(a) ratio of voltage in the primary and secondary may be increased
(b) energy loss due to eddy currents may be minimised
(c) the weight of the transformer may be reduced
(d) residual magnetism in the core may be reduced

QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY


01 D 02 A 03 D 04 C 05 C 06 B 07 B
08 D 09 C 10 D 11 A 12 A 13 B 14 B
15 B 16 C 17 C 18 C 19 B 20 B

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MCQ Alternating Current

01.(01) The frequency of a sinusoidal waveE = 0.40 cos [2000t + 0.80]


would be
(a) 1000 π Hz (b) 2000 Hz
(c) 20 Hz (d) 1000/π Hz

02.(06) 220 V, 50 Hz, AC is applied to a resistor. The instantaneous value of voltage is


(a) 220 √2 100sin πt
(b) 220 100sin πt
(c) 220 √2 50sin πt
(d) 220 50sin πt

03.(07) The instantaneous current in an AC circuit is I = √2sin (50t + π /4). The rms value of
current is
(a) √2 A (b) 50 A
(c) 90 A (d) 1 A

04.(01) Ohm’s law expressed as E = IR


(a) can never be applied to AC
(b) applies to AC in the same manner as to DC
(c) always applies to AC circuits when Z is substituted for R
(d) tells us that E = 0.707(E ) for AC

05.(02) An alternating current of rms value 10 A is passed through a 12 Ω resistor. The


maximum potential difference across the resistor is
(a) 20 V (b) 90 V
(c) 169.70 V (d) None of these

06.(04) The capacity of a pure capacitor is 1 F. In DC circuits, its effective resistance will be
(a) zero (b) infinite
(c) 1 Ω (d) 1/2 Ω
07(09) An inductance and a resistance are connected in series with an AC potential. In this
circuit,
(a)the current and the potential difference across the resistance lead the PD across the
inductance by phase angle π/ 2
(b)the current and the potential difference across the resistance lag behind PD across the
inductance by an angle π/ 2
(c)the current and the potential difference across the resistance lag behind the PD across
the inductance by an angle π
(d)the PD across the resistance lags behind the PD across the inductance by an angle π/
2but the current in the resistance leads the PD across inductance by π/ 2

08.(10) In L-R circuit, resistance is 8 Ω and inductive reactance is 6 Ω, then impedance is


(a) 2 Ω (b) 14 Ω
(c) 4 Ω (d) 10 Ω

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09.(12) In an AC circuit, a resistance R is connected in series with an inductance L. If phase


angle between voltage and current be 45°, the value of inductive reactance will be
(a) R /4
(b) R /2
(c) R
(d) cannot be found with the given data

10.(18) With increase in frequency of an AC supply, the impedance of an L-C-R series circuit
(a) remains constant
(b) increases
(c) decreases
(d) decreases at first, becomes minimum and then increases

11. (20) The value of current at resonance in a series L-C-R circuit is affected by the value of
(a) R only (b) C only
(c) L only (d) L,C and R

12.(21) An L-C-R series circuit is connected to a source of alternating current. At resonance


the applied voltage and current flowing through the circuit will have a phase difference
of
(a) zero (b) π/ 4
(c) π/ 2 (d) π

13.(22) A series L-C-R circuit is operated at resonance. Then


(a) voltage across R is minimum
(b) impedance is minimum
(c) impedance is maximum
(d) current amplitude is minimum

14.(25) An L-C-R series circuit connected to a source E, is at resonance. Then,


(a) the voltage across R is zero
(b) the voltage across R equals applied voltage
(c) the voltage across C is zero
(d) the voltage across C equals applied voltage

15.(02) What is increased in step-down transformer?


(a) Voltage
(b) Current
(c) Power
(d) Current density

16.(03) A transformer works on the principle of


(a) self-induction
(b) electrical inertia

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(c) mutual induction


(d) magnetic effect of the electrical current

17.(04) Quantity that remains unchanged in a transformer is


(a) voltage (b) current
(c) frequency (d) None of these

18.(05) The ratio of secondary to the primary turns in a transformer is 3 : 2. If the power
output be P, then the input power neglecting all losses must be equal to
(a) 5 P (b) 1.5 P
(c) P (d) (2/5)P

19.(06) The transformation ratio in the step-up transformer is


(a) 1
(b) greater than one
(c) less than one
(d) the ratio greater or less than one depends on the other factors

20.(08) The core used in a transformer and other electromagnetic devices is laminated so that
(a) ratio of voltage in the primary and secondary may be increased
(b) energy loss due to eddy currents may be minimised
(c) the weight of the transformer may be reduced
(d) residual magnetism in the core may be reduced

QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY


01 D 02 A 03 D 04 C 05 C 06 B 07 B
08 D 09 C 10 D 11 A 12 A 13 B 14 B
15 B 16 C 17 C 18 C 19 B 20 B

MCQ Electromagnetic Waves

01. According to Maxwell’s hypothesis, a changing electric field gives rise to


(a) emf (b) electric current
(c) magnetic field (d) pressure radiant

02. Maxwell in his famous equation of electromagnetism introduced the concept of


(a) AC current (b) DC current
(c) displacement current (d) impedance

03. Dimensions of ε are same as that of


(a) charge (b) potential
(c) capacitance (d) current

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04. The conduction current in ideal case through a circuit is zero when charge on capacitor
is
(a) zero (b) maximum
(c) any transient value (d) depends on capacitor used

05. The velocity of electromagnetic wave is parallel to


(a) B⃗ × E⃗ (b) E⃗ × B⃗
(c) E⃗ (d) B⃗

06. Which of the following statement is incorrect about electromagnetic waves?


(a) These are transverse in nature.
(b) These are produced by accelerating charges.
(c) They travel with the same speed in all media.
(d) They travel in free space with the speed of light.

07. In electromagnetic waves the phase difference between electric and magnetic field vectors
E and B is
(a) zero (b) π/ 2
(c) π (d) π/ 4

08. The oscillating electric and magnetic field vectors of an electromagnetic waves are oriented
along
(a) the same direction but differ in phase by 90°
(b) the same direction and are in phase
(c) mutually perpendicular directions and are in phase
(d) mutually perpendicular directions and differ in phase by 90°

09. Which of the following waves have the maximum wavelength?


(a) X-rays (b) Infrared waves
(c) Ultraviolet (d) Radio waves

10. Which of the following electromagnetic waves are used in weather forecasting?
(a) Infrared waves (b) Radio waves
(c) Microwaves (d) Visible rays

11. Electromagnetic radiation of highest frequency is


(a) infrared radiations (b) visible radiation
(c) radio waves (d) γ-rays

12. Which of the following wave cannot travel in vacuum?


(a) X-rays (b) Infrasonic waves
(c) Ultraviolet rays (d) Radio waves

13. Energy of electromagnetic waves is due to its


(a) wavelength (b) frequency
(c) electric and magnetic fields (d) None of the above

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14. Which of the following represents an infrared wavelength?


(a) 10 cm (b) 10 cm
(c) 10 cm (d) 10 cm

15. Which of the following has the shortest wavelength?


(a) X-rays (b) γ-rays
(c) Microwaves (d) Radio waves

16. The frequency of visible light is of the order of


(a) 10 Hz (b) 10 Hz
(c) 10 Hz (d) 10 Hz

17. The structure of solids is investigated by using


(a) cosmic rays (b) X-rays
(c) γ-rays (d) infrared radiations

18. Energy stored in electromagnetic oscillations is in the form of


(a) electrical energy (b) magnetic energy
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

19.The range of wavelength of the visible light is


(a) 10 Å to 100 Å (b) 4000 Å to 7000 Å
(c) 7000 Å to 10000 Å (d) 10000 Å to 15000 Å

20. For a medium with permittivity ε and permeability μ, the velocity of light is given by
(a) μ / ε (b) √με
(c) 1/√με (d) ε/ μ

QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY


01 C 02 C 03 D 04 B 05 B 06 C 07 A
08 C 09 D 10 A 11 D 12 B 13 C 14 A
15 B 16 A 17 B 18 C 19 B 20 C

Electromagnetic Waves

Questions: 20 Time: 45 minutes

01.(01) According to Maxwell’s hypothesis, a changing electric field gives rise to


(a) emf
(b) electric current
(c) magnetic field
(d) pressure radiant

02.(02) Maxwell in his famous equation of electromagnetism introduced the concept of


(a) AC current
(b) DC current
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(c) displacement current


(d) impedance

03.(03) Dimensions of ε are same as that of


(a) charge (b) potential
(c) capacitance (d) current

04.(05) The conduction current in ideal case through a circuit is zero when charge on
capacitor is
(a) zero
(b) maximum
(c) any transient value
(d) depends on capacitor used

05.(02) The velocity of electromagnetic wave is parallel to


(a) B × E (b) E × B
(c) E (d) B

06.(04) Which of the following statement is incorrect about electromagnetic waves?


(a) These are transverse in nature.
(b) These are produced by accelerating charges.
(c) They travel with the same speed in all media.
(d) They travel in free space with the speed of light.

07(05) In electromagnetic waves, the phase difference between electric and magnetic field
vectors E and B is
(a) zero (b) π/ 2
(c) π (d) π/ 4

08.(06) The oscillating electric and magnetic field vectors of an electromagnetic waves are
oriented along
(a) the same direction but differ in phase by 90°
(b) the same direction and are in phase
(c) mutually perpendicular directions and are in phase
(d) mutually perpendicular directions and differ in phase by 90°

09.(13) Which of the following waves have the maximum wavelength?


(a) X-rays
(b) Infrared waves
(c) Ultraviolet
(d) Radio waves

10.(14) Which of the following electromagnetic waves are used in weather forecasting?
(a) Infrared waves (b) Radio waves
(c) Microwaves (d) Visible rays

11. (15) Electromagnetic radiation of highest frequency is


(a) infrared radiations
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(b) visible radiation


(c) radio waves
(d) γ-rays

12.(01) Which of the following wave cannot travel in vacuum?


(a) X-rays
(b) Infrasonic waves
(c) Ultraviolet rays
(d) Radio waves

13.(02) Energy of electromagnetic waves is due to their


(a) wavelength
(b) frequency
(c) electric and magnetic fields
(d) None of the above

14.(03) Which of the following represents an infrared wavelength?


(a) 10 cm (b) 10 cm
(c) 10 cm (d) 10 cm

15.(04) Which of the following has the shortest wavelength?


(a) X-rays (b) γ-rays
(c) Microwaves (d) Radio waves

16.(05) The frequency of visible light is of the order of


(a) 10 Hz (b) 10 Hz
(c) 10 Hz (d) 10 Hz

17.(06) The structure of solids is investigated by using


(a) cosmic rays
(b) X-rays
(c) γ-rays
(d) infrared radiations
18.(07) Energy stored in electromagnetic oscillations is in the form of
(a) electrical energy
(b) magnetic energy
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

19.(08) The range of wavelength of the visible light is


(a) 10 Å to 100 Å
(b) 4000 Å to 7000 Å
(c) 7000 Å to 10000 Å
(d) 10000 Å to 15000 Å

20.(18) For a medium with permittivity ε and permeability μ, the velocity of light is given by
(a) μ / ε (b) √με
(c) 1/√με (d) ε/ μ
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QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY


01 C 02 C 03 D 04 B 05 B 06 C 07 A
08 C 09 D 10 A 11 D 12 B 13 C 14 A
15 B 16 A 17 B 18 C 19 B 20 C

MCQ Ray Optics

01. μ and μ are the refractive indices of two mediums and v and v are the
velocities of light in these two mediums respectively. Then the relation
connecting these quantities is
(a) v = v (b) μ v = μ v
(c) μ v = μ v (d) μ v = μ v

02. The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to air are 3/2 and 4/3, respectively.
The refractive index of glass with respect to water will be
(a) 8/9 (b) 9/8
(c) 7/6 (d) None of these

03. When light is refracted into a medium from vacuum


(a) its wavelength and frequency both increase
(b) its wavelength increases but frequency remains unchanged
(c) its wavelength decreases but frequency remains unchanged
(d) its wavelength and frequency both decrease

04. A spot is placed on the bottom of a slab made of transparent material of refractive index
1.5. The spot is viewed vertically from the top when it seems to be raised by 2 cm. Then
the height of the slab is
(a) 10 cm (b) 8 cm
(c) 6 cm (d) 4 cm

05. A plano-convex lens of curvature of 30 cm and refractive index 1.5 produces a real image
of an object kept 90 cm from it. What is the magnification?
(a) 4 (b) 0.5
(c) 1.5 (d) 2

06. The minimum distance between an object and its real image formed by a convex lens is
(a) 1.5 f (b) 2 f
(c) 2.5 f (d) 4 f

07 A ray of light is incident on an equilateral glass prism placed on a horizontal table. For
minimum deviation which of the following is true?

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(a) PQ is horizontal (b) QR is horizontal


(c) RS is horizontal (d) Either PQ or RS is horizontal

08. Magnifying power of a simple microscope is (when final image is formed at D = 25 cm from
eye)
(a) (b) 1 +
(c) 1 + (d) 1 −

09. In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is


(a) virtual, erect and magnified (b) real, erect and magnified
(c) real, inverted and magnified (d) virtual, erect and reduced

10. The aperture of a telescope is made large, because to


(a) increase the intensity of image (b) decrease the intensity of image
(c) have greater magnification (d) have lesser resolution

11. When white light is passed through a prism, the colour which shows maximum deviation is
(a) red (b) violet
(c) yellow (d) green

12. A short pulse of white light is incident from air to a glass slab at normal incidence. After
travelling through the slab, the first colour to emerge is
(a) blue (b) green
(c) violet (d) red

13. An object approaches to a convergent of lens from the left of the lens with a uniform speed
5 m/s and stops at the focus. The image
(a) moves away from the lens with a uniform speed of 5 m/s
(b) moves away from the lens with a uniform acceleration
(c) moves away from the lens with a non-uniform acceleration
(d) moves towards the lens with a non-uniform acceleration

14. When a lens of refractive index n is placed in a liquid of refractive index n , then the lens
seems to be disappeared only, if
(a) n = n /2 (b) n = 3n /2
(c) n = n (d) n = 5n /2

15. Which amongst the following phenomena is not associated with the total internal reflection?
(a) The mirage formation (b) Optical fibre communication
(c) The glittering of diamond (d) Dispersion of light

16. Two beams of red and violet colours made to pass separately through a prism (A = 60° ). In
the minimum deviation position, the angle of refraction inside the prism will be
(a) greater for red colour (b) equal but not 30° for both the colours
(c) greater for violet colour (d) 30° for both the colours

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17. We have combined a convex lens of focal length f and concave lens of focal length f and
their combined focal length was F. The combination of these lenses will behave like a
concave lens, if
(a) f > f (b) f < f
(c) f = f (d) f ≤ f

18. Two thin lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and 25 cm are placed in contact. The effective power
of the combination is
(a) 9 D (b) 2 D
(c) 3 D (d) 7 D

19. Which colour of the light has the longest wavelength?


(a) Blue (b) Green
(c) Violet (d) Red

20. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. The speed of light in glass is
(a) 3x10 m/s (b) 2x10 m/s
(c) 1x10 m/s (d) 4x10 m/s

QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY


01 D 02 A 03 C 04 C 05 D 06 D 07 B
08 B 09 C 10 A 11 B 12 D 13 C 14 C
15 D 16 D 17 A 18 A 19 D 20 B

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MCQ Wave Optics

01. Two identical light sources S and S emit light of same wavelength λ. These light rays will
exhibit interference, if
(a) their phase differences remain constant
(b) their phases are distributed randomly
(c) their light intensities remain constant
(d) their light intensities change randomly

02. When interference of light takes place


(a) energy is created in the region of maximum intensity
(b) energy is destroyed in the region of maximum intensity
(c) conservation of energy holds good and energy is redistributed
(d) conservation of energy does not hold good

03. What is the path difference in case of destructive interference?


(a) nλ (b) n(λ + 1)
( ) ( )
(c) (d)

04. Which of the following is not an essential condition for interference?


(a) The two interfering waves must propagate in almost the same direction.
(b) The waves must have the same period and wavelength.
(c) The amplitudes of the two waves must be equal.
(d) The two interfering beams of light must originate from the same source.

05. In Young’s double slit experiment when two light waves form third minimum intensity, they
have
(a) phase difference of 3π (b) phase difference of
(c) path difference of 3λ (d) path difference of

06. Monochromatic green light of wavelength 5 x10 m illuminates a pair of slits 1 mm apart.
The separation of bright lines on the interference pattern formed on a screen 2 m away is
(a) 0.25 mm (b) 0.1 mm
(c) 1.0 mm (d) 0.01 mm

07. In Young’s double slit experiment, instead of taking slits of equal widths, one slit is made
twice as wide as the other. Then, in the interference pattern
(a) the intensities of both the maxima and the minima increases
(b) the intensity of maxima increases and the minima has zero intensity
(c) the intensity of maxima decreases and that of the minima increases
(d) the intensity of maxima decreases and the minima has zero intensity

08. The main difference in the phenomenon of interference and diffraction is that

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(a) diffraction is due to interaction of light from the same wavefront, whereas the
interference is the interaction of two waves from isolated sources
(b) diffraction is due to interaction of light from the same wavefront, whereas the
interference is the interaction of two waves derived from the same source
(c) diffraction is due to interaction of waves derived from the same source, whereas the
interference is the bending of light from the same wavefront
(d) diffraction is caused by the reflected waves from a source, whereas interference is
caused due to refraction of waves from a source

09. The X-ray cannot be diffracted by means of an ordinary grating due to


(a) large wavelength (b) high speed
(c) short wavelength (d) All of these

10. Which of the following cannot be polarised?


(a) Radio waves (b) Ultraviolet rays
(c) Infrared rays (d) Ultrasonic waves

11. Light waves can be polarised as they are


(a) transverse (b) of high frequency
(c) longitudinal (d) reflected

12. A polaroid is placed at 45° to an incoming light of intensity I . Now, the intensity of light
passing through polaroid after polarisation would be
(a) I (b) I / 2
(c) I /4 (d) zero

13. When unpolarised light beam is incident from air onto glass (n =1.5) at the polarising angle,
(a) reflected beam is polarised 100 per cent
(b) reflected and refracted beams are partially polarised
(c) the reason for option (a) is that almost all the light is reflected
(d) All of the above

14. In a Young’s double slit experiment the source is white light. One of the holes is covered by
a red filter and another by a blue filter. In this case,
(a) there shall be alternate interference patterns of red and blue
(b) there shall be an interference pattern for red distinct from that for blue
(c) there shall be no interference fringes
(d) there shall be an interference pattern for red mixing with one for blue

15. Two coherent sources of light interfere and produce fringe pattern on a screen. For central
maximum, the phase difference between the two waves will be
(a) zero (b) π
(c) 3 π/2 (d) π/2

16. Huygens’ principle does not use


(a) reflection (b) refraction
(c) diffraction (d) points of spectra origin

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17. The polarising angle of glass is 57°. A ray of light which is incident at this angle will have an
angle of refraction as
(a) 43° (b) 25°
(c) 38° (d) 33°

18. To observe diffraction, the size of the obstacle


(a) should be much larger than the wavelength
(b) has no relation to wavelength
(c) should be of the order of wavelength
(d) should be λ/2, where λ is the wavelength

19. Wavefront is the locus of all points, where the particles of the medium vibrate with the same
(a) phase (b) amplitude
(c) frequency (d) period

20. When we close one slit in the Young’s double slit experiment, then
(a) the bandwidth increased (b) the bandwidth is decreased
(c) the bandwidth remains unchanged (d) the diffraction pattern is observed

QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY


01 A 02 C 03 D 04 A 05 D 06 C 07 A
08 B 09 C 10 D 11 A 12 B 13 A 14 C
15 A 16 D 17 C 18 D 19 A 20 D

MCQ Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter

01. Which of the following statement(s) is correct?


(a) Hertz discovered the phenomenon of photoelectric emission
(b) Lenard made detailed study of photoelectric effect.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

02. When intensity of light increases, then photoelectric current


(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) None of the above

03. The number of photoelectrons emitted per second from a metal surface increases when
(a) the energy of incident photons increases
(b) the frequency of incident light increases
(c) the wavelength of the incident light increases
(d) the intensity of the incident light increases

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04. When stopping potential is applied in an experiment on photoelectric effect, no photocurrent


is observed. This means that
(a) the emission of photoelectrons is stopped
(b) the photoelectrons are emitted but are reabsorbed by the emitter metal
(c) the photoelectrons are accumulated near the collector plate
(d) the photoelectrons are dispersed from the sides of the apparatus

05. If the frequency of light in a photoelectric experiment is doubled, then the stopping potential
will
(a) be doubled
(b) be halved
(c) become more than double
(d) become less than double

06. The rest mass of photon is


(a) zero
(b) ∞
(c) between 0 and ∞
(d) equal to that of an electron

07. The momentum of the photon of wavelength 5000 Å will be


(a) 1.3 𝑥 10 𝑘𝑚 − 𝑚𝑠
(b) 1.3 𝑥 10 𝑘𝑚 − 𝑚𝑠
(c) 4 𝑥 10 𝑘𝑚 − 𝑚𝑠
(d) 1.3 𝑥 10 𝑘𝑚 − 𝑚𝑠

08. The wavelength of the matter wave is independent of which amongst the given associated
variable/physical quantity?
(a) Mass (b) Velocity
(c) Momentum (d) Charge

09. If the velocity of an electron is doubled, its de-Broglie frequency will


(a) be halved
(b) remain same
(c) be doubled
(d) become four times

10. Proton andα-particles have the same de-Broglie wavelength. Which quantity will remain
same for both of them?
(a) Charge (b) Energy
(c) Speed (d) Momentum

11. When the kinetic energy of an electron is increased, the wavelength of the associated wave
will
(a) increase
(b) decrease

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(c) not depend on the kinetic energy


(d) None of the above

12. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron, accelerated through a potential
difference of 100 V is
(a) 0.12 nm
(b) 0.15 nm
(c) 0.20 nm
(d) 0.25 nm

13. Which amongst the following property is exhibited by matter waves?


(a) These waves are longitudinal waves.
(b) These waves are electromagnetic waves in nature.
(c) These waves always travel with the speed of light.
(d) They can show diffraction.

14. If the particles listed below all have the same kinetic energy, which one would possess the
shortest de-Broglie wavelength?
(a) Deuteron (b) α-particle
(c) Proton (d) Electron

15. An electron and proton are accelerated through the same potential difference. The ratio of
their de-Broglie wavelength will be
/
(a) 𝑚 /𝑚 (b) 𝑚 /𝑚
(c) 𝑚 /𝑚 (d) 1

16. The wavelength of a photon needed to remove a proton from a nucleus which is bound to
the nucleus with 1 MeV energy is nearly [NCERT Exemplar]
(a)1 2. 𝑛𝑚 (b) 1.2 𝑥 10 𝑛𝑚
(c) 1.2 𝑥 10 𝑛𝑚 (d) 1.2 𝑥 10 𝑛𝑚

17. Threshold wavelength for a metal is 5200 Å. The photoelectron will be ejected, if it is
irradiated by light from
(a) 50 W infrared lamp
(b) 1 W infrared lamp
(c) 50 W ultraviolet lamp
(d) 0.5 W infrared lamp

18. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with an electron accelerated by a potential of 64 V is


[Manipal 2015]
(a) 0.153 nm (b) 0.613 nm
(c) 1.22 nm (d) 0.302 nm

19. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons depends only on


[KCET 2014]

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(a) charge (b) frequency


(c) incident angle (d) pressure

20. In photoelectric effect, the photoelectric current


(a) depends both on intensity and frequency of incident beam
(b) does not depend on frequency but depends only on intensity of incident beam
(c) increases when frequency of incident beam increases
(d) decreases when frequency of incident beam increases

QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY


01 C 02 A 03 D 04 B 05 C 06 A 07 A
08 D 09 C 10 D 11 B 12 A 13 D 14 B
15 A 16 B 17 C 18 A 19 B 20 B

MCQ Atoms

01. The radius of an atom is of the order of


(a)10 m (b) 10 m
(c) 10 m (d) 10 m

02. In Rutherford scattering experiment for scattering angle of 180°, what will be the value of
impact parameter?
(a) 0 (b) ∞
(c) 1 (d) Data is insufficient

03. Bohr’s atom model assumes


(a) the nucleus is of infinite mass and is at rest
(b) electrons in a quantised orbit will not radiate energy
(c) mass of electron remains constant
(d) All the above conditions

04. The angular momentum (L) of an electron moving in a stable orbit around nucleus is
(a) half integral multiple of
(b) integral multiple of h
(c) integral multiple of
(d) half integral multiple of h

05. In Bohr’s model, the atomic radius of the first orbit is r , then the radius of the third orbit is
(a) r /9 (b) r
(c) 9r (d) 3r

06. Speed (v ) of an electron in nth orbit versus principal quantum number (n) graph is

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07. Potential energy (PE ) and kinetic energy (KE ) of electron in nth orbit are related as
(a) PE = KE (b) PE = −2KE
(c) PE = 2KE (d) PE = −KE
.
08. In the nth orbit, the energy of an electron, E = − eV for hydrogen atom. The energy
required to take the electron from first orbit to second orbit will be
(a) 10.2 eV (b) 12.1 eV
(c) 13.6 eV (d) 3.4 eV

09. For the Bohr’s first orbit of circumference 2πr, the de-Broglie wavelength of revolving
electron will be
(a) 2π r (b) π r
(c) (d)

10. Which of the following is incorrect regarding limitations of Bohr’s model?


(a) This model is applicable only to single electron system.
(b) It does not explain fine structure of spectral lines.
(c) This model is applicable to all atoms.
(d) None of the above

11. A set of atoms in an excited state decay


(a) in general to any of the states with lower energy
(b) into a lower state only when excited by an external electric field
(c) all together simultaneously into a lower state
(d) to emit photons only when they collide

12. The total energy of an electron in the nth stationary orbit of the hydrogen atom can be
obtained by
. .
(a) E = eV (b) E = − eV
.
(c) E = eV (d) E = 13.6 x n eV

13. The total energy of an electron in an atom in an orbit is −3 4. eV. Its kinetic and potential
energies are, respectively
(a) −3.4 eV, −6.8 eV (b) 3.4 eV, −6.8 eV
(c) 3.4 eV, 3.4 eV (d) −3.4 eV, −3.4 eV

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14.The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
atom is
(a) 2 ∶ −1 (b) 1 ∶ −1
(c) 1 ∶ 1 (d) 1 ∶ −2

15. The Rutherford scattering experiment proves that an atom consists of


(a) a sphere of positive charge in which electrons are embedded like seeds of water-melon
(b) a sphere of negative charge in which protons are embedded like seeds of water-melon
(c) a sphere of electron cloud in which the positive charge is placed at the center of the
sphere
(d) a sphere of neutral charge

QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY


01 C 02 A 03 D 04 B 05 C 06 A 07 A
08 D 09 C 10 D 11 B 12 A 13 D 14 B
15 A

MCQ Nuclei

01. The mass number of a nucleus is


(a) always less than its atomic number
(b) always more than its atomic number
(c) always equal to its atomic number
(d) sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number

02. For a nucleus to be stable, the correct relation between neutron number N and proton
number Z for light nuclei is
(a) N > Z (b) N = Z
(c) N < Z (d) None of these

03. Nucleus of an atom whose mass number is 24 consists of


(a) 11 electrons, 11 protons and 13 neutrons
(b) 11 electrons, 13 protons and 11 neutrons
(c) 11 protons and 13 neutrons
(d) 13 protons and 11 neutrons

04. In Ra nucleus, there are


(a) 138 protons and 88 neutrons (b) 138 neutrons and 88 protons
(c) 226 neutrons and 88 electrons (d) 226 neutrons and 138 electrons

05. The radius of a nucleus of a mass number A is directly proportional to


(a) A (b) A
(c) A / (d) A /

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06. The radius of Cu nucleus in fermi is (given R = 1.2 x 10 m)


(a) 4.8 (b) 1.2
(c) 7.7 (d) 9.6

07. If m m , and m are the masses of X nucleus, neutron and proton respectively, then
(a) m < (A − Z)m + Z m (b) m = (A − Z)m + Z m
(c) m > (A − Z)m + Z m (d) None of these

08. Fission of nuclei is possible because the binding energy per nucleon in them
(a) increases with mass number at high mass numbers
(b) decreases with mass number at high mass numbers
(c) increases with mass number at low mass number
(d) decreases with mass number at low mass number

09. A chain reaction is continuous due to


(a) large mass defect (b) large energy
(c) production of more neutrons in fission (d) None of these

10. Which of these is a fusion reaction?


(a) H + H → He + n (b) U → Pb +8 He + 6 (β particle)
(c) C → C + β + γ (d) None of the above

11. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because


(a) molecules break up at high temperature
(b) nuclei break up at high temperature
(c) atoms get ionised at high temperature
(d) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the Coulomb repulsion between nuclei

12. Heavy stable nuclei have more neutrons than protons. This is because of the fact that
(a) neutrons are heavier than protons
(b) electrostatic force between protons is repulsive
(c) neutrons decay into protons through beta decay
(d) nuclear forces between neutrons are weaker than that between protons

13. When the number of nucleons in nuclei increase, then the binding energy per nucleon
(a) increases continuously with mass number
(b) decreases continuously with mass number
(c) remains constant with mass number
(d) first increases and then decreases with increase of mass number

14. The binding energy per nucleon is maximum in the case of


(a) He (b) Fe
(c) Ba (d) U

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15. The principle of controlled chain reaction is used in


(a) atomic energy reactor (b) atom bomb
(c) the core of sun (d) artificial radioactivity

16. In an atomic bomb, the energy is released due to


(a) chain reaction of neutrons and 92 (b) chain reaction of neutrons and 92
(c) chain reaction of neutrons and 92 (d) chain reaction of neutrons and 92

17. The curve of binding energy per nucleon as a function of atomic mass number has a sharp
peak for helium nucleus. This implies that helium
(a) can easily be broken up (b) is very stable
(c) can be used as fissionable material (d) is radioactive

18. If the energy released in the fission of one nucleus is 200 MeV, then the number of nuclei
required per second in a power plant of 16 kW will be
(a) 0.5 × 10 (b) 0.5 × 10
(c) 5 × 10 (d) 5 × 10

19. The energy equivalent of 0.5 g of a substance is


(a) 4.5 × 10 J (b) 1.5 × 10 J
(c) 0.5 × 10 J (d) 4.5 × 10 J

20. α-particle consists of


(a) 2 electrons, 2 protons and 2 neutrons (b) 2 electrons and 4 protons only
(c) 2 protons only (d) 2 protons and 2 neutrons only

MCQ Semiconductor Electronics

01. The conduction band in a solid is partially filled at 0 K. The solid sample is a
(a) conductor (b) semiconductor
(c) insulator (d) None of these

02. The valence band and conduction band of a solid overlap at low temperature, the solid may
be
(a) a metal (b) a semiconductor
(c) an insulator (d) None of these

03. In an insulator forbidden energy gap between the valence band and conduction band is of
the order of
(a) 1 MeV (b) 0.1 MeV
(c) 1 eV (d) 5 eV

04. The forbidden energy band gap in conductors, semiconductors and insulators are E ,
E and E respectively. The relation among them is
(a) E =E = E (b) E < E < E
(c) E > E > E (d) E < E > E

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05. Doping of intrinsic semiconductor is done


(a) to neutralise charge carries
(b) to increase the concentration of majority charge carriers
(c) to make it neutral before disposal
(d) to carry out further purification

06. The majority charge carriers in p-type semiconductor are


(a) electrons (b) protons
(c) holes (d) neutrons

07. A p-type semiconductor can be obtained by adding


(a) arsenic to pure silicon (b) gallium to pure silicon
(c) antimony to pure germanium (d) phosphorous to pure germanium

08. In p-type semiconductor, the majority and minority charge carriers are respectively
(a) Protons and electrons (b) Electrons and protons
(c) Electrons and holes (d) Holes and electrons

09. The charge on a hole is equal to the charge of


(a) zero (b) proton
(c) neutron (d) electron

10. If n and n represent the number of free electrons density and holes density respectively in
a semiconducting material, then for n-type semiconducting material
(a) n << n (b) n >> n
(c) n = n (d) n = n = 0

11. When a semiconductor is heated its resistance


(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) remains unchanged (d) Nothing is definite

12. Which of the following has negative temperature coefficient of resistance?


(a) Copper (b) Aluminium
(c) Iron (d) Germanium

13. In the depletion region of an unbiased p-n junction diode there are
(a) only electrons (b) only holes
(c) Both electrons and holes (d) only fixed ions

14. The cause of the potential barrier in a p-n diode is


(a) depletion of positive charges near the junction
(b) concentration of positive charges near the junction
(c) depletion of negative charge near the junction
(d) concentration of positive and negative charges near the junction.

15. In the forward bias arrangement of a p-n junction diode,

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(a) the n-end is connected to the positive terminal of the battery


(b) the p-end is connected to the positive terminal of the battery
(c) the direction of current is from n-end to p-end in the diode
(d) the p-end is connected to the negative terminal of battery

16. In forward bias the width of potential barrier in a p-n junction diode
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains content (d) first increases then decreases

17. On adjusting the p-n junction diode in forward biased


(a) depletion layer increases (b) resistance increases
(c) Both decreases (d) None of the above

18. The reverse biasing in a p-n junction diode


(a) decreases the width of potential barrier
(b) increases the width of potential barrier
(c) increases the number of minority charge carriers
(d) increases the number of majority change carriers

19. On increasing the reverse bias to a large value in a p-n junction diode current
(a) increases slowly (b) remains fixed
(c) suddenly increases (d) decreases slowly

20. The p-n junction diode is used as


(a) an amplifier (b) a rectifier
(c) an oscillator (d) a modulator

QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY QN KEY


01 A 02 A 03 D 04 B 05 B 06 C 07 B
08 D 09 B 10 B 11 A 12 D 13 D 14 D
15 B 16 B 17 C 18 C 19 B 20 B

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