Target Test Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Botany - Section A 6. Two genes R and Y are located very close on

the chromosomal linkage map of maize plant.
1. The two alleles of a gene pair are located on: When RRYY and rryy genotypes are hybridised,
1. Homologous sites on homologous then F2 segregation will show :
chromosomes (1) higher number of the recombinant types
2. Heterologous sites on homologous (2) segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 ratio
chromosomes (3) segregation in 3 : 1
3. Homologous sites on heterologous (4) higher number of the parental types
chromosomes
4. Heterologous sites on heretologous 7. XO-chromosomal abnormality in human
chromosomes beings causes
(1) Turner's syndrome
2. Fat soluble pigments like xanthophylls are (2) Down's syndrome
present in: (3) Kilnefelter's syndrome
1. Chromoplasts (4) none of these.
2. Aleuroplasts
3. Elaioplasts 8. “Filial 1 progeny” refers to
4. Amyloplasts (1) First pure breed
(2) First offspring
3. Consider the following statements: (3) First hybrid generation
I. Inheritance of a character is affected by (4) Second hybrid generation
promoter and regulatory sequences of a
structural gene. 9. Who was the first to use statistical analysis
II. The split-gene arrangement represents an and mathematical logics for solving biological
ancient feature of the genome. problems?
III. The process of splicing represents the (1) Francis crick
dominance of RNA world. (2) Gregor Mendel
which of the above statements are true? (3) Hugo de vries
1. I and II only (4) W. Bateson
2. I and III only
3. II and III only 10. Incomplete dominance is present in
4. I, II and III (1) Snapdragon flower
(2) Dog flower
4. Transformation was discovered by (3) Antirrhinum flower
(1) Meselson and Stahl (4) All of the above
(2) Hershey and Chase
(3) Griffith 11. Monohybrid cross can be defined as
(4) Watson and Crick (1) Cross between plants differing in one
chromosome
5. Which of the following statements is not true (2) Cross between plants differing in one
of two genes that show 50% recombination character only
frequency? (3) Cross between plants differing in two traits
(1) the genes may be on different chromosomes (4) All of the above
(2) the genes are tightly linked
(3) the genes show independent assortment 12. Turner’s syndrome is caused by
(4) If the genes are present on the same (1) Absence of Y chromosome
chromosome, they undergo more than one (2) Absence of one of the ‘X’ chromosome
crossovers in every meiosis (3) Trisomy of chromosome number 21
(4) Additional copy of chromosome ‘X’.

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13. Mental retardation is associated with 20. Satellite body is formed in chromosome
(1) Klinefelter’s syndrome because of
(2) Haemophilia (1)primary constriction
(3) Cystic fibrosis (2)secondary constriction
(4) Phenylketonuria (3)Centromere
(4)Both A and C
14. Regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes
cannot take place at 21. The repressor of lac operon is:
(1)primary transcript level
(2)splicing level (1) Lactose itself
(3)transport of m-RNA from nucleus to (2) A steroid
cytoplasm (3) Synthesized constitutively
(4)replication level (4) A product of structural gene

15. In E.coli the conversion of lactose in

galactose and glucose takes place by
(1)Beta-galactokinase 22. The backbone of a polynucleotide chain is
(2) Beta-guluctosidase made of:
(3) Beta-galactosidase 1. Sugar and nitrogenous bases
(4) Beta-lactosidase 2. Phosphate and nitrogenous bases
3. Sugar and phosphate
16. VNTR belongs to which class of DNA 4. Sugar, phosphate and nitrogenous bases
(1)mini-satellite
(2)macro-satellite 23. Which of the following statement is
(3)nano-satellite incorrect with respect to endomembranous
(4)kilosatellite system?
1. Found only in eukaryotes.
17. The main enzyme for DNA The organelle of this system function in
2.
replication is coordinated manner.
(1)DNA-dependent RNA polymerase It includes endoplasmic reticulum, golgi
3.
complex, lysosome and vacuole.
(2) RNA-dependent DNA polymerase
4. Found in that cell in which cyclosis is absent
(3) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
(4) RNA-dependent RNA polymerase
24. Which of the following steps in
18. If the offspring is aa, what possible transcription is catalysed by RNA polymerase?
combination of parental genotype would have 1. Initiation
produced these progenies? 2. Elongation
(1) AA and aa 3. Termination
(2) Aa and AA 4. All of the above
(3) aa and AA
(4) Aa and Aa 25. All generations in Mendel’s Experiments
were produced by self pollination except:
19. What are the mini-satellites?
1. P 2. F1
(1) r-DNA
(2) VNTR 3. F2 4. F3
(3) c-DNA
(4) SAT

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26. Identify the correct statements from the 30. Select the correct statement
given statements and choose the correct option: 1. Edward's syndrome is due to trisomy of 13th
Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic mRNAs chromosome
I: 2. AA + XXY condition is Jacob's syndrome
have a 5' cap.
Only prokaryotic mRNAs are 3. HGPRT deficiency leads to Gaucher's disease
II: 4. In sickle cell anaemia 3'-CTC-5' in DNA
polyadenylated at the 3' end.
template stand is mutated to CAC
In prokaryotes, transcription is coupled to
III:
translation.
In eukaryotes, RNA splicing occurs after the 31. Which of the following sequence is correct
IV:
mRNA is transported into the cytoplasm. with respect to size?
RNA splicing requires the formation of a 1. Eukaryotic cell > PPLO > Viruses > Bacteria
V:
spliceosome. 2. Eukaryotic cell > Bacteria > PPLO > Viruses
Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic mRNAs 3. Eukaryotic cell > PPLO > Bacteria > Viruses
VI:
are synthesized by RNA polymerase. 4. Eukaryotic cell > Viruses > PPLO > Bacteria
1. III, V, and VI only
2. II, III, V, and VI only 32. Select the incorrect statement
1. Movement of protein and RNA takes place in
3. I, III, V, and VI only
both directions through nuclear pore
4. I, III, IV, V, and VI only 2. Basal body of cilia or flagella is similar to
centriole by structure in eukaryotes
3. Few chromosomes have non-staining
27. On examining a sample of human DNA, it secondary constrictions at a constant location
was found that it contains approximately 24 % 4. Microbodies are not present in plant cells
thymine. Which of the following would be true
based on this finding? 33. Which of the following is not a significance
1. The amount of adenine in a similar sample of of mitosis?
DNA from any human being will be 1. It restores the effective nuclear cytoplasmic
approximately 24 %. ratio of the cell
2. The amount of adenine in a similar sample of 2. The growth in multicellular organisms
DNA from any living being will be 3. It results in daughter cells genetically distinct
approximately 24 %. from parent cell
3. The amount of adenine in a similar sample of 4. Cell repair
DNA from any eukaryotic cell will be
approximately 24 %. 34. Which among the following functions is/are
4. The amount of adenine in a similar sample of incorrect with respect to DNA function?
DNA from any mammal will be approximately (a) Control of metabolism
24 %. (b) Produces its replica
(c) Undergoes mutation
28. A person with Down syndrome will show all (d) Acts as enzyme
the given symptoms except
1. Many loops on finger tips. 1. a, c
2. Flat back of head 2. a, d
3. Big and wrinkled tongue 3. b, c
4. Narrow round face 4. d

29. Which of the following is not a hereditary 35. Which of the following is not present in
disease? DNA?
1. Haemophilia. 1. Guanine
2. Cretinism. 2. Cytosine
3. Cystic fibrosis. 3. Thiamine
4. Thalassemia. 4. Adenine

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Botany - Section B
39. Select the alternative giving correct
identification and function of the organelle 'A'
36. The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes (2n) in in the diagram:
each cell. During the interphase of Mitosis if the
number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 8, what
would be the number of chromosomes after the
S phase?
1. 4
2. 32
3. 8
4. 16

37. Which of the following is not a significance

of mitosis?
1. Restoration of nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio
2. Growth
3. Reduction of chromosome number
4. Replacement of lost cells
Mitochondria - produce cellular energy in
38. Read the following statements and select the 1.
the form of ATP
correct option.
2. Golgi body - provides packaging material
Statement A: Mitosis is seen in both diploid and
haploid cells. 3. Lysosomes - secrete hydrolytic enzymes
Statement B: Meiosis involves two sequential 4. Endoplasmic reticulum - synthesis of lipids
cycles of nuclear and cell division but only a
single cycle of DNA replication.
1. Only statement A is correct
2. Only statement B is correct
3. Both statements are incorrect
4. Both statements are correct

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40. A stage of mitosis is shown in the diagram. 42. Given below are two statements:
Which stage is it and what are its In bacteria, the mesosomes are formed by
characteristics? I:
the extensions of the plasma membrane.
The mesosomes, in bacteria, help in DNA
II:
replication and cell wall formation.

In light of the above statements, choose the

most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
1. Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
3. Both statement I and statement II are correct
Metaphase-spindle fibers attached to 4. Both statement I and statement II are
1. kinetochores, centromeres split and incorrect
chromatids separate
Metaphase- chromosomes moved to spindle 43. At the onset of anaphase
2. equator chromosomes made up of two sister 1. Chromosomal material condenses.
chromatids 2. Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform.
Anaphase - centromeres split and Chromosomes move to spindle equator and
3. 3.
chromatids separate and start moving away get aligned.
Late prophase - chromosomes move to Chromosomes arranged at metaphase plate
4. 4.
spindle equator split simultaneously.

41. Select the correct statements.

44. Mitosis or equational division in haploid
A. Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene. cells is seen:
During Anaphase, the centromeres split and 1. Only in some lower plants
B. 2. Both in plants and animals
chromatids separate.
Terminalization takes place during 3. in most of the animals
C. 4. Only in some higher plants
Pachytene.
Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are
D. 45. Which process restores the diploid phase in
reformed during Telophase.
life cycle of sexually reproducing organisms?
Crossing over takes place between sister1. Fertilisation
E.
chromatids of homologous chromosome. 2. Mitosis
3. Plasmogamy
Choose the correct answer from the options 4. Meiosis
given below:
1. B and E only 2. A and C only
3. B and D only 4. A, C and E only

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Zoology - Section A
46. Which is the correct sequence of
modification and transport of secretory
vesicles? 51. Which of the following statements
RER→cell membrane→ secretory regarding enzyme inhibition is correct?
1.
vesicles→Golgi body 1. Competitive inhibition is seen when a
RER→secretory vesicles →Golgi body →cell substrate competes with an enzyme for binding
2. to an inhibitor protein
membrane
RER→Golgi body→secretory vesicles→cell 2. Competitive inhibition is seen when the
3. substrate and the inhibitor compete for the
membrane
active site on the enzyme
SER→Golgi body →cell membrane
4. 3. Non-competitive inhibition of an enzyme can
→secretory vesicles
be overcome by adding large amount of
substrate
4. Non-competitive inhibitors often bind to the
enzyme irreversibly
47. Inner mitochondrial membrane is different
from outer mitochondrial membrane in
presence of 52. Which of the following types of natural
1. Less protein and more lipid selection reduces variation but does not change
2. Cristae the mean value?
3. Porins and cholesterol (1) Directional
4. Porins and c:ardiolipin (2) Stabilizing
(3) Disruptive
48. Choose odd one out w.r.t. nuclear (4) All of these
membrane.
1. Inner membrane is smooth 53. The process by which organisms with
2. Cytoplasmic surface of nuclear envelope may different evolutionary history evolve similar
bear ribosomes phenotypic adaptations in response to a
3. Outer membrane bears 70S ribosomes common enviroment challenge, is called
4. Perinuclear space is 10 to 50 nm 1. natural selection
2. convergent evolution
49. Metaphase is the best phase to study 3. non-random evolution
morphology of chromosomes. How many 4. adaptive radiation
chromatids you can observe in a somatic cell of
human at metaphase? 54. The slow process by which new types of
1. 23 organism arise from existing forms by genetic
2. 46 variation is called
3. 92 1. Hybridisation
4. 23 pairs 2. Mutation
3. Evolution
50. Identify the stages with the help of given 4. Transformation
features (A and B). A. movement of
chromosomes towards the opposite poles. 55. Proteins are
B. movement of chromatids towards the (1) homopolymer
opposite poles. (2)heteropolymer
A B (3)homogenous mixture of amino acids
1 Anaphase II Anaphase I (4)heterogenous mixture of amino acids
2 Anaphase I Anaphase II
3 Metaphase I Anaphase II
4 Metaphase II Metaphase I

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56. Which one of the graphs show the effect of 61. The flourishing period of seed ferns is
temperature on the velocity of a typical
enzymatic reaction? (1) Jurassic
(2) Devonian
(3) Carboniferous
(4) Triassic

57. Which of the following conclusions is of

palentological evidences for evolution?
62. Which of the following does not hold true
(1) A study of fossils in different sedimentary for Australopithecus?
layers indicates the geological period in which
(1) Existed 2 mya
they existed
(2) Probably lived in East African grasslands
(2) The new life forms have arisen at same time
(3) They hunted with stone weapons
in the history of Earth
(4) Ate meat
(3) Fossils are remains of hard parts of rocks
showing the presence bof carbon in life forms
(4) Both B and C
63. Which of the following are the components
of nucleotides?
(1)Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases,
58. Arrange the following in the order of their
monosaccharides, phosphoric acid
existence during the history of life forms:
(2)Homocyclic nitrogenous bases,
a)Stegosaurus, b)Brachiosaurus, c)Triceratops,
monosaccharides, phosphoric acid
d)Tyrannosaurus, e)Pteranodon, f)Crocodilian,
(3)Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases,
g)Archaeopteryx.
Disaccharides, phosphoric acid
(1) b)-a)-g)-f)-e)-d)-c) (4)Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases,
(2) e)-b)-g)-a)-f)-c)-d) Polysaccharides, phosphoric acid
(3) g)-a)-f)-b)-e)-d)-c)
(4) c)-a)-f)-g)-d)-e)-b) 64. How many phosphodiesters bond are
present in 5’ATTTTTGG 3’ sequence of
nucleotides
(1)7
59. Which of the following is not the example of (2)9
evolution by anthropogenic actions? (3)8
(4)6
(1) Herbicide resistant varieties
(2) Antibiotic resistant microbes 65. The macromolecules from cytoplasm and
(3) Darwin Finches organelles become the
(4) Different breeds of dogs (1)Acid insoluble bool
(2)Acid soluble pool
(3)Both A and B
(4)Basic Soluble pool
60. Bryophytes evolved from
66. Which of the following is not a strict
(1) Psilophyton
macromolecules?
(2) Rhynia type plants
(1)Carbohydrates
(3) Tracheophyte ancestors
(2)Nucleic acids
(4) Chlorophyte ancestors
(3)Proteins
(4)Lipids

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67. The following diagram shows the molecular 72. Nitrogenous bases which contain 2
structure of: heterocyclic rings are
1.Adenine
2.Thymine
3.Guanine
4.Both 1 and 3

73. The most abundant element present in

human body is
1. A hexose sugar 1. Oxygen
2. An aromatic amino acid 2. Carbon
3. A nitrogenous base found in RNA 3. Nitrogen
4. An important constituent of a DNA 4. Hydrogen
nucleotide.
74. Which of the following is incorrect?
68. 1. The chemical or metabolic conversion refers
Among the following sets of examples for to a reaction.
divergent evolution, select the incorrect option: 2. The chemical which is converted into a
product is called an enzyme.
1. Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah 3. Proteins with three dimensional structures
2. Heart of bat, man and cheetah including an active site is called enzyme.
3. Brain of bat, man and cheetah 4. Enzymes convert a substrate into a product.
4. Eye of octopus, bat and man
75. Which of the following is correct?
69. Darwinism explains all the following 1. Enzymatic activity is maximum at its
except:
optimim pH and temperature.
1. Within each species, there is variation
2. Enzymatic activity declines both below and
2. Organisms tend to produce more offspring
above the optimum value.
than can survive
3. High temperatures destroys enzymatic
3. Offspring with better traits that overcome
activity
competition are best suited for the
4. All of these
environment
4. Variations are inherited from parents to
76. Which of the following is an inorganic
offspring through genes
compound?
1. Prosthetic group
70. A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the
2. Coenzymes
frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what
3. Metal ions
will be the frequency of homozygous dominant,
4. Apoenzymes
heterozygous and homozygous recessive
individuals in the population?
77. The chronological order of human evolution
1. 0.16 (AA); 0.36 (Aa); 0.48 (aa)
from early to the recent is
2. 0.36 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.16 (aa)
1. Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo
3. 0.16 (AA); 0.24 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
habilis → Homo erectus
4. 0.16 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)
2. Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo
habilis → Homo erectus
71. Nucleoside consists of
3. Ramapithecus → Homo habilis
1.Phosphate + Sugar + Nitogenous bases
→ Australopithecus → Homo erectus
2.Sugar + Nitogenous bases
4. Australopithecus → Homo habilis
3.Phosphate + Sugar
→ Ramapithecus → Homo erectus
4.Phosphate + Nitogenous bases

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78. Genetic drift is : 83. Biologists discover about 1000 species in an

1. random changes in gene frequency in a Island
population which is descended from a single ancestor
2. generational fluctuations in gene frequencies species.
that produce no effect What is the reason behind the such large
3. changes due to interbreeding with other speciation?
species populations 1. Mutation
4. the effect of mutations as they spread 2. Adaptive radiation
through neighbouring populations 3. Convergent evolution.
4. Reproductive isolation
79. What kind of evidence suggested that man
is more closely related to a chimpanzee than to 84. In Australia, marsupials and placental
other hominoid apes? mammals have evolved to share many similar
Comparison of chromosome morphology characteristics. This type of evolution may be
1. referred to as :
only.
Evidence from fossil remains, and the fossil 1. Adaptive Radiation
2. 2. Divergent Evolution
mitochondrial DNA alone.
3. Cyclical Evolution
Evidence from DNA extracted from sex
4. Convergent Evolution
3. chromosomes, autosomes, and
mitochondria.
85. Natural selection can lead to stabilisation,
Evidence from DNA from sex chromosomes
when more individuals acquire mean character
4.
only. value. This type of natural selection is called as
1. Stabilizing
2. Directional selection
80. Dinosaurs became extinct during the 3. Disruptive selection
geological period: 4. Progressive selection
1. Carboniferous
2. Jurassic
3. Cretaceous
4. Tertiary
Zoology - Section B
86. The fossils discovered in java in 1891
revealed the next stage of human evolution i.e.,
81. Fishes with stout and strong fins that could Homo erectus which arose near about
move on land and go back to water existed 1. 2 mya
about: 2. 3-4 mya
1. 500 mya 2. 350 mya 3. 15 mya
3. 320 mya 4. 300 mya 4. 1.5 mya

87. Who observed presence of amino acids in

82. Seaweeds existed probably around: the experimental set-up to prove abiogenic
1. 500 mya molecular evolution of life?
2. 350 mya 1. Oparin
3. 320 mya 2. Haldane
4. 300 mya 3. Miller
4. Redi

88. Which of the following is a homopolymer?

1. Protein
2. Peptidoglycan
3. Pectin
4. Inulin

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89. Inulin is a polymer of 95. Complete the analogy and choose the
1. Fructose correct option
2. Glucose Charles Darwin: Galapagos islands :: Alfred
3. Mannose Wallace : _____________
4. Ribose 1. Malay Archipelago
2. Australia
90. The tertiary structure of proteins can be 3. South America
destroyed by 4. North America
1. High energy radiations
2. High temperature 96. Select the correct group/set of Australian
3. Drastic changes in pH Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation.
4. All of these 1. Lemur, Anteater, Wolf
2. Tasmanian wolf, Bobcat, Marsupial mole
91. Which of the following cannot be attributed 3. Numbat, Spotted cuscus, Flying phalanger
to Darwin? 4. Mole, Flying squirrel, Tasmanian tiger cat
1. Description of finches on Galapagos islands
2. Heritability of variations 97.
3. Speciation due to mutations Given below are two statements:
4. More offspring from individuals adapted to Enzymes work in a particular
their environment Assertion (A):
temperature range.
Enzymes get denatured when
92. At a particular locus, frequency of "A" allele Reason (R): exposed to either too high or
is 0.6 and that of "a" is 0.4. What would be the too low temperatures.
frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating
population at equilibrium?
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
1. 0.36 1.
correct explanation of (A).
2. 0.16
3. 0.24 Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
2.
4. 0.48 correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
93. Marine mollusc having white shell attached 4. Both (A) and (R) are false.
to white goose neck barnacles protect
themselves from predators. Mollusc having
dark tan shell attached to tan coloured rocks 98. Which of the following sets of polymers is
survive whereas mollusc having intermediate formed by joining of monomers through bonds
shell colour fell prey that is formed by elimination of water moiety?
to predator. The type of natural selection in 1. Starch, chitin, Uridylic acid
above context is 2. Cellulose, Collagen, Adenosine
1. Stabilising selection 3. Chitin, Adenosine, Starch
2. Directional selection 4. Glycogen, Trypsin, Insulin
3. Balancing selection
4. Disruptive selection

94. How many options given in the box are not

true for the Darwinian theory of evolution?
Directional variations, Saltation, Minor
variations, Inheritance of ‘factors’, Heritable
variations, Reproductive fitness
1. Four
2. Two
3. Three
4. Five

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99. Which type of evolution is shown by the

given graph?

1. Disruptive
2. Destructive
3. Competitive
4. Stabilising

100. At a particular locus, the frequency of

allele A is 0.8 and that of allele a is 0.2. What
would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a
random mating population at equilibrium?
1. 0.32
2. 0.16
3. 0.24
4. 0.48

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