ENGLISH GENERALISTS Corrected Phase II - PMD
ENGLISH GENERALISTS Corrected Phase II - PMD
All tests except test of English Language and Descriptive Paper will be provided in English and Hindi. All
the objective questions will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be
the correct answer. You have to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’ that
alternative which you feel is appropriate/correct. The alternative/ option that you have clicked on
will be treated as your answer to that question. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked
by you. For every wrong answer marked by you, 1/4 of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
The Scores of Online Examination will be obtained by adopting the following procedure :
(i) Number of questions answered correctly by a candidate in each objective test is considered for
arriving at the Corrected Score after applying penalty for wrong answers.
(ii) The Corrected Scores so obtained by a candidate are made equivalent to take care of the minor
difference in difficulty level, if any, in each of the objective tests held in different sessions to arrive at
the Equated Scores*
*Scores obtained by candidates on any test are equated to the base form by considering the distribution
of scores of all the forms.
(iii) Testwise scores and scores on total is reported with decimal points upto two digits.
Note : Cutoffs may be applied in two stages :
(i) On scores in individual tests
(ii) On Total Score
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Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum score for each section of objective test separately
for short listing for the Descriptive test evaluation/Interview.
Descriptive answer script would be evaluated only in respect of those candidates who qualify the
objective test.
Depending on the number of vacancies available, cut offs will be decided for Descriptive paper
evaluation.
Each candidate will be required to obtain a minimum total score (to be decided by the Company
according to number of vacancies) in the objective test (main examination) and qualify in the descriptive
test for short listing for the Interview
DESCRIPTIVE TEST :
Qualifying marks in the descriptive test shall be as follows: 15/30 (13.5/30 for SC, ST and PwBD).
A candidate shall be required to qualify in the descriptive test, but the marks in the descriptive
test will not be counted towards short listing for interview or final selection.
Questions will be displayed on the screen of your computer. Answers are to be typed using the
keyboard. Before starting typing of answers to questions in Descriptive Paper please check all
key functions of the keyboard. You will get 30 minutes to answer the questions.
Please note that the types of questions in this handout are only illustrative and not exhaustive. In
the actual examination you will find questions of a higher difficulty level on some or all of these
types and also questions on the types not mentioned here.
Some sample questions are given below.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS
REASONING
This is a test to see how well you can think. It contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample
questions.
Q.1-3. Read the information given below and answer the questions.
Six plays A, B, C, D, E and F of a famous playwright are to be staged one on each day from
Monday to Saturday. The schedule of the plays is to be in accordance with the following.
(1) A must be on the previous day of the on which E is staged.
(2) C must not be staged on Tuesday.
(3) B must be on a day which follows the day on which F is staged.
(4) D must be staged on Friday only and should not be immediately preceded by B.
(5) E must not be staged on the last day of the schedule.
Q.1. Which of the following is the schedule of plays, with the order of their staging from Monday ?
(1) E A B F D C (2) A F B E D C (3) A F B C D E
(4) F A B E D C (5) Other than those given as options
Q.2. Play C cannot definitely be staged on which of the following days in addition to Tuesday ?
(1) Monday (2) Wednesday (3) Thursday (4) Friday (5) Saturday
Q.3. Play D is between which of the following pairs of plays ?
(1) C and E (2) E and F (3) A and E (4) B and E (5) C and F
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Q.4. Some leaders are dishonest. Satyapriya is a leader. Which of the following inferences definitely
follows from these two statements ?
(1) Satyapriya is honest (2) Satyapriya is dishonest
(3) Some leaders are honest (4) Leaders are generally dishonest
(5) Satyapriya is sometimes dishonest
Q.5. If the first and the second letters in the word „DEPRESSION‟ were interchanged, also the third and
the fourth letters, the fifth and sixth letters and so on, which of the following would be the seventh
letter from the right ?
(1) R (2) O (3) S (4) I (5) Other than those given as options
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through
questions on grammar & vocabulary, synonyms, antonyms, sentence completion, comprehension of a
passage etc.
Q.1. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The
error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is
no error, the answer is „No error‟. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
Most of the third world / country are experiencing / the ethnic or communal problem/
(1) (2) (3)
in varying degrees. / No error.
(4) (5)
Q.2. Pick out from the words given below each sentence the word which would complete the
sentence correctly and meaningfully.
Continuous unemployment has induced in the people a kind of _____ which is most depressing.
(1) laziness (2) encouragement (3) satisfaction (4) anger (5) awakening
Q.3-5. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers
are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the
blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The true source of rights is duty. If we all (3) our duties, rights will not be (4) to seek. If leaving
duties unperformed we run (5) rights, they will escape us like an elusive person.
Q.3. (1) deny (2) devote (3) discharge (4) imagine (5) fulfill
Q.4. (1) far (2) close (3) easy (4) against (5) common
GENERAL AWARENESS
This test is designed to measure your awareness about the past and present events.
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Q.3. Who among the following is the current Finance Minister of India ?
(1) Shri Arun Jaitley (2) Shri Narendra Modi (3) Shri P. Chidambram
(4) Shri Amit Shah (5) Other than those given as options
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
This test is designed to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers, viz.
computation, quantitative reasoning, interpretation of tables and graphs.
Q.1-3. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below ––––
Distribution of 1000 candidates as regards their marks in written examination
out of 300 and interview out of 100 in a selection examination
Q.1. How many candidates did obtain more than 69 percent marks and above in both written
examination and interview ?
(1) 22 (2) 49 (3) 13 (4) 9 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.2. if approximately 325 candidates were to be qualified in the written examination, what should be the
percentage of the qualifying marks ?
(1) above 20 (2) above 70 (3) above 36 (4) above 63 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.3. About 42 percent of the candidates fall in which of the following ranges of the interview marks ?
(1) 110-159 (2) 110 & below (3) 50 to 70
(4) 50 & above (5) Other than those given as options
Q.4. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ?
(1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (4) 32286 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.5. Sohanlal purchased 120 reams of paper at Rs.100 per ream. The expenditure on transport was
Rs.480. He had to pay an octroi duty of 50 paise per ream and the coolie charges were Rs.60.
What should be the selling price of each ream if he wants a profit of 20% ?
(1) Rs.126 (2) Rs.115.50 (3) Rs.105 (4) Rs. 120 (5) Other than those given as options
DESCRIPTIVE PAPER
Q.1. Write a letter on any ONE of the following
Write a letter to your younger brother explaining him how Insurance Sector has changed in
the last decade in India.
Write a letter to the Branch Manager of your Insurance company sharing a good experience
of customer service in settling a claim (Based on year experience or reading).
Q.2. Write an essay on any ONE of the following topics
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Three effective measures to eradicate illiteracy in India. Explain how the measures
suggested by you will be effective.
Other Instructions :
(A) Details of the On-line Examination Pattern
(1) The examination will be conducted on-line i.e. on a computer.
(2) Before clicking on the „Start‟ option, the candidates can go through the instructions shown on the
screen.
(3) All tests except of English will be in English and Hindi.
(4) Only when the „Start‟ button is pressed will the actual test time for objective test will start. On
submission of objective test, the actual test time of descriptive test will start immediately.
(5) Only one question at a time will be displayed on the screen.
(6) All the objective questions will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one
will be the correct answer. You will have to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse
click’ that alternative which you feel is appropriate/ correct. The alternative/ option that is
clicked on will be treated as the answer to that question. Some descriptive questions may have
internal choices.
(7) The clock has been set at the server and the countdown timer at the top right corner of your screen
will display the time remaining for you to complete the examination (objective and descriptive).
When the clock runs out the exam ends by default - you are not required to end or submit your
exam.
(8) The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question
using one of the following symbols:
(9) The Marked for Review status for a question simply indicates that you would like to look at that
question again. If a question is answered and Marked for Review, your answer for that question will
be considered in the evaluation.
(10) To select a question to answer, you can do one of the following :
a) Click on the question number on the question palette at the right of your screen to go to that
numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the
current question.
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b) Click on Save and Next to save answer to current question and to go to the next question in
sequence.
c) Click on Mark for Review and Next to save answer to current question, mark it for review, and
to go to the next question in sequence.
(11) To select your answer to an Objective Question, click on one of the option buttons.
(12) To change your answer to an Objective Question, click the other desired option button.
(13) To save your answer, you MUST click on Save & Next.
(14) To deselect a chosen answer to an Objective Question, click on the chosen option again or click on
the Clear Response button.
(15) To mark a question for review click on Mark for Review & Next. If an answer is selected for a
question that is Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final evaluation.
(16) To change an answer to an Objective Question, first select the question and then click on the new
answer option followed by a click on the Save & Next button.
(17) Questions that are saved or marked for review after answering will ONLY be considered for
evaluation.
(18) Sections in this question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a Section
can be viewed by clicking on the Section name. The Section you are currently viewing is
highlighted.
(19) After clicking the Save & Next button on the last question for a Section, you will automatically be
taken to the first question of the next Section.
(20) You can move the mouse cursor over the Section names to view the status of the questions for that
Section.
(21) You can shuffle between Sections and questions any time during the respective time of objective
and descriptive examinations as per your convenience.
(22) The candidates are requested to follow the instructions of the Test Administrator carefully. If a
candidate does not follow the instructions / rules, it would be treated as a case of misconduct /
adoption of unfair means and such a candidate would be liable for debarment from appearing for
examinations for a period as decided by the Company.
(23) The candidates may ask the Test Administrator about their doubts or questions only before the
commencement of the test. No query shall be entertained after the commencement of the
examination.
(24) After the expiry of time for examination (objective and descriptive), the candidates will not be able
to attempt any question or check their answers. On completion of test time, answers of the
candidates would be saved automatically by the computer system even if they have not clicked the
“Submit” button.
(25) You should bring with you a ball point pen. A sheet of paper will be provided which can be used for
rough work or taking down the question number you would like to review at the end of the test
before submitting your answers. After the objective test is over you may retain this sheet of paper
for the descriptive test also. After both, objective and descriptive tests are over, you must
necessarily return the sheet of paper provided for rough work to the test administrator before
leaving the test premises.
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a) Candidates will not be allowed to “finally submit” unless they have exhausted the actual test
time of the examination (objective and descriptive).
b) Under no circumstances should a candidate click on any of the „keyboard keys‟ during the
objective test once the exam starts as this will lock the Objective Test exam.
B] General Instructions:
(1) Please note date, time and venue address of the examination given in the call letter.
(2) You may visit the venue one day before the Online Examination to confirm the location so that
you are able to report on time (as printed on the call letter) on the day of the examination.
Late comers will not be allowed.
(3) The call letter should be brought with you to the examination venue along with your recent
passport size photograph duly pasted on it. (Preferably the same photograph as was as
uploaded).
(4) You must scrupulously follow the instructions of the Test Administrator and Company
Representative at the examination venue. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified
and will be asked to leave the examination venue.
(5) No use of calculators (separate or with watch), books, note books or written notes, cell phones
(with or without camera facility), or any other electronic device will be allowed during the
examination.
(6) Please bring the call letter with your photograph affixed thereon, currently valid Photo identity
proof in original and a photocopy of the same ID proof which you bring in original - THIS IS
ESSENTIAL. Please handover the call-letter along with photocopy of photo identity proof duly
stapled together to the invigilator. Currently valid photo identity proof may be PAN
Card/Passport/Permanent Driving License/Voter‟s Card/Bank Passbook with
photograph/Photo Identity proof issued by a Gazetted Officer on official letterhead along with
photograph/Photo Identity proof issued by a People‟s Representative on official letterhead
along with photograph/Valid recent Identity Card issued by a recognized
College/University/Aadhaar Card/E-Aadhaar Card with a photograph/Employee ID/Bar
Council Identity card with photograph. Please Note - Ration Card and Learner’s Driving
License will not be accepted as valid ID proof for this purpose. Please note that your
name as appearing on the call letter (provided by you during the process of registration)
should exactly match the name as appearing on the photo identity proof. Female candidates
who have changed first/last/middle name post marriage must take special note of this. If there
is any mismatch between the name indicated in the Call Letter and Photo Identity Proof you
will not be allowed to appear for the exam.
(7) Biometric data (thumb impression) and photograph will be captured twice at the examination
venue i.e. before the start of examination and after completion of examination. Decision of the
Biometric data verification authority with regard to its status (matched or mismatched) shall be
final and binding upon the candidates. Refusal to participate in the process of biometric
data capturing / verification on any occasion may lead to cancellation of candidature.
With regards to the same, please note the following :
(b) If fingers are dirty or dusty, ensure to wash them and dry them before the thumb
impression (biometric) is captured.
(c) Ensure fingers of both hands are dry. If fingers are moist, wipe each finger to dry them.
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(d) If the primary finger (thumb) to be captured is injured/damaged, immediately notify the
concerned authority in the test centre.
(Any failure to observe these points will result in non-admittance for the examination)
(8) Your responses (answers) will be analysed with other candidates to detect patterns of
similarity of right and wrong answers. If in the analytical procedure adopted in this regard, it is
inferred/concluded that the responses have been shared and scores obtained are not
genuine/valid, your candidature may be cancelled. Any candidate who is found copying or
receiving or giving assistance or engaging in any behaviour unbecoming of a candidate will
not be considered for assessment. The Company may take further action against such
candidates as deemed fit by it.
(9) You should bring with you a ball-point pen. A sheet of paper will be provided which can be
used for rough work or taking down the question number you would like to review at the end of
the test before submitting your answers. After the test is over you MUST hand over this sheet
of paper to the Test Administrator before leaving the venue.
(10) The possibility for occurrences of some problem in the administration of the examination
cannot be ruled out completely which may impact test delivery and/or result from being
generated. In that event, every effort will be made to rectify such problem, which may include
the conduct of another examination if considered necessary. Decision of the test conducting
body in this regard shall be final. Candidates not willing to accept such change shall lose
his/her candidature for this exam.
(11) If the examination is held in more than one session, the scores across various sessions will be
equated to adjust for slight differences in difficulty level of different test batteries used across
sessions. More than one session are required if the nodes capacity is less or some technical
disruption takes place at any centre or for any candidate.
(13) Instances for providing incorrect information and/or process violation by a candidate detected
at any stage of the selection, process will lead to disqualification of the candidate from the
selection process and he/she will not be allowed to appear in any recruitment process of the
Company in the future. If such instances go undetected during the current selection process
but are detected subsequently, such disqualification will take place with retrospective effect.
(i) Call letter with photo affixed thereon and photo ID card in Original and photocopy as mentioned in
point 6 above.