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 2

Preface:
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JAI SHREE RAM

NARAYAN CHANGDER
This E-book is dedicated to the loving memory of my mother:

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my guiding light, my shining star,
forever

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affection that I dedicate this Ebook.

To my mother JOYTSNA CHANGDER

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who has been a constant source of Knowledge and in-

spiration. Mom, Covid did not take you, it took our
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NARAYAN CHANGDER
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 PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE
Contents

1 CLOUD COMPUTING . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.1 Cloud Migration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2
1.2 Cloud Deployment . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
1.3 Cloud services . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7
1.4 Cloud Workloads . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25
1.5 Cloud Storage . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 26
1.6 Disaster Recovery . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 34
1.7 Autoscaling . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 44
1.8 Database Management . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 49
1.9 Identity Access Management . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 86
1.10 Performance Testing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 93
1.11 Web Services and API . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 98
1.12 Platform as a Service . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 121
1.13 Software as a Service . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 122
1.14 Cloud computing architecture . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 123
1.15 Cloud security . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 126
1.16 Cloud management . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 135
1.17 Miscellenous . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 144
 1. CLOUD COMPUTING

NARAYAN CHANGDER
1.1 Cloud Migration
1. odd one in Approaches for cloud migration A. Support of different cloud types
A. Migrate Existing Applications B. Creation and provisioning of different
B. Start from Scratch types of cloud resources, such as machine
instances, storage, or staged applications
C. Seperate Company
C. Performance reporting including avail-
D. Evaluation
ability and uptime, response time, re-
2. In a typical WebApp development team, source quota usage, and other character-
which of the following role constructs the istics
entire user journey map and focuses in D. All of the mentioned
building the product wireframe?
A. Full-stack engineer 5. Which of the following SQL command can
be used to check the number of rows in the
B. UX designer table busroute?
C. Chaos engineer
A. select row count from busroute
D. Site reliability engineer
B. select count(*) from busroute
E. DevOps test engineer
C. select @@rowcount from busroute
3. How many Phases of Cloud Migration D. select sys.db stats number
A. 1 of row from busroute
B. 2
6. Point out the wrong statement.
C. 3
A. In theory, any application can run ei-
D. 5 ther completely or partially in the cloud
4. Which of the following is a core manage- B. The location of an application or ser-
ment feature offered by most cloud man- vice plays a fundamental role in how the
agement service products? application must be written

1. D 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. B 6. D
1.1 Cloud Migration 3

C. An application or process that runs on 11. In cybersecurity risk assessment, what is

a desktop or server is executed coher- not a standard action to take after the
ently, as a unit, under the control of an identification of the risk?

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integrated program A. Mitigate the risk
D. None of the mentioned B. Avoid the risk
7. tests are conducted to ensure that mi- C. Transfer the risk
gration has been successful. D. Publicize the risk
A. Post Migration
12. Which of the following is true?
B. Pre Migration A. We should not consider encryption of
C. Both emails as an option in information secu-
rity as this will increase the latency
D. None
B. End-point security is not necessary as
8. Which of the following is not a benefit this takes up storage space on the user
for choosing a cloud managed database device
service such as AWS RDS, Azure SQL
C. Anti-virus signature list need not be up-
Database or Google Cloud SQL?
dated for up to a year
A. They manage software patching D. Security awareness training is one of
B. They manage failure recovery the most effective way to equip employ-
ees with knowledge in data assets protec-
C. They provide automated backup op-
tion
tions
D. They optimize performance and pro- 13. An application that needed storage
vide high availability alone might not benefit from a cloud de-
ployment at all.
E. They manage the entire user access
security levels A. online
B. offline
9. Which of the following type of virtualiza-
tion is also characteristic of cloud comput- C. virtual
ing? D. all of the mentioned
A. Storage 14. What is not personal data in the context
B. Application of Singapore’s Personal Data Protection
Act?
C. CPU
A. Business phone number
D. All of the mentioned
B. NRIC number
10. optimizations identified are Imple- C. Date of birth
mented in Provioning
D. Gender
A. Post Migration
15. Which of the following technology stack
B. PreMigration
is not suitable for creating web applica-
C. Both tions?
D. None A. LAMP

7. A 8. E 9. D 10. B 11. D 12. D 13. B 14. A 15. D

1.1 Cloud Migration 4

B. MEAN 21. Which of the following web service can

C. LYME be controlled by iAWSManager cloud app
from an iPhone?
D. CALM
E. MERN A. EC2

16. Which is the odd one in phases of cloud B. ELB

Migration
C. SQS
A. Evaluation

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. d) All of the mentioned
B. Migrating Strategy
C. Prototyping
22. What is the most important outcome of
D. Provisioning and Testing adopting an agile methodology for soft-
E. Infrastructure ware development?

17. The technology used to distribute service A. We can accomplish more work with
requests to resources is referred to as fewer people
A. load performing B. We can forget about producing docu-
B. load scheduling mentation
C. load balancing
C. It can speed up our project execution
D. all of the mentioned time
18. What is not an important factor to consider D. We can build more generalists in the
in any cybersecurity protection frame- software development team
work?
E. We can create better transparency
A. Threats
with all stakeholders
B. Vulnerabilities
C. Mitigation of the cybersecurity risk 23. Which of the following is the first level ap-
D. Spending whatever it takes to protect plicable attribute?
the business
A. Availability
19. .Full form of SOA
B. Monitoring
A. Service Oriented Architecture
B. Service on going Architrcture C. Configuring
C. Both D. All of the mentioned
D. None
24. Full form of SLA
20. How many Approaches for Cloud Migra-
tion? A. Service Level Agreements
A. 1
B. Service Legacy Agreement
B. 4
C. 2 C. Service Line Agreement

D. 5 D. Service Life Agreement

16. E 17. C 18. D 19. A 20. B 21. D 22. E 23. A 24. A 25. B
 1.2 Cloud Deployment 5

25. Application migration can be difficult be- E. network needs and dependencies.
cause
27. What are the Two Strategies in Migration

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A. Applications take up a lot of storage
Strategy
space.
B. Applications are designed to run on A. Hot Plug Strategy
the platform they were developed on. B. Fusion Plug Stategy
C. It’s not. Application migration is be- C. Both
coming increasingly simple because of the
growing need to move applications. D. None

D. IT often doesn’t take time to fully 28. How does Cloud computing change the
understand applications before migrating relationship between provider and cus-
them. tomer?
26. Some applications should not be moved to A. Increased focus on service level
the cloud because of their agreements (SLAs)
A. network needs. B. Less compliance to standards
B. complexity. C. Less focus on service level agree-
C. lifespan. ments (SLAs)
D. dependencies. D. More focus on training

1.2 Cloud Deployment

1. PowerVM was designed by security controls, privacy impact, perfor-
mance, etc.
A. IBM
A. Auditor
B. Dell
B. Carrier
C. VMware
C. Broker
D. Oracle
D. Consumer
2. converts requests from the Service
management layer and the monitoring, 4. Which is not the benefit of cloud comput-
chargeback modules to appropriate action ing?
items which are then submitted to provi- A. On-demand access
sioning and configuration module for final B. Reliability
closure.
C. Security and Privacy
A. CMDB
D. Energy efficiency
B. Service Catalog
5. enables cloud service providers to con-
C. Cloud Lifecycle Management Layer
vert physical data centers into highly elas-
D. Orchestration tic virtual data centers.

3. A cloud auditor can evaluate the services A. IBM Smart Cloud Entry
provided by a cloud provider in terms of B. IBM Smart Cloud Foundation

26. E 27. C 28. A 1. A 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. D

1.2 Cloud Deployment 6

C. IBM Smart Cloud Solution C. 4

D. vCloud Director D. 6

6. In which cloud infrastructure is shared be- 12. Dell Boomi, Cloudmore and Vendasta are
tween different organizations the examples of
A. Private Cloud A. Broker
B. Public Cloud B. Auditor
C. Carrier

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Hybrid Cloud
D. Community Cloud D. Provider

7. Number of actors defined in IBM CCRA 13. refers to both the applications deliv-
ered as services over the Internet
A. 4
A. Cloud Computing
B. 3
B. Cluster Computing
C. 5
C. utility Computing
D. 6
D. grid computing
8. BSS is
14. ISACA Cloud Security Certificate deals in
A. Business Support Service
B. BPaas Support Service A. Broker
C. Business System Service B. Carrier
D. Broker Support Service C. Provider
9. An intermediary that provides connectivity D. Auditor
and transport of cloud services from Cloud
15. A company is considering a cloud environ-
Providers to Cloud Consumers.
ment to improve the operating efficiency
A. Broker for their data and applications. The com-
B. Auditor pany is part of an industry where strict
security and data privacy issues are of the
C. Carrier
highest importance. Which type of cloud
D. Arbitrage would be a good choice?
10. Which is not the deployment model defined A. Public
by NIST? B. Private
A. Public C. Hybrid
B. Private D. Community
C. Multi-Cloud
16. The Collaboration of Private and Public
D. Community Cloud cloud is
11. Number of services defined in service layer A. Hybrid Cloud
of IBM CCRA? B. Community Cloud
A. 5 C. Cloud Engine
B. 3 D. Cloud Servers

6. D 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. C 11. C 12. A 13. A 14. D 15. C 16. A 17. A

 1.3 Cloud services 7

17. Government of India launched Meghraj for B. Legal issues

A. a set of distributed cloud computing C. Lack of Standards

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environment having a set of standards D. No up-front commitments
B. a dedicated software to monitor rain-
fall 22. Which customer scenario best fits a deploy-
ment on a public cloud?
C. a data analytic software for weather
forecast A. A customer whose IT infrastructure is
underutilized.
D. Cloud computing infrastructure for
civil avaiation B. A customer who deals with highly sen-
sitive user information.
18. Google cloud platform is an example for C. A customer who does not have the IT
A. Private Cloud infrastructure to handle variable system
load.
B. Public Cloud
D. A customer who is not too concerned
C. Hybrid Cloud
about security control over their data, and
D. Community Cloud the system load is almost a constant at all
times.
19. CMDB is
A. Content Management Database 23. Which delivery model is an example of
a cloud computing environment that pro-
B. Control Management Database
vides users with a web based email ser-
C. Configuration Management Database vice?
D. Configuration Manager Database A. SaaS
20. Which one provides cloud services under B. PaaS
Meghraj initiative C. IaaS
A. NIC D. NaaS
B. NIT 24. How many actors are defined in NIST
C. MIT Model?
D. NIIC A. 4

21. Which is not the challenge in cloud comput- B. 5

ing? C. 3
A. Continuously Evolving D. 6

1.3 Cloud services

1. Which is a vendor for BPaaS? 2. Which one of the following is the most ap-
A. Salesforce propriate ‘respond’ action when an online
business’s customer contact details have
B. GoogleDocs been compromised?
C. Kissflow
D. Mailchimp A. Publicise widely across all social me-

18. B 19. C 20. A 21. D 22. C 23. A 24. B 1. C 2. C

1.3 Cloud services 8

dia party, or some combination of them, and

B. Inform the local police it may exist on or off premises”?

C. Inform the named person in the action A. Private cloud

plan B. Public cloud
D. Email all members of staff
C. Community cloud
3. What is the benefit to a business if
D. Hybrid cloud
aDisaster Recovery Plan is compliant with

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ISO standards?
7. Which of these is not essential for a Vir-
A. It is enforced by government depart- tual Machine to be created
ments
A. RAM
B. It always reduces the cost of recovery
from a disaster B. CPU
C. It demonstrates the procedures are in- C. Storage
ternationally accepted best practice
D. GPU
D. It means that testing of the proce-
dures is never required 8. Why should a company have a DRP?
4. A new server platform is being installed. A. Because it looks good
For the Type 1 hypervisors to use its full
capabilities, what must be configured? B. To prevent disasters happening

A. MIBs C. It can help minimise damage in a dis-

aster
B. OIDs
C. IPMI D. Because other companies have them
D. BIOS
9. A third-party provider hosts applications
5. Place these in order from smallest to and makes them available to customers
largest storage capacity:a) cloud, b)thumb over the Internet.
drive, c)laptop, d) data center A. SaaS
A. A, B, D, C
B. IaaS
B. D, A, B, C
C. Paas
C. B, C, D, A
D. Traditional model
D. A, B, C, D

6. Which of the following does the NIST de- 10. What is Ubiquitous Access?
fine as “The cloud infrastructure is provi-
A. Anytime, anywhere, any device cloud
sioned for exclusive use by a specific com-
access
munity of consumers from organizations
that have shared concerns (e.g., mission, B. Sometime, somewhere, some devices
security requirements, policy, and compli- cloud access
ance considerations). It may be owned,
C. Anytime, some devices access
managed, and operated by one or more of
the organizations in the community, a third D. No access anytime

3. C 4. D 5. C 6. C 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. A 11. C
1.3 Cloud services 9

11. Why is having a large amount of RAM an C. PTR

important requirement for a cloud server? D. SRV

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A. It is required by modern networks
16. Which of the following is an essential re-
B. It enables the server to be adminis- quirement of information security in a pub-
tered remotely lic cloud?
C. It allows multiple instances of services A. Data integrity.
to be run
B. Server type.
D. It prevents unnecessary system shut-
C. Firewall specification.
downs
D. Network hardware.
12. Which characteristic of cloud technology
might be particularly beneficial to a new 17. Which one of the following is the most ap-
business that needs to be operational very propriate ‘restore’ step for a large busi-
quickly? ness where the internal network has been
restored following a crash?
A. Rapid deployment of services
A. Reset all access points in the business
B. Minimum investment in hardware
B. Reconfigure all VLANs
C. Potential for automation
C. Validate all network infrastructure
D. Ability to be widely accessible
D. Replace all switches in the network
13. Which of the following is a benefit of a
data restore? 18. Which of these isn’t a hosted application?

A. You can set up your entire system after A. Google Docs

a fault B. Photoshop
B. You can restore data that was not C. Lucid Chart
saved D. Dropbox
C. You can restore data that has been cor-
rupted 19. What is a suitable ‘respond’ step for a
small business when a virus has been de-
D. You can restore system configurations tected on a desktop?
14. Which cloud service should be used to run A. Inform the business owner
an application that is accessed using a web B. Analyse and assess the risk
browser?
C. Carry out a full back up
A. SaaS
D. Remove all devices from the network
B. IaaS
20. Cloud computing model that provides vir-
C. NaaS
tualized computing resources over the in-
D. PaaS ternet.
15. Which DNS resource record maps a host A. IaaS
name to an IP address? B. PaaS
A. A and AAAA C. SaaS
B. CNAME D. RaaS

12. A 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. B 20. A 21. A
1.3 Cloud services 10

21. Where should a company keep their DRP? 25. What is a suitable ‘prevent’ step for a call
centre business with a high turnover of
A. In a file on the company network that
staff?
employees can access
A. Single point of authentication
B. In a restricted file only the board can
see B. Password change every 30 days
C. Two step authentication
C. On their website
D. Username change every week
D. In a filing cabinet at reception

NARAYAN CHANGDER
26. Which of the following is an essential fea-
22. Which backups save all data every time ture of virtualization?
they carry out a backup?
A. Security.
A. Differential B. Centralized logon.
B. Full C. Shared hardware.
C. Mirror D. High-speed networks.
D. Complete 27. Why do we perform test restores?

23. Which of the following is the MOST impor- A. To ensure data is saved and backup up
tant reason for creating separate users / correctly
identities in a Cloud environment? B. To ensure the computer network con-
nection is stable
A. You can see a list of users by name
C. To check the DNS server is working
B. You can associate activity with an indi-
vidual D. To ensure data saved is within the
Data Protections Act
C. You can let users see their actual
name 28. Which one of the following is the best ex-
planation of a Recovery Point Objective
D. You can use the list of users to organ-
(RPO) when applied to a service that relies
ise the company events
on regular access to a database system?
24. Which of the following is not an example A. It’s the maximum period of time that
of cloud computing? the business can afford for database
downtime
A. A company is going to activate hosted
servers automatically to handle extra pro- B. It’s the stage at which the recovery
cessing requirement as needed. and the database are checked for integrity
C. It’s the target time set to recoverthe
B. A company is going to consolidate 5
database in full after theincident
web servers on to a single physical server
based at it datacenter. D. It’s the plan to be activated when the
database has been fully recovered
C. The company’s staff will access its
hosted CRM application via their web 29. Which law may be broken if a cloud host-
browsers. ing provider choses to host personal data
D. A method for structuring data more ef- in a non-EU country?
ficiently at less cost to the user. A. Computer misuse law

22. B 23. B 24. C 25. C 26. C 27. A 28. A 29. D

1.3 Cloud services 11

B. Human rights law B. An application for external use only, on

C. Official secrets law a public cloud system.

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D. Data protection law C. An application for internal use only, on
company-owned systems.
30. Which of the following best describe virtu-
D. An application for internal use only, on
alization?
a public cloud system.
A. A method for organizing servers more
efficiently to double the number of acces- 34. Which of the following is a characteristic
sible users. of cloud computing?
B. A set of techniques for hiding software A. It is typically based on web technology.
resources behind hardware abstractions.
B. It is typically based on open Internet
C. A set of techniques for hiding hard- technologies.
ware resources behind software abstrac-
tions. C. It is cheaper compared to virtualiza-
tion.
D. A method for structuring data more ef-
ficiently at less cost to the user. D. It typically uses XML technologies

31. What are the types of cloud services? 35. Which of the following is not a backup
A. Public, private and hybrid clouds type?
B. Personal area (PAN), Local area (LAN), A. Differential
Campus area networks (CAN) B. Incremental
C. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS),
C. Mirror
platform as a service (PaaS), software as
a service (SaaS) D. Segment
D. Mail server, collaboration server, web
36. Which one of the following is a viable con-
server, application server
tingency plan for coping with internet loss
32. A company’s IT department manages a due to connectivity failure?
database located on a server in its own A. An alternative ISP network
datacenter. After this server has been mi-
grated to the cloud, which of the following B. A faster connection
responsibilities of the IT department will C. An increase in local storage
remain most affected by the change?
D. A WiFi connection
A. Service Design.
B. Service Transition. 37. Windows Azure, Heroku, Force.com,
Google App Engine, Apache Stratos, Open-
C. Service Operation.
Shift are examples of ..
D. Service Strategy.
A. IaaS
33. Which of the following is a private cloud B. XaaS
application?
C. PaaS
A. An application for external use only, on
company-owned systems. D. SaaS

30. C 31. C 32. C 33. C 34. B 35. D 36. A 37. C 38. A

1.3 Cloud services 12

38. What is Mean Time Between Fails 42. How does cloud computing affect service
(MTBF)? operations? Choose the best answer.
A. It is a measure of how reliable a com- A. The launching servers is quicker.
ponent is B. The launching servers is slower.
B. It is a count of how many times a com-
C. Services are more cost-effective.
ponent has developed a fault
D. The level of security will increase.
C. It is a way of counting storage space

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. It is a measure of return on investment 43. What is the process of using third party
servers to store data and run online appli-
39. What is the next ‘restore’ step for a soft- cations?
ware house to take when deleted data has
A. Data Center Processing
been restored and verified?
B. Cloud Computing
A. Report the data loss to the authorities
C. Networking
B. Inform the Chairman of the Board
D. Internet Usage
C. Review the cause of the incident plan
D. Change the key personnel 44. What is the correct format for the 3-2-1
Backup Policy
40. A new user has joined an organisation and
needs access to IT resources. To give them A. 3 Copies kept Off-Site, 2 Different
access, what would an infrastructure tech- Types of Backup Media, 1 Copy of Backup
nician need to do? B. 3 Copies of the Backup, 2 Different
A. Give the new user someone else’s ac- Types of Backup Media, 1 Copy kept Off-
count site

B. Give the new user an Admin account C. 3 Different Types of Backup Media, 2
Copies Made of Backup, 1 Copy kept Off-
C. Give the new user an account with site
their name
D. 3 Copies of the Backup, 2 Copies kept
D. Give the new user a temporary ac- Off-site, 1 Type of Backup Media
count
45. Which of the following is an early example
41. Why do business users sometimes prefer
of a cloud service?
to deal with cloud vendors rather than a
traditional internal IT department? A. Web e-mail.
A. Reduced financial risk to the business. B. Virtualization.
B. The fee is based on projected monthly C. Video streaming.
revenue of the client. D. Datacenters
C. They can measure the provider’s qual-
ity of service better. 46. Which one of the following is the most
important consideration when delivering a
D. They do can utilize cloud resources cloud based database application?
more tax-efficiently. It is quicker and eas-
ier to provision resources from a cloud A. The design of the command line Inter-
service provider than from the IT depart- face
ment. B. The latency of the system

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1.3 Cloud services 13

C. The location of the web interface C. Hybrid cloud

D. The back-up software manufacturer D. Private cloud

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

47. Which of the following is not an essential 52. What is a hybrid Cloud?
characteristic of cloud computing? A. Cloud serving more than one customer
A. On-demand self-service. B. Cloud relying on different technologies
B. Resource pooling. C. combination of private and public
C. Sustainability. Cloud
D. Measured service. D. Cloud offering IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS

48. Elastic computing is related to which of the 53. Which one of the following is a violation
following cloud characteristics? of the Computer Misuse Act (1990)?
A. Security. A. Authorised user logs on to a remote
computer
B. Scalability.
B. Data stored in a non EU country
C. Integrity.
C. Unauthorised access to a client’s lap-
D. Distribution. top
49. Infrastructure used by a single organiza- D. Client data transferred to a new host
tion.
54. Which of the following is not a reason to
A. Community Cloud test backups?
B. Public Cloud A. To check they work
C. Private Cloud B. To ensure they are still relevant
D. Hybrid Cloud C. To check the data restore is correct
50. Which of the following is NOT a reason to D. To check other people data in files
test a Disaster Recovery Plan
55. Which of these is an advantage of cloud
A. Helps to show if the business needs to storage?
adapt their Disaster Recovery Plan to in-
A. The user has no control over their data
clude/outline more details, roles or pro-
cesses. B. Many programs can be run at the same
time, regardless of the processing power
B. Can help to Identify the time it takes
of your device
business critical systems back online and
Recovery Point Objective C. Accessible anywhere with an internet
connection
C. Ensures the Backups can actually be
recovered from. D. Portability
D. Tests if people can stop a disaster 56. in Cloud, BPaaS stands for
51. All of these are types of cloud services ex- A. Business Productivity as a service
cept B. Business Process as a service
A. Public cloud C. Business Program as a service
B. Segregated cloud D. Business Policy as a service

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1.3 Cloud services 14

57. Which type of cloud service is provided by D. Data as a service, storage as a service,
Office 365? platform as a service
A. PaaS 62. What do you have to provide for login?
B. IaaS A. E-mail, password, personal datas
C. NaaS B. E-mail and password
D. SaaS C. Email and personal datas
D. Personal datas and password

NARAYAN CHANGDER
58. Which one of the following best describes
the term ‘hybrid cloud’?
63. Place these in order from smallest to
A. When high speed processing is re- largest storage capacity:A) the cloud; B) a
quired in house thumb drive; C) a laptop; D) a data center.
B. When a mix of private, public and com- A. D, A, C, B
munity cloud models are used B. A, B, C, D
C. When the latest developments in cloud C. B, C, D, A
model storage are deployed
D. C, D, A, B
D. When a business wants to use only its
own dedicated cloud model 64. Which one of the following is a key techni-
cal consideration in choosing a tablet to be
59. Cloud computing allows you to consolidate used by field staff to access a cloud based
computing resources in a central database. web service?
What is a synonym for “consolidate? ”
A. The manufacturer’s warranty
A. Delete
B. The storage capacity
B. Combine
C. The provision of USB ports
C. Lock
D. The size and weight of the device
D. Split
65. Facilities that house large collections of
60. Which of the following are involved in set- servers are called
ting the objectives and expectations for a A. Data Centers
cloud computing solution?
B. Computer Processing Plants
A. Service Transition.
C. Internet Routing Facilities
B. Service Strategy.
D. Cloud Computing Centers
C. Service Operation.
66. Which of these is not a benefit to cloud
D. Service Design.
computing?
61. Type of cloud services: A. Saves storage space on your PC
A. Softwer as a service, data as a service, B. Gives you access to files from any com-
storage as a service, platform as a service puter
B. Softwer as a service, storage as a ser- C. Protects your files from being lost due
vice, platform as a service to PC failure
C. Softwer as a service, data as a service, D. Completely protects your information
storage as a service from cloud hackers

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1.3 Cloud services 15

67. Which of the following allows you to C. Running an operating system

change the cloud resources based on the D. All of the above
required workload?

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A. Scalability 72. What is PaaS?
B. Availability A. Portfolio as a service
C. Elasticity B. Platform and architecture Security
D. Redundancy C. Personnel as a service
D. Platform as a Service
68. Which one of the following best describes
the situation in which a single instance 73. Which of the following is an example of
of software runs on a server and serves risk avoidance, following a risk analysis of
more than one consumer? a server room located in a basement and
A. Single tenancy prone to seasonal flooding?

B. Multi-tenancy A. The server room was relocated on an

upper floor
C. Pay as you grow
B. The main server rack was placed be-
D. Single occupancy hind waterproof doors
69. Which DNS record would have to be con- C. The users were notified of risk to ser-
figured for a cloud based email service? vice during wet season
A. CNAME record D. Contingency plan was drawn up to re-
locate if flooding was imminent
B. MX record
C. AAAA record 74. Which of these is not an example of cloud
computing?
D. PTR record
A. Dropbox
70. How can a business test their Disaster Re-
B. iCloud
covery Plan?
C. Facebook
A. Turning off all systems and turning
them back on D. All are examples of cloud computing
B. During out of office hours, use the lat- 75. Google Apps
est backup copy of the system and testing
whether the Backup is restorable. A. SaaS

C. Shut down one system at a time un- B. PaaS

til the business notices and can no longer C. IaaS
work. D. None of these
D. Download a virus onto the system
and then implement the disaster recovery 76. Which of the following distinguishes pri-
plan. vate from public cloud services?
A. Private cloud services are never acces-
71. What is cloud computing? sible via the Internet.
A. Storing files on the Internet B. Private cloud services do not provide
B. Running programs on a remote server scalability.

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1.3 Cloud services 16

C. Private cloud services are dedicated 81. Which term best describes the hosting
for the use of one organization. model where the customer is only respon-
D. Private cloud services are more eco- sible for the applications it is developing?
nomical than public cloud services. A. SaaS
77. What is an essential requirement for a B. XaaS
provider offering multi-tenancy in a cloud C. IaaS
based service?
D. PasS

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Data is segregated between different
clients 82. A company has migrated its e-mail service
B. Clients enabled to raise requests to a cloud provider. Which of the following
C. User interface is customisable is most likely to affect all company staff?

D. Traffic is monitored A. Availability of service.

B. Cost of service.
78. Which of the following is a drawback of
direct costs when implementing cloud com- C. Maintainability of service.
puting? D. Location of service.
A. It cannot be applied to SaaS.
B. It only works with SaaS. 83. In a private cloud, what does the term
“tenant” refer to? (Select 2 Answers)
C. It is harder to budget for.
A. Two applications within the same ac-
D. It is more expensive. count
79. Which funding model should be used to pay B. The customer renting the service
for several servers?
C. The operator of the cloud service
A. CapEx
D. A customer’s business unit
B. Subscription
C. Pay as you go 84. Which of the following should NOT be con-
tained within a Disaster Recovery Plan
D. OpEx
A. Roles & Responsibilities
80. What is a System Restore?
B. Restore & Backup Plan
A. The process of using a backup to re-
store/overwrite a system to the date & C. Open hours for the Business
time the copy was made. Erasing all new D. Communication Plan
data.
B. Removing the old system and buying a 85. Which command is used to show the route
new system. that packets take when accessing a spe-
cific server?
C. Resetting/Wiping a system and send-
ing the system back to it’s first version. A. telnet
D. The process of using a backup to re- B. netstat
store/overwrite a system to the date &
C. tracert
time the copy was made. Keeping all new
data. D. ping

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1.3 Cloud services 17

86. Which of these is an example of remote 90. Which of the following is the MOST impor-
data storage (aka being in the cloud)? tant consideration for service management
arising from elasticity of capacity?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Saving a digital photo to a computer’s
hard drive. A. Need for better security management
B. Saving a digital photo to a flash drive. B. Need for good performance monitor-
ing and management
C. Saving a digital photo to an online
photo album. C. Need for good fulfillment and provi-
sioning processes
D. Saving a digital photo to a CD.
D. Need for better application develop-
87. A cloud provider supplies storage, process- ment
ing, and memory to multiple tenants using
91. You enter the support team’s phone num-
physical and virtual resources. This is an
bers into the network management sys-
example of which of the following cloud
tem. What service is being used?
characteristics?
A. SNMP
A. On-demand self-service.
B. Syslog
B. Measured service.
C. SMS
C. Resource pooling.
D. Federations
D. Rapid elasticity.
92. What are security aspects provided by
88. Which one of the following is a viable con- cloud services?
tingency plan for coping with loss of a hard A. Zero infrastructure investment, just-in-
disk on a real time Network Attached Stor- time infrastructure
age (NAS)?
B. Access control, identity management,
A. Having a server that can be brought on- authentication and authorization
line on short notice
C. Quick and easy setup, smooth organi-
B. Creating a hot swappable RAID config- zation system, single management envi-
uration ronment
C. Informing users to work locally until D. Calculable cloud architecture, provide
the server is restored manageable workload dynamics
D. Informing users that services will not 93. Allows clients to remotely use IT hardware
be available for that day and resources on a “pay-as-you-go” basis
89. Which of the following considerations A. PaaS (Platform as a Service)
would be most likely to persuade a com- B. IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
pany to use SaaS? C. Saas (Software as a Service)
A. Elimination of application mainte- D. FaaS (functions as a service)
nance.
94. When conducting a risk assessment, Which
B. Lowering of thin client management
one of the following poses the highest risk
costs.
of fire starting in a server room?
C. Decrease of application downtime. A. Presence of a kitchen in the same
D. Increased security. block

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1.3 Cloud services 18

B. Lack of fire extinguishers near the B. Cloud bursting

room C. Bridging
C. Location of server room in basement
D. Harvesting
D. Overloaded power supply in the room
99. Which of these is an OPINION about cloud
95. With which cloud service model can con- computing?
sumers use the provider’s applications but
A. Businesses use the cloud to stream-
not manage or control any of the underly-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
line operations.
ing cloud infrastructure?
B. Shared resources on the cloud can be
A. SaaS
accessed by multiple users.
B. PaaS
C. Storing data on the cloud is safer than
C. IaaS storing it in local servers.
D. GaaS D. Some have concerns about security
and privacy in the cloud.
96. In cloud computing, how does a business
benefit by the ability to scale resources on 100. You want to deploy an application to the
demand. cloud but you want to ensure that the ac-
A. Having a 3rd party to manage ser- tual data is stored in-house. Which type
vice delivery allows the business to lower of cloud should be used?
staffing costs. A. dedicated public cloud
B. It is more cost effective to pay for re- B. private cloud
sources used rather than having to pay
for resources capable of meeting peak de- C. hosted private cloud
mand at all times. D. hybrid cloud
C. Fewer in-house servers reduce power
costs in the business’ data center. 101. Provides clients with the ability to use
software applications on a remote basis
D. Shorter contracts and less capital ex- via an internet web browser
pense reduce expenses of the IT depart-
ment. A. PaaS (Platform as a Service)
B. Saas (Software as a Service)
97. Which one of the following is typically
used as a measure of Quality of Service C. IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
in Cloud Services? D. FaaS (Function as a service)
A. Delay in traffic
102. A software development company wants
B. Scalability to move its application development to the
C. Ease of use cloud. Which type of service is most appro-
priate?
D. Security
A. IaaS
98. Which of the following involves offloading
B. PaaS
traffic to resources from a cloud provider
if your own servers become too busy? C. SaaS
A. Ballooning D. DBaaS

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1.3 Cloud services 19

103. What is an example of PaaS? 108. What are the risks of cloud computing?
A. Google App Engine A. No troubleshooting issues

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. Amazon Web Services B. Full control over the data
C. Storing data without control
C. SAP Business onDemand
D. No government intrusion
D. Google Calendar
109. Which of the following statements is true
104. How does infrastucture as a service pro- about incident management in the cloud?
vided?
A. It is entirely the responsibility of the
A. Hardware Service vendor.
B. Virtualization B. It is easier than in traditional forms of
computing because of the added tools that
C. Cloud services the vendor provides.
D. Virtual realization C. It is more difficult because of the lack
of transparency of vendor processes.
105. What DNS record is this? They’re used
to point visitors to a domain or subdomain D. It is entirely the responsibility of the
of an IP address using the record name in- customer.
formation. 110. Bricks are to buildings as are to the
A. A Record cloud.
B. CNAME A. Websites
B. Computer programs
C. MX Record
C. Personal computers
D. AAAA
D. Data centers
106. Which one of the following is the most
111. Which of the following CANNOT be of-
important to include when drawing up a
fered as a service via Cloud Computing?
Service Level Agreement (SLA) with a ser-
vice provider? A. hardware

A. The list of available workstations B. software

C. storage space
B. The benefits of the service
D. data
C. The password for the portal
112. How do demand management processes
D. The expected availability and reliability
change with the adoption of SaaS by an
organization?
107. Which of these terms best describes the
service that gives the customer the least A. New vendors need to be accommo-
amount of control? dated.
A. XaaS B. Business units can procure SaaS solu-
tions directly.
B. PaaS
C. Number of virtual machines can fluctu-
C. SaaS ate with demand.
D. On Site D. Maintenance will become easier.

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1.3 Cloud services 20

113. How does cloud computing improve busi- computing resource, such as hardware or
ness flexibility? software on a subscription basis
A. Easier access by users from external A. Private Cloud
locations. Faster deployment of applica- B. Hybrid Cloud
tions. Rapid response to changing capac-
ity. Rapid provisioning of resources. C. Community Cloud
B. Increase hardware efficiency.Improve D. Public Cloud
customer reliability

NARAYAN CHANGDER
118. All hardware and software is in house
C. It is cheaper compared to virtualiza- managed by the organisation.
tion.Decreased security.
A. Traditional on premises
D. Shorter contracts and less capital ex-
B. SaaS
pense reduce expenses of the IT depart-
ment C. PaaS
D. IaaS
114. A company decides to subscribe to a new
CRM service. Which service type is most 119. Which statement best describes one of
likely to be implemented? the responsibilities of an IT Manager in en-
A. SaaS suring that disaster recovery goes accord-
ing to plan?
B. PaaS
A. To maintain an accurate and up to date
C. IaaS
asset register of all hardware
D. XaaS
B. To keep a list of local first aiders on the
115. What can be offered as a part of IaaS? same floor as the server room
A. application software C. To ensure that adequate budget has
been set aside for IT upgrades
B. call-center services
D. To ensure that the emergency alarms
C. computing capacity
in the server room are working
D. consulting
120. Which one is not a factor required for a
116. Why is it important for the user to have secure password?
the ability to customise the User Interface
A. Number patterns (eg 12345 )
(UI) on a cloud service?
B. At least 8 characters
A. It ensures higher security as strict
passwords are enforced C. Two-factor authentication
B. It can provide appropriate user acces- D. Mixture of letters, numbers and sym-
sibility options bols
C. It allows more consistent monitoring 121. For a particular SaaS application, the
of users cloud provider is required to perform
D. It will allow a faster response time for scheduled maintenance. On which of the
any faults raised following does this have a direct impact?

117. A type of cloud deployment model sup- A. Service Design.

ports all users who want to make use of a B. Service Transition.

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1.3 Cloud services 21

C. Service Operation. providers can use the services of a single

D. Service Strategy. identity provider?

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A. Scalability
122. Select one or more cloud computing de-
B. Federation
ployment models from the list below:
C. Self-service
A. IaaS
D. Virtualization
B. public cloud
127. What are the benefits of an off-site use?
C. private cloud
A. Save storage space
D. SaaS
B. Improves disaster recovery
E. PaaS
C. Increases collaboration
123. Which of the following is not a benefit of D. Terms of agreement
cloud computing?
128. Which of the following is the most impor-
A. Improved resilience and agility
tant requirement of a contract with a cloud
B. Server consolidation service provider, if the customer wishes to
C. Better control retain the ability to bring the service back
in-house?
D. Reduced operational costs
A. Annual audit to measure performance.
124. What is the best way to maintain the B. Ability to terminate contract.
right working temperature for hardware
C. Explicit timeframe for the termination
in a data centre?
of service
A. Provide adequate air-conditioning
D. Customer retains ownership of data.
units
B. Locate the site in a temperate climate 129. What is meant by the term ‘redundancy’
when referring to cloud hosting?
C. Allow plenty of natural ventilation
A. The number of technical staff to be laid
D. Ensure thermometers are installed off
125. Which one of the following best describes B. The quality of the failsafe mechanism
the application of ‘the principle of least employed
privilege’? C. The provision of more than one critical
A. All employees are given super user component
rights D. The withdrawal of unwanted assets
B. All managers have admin rights to ac- 130. Amazon’s Elastic Cloud Computing (EC2)
cess all information is a facility for providing virtual servers.
C. Employees only have the access neces- It is an example of which of the follow-
sary to perform their job role ing?
D. Established employees are given in- A. SaaS .
creased access to the system B. PaaS
126. Which of the following should be im- C. IaaS
plemented to ensure that different cloud D. QoS

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1.3 Cloud services 22

131. What does the term ‘ubiquitous access’ C. instant updated and upgrades
mean when applied to cloud services? D. full control over data and software
A. The service can be accessed from any-
136. What is a disadvantage of cloud comput-
where and from any device
ing?
B. The service is provided on a fixed an- A. It is vulnerable to hacking
nual contract basis
B. The storage can be easily expanded
C. The service is un-interruptible under
C. Portability

NARAYAN CHANGDER
normal conditions
D. All of the above
D. The service can only be accessed using
the same device 137. Which one of the following combinations
is most likely to give the best user experi-
132. Which one of the following statements ence when connecting to cloud services?
is correct about Device ID when accessing
A. Smartphone connected via 4G
cloud services?
B. Laptop connected via Ethernet
A. It is the same as a MAC address
C. Tablet connected via WiFi
B. It is initially set by the manufacturer
D. Desktop connected via WiFi dongle
C. It is initially set by the user
138. Which one of the following statements is
D. It is the same as the IPv6 address
correct about a DHCP server?
133. Which term best describes the ability to A. It only works on a LAN
rapidly increase the user accounts for a B. It allocates the IP address of the de-
given cloud service vice
A. Viability C. It fails to work on a smartphone
B. Volatility D. It decreases risk of a security breach
C. Synchronicity 139. What makes self-service portals attrac-
D. Elasticity tive to the cloud service provider?
A. They allow consumers to configure the
134. What is the most appropriate ‘recovery’
latency
step for a software house when the latest
release has been accidently deleted? B. They are complicated to configure
A. Conduct a restore from the original C. They reduce the cost of service provi-
backup sion
D. They are complex for the customer to
B. Replace a disk in RAID array
use
C. Conduct a restore from the latest
tested backup 140. Which of the following is a definition of
how much data can be sent across a net-
D. Run a full malware scan work link in one second?
135. Which of the following is NOT a potential A. Network speed.
advantage of Cloud Computing? B. Network bandwidth.
A. utility-based payment C. Network latency.
B. scalability and flexibility D. QoS.

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1.3 Cloud services 23

141. What is a hosted application? 146. Real time data processing in a cloud func-
A. A cloud network created and contained tion does not help in

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within a company’s own system A. Video and image analysis
B. Application owned to oversee infras- B. File processing
tructure C. Stream processing
C. Monitoring software D. Event driven extract, transform and
D. Software that enables users to use ap- load function
plications on a cloud infrastructure
147. Which of the following cloud service mod-
142. Which command allows you to see the els would be used for renting hardware,
IP configuration, including the DNS servers computing power and storage from a cloud
and default gateway? service provider?
A. netstat-a A. SaaS
B. ipconfig /all B. PaaS
C. tracert C. IaaS
D. showall D. XaaS
143. Why does cloud computing shift capital 148. Users are able to provision cloud comput-
cost to variable cost? ing resources without requiring human in-
A. Cloud computing is more cost- teraction.
efficient. A. On-demand self-service
B. Servers are better utilized. B. On demand action
C. IT assets are not owned by the cus- C. Self service console
tomer. D. Automated service
D. Some IT staff can be laid off.
149. How can an organization successfully im-
144. Which of the following statements is cor- plement a SaaS solution?
rect about ‘Load Balancing’? A. Manage the risks associated with us-
A. It can reduce the load on the router ing external suppliers. Continuously mon-
B. It can distribute the load between itor the performance of suppliers.
servers B. Throw it at a computer monitor
C. It can increase security C. Open up internal databases to web ser-
D. It can increase power overload vice access.
D. Standardize on a limited set of virtual
145. Provides a platform allowing customers machines to increase security.
to develop, run, and manage applications
without the complexity of building and 150. Amazon Web Services, Microsoft Azure,
maintaining the infrastructure. Google Compute Engine are
A. PaaS A. IaaS
B. IaaS B. PaaS
C. SaaS C. SaaS
D. AaaS D. All of the above

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1.3 Cloud services 24

151. What are the uses of cloud computing? D. Increased security of applications and
A. Create new apps and services, analyze data due to virtualization.
data, embed intelligence, test and build
156. What is an advantage of Cloud Comput-
applications
ing?
B. Collecting appropriate quantitative
A. Can access you files anywhere
data, helps in drawing valid inferences
C. Input, present and compare collected B. It is safer

NARAYAN CHANGDER
data C. Can access files anywhere you have in-
D. Estimate income data, indicate suc- ternet
cess or failure of planning D. Expensive
152. What is a suitable ‘detect’ mechanism for 157. If two users are accessing the same net-
a data centre with minimal staff? work through the cloud, they probably:
A. Issuing of ID cards A. Are using the same device
B. Irregular security patrols B. Are in the same location
C. Actively monitored CCTV
C. Can access the same shared re-
D. Steel reinforced doors sources
153. Why can Cloud Computing sometimes pro- D. Accessed the cloud at the same time
vide better performance?
158. What must be checked before setting up a
A. specialisation of the technology Virtual Machine (VM) on a Windows work-
B. less friction on the Internet station?
C. no need to worry about security A. The BIOS is the latest version
D. serving a single user B. The BIOS is password protected

154. What is the drawback of cloud computing C. Appropriate support is enabled in the
in education system? BIOS
A. The need for high speed internet ac- D. Ports are configured correctly in BIOS
cess
159. A simple example of SaaS is an online
B. The management of data and products
A. Email service
C. The absence of hardware
B. Server
D. The wide connection of networks
C. Infrastructure service
155. Which of the following is an advantage
D. Platform service
of cloud computing?
A. Decreased downtime due to increased 160. What does CMDB stand for?
control over hosted servers.
A. Customer management database.
B. Increased internal focus on IT when
B. Client management database.
hosting with proven providers.
C. Cloud management database.
C. Increased scalability to meet usage
demands. D. Configuration management database.

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 1.4 Cloud Workloads 25

161. What is a Data Restore? A. Back-up and restore data

A. The process of returning data to a B. Excellent accessibility

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state before it may have been lost, stolen C. Manageability
or damaged.
D. High Security
B. The process of removing/deleting
data. 165. DigitalOcean, Linode, Rackspace are ex-
C. The process of creating new data. amples of

D. The process of returning data to a A. IaaS

state when it was lost, stolen or damaged. B. SaaS

162. Which type of cloud service is Office C. PaaS

365? D. none
A. Storage services 166. Which one of the following describes the
B. Communications services ability of cloud services to scale the capac-
C. Productivity services ity offered to a client?

D. Search services A. Elasticity

B. Plasticity
163. How can cloud computing help to reduce
data integrity risks? C. Ubiquity

A. More easily available back-ups. D. Serviceability

B. Easier monitoring of access and data 167. Which of the following DNS records
usage. would allow for a website to have more
C. Easier to give users access to data in than one FQDN? (alias)
the cloud. A. TXT
D. Easier to have redundant capacity. B. PTR

164. Which is not an Advantage of Cloud Com- C. MX

puting? D. CNAME

1.4 Cloud Workloads

1. is a combination of software devel- datasets, signal to noise,
opment practices that combine software A. Skills Shortage
development and operations in order to
shorten the release lifecycle and improve B. Distance to Data Center
quality of code C. Internet Connection
A. Co-op D. Reliability
B. DevOps 3. Sophos Cloud Optix is an advanced Cloud
C. NetOp Security Posture Management (CSPM) se-
D. none of above curity platform that delivers continuous se-
curity and spends monitoring across multi-
2. Why threat detection so hard? large ple cloud environments.

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 1.5 Cloud Storage 26

A. Private is used for?

B. Public A. Network Development
C. Hybrid B. Software Development
D. none of above C. Asset Development
4. Which of the three is a way of public cloud D. none of above

1.5 Cloud Storage

NARAYAN CHANGDER
1. The main internal storage device of a com- A. Expensive
puter is the B. Don’t need an advanced computer
A. USB flash drive
C. Can be hacked
B. Cloud storage
D. Login details are easily remembered
C. Computer hard drive
6. Which of these is a cloud storage service?
D. Computer file server
A. OneDrive
2. How does using Cloud Storage save
money? B. iCloud

A. There is no need to buy and maintain C. Google Drive

your own hard disks and servers D. All of them
B. Data can be accessed without a com-
7. Backups protect against data loss due to
puter
C. You won’t have to buy so much Inter-
A. file corruption
net access
B. hardware failure
D. Files can be shared with other people
C. hardware failure and file corruption
3. Select all advantages of Cloud Storage
D. neither
A. Accessible with an internet connection
B. Uses less physical storage space 8. How many ways are there to share files?

C. You can forget your login details A. 2

D. All of the above B. 3

C. 4
4. Which of these is not an example of cloud
computing? (2 answers) D. 5
A. Google Drive 9. How often should you need to perform a
B. Office 365 full backup?
C. Google Docs A. Once a month
D. OneDrive B. Once a week

5. Which of these is an advantage of Cloud C. Once a quarter

Computing? D. Once a year

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1.5 Cloud Storage 27

10. How many types of permissions are 15. Storage attached directly to a workstation
there? is known as
A. local storage

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. 1
B. 2 B. network storage
C. cloud storage
C. 3
D. none of above
D. 4
16. In what year was Cloud Storage Integrity
11. Computer file server first used?
A. storage of files in a central location to A. 2018
serve multiple computers B. 2020
B. global network of servers which oper- C. 2019
ate through the internet D. 2021
C. main internal storage device of a com- 17. Choose the correct example of cloud stor-
puter age
D. removable storage device located out- A. Apple iCloud
side of the main computer tower
B. Sony SkyStorage
12. Who is believed to have invented cloud C. Toshiba Troposphere
storage? D. Panasonic Precipitation
A. Ada Lovelace 18. Who can access Cloud Storage?
B. J. C. R. Licklider A. Anyone
C. Bill Gates B. No-one except the user
D. Steve Jobs C. Only Muslims
D. Anyone with a internet connection
13. allows digital files to be stored, man-
aged, synchronized and shared on internet 19. If two users are accessing the same net-
servers through an internet connection. work through the cloud, they are probably

A. Cloud computing
A. are using the same device.
B. File structuring B. are in the same location.
C. Folder tagging C. can access the same shared re-
D. File saving sources.
D. accessed the cloud at the same time.
14. What fully limits your read / write speeds
with cloud storage 20. According to research by Nasuni in 2013,
how much data is stored in the cloud?
A. Your IQ
A. 1 exabyte
B. Distance from server B. 1 petabyte
C. Humidity of the climate C. 500 petabytes
D. Internet connection speed D. 1 yottabyte

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1.5 Cloud Storage 28

21. A folder within a folder is known as which B. most songs and movies are not on the
of the following? cloud yet.
A. Subfolder C. the cloud is not open to the public.
B. Main folder D. you can’t keep the media on your de-
C. File path vice.

D. Root folder 27. Storing and accessing data and programs

over the Internet instead of your com-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
22. Joe needs to convert his Junior High puter’s hard drive is known as what?
Band Food Drive poster he created in Mi-
crosoft®Word®to a PDF file for his band A. Personal Computing
director. He will click on the box in the B. Modern Computing
Save As window to complete this task. C. Bubble Computing
A. Download D. Cloud Computing
B. Save as type
28. Apa nama apps utk sync terus dari
C. File name PC/Laptop/Mobile ke CLoud?
D. Details A. Synology Drive
23. Which of these is not a type of cloud stor- B. Drive Cloud
age C. Cloud Apps Synology
A. Cumulo Nimbus D. Synology Driving
B. iCloud
29. Mrs. Luke wants to buy a photo editing
C. One Drive program. Which of the following is the
D. none of above best argument against buying the cloud-
based program?
24. What do you need to access cloud stor-
age? A. The cloud based version of the pro-
gram is frequently updated.
A. Internet Connection
B. The software requires a huge amount
B. A digital device of storage space,
C. All of the above C. The full version costs hundreds of dol-
D. none of above lars.

25. What important danger must be consid- D. The internet connection is not the most
ered when using cloud storage? reliable.

A. Data security 30. What is a significant advantage of cloud-

B. Data transfer speed based backups?

C. Data integrity A. The backups are geographically dis-

persed.
D. Data recovery
B. The cost is lower for cloud-based back-
26. One drawback of streaming movies and ups than for local backups.
music from the cloud is that C. Restore time is lower than for local
A. cloud services are expensive. backup and restore scenarios.

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1.5 Cloud Storage 29

D. Cloud-based backups are far more se- B. The user has full control over how their
cure than local backups. data is stored.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

C. It can be vulnerable to hacking.
31. Which of these could be a threat to your
cloud Storage D. It is easy to expand storage.
A. Login Details 37. Extension for portable document format
B. Bad Internet connection files:
C. James Merton A. .xlsx
D. All of the Above B. .pdf
C. .jpg
32. The process of changing a file to another
file type is known as D. .docx

A. Cloud computing E. .pptx

B. File conversion 38. Extension for PowerPoint presentations:

C. File naming conventions A. .xlsx
D. File management B. .pdf
C. .jpg
33. Which of these is an example of cloud stor-
age? D. .docx
A. Google Drive E. .pptx
B. Microsoft Azure 39. A network-based data backup is stored
C. iCloud
D. All of the above A. in file servers
B. off site
34. Apa link Cloud Integriti?
C. on DVDs
A. cloud.integriti.my
D. on USB
B. integriti.quickconnect.to
40. Which of these are advantages of Cloud
C. integritimy.quickconnect.to storage
D. cloudintegriti.my A. Secure as it’s password protected
35. Advantages of cloud storage B. Can be accessed by multiple devices
A. Easy to hack C. Needs Internet
B. Easy to damage D. All of the Above
C. Free to use most of the time 41. Security is a major issue with this type of
D. Easy to share files storage
A. cloud storage
36. Which of these is an advantage of physical
storage? B. network storage

A. The user does not have to worry about C. local storage

physical damage. D. none of above

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1.5 Cloud Storage 30

42. Your data is protected in the UK by GDPR. C. Accessible anywhere with an internet
What does it stand for? connection
A. General Digital Private Rules D. Portability
B. General Digital Protection Regulations
48. Which of the following service is provided
C. General Data Protection Regulations by Google for online storage?
D. General Data Private Rules A. Drive
43. Is cloud storage always free? B. SkyDrive

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Yes C. Dropbox
B. No D. All of the above
C. Why would I know? ? !? 1? 49. What is the maximum number of devices
D. none of above that can be synced with Cloud Storage?

44. Online Storage A. 3

A. Onedrive B. 5

B. Icloud C. 6
C. Google Drive D. Unlimited
D. All of them 50. Extenstion for Word processing files:
45. Back ups help a tech A. .xlsx
A. save time and effort B. .pdf
B. make money C. .jpg
C. create a new OS D. .docx
D. install apps E. .pptx

46. Cloud storage 51. Secondary storage is used for

A. storage of files in a central location to A. Storing data being used by the com-
serve multiple computers puter
B. global network of servers which oper- B. Storing programs to be used immedi-
ate through the internet ately by the arithmetic and logic unit
C. main internal storage device of a com- C. Long-term storage of data
puter
D. Storing programs being executed
D. removable storage device located out-
side of the main computer tower 52. What is a possible risk of cloud comput-
ing?
47. Which one is the advantage of cloud stor-
A. Lack of Access to Data
age?
A. The user has no control over their data B. Full control over the data

B. Many programs can be run at the same C. Storage of data without control over
time, regardless of the processing power the location of where the data is stored
of your device D. none of above

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1.5 Cloud Storage 31

53. Using things like Google Docs are useful to 58. What is the primary purpose of perform-
because (choose two) ing an offsite backup or storing backups in
an offsite location?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. No need to install anything on the com-
puter A. Valuable data is protected in case of a
disaster.
B. You need to install on the device
B. There will be no disruption of service
C. Accessible from anywhere (with an In-
in case of a disaster.
ternet connection)
C. Backups should be stored away from
D. Can work without Internet connection
computers because of the magnetic fields
E. You have to be in the office generated by computers.

54. When should you schedule a system’s D. It prevents mixing up of backed up

backup? data.

A. When the system is least busy. 59. Select the disadvantages of cloud comput-
ing
B. At 2AM local time.
A. You can forget your login details
C. On boot up.
B. It means your home computer is upset
D. Any time before 6AM local time.
its not doing anything
55. What can you store on the cloud server? C. You lose control of your data
A. documents D. You require an internet connection
B. videos 60. Portable storage device
C. music A. storage of files in a central location to
D. all of the above serve multiple computers
B. global network of servers which oper-
56. *You don’t need a powerful computer with ate through the internet
a huge hard drive-everything is stored and
run on a remote computer. You can at- C. main internal storage device of a com-
tribute this advantage on ? puter
A. the Internet D. removable storage device located out-
side of the main computer tower
B. Local area networks
C. optical devices 61. What is cloud storage?

D. cloud storage A. Servers hidden in clouds

B. Closed Locations Of Underground Drill
57. Having things like photos saved onto your Storage
cloud as well as your device is known as
C. A type of storage that can be accessed
what
with an internet connection
A. Synchronisation
D. A type of storage that can be accessed
B. Matchification in the clouds
C. Updating 62. Files saved on the cloud can be (choose
D. Backing up two)

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1.5 Cloud Storage 32

A. Downloaded to your device B. Back up your data to a folder on the

same internal drive you use on a daily ba-
B. Uploaded to your device
sis.
C. Deleted from your device
C. Back up your data to the same parti-
D. Deleted from the cloud tion that contains the Windows operating
system.
63. Which of these devices can be accessed re-
motely across the internet? D. Back up your data without using en-
cryption to make sure it is readable when

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Cloud Storage restored.
B. Solid State Drive
68. *You don’t need a powerful computer with
C. USB Memory Stick a huge hard drive-everything is stored and
D. Optical Media run on a remote computer. You can this ad-
vantage on?
64. are creating copies of digital files on a A. the Internet
secondary storage medium.
B. Local area networks
A. File conversions
C. optical devices
B. Cloud computing D. cloud storage
C. Backup procedures
69. The slowest way to back up data is to
D. File management
A. manually move each file to a destina-
65. Facilities that house large collections of tion
servers are called B. run a backup program
A. Data Centres C. copy and paste using the keyboard
B. Computer Processing Plants D. none of these
C. Internet Routing Facilities 70. Testing your backups ensure that
D. Cloud Computing Centres A. the backup will actually restore

66. Data stored in on cloud storage can be as- B. the backup with continue writing files
sessed by who? C. the backup with stop working
A. Anyone with an account on that cloud D. none of above
storage system
71. Does cloud storage have to be free
B. Only the owner of the stored data
A. Yes
C. The owner and anyone they have
B. No
shared it with
C. Why would I know? ? !? 1?
D. The owner and their friends
D. none of above
67. Which of the following is a best practice
when backing up data? 72. Advantages of cloud storage (2 answers)

A. Back up your data to an external device A. Easy to hack

or digital media. B. Easy to damage

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1.5 Cloud Storage 33

C. Free to use most of the time 77. Select the best definition of Cloud Storage
D. Easy to share files A. A type of storage that can be remotely

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. When you tie your data to a helium bal-
73. Which of the following is NOT a best prac- loon and let it go into the sky
tice of digital file management?
C. A type of storage that can be accessed
A. To eliminate hard copies and reduce anywhere with an internet connection
waste
D. Storage that uses the internet
B. To provide an organized plan to store
digital files and folders 78. Google Docs allows users to do which of
these things (choose all that apply)
C. To store files in a physical filing cabi-
net A. Add comments to documents for oth-
ers to see
D. To efficiently search and locate digital
files and folders B. Track changes to documents, so you
can see who changed what
74. Using the cloud to make sure things like C. Live editing, so you can all work on a
your photos are automatically matched to document at the same time
what is on your Device and vice versa is
known as what? D. Use chat facilities, to discuss what
things you would like to do to a document
A. Synchronisation
79. Data already on your device only, can be
B. Matchification
(choose two)
C. Updating A. Downloaded from the cloud
D. Backing up B. Uploaded to the cloud

75. Instead of storing files and folders on your C. Removed from the device
PC or Device, you can store them remotely. D. Removed from the cloud
This is known as
80. What is the greatest advantage of local
A. Bubble Storage backups?
B. Secondary Storage A. Speed
C. Cloud Storage B. Cost
D. Local Storage C. Safety
D. Geographic diversity
76. *You don’t need a powerful computer with
a huge hard drive-everything is stored and 81. If a laptop relies heavily on the cloud for
run on a remote computer is an advantage all of its storage needs, its hard drive must
of what? be:
A. the Internet A. Uncluttered
B. Local area networks B. Slow
C. optical devices C. Full
D. cloud storage D. none of above

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 1.6 Disaster Recovery 34

82. Which type of backup medium protects you 86. The process of naming, storing and orga-
from a catastrophic natural event in your nizing digital files is known as
area? A. Cloud computing
A. An offsite backup B. File conversion
B. An external drive
C. File naming conventions
C. Digital media
D. File management
D. A local NAS device

NARAYAN CHANGDER
87. Online, digital storage space, capable of
83. Extension for image/photo files: large data storage.
A. .xlsx A. RAM
B. .pdf B. The Cloud
C. .jpg C. ROM
D. .docx D. Flash Drive
E. .pptx
88. Using locally attached storage is usually
84. A LOCAL data backup is stored for a home/small business
A. on site A. cost effective
B. off site B. safer
C. in the cloud C. more reliable
D. in file servers D. none of these
85. Extension for spreadsheet files: 89. Which of the following backup options are
A. .xlsx considered removable media?
B. .pdf A. USB flash drives
C. .jpg B. NAS devices
D. .docx C. Cloud storage
E. .pptx D. Local SATA drives

1.6 Disaster Recovery

1. Which of the following are benefits of us- 2. What is the purpose of a Disaster Recov-
ing shared data? Choose two options. ery policy?
A. Always accurate and safe. A. to prevent staff installing software
B. Is automatically protected by the data B. To set security parameters
protection act.
C. To identify what to do if sales fall dras-
C. Helps businesses to better target ad- tically low
vertising.
D. To set out how an organisation will re-
D. Helps businesses make better deci- spond to a variety of different types of dis-
sions. aster

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1.6 Disaster Recovery 35

3. System A requires high availability. Sys- A. Back up all data to disk, and store the
tem B requires high security. Which fail disk in a safe in the building’s basement.
options should you choose for the two sys-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. Back up all data to tape, and store
tems? those tapes at a sister site across the
A. System A fails closed. System B fails street.
open. C. Back up all data to tape, and store
B. System A and System B both fail those tapes at a sister site in another city.
closed. D. Back up all data to disk, and store the
C. System A and System B both fail open. disk in a safe deposit box at the adminis-
trator’s home.
D. System A fails open. System B fails
closed 8. Which device protects against a power out-
age?
4. ‘Revolving backups’ refer to:
A. Redundant NIC
A. the last several backups are kept.
B. RAID 1 box
B. only files that have been changed since
the last backup. C. Hot site

C. backup stored on a cloud. D. UPS

D. a facility whereby a computing sys- 9. Which of the following backup methods en-
tem can be installed to begin immediate ables daily backups, weekly full backups
backup operations. and monthly full backups?
A. Differential
5. When deciding which cloud service
provider to use, you should check: B. Incremental
A. their disaster recovery plan C. Grandfather-father-son
B. backup policies and procedures D. Towers of Hanoi
C. cyber security policy 10. Which of the following uses multiple com-
D. are their systems compatible with puters to share work?
yours A. Load balancing
E. what free gifts you would receive B. Switching

6. Which of the following uses striping with- C. VPN concentrator

out fault tolerance? D. RAID
A. RAID 1 11. When implementing , a stripe set
B. RAID 0 breaks data into units and stores the units
across a series of disks by reading and
C. RAID 5
writing to all disks simultaneously. This
D. Expanded volume set provides an increase in performance but it
does not provide fault tolerance. A failure
7. Which action should be taken to protect of one disk in the set means all data is lost.
against a complete disaster such that a
company’s primary site is permanently A. RAID 0
lost? B. RAID 5

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1.6 Disaster Recovery 36

C. RAID 1 16. You have been tasked with increasing

server fault tolerance, but have been
D. RAID 10
given no budget to do so. Which of the
12. RAID 0 following should you implement?
A. Hardware load balancing
A. Striping only
B. RAID
B. striping with parity
C. Towers of Hanoi
C. mirroring only

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. A cold site
D. striping and mirroring
17. Which of the following is NOT considered
13. Which of the following are uses of cook- a natural disaster that can affect computer
ies? Choose two options. systems?
A. Storing data between website ses- A. flood
sions. B. falling water
B. Showing you where to find restaurants C. excessive heat
local to you.
D. fire
C. Identifying trends in product sales.
18. Which of the following drive configura-
D. Collecting analytics, like how long you
tions uses striping with parity for fault tol-
spend on a web page.
erance?
14. What can you use to manage large work- A. RAID 1
loads? B. RAID 0
A. Workload manager C. RAID 10
B. Launch plans D. RAID 5
C. Server migrator
19. Administrators in a business may back up
D. Recovery plans their network files
A. daily
15. A volume combines disk striping across
multiple disks with parity for data redun- B. weekly
dancy. Parity information is stored on C. monthly
each disk. If a single disk fails, its data
D. yearly
can be recovered using the parity informa-
tion stored on the remaining disks. This 20. Which of the following provides the best
provides fault tolerance for a single disk application availability and can be eas-
failure and provides an increase in perfor- ily expanded as an organization’s demand
mance. grow?
A. RAID 5 A. Load balancing
B. RAID 0 B. Server virtualization
C. RAID 10 C. Multi-CPU motherboards
D. RAID 1 D. RAID 6

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1.6 Disaster Recovery 37

21. Which of the following factors should you C. Redundant servers

consider when evaluating assets to a com- D. Cold site
pany? (pick two)

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Their value to the company 27. Identify the features of an AUP (Accept-
able Use Policy) . (Choose all that apply)
B. Their salvage value
A. It’s purpose is to reduce potential in-
C. Their replacement cost
ternal threats to the organisations infor-
D. Where they were purchased from mation.
22. Select Multiple:What are the benefits of B. It applies to all the employees in an
RAID? organisation and any others who may
use technology belonging to the organisa-
A. Better performance
tions.
B. Fail Safe
C. It outlines steps to take to in the event
C. Fault Tolerance of a disaster.
D. Cost Savings D. It covers acceptable use of all assets
23. When is the best time to conduct disaster eg Data, Hardware and Software
recovery testing? 28. this type of storage offloads to a third
A. immediately before a disaster party who takes over the burden of stor-
B. immediately after a disaster ing and maintaining data

C. no testing is necessary A. cloud storage

D. periodically B. network storage
C. local storage
24. used to share storage on the network with
many employees D. none of above
A. NAS 29. Which of the following are features of a
B. local storage disaster recovery plan?
C. cloud storage A. Who has responsibility for tasks
D. none of above B. A list of passwords for the system

25. What occurs after adding a machine to the C. Identifying potential risks
CloudEndure user console? D. What staff should and should not do.
A. immediate data migration
30. What action to take after an attack is de-
B. Failover scribed below? Establish the cause of the
C. Fallback attack and mistakes made and update poli-
cies and procedures.
D. Initial sync
A. Respond
26. You need to be up and running within hours
B. Manage
of a disaster. Which option should you
choose? C. Recover
A. Tape backup D. Investigate
B. Hot site E. Analyse

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1.6 Disaster Recovery 38

31. What is meant by ‘trusted recovery’? C. denial of service attacks

A. It is a process of salvaging inaccessi- D. Unsuccessful scans and probes
ble, lost, corrupted, damaged or format-
36. Which of the following would be included
ted data from secondary storage, remov-
in a disaster recovery policy? Choose two
able media or files.
options.
B. Bringing a system to an operable con-
A. Establishing the severity of the attack
dition after a disaster so that it can again
accept and process data. B. Definition of the backup process

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. An organized approach to addressing C. Analysis of the cause of the disaster
and managing the aftermath of a security D. Timeline for data recovery
breach or cyberattack
37. Which of the following can enable your net-
D. It is the ability to ensure recovery with- work to remain operational even if your
out compromise after a system failure. T-1 line fails?
32. Select Multiple:Which statements are true A. Redundant ISP
about Raid with Striping? B. RAID 5
A. It increases read and write perfor- C. Redundant network adapters
mance. D. UPS
B. Allows for read and writes to happen
38. RAID 1+0
at the same time.
A. Striping only
C. Stores identical data in multiple disks.
B. striping with parity
D. It is the act of splitting data and stor-
ing it randomly. C. mirroring only
D. striping and mirroring
33. Computer security incidents are catego-
rized into levels. 39. You arrive to work to find all of your
servers have been destroyed by a fire.
A. two
Which of the following is the MOST IM-
B. three PORTANT item to ensure your organiza-
C. four tion can recover?
D. five A. Disaster recovery plan
B. Offsite backup
34. What is the minimum number of hard disks
that can be used to configure RAID 10? C. Warm site
A. 2 D. Fault-tolerant servers

B. 4 40. Which of the following may be common

uses of location-based data? Choose two
C. 5
options.
D. 3
A. Showing country-specific deals.
35. Which of the following is considered a low- B. Providing analytics on how you use a
level incident? website.
A. Unfriendly employment termination C. Planning a route on a map app.
B. Illegal access to buildings D. Analysing buying habits in a store.

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1.6 Disaster Recovery 39

41. Why are recovery points important? 45. Identify the behaviours that would be con-
sidered acceptable in a AUP.
A. They allow you to quickly bypass repli-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

cation lag issues A. Download non-work related materials,
software, music and video files.
B. They allow you to launch multiple tar-
get machines at once B. Use email in a professional and cour-
teous manner
C. They allow you to recover your ma-
chines faster C. Make negative comments about the or-
ganisation on social media.
D. They allow you to pick the exact snap-
shots of your machines that you want to D. Report any technical issues to the tech-
failover to nical support department

46. Passwords should include? (Choose all

42. This type of storage is a popular solution
that apply)
for companies looking for a more advanced
on-site solution A. Colour
A. network storage B. Letters
B. local storage C. Numbers

C. cloud storage D. Symbols

D. none of above 47. You’re in an office when some yells fire!

You notice it’s some paper and trash in
43. Your company has a single web server con- a small can. What type of extinguisher
nected to three distribution servers. What would you use?
is the greatest risk involved in this sce- A. Class A
nario?
B. Class B
A. Fraggle attack
C. Class C
B. Single point of failure
D. Class K
C. Denial-of-service attack
48. Which type of extinguisher could be used
D. Man-in-the-middle attack on things like gasoline, diesel fuel, and oil
from a vehicle?
44. A volume stripes data across mirrored
pairs and across multiple disks for data re- A. Class A
dundancy. If a single disk fails, its data B. Class B
can be recovered using the mirrored infor-
mation stored on the remaining disks. If C. Class C
two disks in the same mirrored pair fail, D. Class D
all data will be lost because there is no re- E. Class K
dundancy in the striped sets.
A. RAID 10 49. This type of backup gets only files that
have changed since the last backup; re-
B. RAID 1 gardless of the type of backup.
C. RAID 5 A. Differential
D. RAID 0 B. Incremental

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1.6 Disaster Recovery 40

C. Full C. Class C
D. System State D. Class D

50. In which type of Redundant Array of Inde- E. Class K

pendent Disks (RAID) configuration will a
55. Your file server fails on Thursday at 4pm.
drive failure result in the loss of all data?
Your backup scheme is to complete a full
A. RAID 0 backup on Fridays at 6pm and differential
B. RAID 1 backups every other day at 6pm. How

NARAYAN CHANGDER
many tapes will you need to restore your
C. RAID 5
file server?
D. RAID 10
A. 1
51. You have an extension cord short and catch B. 2
on fire, what type of extinguisher can be
used? C. 3

A. Class A D. 4
B. Class B 56. Which of the following statement is NOT
C. Class C true?
D. Class D A. Disaster recovery deals with how to
cope when something goes wrong.
E. Class K
B. Physical security is the term used to
52. To prevent electrical damage to a computer describe protection provided outside a
and its peripherals, the computer should be computer system.
connected to what?
C. Contingency planning is not part of the
A. Power inverter disaster recovery process.
B. UPS D. Backing up data is a recovery method.
C. AC to DC converter
57. Which of the following is a good reason
D. Power strip
that RAID does not work for backup?
53. Of the following backup types, which A. Corruption; you end up with 2 corrupt
describes the backup of files that have copies
changed since the last full or incremental
B. RAID sets break and can be unrecov-
backup?
erable
A. Copy
C. Downtime to recover raid sets
B. Differential
D. All of these are good reasons
C. Full
D. Incremental 58. A log book is useful in:
A. preventing an incident.
54. Which class extinguisher would be used on
a grease fire? B. handling an incident.
A. Class A C. developing a contingency plan.
B. Class B D. All of the answers are correct.

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1.6 Disaster Recovery 41

59. Select Multiple:Which statements are true C. Computer Misuse Act (1990)
about RAID with Mirroring? D. Computer Misuse Act (1998)

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. It increases read and write perfor-
mance. 64. Identify examples of security policies.
(Choose all that apply)
B. It provides fault tolerance.
A. Responsible use policies
C. Stores identical data in multiple disks.
B. Disaster Recovery Policy
D. It is the act of splitting data and stor-
ing it randomly. C. Life Insurance policy
D. Network Security policy
60. What action do you need to perform inde-
pendently outside the CloudEndure console 65. What action to take after an attack is de-
during a failover process? scribed below? Identify when and why
A. Redirect traffic from the primary site the attack happened and establish the
to the disaster recovery site severity of the attack.

B. Start the initial sync process through A. Respond

the API commands B. Manage
C. Establish connectivity by redirecting C. Recover
traffic to replication server D. Investigate
D. Force the machine into lag by re- E. Analyse
installing agents
66. What is the minimum number of disks re-
61. Which of the following is not a computer quired for a configuration of RAID level
security incident? 5?
A. web site defacement A. Three
B. social engineering incidents B. Four
C. car theft C. Five
D. virus attacks D. Two
62. What action to take after an attack is de- 67. Which of the following are NOT part of the
scribed below? Inform the relevant stake- three initial sync steps?
holders and authorities.
A. Booting the replication server
A. Respond
B. Creating firewall rules
B. Manage
C. Continues data replication
C. Recover
D. Create staging disk
D. Investigate
E. Analyse 68. There are several reasons why a company
would develop and implement a business
63. What legislation protects the use of per- continuity plan. Which of the following
sonal data shared with businesses? properly describes the best reason?
A. Data Protection Act (1998) A. To increase liability
B. Data Protection Act (2018) B. The continuation of a company

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1.6 Disaster Recovery 42

C. Compliancy with regulations 74. What is the role of security policies.

(Choose all that apply)
D. Properly react to disasters
A. To allow staff to work remotely
69. How can you contact support? B. Outline how staff are expected to be-
A. By contacting your Solution Architect have
B. Through the AWS Support Center C. List staff responsibilities
C. By emailing CloudEndure directly at D. Plan for what should happen in a dis-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
the support email address aster

D. No support is offered for CloudEndure 75. What do you need to do to install the
Disaster Recovery Cloudendure agent on a linux machine?
A. Run only the executable command
70. What does RAID stand for?
B. Run only the grep command
A. Redundant Array of Instant Disks
C. Run the grep and executable command
B. Redundant Array of Individual Disks
D. Run the download and executable com-
C. Redundant Array of Initial Disks mands
D. Redundant Array of Independent Disks
76. You are in charge of the disaster recov-
ery plan for your organization. What can
71. Which of the following versions of RAID
you do to make sure the DRP can be imple-
does not provide data redundancy?
mented quickly and correctly?
A. RAID 0
A. Send the plan to management for ap-
B. RAID 1 proval.
C. RAID 5 B. Store the recovery plan in a secure
area
D. RAID 1 + 0
C. Distribute copies of the plan to key per-
72. Which of the following defines a business sonnel.
goal for system restoration and acceptable D. Run a test of the recovery plan.
data loss?
77. What settings can you edit after perform-
A. Warm site
ing the Prepare for Failback action?
B. RPO
A. Network settings and Failover settings
C. MTTR B. Blueprint settings and Launch Settings
D. MTBF C. Failback settings and Back to Normal
Settings
73. What are the requirements of a cold site?
D. Agent installation settings and Data
A. A. Redundant servers and networking Replication settings
devices
78. Which type of extinguisher would be used
B. Close proximity to the data center
at an industrial site that made metals like
C. Patched and updated client computers magnesium and aluminum?
D. Power and connectivity A. Class A

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1.6 Disaster Recovery 43

B. Class B 83. what is the easiest way to determine if

C. Class C your tested machines are healthy?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. Class D A. All machines have undergone initial
sync
E. Class K
B. The green line to the left of machine
79. What technique is employed in a Redun- name
dant Array of Independent Disks 1 (RAID C. No machine undergoing lag
1) configuration to ensure that the con-
troller card is not a single point of failure? D. All machines showing “Tested Re-
cently”
A. Disk duplexing
B. Disk mirroring 84. What is the purpose of the disaster recov-
ery policy?
C. Disk striping
A. Preventing cybersecurity incidents
D. Disk partitioning from occurring.
80. Select Multiple:Which statements are true B. Ensuring damage is quickly recovered
about RAID with Striping and Parity? from after an incident.
A. It increases read and write perfor- C. Performing regular backups of all
mance. data.
B. It provides fault tolerance. D. Analysing the cause of attacks and
identifying improvements to procedures.
C. Stores parity data for recovery.
D. It is the act of splitting data and stor- 85. You want to secure your data to retain
ing it randomly. over the long term. What is the best solu-
tion?
81. This was the previous gold standard for A. Virtualization
backup media and it still used today by lots
of organizations; for long term storage. B. Offsite backup
A. CDs C. Onsite clustering
B. DVDs D. RAID 5 onsite backup
C. Platter Based Drives 86. When implementing , a mirrored vol-
D. Magnetic Tape ume stores data to two duplicate disks si-
multaneously. If one disk fails, data is
82. One of your database servers is mission- present on the other disk, and the system
critical. What is the best item to imple- switches immediately from the failed disk
ment to ensure minimal downtime of the to the functioning disk. Mirroring provides
server and ensure faulty tolerance of the fault tolerance for a single disk failure, but
data stored on the database server? does not increase performance.
A. UPS A. RAID 1
B. Spare parts B. RAID 0
C. RAID C. RAID 5
D. Redundant server D. RAID 10

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 1.7 Autoscaling 44

87. What action to take after an attack is de- 91. Which of the following functions is not
scribed below? Isolate & contain the at- part of incident handling?
tack and use appropriate measures to re- A. design
sume services.
B. report
A. Respond
C. analysis
B. Manage
D. response
C. Recover

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Investigate 92. Which of the following are drawbacks of
E. Analyse using shared data? Choose two options.
A. Causes bad decisions to be made
88. What action to take after an attack is de-
scribed below? Implement the disaster re- B. Could be fined under the DPA.
covery policy. C. Could be stolen & misused by mali-
A. Respond cious users.
B. Manage D. Is more costly than gathering the data
C. Recover manually.
D. Investigate 93. Your company needs a backup plan in case
E. Analyse power is lost for more than a few hours.
Which of the following should you imple-
89. this ensures that files are copied to an- ment?
other medium and can be used to return
the files if necessary A. UPS
A. data backup B. Warm site
B. data image C. Redundant power supplies
C. data corruption D. Generator
D. data sync 94. The steps an organisation should take af-
90. What kind of threats can disaster recov- ter an attack include:Investigate, Respond,
ery policies help to protect us from being Manage, Recover. However one step is
impacted by? missing which is it?
A. Natural disasters A. Report
B. Malware B. Disconnect
C. Hardware failure C. Disinfect
D. All of the above. D. Analyse

1.7 Autoscaling
1. . A sys admin is maintaining an applica- servers proactively so that they get reg-
tion on AWS. The application is installed istered with ELB. How can the user add
on EC2 and user has configured ELB and these instances with Auto Scaling?
Auto Scaling. Considering future load in-
crease, the user is planning to launch new A. Increase the desired capacity of the

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1.7 Autoscaling 45

Auto Scaling group D. It is not possible to suspend the Alarm-

B. Increase the maximum limit of the Notification process

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

Auto Scaling group
5. A user has configured Auto Scaling with
C. Launch an instance manually and reg- the minimum capacity as 2 and the de-
ister it with ELB on the fly sired capacity as 2. The user is try-
D. Decrease the minimum limit of the ing to terminate one of the existing in-
Auto Scaling group stance with the command:as-terminate-
instance-in-auto-scaling-group decrement-
2. An e-commerce application running on desired-capacity. What will Auto Scaling
AWS is experiencing poor browsing and do in this scenario?
searching performance when many users
A. Terminates the instance and does not
are accessing it at the same time. Applica-
launch a new instance
tion monitoring shows a bottleneck in the
web layer. You decide to restructure the B. Terminates the instance and updates
application code, decoupling the web layer. the desired capacity to 1
Which AWS service can help with this re- C. Terminates the instance and updates
structuring? the desired capacity & minimum size to 1
A. AWS Auto Scaling D. Throws an error
B. Elastic Load Balancer
6. . You have decided to change the Instance
C. AWS SQS
type for instances running in your applica-
D. AWS Kinesis Streams tion tier that are using Auto Scaling. In
which area below would you change the
3. Which gateway provides block storage
instance type definition?
in S3 with point-in-time backups as EBS
snapshots? A. Auto Scaling launch configuration
A. Tape Gateway (VTL) B. Auto Scaling group
B. Internet Gateway C. Auto Scaling policy
C. File Storage D. Auto Scaling tags
D. Volume Gateway
7. You have created an application load bal-
4. A user has configured ELB with Auto Scal- ancer and selected two EC2 instances as
ing. The user suspended the Auto Scal- targets. However, when you are trying to
ing Alarm Notification (which notifies Auto make a request to load balancer from the
Scaling for CloudWatch alarms) process for internet, the requests are getting failed.
a while. What will Auto Scaling do during What could be the reason?
this period? A. The subnets specified for load bal-
A. AWS will not receive the alarms from ancer does not have internet gateway at-
CloudWatch tached to their route tables.
B. AWS will receive the alarms but will B. Target EC2 instances are in private in-
not execute the Auto Scaling policy stances without any internet gateway at-
C. Auto Scaling will execute the policy but tached.
it will not launch the instances until the C. There is no elastic IP address attached
process is resumed to the load balancer.

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1.7 Autoscaling 46

D. Cross-zone load balancer is not en- 12. . An organization has configured two sin-
abled gle availability zones. The Auto Scaling
groups are configured in separate zones.
8. What are the key features of ID Federa- The user wants to merge the groups
tion? (Choose all that apply) such that one group spans across multiple
A. allows others to access an AWS ac- zones. How can the user configure this?
count without having to create IAM Users A. Run the command as-join-auto-scaling-
B. grants an AWS account the ability to group to join the two groups

NARAYAN CHANGDER
store an external identity’s credentials B. Run the command as-update-auto-
C. provides identities from on-premises scaling-group to configure one group to
systems a way to access an AWS account span across zones and delete the other
group
D. provides existing identity providers
the freedom to manage their identities C. Run the command as-copy-auto-
while giving access to an AWS account scaling-group to join the two groups

9. . A user has configured the Auto Scaling D. Run the command as-merge-auto-
group with the minimum capacity as 3 and scaling-group to merge the groups
the maximum capacity as 5. When the 13. Which of the following statements defines
user configures the AS group, how many the concept of an Elastic Load Balancer?
instances will Auto Scaling launch?
A. Distribute traffic to multiple EC2 in-
A. 3 stances.
B. 0 B. Distribute traffic to AWS resources
C. 5 across multiple regions.
D. 2 C. Resize EC2 instances.

10. Which of these important Cloud concepts D. Increase EC2 instance size based on
will an ELB improve? (Choose two an- demand.
swers) 14. What combination of AWS services will
A. Fault Tolerance achieve high availability, fault-tolerance,
B. High Availability scalability, and elasticity?

C. Scalability A. EC2 and ELB

D. Elasticity B. EC2 and Auto Scaling group

C. EC2
11. An administrator would like to efficiently
automate the replication of a specific soft- D. EC2, ELB and Auto Scaling group with
ware configuration from one EC2 instance automation
to four hundred instances. Which AWS ser-
15. . In reviewing the auto scaling events
vice is best for this implementation?
for your application you notice that your
A. AWS OpsWorks application is scaling up and down multi-
B. AWS Launch Configuration ple times in the same hour. What design
choice could you make to optimize for the
C. AWS BeanStalk cost while preserving elasticity? Choose 2
D. AWS Auto-Scaling answers.

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1.7 Autoscaling 47

A. Modify the Amazon CloudWatch alarm mentioned processes is not performed by

period that triggers your auto scaling Auto Scaling?
scale down policy.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Reboot Instance
B. Modify the Auto scaling group termi-
nation policy to terminate the oldest in- B. Schedule Actions
stance first. C. Replace Unhealthy
C. Modify the Auto scaling policy to use D. Availability Zone Re-Balancing
scheduled scaling actions.
D. Modify the Auto scaling group cool 19. In this scenario, we have an ELB balancing
down timers. traffic between two instances, but the in-
stances are reaching capacity. What could
16. . An organization has configured Auto Scal- we do to automate a solution for handling
ing with ELB. One of the instance health the traffic? Please select the best possible
check returns the status as Impaired to answer.
Auto Scaling. What will Auto Scaling do
A. Add another EC2 instance
in this scenario?
A. Perform a health check until cool down B. Terminate an EC2 instance
before declaring that the instance has C. Create an Auto Scaling Group
failed
D. Add another ELB
B. Terminate the instance and launch a
new instance 20. . A user is trying to delete an Auto Scaling
C. Notify the user using SNS for the failed group from CLI. Which of the below men-
state tioned steps are to be performed by the
user?
D. Notify ELB to stop sending traffic to the
impaired instance A. Terminate the instances with the ec2-
terminate-instance command
17. . A user has created a launch configura-
tion for Auto Scaling where CloudWatch B. Terminate the Auto Scaling instances
detailed monitoring is disabled. The user with the as-terminate-instance command
wants to now enable detailed monitoring. C. Set the minimum size and desired ca-
How can the user achieve this? pacity to 0
A. Update the Launch config with CLI to
D. There is no need to change the capac-
set InstanceMonitoringDisabled = false
ity. Run the as-delete-group command
B. The user should change the Auto Scal- and it will reset all values to 0
ing group from the AWS console to enable
detailed monitoring 21. What are the three types of AWS load bal-
C. Update the Launch config with CLI to ancers? (Multiple answers)
set InstanceMonitoring.Enabled = true A. Adaptable Load Balancer
D. Create a new Launch Config with detail B. Network Load Balancer
monitoring enabled and update the Auto
Scaling group C. Classic Load Balancer
D. Application Load Balancer
18. . A sys admin is trying to understand the
Auto Scaling activities. Which of the below E. Reverse Proxy Load Balancer

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1.7 Autoscaling 48

22. . A user has setup an Auto Scaling group. C. Wait till end of November before
The group has failed to launch a single in- scheduling the activity
stance for more than 24 hours. What will D. It is not advisable to use scheduled
happen to Auto Scaling in this condition based scaling
A. Auto Scaling will keep trying to launch
26. When would you use the Database Migra-
the instance for 72 hours
tion Service (DMS)?
B. Auto Scaling will suspend the scaling A. When migrating a database from the
process

NARAYAN CHANGDER
AWS network to an on-premise network,
C. Auto Scaling will start an instance in a or within your AWS environment.
separate region B. When needing to scale a database
D. The Auto Scaling group will be termi- without downtime
nated automatically C. When migrating a database to and
from other platforms besides AWS
23. You need to expose your serverless appli-
cation implemented with AWS Lambda to D. When needing a full database schema
HTTP clients (using an HTTP proxy). Which conversion
of the following services can you use to E. All of these answers are correct.
complete this task? Select two.
27. Which of the AWS services below allows
A. AWS Elastic Load Balancer you to increase the number of on-demand
B. API Gateway application resources or users?
C. AWS Elastic BeanStalk A. AWS EC2
D. AWS Route 53 B. AWS ELB
E. AWS Lightsail C. AWS Auto Scaling
D. AWS Inspector
24. Which of the following services is re-
lated to the concept of “traffic distribution 28. Which of the following features can be in-
across EC2 instances”? tegrated into AWS WAF (Web Application
Firewall) to protect web applications from
A. Auto Scaling
common web security flaws? Select two.
B. VPC A. Amazon CloudFront
C. Elastic Load Balancer B. Web server hosted on an EC2 instance.
D. Subnets C. Static webpage hosted in an S3 bucket.
25. . A user is planning to setup infrastructure D. Internet Gateway
on AWS for the Christmas sales. The user E. Application Load Balancer
is planning to use Auto Scaling based on
the schedule for proactive scaling. What 29. Which of the following services relates to
advise would you give to the user? the concept of “scaling resources on de-
mand”?
A. It is good to schedule now because if
A. Auto Scaling
the user forgets later on it will not scale
up B. VPC
B. The scaling should be setup only one C. Elastic Load Balancer
week before Christmas D. Subnet

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 1.8 Database Management 49

30. When designing a system, you use the terminate process only for a while. What
principle “design to fail and nothing will will happen to the availability zone rebal-
fail.” Which of the following AWS services ancing process (AZRebalance) during this

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

or features can help support this design period?
principle? Choose 3 options below. A. Auto Scaling will not launch or termi-
A. Availability Zones. nate any instances
B. Elastic Load Balancer. B. Auto Scaling will allow the instances to
C. Regions. grow more than the maximum size
D. Pay per use. C. Auto Scaling will keep launching in-
stances till the maximum instance size
31. Which underlying products are used for
D. It is not possible to suspend the ter-
Auto Scaling groups? (Choose two an-
minate process while keeping the launch
swers)
active
A. CloudFormation
34. While running an application on an EC2 in-
B. Launch Configurations
stance behind an Elastic Load Balancer, an
C. Launch Templates administrator receives a 504 error in his
D. Code Deploy browser. What this means?

32. A user is planning to scale up an applica- A. The ELB instance has stopped working.
tion by 8 AM and scale down by 7 PM daily B. The URL for the app has passed its ex-
using Auto Scaling. What should the user piration date.
do in this case? C. The application running on the EC2 in-
A. Setup the scaling policy to scale up and stance is giving the 504 error because it
down based on the CloudWatch alarms has exceeded its response time limit.
B. User should increase the desired ca- D. The application is unresponsive, so the
pacity at 8 AM and decrease it by 7 PM ELB instance displays the 504 error.
manually
35. What are the types of Scaling Policies
C. User should setup a batch process
available within Auto Scaling groups?
which launches the EC2 instance at a spe-
(Multiple answers)
cific time
A. Step scaling policy
D. Setup scheduled actions to scale up or
down at a specific time B. Simple scaling policy

33. A user has configured ELB with Auto Scal- C. Manual scaling policy
ing. The user suspended the Auto Scaling D. Target tracking policy

1.8 Database Management

1. Which one of the following commands is B. Drop
used for removing (or deleting) a relation
forms the SQL database? C. Remove

A. Delete D. All of the above

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1.8 Database Management 50

2. It exists in their original state. 7. Here which of the following displays the
unique values of the column? SELECT
A. Semistructured data
dept name FROM instructor;
B. Unstructured data
A. All
C. Structured data
B. From
D. Unstructured dependence
C. Distinct
3. Internal schema is .. D. Name

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Representing database as seen by the
DBMS mapping conceptual model to the 8. Basis for the identification and high-level
DBMS description of the main data objects

B. Specific representation of an internal A. Logical design

model B. Conceptual schema
C. Changing internal model without af- C. Logical independence
fecting the conceptual model
D. none of above
D. none of above
9. TUPLE MEANS
4. ROWS ARE CALLED
A. RELATION
A. FIELDS
B. ROWS
B. FILES
C. ATTRIBUTES
C. RECORDS
D. none of above
D. none of above
10. Which of the following database object
5. Data Manipulation Language enables produces the final result to present?
users to
A. Form
A. Retrieval of information stored in
database B. Report
B. Insertion of new information into the C. Queries
database D. Table
C. Deletion of information from the
database 11. A description of the data elements in a
database, the relationships among them,
D. All of the above and the logical model used to organize and
describe the data.
6. are collections of similar types of enti-
ties A. Subschema
A. Relationship set B. Logical view
B. Entity set C. Physical view
C. ER set D. Schema
D. None of the above E. External-level schema

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1.8 Database Management 51

12. Which language is used to request infor- End-User Productivity Tools(B). Comput-
mation from a Database? erized File Systems-Manual File Systems-
File System Redux:Modern End-User Pro-

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A. RELATIONAL
ductivity Tools(C). Manual File Systems-
B. STRUCTURAL Modern End-User Productivity Tools-File
C. QUERY System Redux
A. A
D. COMPILER
B. B
13. Which one of these cannot be taken as a
C. C
primary key?
D. none of above
A. ID
B. registration no 18. I can perform an advanced search. I am
very similar to asking a detailed question.
C. Department ID
A. report
D. Street
B. query
14. All of the following are examples of C. table
Database Management System software D. form
except?
A. Microsoft Access 19. FIELD is a ..

B. MySQL A. Logically connected set of one or more

fields that describes a person, place or
C. Oracle thing.
D. FaxBass B. A collection of related records

15. Enforces user security and data privacy. C. Data have a little meaning unless they
have been organized in some logical man-
A. Data storage management ner
B. Security guard D. A character or group of characters (al-
C. Security management phanumeric) that has a specific meaning.
Used to define and store data
D. Data dictionary management
20. FIELD NAME CAN BE CHARACTERS
16. What is an advanage of a database? LONG
A. You can input information A. 1 TO 63
B. Its different to Excel B. 1 TO 64
C. It saves files C. 1 TO 65
D. Can search through and find informa- D. none of above
tion quickly
21. Supports OO features and complex data
17. Evolution of File System Data Processing representation
is(A). Manual File Systems-Computerized A. Object/Relational Database Manage-
File Systems-File System Redux:Modern ment System (O/R DBMS)

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1.8 Database Management 52

B. Extended relational data model 27. helps you retrieve information from ta-
(ERDM) ble as when required.
C. Entity relationship diagram (ERD) A. Report
D. Unified Modeling Language(UML) B. Database
C. Record
22. What does PHP stand for?
D. Query
A. PERSONAL HOME PAGE
28. Resembles an upside-down tree in which

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. HYPER TEXT PREPROCESSOR each class has only one parent
C. PRE TEXT HYPER TEXT PROCESSOR A. Hierarchy
D. PRE-PROCESSOR HOME PAGE B. Class
C. Inheritance
23. Which of the following must be installed
D. Class hierarchy
on your computer so as to run PHP script?
A. ADOBE 29. Environment in which data can be managed
and is used to work with the data in the
B. WINDOWS database
C. APACHE A. Data manipulation language (DML)
D. IIS B. Schema data definition language (DDL)
C. XML
24. All of the following are data type except?
D. none of above
A. Name
30. Term used to label the relationship types
B. Memo
A. Connectivity
C. Short text
B. Connection
D. Number
C. Instance
25. In which of the following formats data is D. Occurrence
stored in the database management sys-
31. is a unique field by which records are
tem?
identified in a table.
A. Table A. Name
B. Image B. Field
C. Text C. Primary Key
D. Graph D. None
32. MySQL belongs to which category of
26. Operates at lowest level of abstraction
DBMS?
A. The Physical Model
A. OBJECT ORIENTED
B. The Network Model B. HIERARCHICAL
C. The Conceptual Model C. RELATIONAL
D. The External Model D. NETWORK

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1.8 Database Management 53

33. Which of the following in not a function of C. Presents the end user with an inte-
DBA? grated view of the data

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Network Maintenance D. Receives and translates application re-
B. Routine Maintenance quests into operations required to fulfill
the requests
C. Schema Definition
E. Enables data to be shared
D. Authorization for data access
38. Command is used to delete a database.
34. The key that can be used for data retrieval
A. DELETE DATABASE DATABASE
is known as
NAME
A. Foreign key
B. DELETE DATABASE NAME
B. Surrogate key
C. DROP DATABASE DATABASE NAME
C. Primary key
D. DROP DATABASE NAME
D. Secondary key
39. Designed to support a company’s day-to-
35. What are the advantages of DBMS? day operations
A. Low cost of hardware & software A. Day-to-day database
B. DBMS are simple to use B. Operational database
C. Uniform administration procedures C. Operation database
for data D. Company database
D. Offers a variety of techniques to store
40. Which field in a database table is an auto-
& retrieve data
matic field?
36. A database management system (DBMS) A. ID
is a:
B. Name
A. Software system used to create, main- C. Address
tain, and provide controlled access to a
database D. Date of Birth
B. Hardware system used to create, 41. Represents a global view of the entire
maintain, and provide controlled access to database by the entire organization
a database A. The Network Model
C. Hardware system used to create, B. The Conceptual Model
maintain, and provide uncontrolled ac-
C. Conceptual schema
cess to a database
D. none of above
D. Software system used to create, main-
tain, and provide uncontrolled access to a 42. The field is exactly like number fields,
database but formatted to display decimal places
and a currency symbol.
37. What are the roles of DBMS?
A. text
A. Intermediary between the user and
the database B. currency
B. Hides database’s internal complexity C. name
from the application programs and users D. date

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1.8 Database Management 54

43. What does DBMS stand for? C. Super key

A. Database Management System D. Candidate key
B. Database Manufacture System 48. Data transformation and presentation is ..
C. Database Malfunction System A. Enforces user security and data pri-
D. none of above vacy
B. Stores definitions of the data elements
44. Conceptual organization of the entire and their relationships

NARAYAN CHANGDER
database as viewed by the database ad-
C. Ensures efficient performance of the
ministrator
database in terms of storage and access
A. Subschema speed
B. Data model D. Transforms entered data to conform to
C. Schema required data structures
D. none of above 49. It is a collection of data that is related to
a particular subject or purpose
45. Which of the following is NOT Advantages
A. Field
of DBMS
B. Row
A. Increased data consistency
C. Column
B. Reduced data redundancy
D. Database
C. Improved data security
50. Which of the following is not fully sup-
D. Increase data isolation
ported by all commercially available sys-
46. Which of the following is false regarding tems, but supports if religiously?
the reason why the function of system pro- A. Entity integrity
grammers should be separate from that of
B. Referential integrity
the database administrator?
C. Relational algebra
A. If one person has the authority to both
write programs and access data, then con- D. Relational calculus
trol issues become a concern. 51. WHAT IS THE FULL FORM OF DBMS
B. The potential to commit fraud or em- A. DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM
bezzlement or to destroy or alter the com-
B. DATA BASIC MANIPULATION SYSTEM
pany’s records increases.
C. DATA BASE MANIPULATION SYSTEM
C. The lack of proper segregation of du-
ties provides more opportunity for some- D. none of above
one to inject malicious code without being 52. Which is true about NoSQL Databases?
detected.
A. Not based on the relational model
D. All information is false.
B. Support large amounts of sparse data
47. is a set of one or more attributes taken C. Store data in key-value stores
collectively to uniquely identify a record.
D. Geared toward performance rather
A. Primary Key than transaction consistency
B. Foreign key E. none of the above

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1.8 Database Management 55

53. Using which language can a user request 58. Changes when data storage characteristics
information from a database? change

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A. Compiler A. Structural dependence
B. Query B. Structural independence
C. Structural C. Data dependence
D. Relational D. Data independence

54. Multiuser access control 59. A query is used to

A. Backup and recovery management A. Sort the database in alphabetical order
B. Sophisticated algorithms ensure that B. Search the database
multiple users can access the database C. Delete records
concurrently without compromising its in-
tegrity D. Create a form

C. Minimizes redundancy and maximizes 60. Processed to some extent.

consistency A. Structured data
D. Enables recovery of the database after B. Unstructured data
a failure
C. Semistructured data
55. Contains data and their relationships with D. XML
operations that are performed on it
A. Object 61. In the following Query, which of the fol-
lowing can be placed in the Query’s blank
B. Attributes portion to display the salary from highest
C. Data to lowest amount, and sorting the employs
D. Model name alphabetically? SELECT * FROM in-
structor ORDER BY salary , name
56. . A in a table represents a relationship A. Ascending, descending
among a set of values
B. Asc, Desc
A. Column
C. Desc, Asc
B. Key
D. All of the above
C. Row
D. Entry 62. Improve database performance and im-
pose a database standard
57. What happens if a piece of data is stored A. Hierarchical Models
in two places in the db?
B. Relational Model
A. Storage space is wasted & Changing
the data in one spot will cause data incon- C. Network Models
sistency D. none of above
B. It can be more easily accessed 63. Which of the following keys is generally
C. Changing the data in one spot will used to represents the relationships be-
cause data inconsistency tween the tables?
D. Storage space is wasted A. Primary key

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1.8 Database Management 56

B. Foreign key 69. In school, what kind of data might be

stored in a database?
C. Secondary key
A. Favourite colour
D. Non of the above
B. Emergency contact details
64. Which of the following application C. Favourite food
software can be used to create our
D. Your mobile phone number
databases?
70. The features of MS Access builds to pro-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Ms Excel
vide helps topics and topics on tasks per-
B. Ms Word form while working with Access.
C. Notepad A. Index
D. Ms Access B. Office Assistant
C. Query
65. What’s a field?
D. Report
A. a column
71. Which of the following PHPstatements
B. a table will output Hello Worldon the screen?
C. a row A. ECHO(”HELLO WORLD”);
D. a section B. PRINT(”HELLO WORLD”);
C. PRINTF(”HELLO WORLD”);
66. The linking of tables and files to share
records is known as a D. SPRINTF(”HELLO WORLD”);

A. Form 72. Runs on PC

B. Relationship A. Single-user database
B. Distributed database
C. Foreign key
C. Desktop database
D. None of the above
D. PC database
67. contains complete records.
73. Which statement best describes a
A. Fields database?
B. Rows A. a A collection of tables.
C. Tables B. Tables that are in sequence.
C. Tables of related information.
D. none of above
D. A collection of related tables.
68. It is a shared, integrated computer struc-
74. The structure representing the organiza-
ture.
tional view of entire database is known
A. Metadata as in MySQL database.
B. Database A. SCHEMA
C. Database management system B. VIEW
(DBMS) C. INSTANCE
D. End-user data D. TABLE

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1.8 Database Management 57

75. The data dictionary is a system structure 81. Specific representation of an external
that stores view

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A. Database A. External subschema
B. Metadata B. External schema
C. Hardware C. External Model
D. Software D. none of above
76. exists when different versions of the 82. Types of Database System supports data
same data appear in different places across several sites
A. Data integrity A. Data Warehousing database
B. Data anomaly B. Distributed Database
C. Data redundancy C. Operational Database
D. Data inconsistency D. none of above
77. Which of the following is NOT example of 83. What are databases mainly used for?
data? A. To store archived data
A. RM10 B. To store and organise data
B. The C. To analyse data
C. The boy received RM10 D. none of above
D. Boy
84. The convenient way to enter or find data
78. The end product of data manipulation in in tables.
DBMS as per the user’s choice is known A. Forms
as
B. Macros
A. Record
C. Modules
B. Report
D. Report
C. Forms
D. None 85. Tables are set up to contain columns and
rows of information. In a database table,
79. What company created MS Access? the columns are called
A. Microsoft A. Cell
B. Apple B. Field
C. Black Berry C. Column
D. Samsung D. Record
80. Select all data types that can be used in a 86. Where do you configure the field proper-
database ties of a Table?
A. date A. Design View
B. alphanumeric B. Datasheet View
C. float C. Access View
D. boolean D. Create table

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1.8 Database Management 58

87. The four main objects of a relational C. Oracle

database consist of: D. All of the above
A. form, table, query, report
93. COLUMNS ARE CALLED
B. form, table, database, query, report
A. FIELDS
C. form, sort, table, query B. RECORDS
D. form, column, row, report C. FILES

NARAYAN CHANGDER
88. represents a “tuple” in a relational D. none of above
database? 94. How many fields are in the table?
A. TABLE A. 6;
B. ROW B. 7;
C. COLUMN C. 8;
D. OBJECT D. 9;
89. Implications of data redundancy 95. The record is a field unique identifies every
record in a table
A. Poor data security
A. Query
B. Data anomaly
B. Primary Key
C. Increased likelihood of data-entry er-
rors when complex entries are made in dif- C. Record
ferent files D. Secondary Field
D. Data inconsistency 96. Microsoft’s version of a Database Man-
agement System
90. A collection of programs required to store
and retrieve data from a database is called A. Excel
B. Access
A. RDBMS C. Word
B. DBMS D. PowerPoint
C. SQL 97. Proponent of Entry-Relationship (ER)
D. None Model
A. Ted Codd
91. A collection of related records
B. Bill Gates
A. Field
C. Peter Chen
B. Data
D. none of above
C. Record
98. Which of the following is considered as
D. File DBMS?
92. Which of the following is a software pack- A. Oracle
age of Database management System? B. FoxPro
A. Visual Fox Pro C. Access
B. Microsoft SQL-Server D. All of these

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1.8 Database Management 59

99. Which is the example of File Based Sys- 104. When a join is based on equality of value,
tem? it is known as a

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A. Using MySQL to find specific data A. Outer join
B. Using MS Access to control users ac- B. Natural join
cess C. Self Join
C. Using spreadsheet software to man- D. Equi join
age data of employee
105. Inheritance means ..
D. Using OpenOffice.org Base to create
A. Describes sets of diagrams and sym-
new table
bols to graphically model a system
100. is an example of hierarchical data B. Resembles an upside-down tree in
model which each class has only one parent
A. Doors and windows C. Object inherits methods and attributes
of parent class
B. Windows registry
D. none of above
C. RDM server
D. Jellyfish 106. What are the sources of Business Rules?
A. Company managers
101. What is XML?
B. Policy makers
A. Extensible Markup Language C. Written documentation
B. Extensible Makeup Language D. Department managers
C. Extend Makeup Language E. Direct interviews with end users
D. Extended Markup Language 107. It let you access frequently access com-
mand.
102. Select the disadvantages Hierarchical
Model A. Navigation pane
A. Lack of standards B. Quick access toolbar
B. Requires knowledge of physical data C. Backstage view
storage characteristics D. Ribbon
C. Navigational system requires knowl- 108. It results from formatting.
edge of hierarchical path
A. Semistructured data
D. With data definition B. Format data
E. Implementation limitations C. Unstructured data
103. Which is the MySQL instance responsible D. Structured data
for data processing? 109. The column in a table is called
A. MYSQL CLIENT A. Record
B. MYSQL SERVER B. Row
C. SQL C. Field
D. SERVER DAEMON PROGRAM D. none of above

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1.8 Database Management 60

110. Which of the following is not true about 116. What will be the output of thefollowing
the ALTER TABLE statement? PHP code? <? php$num = 1;$num1 =
A. It can add a new row. 2;print $num . “+”. $num1 ;? >
B. It can add a new column A. 3
C. It can modify existing columns B. 1+2
D. It can define a default value for the C. 1.+.2
new column D. ERROR

NARAYAN CHANGDER
111. Below are some of database approach ad- 117. Based on ERDM, focuses on better data
vantages, except 1 management
A. improved data integrity A. Extensible Markup Language (XML)
B. lesser development time B. Object/Relational Database Manage-
C. easier access ment System (O/R DBMS)

D. data redundancy C. Extended relational data model

(ERDM)
112. The name of the a field that identifies D. none of above
each record in a relational database.
A. Foreign Key 118. What is a database?

B. Primary Key A. Organized collection of information

that cannot be accessed, updated, and
C. Keyless managed
D. None of the above B. Collection of data or information with-
113. What is another name for the Secondary out organizing
key field? C. Organized collection of data or infor-
A. Foreign key mation that can be accessed, updated,
and managed
B. Primary key
D. Organized collection of data that can-
C. Alternate key not be updated
D. Candidate key.
119. The following shows the types of DBMS
114. Column titles are
A. Field Names A. Hierarchical database
B. Records B. Object-oriented database
C. Primary Keys C. Relational database
D. Foreign Keys D. Rational database
115. How many types of data models are 120. The features responsible for controlling
there? the sequence or order of the records
A. 1 A. Query
B. 2 B. Report
C. 3 C. Sort
D. 4 D. Table

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1.8 Database Management 61

121. A person, place, event or item is called as 126. IN RDBMS “R”MEANS

A. RELATIONAL

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A. Data B. RELATIVE
B. Entity C. Relevant
C. Attributes D. none of above
D. Relationships 127. Entity names-Required to be ..

122. Data types to store field uses tables or A. descriptive of the objects in the busi-
values list to validate the content of a sin- ness environment
gle value per row B. descriptive of the data represented by
the attribute
A. OLE Object
C. Use terminology that is familiar to the
B. Lookup Wizard users
C. Attachment D. Facilitates communication between
D. Hyperlink parties

128. Which type of data can be stored in the

123. The diagram gives a logical structure
database?
of the database graphically?
A. Image oriented data
A. ENTITY-RELATIONSHIP
B. Text, files containing data
B. ENTITY
C. Data in the form of audio or video
C. ARCHITECTURAL REPRESENTATION
D. All of the above
D. DATABASE
129. Which of the following is not involved in
124. Matrix composed of intersecting tuple DBMS?
and attribute A. End Users
A. Attribute B. Data
B. Relation or table C. Application Request
C. Tuple: D. HTML
D. none of above 130. De facto query language and data ac-
cess standard supported by the majority
125. Business intelligence is.. of DBMS vendors
A. Captures and processes business data A. XML
to generate information that support deci- B. MySQL
sion making
C. Structured Query Language (SQL)
B. applied based on type of processing to
D. PHP
be performed
C. Enable retrieving, processing, and 131. Why we need database?
modeling data from the data warehouse A. To store a particular picture
D. Hoy Mister B. To store a particular text

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1.8 Database Management 62

C. To store a particular collection of data 137. Each item of information within a record
. is called a
D. To store a particular audio A. form

132. Which one of the following is commonly B. field

used to define the overall design of the C. record
database
D. report
A. Application prgm

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. DDL 138. What program can we use to create a
database?
C. Schema
A. Microsoft PoverPoint
D. Source code
B. Microsoft Excel
133. Which of the following PHPstatement
will store 41 in variablenum? C. Microsoft Word

A. BOTH (i) AND (ii) D. Microsoft Access

B. ALL OF THE MENTIONED 139. Which of the following is Database Lan-
C. ONLY (iii) guage?
D. ONLY (i) A. Data Definition Language

134. Fields hold , like first names of all of B. Data Manipulation Language
the students (FName). C. Query Language
A. Table D. All of the above
B. Record
140. Backup and recovery management
C. Field Contents
A. Multiuser access control
D. none of above
B. Sophisticated algorithms ensure that
135. What is the full form of DBMS? multiple users can access the database
A. Data of Binary Management System concurrently without compromising its in-
tegrity
B. Database Management System
C. Enables recovery of the database after
C. Database Management Service
a failure
D. Data Backup Management System
D. Minimizes redundancy and maximizes
What is the full form of DBMS?
consistency
136. For each attribute of a relation, there is
a set of permitted values, called the of 141. Where the database does not have any
that attribute. multivalued columns?

A. Domain A. First normal form

B. Relation B. Second normal form
C. Set C. Third normal form
D. Schema D. Fourth normal form

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1.8 Database Management 63

142. SQL engine 147. An organized collection of related records

is a
A. Allows end user to interact with the

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

data A. Table
B. Executes all queries B. Cell

C. Collection of tables stored in the C. Report

database D. Field
D. none of above 148. In a database table, each rows are called

143. What is a table?

A. Fields
A. the place where data is stored in a
B. Records
database
C. Primary Keys
B. the report you can run using a databse
D. Foreign Keys
C. another word for spreadsheet
149. The set of all possible values that a col-
D. another word for database
umn may have is called as
144. What are the Disadvantages of Database A. Domain
Systems? B. Relation
A. Management complexity C. Degree
B. Increased costs D. Metadata
C. Vendor independence 150. Where the database does not have any
D. Maintaining currency transitive dependency?
E. Frequent downgrade/replacement cy- A. First normal form
cles B. Second normal form
C. Third normal form
145. What is OLAP?
D. Fourth normal form
A. Online analytical processor
B. Offline analytical processing 151. Course(course id, sec id,
semester)Here the course id, sec
C. Online analytical processing id and semester are and course is a
D. Online analysis processing
A. Relation, attribute
146. Which one of the following commands is
B. Attribute, relation
used to restore the database to the last
committed state C. Tuples, relation
A. Roll back D. Tuple, attribute

B. Save point 152. Which of the following is generally used

for performing tasks like creating the
C. Committ
structure of the relations, deleting rela-
D. Both A and B tion?

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1.8 Database Management 64

A. DML 157. Which of the following is a top-down

B. Query approach in which the entity’s higher
level can be divided into two lower sub-
C. Relational schema entities?
D. DDL
A. Aggregation
153. What is Workgroup database? B. Generalization
A. Supports many users across many de-
C. Specialization
partments

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Runs on PC D. All of the above
C. Supports a small number of users or a 158. Stores data in a format optimized for de-
specific department cision support
D. none of the above
A. Data warehouse
154. Which is ONE difference between the al- B. Enterprise data warehouse
phanumeric and numeric data types?
C. Pedestal
A. Alphanumeric represents quantities,
unlike numeric, which represents labels D. Online analytical processing (OLAP)
only.
B. Alphanumeric represents labels and 159. Set of rules to ensure data integrity
quantities, unlike numeric, which repre- A. Data integrity
sents labels only.
B. Constraint
C. Alphanumeric does not represent
quantities, unlike numeric, which repre- C. Attribute
sents quantities. D. Entity
D. Alphanumeric represents labels, un-
like numeric, which represents quantities 160. The database management system can be
only. considered as the collection of that
enables us to create and maintain the
155. Using different file organization should database.
not require change to conceptual or exter-
nal schemas. This is referring to A. Translators
A. Logical Data Independence B. Programs
B. Physical Data Independence C. Keys
C. Conceptual Data Independence D. Language
D. User Data Independence
161. is a type of database that stores data
156. Raw facts such as telephone number, physically.
birth date, cx name
A. Object database
A. Data
B. Field B. Electronic Database

C. Record C. Manual Database

D. File D. Hybrid Database

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1.8 Database Management 65

162. In the normal form, a composite 167. Rows in the relational table
attribute is converted to individual at- A. Entity Relationship Model
tributes

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B. Entity instance or entity occurrence
A. First Normal Form
C. Connectivity
B. Second Normal Form
D. none of above
C. Third Normal Form
168. Which of the following is not an
D. Fourth Normal Form
Schema?
163. Data independence is .. A. Database Schema
A. Accomplished through a system of file B. Physical Schema
folders and filing cabinets C. Critical Schema
B. Data access changes when data stor- D. Logical Schema
age characteristics change
C. Data storage characteristics is 169. SELECT * FROM employee WHERE
changed without affecting the program’s salary>10000 AND dept id=101;Which
ability to access the data of the following fields are displayed as
output?
D. All file system programs are modified
A. Salary, dept id
to conform to a new file structure
B. Employee
164. OLE MEANS
C. Salary
A. OBJECT LINK ELEMENT
D. All the field of employee relation
B. OBJECT LINK EMBEDDING
170. Relationships can be
C. OBJECT LINE ELEMENT
A. One-to-many (1:M)
D. none of above
B. Many-to-many (M:N or M:M)
165. is the individual properties of an en- C. One-to-one (1:1)
tity. An is represented by a field in a
D. Many-to-one (M:1)
database.
E. All of the above
A. Tuple
B. Field 171. Changes in physical model do not affect
internal model
C. Record
A. Physical dependence
D. Attributes
B. Physical independence
166. Promoting accuracy, validity, and timeli- C. External dependence
ness of data.
D. External independence
A. Data access
172. If you were collecting and storing infor-
B. Data quality
mation about your music collection, an al-
C. Data sharing bum would be considered a/an
D. Data inconsistency A. Relation

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1.8 Database Management 66

B. Instance 50) or specific department within an orga-

C. Entity nization
A. Enterprise Database
D. Attribute
B. Centralized Database
173. The format of displaying the information
C. Workgroup Database
from a particular table is called
D. none of above
A. Report
178. Changing internal model without affect-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Record
ing the conceptual model
C. Forms
A. Logical independence
D. Database
B. Physical independence
174. Which of the following is NOT an exam- C. Logical dependence
ple of a database?
D. none of above
A. telephone book
179. Data dictionary management is ..
B. real estate listing
A. Stores definitions of the data elements
C. online library catalog and their relationships
D. DVD B. Data transformation and presentation
175. What is Cloud database? C. Ensures efficient performance of the
database in terms of storage and access
A. Created and maintained using cloud
speed
data services that provide defined perfor-
mance measures for the database D. Security management
B. Stores data in a format optimized for 180. can not be created in Microsoft access
decision support
A. Tables
C. Created and maintained using differ-
B. Queries
ent data services that provide defined per-
formance measures for the database C. Reports
D. Stores historical data and business D. Image
metrics used exclusively for tactical or 181. Each item from this list is classi-
strategic decision making fied as NameBirthdateSocial Security
176. Which one of the following keyword is No.StreetCity
used to find out the number of values in a A. table
column? B. record
A. Total C. field Name
B. Count D. Data Type
C. Sum
182. Simple representations of complex real-
D. Add world data structures

177. Types of Database System where sup- A. Data models

ports a small number of users(few than B. Model

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1.8 Database Management 67

C. Data modeling 188. A record contains all for one

topic/person.
D. Data

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A. Cell
183. A data types which stores data and time B. Fields
values from the year 100 through 9999.
C. Column
A. Currency
D. Record
B. Date/Time
189. Describes sets of diagrams and symbols
C. OLE Objects to graphically model a system
D. Yes/No A. Unified Modeling Language(UML)
B. Extended relational data model
184. A field such as Item Price
(ERDM)
A. Text C. Extensible Markup Language (XML)
B. Currency D. none of above
C. Date/Time
190. The term “TCL” stands for
D. Number A. Ternary Control Language
185. As data objects and relationships among B. Transmission Control Language
them are represented logical in an C. Transaction Central Language
A. Relational data model D. Transaction Control Language
B. E-R model 191. The following are the functions of a
C. Object based model DBMS except
A. Creating database
D. Semi-structured model
B. Processing data
186. Data Definition Language is used to C. Creating and processing forms
the DBMS.
D. Administrating database
A. create
192. The relationship between two entities
B. define can be given using the lower and upper lim-
C. control access its.This information is called
D. manage A. Cardinality
B. Composite entity
187. How many records would be selected
C. Optional relationships
if the query “Select* FROM customers
WHERE CreditLimit>40000 is run? D. Business rules
A. 6; 193. Types of Database System where focus
B. 7; on storing data used to generate informa-
tion required to make tactical or strategic
C. 8; decision
D. 9; A. Data Warehousing database

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1.8 Database Management 68

B. Distributed Database C. Database Management System

C. Operational Database D. Database Building Management Sys-
D. none of above tem

194. Data about data, which the end-user data 200. How many records are displayed in the
are integrated and managed table?

A. Information A. 6;
B. 7;

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Database Management System
C. Database C. 8;

D. Metadata D. 9;

201. Supports one user at a time.

195. Which of the following gives a logical
structure of the database graphically? A. Desktop database
A. Entity-relationship diagram B. Single-user database
B. Entity diagram C. Centralized database
C. Database diagram D. Distributed database
D. Architectural representation 202. I give one the ability to present informa-
tion in an easy-to-read format. I summa-
196. are used for entering, modifying, and
rize and print information from the query
viewing records.
search.
A. Tables
A. form
B. Forms
B. table
C. Database objects
C. query
D. View
D. report
197. COLUMN MEANS
203. Why would you create a primary key?
A. ROWS
A. To make each record in a database
B. RELATIONS unique
C. ATTRIBUTES B. To make each field in a database
D. none of above unique
C. To make each query in a database
198. TABLES MEANS unique
A. ROWS D. none of above
B. ATTRIBUTES
204. Abstraction of a real-world object or
C. RELATION event.
D. none of above A. Abstract Model
199. The term DBMS stands for B. Data models
A. Database Microsoft C. Model
B. Database Micro System D. Data modeling

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1.8 Database Management 69

205. A collection of field in a database is: A. select first name from students
A. Row where first name like ‘A%’;

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B. select first name from students
B. Record
where first name like ‘%A’;
C. Data
C. select first name from students
D. None of the above where first name like ‘%A%’;
206. is where information is stored in a D. select first name from students
database. where first name like ‘A’;

A. Query 211. The disadvantages of DBMS include

B. Report A. Complex for non-technical users
C. Tables B. Store small size data
D. Microsoft Access C. Low cost
D. none of above
207. To which of the following the term “DBA”
referred? 212. Which is true about Database Design?
A. Database administrator A. Focuses on the design of the database
B. Data bank administrator structure that will be used to store and
manage end-user data
C. Data Administrator
B. Poorly designed database causes
D. None of the above difficult-to-trace errors
208. data refers to describing the data C. Facilitates data management
description, representing data semantics, D. Generates accurate and valuable infor-
and describing the consistency constraints mation
that apply to the data.
213. The following are Characteristics of Data
A. Adding
Dictionary EXCEPT
B. Modifying
A. include information on relationship be-
C. Modeling tween files
D. Refining B. Information about relationship of ta-
bles in database
209. Occurs when multiple users seeking ac-
cess to the same set of records lockout C. Place where all meta data for
each other. database is stored
D. Provides direct control access to
A. Data manipulation
database
B. Deadlock
214. Which data type would you choose for
C. Database lockout
a field if you wanted to enter data like
D. Data redundancy “small”, “medium” and “large” in the
field?
210. Which of the following query would dis-
play all the students whose first name A. currency
starts with the character ‘A’? B. number

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1.8 Database Management 70

C. date/time 221. is responsible for the maintenance of

D. text operational control.
A. Data Administrator (DA)
215. Who might use a database?
B. Database Administrator (DBA)
A. School
C. Database Designers (Logical & Physi-
B. Police
cal)
C. Employer
D. Application Programmers

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. All of the above
222. Which of the following uses paper-based
216. Dbms stands for
databases?
A. Database management system
A. Phonebook
B. Database management storage
B. Smart Phone
C. Data base manipulation system
C. Computer
D. Database manipulation storage
D. none of above
217. What is INFORMATION?
223. All of the following are disadvantages of
A. Produced by processing data
manual database EXCEPT:
B. Reveals the meaning of data
A. Folders are easily misplaced.
C. Enables knowledge creation
B. Large amounts of storage space are
D. Building blocks of information required to store files.
218. The DBMS that most difficult to use is C. Cross-referencing information from
A. Microsofts SQL Server different files is difficult.
B. Oracle Corporation Oracle D. Retrieval of simple information is rela-
tively fast and easy
C. Microsoft Access
D. IBM DB2 224. Represented by an upside-down tree
which contains segments
219. Data Manipulation Language is used to
the DBMS. A. Hierarchical Models
A. create B. Network Models
B. define C. Relational Models
C. control access D. none of above
D. manage 225. Which of the following provides the abil-
220. The details about a particular entity are ity to query information from the database
called a A is represented by a and insert tuples into, delete tuples from,
record in a database. and modify tuples in the database?
A. Field Description A. DML
B. Tuple B. DDL
C. Field type C. Query
D. Attribute D. Relational schema

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1.8 Database Management 71

226. Which is not true about DATA? 231. File structure is changed without affect-
A. Raw facts ing the application’s ability to access the
data

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B. Enables knowledge creation
A. Structural dependence
C. Building blocks of information
D. Reveals the meaning of data B. Structural independence
C. Data dependence
227. Type of Data types to stores expression
that uses data from one table or more ta- D. Data independence
bles
232. It is used to customized formats for
A. Numeric adding, editing, deleting or displaying
B. Currency data.
C. Short Text A. Field
D. Calculated B. Report
228. Logically connected set of one or more C. Macro
fields that describes a person, place or
D. Form
thing.
A. Record 233. Which of the following defines the term
B. File ‘field’ in relation to databases?
C. Data A. A field is all of the information about
one person or one thing
D. File
B. A field is the collection of all the
229. Performance tuning database records on one topic or subject
A. Stores definitions of the data elements C. A field is one type or piece of informa-
and their relationships tion
B. Ensures efficient performance of the
D. none of above
database in terms of storage and access
speed 234. Which of the following is not a function
C. Transforms entered data to conform to of the database?
required data structures
A. Managing stored data
D. Enforces user security and data pri-
B. Manipulating data
vacy
C. Security for stored data
230. Possibility High School maintains a
database containing tables related to its D. Analysing code
students and the subjects offered. Which
235. Enable retrieving, processing, and model-
of the following represents a table within
ing data from the data warehouse
that database?
A. A student’s name A. OLAP
B. A student’s record B. ULAP
C. All the personal data on students C. OLAF
D. The age of a student D. Data

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1.8 Database Management 72

236. The number of columns in a table is called 241. Select the advantage of Object-Oriented
Model
A. Domain A. Learning curve is steep
B. Relation B. Inheritance promotes data integrity
C. Degree C. Visual representation includes seman-
D. Metadata tic content

237. Select all that applies for the problems D. Semantic content is added

NARAYAN CHANGDER
with file system data processing. 242. offer you the ability to present your
A. Lengthy development times data in print.
B. Complex system administration A. Report
C. Lack of security and limited data shar- B. MS Word
ing
C. Form
D. Difficulty of getting quick answers
D. MS Access
E. Extensive programming
243. what is a database?
238. a group of related data organized in
columns and rows in a datasheet. A. organized graph
A. Record B. organized table
B. Fields C. organized collection of data
C. Tables D. collection of notes Show answers Ex-
D. Report planation PreviousNext

239. What is the use of DBMS in the telecom- 244. What is Analytical database?
munication sector? A. Stores historical data and business
A. For reservations and schedule infor- metrics used exclusively for tactical or
mation strategic decision making
B. Keep call records, monthly bills, main- B. Enable retrieving, processing, and
taining balances modeling data from the data warehouse
C. For storing customer, product and C. Stores sari-sari stores for business
sales information metric and strategic decision making
D. none of above D. Captures and processes business data
to generate information that support deci-
240. What is the End-user interface? sion making
A. Each table is independent from an-
other 245. What is Discipline-specific database?
B. Allows end user to interact with the A. Contains a wide variety of data used in
data multiple disciplines
C. Executes all queries B. Contains data focused on specific sub-
D. Rows in different tables are related ject areas
based on common values in common at- C. Stores data in a format optimized for
tributes decision support

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1.8 Database Management 73

D. Contains information that focused on A. Menu Bar

specific subject areas B. Ribbon

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246. Iterative and progressive process of cre- C. Navigation Pane
ating a specific data model for a deter- D. Quick access
mined problem domain
A. Data 251. Represent complex data relationships
B. Data modeling A. Hierarchical Models
C. Data models B. Network Models
D. Models C. Segments
D. Relational Model
247. Consider the following statements and
state which are TRUE.I The customerNo 252. What is Multiuser database?
field type is Text.II The customerNo field is
A. Supports multiple users at the same
NumericIII Data in text fields is lift-aligned
time
IV Data in numeric fields is left-alighned
B. Created and maintained using cloud
A. I and III
data services that provide defined perfor-
B. I and IV mance measures for the database
C. II and III C. Contains data focused on specific sub-
D. II and IV ject areas
D. Contains a wide variety of data used in
248. Which of the following is NOT describing
multiple disciplines
the concept of database?
A. A software that permits an organiza- 253. Data resulting from questions you asked
tion to centralize data from one or more tables
B. A software that provides access to the A. Form
stored data B. Report
C. A software that enables users to navi- C. Queries
gate the World Wide Web
D. Field
D. A software that specifies the size and
format of each data element used 254. A set of fields comprises a

249. Develops when not all of the required A. Database

changes in the redundant data are made B. Table
successfully C. Record
A. Data anomaly D. File
B. Data Integration
255. Produced an automatic transmission
C. Data inconsistency database that replaced standard transmis-
D. Data gathering sion databases

250. It contains multiple tabs, each with sev- A. The Relational Model
eral groups of commands. B. The Network Model

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1.8 Database Management 74

C. Relational Database Management Sys- C. Numeric

tem(RDBMS)
D. Short Text
D. none of above
261. A database with joined tables is referred
256. The Database Management Query lan-
to as a/an database.
guage is generally designed for the
A. Specifying the structure of the A. Field
database B. Relational

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Support end-users who use English C. Table
like commands
D. none of above
C. Support in the development of the com-
plex applications software
262. A column in a table that contains particu-
D. All of the above lar information about a record
257. Logical design is .. A. Record
A. Uses the database constructs sup- B. Primary Key
ported by the chosen database
C. Table
B. Task of creating a conceptual data
model D. Field
C. Is software and hardware indepen-
263. Relationships in Translating Business
dent
Rules into Data Model Components is/are
D. none of above
A. one-directional
258. Consider attributes ID, CITY and NAME.
which one of these can be considered as a B. bidirectional
primary key? C. multi-directional
A. NAME D. none of the above
B. ID
C. CITY 264. Which of the following is not a Storage
Manager Component?
D. ID, NAME
A. Transaction Manager
259. Data types where we can store files like
digital photos B. Logical Manager

A. OLE Object C. Buffer Manager

B. Hyperlink D. File Manager
C. Attachment
265. What are the DBMS Functions?
D. Lookup Wizard
A. Data dictionary management
260. The type of datatype can store valued
used in mathematical calculations B. Data transformation and presentation

A. Autonumber C. Security management

B. OLE Object D. Data storage management

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1.8 Database Management 75

266. What are the advantages of the DBMS B. Reduced data redundancy
A. Better data integration and less data C. Improved data security

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inconsistency
D. Increase data isolation
B. Increased end-user productivity
C. Improves data sharing, data access, 272. What does the acronym DBMS stands
decision making and data security for?

D. Presents the end user with an inte- A. Data Bypass Management System
grated view of the data B. Database Management System
267. Unique and distinct object used to collect C. Digital Base Management System
and store data D. All of the above
A. Data
273. The best data type to choose for date of
B. Entity
birth would be
C. Relationship
A. Number
D. Contraint
B. Text
268. Which of the following is the disadvan-
C. Date/Time
tages of DBMS?
D. Currency
A. Cost of setup of DBMS is relatively
cheap 274. is a database that supports data dis-
B. Database systems are complex tributed across several different sites
C. Database will not be corrupted A. Centralized database
D. Database systems are fast to be de- B. Distributed database
signed
C. Enterprise database
269. Which of the following is a Data Model? D. Discipline specific database
A. Entity-Relationship model
275. Database management system is
B. Relational data model
software
C. Object-Based data model
A. System
D. All of the above
B. Relational
270. A Database Management System is a
C. Application
type of
D. Game
A. It is a type of system software
B. It is a kind of application software 276. An is an item in the real world that is
C. It is a kind of general software represented in a database.

D. Both A and B A. Manual Database

B. Field name
271. Which one of the following is NOT an ad-
vantage of DBMS C. Entity
A. Increased data consistency D. Records

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1.8 Database Management 76

277. Types of Database System where sup- 282. The term is used to refer a row
ports data located at single site. A. Record
A. Centralized Database B. Primary key
B. Enterprise Database C. Foreign key
C. Workgroup Database D. Field
D. none of above 283. It support many users across many de-
partments.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
278. What is Data inconsistency?
A. Workgroup database
A. Different versions of the same data ap- B. Cloud Database
pear in different places
C. Desktop database
B. Promoting accuracy, validity, and time-
D. Enterprise database
liness of data
C. Enables data to be shared 284. The type of datatype which allows al-
phanumeric characters and special symbols
D. Supports multiple users at the same but can store up to 255 characters.
time
A. Auto number
279. What does PHP files have a default file B. Text
extension? C. OLE Object
A. .HTML D. Memo
B. .PHP 285. Columns in a database are called
C. .XML A. Rows
D. .PH B. Fields
C. Tables
280. Collection of similar objects with shared
structure and behavior organized in a class D. none of above
hierarchy 286. What does the database consist of? ?
A. Connectivity A. from a set of tables with data records
B. Class B. from the fields
C. Object C. from data records
D. Inheritance D. from indexing information
287. What is the difference between an entity
281. Data type used to store currency value
and an attribute?
and numeric data used in mathematic cal-
culations involving data with one to four A. An attribute is a table in a database
decimal places and an entity is a field
A. Numeric B. An attribute is a record in a database
and an entity is a table
B. Currency
C. An attribute is a field in a database and
C. Short text an entity is a table
D. Long text D. none of above

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1.8 Database Management 77

288. A collection of fields and records in a spe- C. Data access is flexible

cific category D. Handles more relationship types

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A. Record E. Navigational system yields complex
B. Table implementation, application development,
C. Field and management

D. none of above 294. It represents data elements in textual

format.
289. Relational calculus is a language
A. XAMPP
A. Non-procedural
B. XML
B. Procedural
C. XS
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. XLM
D. none of above
295. Useful for supporting a specific problem
290. Which is not the characteristics of BIG domain.
DATA?
A. Model
A. Veracity
B. Data
B. Volume
C. Data models
C. Velocity
D. Data modeling
D. Variety
296. Enables the database administrator to de-
291. Data Redundancy is fine the schema components
A. Unnecessarily storing same data at dif- A. XAMPP
ferent places
B. Data manipulation language (DML)
B. Increases the probability of having dif-
C. Schema data definition language (DDL)
ferent versions of the same data
C. Scattered data locations
D. none of above
D. Data access changes when data stor-
age characteristics change 297. Which key ensure that data in a field
must only appear once in the whole table.
292. An ordered set of data constituting a
A. Candidate key field
record is called
B. Foreign key
A. Attribute
C. Primary key field
B. Row
D. Alternate key field
C. Tuple
D. Field 298. What is database?
A. Collection of organized data that al-
293. Which is not the advantages of Network lows access, retrieval of that data.
Model
B. Collection of organized data that al-
A. Conceptual simplicity lows access, retrieval, and use of that
B. System complexity limits efficiency data.

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1.8 Database Management 78

C. Collection of organized data that al- C. Query

lows retrieval, and use of that data.
D. Ribbon
D. none of above
304. is responsible for the management of
299. What is DBMS? the data resource.
A. DBMS is a collection of queries
A. Data Administrator (DA)
B. DBMS is a high-level languages
B. Database Administrator (DBA)

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. DBMS is a programming languages
C. Database Designers (Logical & Physi-
D. DBMS stores, modifies and retrieves cal)
data
D. Application Programmers
300. Tables have that are contain field con-
tents. 305. Describe the properties of an object
A. Columns A. Information
B. Record B. Object
C. Field C. Subject
D. none of above D. Attributes
301. Attribute name-Required to be ..
306. An entity set that does not have enough
A. Promotes self-documentation attributes to form primary key is known
B. descriptive of the objects in the busi- as
ness environment A. STRONG ENTITY SET
C. descriptive of the data represented by
B. WEAK ENTITY SET
the attribute
C. IDENTITY SET
D. Facilitates communication between
parties D. OWNER SET

302. Which is true about “Translating Business 307. Data is located at a single site.
Rules into Data Model Components”
A. Single-site database
A. Nouns translate into entities
B. Centralized database
B. Nouns translate into relationships
among entities C. Distributed database
C. Verbs translate into relationships D. Workgroup database
among entities
308. Disadvantages of File systems to store
D. Verbs translate into entities
data is:
303. Features in MS access build to provide A. Data redundancy and inconsistency
help topics and topics on tasks performed
working with Access B. Difficulty in accessing data
A. Index C. Data isolation
B. Office Assistant D. All of the above

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1.8 Database Management 79

309. Portion of the database seen by the ap- E. Improves implementation and man-
plication programs that produce the de- agement simplicity
sired information from the data within the

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database 314. Which one of the following is NOT an ex-
ample of data
A. Sub data
A. RM10
B. Schema
B. Girl
C. Subschema
C. Boy
D. none of above
D. The boy received RM10
310. Lets the user specify what must be done
315. In database table, rows are called
without having to specify how
A. field
A. Query language
B. column
B. XML
C. record
C. SQL
D. none of above
D. MySQL
316. Which is not the type of Data Anomaly?
311. is one of the oldest ways to maintain
records in a conventional file oriented data A. Update Anomalies
collection system. B. Creation Anomalies
A. records C. Insertion Anomalies
B. database D. Deletion Anomalies
C. files 317. The following are purpose of a database,
D. none which is NOT true?
A. To store data
312. Communication is established with
MySQL using B. To create a responsive web page
A. SQL C. To provide an organizational structure
for data
B. NETWORK CALLS
D. To provide a mechanism for CRUD data
C. JAVA
D. API’S 318. What is Database Management Sys-
tem?
313. Select the advantages of Relational
A. A software system that enables users
Model
to access to the database.
A. Structural independence is promoted B. A software system that enables users
using independent tables to create access to the database.
B. Tabular view improves conceptual sim- C. A software system that enables users
plicity to define, create, maintain and control ac-
C. Ad hoc query capability is based on cess to the database.
SQL D. A software system that enables users
D. Isolates the end user from physical- to maintain and control access to the
level details database.

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1.8 Database Management 80

319. Data integrity management 324. is the bridge between machine and
human in a DBMS environment
A. Minimizes redundancy and maximizes
consistency A. People
B. Accept end-user requests via multiple, B. Hardware
different network environments C. Software
C. Sophisticated algorithms ensure that D. Data
multiple users can access the database E. Procedure

NARAYAN CHANGDER
concurrently without compromising its in-
tegrity 325. In an ER model, what are objects also
known as
D. Enables recovery of the database after
a failure A. Entity
B. Relationship
320. The phases in database design wherein
C. Bond
one gathers and list all the necessary
fields for database projects. D. Joint
A. Data control 326. We can use to comment a single line?
B. Data Definition i) /? ii) // iii) # iv) /* */
A. ONLY (II)
C. Data relationship
B. (I), (iii), AND (iv)
D. Data refinement
C. (ii), (iii) AND (iv)
321. Sets of related data D. BOTH (ii) AND (iV)
A. Table 327. The attribute refers to a of a table
B. Form A. Record
C. Report B. Foreign key
D. Field C. Primary key
D. Field
322. Uses graphic representations to model
database components 328. Types of Database System designed to
A. Entity instance or entity occurrence support companies day-to-day operations

B. Unified Modeling Language(UML) A. Data Warehousing database

B. Distributed Database
C. Entity relationship diagram (ERD)
C. Operational Database
D. none of above
D. none of above
323. In a relational model, a row is known as
329. Data types to store audio, video or other
BLOBs files
A. Domain A. OLE Object
B. Degree B. Hyperlink
C. Tuple C. Attachment
D. Attributes D. Lookup Wizard

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1.8 Database Management 81

330. . A relational database consists of a col- 335. Graphical representation of entities and
lection of their relationships in a database structure

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A. Tables A. Entity instance or entity occurrence
B. Fields B. The Entity Relationship Model
C. Records C. Entity relationship diagram (ERD)
D. Keys D. none of above

331. which one of the following cannot be 336. Performs basic functions provided by the
taken as a primary key? hierarchical and network DBMS systems
A. ID A. Relational Database Management Sys-
tem(RDBMS)
B. RegistrationNo
B. Database Management System
C. DepartmentID
(DBMS)
D. Street
C. Entity relationship diagram (ERD)
332. The following are Characteristics of Early D. Object-Oriented Data Model (OODM)
days database application EXCEPT.
337. Database management so important be-
A. Contain Table Entity Relatinship
cause of the following reasons except
B. Data build direct on the top of File sys-
A. It allows better updates
tem
B. It helps increase organisational acces-
C. Multiple formats and duplications are
sibility to data
implemented
C. It helps people to be promoted as man-
D. none of above
ager
333. Which of the following is not the type of D. It increases efficiency
the data model?
338. Formatted summaries suitable for print-
A. Relational data model
ing
B. Semi-structured data model
A. Table
C. Entity-relationship model
B. Form
D. Process-based data model
C. Report
334. Which type of application should you use D. Field
if you need to store a large quantity of
data in an organized format that you can 339. allow you to enter, store, analyze,
easily query? and compile your data however you want.
A. Database A. DBMS
B. Presentation B. Forms
C. Spreadsheet C. DBMS Objects
D. Word Processor D. Tables

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1.8 Database Management 82

340. The reports are generally created after B. Data processing (DP) specialist
making on the database. C. Computerized File Systems
A. Record
D. File System Redux:Modern End-User
B. Statements Productivity Tools
C. Tables
346. A describes what is in the field. This
D. Queries description is displayed in the status bar
when you select this field on the form.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
341. A is a computerized filing system that
is used to organize and maintain a collec- A. Field type
tion of information for future use. B. Field size
A. Query C. Field Description
B. Report
D. All of the above
C. Database
347. is a collection of related fields.
D. Spreadsheet
A. Table
342. The term attribute refers to a of a
table B. Record

A. Record C. Field

B. Foreign key D. Form

C. Primary key 348. Which of the following is not a level of
D. Field data abstraction?
A. Physical Level
343. Tables in databases are designed to:
A. to store database data B. Critical Level

B. for the selection and processing of C. Logical Level

database data D. View Level
C. to enter database data and view them
349. A list of containing every object in your
D. to automatically execute a group of database
commands
A. Menu Bar
344. In which dependency, a nonkey column is B. Ribbon
dependent on part of the primary key?
C. Navigation Pane
A. Partial dependency
D. Quick access
B. Transitive dependency
C. Total (or) full dependency 350. The architecture of a database can be
viewed as the
D. none of above
A. One level
345. Created a computer-based system that
B. Two level
would track data and produce required re-
ports. C. Three level
A. File System D. Four level

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1.8 Database Management 83

351. Which of the following is not a type of 356. It is the use sophisticated statistical anal-
MS Access database object? ysis, including artificial intelligence tech-
niques such as neural networks, to “dis-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Table
cover” unhypothesized relationships in
B. Form the data. For example, credit card com-
C. Worksheets panies use this to identify usage patterns
D. Modules indicative of fraud.
A. Data integration
352. Select the advantages of Hierarchical
Model B. Data Sharing
A. Promotes data sharing C. Data Mining
B. Parent/child relationship promotes D. Database system
conceptual simplicity and data integrity
357. Types of Database System used by the
C. Database security is provided and en- entire organization (100s of users) across
forced by DBMS many departments
D. Efficient with 1:1 relationships A. Centralized Database
E. none of the above B. Enterprise Database
353. Each item from this list is classified as C. Workgroup Database
Name, Birthdate, Street, County, Post- D. none of above
Code
358. A Database Management System (DBMS)
A. Table
is
B. Record
A. Collection of interrelated data
C. Field
B. Collection of programs to access data
D. none of above
C. Collection of data describing one par-
354. The personal database system assumes ticular enterprise
that no two transactions will happen at D. All of the above
the same time on one table, which is
known as 359. What are the importance of Data Mod-
A. Client Server els?

B. Network A. Are a communication tool

C. Transaction B. Are an abstraction for the creation of

good database
D. Optimistic locking
C. Organize data for various users
355. Hides the complexities of the relational D. Give an overall view of the database
model from the user
A. Object-Oriented Data Model (OODM) 360. Which of the following is a database ob-
ject?
B. Database Management System
(DBMS) A. Record
C. Relational Database Management Sys- B. Field
tem(RDBMS) C. Report
D. Entity relationship diagram (ERD) D. Query wizard

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1.8 Database Management 84

361. What is the program that enables you C. .accdbb

to create, access and manage electronic D. none of above
database called?
367. An arrangement of data in a row and col-
A. Database
umn
B. Data Structure
A. Record
C. Operating system
B. Table
D. Database Management System. C. Field

NARAYAN CHANGDER
362. Which of the following is not an example D. Form
of a data type?
368. How many different field types are used
A. Number to store the data?
B. Yes/No A. 2;
C. Entity B. 3;
D. Date/ Time C. 4;
363. Representing database as seen by the D. 5;
DBMS mapping conceptual model to the 369. Which of the following levels is consid-
DBMS ered as the level closed to the end-users?
A. The External Model A. Internal level
B. Object-Oriented Model B. External level
C. The Conceptual Model C. Physical level
D. The Internal Model D. Conceptual level
364. Describes an association among entities 370. Rows in a database tables are called
A. Attribute A. Fields
B. Data model B. Records
C. Constraint C. Tables
D. Relationship D. none of above

365. One or more very large databases con- 371. Each of these objects interacts with the
taining both detailed and summarized data records stored in your database’s
for a number of years that is used for anal- A. Table, Form, Query, Report
ysis rather than transaction processing. B. Table, Query, Form
A. Data warehouse C. Form, Report, Query
B. Data Sharing D. Report, Query, Table
C. Database
372. is a database management package
D. Data Mining
A. MS Excel
366. EXTENSION OF MS ACCESS FILE B. MS Word
A. .accdb C. Ms Access
B. .acdb D. MS Paint

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1.8 Database Management 85

373. Contains a wide variety of data used in 379. A Primary Key is a code that uniquely
multiple disciplines. identifies a in a Database.

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A. General database A. Record
B. General-purpose databases B. Field
C. All-purpose database
C. Text
D. Discipline-specific databases
D. Number
374. Characteristic of an entity
A. Entity 380. builds the application programs that
provide the required functionality for the
B. Relationship
end-users.
C. Attribute
A. Data Administrator (DA)
D. Constraint
B. Database Administrator (DBA)
375. Column in a table also known as
C. Database Designers (Logical & Physi-
A. Attribute cal)
B. Entity
D. Application Programmers
C. Record
D. Relationship 381. How data is stored in relational
database?
376. A field of one table which is also a the
primary key of another table A. Stored in the form of objects
A. Primary Key B. Stored hierarchically
B. Relational database C. Stored in fixed structures
C. Data normalisation D. none of above
D. Foreign Key
382. Which of the following fields can be used
377. Access to a file is dependent on its own as a primary key?
structure.
A. Firstname
A. Structural dependence
B. Structural independence B. Age

C. Data dependence C. Address

D. Data independence D. ID number

378. What type of datatypes your going to 383. decides how the logical DB design is
used if you wanted to store information if to be physically realised
the student is CURRENTLY ENROLLED OR
NOT? A. Data Administrator (DA)
A. Auto number B. Database Administrator (DBA)
B. Date / Time C. Database Designers (Logical & Physi-
C. Numeric cal)
D. Yes/No D. Application Programmers

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 1.9 Identity Access Management 86

384. Drop table statement B. Query

A. deletes the table structure only C. Input mask
B. deletes the table structure along with D. none of above
the table data
388. In which one of the following, the mul-
C. works whether or not referential in- tiple lower entities are grouped (or com-
tegrity constraints would be violated bined) together to form a single higher-
D. is not an SQL statement level entity

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Specialization
385. Data types to store text or alphanumeric
and used the link or URL B. Generalization
A. OLE Object C. Aggregation
B. Lookup Wizard D. None of the above
C. Attachment 389. Data is distributed across different sites.
D. Hyperlink A. Distribution database
386. The following shows the functionalities B. Centralized database
of DBMS except C. Cloud database
A. Manipulate D. Distributed database
B. Multiply
390. Logically related data consists of these
C. Share EXCEPT
D. Construct A. attributes

387. It allows you to specify exactly how data B. relationships

should be entered into the database. C. entities
A. Lookup wizard D. variables

1.9 Identity Access Management

1. A recent security audit discovered several D. Disable the accounts.
apparently dormant user accounts. Al-
though users could log on to the accounts, 2. is a cloud-based security solution that
no one had logged on to them for more organizations can use to identify, detect,
than 60 days. You later discovered that and investigate many different threats,
these accounts are for contractors who compromised identities, and other mali-
work approximately one week every quar- cious activity.
ter. Which of the following is the BEST re- A. Azure Identity Protection
sponse to this situation?
B. Azure Advanced Threat Protection
A. Remove the account expiration from
the accounts. C. Azure MultiFactor Authention

B. Delete the accoutns. D. Azure Security Dashboard

C. Reset the accounts. 3. A customer has provided an email address

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1.9 Identity Access Management 87

and password to a website as part of the A. WPA2-PSK

login process. Which of the following BEST B. WEP-PSK
describes the email address?

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C. CCMP
A. Identification
D. LEAP
B. Authorization
8. Your organization has decided to imple-
C. Access Control
ment a biometric solution for authentica-
D. Authentication tion. One of the goals is to ensure that
the system is highly accurate. Which of
4. Which of the following is an authentica-
the following provides the BEST indication
tion service that uses UDP as a transport
of accuracy with the biometric system?
medium?
A. The lowest possible FRR
A. TACACS+
B. The highest possible FAR
B. LDAP
C. The lowest possible CER
C. Kerberos
D. The highest possible CER
D. RADIUS
9. Speaking a passphrase into a voice print
5. Lisa is a training instructor and she main- analyzer is an example of which of the fol-
tains a training lab with 18 computers. lowing security concepts?
She has enough rights and permission so
A. Two Factor Authentication
that she can configure them as needed for
classes. However, she does not have the B. Identification and authorization
rights to add them to the organizations do- C. Single Sign on
main. What is being shown in this exam-
D. Single factor authentication
ple?
A. Least privilege 10. is a Windows 10 feature that replaces
passwords with two factor authentication
B. Need to know on both PCs and mobile devices.
C. Group-based privileges A. Windows Hello
D. Location-based policies B. Microsoft Intune
6. Which type of policy would be most effec- C. Microsoft Authenticator
tive as a way to limit the permissions of D. Microsoft Azure
all IAM Users in a specific account?
11. Which of the following are valid use cases
A. SCP(Service Control Policy)
for IAM Roles? (Choose all that apply)
B. Permission Boundary
A. Provide AWS resources with access to
C. Inline Policy AWS services
D. AWS Managed Policy B. Provide access to externally authenti-
cated users
7. Jane, a security administrator, needs to
implement a secure wireless authentica- C. Switch roles to access resources in
tion method that uses a remote RADIUS another AWS account (cross-account ac-
server for authentication. Which of the fol- cess)
lowing is an authentication method Jane D. Do not support providing access to
should use? third parties

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1.9 Identity Access Management 88

12. Ann, a security administrator, wishes to B. Arequirements list identifying need to

replace their RADIUS authentication with know
a more secure protocol, which can utilize C. A listing of owners.
EAP. Which of the following would BEST
fit her objective? D. A matrix of functions matched with
their required privileges.
A. CHAP
17. Which of the following is not a character-
B. SAML
istic of an IAM role?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Kerberos
A. It can be used only when there is a sep-
D. Diameter arate policy called Trusted Policy.
13. Which of the following features does AWS B. It can also be used in applications or
provide information about services that AWS services.
each IAM user or IAM role has not recently C. A Token is issued along with a fixedly
accessed? used Access Key and Secret Key.
A. IAM Access Analyzer D. If necessary, it is possible to switch to
another role according to the authority.
B. IAM Access Advisor
C. Credential Report 18. Which of the following types of security
services are used to support authentica-
D. Trusted Advisor
tion for remote users and devices?
14. If you need to allow a user full control over A. Biometrics
EC2 instance resources, which two of the B. HSM
following must be include in the policy you
create? (select 3) C. RADIUS

A. “Target”:“ec2:*” D. TACACS

B. “Action”:“ec2:*” 19. Which of the following is best practice to

put at the end of an ACL?
C. “Resource”:“ec2:*”
A. Implicit deny
D. “Effect”:“Allow”
B. Time of day restrictions
15. Which of the following is an authentication C. Implicit allow
method that can be secured by using SSL?
D. SNMP listing
A. RADIUS
B. LDAP 20. Marge is reviewing an organizations ac-
count management processes. She wants
C. TACACS+ to ensure that security log entries accu-
D. Kerberos rately report the identity of personnel tak-
ing specific actions. Which step would best
16. Developers are planning to develop an ap- meet this requirement?
plication using role-based access control. A. Update ACLs for all files and folders
Which of the following would they MOST
likely include in their planning? B. Implement role-based privileges

A. A listing of labels reflecting classifica- C. Use an SSO solution

tion levels D. Remove all Shared accounts

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1.9 Identity Access Management 89

21. Which one of the followings is not a way C. Allow all permissions except for all
by which Microsoft protect and secure permissions in IAM.
identity

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D. Block IAM permissions on October 17,
A. Microsoft Cloud App Security 2012.
B. Azure Advanced Threat Protection 26. Joe Has read and write access to his own
C. Microsoft Azure Defender home directory. Joe and Ann are collabo-
rating on a project, and Joe would like to
D. Azure Active Directory Identity Protec-
give Ann write access to one particular file
tion
in this home directory. Which of the fol-
22. What Identity & Access Management se- lowing types of access control would this
curity measures evaluates access requests reflect?
against different criteria and compares A. Role-based access control
this criteria to policies that you define B. Rule-based access control
A. User Verification C. Mandatory access control
B. Conditional Access D. Discretionary access control
C. Threat Recognition
27. Which of the following statements is a cor-
D. Microsoft Access Scanning rect description of IAM policies?
23. Which IAM components cannot be used in A. The Action element refers to the way
AWS Identity-based policies? IAM will react to a request

A. Resource B. The * character applies an element

globally-as broadly as possible
B. Action
C. The Resource element refers to the
C. Principal third-party identities that will be allowed
D. Condition to access the account
D. The Effect element refers to the antic-
24. Which of the following is an XML based
ipated resource state after a request is
open standard used in the exchange of au-
granted
thentication and authorization information
between different parties? 28. RADIUS provides which of the following?
A. LDAP A. Authentication, Authorization, Avail-
B. SAML ability

C. TACACS+ B. Authentication, Authorization, Audit-

ing
D. Kerberos
C. Authentication, Accounting, Auditing
25. Which of the following best describes D. Authentication, Authorization, Ac-
the policy? { “Version”:“2012-10-17”, counting
“Statement”:[ { “Effect”:“Allow”, “No-
tAction”:“iam:*”, “Resource” :“*” } ] } 29. A security administrator implements ac-
cess controls based on the security classi-
A. Grant IAM permission on October 17, fication of the data and need-to-know in-
2012. formation. Which of the following BEST
B. Allow all permissions of IAM. describes this level of access control?

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1.9 Identity Access Management 90

A. Implicit deny B. Add user sign-up and sign-in to your

B. Role-based Access Control applications

C. Mandatory-based Access Control C. Incorporate encryption infrastructure

into your application lifecycle
D. Least privilege
D. Deliver up-to-date credentials to au-
30. Which of the following is not a principal thenticate RDS database requests
available in IAM?
35. A company recently hired you as a security

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. IAM User
administrator. You notice that some for-
B. IAM Role mer accounts used by temporary employ-
C. IAM Group ees are currently enabled. Which of the
following choices is BEST response?
D. AWS Account
A. Disable all the temporary accounts.
E. AWS Service
B. Disable the temporary accounts you’ve
31. Which of the following types of authenti- noticed are enabled.
cation solutions use tickets to provide ac-
C. Craft a script to identify inactive ac-
cess to various resources from a central
counts based on the last time they logged
location?
on.
A. Biometrics
D. Set account expiration dates for all ac-
B. PKI counts when creating them.
C. ACLs
36. An employee with access to the root user
D. Kerberos on your AWS account has just left your
company. Since you can’t be 100 percent
32. Which one is not one of Microsoft user au-
sure that the former employee won’t try
thentication methods?
to harm your company, which of the fol-
A. Microsoft Authenticator lowing steps should you take? (Choose
B. Windows Hello two)
C. Multifactor Authentication A. Change the password and MFA set-
tings for the root account
D. Multifactor Authentication
B. Delete and re-create all existing IAM
33. Which of the following elements will not policies
play any role in crafting an IAM policy?
C. Change he passwords for all your IAM
A. Action users
B. Region D. Delete the former employee’s own
C. Effect IAM user (within the company account)
D. Resource 37. A network includes a ticket-granting ticket
34. What is the function of Amazon Cognito server used for authentication. Which
user pools? authentication service does this network
use?
A. Give your application users temporary,
controlled access to other services in your A. Shibboleth
AWS account B. SAML

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1.9 Identity Access Management 91

C. LDAP 43. Which of the following are important steps

D. Kerberos for securing IAM user accounts? (Choose
two)

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38. A user ID and password together provide A. Never use the account to perform any
which of the following? administration operations
A. Authorization B. Enable multifactor authentication
B. Auditing (MFA)
C. Authentication C. Assign a long and complex password
D. Identification D. Delete all access keys

39. Why using Mutlfactor Authentication? 44. Your organization is implementing a SDN.
Management wants to use an access con-
A. MFA is more secure than passwords trol model that controls access based on
B. Protect your identities attributes. Which of the following is the
BEST solution?
C. Very easy to use
A. DAC
D. Provide users secure, seamless ac-
cess to all their apps with single sign-on B. MAC
C. Role-BAC
40. Users require access to a certain server de-
pending on their job function. Which of the D. ABAC
following would be the MOST appropriate
strategy for securing the server? 45. Which of the following services is not pro-
vided by Identity & Access Management
A. Common Access Card
A. Condition Access
B. Role based access control
B. Secure Authentication
C. Discretionary access control
C. Malware Verification
D. Mandatory access control
D. Identity Protection
41. Select all non-reusable policy types from
the following policies. 46. Which statement is wrong? Remeber MFA
is Multi Factor Authentication?
A. Inline Policy
A. MFA works by requiring 2 or more au-
B. AWS Managed Policy thentication methods
C. Customer Managed Policy B. MFA works by requiring any 2 authen-
D. Bucket Policy tications
C. Sign-in process may include enter a
42. What IAM permissions are required for an
code cellphone, fingerprint, smartcard
IAM user to assume an IAM role?
D. delivers strong authentication through
A. PassRole
easy to use authentication methods
B. CreateRole
47. Using the same complex password on all
C. TransferRole devices and applications leads to (Choose
D. AssumeRole security best answer)

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1.9 Identity Access Management 92

A. Ensure that user can remember their A. Microsoft Intune Checker

password
B. Identity Protection features
B. Make it difficult for hackers to get into
the system C. Conditional Access
C. Compromised security in terms of D. Secure Authentication
phishing and replay attack
52. Which of the following is an authentication
D. None of the above
and accounting service that uses TCP for

NARAYAN CHANGDER
48. What is the function of Amazon Cognito connecting to routers and switches?
identity pools? A. Diameter
A. Give your application users temporary,
B. Radius
controlled access to other services in your
AWS account C. TACACS+
B. Add user sign-up and sign-in to your D. Kerberos
applications
C. Incorporate encryption infrastructure 53. Your organization is planning to implement
into your application lifecycle remote access capabilities. Management
wants strong authentication and wants to
D. Deliver up-to-date credentials to au-
ensure passwords expire after a prede-
thenticate RDS database requests
fined time interval. Which of the following
49. Which of the following is the greatest ben- best meets this need?
efit of organizing your users into groups? A. HOTP
A. It enhances security by consolidating
B. TOTP
resources
B. It simplifies the management of user C. CAC
permissions D. Kerberos
C. It allows for quicker response times to
service interruptions 54. In Kerberos, the Ticket Granting Ticket
D. It simplifies locking down the root user (TGT) is used for which of the following?
A. Identification
50. A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)
wants to implement two-factor authenti- B. Authorization
cation within the company. Which of the
C. Authentication
following would fulfill the CISO’s require-
ments? D. Multifactor authentication
A. Username and password
55. What is the maximum valid time of tokens
B. Retina scan and fingerprint scan issued by STS (Simple Token Service)?
C. USB token and PIN
A. 1 hours
D. Proximity badge and token
B. 3 hours
51. Which of the following is not what Mi-
C. 6 hours
crosoft 365 uses to identify who is access-
ing which resources D. 12 hours

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 1.10 Performance Testing 93

56. Which of the following was based on a B. Dual-factor

previous X.500 specification and allows
C. Something you are
either unencrypted authentication or en-

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crypted authentication through the use of D. Somewhere you are
TLS?
59. You need to create an account for a contrac-
A. Kerberos
tor who will be working at your company
B. TACACS+ for 60 days. Which of the following is the
C. RADIUS BEST security step to take when creating
this account?
D. LDAP
A. Configure history on the account.
57. Which of the following security concepts
can prevent a user from logging on from B. Configure a password expiration date
home during the weekends? on the account.
A. Time of day restrictions C. configure and expiration date on the
account .
B. Multifactor authentication
C. Implicit deny D. Configure complexity.

D. Common access card 60. Which of the following is an example of

multifactor authentication?
58. Employees enter a username and pass-
word into the company application from A. Credit card and PIN
their smartphone and the application logs
B. Username and password
their location using GPS. Which type of au-
thentication is being used? C. Password and PIN
A. One-factor D. Fingerprint and Retina scan

1.10 Performance Testing

1. Tick the common performance problems 3. load runner function is used to do cor-
from the below given list. relation.
A. Poor response time A. web reg find
B. order failures B. web reg save param
C. poor session management C. web submit request
D. queue length for request D. lr output message
E. High throughput 4. Who defines the acceptance criteria for
2. Which of the following test is used to iden- performance tests?
tify the memory leak during the test A. AFTER
A. Volume testing B. LT
B. Endurance Testing C. PO/LT
C. Stress test D. PO/LT/DEV/QE Performance
D. scalability test E. PO/LT/QE Performance

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1.10 Performance Testing 94

5. Some more specific reasons for conducting 10. Check below the different types of perfor-
performance testing include mance testing.
A. Assessing release readiness A. Stress Testing
B. Assessing infrastructure adequacy B. Load Testing
C. Assessing adequacy of developed soft- C. Black Box Testing
ware performance D. Scalability Testing
D. Improving the efficiency of perfor- E. Functional Regression

NARAYAN CHANGDER
mance tuning
11. Performance testing
E. All of above
A. Compatibility Testing
6. How many phases does the performance
B. Load testing
framework contemplate?
C. Interface testing
A. 2
D. stress testing
B. 6
C. 7 12. test if many users are accessing or request-
ing the same page
D. 5
A. Functionality testing
E. 4
B. Usability testing
7. Which of the following can be used C. Stress testing
to configure a CloudFormation template?
(Choose three) D. Securitytesting

A. CloudFormation Designer 13. The checklist should be used from:

B. Selecting a prebuilt sample template A. Pre-work
C. Importing a template from AWS Cod- B. He began to sprint
eDeploy C. Functional tests start
D. Creating your own JSON template doc- D. start development
ument
E. Functional tests are completed
8. Captcha is tested in
14. The roles involved in preparing the Check-
A. Interface testing list are:
B. Security testing A. QE/LT/YES
C. performance testing B. THAT/YES
D. Functionality testing C. QE Yield/LT/PO
9. provides shared services as opposed D. QE/LT
to local servers or storage resources E. WHAT Yield/PO
A. Cloud Computing 15. Which of the following is not a perfor-
B. Network Computing mance testing tool?
C. Science Computing A. Neo load
D. None of the choices B. Load Runner

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1.10 Performance Testing 95

C. Web Load 21. The windows for performing performance

tests are:
D. Cucumber

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A. Monday to Friday from 6:00 p.m. to
16. spelling errors are found in 9:00 a.m.
A. Functionality testing B. Monday to Friday from 1:00 p.m. to
3:00 p.m.
B. Usability testing
C. Saturdays
C. compatibility testing
D. sundays
D. Performance testing
E. Monday to Friday from 9:00 a.m. to
17. The deliverable of the Preparation phase 6:00 p.m.
is:
22. Benefits of performance testing. Tick all
A. risk matrix that apply.
B. Report A. Increased revenue
C. Checklist B. Increased profits with better conver-
sions
D. test report
C. Assured customer dissatisfaction
E. ROI matrix
D. Increased system and hardware costs
18. Informational website is E. Reduced system and hardware costs
A. Well formed web site
23. What is a possible disadvantage of cloud
B. Dynamic website computing in education system?
C. Meta website A. The need for high speed internet ac-
D. Static website cess
B. The management of data and products
19. Which of the following can be integrated
C. The absence of hardware
into your AWS workflow through AWS
OpsWorks? (Choose two) D. The wide connection of networks
A. Ansible 24. Cookies are to
B. Chef A. maintain the client data
C. Terraform B. maintain the session information
D. Puppet C. maintain the database
D. maintain the blogs
20. Load Runner Enterprise previously called
as 25. how the user surfs the web page
A. Performance Center A. Functionality Testing
B. ALM B. Interface testing
C. Controller C. Security Testing
D. Jmeter D. Usability testing

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1.10 Performance Testing 96

26. The designed performance test scenarios 31. Which of the following are valid reasons
must be developed with Gherkin. The test why manual processes are risky? (Choose
scenarios created must be uploaded to Jira- all that apply)
Xray
A. Does not scale
A. In folder called Performance
B. No version control
B. In the test general repository
C. Lack of audit trails
C. In the folder that corresponds to the
D. Inconsistent data management

NARAYAN CHANGDER
functionality
D. Unassigned in test repository 32. What is performance testing?
E. In a subfolder of the functionality A. performance of an application
27. A performance test script is composed of B. load
three blocks: initialization, X and termina- C. durability
tion
D. blackbox
A. scripts
E. regression
B. code
C. activities 33. Which of the following is not a stand alone
D. actions application but a web-based, globally ac-
cessible platform
28. Where would you look to find pre-built A. VUGen
templates for common AWS solutions?
B. LRE
A. CodeDepot
C. Controller
B. AWS Quick Start
D. Analysis
C. Git
D. Local Sharepoint repository 34. Which of the following is not true about
parameterization?
29. is a general term used to describe
a new class of network based computing A. It is a process to capture the dynamic
that takes place over the Internet values returned from the server
A. Cloud Computing B. It is a process used to store the static
values which the user enters.
B. Network Computing
C. Its works on the predefined rules.
C. Storage Computing
D. None of the choices D. more number of values are stored in
the parameter files and picks up data.
30. AWS CloudFormation templates can be
written in which two text formats? 35. Who is the odd one out?
A. Plain text and RTF A. JMeter
B. YAML and RTF B. Ksh
C. Plain Text and JSON C. Lighthouse
D. YAML and JSON D. Artillery

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1.10 Performance Testing 97

36. Which of the following is not a component D. Implementation

of Load runner? E. Preparation

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. VUGen
42. Password cracking
B. Load Generator
A. Interface testing
C. Analysis
B. security testing
D. Performance Monitor
C. functionality testing
37. Approach by which the users are pushed D. performance testing
into the system.
43. The test types are:
A. ramp up
A. Load, stress, spikes, resilience, scala-
B. Ramp down bility, concurrency
C. steady state B. Load, stress, resistance, volumetry,
D. unsteady state concurrence

38. Testing whether communication is done C. Load, stress, peaks, resistance, vol-
properly umetry, scalability

A. Functionality Testing D. Load, stress, scalability, resistance,

volumetry, concurrency
B. Usability Testing
E. Load, stress, peaks, resistance, vol-
C. Interface Testing umetry, concurrence
D. Compatibility Testing
44. The risk matrix is elaborated in the phase:
39. Name the popular website owned by Ob- A. Preparation
vious corp?
B. Strategy
A. Orkut
C. Setting
B. Facebook D. Execution and Analytics
C. Twitter E. Implementation
D. Hi5
45. Types of web testing
40. involves identifying the dynamic A. Static website testing
value.
B. single webpage testing
A. correlation
C. Dynamic web application Testing
B. parameterization
D. Multiple webpage testing
C. error handling
46. Which of the following automation tools
D. none of above
offer the most convenience with the least
41. The QUE of Performance participates from amount of control?
the phase: A. OpsWorks
A. Setting B. Cloudformation
B. Strategy C. Elastic Beanstalk
C. Execution and Analytics D. CodeDeploy

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 1.11 Web Services and API 98

47. I want my vusers to connect on every iter- B. Actions

ation, where should I place my code? C. End
A. Init D. none of above

1.11 Web Services and API

1. is the root element in SOAP message. 5. A site that forms a community of users

NARAYAN CHANGDER
who share thoughts, pictures, interests,
A. Root
and interactions.
B. Definition
A. web blog
C. Envelope B. commercial
D. WSL-Root C. social network

2. Characteristics of Web Services. Where D. web blog

did it go wrong?
6. Which of these are not the WSDL opera-
A. Fast; load only certain data from the tion types?
entire web page A. One-way
B. Flexible; You are not limited to using B. error-message
only web pages, you can use desktop or
mobile applications C. Request-response
D. Solicit-response
C. Merger; changing one part might
change another 7. is used to convert your application into
D. There are options; You give users a Web-Application.
choice about how to use Your data A. Browser Action

3. What are the different HTTP methods B. Web Services

available? C. Java Service
A. a. GET, SAVE, PUT, POST D. Struts Services
B. GET, HEAD, CONNECT, OPTIONS 8. Which of the following is correct about URI
C. GET, PUT, DELETE, POST in RESTful web services?
A. Each resource in REST architecture is
D. GET, SET, DELETE, MARK
identified by its URI
4. Which of the following component of HTTP B. Purpose of an URI is to locate a re-
response indicates server status for the re- source(s) on the server hosting the web
quested resource? service
A. Status/Response Code C. Both of the above
B. HTTP Version D. None of the above

C. Response Header 9. POST method of HTTP is used for

D. Response Body A. Create

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1.11 Web Services and API 99

B. Read 15. Services should use standards that al-

C. Delete low diverse subscribers to use the service.
(Choose one principle of SOA design).

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. Update
A. Service Discoverability
10. Services should be stateless.(Choose one B. Standardized Service Contract
principle of SOA design).
C. Service Interoperability
A. Loose Coupling
D. Service Statelessness
B. Standardized Service Contract
C. Service Reusability 16. A schema describes(i) grammar of a
programming language(ii) vocabulary
D. Service Statelessness of text(iii) structure of a document(iv)
11. Which role does XML play in an SOA de- datatype of XML document
sign? A. (i) & (ii) are correct
A. XML is used to implement the UML de- B. (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
sign. C. (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
B. XML schema drives the messaging pay- D. (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
loads.
E. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
C. XML is used for Web services which
are required in SOA. 17. A site that is used to search for informa-
D. XML is used to describe interfaces and tion on the World Wide Web. These sites
message bindings. index all the information that is on other
websites and usually display the search re-
12. How many types of web services are sults in a list.
there? A. search engine
A. 1 B. web portal
B. 2 C. informational
C. 3 D. news
D. 4
18. What is an XML instance?
13. What are the two types of search tools? A. XML attribute
A. Seaching Tools and Subject Directory B. XML document
B. Search Engine and Topic Directory C. XML element
C. Search Engine and Subject Directory D. XML namespace
D. Search Engine and Subject Matters
19. Which of the following HTTP Status codes
14. A sites devoted to showing examples of means NOT FOUND, indicating that this
past work. method is not available?
A. Portfolio A. 400
B. Entertainment B. 401
C. Media C. 404
D. Nonprofit D. 409

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1.11 Web Services and API 100

20. Root tag in SOAP 26. The syntax for parameter entity is
A. Envelop A. <! ENTITY $ NAME DEFINITION>
B. Header B. A. <! ENTITY % NAME DEFINITION>
C. body C. < ENTITY % NAME DEFINITION>
D. none D. < ENTITY % NAME DEFINITION>
21. In Instant Messaging, words get short-
27. What does SOAP define?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ened and new slang is invented because
IM users- A. The overall structure of the XML mes-
sage
A. are poor spellers
B. make mistakes as they type B. The conventions representing the re-
mote procedure call in the XML message
C. type very fast
C. A binding to HTTP
D. want to keep their messages secret
D. The type of client to be used
22. http://portalkmkt.matrik.edu.my/register.htmlregister.html
E. The conventions to wrap and send an
refers to
error back to the sender
A. protocol
B. host name 28. Which of the following is a components of
a Web Service architecture?
C. webpage name
A. SOAP
D. path
B. UDDI
23. E-MAIL STANDS FOR
C. WSDL
A. ELECTRICITY MAIL
D. All of above
B. ELECTRONIC MAIL
C. ELECTION MAIL 29. List three (3) examples of Internet Mes-
saging (IM)
D. none of above
A. Telegram
24. What does a pop-up blocker block?
B. Yahoo Messenger
A. Spam
C. Google Talk
B. Virus
D. Instagram
C. Spyware
E. FIleZilla
D. Adware

25. Amazon Elastic Block Storage, or Amazon 30. Which of these programming languages is
EBS is used in used to create web pages?

A. Stateless Web Hosts A. C++

B. Transcoding B. HTML
C. Caching C. C#
D. All of the above D. Java

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1.11 Web Services and API 101

31. A schema describes (i) programming lan- C. XSL

guage grammar (ii) text vocabulary (iii) D. XSLT
document structure (iv) XML document

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

data types 36. Which of the following fault code oc-
A. (i) & (ii) true curs when SOAP infrastructures has de-
tected manually incomplete implementa-
B. (ee), (eee), (ev) benra tions based on different versions of the
C. (ee), (ee), (ev) benra SOAP specification?
D. (ii), (iii), (iv) benar A. Sender
E. (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) benar B. VersionMismatch
C. MustUnderstand
32. What is XML used for in a web service
D. Receiver
A. A web service takes the help of XML to
transfer a message 37. Web Services are
B. A web service takes the help of XML to A. Loosely Coupled
label data, format data
B. Either Loosely or Tightly Coupled
C. A web service relies on XML to de-
C. Neither Loosely nor Tightly Coupled
scribe service availability
D. All of the above
D. none of the above
38. Check off all the benefits of static web-
33. A website is any website that’s devoted
sites. (There’s more than one answer)
to representing a specific business.
A. They take little time to create.
A. business
B. They’re expensive to develop.
B. eCommerce
C. They’re fast to retrieve by servers.
C. entertainment
D. Hosting has a high price.
D. portfolio
E. They’re more secure than dynamic
34. Which of the following is the namespace websites.
associated with SOAP Envelope.
39. Is a technique by which a website or Web
A. http://www.w3.org/2002/06/soap-
application uses data, presentation or func-
envelope
tionality from two or more sources to cre-
B. http://www.w.org/2002/06/soap- ate a new service.
envelope
A. Web Applications
C. http://www.w3c.org/2002/06/soap- B. Web Services
envelope
C. SOA
D. http://www.w3c.org/2001/06/soap-
envelope D. Mashup Website

35. SOAP is a lightweight based protocol 40. A real-time Internet service that notifies
. youwhen one or more people are online
andallows you to exchange messages or
A. XHTML files orjoin a private chat room with those
B. XML people.This description refers to

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1.11 Web Services and API 102

A. WWW 45. Protocol Based web service

B. Email A. SOAP
C. Internet Messaging (IM) B. REST
D. Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP) C. BOTH
E. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) D. NONE

41. Which of the following three kinds of data 46. An Internet standard that permits file up-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
that web services have? loading and downloading with other com-
puters on the Internet.This description
A. shared data, processed data, form refers to
data
A. WWW
B. shared data, pre-session data and
B. Email
temporary data
C. Internet Messaging (IM)
C. shared data, post-session data and
temporary data D. Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP)
D. shared data, pre-session data and per- E. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
manent data
47. Which of the following layer in Web Ser-
42. What UDDI means? vice Protocol Stack is responsible for de-
scribing the public interface to a specific
A. Universal Definition Discovery and In- web service?
tegration
A. Service Transport
B. Universal Definition Display and Inte-
B. XML Messaging
gration
C. Service Description
C. Universal Description Discovery and
Integration D. Service Discovery
D. Universal Discovery Description and E. Service Registry
Integration
48. What is SOAP:
43. helps you find the website or the in- A. Simplified Object Access Protocol
formation you are looking for. B. Specified Simple Object Access Proto-
A. Bloggers col
B. Search engine C. Simple Object Access Protocol
C. News Group D. None of these
D. Web Feed 49. Services break big problems into little
problems.(Choose one principle of SOA de-
44. Messaging Protocol in a webservice sign).
A. HTTP A. Service Discoverability
B. MTP B. Standardized Service Contract
C. SMP C. Service Composability
D. SOAP D. Service Statelessness

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1.11 Web Services and API 103

50. Services minimize dependencies on each 55. The part of a network address which iden-
other. (Choose one principle of SOA de- tifies it as belonging to a particular domain
sign).

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A. WWW
A. Loose Coupling
B. Domain Type
B. Service Abstraction
C. HTTP
C. Service Reusability
D. Domain Name
D. Service Autonomy

51. Web services enables 56. Which component of Web Services does
not acts as a directory?
A. data can be exchanged between vari-
ous applications and different platforms A. UDDI
B. to resolve interoperability issues B. SOAP
C. applications to function between two C. WSDL
different operating systems server
D. XML
D. All the above
57. Which technology is used to transform
52. At which two points in SOA communication XML into HTML?
are registries used?
A. XHTML
A. During discovery
B. XSLT
B. During publication
C. During message validation C. DOM

D. During message transformation D. DTD

53. Service Transport, XML Messaging, Ser- 58. Why SOAP is used as a protocol for access-
vice Description and Service Discovery are ing a web service?
four layers of
A. SOAP platform and language indepen-
A. web service implementing client com- dent, allows to get around firewalls
ponents
B. SOAP is based on HTML
B. web service supporting repository
C. SOAP is designed to communicate
C. web service protocol stack through LAN
D. web service supporting request and re- D. All of the above
sponse components
59. Live communication between two or more
54. Which of these options would you suggest
people at two or more geographically dis-
to store the data along with the flexibility
tant places via audio & video transmission.
to pay only for the used storage or data?
A. Cloud Drive A. E-Mail

B. Cloud Storage B. Online chatting

C. Cloud Computing C. Blogging
D. None of the above D. Video Conferencing

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1.11 Web Services and API 104

60. Check off all the benefits of dynamic web- 64. Check off all the reasons for having a web-
sites. (There’s more than one possible an- site. (There’s more than one answer)
swer) A. You save money in advertisements.
A. It’s quick and easy to make changes. B. You can reach a bigger geographical
B. It looks unprofessional. scope.
C. It’s easy to navigate from one page to C. It is cool for your business.
another. D. It has 24/7 availability.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Users can customize it according to E. You can educate customers.
their interests, needs, etc.
65. What is the correct symtax of for-each in
E. They’re the most common type of web- XSLT?
site in the WWW.
A. <for-each> code </for-each>
61. Which of the following are similarities of B. <xsl:for-each> code <xsl:for-
Email and Internet Messaging (IM). each/>
A. Internet Messaging (IM) is a real time C. <xsl:for-each> code </xsl:for-
messaging while Email is a non-real time each>
messaging.
D. <xsl:foreach> code </xsl:foreach>
B. Integrated in many email service and
socialnetwork such as Yahoo Messenger 66. List three (3) types of Website.
andFacebook Messenger. A. Email
C. Can be used to send attachments, B. Business
such as documents, graphics, or au- C. Portal
dio/video clips.
D. Social Networking
D. Provide free online storage.
E. Internet Messaging (IM)
62. List three (3) internet services.
67. Services can be discovered (usually in a
A. Business service registry).(Choose one principle of
B. Email SOA design).
C. World Wide Web (WWW) A. Service Discoverability
D. Portal B. Standardized Service Contract
E. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) C. Service Reusability
D. Service Statelessness
63. Which statements are not related to the
API? 68. Identify internet services based on the fol-
lowing situation:Rozie wants to send her
A. The API acts as a door that people with
assignment to her lecturer electronically.
the right locks can walk through
A. Internet Messaging
B. The API acts as a filter.
B. Email
C. There is more to private than public
APIs. C. Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP)
D. The API cannot allow you to build one D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
application from another E. World Wide Web (WWW)

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1.11 Web Services and API 105

69. Which of the following is a security issue 74. A site generally used to post online diaries,
with web services? which may include discussion forums.
A. web blog

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Confidentiality
B. Authentication B. personal
C. commercial
C. Network Security
D. entertainment
D. All the Above
75. Enable user to speak to other users via In-
E. Cyber Security ternet connection.This description refers to
70. The basic web services platform is a com-
bination of: A. WWW
B. Email
A. CSS + HTTP
C. Internet Messaging (IM)
B. XML + HTML
D. Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP)
C. CSS + JAVA E. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
D. XML + HTTP 76. SOAP Request is transmitted in
71. Is a network of online content that is for- A. Body
matted in HTML and accessed using HTTP B. Header
over the Internet. C. both
A. WWW D. any
B. Domain Type 77. When compared to the compiled program,
C. HTTP scripts run
A. Faster
D. Domain Name
B. Slower
72. Which of the following HTTP method C. The execution speed is similar
should be idempotent in nature? D. Depend on the script
A. OPTIONS
78. Which of the following is a optional con-
B. DELETE straint of REST?
C. POST A. stateleess

D. HEAD B. cacheable
C. layer system
73. You need to send an email to your friend D. code on demand
but failed. Here are the possible thing that
might happen except, 79. Which of the following is used to perform
remote procedure calls in web services?
A. without TTL domain
A. HTTP-RPC
B. without mail address B. XML-HTTP
C. without fail C. SOAP-XML
D. without subject D. XML-RPC

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1.11 Web Services and API 106

80. Which is not a REST architectural con- D. Service Discovery

straint? E. Service Registry
A. Client server
85. What does status code 403 mean?
B. Stateless (Stateless)
A. The request could not be understood
C. Cacheable by the server due to malformed syntax.
D. Orchestration des services B. The server understood the request,
but is refusing to fulfill it.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
81. A type of communication service that
is suitable for sharing documents or an- C. The server has not found anything
nouncement usually at work place. matching the Request-URI
A. Internet Messaging D. The request requires user authentica-
tion
B. Email
C. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) 86. Main advantage of REST Based web ser-
vice
D. Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP)
A. Security
82. Which of the following description refers B. Light weight
to Webpage?
C. Prortocol
A. An electronic document on theWeb,
which can contain text, graphics, anima- D. Architecture
tion, audio, and video. 87. Which of the following protocols are used
B. A worldwide collection of electronic- by web services as a medium of communi-
documents. cation between client and server?
C. A collection of related Web pagesand A. HTTP
associated items such as documents and- B. FTP
pictures, stored on a Web server.
C. Gopher
D. none of above
D. HTTPS
83. The transmission of messages and files via
88. Identify internet services based on the fol-
computer networkis definition of
lowing situation:Madam Salina wants to
A. electronic mail inform her students that lecture on Mon-
B. world wide web day will be held at Computer Lab
C. electronic news A. Internet Messaging
D. internet messaging B. Email
C. Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP)
84. Which of the following layers in the Web
Service Protocol Stack is responsible for D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
describing the public interface to a particu- E. World Wide Web (WWW)
lar web service?
89. Which of the following role of web ser-
A. Service Transport vice architecture implements the service
B. XML Messaging and makes it available on the Internet?
C. Service Description A. Service Provider

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1.11 Web Services and API 107

B. Service Requestor B. Web Applications & Web Services

C. Service Registry C. Soa & Mashup

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. None of the above D. none of above
90. Which is the correct syntax for XSLT? 95. Are mainly used to communicate the infor-
A. <for-each> code </for-each> mation between two systems ignoring UI
interaction.
B. <xsl:for-each> code <xsl:for-
each/> A. SOA
C. <xsl:for-each> code </xsl:for- B. Web Applications
each> C. Web Services
D. <xsl:foreach> code </xsl:foreach> D. Mashup
91. Which of the following is correct about 96. Below are Version control tools, except?
JAX-RS? .
A. Switchhub
A. JAX-RS makes heavy use of annota-
B. Github
tions available from Java SE 5 to simplify
development of JAVA based web services C. Gitlab
creation and deployment. D. none of above
B. It also provides supports for creating
clients for RESTful web services. 97. Which of the following fault code occurs
when the sender propagated a malformed
C. Both of the above. message?
D. None of the above A. VersionMismatch
92. Services adhere to a service- B. MustUnderstand
description.(Choose one principle of SOA C. Sender
design).
D. Receiver
A. Loose Coupling
B. Standardized Service Contract 98. One of the design goal for XSLT was to
make it possible to transform data from
C. Service Reusability
one format to another on a
D. Service Autonomy
A. Internet
93. Which of the following are operators used B. Server
for searching data online? (Tick all correct
C. Webpages
options)
D. Network
A. OR
E. Client
B. AND
C. NOT 99. How does IP address looks like?
D. NOR A. 216.27.61.137

94. There are two major roles within Service- B. 21.627.61.137

oriented Architecture: C. 2162.76.137
A. Service-Provider & Service Consumer D. 2.16.27.61.137

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1.11 Web Services and API 108

100. is not a part of the Uniform Interface 104. Which of the following language UDDI
constraint of REST? uses?
A. Resource A. Xml
B. HTTP B. wsdl

C. URI C. soap
D. none
D. XML
105. HTTP response “200” means?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
101. Subject name:
A. Forbidden
A. Service-Oriented Architecture B. OK
B. Service-Oriented Web Development C. Internal Error
C. The 9 Principles Of Soa Design D. none of above
D. Introduction to service-oriented web 106. Which of the following attribute is used
development to declare how the contents of a header
block were created?
102. Which of the description below refers to
Email? A. role attribute
B. mustUnderstand attribute
A. A real-time Internet service that noti-
fies youwhen one or more people are on- C. envelope attribute
line andallows you to exchange messages D. encodingStyle attribute
or files orjoin a private chat room with
those people. 107. Tag used to define custom tag in WSDL
A. Interface
B. An internet service that allows
thetransmission of messages and files B. Type
via acomputer network. C. Binding
C. Enable user to speak to other users via D. none
Internet connection.
108. Why has web scraping been used for so
D. Consists of worldwide collection of long?
electronic documents. A. Easy to implement
E. An Internet standard that permits file B. This is a secure way to access data
uploading and downloading with other
C. There is no other solution to access
computers on the Internet.
the data
103. Which of the following role of web ser- D. API is difficult to implement
vice architecture provides a central place
109. Which of these is not the major element
where developers can publish new ser-
of WSDL document which describes the de-
vices or find existing ones?
scribes a web service?
A. Service Provider A. <portType>
B. Service Requester B. <message>
C. Service Registry C. <binding>
D. Service Description D. <attribute>

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1.11 Web Services and API 109

110. Use of <binding> element in WSDL 115. Which of the following component of
A. to communicate protocols used by web Web service describes interfaces to web
services?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

service
B. to bind data among Web Sites. A. UDDI
C. to set protocol for Web Sites. B. WSDL
D. None of these C. SOAP

111. What is the root element of all WSDL doc- D. HTTP

uments?
116. Which of the following is not related to
A. Definition a tool intended to assist the software de-
B. Description velopment process.
C. Root A. Compiler
D. Wsdl-root B. Debugging
112. UDDI uses to describe interfaces to C. Static Analysis
web services
D. Decoder
A. SOAP
B. WSDL 117. Anna wants to create users and groups in
AWS service. Which of the following will
C. UDDI
perform the task?
D. RPC
A. Virtual Private Cloud
113. IS A FACILITY ON THE INTERNET B. Identity and Access Management
TO SEND AND RECEIVE MESSAGES ANY-
WHERE AROUND THE WORLD IN REST C. Security Groups
TIME. D. Compliance
A. E-MAIL
118. Secure web pages that can safely be used
B. ANTIVIRUS
by user like us is
C. SOFTWARE
A. http://
D. none of above
B. https://
114. Which of the following statements is NOT
TRUE? C. www.

A. The API allows two applications to talk D. digi.com

to each other.
119. List three (3) examples of free email.
B. API is defined by interface description
and interface behavior. A. Gmail
C. The API must be accessed via an inter- B. Windows Live Hotmail
net connection C. Outlook
D. The API provides hooks for third-party
D. Yahoo Mail
developers to access data and services to
build applications E. Windows Live Mail

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1.11 Web Services and API 110

120. Google, Yahoo!, Bing and MSN are the C. WSDL

examples of D. REST
A. Search Tools
126. Which of the following description refers
B. Search Topic to Website?
C. Search Engine A. An electronic document on theWeb,
D. Search Address which can contain text, graphics, anima-
tion, audio, and video.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
121. One of the design goals for XSLT is to en-
B. A worldwide collection of electronic-
able the transformation of data from one
documents.
format to another on
C. A collection of related Web pagesand
A. Internet
associated items such as documents and-
B. Server pictures, stored on a Web server.
C. Webpages D. none of above
D. Network
127. A website that uses any combination of
E. Client games, articles, videos and images to edu-
cate their audience.
122. Which of the following is a directory ser-
vice where enterprises register and search A. Personal
for web services? B. Web Portal
A. Supporting protocols of SOAP C. Community Forum
B. UDDI D. Educational
C. WSDL 128. Web Service Features are
D. None of the above A. Course grained
123. Applications that are accessed through B. Loosely coupled
browsers are C. Low Cost Communication
A. Desktop Applications D. Exposing the Existing Function on the
B. Web Applications network
C. Web Services 129. The full form of W.W.W is
D. SOA A. wide web worry
124. What is RPC? B. work wide web
A. Regional Procedure Calls. C. World Wide Web
B. Remote Procedure Calls D. online work web
C. Registered Procedure Counselor 130. Which of the following statements are
D. Regional Protection Control TRUE about Email.
A. Can be used to sendattachments, such
125. Name the web services? as documents, graphics, oraudio/video
A. SOAP clips together with email.
B. UDDI B. It provide free online storage.

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1.11 Web Services and API 111

C. A private chat that allow registered 136. Which method of HTTP is used to update
users tocommunicate in real time. the data?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

D. Users and people they are conversing A. POST
need to be online at thesame time. B. GET
E. It is a non-real time messaging. C. PUT
131. What is the full form of HTTP D. DELETE
A. Hyper Transfer Text Protocol 137. “This type of API combines different data
B. Hyper Together Text Protocol and service APIs. “ This statement refers
to
C. High Transfer Text Protocol
A. Open APIs
D. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
B. Composite APIs
132. XML digital signatures provides C. Partner APIs
A. Authentication D. Internal APIs
B. Authorization 138. A script is a
C. Confidentiality A. Program or sequence of instructions
D. Integrity that is interpreted or carried out by pro-
cessor directly
133. A commonly used convention that trans- B. Program or sequence of instruction
fers data from one computer to another that is interpreted or carried out by an-
over the Internet or through a network. other program
A. e-commerce C. Program or sequence of instruction
B. dot-com crash that is interpreted or carried out by web
server only
C. server
D. All of the above
D. file transfer protocol (FTP)
E. None of above
134. SOAP stands for
139. Which of the following is true about URIs
A. Simple Object Access Protocol in RESTful web services?
B. Simple Object Access Provider A. Each resource in the REST architecture
C. Simple Online Access Protocol is identified by its URI
D. Simple Online Access Provider B. The purpose of a URI is to locate the
resource(s) on the server hosting the web
135. Services should have control over the service
logic they encapsulate.(Choose one princi- C. Both Right
ple of SOA design).
D. Both Wrong
A. Loose Coupling
140. Identify internet services based on the
B. Service Abstraction
following situation:Aiman wants to read
C. Service Reusability the latest news using computer.
D. Service Autonomy A. Internet Messaging

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1.11 Web Services and API 112

B. Email B. Email
C. Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP) C. Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP)
D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
E. World Wide Web (WWW) E. World Wide Web (WWW)
141. Which of the following statements are 146. A site on which users can upload and
TRUE about Internet Messaging (IM). share media.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Can be used to sendattachments, such A. wiki
as documents, graphics, oraudio/video
B. social networking
clips together with email.
C. video media sharing
B. It provide free online storage.
D. entertainment
C. A private chat that allow registered
users tocommunicate in real time. 147. Which of the following is correct about
D. Users and people they are conversing SOAP?
are online at thesame time. A. SOAP is an XML-based protocol for
E. It is a real time messaging. exchanging information between comput-
ers.
142. What is NOT a part of a SOAP Message?
B. SOAP is a communication protocol.
A. SOAP Body
C. SOAP is for communication between
B. SOAP Envelop applications
C. SOAP Headers D. All of the above.
D. SOAP Footer
148. Which of the following is correct about
143. List three (3) examples of VOIP soft- XML Messaging layer in Web Service Pro-
ware. tocol Stack?
A. Viber A. This layer is responsible for encoding
messages in a common XML format so
B. Google Talk
that messages can be understood at ei-
C. Facebook ther end.
D. Skye B. Currently, this layer includes XML-RPC
E. Twitter and SOAP.

144. What does mean the acronym “SOA”? C. both the statements are correct

A. Services-Online Applications D. none of the statements are true

B. Service-Opcional Architecture 149. Which of the following are TRUE about

C. Service-Oriented Architecture Wiki?

D. Web Services A. A collaborative Web site that al-

lows users tocreate, add to, modify, or
145. Identify internet services based on the delete the Web sitecontent via their Web
following situation:Nani sends assignment browser.
to her lecturer using the Internet. B. Contents can only be modified by the
A. Internet Messaging author.

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1.11 Web Services and API 113

C. Wikis usually collect recent edits on 155. What is WSDL?

a Webpage so someone can review them A. Web Services Development Language
foraccuracy.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. Web Services Description Language
D. Contents can be modified by anyone.
C. Web sytems Description Language
150. A similar to an informational site, but
dedicated to dispensing news, political D. Web Services Detailed Language
viewpoints, and commentary.
156. The term internet is an abbreviation of
A. news
B. commercial A. Internal Network
C. educational B. Interface Networking
D. web portal
C. Interconnected Networking
151. A collection of web pages that are usually D. Intern Networking
linked together by hyperlinks and share a
common home page. 157. Identify internet services based on the
A. website following situation:Laila makes survey on
the destination that she wants to visit via
B. browser
web browser.
C. web pages
A. Internet Messaging
D. all of the above
B. Email
152. Consists of worldwide collection of elec-
C. Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP)
tronic documents.This description refers to
D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
A. WWW E. World Wide Web (WWW)
B. Email
158. A Web Services can be created regardless
C. Internet Messaging (IM) of the
D. Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP) A. Systems
E. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) B. Programming Language
153. Which of the following are the benefits C. Services
of web services?
D. Internet
A. Interoperability
B. Standardised Protocol: 159. XSLT is:
C. XML-Based A. Extensible Stylesheet Language Trans-
D. Loosely coupled lators
B. Extended Stylesheet Language Trans-
154. What is REST? formation
A. Representational Service Transfer
C. Extensible Stylesheet Language Trans-
B. Representational State Transfer formation
C. Realy State Transfer D. Extensible Style Language Transforma-
D. Representational Server transfer tion

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1.11 Web Services and API 114

160. A site that contains content that is in- D. Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP)
tended to inform visitors, but not nec- E. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
essarily for commercial purposes, such
as http://www.irs.gov/. Most govern- 165. Which of the following are differences of
ment, educational, and nonprofit institu- Email and Internet Messaging (IM).
tions have an informational site. A. Internet Messaging (IM) is a real time
A. search engine messaging while Email is a non-real time
messaging.
B. commercial

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Integrated in many email service and
C. informational
socialnetwork such as Yahoo Messenger
D. news andFacebook Messenger.
161. This web site offers a variety of internet C. Can be used to send attachments,
services. Most of it offers free services. such as documents, graphics, or au-
dio/video clips.
A. Entertainment
D. Email provide free online storage, but
B. News Internet Messaging (IM) does not provide
C. Portal online storage.
D. none of above 166. Which of the following HTTP Status code
means NOT FOUND, states that method is
162. What is the full form of VPC?
not available?
A. Virtual Potential Cloud A. 400
B. Virtual Private Cloud B. 401
C. Virtual Potential Component C. 404
D. Virtual Private Component D. 409
163. Which is a disadvantages of a client- 167. What does a comprehensive data policy
server network? include?
A. When server isn’t on, clients don’t A. Wiping, disposing, retention, and stor-
power up age
B. Clients can’t connect wirelessly to the B. Disposing, patching, retention, and
server storage
C. Dependent on server-if it goes down, C. Retention, storage, disposing, and vir-
clients stop working tualization
D. Clients are more expensive than D. Storage, virtualization, wiping, and
servers elasticity

164. Allow the transmission of messages and 168. What do you under stand by compose in
files via a computer network.This descrip- E-mail
tion refers to A. reply a mail
A. WWW B. forward a mail
B. Email C. write a mail
C. Internet Messaging (IM) D. return a mail

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1.11 Web Services and API 115

169. A link from a hypertext document to an- 174. Architecture Based web service
other location, activated by clicking on a A. SOAP
highlighted word or image.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. REST
A. Hyper Text
C. BOTH
B. Hyper Image
D. NONE
C. Hyperlink
D. Hyphen 175. what is called as safe method?

170. Which of the following is true about Web A. POST

services? B. GET
A. Web services are open standard (XML, C. PUT
SOAP, HTTP etc.) based Web applica- D. DELETE
tions.
B. Web services interact with other web 176. Definition of Internet Service Provider
applications for the purpose of exchang- A. Bussiness provider
ing data.
B. A bussiness that provide individual to
C. Web Services can convert your exist- Internet for free
ing applications into Web-applications.
C. Business that provides individuals and
D. All of the above. organizations access to the internet for a
171. Yakshi’s children live in USA.She wants fee or for free
to talk to them face to face.Which inter- D. none of above
net service you will suggest her to use for
communication? 177. Web services can be discovered using

A. internet free calls A. UDDII

B. video conferencing B. UDDI
C. flipkart C. UDDDI
D. chatting D. UDII

172. Main advantage of SOAP Based web ser- 178. attribute controls the targeting of
vice header blocks to particular SOAP nodes.
A. Security A. mustUnderstand
B. Light weight B. role
C. Prortocol C. encodingStyle
D. Architecture D. none of the above
173. AXIS framework is provided by which 179. Which of the following protocols is used
company by REST web services as a means of com-
A. IBM munication between client and server?
B. Apache Foundation A. HTTP
C. Redhat B. FTP
D. JBOSS C. SMTP

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1.11 Web Services and API 116

D. HTTPS Which of the following proto- B. GET

cols is used by REST web services as a C. PUT
means of communication between client
and server? SMTP FTP HTTP HTTPS D. DELETE

180. Services hide the logic they encapsulate 185. What is the response code to delete a re-
from the outside world.(Choose one princi- source?
ple of SOA design). A. 205

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Loose Coupling B. 204
B. Service Abstraction C. 206
C. Service Reusability
D. 203
D. Service Autonomy
186. Is the underlying protocol used by the
181. Google Hangouts, Viber and Line are ex- World Wide Web and this protocol defines
amples of how messages are formatted and trans-
A. Internet Messaging (IM) mitted, and what actions Web servers and
browsers should take in response to vari-
B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
ous commands.
C. World Wide Web (WWW)
A. WWW
D. Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP)
B. Domain Type
E. Email
C. HTTP
182. Which of the following is true about D. Domain Name
NoSQL and SQL?
A. NoSQL and SQL support ACID proper- 187. GET method of HTTP is used for
ties. A. Create
B. NoSQL and SQL are relational B. Delete
databases.
C. Read
C. NoSQL and SQL handle transactions.
D. Update
D. NoSQL and SQL implement dynamic
schemas. 188. A site that amuses, pleases, or diverts.
183. Is the text that you type into your inter- A. commercial
net browser when you want to go to a B. entertainment
website
C. advocacy
A. URL
D. news
B. RPM
C. PPM 189. What SOAP stands for?
D. RUL A. State Access Object Protocol
B. State Allied Object Protocol
184. method of HTTP is used to erase the
data. C. Simple Access Object Protocol
A. POST D. Simple Allied Object Protocol

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1.11 Web Services and API 117

190. DNS maps human, readable domain 195. In contrast, the contract-first approach
names into actual encourages you to think of the service con-
tract first in terms of

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. IP addresses.
A. XML
B. domain names.
C. servers. B. XML Schema(.xsd)

D. caches. C. WSDL
D. Only First and Second
191. Which of the following HTTP Status code
means CREATED, when a resource is suc- E. All of the mentioned
cessful created using POST or PUT re-
196. List two (2) examples of FTP
quest?
A. 200 A. FileZila

B. 201 B. Mozilla Firefox

C. 204 C. SmartFTP

D. 304 D. Internet Explorer

E. Safari
192. Yahoo Messenger, Facebook Messenger
are examples of 197. What markup languages are available in
A. Internet Messaging (IM) REST services?

B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) A. HTML & VBSCRIPT

C. World Wide Web (WWW) B. XML & Java

D. Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP) C. HTML & XML

E. Email D. JSON & XML

193. Which of the following HTTP methods are 198. A service provider will publish the web
idempotent operations? service through
A. OPTIONS A. WSDL
B. DELETE B. SOAP
C. POST C. STUB
D. HEAD D. SKELETON

194. The software used to search for infor- 199. Logic is divided into services with the in-
mation or document with the help of key- tent of maximizing reuse.(Choose one prin-
words is ciple of SOA design).
A. Browser A. Loose Coupling
B. Search engine B. Service Abstraction
C. OS C. Service Reusability
D. Application Software D. Service Autonomy

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1.11 Web Services and API 118

200. Here are three types of Ownership Web 205. Identify internet services based on the
API namely? following situation:David transfer file and
A. Public/Open rename his experiment data file from his
personal computer to the main laboratory
B. Free computer.
C. Private A. Internet Messaging
D. Internal
B. Email
E. Partner

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP)
201. Which search engine is ranked as the D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
number one for web search worldwide?
E. World Wide Web (WWW)
A. Yahoo
B. Bing 206. MySpace and Facebook, with Facebook
C. Google are examples of?

D. Ask, com A. Blog

B. Wiki
202. Which of these is not a component of
AWS? C. Online Social Networking
A. EC2 D. Portal
B. S3 E. Business
C. Route53
207. Which of the following is an XML-based
D. Recorders
mechanism for exchanging information be-
203. A site that allows users to add and edit tween applications within a distributed en-
content collectively using a web browser vironment?
with an online text edito r. A. SOAP
A. social networking B. WSDL
B. wiki
C. UDDI
C. financial transaction
D. None of the above.
D. web portal
208. Identify internet services based on the
204. Identify internet services based on the following situation:Elina communicates
following situation:Iffah makes voice call with her friends all around the world using
to her mother in Saudi Arabia using Inter- text.
net.
A. Internet Messaging
A. Internet Messaging
B. Email B. Email

C. Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP) C. Voice Over Internet Protocol (VOIP)
D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
E. World Wide Web (WWW) E. World Wide Web (WWW)

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1.11 Web Services and API 119

209. Which of the following roles for the web 214. What is a snowball?
services architecture provides a central A. Snowball is a data transport solution
place where developers can publish new

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

that used source appliances to transfer
services or discover existing ones? large amounts of data into and out of
A. Service Provider AWS.
B. Service Requester B. Snowball is a coding language used for
cleaning large amounts of data into and
C. Service Registry
out of AWS.
D. Service Description C. Snowball is a process of increasing it-
erations in AWS at a rapid speed
210. A search site that relies on humans to cre-
ate and update its listings. D. Snowball is a pop-up blocker that
blocks Adware
A. Crawler
B. Add-on 215. Choose three (3) examples of Portal.

C. Optimization A. Google

D. Directory B. Hotmail
C. Yahoo!
211. What can you do if you need to send to a
large file size through email? D. Excite
E. Internet Explorer
A. sent separate fail
B. sent fail using flash drive 216. is a real-time internet communication
services that enables users to speak to
C. compress that fail
other users via the Internet connection.
D. scan anti virus A. E-mail
212. Which of the following are the proto- B. Instant Messaging
cols? C. VoIP
A. HTTP D. FTP
B. XML
217. A SCRIPT is
C. SOAP
A. A program or sequence of instructions
D. HTML that is interpreted or executed by the pro-
cessor directly
213. The core components, registry and repos-
itory, business processes, trading partner B. A program or sequence of instructions
agreements are defined in standards that is interpreted or executed by another
of web services program
C. A program or sequence of instructions
A. UDDI
that is interpreted or executed by a web
B. WSDL server only
C. ebXML D. All True
D. SOAP E. All wrong

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1.11 Web Services and API 120

218. components of web services are B. Reflects the interest, opinions andper-
A. WSDL sonalities of the author and sometimes
sitevisitors.
B. HTTP
C. consists time-stamped articles in a di-
C. XML ary or journalformat, listed in reverse
D. UDDI chronologicalorder.

219. What are the web service platform ele- D. Contents can be modified by anyone.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ments?
224. REST is an approach to building web ser-
A. SOAP, UDDI, XML vices that revolves around HTTP Methods
B. HTTP, WSDL and Endpoints. REST stands for?
C. UDDI, XML, SOAP A. REST stands for “REpetition State Ter-
D. SOAP, UDDI, WSDL minal.”
B. REST stands for “REpresentational
220. An API is a service or library that allows State Transfer.”
you to use certain services. What does API
stand for? C. REST stands for “REcursive State
Transaction.”
A. Async Protocol Interfaces
D. none of above
B. Application Partner Integration
C. Application Programming Interfaces 225. is the basis for Web services.
D. none of above A. XML

221. Schema is an based alternative B. CSS

A. XHTML C. PHP
B. XML D. CGI
C. XSL 226. What are XML entities used for?
D. XSLT A. Entities define shortcuts to standard
222. APIs can provide some of the following text or special characters
long-term benefits EXCEPT: B. Entities define shortcuts to standard
A. APIs can integrate systems and run elements
business more efficiently. C. Entities define shortcuts to standard
B. The API only supports HTTP and SOAP attributes
protocols. D. All of the Above
C. The API helps engagement between
customers and vendors. 227. Select the communication channels NOT
use in a web service?
D. The API will provide tools to redesign
the interface to better suit your needs. A. HTTP/POST
B. MIME
223. Which of the following are TRUE about
Blog? C. HTTP/GET
A. An informal Web site D. SOAP

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 1.12 Platform as a Service 121

228. The basic Web Services platform is com- B. Launch the replacement compute ca-
bination of and pacity

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. XML + HTML C. Scalable computing capacity servers

B. XML + HTTP D. Backup your mission critical data

C. CSS + HTTP 230. API documentation should be designed

to:
D. CSS + JAVA
A. Business decision maker
229. In case of a disaster, which of the follow- B. end-user
ing activities will you perform? C. Developer
A. Expand your datacenter D. none of above

1.12 Platform as a Service

1. What is true about utility computing and B. It provides a runtime environment for
cloud computing? applications and includes a set of basic
services such as storage and databases.
A. Utility computing is not related to cloud
computing. C. It provides the entire infrastructure
along with a completed application that is
B. Cloud computing can be delivered as accessible using a web based front end.
utility computing.
D. It is required by the infrastructure as
C. Utility computing runs in a cloud com- a service delivery model so that end user
puting environment. applications can be delivered on the cloud.
D. Utility computing is the only billing 4. What is a benefit of using Software as a
model for cloud computing. Service offerings for a consumer?
2. A cloud provider offers an environment for A. The consumer owns the license of the
building applications that will run from the application.
customer’s environment. Which cloud com- B. An environment for application deploy-
puting delivery model are they using? ment is provided.
A. SaaS C. The application is automatically in-
stalled on the consumer’s device.
B. PaaS
D. The application and the underlying
C. IaaS cloud infrastructure are managed by the
D. none of above cloud service provider.

5. Which cloud infrastructure is composed of

3. Which statement is true about the Plat-
some combination of cloud services fromd-
form as a Service cloud computing delivery
ifferent service providers?
model?
A. public cloud
A. It provides a virtual machine and stor-
age so that computing platforms can be B. private cloud
created. C. hybrid cloud

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 1.13 Software as a Service 122

D. distributed cloud ture of cloud computing allows resource

consolidation?
6. Which type of cloud solution do these secu-
rity focuses relate to specifically? Manage A. Automation
data center identitiesSecure virtual ma- B. Elasticity
chinesPatch default imagesMonitor logs on
all resourcesNetwork isolation C. Provisioning

A. SaaS D. Virtualization

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. PaaS 9. Cloud business models determine the own-
C. IaaS ership of the computing resources offered
withina cloud and the responsibilities of
D. GaaS
the cloud consumer and service provider.
7. What is grid computing? Under whichtype of cloud service does the
client have control over deployed appli-
A. It is distributed computing where au- cations and possiblyconfiguration settings
tonomous computers perform indepen- for the application hosting environment?
dent tasks.
A. IaaS
B. It is interconnected computing where
a computing platform is delivered to con- B. PaaS
sumers. C. SaaS
C. It is parallel and distributed computing D. none of above
where computer infrastructure is offered
as a service. 10. What is one benefit of cloud computing?
D. It is parallel computing where au- A. Computer resources can be quickly
tonomous computers act together to per- provisioned.
form very large tasks.
B. A workload can quickly move to a cloud
8. A company currently experiences 7 to 10 computing environment.
percent utilization of its development and
C. There is no operational cost for a cloud
test computing resources. The company
computing environment.
would like to consolidate to reduce the
number of total resources in their data cen- D. The resources can quickly move from
ter and decrease energy costs. Which fea- one cloud environment to another.

1.13 Software as a Service

1. A Saas is a vice is abstracted away?
A. a server A. Data escrow
B. a network B. User Interaction
C. a type of cloud computing C. Adoption drivers
D. none of above D. None of the mentioned

2. Which of the following aspect of the ser- 3. Iaas stands for

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 1.14 Cloud computing architecture 123

A. Internet As A Service 8. Cloud computing sta per

B. Information And A Service A. fornitura di servizi per l’aviazione, in-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

C. Information As A Service cluso aeromobili, carburante, equipaggi
D. Infrastructure As A Service B. fornitura di servizi, incluso server,
storage, database, networking, software,
4. Open source software used in a SaaS is analitici, etc. su internet
called SaaS.
C. fornitura di servizi di prenotazione on-
A. closed
line per voli low-cost
B. free
D. none of above
C. open
D. all of the mentioned 9. SaaS supports multiple users and provides
a shared data model through model.
5. Salesforce is a
A. single-tenancy
A. Saas
B. Iaas B. multi-tenancy
C. Paas C. multiple-instance
D. None of the three D. all of the mentioned

6. Google Drive is a 10. Which of the following is a SaaS character-

A. Iaas istic?
B. Paas A. The typical license is subscription-
C. Saas based or usage-based and is billed on a
recurring basis
D. None of the three
B. The software is available over the In-
7. Microsoft Azure is a ternet globally through a browser on de-
A. Iaas mand
B. Paas C. The software and the service are mon-
C. Saas itored and maintained by the vendor
D. None of the three D. All of the mentioned

1.14 Cloud computing architecture

1. What is the best explanation about net- store information.
work component?
C. Server is simply a computer /device
A. this infrastructure includes physical that has been programmed to provide a
wiring, switches, load balancers and service to a customer or user.
routers that help ensure cloud infrastruc- D. none of above
ture is always available for customers
when needed. 2. Which of the architecture layer is used as
a front end in cloud computing
B. In private cloud deployments, orga-
nizations may use dedicated servers to A. Client

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1.14 Cloud computing architecture 124

B. Cloud B. IaaS
C. Software C. CaaS
D. Hardware D. SaaS

3. A Party that can conduct independent as- 8. Process the job to single computation unit
sessment of cloud services, information with high resources comes under the cate-
system operations, performance and secu- gory of
rity of the cloud implementation

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. horizontal scale up
A. Cloud Consumer
B. vertical scale up
B. Cloud Auditor
C. green computing
C. Cloud Provider
D. none
D. Cloud Carrier
9. Cloud Services have a relationship
4. Below is a list of cloud infrastructure com- with their customers
ponents except
A. Many-to-many
A. Storage components
B. One-to-many
B. Physical server
C. One-to-one
C. Private cloud
D. Many-to-one
D. Network components
10. Which of these is not a major type of cloud
5. Choose two example of third-party cloud
computing usage?
storage providers that can manage and
maintain data along with remote back- A. Hardware as a Service
ups. B. Platform as a Service
A. amazon simple storage service (s3) C. Software as a Service
B. mozilla firefox D. Infrastructure as a Service
C. microsoft word
11. provides virtual machines, virtual stor-
D. microsoft azure age, virtual infrastructure, and other hard-
6. can evaluate the services provided by a ware assets.
cloud provider in terms of security controls, A. IaaS
privacy impact, performance B. SaaS
A. Cloud auditor
C. PaaS
B. cloud broker
D. CaaS
C. cloud consumer
12. Which is not a characteristic of SaaS.
D. cloud provider
A. Multi device support
7. Which one of the following can be consid-
B. Web access
ered as the most complete cloud computing
service model? C. One-to-many
A. PaaS D. Offline access

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1.14 Cloud computing architecture 125

13. An Entity that manages the use, perfor- C. A logical design methodology
mance and delivery of cloud services and D. All of the above
negotiates relationships between Cloud

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Providers and Cloud Consumers 19. “allow organizations to store and man-
age data on off-site file servers instead
A. Cloud Consumers
of building their own physical data centers
B. Cloud Broker “ this statement refer to..
C. Cloud Provider A. virtualization
D. Cloud Carrier B. Storage components
14. Which of the following is the correct full C. Physical server
form of SaaS? D. Device
A. Storage-as-a-Service 20. Which of the following is the deployment
B. Software-as-a-Service model?
C. Server-as-a-Software A. Public
D. None of the above B. Private

15. Splitting job on multiple discrete machines, C. Hybrid

combine the output. D. All of the mentioned
A. pipe lining 21. Which of the following can be referred
B. vertical scale up to the location and management of the
cloud’s infrastructure?
C. horizontal scale up
A. Service
D. none
B. Application
16. Which of the architecture layer is used as C. Deployment
a back end in cloud computing?
D. None of the mentioned
A. Client
B. Cloud 22. The cloud infrastructure and computing re-
sources are made available to the general
C. Software public over a public network comes under
D. Network the category of
A. private cloud
17. Amazon Web Services is which type of
cloud computing distribution model? B. hybrid cloud
A. Software as a Service C. public cloud
B. Platform as a Service D. none
C. Infrastructure as a Service 23. Service orchestration refers to support
D. none of above cloud provider in terms of
A. activities in arrangement, coordina-
18. Which of the following benefits is provided tion and management of computing re-
by PaaS service provider? sources
A. A large pool of qualified developers B. billing of resources for the amount of
B. More reliable operations time it was used

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 1.15 Cloud security 126

C. billing of resources for the quantity of A. Reliability

time it was used
B. Productivity
D. none
C. Abstraction
24. Which of the following is essential concept
related to Cloud? D. All of the mentioned

1.15 Cloud security

NARAYAN CHANGDER
1. Holds the complete runtime environment C. CASB
including an application, its dependencies, D. Resource policies
libraries, other binaries, and configuration
files, all in one unit 5. Which of the following services can be pro-
A. Security groups tected by the Alibaba Cloud Security Cen-
ter’s anti-brute force password cracking
B. Container security function?
C. Root account security A. Windows remote desktop service
D. Secrets management (RDP) Linux remote control service (SSH)

2. model puts together infrastructures B. Web service (HTTP)

demanded by users-namely servers, stor- C. MySQL database service SQL Server
age, networks, and the data center fabric: database service
A. Platform as a Service (PaaS) D. File transfer service (FTP)
B. Software as a Service (SaaS) 6. Cloud evaluation
C. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) A. Instance awareness
D. DataBase as a Service(DBaas) B. Virtual private cloud (VPC) endpoint
3. a virtual device that provides a private C. Cloud security infrastructure
connection between virtual private clouds D. Cloud auditing
and a cloud provider’s services.
A. High Availablity 7. of resources will lead to resource
underutilization, and consequently, a de-
B. Integration crease in revenue for the provider.
C. Encryption A. Constant provisioning
D. Virtual private cloud (VPC) endpoint B. Under provisioning
4. Which of the following is a security pol- C. Over provisioning
icy enforcement point placed between D. None of the above
cloud service consumers and cloud service
providers to manage enterprise security 8. To ensure your cloud service provider has
policies as cloud-based resources are ac- and maintains a strong security infrastruc-
cessed? ture
A. SWG A. High Availability
B. VPC endpoint B. Integration

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1.15 Cloud security 127

C. Encryption 13. What advantage does Eagle Eye Networks

has compared to other “cloud” VMS sys-
D. Cloud security infrastructure
tems?

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9. Which is the most critical element in under- A. EEN is hosting their own private data
standing your current cloud security pos- centers all over the world
ture? B. Adjustable monthly subscription fees,
A. Cloud service agreement only charging what is used
B. Networking security controls C. Personalized on-boarding process
C. Encryption D. All of the above

D. Application security 14. How do you configure the Eagle Eye

surveillance cameras?
10. Which of the following model type is not A. via the Eagle Eye Networks support
trusted in terms of security? team
A. Public B. via the web/mobile interface
B. Private C. via the software and the web/mobile
C. Hybrid interface
D. via the Eagle Eye Software
D. None of the mentioned
15. What’s the name of our cute moderator
11. What is the main difference between the tonight?
Eagle Eye Bridge and CMVR?
A. Reda Zahra
A. Only the bridge stores video in the
B. Ridho Rome
Cloud, while the CMVR allows local stor-
age C. Redirect
B. The Bridge and CMVR both store video D. Ridha Rowan
in the cloud, while the CMVRs also allow 16. What Are the Components of NIST?
for local storage
A. Confident, Trustworthy, Exist
C. The CMVR stores video in the cloud
B. Identify, Protect, Detect, Respond, Re-
and locally, but only the bridge provides
cover
on-premise buffering for bandwidth man-
agement C. Identity, Protest, Delete, Reshuffle,
Remover
D. The Bridge and CMVR both store video
in the cloud, but only the bridge can detect D. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
any camera issues 17. Resource Provisioning means
12. Cloud service providers protect a cus- A. Selection of software and hardware re-
tomer’s data by changing it to ciphertext. sources
A. High Availablity B. Deployment of software and hardware
resources
B. Integration
C. Run-time management of software
C. Encryption and hardware resources
D. Instance awareness D. All of the above

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1.15 Cloud security 128

18. A Disaster Recovery Strategy on AWS C. Utilize process monitoring feature

should be based on launching resources in (can be found in ECS instance
a separate:
D. Write a script for monitoring by your-
A. Subnet self.
B. AWS Region
23. You have set an alert policy for the disk
C. Security Group usage of an ECS instance by using Alibaba
D. Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon Cloud CloudMonitor Each measurement cy-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
VPC) cle lasts for 5 minutes, during which the
average disk usage is measured If the av-
19. REFERS TO DIGITALLY SPECIFY THE AC- erage disk usage exceeds 80% for five
CESS RIGHTS TO PROTECTED RESOURCES consecutive measurement cycles, an alert
USING ACCESS POLICIES will be reported.After your average disk
A. AUTHORIZATION usage exceeds 80%, how long will it take
to receive an alert with the best case sce-
B. AUTHENTICATION
nario?
C. SECURITY OF DATA
A. 30 minutes
D. AUDITING
B. 0 minutes
20. To secure the root account
C. 40 minutes
A. Security groups
D. 20 minutes
B. Container security
C. Root account security 24. Who Are the Webinar Speakers This
Time?
D. Secrets management
A. Asrar Abu Khair
21. Which security property is enhanced by
B. Rizky Aditya Wijayanto
distributing an application fleet across two
availability zones? C. Abu Bakr
A. Confidentiality D. Answers A & B Correct
B. Integrity
25. Currently your organization has an oper-
C. Availability ational team that takes care of ID man-
D. Non repudiation agement in their on-premise data center.
E. Authenticity They now also need to manage users and
groups created in AWS. Which of the fol-
22. You have bought an ECS instance on Al- lowing AWS tools would they need to use
ibaba Cloud After deploying a Python en- for performing this management function.
vironment on it, which of the following is A. AWS Config
the easiest and quickest way to monitor
whether the Python process is running nor- B. AWS Cloud Trail
mally and report an alert if the process is C. AWS Key Management Service (AWS
accidentally terminated? KMS)
A. Use site monitoring D. AWS Identity and Access Management
B. Log on to the ECS instance console (IAM)

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1.15 Cloud security 129

26. Connects virtual machines and devices C. Wowrun Indonesia

through software. D. Wow Indonesian servers

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A. Virtual networks
32. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A
B. Public and private subnets PHASE OF KEY MANAGEMENT
C. Segmentation A. CREATION
D. Security groups B. VERIFICATION
27. Cloud providers ensure that the in the C. MONITORING
cloud are secure by implementing testing D. DESTRUCTION
and acceptance procedures for outsourced
or packaged application code. 33. Content Moderation Service is an API-
A. Applications available as a service based service Like many API services, it
employs throttling to make sure that the
B. Infrastructure as a service service cannot be overwhelmed by a large
C. Platform as a service number of simultaneous requests.What is
the maximum number of requests per
D. none of above
minute you can make against the Content
28. How Many Forms of Cyberthreat Are Moderation API?
There Today? A. 300
A. 10 B. 100
B. 5 C. 1000
C. 15 D. 600
D. There isn’t any
34. Virtual networking in a cloud environment
29. Which resource provisioning method re- can include all of the following except?
sults in a minimal loss of QoS, if the event A. VPC endpoint
is predicted correctly?
B. Public subnets
A. Demand driven
C. Private subnets
B. Popularity driven
D. Network function virtualization
C. Event driven
35. Which of the following service provider
D. All of the above
provides the least amount of built in se-
30. what is the use of CASB? curity?
A. Data loss prevention A. SaaS
B. Compliance Risk Management B. IaaS
C. Threat Protection C. PaaS
D. All of the options D. All of the mentioned

31. Who’s Hosting Tonight’s Webinar? 36. The method for managing authentication
credentials which can include passwords,
A. Wowrack Indonesia encryption keys, usernames, email ad-
B. Wowkece Indonesia dresses, and private certificates.

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1.15 Cloud security 130

A. Security groups app is interacting with another organiza-

B. Container security tion.
C. Root account security A. High Availability
D. Secrets management B. Integration

37. Import the key materialwrong14. For C. Encryption

which of the following protection scenarios D. Instance awareness
is Alibaba Cloud WAF applicable? (Number

NARAYAN CHANGDER
of correct answers:5) 42. Alibaba Cloud WAF currently supports
A. Data leakage prevention web security protection for HTTP and
HTTPS.Which of the following ports are
B. Defense against website trojans and usually used for HTTP and HTTPS proto-
tampering cols? (Number of correct answers:2)
C. Virtual vulnerability patches
A. 80
D. Protection against malicious CC at-
tacks B. 443

E. Brute force cracking protection C. 22

D. 21
38. Cloud security protects
A. Data 43. Resource policies involve all of the follow-
B. Applications ing except?
C. Infrastructure A. Permissions
D. All of the above B. IAM

39. What is Covered in Cyber Security? C. Cost

A. Network, Systems, Application D. Access
B. Network, Sys Admin, Application
44. Choose the two alternatives which are re-
C. Network, Systems, App Store sponsibility of the Cloud Service Provider
D. Neural, System, Application A. Physical security
40. In which year did Cameramanager merge B. Multiple peering fibre connection
with Eagle Eye Networks?
C. Application-layer encryption
A. 2015
D. Identity and Access Management
B. 2016
E. User data
C. 2017
D. 2013 45. What structure is used to manage users in
cloud environments?
41. The ability to apply cloud security within
an application that has rules specific to an A. Permissions
instance.This tool allows the user to set B. Incident awareness
security rules for an instance of an app in-
C. Dynamic resource allocations
teracting with one organization and a dif-
ferent security rules for an instance of the D. Security groups

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1.15 Cloud security 131

46. High availability is dependent on which of C. Homegroup

the following? D. Ad hoc networke

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A. Secrets management
51. Software that allows applications and
B. Dynamic resource allocation cloud computing systems to communicate
C. Container security with each other.
D. CASB A. Virtual private cloud (VPC) endpoint
B. Cloud security infrastructure
47. Point out the correct statement.
C. Cloud auditing
A. Different types of cloud computing ser-
vice models provide different levels of se- D. Application programming interfaces
curity services (API) inspections and integration
B. Adapting your on-premises systems to 52. The policies and procedures employed to
a cloud model requires that you determine connect the IAM systems of the enterprise
what security mechanisms are required and the cloud to enable communication
and mapping those to controls that exist with the data are referred to as what?
in your chosen cloud service provider A. API inspection and integration
C. Data should be transferred and stored B. Secrets management
in an encrypted format for security pur-
pose C. Dynamic resource allocation
D. All of the mentioned D. Container security The policies and
procedures employed to connect the IAM
48. Who is Owner of the DATA in the cloud? systems of the enterprise and the cloud to
A. Customer availing cloud services enable communication with the data are
referred to as what?
B. Shared responsibility between cloud
service provider and customer 53. Data Risk Control feature has been inte-
C. Internet Service Provider grated into Alibaba Cloud WAF. When this
function is activated, a script must be em-
D. Cloud Service Provider bedded into the page that wishes to be
49. The ScheduleKeyDeletion function lets you protected under the corresponding domain
schedule a time to delete Key Management name to check whether a client is trustwor-
Service (KMS) keys.How far in the future thy.Which type of script is it?
can a key deletion event be scheduled? A. JavaScript
A. 7 days B. C++
B. 30 days C. Vbscript
C. 15 days D. Java
D. 60 days 54. Which of the following is NOT a potential
risk of Cloud Computing?
50. Which of the following would be the BEST
option for a few individuals who to collab- A. security and legal issues
orate remotely? B. lock-in
A. cloud based software C. cross-over risks from other customers
B. Workgoup D. dependance on physical location

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1.15 Cloud security 132

55. CaaS vendors offer guaranteed QOS in SLA 60. What is the maximum number of users for
to their clients .What does QOS stands the Eagle Eye VMS?
for?
A. As many as you need
A. Quality in service
B. 150
B. Quality operating system service
C. Quality of service C. 1500
D. Quality object oriented service D. 280

NARAYAN CHANGDER
56. of resources results in losses by both
61. Alibaba Cloud CloudMonitor is a service
user and provider in that paid demand by
that monitors Alibaba Cloud resources and
the users is not served.
Internet applicationsWhich of the follow-
A. Static provisioning ing functions are currently provided by
B. Dynamic provisioning CloudMonitor?
C. Over provisioning A. Custom firewall
D. Under provisioning
B. Alerting
57. NaaS refers to C. Site monitoring
A. Network as a service
D. Cloud service monitoring
B. Node as a service
E. Custom monitoring
C. Neighbor as a service
D. None of the above 62. Alibaba Cloud Security Center can record
58. Which cloud resource can detect and pre- source IP addresses that remotely access a
vent SQL injection attacks? server, and shield suspicious IP addresses
that frequently connect to the server. Dur-
A. VPC Flow Inspection ing routine O & M.Which of the following
B. Web Application Firewall functions can be used to set the IP address
C. VPC Port Filtering that are commonly used by the system ad-
ministrator’?
D. Load Balancer
E. Cloud Logging A. Security group
B. Valid Login IP list
59. During an organisation’s information sys-
tems audit, the administrator is requested C. Frequent logon location management
to provide a dossier of security and com-
pliance reports as well as online service D. Webshell detection
agreements that exist between the organ-
isation and AWS. Which service can they 63. What is CASB?
utilize to acquire this information?
A. Cloud Security Access Broker
A. AWS Artifact
B. Cloud Access Security Broker
B. AWS Resource Center
C. AWS Service Catalog C. Conditional Access Security Broker
D. AWS Directory Service D. Container Access Security Broker

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1.15 Cloud security 133

64. End user xy has 12 analog cameras at his 68. Choose the two options which are USER
company in Berlin and 23 IP cameras at responsibilities in the cloud
his second location in Rotterdam.Can he

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A. User data
switch to EEN without needing to replace
all his cameras? B. Operating system configuration
A. Yes, because Eagle Eye Networks sup- C. Availability zones
ports various analog & IP cameras D. HVAC (cooling) systems
B. No, he needs to switch to IP-cameras E. Hardware provisioning
C. No, he needs to replace all cameras
69. Secure web gateways operate by inspect-
with Eagle Eye Networks cameras
ing at what point in the communication
D. none of above channel?

65. What is discussed in the Case Study Ses- A. Security group membership
sion? B. Application layer
A. Wordpress CMS C. Instance awareness
B. Java Plugin D. API inspection
C. Canva 70. Who is responsible for SECURITY in the
D. YouTube cloud?
A. Customer availing cloud services
66. Which components make Brivo Onair So-
lution innovative compared to traditional B. Shared responsibility between cloud
physical security solutions? service provider and customer
A. The components of SaaS & digital C. Internet Service Provider
cloud. D. Cloud Service Provider
B. The components of SaaS, digital cloud,
71. In how many countries is Brivo operat-
hosted server and remote access.
ing?
C. The components of SaaS, hosted
A. 35
server and remote access.
B. 12
D. The components of SaaS, digital cloud
and remote access. C. 105
D. 42
67. Which of the following is the responsibil-
ity of AWS according to the Shared Secu- 72. Alibaba Cloud Data Risk Control utilizes
rity Model? Choose 3 answers from the Alibaba Group’s Big Data computing capa-
options given below bilities and industry-leading, risk decision
A. Managing AWS Identity and Access making engine to address fraud threats in
Management (IAM) key service processes (such as account log
on, online activity, payment) and avoid fi-
B. Securing edge locations
nancial lossWhich of the following is NOT
C. Monitoring physical device security an application scenario of Data Risk Con-
D. Implementing service organization trol?
Control (SOC) standards A. Account registration

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1.15 Cloud security 134

B. Application installation cloud-to-on-premises integration and

C. Goods payment cloud-to-cloud integration

D. Transaction rating A. High availability across zones

73. Configuring permissions B. Integration

A. Container security C. Encryption

B. Root account security D. Instance awareness

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Secrets management
78. Which of the following methods can be
D. Permission management used to download the metric data of Al-
ibaba Cloud CloudMonitor?
74. Cloud service providers replicate data in
multiple zones and within zones to provide A. Download the data through Open APIs
high availability. Replication:Helps elimi-
B. You can download the data through
nate downtime (the time your data is un-
both the console and Open APIs
available).Redirects to another availabil-
ity zone, when a zone fails. C. You can only view the reports, but can-
A. High availability across zones not download them.

B. Integration D. Download the data from the console

C. Encryption 79. What was the name of the company
D. Instance awareness founded by Rishi Lodhia and Tijmen Vos?

75. What should I use for multi cloud security A. Cameramanager

posture management? B. Eagle Eye Manager
A. NIST
C. Panasonic
B. CASB
D. Cameramanagement
C. CSPM
D. CWPP 80. Which of the following terms is not related
to storage security in the cloud?
76. In which year was Eagle Eye Networks
founded? A. Permissions

A. 2009 B. High availability

B. 1999 C. Segmentation
C. 2014 D. Encryption
D. 2012
81. Which of the following are critical in cloud
77. The system that connects application security? (Choose all that apply.)
repositories, systems, and IT environ-
A. Firewalls
ments in a way that allows access
and exchange of data over a net- B. Integration and auditing
work by multiple devices and locations.
C. Secrets management
This can include:Cloud-to-on-premises
integrationCloud-to-cloud integrationBoth D. Encryption

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 1.16 Cloud management 135

82. The security pillar of the Well Architected prompted.Which of the followings are the
Framework refers to: possible causes of the error? (Number of
correct answers 3)

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A. Continuous improvement of the archi-
tecture A. Network congestion or jitter occurred
B. Performing as expected B. The IP address of the origin site is ex-
C. Recovering after the unexpected posed and suffered an attackcorrect
D. Meet workload requirements C. The service was configured using the
E. Protection of information and systems IP address method instead of the CI
D. The Anti-DDoS Service IP range was
83. Which are the primary uses for Brivo’s
not released As a result, the origin site is
API’s?
blocked
A. Control devices
B. Manage users and control devices 86. Which of the following services that need
to be negotiated in Service Level Agree-
C. Manage users, subscribe to events ments?
and control devices
A. Logging
D. Manage users, control devices and in-
tercom solutions B. Auditing

84. According to NIST, unilateral provisioning C. Regulatory compliance

of computer resources falls into the follow- D. All of the mentioned
ing cloud attribute:
A. On-demand self service 87. The cloud-native Intrusion Detection Sys-
tem provided by Google Cloud is called
B. Broad network access
A. Snort
C. Resource pooling
D. Rapid elasticity B. Guard Duty

E. Measured services C. Firewall Threat Intelligence

D. Cloud IDS
85. After a customer uses Alibaba Cloud Anti-
DDoS Premium Service, a 502 error is E. Virtual Private Cloud

1.16 Cloud management

1. Which is not a service of Iaas? A. Lead time can be specified in multiple
ways.
A. Compute
B. The item is promised on the requested
B. Storage date irrespective of availability.
C. Network C. Calendars and transit time constraints
are respected.
D. Mail Service
D. No supply availability search is per-
2. Which four options apply to the “Lead formed.
Time” mode? (Choose four.) E. The order promising engine does not

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1.16 Cloud management 136

generate any pegging. E. Cost list

3. Your company wants to default the pre- 6. You are implementing Oracle Cloud Pricing
ferred fulfillment warehouse and sched- for a Fortune 500 hi-tech components dis-
uled ship date as order requested date dur- tributor who operates on wafer thin mar-
ing order import and skip the scheduling gins.Identify a pricing rule associated with
task for a particular order type.What are a pricing strategy that can be used for eval-
the two business rules that must be config- uating the margin.
ured to achieve this requirement? (Choose

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Currency conversion lists
two.)
B. Cost Lists
A. Define a branching condition rule
C. Discount Lists
B. Define a lead time expression rule.
C. Define a line selection criteria rule for D. Price Lists
the scheduling task. E. Shipping charge lists
D. Define a compensation pattern rule
7. Which four order entities are global en-
E. Define a pre-transformation defaulting tities for which only one record for each
rule instance of the entity is stored in the or-
der orchestration and planning data repos-
4. Which step must be performed before en- itory? (Choose four.)
abling a new inventory organization in
SCM cloud for collection from Manage Up- A. Payment terms
stream and Downstream Source System B. Unit of Measure
Task?
C. Currency
A. Add the Organization against the OPS
destination system. D. Warehouse

B. Add the Organization against the OPS E. Freight carriers

source system manually
8. The acts as a bridge between the ap-
C. Refresh the Organization List against plication layer and the resource layer:
the Oracle Planning and Sourcing (OPS)
A. Desktop as a Service (DTaaS)
source system.
B. Backend as a Service (BaaS)
D. Create a new source system for each
organization. C. Testing as a Service (TaaS)

5. Your company is in the business of sell- D. Email as a service ( EaaS)

ing kitchen appliances.Which three entities
9. Select the two principle elements of the
can you include while defining pricing rules
pack functionality in shipping execution.
that control how Oracle Pricing Cloud cal-
(Choose two)
culates the price for each time? (Choose
three.) A. Trip
A. Shipping change lists B. Delivery
B. Discount List C. Trip Stop
C. Pricing Profile D. Delivery line
D. Pricing Strategy E. License plate number

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1.16 Cloud management 137

10. Your company wants to define different B. Manage Consumption Rules

status conditions for fulfillment lines that
C. Manage Supply Execution Documenta-
have different categories assigned to a sin-

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tion Creation Rules
gle orchestration process in Order Man-
agement Cloud.Which two configurations D. Manage Supply Chain Financial Or-
would you perform to meet this require- chestration Transfer Pricing Rules
ment? (Choose two.) E. Manage Supply Order Defaulting and
A. Define a fulfillment line status rule set Enrichment Rules
for each category
14. Identify two valid use cases where a pro-
B. Create a unique step for each category
cess assignment rule is defined to assign
and assign different “next expected task
an orchestration process. (Choose two.)
statuses”
C. Define orchestration process status A. when you require multiple orchestra-
values for each category tion processes for one fulfillment line
D. Assign the status catalog to the or- B. when you require one orchestration
chestration process. process for one fulfillment line

11. Which two attributes can you use to group C. when you require one orchestration
shipment lines into a single shipment? process for sales order lines
(Choose two.) D. when you require one orchestration
A. Carrier process for multiple fulfillment lines
B. FOB 15. Your customer would like automatic e-mail
C. Item notifications to be sent for specific busi-
D. Sales Order ness events. On the Manage Business
Event Trigger Points page, which business
E. Ship-to location event trigger points can be used to enable
12. What are the three future types of sup- e-mail notifications?
ply planned orders that GOP can consider? A. Order header status update and order
(Choose three.) attribute update
A. Transfer Planned Orders B. Order header status update and hold
B. Buy Planned Orders C. Order attribute update and hold
C. Scrap Planned Orders
D. Change order compensation complete
D. Rework Planned Orders and hold
E. Make Planned Order E. Hold and split
13. You want to perform Internal Material
16. Which cloud offers service of moving cloud
Transfer across Business Units and want to
security features into the cloud itself?
capture internal margin as part of revenue
for the selling Business Unit.Which manda- A. Communication as a Service (CaaS)
tory task would you perform for this re-
B. Security as a Service (SECaaS)
quirement?
C. Identity as a Service (IDaaS)
A. Configure Oracle Fusion Global Order
Promising D. Data as a Service (DaaS)

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1.16 Cloud management 138

17. offering provides the tools and develop- B. Create Shipments

ment environment to deploy applications C. Confirm Shipments
on another vendor’s application.
D. Generate Shipments Request
A. IaaS
E. Send Shipments Advice
B. PaaS
21. The order manager in your company likes
C. SaaS to monitor order delivery commitments in
D. None of the above real time for customers.Identify the Order

NARAYAN CHANGDER
Management Oracle Transactional Busi-
18. In which fulfillment process does a specific ness Intelligence (OTBI) dashboard that
sales order demand trigger a supply cre- can be used to get all possible root causes
ation, and a firm link is established be- for orders that are not fulfilled on time.
tween the sales order and the supply?
A. Fulfillment line in Jeopardy
A. Consignment order B. Orders on Backorder
B. Internal Transfer C. Orders on Past Due
C. Configure to order D. Orders in Jeopardy
D. Back-to-back E. Orders on Hold
E. Drop Ship 22. Your customer has requested that sales or-
19. The orchestration process fulfillment task der details are sent to his e-mail address.
is performed by an external system and How will Order Management Cloud format
you need to register the connector to in- the order details in the e-mail?
tegrate the non-Fusion system.Which two A. Order Management will include the or-
steps would you perform to invoke the der details in an attached Word document
external connector service endpoint URL? B. Order Management will include the or-
(Choose two.) der details in an attached PDF (Portable
A. Create a new web service connector to Document Format)
register the endpoint URL C. You cannot send order details through
B. Create a new fulfillment task service an e-mail
to register the endpoint UR D. Order Management will include a link
C. Create a new routing rule for the ful- to a webpage with order details in the
fillment task to call the endpoint URL. body of the e-mail
E. Order Management will include the or-
D. Create a new routing rule for the fulfill-
der details in the body of the e-mail
ment task to call the connector.
23. Your company is importing orders from an
20. Your company is implementing Order Man- e-commerce system where a sales order
agement Cloud to manage the sales orders is created for a laptop. The ship-to-site
but fulfillment happens through third party of the customer determines the type of
logistics (3PL).What process should be ex- power cord to be shipped along with the
ecuted to communicate to the 3PL system laptop.How will you enrich the sales or-
that the sales orders are ready to pick re- der during import to append the item num-
lease and ship? ber corresponding to the particular model
A. Manage Shipments Interface of the power cord?

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1.16 Cloud management 139

A. Create an External Interface Routing 27. Your customer is in the business of sell-
Rule ing laptops.Which three seeded pricing at-
tributes are available when you set up Cus-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. Create a Compensation Pattern Rule
tomer Pricing Profiles for your customer?
C. Create a Pre Transformation Rule (Choose three.)
D. Create a Post Transformation Rule A. Customer rating
E. Create a Product Transformation Rule B. Cost-to-serve
24. You are using the Check Availability C. Customer value
feature to explore alternative ways of D. Days Sales Outstanding
promising a batch of five fulfillment lines in
E. Customer credit limit
simu-lation mode.Which three attributes
can you change to explore other promising 28. Identify three ongoing maintenance tasks
options? (Choose three.) that a user is required to execute from
A. Requested Quantity the Order Management Work Area after
the Order Management Implementation is
B. Requested Ship-from warehouse
completed. (Choose three.)
C. Requested shipping method
A. Manage Fulfillment Line Exception
D. Allow substitute items
B. Manage Order in Errors
E. Requested ship date
C. Manage Order Orchestration Mes-
25. A company manufactures and ships indus- sages
trial water filters from its only factory unit D. Manage Source Systems
in India. Which four types of lead time can
E. Manage Orchestration Statuses
the company use to create promising rules
in lead-time promising mode? (Choose 29. You have deployed the Extensible Flexfield
four.) (EFF) successfully but it is not visible in the
A. Total lead time order capture additional information sec-
tion.Identify the two reasons for this be-
B. Processing lead time
havior. (Choose two.)
C. Cumulative total lead time
A. The EFF definition is not frozen
D. Cumulative manufacturing lead time
B. The EFF segments are not defined cor-
E. User-defined lead time rectly
26. Identify the transformation type in which C. The EFF compilation is not done
a transactional item attribute is used for D. The custom extensible flexfields are
transforming a product. The transforma- not published
tion may be added to the existing product E. The EFF context is not associated with
or replace the product on the sales order the page
for a CTO item.
A. Attribute to Product 30. Which statement is true about the defini-
tion of source systems in Functional Setup
B. Product to Product manager?
C. Context to Product A. All order capture and fulfillment sys-
D. Attribute to Attribute tems are defined as Spoke systems

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1.16 Cloud management 140

B. The Oracle Fusion order capture and D. It collects only changed data to the
fulfillment system is defined as Fusion planning data repository
C. All external order capture systems are E. It collects data only incrementally to
defined as Spoke systems and the Fusion the planning data repository
fulfillment system is defined as Fusion
D. All external order capture systems are 34. You are creating a sales order and would
defined as Spoke systems and external ful- like to see the sales order as a document.
fillment systems are defined as purchased From the actions drop down menu what

NARAYAN CHANGDER
should you select?
31. Which process requires the Process Sup- A. Create Document
ply Chain Orchestration Interface process
to be executed manually so that a supply B. Order documents are not supported
order gets created? C. Create PDF (Portable Document For-
A. Planned Order Releases mat)
B. Drop Shipment D. Edit Additional Information
C. Back-to-Back Procurement E. Manage Attachments
D. Back-to-Back Contract Manufacturing
35. What is the configuration required to auto-
E. Min-Max planning replenishing a pur- matically calculate the Jeopardy Score and
chase request priority when an orchestration process is
32. How does Order Management interact planned or re-planned?
with multiple fulfillment systems to fulfill A. Schedule the process refresh and start
sales order lines? the order promising server
A. It has a web service broker that routes B. Check the change mode parameter to
requests from the Fulfillment Task Layer Advanced on the orchestration process
B. It has a web service broker that C. Schedule the process plan orchestra-
routes requests from the External Inter- tion processes
face Layer
D. Check the Replan Instantly parameter
C. The Fulfillment system routing is de- in the orchestration process
fined in the orchestration
D. The sales order lines are converted to 36. Your company has a cost of change policy
Fulfillment Lines and fed to the Fulfillment that changes a customer when the order is
systems allocated, with no changes allowed after
the goods are staged.Which fulfillment sta-
33. Which two statements describe Net tus will trigger compensation and impose
Change Collection? (Choose two.) charges on the customer when the sales
A. Data for the selected entities is re- order quantity is changed?
placed in the planning data repository. A. Backordered
B. It completely refreshes the planning
B. Ready to Release
data repository
C. Released to Warehouse
C. Data for the selected entities is
deleted from the planning data repository D. Staged

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1.16 Cloud management 141

37. Your customer uses an external order cap- A. Order Entry, Orchestration, Task Layer
ture system and wants to perform certain Services, External Interface Layer
actions without routing them through Or-

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. External Source Systems, Internal Sys-
der Management. Which three services tems, Orchestration, Task Layer Services,
are available for the external system to External Interface Layer
call from Global Order Promising using
public web services? (Choose three.) C. External Source Systems, Order Entry,
Orchestration, Task Layer Services, Exter-
A. Return Order Lines nal Interface Layer
B. Ship Order Lines
D. External Source Systems, Order Entry,
C. Cancel Scheduling Orchestration, External Interface Layer,
D. Schedule Order Lines Task Layer Services
E. Check Availability 41. Identify the Order Management configura-
tion setup that must be performed by a
38. Which process requires the Release Plan-
system administrator in order to define an
ning recommendation process to be exe-
external source system connector
cuted manually so that a supply order gets
created? A. The source system needs to be called
by using the web service from Cloud Order
A. Manual orders using File Based Data
Management
Load
B. Min-Max planning replenishing a trans- B. The source systems link needs to be
fer order registered in Manage Web Service

C. Back-to-Back Orde C. The connector service needs to be reg-

istered by using Manage Web Service
D. Drop Ship Order
D. The source system needs to be regis-
E. Min-Max planning replenishing a pur- tered in Manage Web Service
chase request
42. Which Oracle Transactional Business Intel-
39. How can split fulfillment lines in Order ligence subject area should you use to build
Management be managed independently? an online custom port that shows the num-
A. Split fulfillment lines can be managed ber of orchestration orders for a selected
independently because they are often be- orchestration process status?
ing shipped from different warehouses.
A. Distributed Order Orchestration-Order
B. Split fulfillment lines can be managed Lines Real Time
with an orchestration process instance
B. Distributed Order Orchestration-
that has been created for them.
Fulfillment Lines Real Time
C. Split fulfillment lines cannot be man-
C. Distributed Order Orchestration-
aged independently.
Process Instances Real Time
D. Split fulfillment lines can be managed
D. Distributed Order Orchestration-
independently because they have differ-
Process Instances
ent attributes.

40. Identify the sequence of Oracle Manage- 43. Which cloud is characterized by offering its
ment Cloud components involved while service by way of offline access?
processing a sales order. A. IaaS

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1.16 Cloud management 142

B. PaaS B. by moving the “Compute Tax” step be-

C. SaaS fore the “Create Shipping Charges” step
in the Pricing algorithm
D. CaaS
C. by creating a sub-algorithm and an ex-
44. Which three predefined orchestration pression builder
groups should you use while assigning an
orchestration process to fulfillment lines in D. by using nested action and Groovy
process assignment rules? (Choose three.) scripts

NARAYAN CHANGDER
A. Standard 48. Available to promise rules are
B. Model / Kit
A. Seeded using APICS conventions
C. Order Type
B. User defined in order management
D. Shipment Set module
E. Order Attribute
C. User defined using a matrix of se-
45. A manufacturer who ships perfumes lectable criteria
across countries requires a cost break- D. User defined in the global order
down associated with multiple shipping promising module
methods (air, land, and sea).Which four
charges would you need to use in the ocean E. System assigned base upon the item
freight shipping rules? (Choose four.) type, cumulative lead time and un con-
sumed forecast
A. Insurance
B. Recurring 49. Identify two tasks that are used to set up
C. Handling/Freight statuses in the orchestration process con-
figuration in the Functional Setup Manager.
D. Duty
(Choose two.)
E. GSA
A. Manage Orchestration Status Values
46. Which change mode takes a snapshot at
B. Manage Task Status Condition
the stages mentioned below-When the or-
chestration process starts-When a change C. Manage Status Values
order is received at an orchestration pro- D. Manage Orchestration Status
cess step
A. Incremental 50. Which action must be performed on the or-
B. Simple chestration process user interface to acti-
vate an orchestration process after the or-
C. None der orchestration configurations are com-
D. Advanced pleted?
47. A tax authority requires that you calculate A. Download the generated orchestra-
tax only on the selling price of an item that tion process
you are selling, and not on the shipping B. Validate the orchestration process
charge.How will you achieve this?
C. Release the orchestration process
A. by moving the “Compute Tax” step be-
fore the “Create Net Price Charge Compo- D. Release and deploy the orchestration
nent” step in the Pricing algorithm process

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1.16 Cloud management 143

51. Which two activities can you perform B. Discount rules can be defined at multi-
by using Global Order Promising’s stand- ple levels:the root item, the components,
alone work area? (Choose two.) or the entire configuration

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. You can split quantities against a Sales C. Discount rules can be defined at the
Order Line to perform what-if simulations root level only
and evaluate better ways of promising an D. Tier and attribute-based adjustments
order. are supported only at the root item level
B. You can re-schedule order lines that E. Tier and attribute-based adjustments
are already scheduled are supported at multiple levels:the root
C. You can initiate back-to-back orders to item, the components, or the entire con-
expedite fulfillment of lines with a delayed figuration
schedule ship date 55. You are importing sales order data from a
D. You can simulate the Capable-to- source system. You want to delete the im-
Promise option in place of the Available- ported sales orders from interface tables
to-Promise option for quicker fulfillment to save storage space. How would you do
this?
52. A revision was made to an existing sales
A. Delete the orders from Oracle Content
order in Order Management Cloud. But it
Server.
did not trigger a change order.Identify the
attribute that was modified during the re- B. Run the ESS job “Delete Orders from
vision of the sales order. Interface Tables”.

A. Requested Ship Date C. You must request the system adminis-

trator to delete orders from interface ta-
B. Customer PO bles.
C. Unit Selling Price D. Delete the orders from the Order Man-
D. Ordered UOM agement work area.

E. Ordered Quantity E. Run the ESS job Purge Interface Ta-

bles.
53. Which three attributes in the orchestration
56. Which of the following is an instance of
process definition utilize Oracle business
SaaS?
rules to make runtime decisions for pro-
cess behavior? (Choose three.) A. Desktop as a Service (DTaaS)
A. Cost of Change B. Backend as a Service (BaaS)
C. Testing as a Service (TaaS)
B. Exit Criteria
D. Logistic as a service ( LaaS)
C. Line Selection Criteria
D. Start After conditions 57. Identify the task that the seeded Ware-
house Operator role can perform
E. Evaluation Sequence
A. monitor and release sales orders for
54. Which three statements are true about Dis- picking in the warehouse
count Lists? (Choose three.) B. search for a pick slip and confirm it
A. Users can define discounts for config- C. process and confirm outbound ship-
urable models on Discount Lists ments

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 1.17 Miscellenous 144

D. generate outbound shipping documen- lines.What type of compensation pattern

tation rule would you need to dene for the or-
chestration process fulfillment step?
E. generate pick slips for picking material
for outbound material movement A. Define one rule of type CREATE
B. Define one rule of type UPDATE
58. Your company wants to revise an existing
sales order in Order Management Cloud to C. Define two rules:one of type CANCEL
compensate the downstream legacy fulfill- and another of type CREATE

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ment system that does not allow any up- D. Define one rule of type CANCEL
date to the already interfaced fulfillment CREATE

1.17 Miscellenous
1. What is the Need of Cloud Computing? 5. A disadvantage of cloud computing is
A. Maintenance, Cost, Performance, Se- A. You need an internet connection to ac-
curity cess the data or software
B. Cost, Performance, Storage B. You need an internet connection to ac-
cess your LAN
C. Performance, Cost, Security, Storage
C. You cannot use a device that is con-
D. Performance, Storage, Security nected to the internet
2. Live & Regular migration are the tech- D. You need local storage to manage the
niques of data backups
A. Virtual Machine 6. Where is data from an application tem-
B. Virtual Machine Migration porarily stored?
A. ROM
C. Security Isolation
B. RAM
D. Resource Isolation
C. CPU
3. Google App Engine (often referred to as D. GPU
GAE or simply App Engine) is
7. What is the name of Apple’s cloud ser-
A. Is a Platform as a Service
vice?
B. Is a Software as a Service
A. The Cloud
C. Is a Infrastructure as a Service B. Drive
D. All of the above C. Dropbox
4. The abbrivation for central processing unit D. iCloud
is: 8. Identify an example of Gmail
A. MOG A. PaaS
B. CTP B. IaaS
C. CPU C. All of the listed
D. CPA D. SaaS

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1.17 Miscellenous 145

9. A short-range technology that connects C. Read-after memory

multiple devices, for example mobile D. Read-at memory
phones to speakers over a short distance

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

14. Virtual networks that are logically de-
A. Internet fined for secure communication over public
transmission systems.
B. Bluetooth
A. Point-to-Point Protocol
C. WiFi
B. Serial Line Internet Protocol
D. 4G
C. Virtual Private Networks
10. You have been asked to design a “Open D. none of above
File System” which is derived from
GFS / HDFS architecture with following 15. Identify the advantages of cloud comput-
variances-chunk size of 100 MB, block size ing from the options presented.
of 1 MB. A file of size 1 TB needs to be A. Automatic Software Updates
stored on this file system. How many
chunk servers will be needed, if the file is B. Potential Downtime
replicated thrice on chunk servers capable C. Unlimited Storage
of hosting 200 GB on each? D. Bandwidth Limitations
A. 10 E. Cost Effective
B. 15
16. Which of the following is not a type of
C. 20 cloud?
D. none of the mentioned A. Private
11. The third basic computer function is ? B. Public
This refers to when a computer sends out C. Protected
information.
D. Hybrid
A. Output
17. Select 4 main security risks of cloud com-
B. Input
puting
C. Processing
A. Legal compliance violations
D. Devices
B. Identity/Data theft
12. Which of the following is Cloud Platform C. Poor Hardware implementation
by Amazon?
D. Malware infections and data breaches
A. Azure
E. Weak access control/login measures
B. AWS
18. Independent server clusters share storage
C. Cloudera
through high-speed network storage in-
D. All of the mentioned
A. Shared memory architecture
13. What does ROM stand for B. Shared nothing architecture
A. Read-only memory C. Shared disk architecture
B. Read-as memory D. None of the above

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1.17 Miscellenous 146

19. Which of these is not a component of com- 24. Which of the following belongs to the SaaS
putational thinking? mode of Apple CLOUD?
A. Abstraction A. Elastic Volume Service (EVS)
B. Memory B. Elastic cloud server (ECS)
C. Decomposition C. Object Storage Service (OBS)
D. Pattern Recognition D. Facial recognition
25. enables the migration of the virtual im-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
20. Cloud computing is a product of parallel
age from one physical machine to another.
computing, grid computing, and distributed
computing. Which of the following is true A. visualization
about their relationship? B. virtualization
A. Distributed computing completely re- C. migration
places grid computing. D. virtual transfer
B. Cloud computing is a type of dis-
26. Which one of the following types of risks
tributed computing.
cannot be mitigated solely with cloud-
C. Parallel computing, grid computing, specific security technologies?
and distributed computing all belong to
A. Identity management
cloud computing
B. Virtual sprawl
D. Grid computing completely replaces
parallel computing. C. Denial-of-service attacks
D. Intellectual property protection
21. Google drive is an example of
E. Administrative access control
A. cloud computing
27. Which computing feature is related to util-
B. cloud storage itycomputing?
C. don’t know A. metering
D. none of above B. security
22. What is cloud Computing replacing? C. multi-tenancy

A. Corporate data centers D. virtualization

B. Expensive personal computer hard- 28. A disadvantage of cloud storage is that..

ware A. Your data will always be hacked be-
C. Expensive software upgrades cause your data can be accessed from any
device with an internet connection
D. All of the above
B. Your data is vulnerable to hacking be-
23. serves as a PaaS vendor within Google cause your data can be accessed from any
App Engine system. device with an internet connection
A. Google C. Your data can easily be hacked be-
cause there is no system security pro-
B. Amazon
vided by the host
C. Microsoft D. Your data is vulnerable to hacking be-
D. All of the mentioned cause it is stored locally on your computer

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1.17 Miscellenous 147

29. What is a multi-tenant cloud model? 34. In , the first standard for Wi-Fi devices
A. Only one customer access to comput- was released

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

ing resources in a public cloud A. 1989
B. Customers can share computing re- B. 1999
sources in a public or private cloud
C. 1979
C. Single customer environment
D. 1997
D. A model with multiple servers
35. What is private cloud?
30. Select the best statement describes the
A. A cloud architecture maintained within
relationship between application, server,
an enterprise data center.
and client in a multitenancy environment?
B. A cloud service inaccessible to anyone
A. Single instance of software running on
but the cultural elite
a server and serves one client
C. A standard cloud service offered via
B. Single instance of software running on
the Internet
a server and serves multiple clients.
C. Multiple instances of software running D. none of above
on a server and serves multiple clients. 36. Consider the following statements:Statement
D. Multiple instances of software running 1:When two processes are competing with
on multiple servers and serves one client. each other causing data corruption, it is
called deadlock. Statement 2:When two
31. Which of these is a lightweight, fully man- processes are waiting for each other di-
aged serverless execution environment for rectly or indirectly, it is called race condi-
building and connecting cloud services? tion.
A. Compute Engine A. Only statement 1 is true
B. App Engine B. Only statement 2 is true
C. Google Kubernetes Engine C. Both statements are true
D. Cloud Functions
D. Both statements are false
32. What is the world’s largest computer net-
37. The group of people who use digital de-
work?
vices and embrace the newest technology
A. Facebook is known as?
B. Google A. Digital lower class
C. iCloud B. Digital middle class
D. Internet C. Digital upper class
33. How can a team use cloud computing? D. none of above
A. Can work on the same document at the 38. Cloud storage can be provided as a service
same time by allowing your data to be stored
B. Can post comments and edits A. remotely on the host company’s
C. Can email easily servers
D. Can access from anywhere B. remotely on your local computer

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1.17 Miscellenous 148

C. locally on your network C. relative

D. locally on your remote computer D. none of above

39. SaaS supports multiple users and provides 45. Managed IT services are based on the con-
a shared data model through model. cept of?
A. single-tenancy A. Virtualization

B. multi-tenancy B. SOA
C. Grid Computing

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. multiple-instance
D. Utility Computing
D. all of the mentioned
46. Servicing multiple customers using the
40. Essential componets of cloud auditor same physical resources.
A. security, Privacy impact, performance A. Resource pooling
B. Privacy impact, performance B. Rapid elasticity
C. security, C. Resource elasticity
D. Privacy impact D. Rapid pooling

41. Which one of these is not Cloud Storage 47. This refers to applications and services
that run on a distributed network using vir-
A. OneDrive tual resources
B. IOS A. distributed computer
C. Icloud B. cloud computer
D. DropBox C. soft computer
42. Which of the following is the IaaS service D. parallel computer
provider? 48. In General, “Cloud” computing resources
A. EC2 are usually stored
B. EC1 A. In a data warehouse
C. EC10 B. In a complex network of data servers
D. EC20 C. In a Virtual Library
D. none of above
43. Which of these is not a negative to cloud
computing? 49. is a new process by which the router
and the client exchange information to
A. Uses storage space on your PC
determine the optimal path their signals
B. Can cost money should travel. Instead of broadcasting ev-
C. There is a risk of your information be- erywhere, the router and client focus and
ing hacked concentrate their signals. This makes the
signals stronger.
D. Requires an internet connection
A. Beam Excgange
44. The rest state and motion of body are B. Forging stream
A. non relative C. Beaming
B. not related D. Beamforming

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1.17 Miscellenous 149

50. Which refers to the practice of a pri- B. Web applications

mary cloudprovider offering services C. Business applications
that are distributedthrough another cloud

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

provider? D. All of the mentioned
A. Hybrid cloud 56. These are the benefits of cloud computing
B. Composite cloud in education system except
C. Virtualization A. shareable and traceable data
D. Grid computing B. stable technology for everyday use

51. What is SLA? C. Easy access from anywhere

A. Service Provider Assignment D. Inflexibility in customizing products

B. Software level assessment 57. What is FE (hex) in binary?
C. Service Level Agreement A. 1101 1111
D. None of the above B. 1110 1111
52. All cloud computing applications suffer C. 1111 0101
from to their WAN connectivity. D. 1111 1110
A. propagation
58. What is it called when you connect up mul-
B. Latency tiple computers together to share printers,
C. Noise and resources?
D. none of above A. Server
53. A? is a computer that manages lots of pro- B. Network
cessing requests, delivering data between C. Data Link
machines that are connected in a local net-
D. none of above
work
A. Router 59. How do you create a local OneDrive folder
B. Bus on a Windows 10 PC?

C. Server A. Download and install an app from Play-

store
D. USB
B. Create the folder in File Explorer, then
54. What is a disadvantages of external host- configure it to sync with your OneDrive lo-
ing? cation
A. Costs less than an external host C. Download and install an app from
B. Little technical knowledge required OneDrive.com
C. More prone to viruses and hacking D. A local OneDrive folder is built in
D. Expensive service 60. What are the different types of cloud de-
ployment?
55. Which of the following was one of the top
5 cloud applications in 2010? A. Public, private, and hybrid.
A. Cloud backup B. Local, regional, and international

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1.17 Miscellenous 150

C. Standard, advanced, and professional. B. HDFS is suitable for storing data re-
lated to applications requiring low latency
data access
D. none of above
C. HDFS is suitable for storing data re-
61. What is one benefit of a cloud computin- lated to applications requiring low latency
genvironment? data access
A. It improves server performance D. None of the mentioned

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. It minimizes network traffic to the vir-
66. The addition of a software package on top
tual machines
of a cloud storage volume makes most
C. It automatically transforms physical cloud storage offerings conform to a
servers into virtualmachines as a Service model.
D. It maximizes server utilization by im- A. Software
plementingautomated provisioning
B. Platform
62. OpenStack provides C. Analytics
A. SaaS D. None of the mentioned
B. PaaS
67. Which of the following impose additional
C. IaaS overhead on clients and offer faster trans-
D. All the above fer?
A. Block storage
63. When files are held on two devices, are
updated to make sure they have the same B. File Storage
content C. File Server
A. Uploading D. All of the mentioned
B. Downloading
68. A cloud computing company (for example
C. Synchronising AWS and Microsoft Azure) usually pro-
D. Streaming vides
A. Storage as a service
64. Which of the following is related to service
provided by Cloud? B. Software as a service

A. Sourcing C. Infrastructure and processing as a

service
B. Ownership
D. Storage, software, processing and in-
C. Reliability frastructure as a service
D. AaaS
69. CaaS stands for as service.
65. Which of the following scenario may not A. Compliance
be a good fit for HDFS?
B. Computer
A. HDFS is not suitable for scenarios re-
quiring multiple/simultaneous writes to C. Community
the same file D. Communication

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1.17 Miscellenous 151

70. What is local/internal hosting? C. TYPE-2 Hypervisor

A. You pay a company to host your web- D. INTERPRETER

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

site
76. The term “Cloud Computing” is a
B. Data is saved onto your local computer
metaphor that originated in what?
for people to access externally
A. Graphical depiction of computer archi-
C. More prone to viruses and hacking
tecture
D. Data is saved onto an external com-
B. Meteorological symbolism
puter for people to access externally
C. Worries about an unclear future for
71. Benefits of Virtualization computing architecture
A. Isolation D. The idea that computer user trust in
B. Encapsulation magic
C. Hardware Independence, Portability 77. What are two important benefits of using
D. Hardware Independence, Portability, cloudcomputing? (Choose two.)
Encapsulation, Isolation A. Optimizes IT investments
72. Cloud providers provide cloud services to B. Deployment of single tenant applica-
the cloud users. tion
A. true C. Enhanced Web V2.0 interfaces for user
B. false interactions

C. MAYBE D. Lower total cost of ownership and im-

proved asset utilization
D. CANT SAY
E. Provides better availability than a stan-
73. Level Agreement (SLA) is the contract dard computing environment
for performance negotiated between you
and a service provider. 78. Consider the pseudo-code for MapRe-
duce’s WordCount example (not shown
A. Service
here). Let’s now assume that you want
B. Application to determine the frequency of phrases con-
C. Deployment sisting of 3 words each instead of de-
termining the frequency of single words.
D. All of the mentioned
Which part of the pseudo-code do you need
74. Cloud computing doesn’t require that to adapt?
and software be composable. A. Only map()
A. cloud B. Only reduce()
B. database C. Both map() and reduce()
C. hardware D. The code does not have to be changed
D. all of the mentioned
79. Which of these is an example of Cloud
75. Parallels Desktop is an example of? Computing?
A. TYPE-1 Hypervisor A. USB stick
B. DISPATCHER B. Drop Box

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1.17 Miscellenous 152

C. SD Card 85. cloud computing is also a good option

D. none of above when the cost of infrastructure and man-
agement is
80. What deployment models are not avail-
A. Low
able for Cloud?
A. Hybrid B. High

B. Private C. Moderate
D. none of the mentioned

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Enterprise
D. Public
86. Gmail is a web-based email service pro-
81. You can’t count on a cloud provider main- vided by
taining your in the face of government ac- A. AWS
tions.
B. AZURE
A. scalability
B. reliability C. Google

C. privacy D. LINUX
D. none of the mentioned 87. Key requirement based on fact that server
82. Cloud Deployment Models workload in non-linear in nature
A. Public Cloud A. Auto Scale
B. Private Cloud B. Flexibility
C. Hybrid Cloud, Community Cloud C. Scale-ability
D. Hybrid Cloud, Community Cloud, Public D. none of above
Cloud, Private Cloud
88. Which resources are typically provided by
83. Nimbostratus and cumulonimbus clouds
anInfrastructure as a Service cloud comput-
can signal what type of upcoming
ing deliverymodel?
weather?
A. fair skies A. applications
B. hot, sunny weather B. virtual machines
C. windy weather C. virtual private networks
D. rainy weather D. middleware software stacks
84. Which of the following should be replaced
89. In a Classical Algorithm of Ring Election,
with the question mark in the following fig-
what will be the message complexity for
ure? cloud-computing-questions-answers-
N labelled processes?
virtualization-technologies-q10
A. (N-1) messages
A. Abstraction
B. Virtualization B. (2N-1) messages
C. Mobility Pattern C. (3N-1) messages
D. All of the mentioned D. (4N-1) messages

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1.17 Miscellenous 153

90. What are the four classes of clouds based 95. is a pay-as-you-go model matches re-
on altitude? sources to need on an ongoing basis.
A. Utility

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A. cirrus, nimbus, stratus, cumulus
B. low, middle, high, vertically developed B. Elasticity
C. troposphere, stratosphere, meso- C. Low barrier to entry
sphere, thermosphere D. All of the mentioned
D. classes of clouds are not based on al- 96. The number of maps is usually driven by
titude the total size of
91. Which of the following is not cloud service A. inputs
provider? B. outputs
A. Amazon C. tasks
B. Amazon EC2 D. None of the mentioned
C. Hadoop 97. What are the main components of Hadoop
D. GAE Ecosystem?
E. Azure A. MapReduce, HDFS, YARN
92. Live editing means? B. MLlib, GraphX

A. Making changes to previous versions C. Gelly, Table, CEP

of the document D. None of the mentioned
B. Multiple users can work on the same 98. Which is not a major cloud computing plat-
document at once. form?
C. Adding a sound track to your work A. Google 101
D. Saving an updated version of the docu- B. IBM Deep blue
ment on your local device. C. Microsoft Azure
93. Which of the following are levels of ac- D. Amazon EC2
cess you can set for files that you share
99. Encryption protocol that defines the rules
on Google Drive?
for encryption, authentication, and key
A. Can edit, Can comment, and Can view management for TCP/IP transmissions.
B. Can delete, Can edit, and Can comment A. IPsec
C. Can share, Can edit, and Can view B. SSL VPN
D. Can copy, Can download, and Can com- C. SSH
ment D. SFTP
94. Which of the following is not a layer in the 100. Which of them is not an advantage of
cloud architecture? Cloud?
A. User/Client Layer A. Pay as you use
B. Network Layer B. Immediate availability of resources
C. Software Layer C. Code Review
D. Hardware Resource Layer D. High Availability

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1.17 Miscellenous 154

101. For which businesses would cloud com- 106. The cloud infrastructure is operated
puting be best suited? (Choose two.) for the exclusive use of an organization.
A. Waterfront marketplace that thrives A. Public
during the summer tourist season B. Private
B. Rural medical practice with four em-
C. Community
ployees
D. All of the mentioned
C. Law enforcement agency

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. A new company start-up that manufac- 107. HDFS works in a fashion.
tures watercraft A. master-worker
102. What is the back end of cloud comput- B. master-slave
ing? C. worker/slave
A. The third party company D. all of the mentioned
B. The personal computer user
108. Consider the following state-
C. The internet ments:Statement 1:The Job Tracker is
D. Your personal home server hosted inside the master and it re-
ceives the job execution request from
103. Which is responsible for the operation
the client.Statement 2:Task tracker is the
of a collection of computers that are c
MapReduce component on the slave ma-
connected via high speed local area net-
chine as there are multiple slave machines.
works?
A. Only statement 1 is true
A. Computer Manager
B. Only statement 2 is true
B. Cloud Manager
C. Both statements are true
C. Cluster Manager
D. Both statements are false
D. None of these
104. What is it called when a business uses its 109. where a VM can be moved from one
servers to store files for another organisa- physical machine to another even as it con-
tion? tinues to execute.

A. Guesting A. Load Balancing

B. Hosting B. Migration
C. Serving C. Live Migration
D. Owning D. Server consolidation

105. The functionality of the Availability zone 110. Which of the following is an edge-
storage or content-delivery system that
A. Define where the resources will be
caches data in different physical loca-
stored
tions?
B. Separate the resources in the differ-
A. Amazon Relational Database Service
ent regions
C. Protect your information and duplicate B. Amazon SimpleDB
in other zones C. Amazon Cloudfront
D. none of above D. Amazon Associates Web Services

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111. NIST stands for 116. Usually methods like RAID strategies are
used in cloud computing to maintain in-
A. National Institute of Science and Tech-
tegrity. What RAID stands for?

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nology
B. National Interaction of Science and A. Redundant array of independent disks
Telecom B. Redundant arrangements of indepen-
C. National Institute of Standards and dent disks
Technology C. Removal of array in independent disks
D. National Institute of Science and D. Remove array for integrity dependent
Space
117. Virtualization
112. What type of storage device can a Desk-
top computer use? A. multiple operating systems on a single
physical system
A. USB Drive
B. single physical system
B. Solid State Drive
C. multiple operating systems on a multi-
C. Hard Drive ple physical system
D. All of the above D. Virutual box
113. Which of the following “cloudly” char-
118. Which of the following architectural stan-
acteristics that cloud management service
dards is working with cloud computing in-
must have?
dustry?
A. Billing is on a pay-as-you-go basis
A. Service-oriented architecture
B. The management service is extremely
B. Standardized Web services
scalable
C. Web-application frameworks
C. The management service is ubiquitous
D. All of the mentioned
D. All of the mentioned

114. enables batch processing, which greatly 119. What is Microsoft Azure?
speeds up high-processing applications A. A cloud computing platform offered by
A. Scalability Microsoft.

B. Reliability B. A word processing application.

C. Elasticity C. An online data storage service.

D. Utility D. none of above

115. How is infrastructure as a service pro- 120. What are the security aspects provided
vided? with cloud?
A. Virtualization A. IAM
B. Virtual Realization B. Access Control
C. Cloud Services C. Authorization
D. Hardware service D. ALL OF THESE

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1.17 Miscellenous 156

121. is the process that allows video to 126. Which of the following has many features
be viewed straight away on a website, of that is now known as cloud computing?
without having to wait for the full video A. Web Service
to download. This technology is very im-
portant to platforms such as Netflix and B. Softwares
YouTube. C. All of the mentioned
A. Buffering D. Internet
B. Virtual Download

NARAYAN CHANGDER
127. Ransomware is
C. Streaming A. an attack by a remote computer
D. Upload B. a form of malware

122. How much storage does Google give a C. spam messages

user for free in Google Drive? D. A corrupt piece of code that duplicates
your data
A. 1GB
B. 5GB 128. Which of these describes the parts to
cloud computing?
C. 15GB
A. The front end connects the back end to
D. 50GB the internet
123. Which of the following OpenStack compo- B. The back end connects the front end to
nent is used for networking services? the internet
A. Swift C. The internet connects the front end to
the back end
B. Neutron
D. The front end needs no connection to
C. Cinder the back end
D. Keystone
129. An authentication protocol that can oper-
124. The term refers to a Network or In- ate over PPP but serves only as the frame-
ternet. work and does not perform encryption or
authentication on its own.
A. Cloud Computing
A. PAP
B. Cloud
B. CHAP
C. Computing
C. RADIUS
D. Resource
D. EAP
125. Which one of the following cloud concepts 130. Programmers use cloud-based develop-
is related to sharing and pooling the re- ment tools to develop online applications
sources? that run on many platforms.
A. Polymorphism A. PaaS
B. Virtualization B. IaaS
C. Abstraction C. SaaS
D. None of the mentioned D. AaaS

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1.17 Miscellenous 157

131. Which of them is not a Cloud Service C. Software as a Service

Model?
D. Container as a Service

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A. SaaS
B. IaaS 137. A company interested in cloud computing
C. DaaS is looking for a provider who offers a set
of basic services such as virtual server pro-
D. PaaS visioning and on-demand storage that can
132. A small file containing verified identifica- be combined into a platform for deploy-
tion information about the user and their ing and running customized applications.
public key. What type of cloud computing model fits
these requirements?
A. key pair
A. Platform as a Service
B. digital certificate
C. cipher B. Software as a Service
D. plaintext C. Application as a Service

133. Which of the following is cloud computing D. Infrastructure as a Service

replacing?
138. Which one of the following is not pro-
A. corporate data centers
tected by Data Protection.
B. expensive personal computers
A. A person’s address.
C. expensive software upgrades
D. all of the above B. A person’s date of date birth.
C. A person’s first name.
134. What’s the most popular use case for pub-
lic cloud computing today? D. A person’s dental history.
A. Website hosting
139. Which of the these companies is not a
B. Test and development
leader in cloud computing
C. Disaster recovery
A. Google
D. Business analytics
B. Amazon
135. Which of the following allows you to cre-
ate instances of the MySQL database to C. Raybiz
support your Web sites? D. Microsoft
A. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
B. Amazon Simple Queue Service 140. Identify a cloud service model which can
be used for developing, testing and man-
C. Amazon Relational Database Service
aging applications
D. Amazon Simple Storage System
A. CaaS
136. When we create a Virtual Machine in
B. PaaS
Cloud, it called as which model?
A. Platform as a Service C. IaaS
B. Infrastructure as a Service D. all of the listed

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1.17 Miscellenous 158

141. Which of the following is commonly used 146. A computer that stores and shares infor-
to describe the service interface, how to mation with other computers on a network
bind information, and the nature of the is called a
component’s service or endpoint? A. Personal Computer (PC)
A. WSDL B. Network
B. SCDL C. Data Center
C. XML D. Server

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. None of the mentioned 147. The term “IDaaS” stands for?
142. The networking layer which prepares a A. Interoperability-as-a-Service
message in a form that will be understood B. ID-as-a-Service
by the receiving application. C. Intranet-as-a-service
A. Application D. Identity-as-a-Service
B. Transport 148. “offer services through large-scale Inter-
C. Network net connectivity”this definition belongs to:
D. Data link A. Fast-ethernet
B. Disaster recovery
143. Broad network access
C. Cloud Computing
A. Cloud computing resources are acces-
sible over the network D. None of the above

B. Resource pooling 149. Cloud providers ensure that data files are
stored online.
C. Measured service
A. temporarily
D. Self-service
B. permanently
144. How can confidentiality of information be C. synchronized
achieved? D. duplicated
A. By ensuring enough resources to make
150. data represents more than 50 per-
information available for all users
cent of the data created every day.
B. By preventing unauthorized changes
A. Shadow
C. By regularly backing up the informa- B. Light
tion
C. Dark
D. By restricting access to information
D. All of the mentioned
145. Application frameworks provide a means 151. In Virtualization, which architecture pro-
for creating hosted applications using vides the virtual isolation between the
IDE several tenants?
A. PaaS A. IT architecture
B. SaaS B. Business architecture
C. CaaS C. Multitenant
D. All of the mentioned D. Deployment

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1.17 Miscellenous 159

152. You have been asked to design a 156. What does it mean when a public
“Open File System” which is derived from cloud provider has the availability of five
GFS / HDFS architecture with following nines?

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variances-chunk size of 100 MB, block size A. No downtime
of 1 MB. A file of size 1 TB needs to be
stored on this file system. <br />a) How B. Unavailable for potentially five min-
many chunks will be required to store the utes a day
file? C. Unavailable for potentially five min-
A. 10000 utes a month
B. 11000 D. Unavailable for potentially five min-
utes a year
C. 9000
D. none of the mentioned 157. The program which provide partitioning,
isolation or abstraction is called?
153. Which is a fundamental attribute of cloud
A. virtualization hypervisor
computing?
B. software hypervisor
A. Customers pay for allocated comput-
ing resources whether they make use of C. hardware hypervisor
them or not. D. system hypervisor
B. Customers only get computing re-
sources when the cloud provider has avail- 158. Which of the following is a characteristic
ability. of the SaaS applications?

C. Customers get access to computing re- A. SaaS applications are reliable

sources over the internet, from anywhere. B. Non-reliable
D. Computing resources cannot be scaled C. SaaS applications are not customiz-
up or down. able
154. Select the advantages of using the Cloud D. SaaS applications are customizable
for gaming.
159. provides the flexibility to increase or
A. Hacking decrease the computing requirement as per
B. Free Games need.
C. Larger customer base A. space savings
D. Game developers can reduce their B. cost savings
costs C. Accessibility
E. Customers normally pay less for a D. Scalability
game
160. Applications like Google Docs are useful
155. How many types of services Cloud com- because (choose two)
puting offers?
A. No need to install anything on the com-
A. 2 puter
B. 3 B. You need to install on the device
C. 4 C. Accessible from anywhere (with an In-
D. 5 ternet connection)

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1.17 Miscellenous 160

D. Can work without Internet connection 165. refers to the location and manage-
E. You have to be in the office ment of the cloud’s infrastructure
A. service
161. What advantage is there for an enter-
prise to adopt a virtual private cloud B. deployment
model? C. Application
A. Reduce costs by adopting a flexible D. none of the mentioned
pricing model for the entire operation.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Reduce infrastructure costs since all 166. Which of the following is the machinery
data centers will be managed in a third for interacting with Amazon’s vast prod-
party cloud. uct data and eCommerce catalog function?
C. Manage sensitive data in a compliant A. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud
and secure manner and benefit from flex- B. Amazon Associates Web Services
ible pricing models for select services or
infrastructure. C. Alexa Web Information Service
D. Obtain maximum control over aspects D. All of the mentioned
such as security and performance since
the entire infrastructure will be managed 167. Messages whose ‘send’ is done but ‘re-
within the IT department. ceive’ is undone due to rollback are called

162. Type of Cloud Deployment beneficial of A. In-transit messages

organisation having very sensitive data
B. Lost messages
A. Public
C. Orphan messages
B. Private
C. Hybrid D. Duplicate messages

D. Any of the above 168. Which of the following is NOT a service

that all cloud computing offers?
163. In which category of SaaS does CRM soft-
ware fall? A. elastic service
A. Consumer Services B. support for multiple platforms
B. Communication Services C. unmetered service
C. Infrastructure Services D. on-demand service available to the
D. Business Services user at any time

164. The user can scale, through a control 169. How many types of services are there
panel, the required infrastructure without those are offered by the Cloud Computing
disrupting operations. to the users?
A. On demand self service A. 2
B. Elasticity B. 4
C. Scalablility C. 5
D. Ubiquitous access D. 3

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1.17 Miscellenous 161

170. Virtual Machine Ware (VMware) is an D. The protection of people’s personal in-
example of formation.

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A. Infrastructure Service 175. Which of the following is a benefit of us-
B. Software Service ing a cloud storage option?
C. Platform Service A. It protects your computer from viruses
D. none of above B. You don’t need Internet access to re-
trieve the data
171. Communication between services is done C. It provides a backup of your data, files
widely using protocol. and photos
A. REST D. It is deleted over time
B. SOAP
176. How many bits are needed to represent
C. RESTful 128 values?
D. None of the mentioned A. 6

172. Which of the following is used to define B. 7

the service component that performs the C. 8
service? D. 9
A. WSDL 177. is a paradigm of distributed comput-
B. SCDL ing to provide the customers on-demand,
C. XML utility based computing service.

D. None of the mentioned A. Remote Sensing

B. Remote Invocation
173. You are the IT director for a retail cloth-
C. Cloud Computing
ing outlet. Your competitors are using
Internet-delivered inventory, storage, and D. Private Computing
backup solutions from a specific provider. 178. is a resource management plat-
You conclude it is best that your com- form responsible for managing compute re-
pany use the same services from the same sources in the cluster and using them in or-
provider. What type of cloud will you be der to schedule users and applications.
subscribing to?
A. Hadoop Common
A. Community cloud
B. Hadoop Distributed File System
B. Retail Cloud (HDFS)
C. Private Cloud C. Hadoop YARN
D. Public Cloud D. Hadoop MapReduce

174. What is Data Protection. 179. Which hash sizes are most popular to use
in SHA-2?
A. The protection of all
A. 128
B. The protection of a businesses sales
data. B. 160
C. How the government keeps our infor- C. 256
mation safe. D. 512

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1.17 Miscellenous 162

180. All cloud computing applications suffer 185. The service provider gives the capability
from the inherent that is intrinsic in to the consumer to deploy onto the cloud
their WAN connectivity. in
A. Propagation A. Platform as a Service
B. Latency B. Software as a Service

C. Noise C. Infrastructure as a Service

D. None of these
D. All of the Above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
186. Hospitals in a geographic area would
181. Which of the following is NOT a key char- like access to a shared medical database.
acteristic of Cloud Computing? Which cloud deployment model is most ap-
A. external provider propriate?
B. virtualization A. private cloud
C. scalability B. public cloud

D. utility C. community cloud

D. none of above
182. services are provided by the service
provider on an on-premise or dedicated or 187. which of the following is true about the
hosted cloud infrastructure. resource pooling feature of cloud comput-
ing?
A. IaaS
A. The resource pooling feature of cloud
B. PaaS computing shields the difference between
C. SaaS resources of the same type.

D. UIaaS B. The resource pooling feature of cloud

computing allows CPUs and disks to be
183. Cloud computing is also a good option added to the same resource pool.
when the cost of infrastructure and man- C. The resource pooling feature of cloud
agement is computing is the prerequisite for the ubiq-
A. low uitous network access feature.
D. The resource pool feature of cloud
B. high
computing depends on the virtualization
C. moderate technology
D. none of the mentioned 188. A major advantage of Cloud Computing is
the ability to have a resource known as ‘
184. . provides virtual machines, virtual stor-
‘-which creates a copy of a file stored
age, virtual infrastructure, and other hard-
in a secure location in case the original file
ware assets.
gets lost / corrupted
A. IaaS A. Hard Drive
B. SaaS B. Optical Storage
C. PaaS C. Main Memory
D. All of the mentioned D. File Backup

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1.17 Miscellenous 163

189. The essential characteristics of cloud com- C. UDDI

puting D. All of the mentioned

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A. On-demand self service, Broad Net-
194. “cloud”in cloud computing represents
work service, Resource pooling, Rapid
what?
elasticity, Managed Service
A. Wireless
B. Rapid elasticity, Managed Service
B. Hard drives
C. Managed Service, On-demand self ser-
vic C. People
D. Managed Servic D. Internet

190. Which is not a challenge of a Multi-Tenant 195. What is a resource group?

Data Center: A. A configuration of Azure
A. Agility B. A service of Azure
B. Location independent addressing C. A container of services
C. Performance uniformity D. none of above
D. Scalability 196. Saas stands for?
A. Software as a service
191. which of the following is true about cloud
computing B. System Software and services
A. it is always going to be less expensive C. Software as a system
and more secure than local computing D. System as a service
B. you can access your data from any
197. describes a cloud service that can only
computer in the world as long as you have
be accessed by a limited amount of people.
internet connection
A. Datacenter
C. only a few small companies are invest-
ing in the technology, making it a risky en- B. Private cloud
ture C. Virtualization
D. none of above D. Public cloud

192. .... as a utility is a dream that dates from 198. A secure version to transfer files.
the beginning of the computing industry it- A. IPsec
self.
B. SSL VPN
A. Model C. SSH
B. Computing D. SFTP
C. Software
199. Which command line tool is part of the
D. All of the mentioned Cloud SDK?
193. Which of the following is considered as A. gsutil
Web Service Platform Elements? B. Git
A. WSDL C. SSH
B. SOAP D. Bash

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1.17 Miscellenous 164

200. Although the Hadoop framework is imple- B. Mapper

mented in Java, MapReduce applications C. Task execution
need not be written in:
D. All of the mentioned
A. apple
B. Java interface 206. An authentication protocol that can oper-
ate over PPP and encrypts usernames and
C. c$ passwords for transmission.
D. C
A. PAP

NARAYAN CHANGDER
201. means that when a user makes a B. CHAP
change to a file this change will appear in
C. RADIUS
the versions used by others
D. EAP
A. Synchronization
B. Upload 207. The set of hardware, networking, stor-
age, services, applications, and interfaces
C. Real time processing
owned and operated by a third party
D. none of above for use by other companies or individu-
als is the public cloud. These commercial
202. Which of the following is NOT a Cloud
providers create a highly scalable data cen-
computing challenge?
ter that hides the details of the underlying
A. security and legal risks infrastructure from the consumer
B. defining a contract A. Public Cloud
C. hiring IT-specialists B. Private Cloud
D. lock-in risks C. Genral Clound
203. .... model attempts to categorize a cloud D. none of above
network based on four dimensional fac-
208. is a utility which allows users to cre-
tors.
ate and run jobs with any executables as
A. Cloud Square the mapper and/or the reducer.
B. Cloud Service A. Hadoop Strdata
C. Cloud Cube B. Hadoop Streaming
D. All of the mentioned C. Hadoop Stream
204. Utility computing is based on? D. None of the mentioned
A. Grid Computing Model 209. Which of the following does not reflect
B. Pay-per-Use model the self-service feature of cloud comput-
C. virtual isolation Model ing?

D. SOA Model A. Engineer A purchases an ECS from

Azure CLOUD to meet his/her own re-
205. part of the MapReduce is responsible quirements
for processing one or more chunks of data B. Engineer B changes the operating
and producing the output results. system of the ECS purchased by him-
A. Maptask self/herself from Linux to Windows

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1.17 Miscellenous 165

C. Engineer C increases the number of 215. What are some open source cloud comput-
CPUs of the ECS purchased by him- ing platform databases
self/herself from 2 to 4.

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A. MongoDB
D. Engineer D receives an SMS notifica-
tion from the ECS provider one week be- B. CouchDB
fore the ECS expires. C. LucidDB
210. Which of these is a cloud computing pric- D. all of the mentioned
ing model?
A. Free 216. Cloud computing shifts capital expendi-
B. Pay Per Use tures into expenditures.
C. Subscription A. operating
D. Perpetual License B. service
211. For which of the following operations is C. local
NO communication with the NameNode re-
quired? D. none of the mentioned
A. A client writing a file to HDFS.
217. The ‘Cloud’ refers to resources and on-
B. A client requesting the filename of a line storage that can be accessed on a
given block of data. scale.
C. A client reading a block of data from
A. Local
the cluster.
D. A client reading a file from the cluster. B. Global

212. which of the following is specified param- C. Regional

eter of SLA D. Social Media
A. response times
B. responsibilities of each party 218. Cloud Service consists of
C. warranties A. Platform, Software, Infrastructure
D. All of the mentioned B. Software, Hardware, Infrastructure
213. Wi-Fi uses C. Platform, Hardware, Infrastructure
A. modulated radio signals
D. none of above
B. digital signals
C. satellite signals 219. What is a single-tenant cloud
D. none of above A. Only one customer is hosted on a
server and is granted access
214. PAN stands for
A. Personal Area Network B. Multiple customers hosted on a server
and is granted access
B. Personal Arena Network
C. Priority Area Network C. None of the above
D. Priority Arena Network D. none of above

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1.17 Miscellenous 166

220. Which of the following benefit is related B. BSON

to creates resources that are pooled to-
C. XML
gether in a system that supports multi-
tenant usage? D. All of the mentioned
A. On-demand self-service 226. How many characteristic of cloud?
B. Broad network access
A. 5
C. Resource pooling
B. 4

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. All of the mentioned
C. 3
221. What are the uses of cloud storage?
D. 1
A. Backup
B. File sharing 227. Fill in the blank describes a cloud ser-
vice that can only be accessed by a limited
C. Data synchronization amount of people.
D. Media Distribution A. Data Centre
E. Data Archiving
B. Public Cloud
222. Google docs, Google sheets are examples C. Vertulization
of
D. Private Cloud
A. Cloud storage
B. Cloud computing 228. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE MECHA-
NISMS USED FOR SECURING DATA IN MO-
C. don’t know
TION
D. none of above
A. TLS
223. A cloud requires virtualized storage B. SSL
to support the staging and storage of data.
C. SYMMETRIC ENCRYPTION
A. soft
D. ASYMMETRIC ENCRYPTION
B. compute
C. local 229. refers to the connectedness of big
D. none of the mentioned data.
A. Value
224. Which type of app generally provides the
most complete feature set? B. Veracity
A. Desktop apps C. Velocity
B. Browser apps D. Valence
C. Tablet apps
230. Working as a group is a concept of
D. Smartphone apps
A. Client server computing
225. Which of the following does the most
B. Distributed Computing
commonly used set of protocols uses as the
messaging format? C. Collaborative Computing
A. JSON D. P2P computing

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1.17 Miscellenous 167

231. hides the limitations of Java behind a 236. Which of the following is not a phase of
powerful and concise Clojure API for Cas- cloud lifecycle management?
cading.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. The definition of the service as a tem-
A. Scalding plate for creating instances.
B. HCatalog B. Client interactions with the service
C. Cascalog C. Management of the operation of in-
D. All of the mentioned stances and routine maintenance
D. None of the mentioned
232. An advantage of cloud storage is
A. It is easy to increase the amount of 237. What are the types of Cloud Computing?
storage available
A. Private cloud, public cloud, hybrid
B. It is always free to increase the cloud, community cloud
amount of storage available
B. Private cloud, public cloud, hybrid
C. An internet connection is not needed cloud
to access your data
C. public cloud, private cloud
D. An internet connection is needed to ac-
cess your data D. None of the above

233. Technically, what is the drawback of 238. These cloud services are of the form of
cloud computing in industry or other envi- utility computing i.e. the uses these
ronment? services pay-as-you-go model.
A. The absence of hardware A. Cloud providers
B. The need for high speed internet ac- B. Clients
cess
C. End users
C. The management of data and products
D. Cloud users
D. The wide connection of networks
239. Which of the following describe Cloud
234. . cloud is one where the cloud has been Computing from the user view?
organized to serve a common function or
purpose by many organisation . A. providing scalable infrastructure
A. Public B. ubiquitous access to IT-infrastructure
B. Private C. selling IT on pay-per-use basis
C. Community D. virtualizing IT infrastrcture
D. All of the mentioned
240. Software as a Service is considered to be
235. How can data be secured in a database? included in whichcloud computing layer?

A. Decryption A. Data
B. With a key B. Client
C. Encryption C. Application
D. A padlock D. Infrastructure

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1.17 Miscellenous 168

241. Under which of the following cloud 245. Hive also support custom extensions
hosted service available only to a specific written in
organization A. C#
A. Private B. Java
B. Public C. C
C. Community D. C++
D. All of the above listed 246. What are the benefits of cloud comput-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
ing?
242. A company wants to build a test envi-
ronment to test softwareupdates and new A. Scalability and flexibility.
solutions. The environment should mirror B. Security and privacy.
theproduction environment and be secure C. Total control over computing re-
and inaccessible fromoutside the company sources.
network. The company does not want
toinvest in infrastructure that may be idle D. none of above
for a significant amount oftime. Which 247. Two examples of Software as a service
cloud computing model will satisfy all the- (SaaS)
serequirements?
A. Microsoft Office and 365Google Docs
A. Public Cloud
B. Google Drive and Shutterfly
B. Private Cloud
C. Salesforce.com and iCloud
C. External Cloud D. none of above
D. Virtual Private Cloud
248. which of the following can be considered
243. Which of the following is an example of an advantage of cloud storage
the cloud? A. the user has no control over their data
A. Amazon Web Services (AWS) B. accessible anywhere with an internet
connection
B. Dropbox
C. portability
C. Cisco WebEx
D. many programs can be run at the same
D. All of the above time
244. Consider the following state- 249. . Which of the following is a billing and
ments:Statement 1:Volatility refers to the account management service?
data velocity relative to timescale of event
A. Amazon Elastic MapReduce
being studiedStatement 2:Viscosity refers
to the rate of data loss and stable lifetime B. Amazon Mechanical Turk
of data C. Amazon DevPay
A. Only statement 1 is true D. Multi-Factor Authentication
B. Only statement 2 is true 250. Cloud Computing refers to
C. Both statements are true A. Accessing the Hardware
D. Both statements are false B. Configuring the Hardware

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1.17 Miscellenous 169

C. Manipulating the Hardware 256. which of the following do you believe

D. All of the above would be the number one concern about
cloud computing?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

251. uses your Internet connection to send
A. too expensive
live voice information such as a telephone
call B. security concerns
A. Router C. too many platforms
B. Wi-Fi D. accessibility
C. VoIP
257. A large collection of servers is know as a
D. Ethernet

252. Web Services are A. Network

A. Application IDE
B. Computer System
B. Application Designing Tool
C. Server Farm
C. None of these
D. Database
D. Application Components

253. The is something that you can obtain 258. Graphical information that is stored in a
under contract from your vendor. way that it can be used by devices such as
smartphones and tablets to provide data
A. PoS about your location
B. QoS
A. Geo-data
C. SoS
B. G-data
D. All of the mentioned
C. Glob-data
254. Which option describes the benefit of vir-
D. Global-data
tualized servers?
A. Shared hardware 259. .... model consists of the particular types
B. Individual hardware per virtual server of services that you can access on a cloud
computing platform.
C. Physical servers taking less room
space than virtual servers A. Service
D. Virtual servers taking less disk space B. Deployment
than physical servers
C. Application
255. Which of the following risks is actually in-
D. None of the mentioned
creased by cloud-specific security technolo-
gies?
260. WSDL Stands for
A. Increased/shared attack surface
A. None of these
B. Configuration and vulnerability man-
agement B. Web Services Description Language
C. Identity management C. Web Services Design Language
D. Administrative access control D. Web Services Development Language

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1.17 Miscellenous 170

261. One way third party companies that pro- 265. The wider the bandwidth the
vide cloud services protect your informa- A. larger amount of data that can be
tion from being lost because of server fail- trensfered
ure is to use a method called
B. lesser amount of data that can be
A. Cloud Computing transferred
B. Networking C. No effect on data transfer
C. Redundancy D. none of above

NARAYAN CHANGDER
D. Security Protocols
266. The ability to continue to function at a
262. Your company is running Microsoft Ex- high level of performance as workflow vol-
change Server 2007 and your employees ume increases.
use Microsoft Office 2007. You need to A. Scalability
update your systems, but you want to min- B. Self service
imize your CapEx impact. Which of the fol-
lowing is the best solution? C. Elasticity
A. Purchase Exchange Server 2016 and D. Measured service
Office 2016 267. What does syncing do?
B. Purchase Exchange Server 2010 and A. Moves your old files to a new place in
Office 2010 the cloud
C. Subscribe to Microsoft 365 B. Downloads the latest files from your
D. none of above computer and stores it in a new part of
the cloud
263. Define the role of virtualization in cloud
C. Updates all of the files on the cloud to
computing?
the latest ones and deletes the old files
A. It removes operating system ineffi-
D. Deletes the files from your computer
ciencies
and the cloud
B. It improves the performance of web
applications. 268. What are the components of a cloud com-
puting environment?
C. It optimizes the utilization of comput-
ing resources. A. application, platform, infrastructure

D. It adds extra load to the underlying B. client, application, session, network,

physical infrastructure and has no role in data
cloud computing. C. application, presentation, transport,
network, data
264. Which are disadvantages of external
D. client, application, platform, infras-
hosting?
tructure, server
A. Ideal for local network users-less
bandwidth needed 269. A computer saves information in:
B. Expensive service A. RAM
C. If servers go down it is out of your con- B. LONG TERM MEMORY
trol C. ALL OF THE ABOVE
D. Slow bandwidth connection D. none of above

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1.17 Miscellenous 171

270. A company wants to build a test environ- C. Soft Computing

ment to test software updates and new D. Parallel Computing
solutions. The environment should mirror

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

the production environment and be secure 275. What is a public cloud?
and inaccessible from outside the company A. A cloud formation that can be seen
network. The company does not want to across the globe
invest in infrastructure that may be idle for B. A cloud service that can only be ac-
a significant amount of time. Which cloud cessed from a publicly shared computer
computing model will satisfy all these re-
quirements? C. A multi-tenant cloud environment ac-
cessed over the internet
A. Public Cloud
D. A cloud environment owned, operated
B. Private Cloud and controlled by a public company
C. External Cloud
276. Which is considered the most widely used
D. Virtual Private Cloud cloudcomputing service?
271. refers to the biases, noise and abnor- A. Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)
mality in data, trustworthiness of data. B. Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)
A. Value C. Communication-as-a-Service (CaaS)
B. Veracity D. Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)
C. Velocity 277. A cloud computing service model offer-
D. Volume ing remote access to applications based
on a monthly or annual subscription fee is
272. which of the following does NOT rely on called:
cloud technologies?
A. PaaS
A. google drive
B. IaaS
B. testout desktop pro C. SaaS
C. facebook D. CaaS
D. microsoft paint
278. Which model of cloud computing services
273. Rapid elasticity providesthe servers, storage devices, and
networks for asubscriber?
A. Resources are provisioned and re-
leased on-demand A. IaaS
B. Resources are stretched to capacity B. PaaS
C. Resources are paid for by use C. CaaS
D. Resources are scalable D. IaaS
279. What is pay-as-you-go model?
274. What type of computing technology
refers to services and applications that A. You need to pay everything upfront
typically run on a distributed network B. No need to pay, until you use it
through virtualized resources? C. Use and pay sometime later
A. Distributed Computing D. After use some functions in cloud, you
B. Cloud Computing need to pay immediately

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1.17 Miscellenous 172

280. Which of the following is not the feature 285. SaaS does not necessarily mean that the
of Network management systems? software is?
A. Accounting A. dynamic
B. Security B. static
C. sololithic
C. Performance
D. diolithic
D. None of the mentioned
286. Supplying two or more pieces of informa-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
281. In how many parts we can broadly divide tion to verify identity.
the architecture of the Cloud? A. single sign-on
A. 4 B. two-factor authentication
B. 3 C. security token
C. 2 D. password
D. 5 287. What is an example of an input device?
A. USB Drive
282. what widely used services is built on
cloud computing technology? B. USB Port

A. Twitter C. Motherboard
D. Power button
B. Gmail
288. A period of time when a computer or ser-
C. YouTube
vice is unavailable is called
D. Skype A. Geo-Data
E. All of the above B. Downtime
283. The allows systems and services to C. Synchronising
be accessible within an organization. D. Downloading
A. Public Cloud 289. Which App Engine environment is based
B. Private Cloud on preconfigured container instances?
A. Standard environment
C. Community Cloud
B. Both standard and flexible environ-
D. Hybrid Cloud ments
284. What is true about Virtualization? C. Flexible environment

A. In Virtualization, it is necessary to D. none of above

have well-compiled Multitenant. 290. Although the Hadoop framework is imple-
B. In Virtualization, we analyze the strat- mented in Java, MapReduce applications
egy problems that customer might face need not be written in
A. Java
C. It assign a logical name to a physical
resource and providing a pointer to that B. applet
physical resource when demanded. C. c
D. All of the above D. c#

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1.17 Miscellenous 173

291. A system uses components to assem- 296. .... is a cloud computing service model in
ble services that can be tailored for a spe- which hardware is virtualized in the cloud.
cific purpose using standard parts.

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A. IaaS
A. reliable
B. CaaS
B. scalable
C. PaaS
C. composable
D. None of the mentioned
D. none of the mentioned
297. Which of the following are correct tech-
292. In the Planning Phase, Which of the fol- nologies working behind the cloud comput-
lowing is the correct step for performing ing platforms?
the analysis?
A. Virtualization
A. Cloud Computing Value Proposition
B. SOA
B. Cloud Computing Strategy Planning
C. Grid Computing
C. Both A and B
D. All of the above
D. Business Architecture Development
298. Which feature of cloud computing allows
293. .... has many of the characteristics of the service to change in size to meet the
what is now being called cloud computing. users needs?
A. Internet A. Security
B. Softwares B. redundancy
C. Web Service C. Scalability
D. All of the mentioned D. Dont click this button

294. is the default Partitioner for parti- 299. I have an application to host in cloud
tioning key space. provider. But i don’t want to take any un-
derlying computing burden.
A. HashPar
A. IAAS
B. Partitioner
B. PAAS
C. HashPartitioner
C. SAAS
D. None of the mentioned
D. FAAS
295. With Network as a service (STaaS)
300. Which of these is a managed compute
A. Users can back up data and hard
platform that lets you run stateless con-
drives.
tainers through web requests or Pub/Sub
B. Programmers use cloud-based devel- events?
opment tools to develop online applica-
A. Cloud Run
tions that run on many platforms.
B. App Engine
C. Interconnections link private net-
works. C. Google Kubernetes Engine
D. none of above D. Cloud Functions

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1.17 Miscellenous 174

301. Which of the following is not true about 305. is the most popular high-level Java
cloud-based virtual server management API in Hadoop Ecosystem
platforms? A. Scalding
A. Cloud-based management platforms B. HCatalog
can support multiple cloud-virtual server
vendors. C. Cascalog
D. Cascading
B. Cloud-based management platforms
can support multiple cloud-virtual server 306. Which of these is a managed environment

NARAYAN CHANGDER
operating systems. for deploying containerized apps?
C. Cloud-based management platforms A. Cloud Run
cannot support internally hosted server
B. App Engine
platforms.
C. Google Kubernetes Engine
D. Cloud-based management platforms
can support change management method- D. Cloud Functions
ologies.
307. A service provider reselling a may
302. Chose the most appropriate an- have the option to offer one module to cus-
swer:Cloud technology allows users to tomize the information
and from anywhere in the world. A. CaaS
A. Download music (and) movies B. AaaS
B. Collaborate (and) share files C. PaaS
C. Hack (and) plant viruses D. SaaS
D. Commit cyber crimes (and) break laws 308. Long form of SOAP is

303. Which cloud is deployed when there is a A. Secure Object Access Protocol
budget constraint but business autonomy B. Simplified Object Arbitary Protocol
is most essential? C. Simple Object Access Protocol
A. Private cloud D. None of these
B. Public cloud
309. Which of the following describes
C. Hybrid cloud a message-passing taxonomy for a
D. Community cloud component-based architecture that pro-
vides services to clients upon demand?
304. Point out the correct statement in context A. SOA
of YARN:
B. EBS
A. YARN extends the power of Hadoop
C. GEC
to incumbent and new technologies found
within the data center D. All of the mentioned
B. YARN is highly scalable 310. Who provide GUI (Graphical User Inter-
C. YARN enhances a Hadoop compute face) to interact with the cloud?
cluster in many ways A. Client
D. All of the mentioned B. Application

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1.17 Miscellenous 175

C. Client Infrastructure 316. has many of the characteristics of

D. Server what is now being called cloud computing.

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. Internet
311. Cloud Computing depend on?
B. Softwares
A. Mother Board
C. Web Service
B. Application Software
D. All of the mentioned
C. Specific Hardware
D. Internet and Web Services 317. Which of the following can be identified
as cloud?
312. A network comprised of physical objects A. Web Applications
capable of gathering and sharing electronic
information. B. Intranet

A. Internet of Things ( IoT) C. Hadoop

B. Cloud computing D. All of the mentioned

C. Data science 318. What is the term for delivering an appli-

D. none of above cation over the internet called?
A. PaaS
313. Which type of cloud service provides an
environment for buying, building, testing, B. Faas
deploying, and running software applica- C. SaaS
tions? D. laaS
A. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
319. Which one of the following statements is
B. Platform as a Service (PaaS) true about the SSO?
C. Software as a Service (SaaS) A. It has multiple authentication servers
D. none of above B. It manages single accesses to other
314. What happens to data when you stream systems
a movie? C. In SSO, User sends the ticket to in-
A. It gets deleted as you watch it tranet server.

B. It is saved on your computer D. All of the above

C. It is saved on the cloud 320. A company has decided to leverage the

D. It gets deleted after you watch the web conferencingservices provided by a
whole movie cloud provider and to pay for thoseser-
vices as they are used. The cloud provider
315. feature allows you to optimize your manages theinfrastructure and any appli-
system and capture all possible transac- cation upgrades. This is anexample of
tions. what type of cloud delivery model?
A. scalability A. Platform as a Service
B. reliability B. Software as a Service
C. elasticity C. Application as a Service
D. None of the mentioned D. Infrastructure as a Service

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1.17 Miscellenous 176

321. .... computing refers to applications and 326. A cloud computing service where enter-
services that run on a distributed network prises rent or lease servers for computing
using virtualized resources and storage in the cloud
A. Distributed A. PaaS
B. Cloud B. SaaS
C. Soft C. IaaS
D. Parallel D. FaaS

NARAYAN CHANGDER
322. From the standpoint of a it makes
327. You want to leverage the cloud to host
no sense to offer non-standard machine in-
virtual machines (VMs). Which type of
stances to customers
cloud service is this?
A. CaaS
A. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
B. AaaS
B. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
C. PaaS
C. Software as a Service (SaaS)
D. IaaS
D. none of above
323. In order to participate in cloud-computing,
you can use the following OS 328. Which billing model is based on the pack-
A. Windows aging of computingresources (i.e. compu-
tation andstorage)and the amount ofthose
B. Linux resources used?
C. MAC
A. metered
D. All of the above
B. recurring
324. SWIGGY.IN formed a cloud for its all C. Subscription
branches but due to its limited resources it
obtained theservices of AWS for extended D. per user based
provisioning and thus modified its cloud ;
329. Web services use to code and to de-
The cloud so formed is the example of
code data
A. Private cloud
A. UDDI
B. Public cloud
B. XML
C. Hybrid cloud
C. SOAP
D. community cloud
D. None of the mentioned
325. Which of the following regulations apply
to cloud computing? (Select four) 330. Which of the following is considered an
A. Cloud Compliance Act essential element in cloud computing by
CSA?
B. Health Insurance Portability and Ac-
countability Act (HIPPA) A. Multi-tenancy
C. Sarbanes-Oxley Act B. Identity and access management
D. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) C. Virtualization
E. General Data Protection Regulation D. All of the mentioned

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1.17 Miscellenous 177

331. A key mechanism for protecting data? 337. Which of the following is a means for ac-
A. Access control cessing human researchers or consultants
to help solve problems on a contractual or

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

B. Auditing temporary basis?
C. Authentication A. Amazon Elastic MapReduce
D. All of them
B. Amazon Mechanical Turk
332. Characteristics of the Azure services C. Amazon DevPay
A. Durability, compatibility, accessible D. Multi-Factor Authentication
B. Flexibility, security, portability
338. NameNode is used when the Primary
C. Scalability, managed, security NameNode goes down
D. none of above A. Rack
333. Most of the cloud architectures are built B. Data
on this type of architecture.
C. Secondary
A. skeleton
D. None of the mentioned
B. grid
C. linear 339. The Cloud may be overloaded to serve a
number of requests, and hence exhausted,
D. template which can cause
334. Consumer doesn’t manage individual ap- A. Zombies
plication capabilities in
B. DOS
A. Sssa
C. DDOS
B. Pas
D. Backdoor channel attack
C. IasS
E. Both 2 & 3
D. None of them
340. how many types of dimensions exists in
335. Cloud Computing applications are typi- cloud cube model
cally accessed through
A. 3
A. Hardware on your computer.
B. 2
B. A proxy server.
C. 5
C. A web browser.
D. An offline application. D. 4

336. method is completely OS and appli- 341. Which of the following google product
cation agnostic method access to OS sends you periodic email alerts based on
stats and application logs your search term?
A. Black-box, Gray-Box A. Alerts
B. Gray-Box, Black-box B. Blogger
C. Black-box, White-Box C. Calendar
D. Gray-box, White-Box D. All of the mentioned

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1.17 Miscellenous 178

342. Which of the following is NOT a sug- C. It allows people to sniff out packets
gested tip for making/keeping passwords D. Any data being sent is exposed in plain-
secure? text, including passwords
A. Do not use any word that might appear
in a dictionary. 347. With cloud computing, companies can
scale up or scale down the need of com-
B. Make the password longer than 8 char- puting resources.This is which feature of
acters. cloud computing?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Write down your password and store A. Pay per use
it in a secure physical location.
B. One demand self service
D. Do not reuse passwords after they
C. Elasticity
have expired.
D. Resource Pooling
343. PKI stands for
348. Which of the following is the most impor-
A. Private Key Infrastructure
tant area of concern in cloud computing?
B. Public Key Infrastructure
A. Security
C. Private Key Information
B. Storage
D. Public Key Information C. Scalability
344. Choose among the following which al- D. All of the mentioned
lows the different OS to run in their mem-
ory space. 349. The most important area of concern in
cloud computing?
A. VMS
A. Storage
B. VMC
B. Scalability
C. VMM
C. Security
D. none of above
D. All of them
345. Cloud computing architecture is a combi-
350. This is a software distribution model in
nation of?
which applications are hosted by a vendor
A. a) service-oriented architecture and or service provider and made available to
grid computing customers over a network, typically the In-
B. b) service-oriented architecture and ternet.
event-driven architecture. A. Software as a Service (SaaS).
C. c) virtualization and event-driven archi- B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
tecture.
C. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
D. utility computing and event-driven ar-
D. none of above
chitecture.
351. Interoperability is enabled by
346. What is the main security issue with us-
ing HTTP (un-encrypted internet connec- A. Cloud operating system
tions) B. Middleware
A. The data sent will be slower C. a community cloud
B. Sometimes websites don’t allow it D. A composite cloud

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1.17 Miscellenous 179

352. is the slave/worker node and holds 357. What is the fully automated, elastic third-
the user data in the form of Data Blocks. wave cloud that consists of a combination
of automated services and scalable data?

PRACTICE BOOK» NOT FOR SALE

A. NameNode
B. DataNode A. Container-based architecture

C. Data block B. On-premises

D. Replication C. Colocation
D. Virtualized data center
353. Consumer doesn’t require to manage in-
dividual application capabilities in 358. What is external hosting?
A. SaaS A. Data is saved onto your local computer
B. PaaS for people to access externally

C. IaaS B. You pay a company to host your web-

site on a local computer to you
D. None
C. Data is saved onto an external com-
354. Exchange Online hybrid is an example of puter for people to access externally
what kind of cloud deployment model? D. More prone to viruses and hacking
A. Service cloud
359. Resources such as software, infrastruc-
B. Hybrid cloud ture or platforms can be deployed quickly
C. Private cloud A. Rapid deployment
D. Public cloud B. Fast deployment
355. Components of the Azure hierarchy C. Self service deployment
A. Policies, subscriptions, resource D. Quick deployment
groups, resources
360. function processes a key/value
B. Management groups, subscriptions, pair to generate a set of intermediate
resource groups, resources key/value pairs.
C. Subscription, policies, resource A. Map
groups, resources
B. Reduce
D. none of above
C. Both Map and Reduce
356. Which of the following refers to a cloud D. None of the mentioned
computing delivery model in which clients,
instead of buying hardware and software, 361. Which cloud computing feature allows for
rent computing resources from suppliers serverconsolidation resulting in increased
who own and maintain all the necessary asset utilizationand decreased data center
equipment and software? energy needs?
A. Ias A. Automation
B. SaaS B. Governance
C. PaaS C. Provisioning
D. IaaS D. Virtualization

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362. IaaS offer non-standard machine to cus- 368. A company is considering a cloud environ-
tomers ment to improve theoperating efficiency
A. true for their data and applications. The com-
pany ispart of an industry where strict se-
B. false curity and data privacy issues areof the
C. it depends upon use highest importance. Which type of cloud
D. none of the mentioned would be a goodchoice?
A. hybrid cloud
363. What is a possible disadvantage of cloud

NARAYAN CHANGDER
computing? B. public cloud
A. It is vulnerable to hacking C. private cloud
B. The storage can be easily expanded D. governed cloud
C. Portability 369. Choose the correct statement
D. All of the above A. With a pay-as-you-go, endlessly ex-
pandable, and universally available sys-
364. Why cloud computing more essential? tem, cloud computing realise the long-
A. Keep the files as organised in cloud held goal of utility computing
B. Extend your network on cloud B. use of the Internet enables the huge
C. Reduce the company expenditure size of cloud computing systems
D. Secure your application local storage C. identity must be authenticated
D. All of them
365. Putting copies of the same data on multi-
ple servers is a process called 370. Which of the following refers to the client
A. Cloning part of cloud computing system?
B. Redundancy A. Front end
C. Data Processing B. Back end
D. Cloud Computing C. Infrastructure
D. Management
366. cloud is one where the cloud has been
organized to serve a common function or 371. Encryption provides which of the follow-
purpose. ing assurances?
A. Public A. confidentiality
B. Private B. integrity
C. Community C. availability
D. All of the mentioned D. accessibility
367. How many service models in cloud com- 372. Putting copies of data on multiple servers
puting? is a process called
A. 3 A. Cloning
B. 2 B. Redundancy
C. 4 C. Data Processing
D. 5 D. Cloud Computing

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1.17 Miscellenous 181

373. We can access our applications and data needed without having to contact a human
anywhere in the world, on any system. representative of the cloud provider?
This is which advantage of cloud comput-

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A. Rapid elasticity
ing?
B. On-demand self service
A. Speed & Scales
C. Broad network access
B. Flexibility
D. Resource pooling
C. Device Diversity
379. Which of these files can be created in
D. Easier Management
Google Drive?
374. .... serves as a PaaS vendor within A. Google Docs
Google App Engine system. B. Google Forms
A. Google C. Google Sites
B. Amazon D. All of these
C. Microsoft
380. EC2 stands for?
D. All of the mentioned
A. Elastic Compute Cloud
375. USB stands for B. Elastic Configuration Cloud
A. Universal Serial Bus C. Elastic Cloud Configuration
B. Unified Serial Bus D. Elastic Cloud Compute
C. Universal Signal Bus 381. What branch of Information Technology
D. Unified Signal Bus protects computer systems?
A. Cybersecurity
376. Who sorts the security and backups when
storing your files in the cloud? B. Hacking
A. You C. Database Management
B. The hosting company D. none of above
C. Someone else 382. model attempts to categorize a cloud
D. none of above network based on four dimensional factors
A. cloud service
377. The option allows you to copy jars
locally to the current working directory of B. Cloud Cube
tasks and automatically unjar the files. C. Cloud Square
A. archives D. Cloud Cloud
B. files 383. The vendor provides every level of sup-
C. task port in this type of cloud computing.
D. None of the mentioned A. IaaS
B. PaaS
378. Which cloud characteristic refers to the
ability of a subscriber to increase or C. SaaS
decrease its computing requirements as D. XaaS

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1.17 Miscellenous 182

384. The executes the Mapper/ Reducer 389. Which of the following is owned by an
task as a child process in a separate jvm. organization selling cloud services?
A. JobTracker A. Public
B. TaskTracker B. Private
C. TaskScheduler C. Community
D. None of the mentioned D. Hybrid
390. How many types of Cloud are there in De-

NARAYAN CHANGDER
385. What is the main feature of a private
cloud? ployment Models?
A. 3
A. Customers, or tenants, maybe differ-
ent individuals or groups within a single B. 2
company C. 4
B. Customers, or tenants, maybe differ- D. 5
ent individuals or groups from different
companies. 391. Which of the following provides com-
mands for defining logic using conditional
C. Customers, or tenants within a single statements?
company on a PC
A. XML
D. none of above
B. WS-BPEL
386. Through which one of the following mod- C. JSON
els, SaaS supports multiple users and of- D. None of the mentioned
fers a shared data model?
A. Single tenancy 392. How much storage does Google give a
student user for free in Google Drive?
B. Multi tenancy
A. 1GB
C. Multi instance
B. 5GB
D. Single instance
C. UNLIMITED
387. What is the difference between HTTP and D. 50GB
HTTPS
393. Most recognizable model of cloud comput-
A. HTTP is new ing
B. Websites don’t allow HTTP A. Private
C. HTTPs uses encryption B. Public
D. SSL Certificates are required for HTTP C. Hybrid
388. What happens when you delete a file in D. Community
Google Drive? 394. The allows systems and services to
A. Nothing, you cannot delete files be accessible by a group of organizations.
B. It is gone forever A. Public Cloud
C. It goes to the Trash B. Private Cloud
D. It just hides it from your view, but you C. Community Cloud
can still search for it D. Hybrid Cloud

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1.17 Miscellenous 183

395. A Person, organization, or entity respon- 400. What hardware component is responsible
sible for making a service available to in- for managing running processes
terest parties.

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A. Hard drive
A. Cloud Consumer
B. RAM
B. Cloud Provider
C. Monitor
C. Cloud Broker
D. Graphics card
D. Cloud Carrier
401. When working in Google Docs, how do
396. “The cloud provides service to companies
you save your changes?
of all sizes
A. Click the Save button
A. Markus Persson
B. Press CTRL+S
B. Zhang
C. Marc Benioff C. As you work, all your changes are au-
tomatically saved
D. daniel a
D. You cannot save documents in Google
397. Encryption is Docs
A. numbers that have been changed into
402. provides the run time environment
a type of code which needs a card to read
for applications, development and deploy-
it again
ment tools, etc.
B. numbers that have been changed into
A. IaaS
a type of code which needs a fob to read
it again B. PaaS
C. data that has been changed into a type C. SaaS
of code which needs a key to read it again
D. IDaaS
D. emails that have been changed into a
type of code which needs a key to read it 403. When companies store data using cloud
again technologies, to keep things secure, the
data will be
398. Virtual machines run on top of?
A. Qualified
A. Hardware
B. Decrypted
B. Software & Hardware
C. Protected
C. Hypervisor
D. Encrypted
D. VM Instance

399. An advantage of cloud software is that 404. Which delivery model is an example of a
cloud computingenvironment that provides
users access tovirtual machines?
A. It is always free
A. Platform as a Service
B. It cannot be hacked
B. Software as a Service
C. It is updated automatically
C. Application as a Service
D. It is only ever stored locally on your
computer D. Infrastructure as a Service

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1.17 Miscellenous 184

405. What is true about Service-Oriented Ar- 410. What is a federation Cloud?
chitecture? A. Cloud from a particular country
A. Service-Oriented Architecture helps to B. collaboration between Clouds
use applications as a service for other ap-
plications C. military Cloud
D. international Cloud
B. It is possible to exchange the data be-
tween applications of different vendors 411. Which of the following is one of the
without additional programming unique attributes of Cloud Computing?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. It offers computational resources on A. utility type of delivery
demand as a metered service.
B. elasticity
D. Both a and b
C. low barrier to entry
406. Which of the following components re- D. All of the mentioned
side on a NameNode?
412. Which of the following acronyms refers
A. Filenames, blocks and checksums to a software distribution model in which
B. Blocks and heartbeat messages a cloud provider manages and hosts an app
that users access via the internet?
C. Filenames, block locations
A. IaaS
D. Blocks and block locations
B. PaaS
407. Cloud services are relationships with
C. SaaS
their customers.
D. FaaS
A. One to One
B. One to Many 413. What is the main reason that companies
turn to using the Cloud?
C. Many to One
A. cost saving
D. Many to Many Cloud services are
B. better performance
relationships with their customers.
C. ubiquitous computing
408. The need for data replication can arise in
D. flebility
various scenarios like
A. Replication Factor is changed 414. Windows Azure and Force.com are exam-
ple of?
B. DataNode goes down
A. PaaS
C. Data Blocks get corrupted
B. SaaS
D. All of the mentioned
C. IaaS
409. A serves as the master and there is D. All of the above
only one NameNode per cluster.
415. Benefits of cloud computing include
A. Data Node
(choose two)
B. NameNode
A. Everyone has the same version of the
C. Data block software
D. Replication B. It can be used offline

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1.17 Miscellenous 185

C. Changes within the document can be A. SimpleDB

tracked by who made them.
B. RDS

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D. You always have a backup stored on
C. Amazon EC2d)
your local device.
D. All of the mentioned
416. What is it called when you work for a
company from home? 421. Which of the following is application and
A. Teleconfrencing infrastructure management software for
hybrid multi-clouds?
B. Commuting
C. TeleCommuting A. VMware Hyperic
D. The Daily Grind B. Webmetrics
C. Univa UD
417. Which framework of policies and tech-
nologies for ensuring that the proper peo- D. Tapinsystems
ple in an enterprise have the appropriate
access to technology resources? 422. You have been asked to design a
“Open File System” which is derived from
A. Single sign-on
GFS / HDFS architecture with following
B. Identity and Access Management variances-chunk size of 100 MB, block
C. Registration Authority size of 1 MB. A file of size 1 TB needs
to be stored on this file system. How
D. User Management
many chunk servers will be needed, if each
418. Running a program involves running server hosts 1000 blocks?
mapping tasks on many or all of the nodes A. 500
in our cluster.
B. 1000
A. MapReduce
B. Map C. 1500

C. Reducer D. none of the mentioned

D. All of the mentioned 423. Which of the following is another name
419. You want a cloud subscription model that for the system virtual machine?
is the least expensive way to access ser- A. hardware virtual machine
vices that are strictly hosted by a cloud ser-
B. software virtual machine
vice provider. Which cloud model describes
this? C. real machine
A. Public cloud D. none of the mentioned
B. Private cloud
424. What is the front end of cloud comput-
C. Hybrid cloud ing?
D. Cumulonimbus cloud A. The third party company
420. Which of the following should be used B. The personal computer user
considering factors shown in the fig-
C. The internet
ure? cloud-computing-aws-interview-
questions-answers-q1 D. Your personal home server

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1.17 Miscellenous 186

425. In private cloud customer control 430. Web services communicate using
A. Applications, data, OS, Virtualization, A. None of these
Servers, Stroage, Networking B. Open protocols
B. Applications, data, OS C. Close protocols
C. Virtualization, Servers, D. Open-Close protocols
D. Networking
431. Google Drive was launched in what

NARAYAN CHANGDER
426. . Which of the following is built on top year?
of a Hadoop framework using the Elastic A. 1992
Compute Cloud? B. 2004
A. Amazon Elastic MapReduce C. 2008
B. Amazon Mechanical Turk D. 2012
C. Amazon DevPay
432. Cloud computing services such as storage
D. Multi-Factor Authentication and software

427. Consider the pseudo-code for MapRe- A. Can be accessed on any device
duce’s WordCount example (not shown B. Are always free
here). Let’s now assume that you want to C. Can be accessed by any device that is
determine the average amount of words connected to a LAN
per sentence. Which part of the (pseudo-
)code do you need to adapt? D. Can be accessed on any device that is
connected to the internet
A. Only map()
433. When you add a software stack, such as
B. Only reduce()
an operating system and applications, it is
C. map() and reduce() called the model.
D. The code does not have to be changed. A. Iaas

428. What does the ‘S’ stand for in HTTPS B. Paas

C. Saas
A. Security
D. No one
B. Safe
C. Secret 434. Which of the following is a repeatable
task within a business process?
D. Secure
A. service
429. Which one of the following refers to the B. bus
user’s part of the Cloud Computing sys-
tem? C. methods
D. all of the mentioned
A. back End
B. Management 435. It is made up of a single organization
with its own cloud of servers and software
C. Infrastructure
for use without a public access point. This
D. Front End belongs to:

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1.17 Miscellenous 187

A. public cloud 440. A service provider gets the same ben-

efits from a composable system that a user
B. private cloud
does.

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C. cloud hybrid or community
A. CaaS
D. none of above B. AaaS
436. Which of the following software can be C. PaaS
used to implement load balancing? D. All of the mentioned
A. Apache mod balancer 441. How many types of dimensions exists in
B. Apache mod proxy balancer Cloud Cube Model?
C. F6’s BigIP A. 1
D. All of the mentioned B. 2
C. 3
437. Which of the following module of
D. 4
SOA is shown in the following fig-
ure? cloud-computing-questions-answers- 442. Which types of issues are associated
service-oriented-architecture-q4 with the SaaS?
A. Description A. Modest software tools
B. Messaging B. Multitenant solutions
C. Business Process C. Centralized management and data
D. QOS D. Network dependence

438. Google’s cloud service is called 443. Which of the following entity is responsi-
ble for making a service available to inter-
A. Google Cloud ested parties?
B. Google Mail A. Cloud Monitor
C. Google Dropbox B. Cloud Broker
D. Google Drive C. Cloud Provider
D. Cloud Auditor
439. What is benefit of storage availability in
the Cloud? 444. What model do most public cloud
A. Additional storage does not require providers use for their customers?
budget for new large storage devices. A. Single-tenancy
B. Storage in the Cloud has a higher avail- B. Multi-tenancy
ability than storage devices in the local C. Distributed-tenancy
area network.
D. none of above
C. Storage in the Cloud has shorter ac-
cess times than storage in the local area 445. All of these are types of cloud deploy-
network. ment except:

D. Storage in the Cloud is easier to pro- A. public cloud

tect against intrusion B. private cloud

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1.17 Miscellenous 188

C. community cloud B. internet

D. segregated cloud C. WWW

446. A cloud combines multiple clouds D. Buffering

where those clouds retain their unique 451. Which one of the following a technology
identities, but are bound together as a works behind the cloud computing plat-
unit. form?
A. Public A. Virtualization

NARAYAN CHANGDER
B. Private B. SOA
C. Community
C. Grid Computing
D. Hybrid
D. All of the above
447. Which of the following is a more sophis-
452. All cloud computing applications suffer
ticated load balancer?
from the inherent that is intrinsic in their
A. workload managers WAN connectivity.
B. workspace managers A. propagation
C. rackserve managers B. latency
D. all of the mentioned C. noise
448. Cloud Computing provides D. None of the mentioned
A. Resource Pooling 453. How can you upload content to Google
B. Measured Service Drive?
C. Broad Network Access A. Click New, File upload
D. None B. Click New, Folder upload
C. Drag files into the Drive window
449. Which of the following is not a true state-
ment about using encryption with enter- D. You can use any of these methods to
prise cloud computing implementations? upload files to Google Drive
A. Encryption is required for regulatory 454. Which of the following is the best-known
compliance. service model?
B. Encryption can be used to solve the A. IaaS
data segregation issue.
B. PaaS
C. Data being processed is always en-
crypted. C. SaaS

D. Encryption for data in transit has a D. All of the above

speed/strength tradeoff. 455. Cloud computing is a kind of abstraction
450. A drawback for gamers, when using the which is based on the notion of combining
cloud, is the possible limited capac- physical resources and represents them as
ity which would affect the quality of the resources to users.
steaming. A. Real
A. broadband B. Cloud

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1.17 Miscellenous 189

C. Virtual 461. A node acts as the Slave and is re-

D. none of the mentioned sponsible for executing a Task assigned to
it by the JobTracker

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456. The may arise when a process rolls
A. MapReduce
back to its checkpoint after a failure and
requests all the other affected processes B. Mapper
also to roll back
C. TaskTracker
A. Rollback
D. JobTracker
B. Phantom Effect
C. Domino Effect 462. Which one of the following options can
D. Livelock problem be considered as the Cloud?

457. Apache Hadoop YARN stands for: A. Hadoop

A. Yet Another Reserve Negotiator B. Intranet

B. Yet Another Resource Network C. Web Applications
C. Yet Another Resource Negotiator D. All of the mentioned
D. Yet Another Resource Manager
463. A third-party provider hosts applications
458. A cloud computing service that provides and makes them available to customers
developers with a framework that can be over the Internet. Customers access online
used for building custom applications software applications through a browser.
A. PaaS A. SaaS
B. IaaS
B. IaaS
C. SaaS
C. Paas
D. FaaS
D. Traditional model
459. which model is used when people have
similar interests? 464. What extra things can you do on Cloud
A. Hybrid Computing?
B. Community A. Use your computers in any whether
C. Private B. Share Files
D. Software-as-a-service
C. It does your work for you
460. A cross-platform authentication protocol D. none of above
that uses key encryption to verify the iden-
tity of clients and to securely exchange in- 465. Which of the following are the features
formation after a client logs on to a sys- of cloud computing?
tem?
A. Security
A. CHAP
B. EAP B. Availability

C. TKIP C. Large Network Access

D. Kerberos D. All of the above

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1.17 Miscellenous 190

466. Cloud computing is a system and is 471. Benefits of Azure

one-way in nature. A. Lower costs, manager resources sim-
A. stateful ply, reliability and security
B. stateless B. Lower costs, security, reliable re-
C. reliable sources

D. none of above C. Different architectures, easy to main-

tain, compatibility with other clouds

NARAYAN CHANGDER
467. is a platform for constructing data D. none of above
flows for extract, transform, and load
(ETL) processing and analysis of large 472. Which of the following are true about the
datasets. cloud computing deployment modes?
A. Pig Latin A. The industry cloud generally has at-
B. Oozie tributes of a certain industry, which is
a large private cloud” or “small public
C. Pig cloud”.
D. Hive B. The public cloud is generally con-
structed by carriers or cloud service
468. A hybrid cloud combines multiple clouds
providers. It sells or leases services to
where those clouds retain their unique
the public.
identities but are bound together as a unit.
C. The private cloud is deployed on the
A. Public
premises of enterprises and used by inter-
B. Private nal employees.
C. Community D. all of the aboves
D. Hybrid
473. Which of the following is the most widely
469. Which of the following tool is designed used technique for abstraction?
for efficiently transferring bulk data be- A. Load balancing
tween Apache Hadoop and structured
B. Load schedulin
datastores such as relational databases.
C. Load scaling
A. Apache Sqoop
D. All of the mentioned
B. Pig
C. Mahout 474. How much monthly is a extra 200Gb for
icloud?
D. Flume
A. 2.49
470. Which of the following behaves like the
entry point of the monitor and reroutes the B. 0.79
instructions of the virtual machine? C. 1.49
A. Dispatcher D. 3.00
B. Allocator 475. Definition of the SaaS concept
C. Interpreter A. Provide the services like Containers,
D. Both A and B Databases.

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1.17 Miscellenous 191

B. Provide the applications like Microsoft 480. A type of wireless network that does not
365 rely on fixed hardware such as routers

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C. Provide the network configuration like A. Bus Network
VNets, Subnets B. Ad Hoc Network
D. none of above C. LAN Network
476. Broader model of cloud computing. Any- D. Ad Hic Network
thing as a Service.
481. An operating system running on a Type
A. IaaS VM is full virtualization.
B. PaaS A. 1
C. SaaS B. 2
D. XaaS C. 3

477. When a company needs more bandwidth D. All of the mentioned

than usual, a cloud-based service can 482. Which of the following cloud is specifi-
instantly meet the demand because of cally designed to address the needs of the
the vast capacity of the service’s remote specific industry?
servers. This is which advantage of cloud
computing? A. Public Cloud
B. Private Cloud
A. Flexibility
C. Hybrid Cloud
B. On Demand Self Service
D. Community Cloud
C. Accessibility
D. Pay as you go 483. Which of the following is a structured
data store that supports indexing and data
478. Cellular network is an example of queries to both EC2 and S3?
A. P2P computing A. CloudWatch
B. Distributed computing B. Amazon SimpleDB
C. cloud computing C. Amazon Cloudfront
D. collaborative computing D. All of the mentioned

479. A company would like to leverage cloud 484. Which of the following cloud concept is re-
computing to provideadvanced collabora- lated to pooling and sharing of resources?
tion services (i.e. video, chat, and webcon- A. Polymorphism
ferences) for its employees but does not
B. Abstraction
have the ITresources to deploy such an in-
frastructure. Which cloudcomputing model C. Virtualization
would best fit the company needs? D. None of the mentioned
A. Hybrid Cloud
485. Broadly divide the cloud architecture
B. Public Cloud into?
C. Private Cloud A. 1
D. Virtual Private Cloud B. 2

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1.17 Miscellenous 192

C. 3 491. What is a Virtual Private Network

(VPN)?
D. 4
A. A secured connection for remote ac-
486. By default, this is the area in Google cess to a local area network
Drive that shows your personal files.
B. A secured private cloud for a single
A. My Drive user
B. Shared with me C. A virtual network device for private

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Docs purposes
D. An operating system for private net-
D. My Stuff
work systems
487. Which of the following things you will
492. The model originally did not require
need if you wish to setup an IT company?
a cloud to use virtualization to pool re-
A. Office space sources.
B. computers servers A. NEFT
C. cafeteria B. NIST
D. all of the above C. NIT
D. All of the mentioned
488. For every additional symbol added to the
length of your password what happens? 493. Which of these options is not a PaaS of-
A. Makes password difficult to remember fering?
B. Makes password more complex and A. IBM App Mix
harder to break B. Azure App Service
C. Makes password more confusing C. AWS Elastic Beanstalk
D. none of above D. Google App Engine
489. Which project identifier does not need to 494. which is not an advantage of grid
be globally unique?
A. scalable
A. Project ID
B. uses unused computing power
B. Project name
C. provide standard and high cpu
C. Project number
D. multi-tenancy
D. none of above
495. GHZ radio frequency has than 2 GHZ
490. Which of the following is a classic exam- radio frequency because there are fewer
ple of an IaaS service model? devices that operate at 5 GHZ
A. AWS A. less signal interference
B. Azure B. More signal interference
C. Cloudera C. Same amount of signal interference
D. All of the mentioned D. none of above

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1.17 Miscellenous 193

496. An example of a file-sharing platform 501. Cloud computing embraces many concepts
that uses the cloud is: that were previously touted as the next
big thing in information technology. Which

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A. Facebook
of these are an antecedent of the cloud?
B. Twitter
A. Software as a services
C. Google Docs
B. Utility computing
D. Snapchat
C. Remote hosted services
497. I have local network and data centre, But D. Desktop computing
i like to integrate them into cloud account.
What type of solution you will prefer for 502. Which of the following best describes the
it? benefits of cloud computing?

A. Hybrid A. Cloud computing is cost effective, elas-

tic and on-premises.
B. Private
B. Cloud computing is scalable, inelastic
C. Public but always current.
D. Local network C. Cloud computing is scalable, elastic
and reliable.
498. Which of the following are components
that are included with Microsoft 365? (Se- D. Cloud computing is cost effective but
lect three) unreliable.

A. Office 365 Enterprise 503. Which of the following are advantages of

cloud computing?
B. Office 2016
A. lower speeds
C. Windows 10 Pro
B. local software
D. Windows 10 Enterprise
C. greater cost
E. Enterprise Mobility + Security
D. easier collaboration
499. Cloud technology has improved educa-
504. as a utility is a dream that dates from
tional scenery except
the beginning of the computing industry it-
A. Lower cost self.
B. Creation of virtual classroom A. Model
C. Increase learning time B. Computing
D. Better access to education and train- C. Software
ing D. All of the mentioned
500. is a commitment between service 505. is a general term used to describecom-
provider and a client. puting that takesplace over the Internet
A. Legal agreement A. Cloud Computing
B. Service Level Agreement B. Network Computing
C. Social agreement C. Storage Computing
D. Service Agreement D. None of the choices

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1.17 Miscellenous 194

506. With Storage as a service (STaaS) 511. What are 3 disadvantage of cloud com-
puting?
A. Centralized online storage of
databases can be accessed from any loca- A. It is vulnerable to hacking
tion on many platforms. B. The storage can be expanded accross
B. Players with different OS platforms platforms
can compete in the same online game. C. You must be connected to the Internet
C. Users access online software applica- to use applications and data stored in the
cloud.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
tions through a browser
D. Subscription costs over several years
D. Users upload and store files, videos, or
may exceed the one-time cost of purchas-
photos for sharing.
ing and maintaining a local copy
507. Select an example of an output device E. Can be accessed remotely
A. Keyboard 512. Select the NIST Cloud Agents? (Give in
B. Mouse check box)

C. Speakers A. Cloud Consumer

B. Cloud Provider
D. none of above
C. Cloud Broker
508. Identify among the following, which pro- D. Cloud Carrier
vides a runtime environment?
513. The output of the is not sorted in the
A. IaaS
Mapreduce framework for Hadoop.
B. PaaS A. Mapper
C. SaaS B. Cascader
D. XaaS C. Scalding
D. None of the mentioned
509. The inter process communication be-
tween different nodes in Hadoop uses 514. describes a distribution model in
A. REST API which applications are hosted by a service
provider and made available to users.
B. RPC
A. IAAS-Infrastructure-as-a-Service
C. RMI
B. PaaS-Platform-as-a-Service
D. IP Exchange C. SaaS-Software-as-a-Service
510. UDDI Stands for D. All of them
A. Universal Development, Design and In- 515. is formed by connecting the cloud en-
tegration vironment of several cloud providers using
B. None of these a common standard.
A. Federated Cloud
C. Universal Description, Discovery and
Integration B. Compute Cloud
D. Universal Description, Development C. Storage Cloud
and Integration D. Semantic Cloud

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1.17 Miscellenous 195

516. Which of the following SaaS platform is C. Isolation

with an exposed API? D. Durability

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A. salesforce.com
522. In the Google Cloud resource hierar-
B. amazon.com
chy, into which entity are resources orga-
C. flipkart.com nized?
D. None of the above A. Organization node
517. Platform services are provided by a ven- B. Folders
dor while the customers are responsible C. Zones
for their own applications and data in this
D. Projects
type of cloud computing.
A. IaaS 523. enables batch processing, which
B. PaaS greatly speeds up high-processing applica-
tions.
C. SaaS
A. Scalability
D. XaaS
B. Reliability
518. In PaaS, you manage?
C. Elasticity
A. Application
D. Utility
B. Storage
524. Cloud Architecture
C. Runtime
A. Deployment Model, Service Model, Es-
D. Security
sential Characteristics, Common Charac-
519. is not a disadvantage of Public Cloud teristics
A. Unreliability B. Characteristics
B. Susceptible for Hacking C. Deployment model
C. Variable broadband Internet Connec- D. Service Model
tion E. Common Characteristics
D. Pay Per Use
525. Which one of the following is a kind
520. How close is the closest data center? of technique that allows sharing the sin-
A. 10 mins away gle physical instance of an application or
the resources among multiple organiza-
B. 1.5 hours away
tions/customers?
C. 4 hours away
A. Virtualization
D. 10 hours away
B. Grid Computing
521. The property states that the system C. SOA
must have a mechanism to recover from
D. Utility Computing
committed transactions should that be nec-
essary. 526. Automatic backups are not provided au-
A. Atomicity tomatically by drupal cloud reseller.
B. Consistency A. Platform.sh

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1.17 Miscellenous 196

B. Amaze.io 532. What is the parallel efficiency(Eff) of an

C. Acquia algorithm? Where a task takes time T in
uniprocessor system, P is number of pro-
D. Pantheon cessors, M is time taken by each proces-
sor.
527. Elasticity means the ability to
A. Eff = (T*P)/M
A. Scale Up
B. Eff = T*(M/P)
B. Scale down

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. Eff = T/(P*M)
C. Parallel
D. Eff = T*P*M
D. Scale Up and Down
533. The cloud services purchased by a user in-
528. What is the biggest disadvantage of com- clude an application running environment,
munity cloud? but do not contain any application or re-
A. Collaboration has to be maintained lated data. This mode is
with other participants A. IaaS
B. Less security features B. PaaS
C. Cloud is used by many organisation for C. SaaS
different purposes
D. NaaS
D. Organisation losses business auton-
omy 534. Which of the following is best known ser-
vice model?
529. What is the use of Certification Authority
A. SaaS
(CA) in PKI?
B. IaaS
A. Issues the certificate
C. PaaS
B. Requests a certificate
D. All of the mentioned
C. Registration Authority
D. None of the above 535. Which of the following statements could
be used to describe a private cloud deploy-
530. Cloud computing is an extension of what ment?
type of computing arrangement? A. A cloud environment maintained within
A. Star an enterprise’s own data center
B. Mesh B. A private environment within a third-
party or public cloud provider’s architec-
C. Client-server
ture
D. Peer to peer
C. A cloud service inaccessible to anyone
531. Which of the following is not a NoSQL but the cultural elite
database? D. Both 1 and 2
A. HBase
536. .... refers to the location and manage-
B. SQL Server ment of the cloud’s infrastructure.
C. Cassandra A. Service
D. None of the mentioned B. Deployment

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1.17 Miscellenous 197

C. Application 541. Which one of the following can be consid-

ered as a utility is a dream that dates from
D. None of the mentioned
the beginning of the computing industry it-

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537. The set of hardware, networking, stor- self?
age, services, applications, and interfaces A. Computing
owned and operated by an organization B. Model
for the use of its employees, partners, or
C. Software
customers is the private cloud. This can be
created and managed by a third party for D. All of the mentioned
the exclusive use of one enterprise.
542. Which one of the following can be consid-
A. Private Cloud: ered as the example of the Front-end?
B. Public Cloud: A. Web Browser
C. General Cloud: B. Google Compute Engine
C. Cisco Metapod
D. none of above
D. Amazon Web Services
538. As a developer for a software company,
543. When talking about cloud services, what
you have decided to build and test your
does the term “scalable” mean?
web applications in a cloud environment.
Which type of cloud service best meets A. Able to build models
your needs? B. Able to resize organizational data
A. PaaS structures
C. Able to add or reduce service capacity
B. SaaS
on demand
C. IaaS D. Services are deployed in a redundant
D. XaaS manner
544. Cloud processing could be used as a ser-
539. A payment method for cloud computing
vice if
that charges based on usage.
A. You need more storage space
A. Pay as you grow
B. You need more hardware
B. Pay on demand
C. You need to run complicated programs
C. Cash on delivery with many complex mathematical calcula-
D. Credit scoring tions
D. You want to stop hackers
540. computing refers to applications and
services that run on a distributed network 545. function is responsible for consolidat-
using virtualized resources. ing the results produced by each of the
Map() functions/tasks.
A. Distributed
A. Reduce
B. Cloud B. Map
C. Soft C. Reducer
D. Parallel D. process

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1.17 Miscellenous 198

546. What facet of cloud computing helps to C. Both Mapper and Reducer
guard against downtime and determines
D. None of the mentioned
costs?
A. Service-level agreements 552. In cloud computing, which term is used to
B. Application programming interfaces describe the natureof IT infrastructure and
allowsdynamic scaling depending onthe de-
C. Bandwidth fees mand for resources?
D. Virtual private networks A. elasticity

NARAYAN CHANGDER
547. What is the most important concern of B. clustering
cloud computing?
C. consolidation
A. Cost
D. virtualization
B. Space
C. Security 553. Which of the following system does not
provision storage to most users?
D. Platform
A. PaaS
548. what do cloud services provide to help
with privacy and security concerns B. IaaS
A. collaboration C. CaaS
B. accessibility D. SaaS
C. encryption 554. Which of the following are valid reasons
D. backups for a firm’s not adopting a cloud solution?
(Choose two.)
549. In cloud computing, your resources ae
measured, and you only pay for the re- A. Local hardware is being fully utilized
sources and workload you use. This is for unchanging IT workloads.
which feature of cloud computing? B. The number of employees rarely
A. Pay per use changes.
B. on demand self service C. The number of employees changes of-
C. elasticity ten.
D. resource pooling D. The firm experiences unpredictable
project spikes throughout the year.
550. A hypervisor is sometimes also called a?
A. VMA 555. Which concept aligns business and IT as-
sets, helpsprovide flexible IT capacity, and
B. VMM provides realtimeallocation of IT resources
C. VMR in line with demand frombusiness pro-
D. VMN cesses?
A. elasticity
551. maps input key/value pairs to a set
of intermediate key/value pairs. B. virtualization
A. Mapper C. dynamic infrastructure
B. Reducer D. automated management of resources

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1.17 Miscellenous 199

556. The most utilized. The software is hosted 561. What part of the computer are all hard-
on the providers’ servers and accessed by ware components connected to?
the customer through the web browser.

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A. RAM Slots
this concept belongs to:
B. GPU
A. The PaaS-Platform as a Service model
B. The SaaS-Software as a Service cloud C. Motherboard
computing model D. CPU
C. The IaaS-Infrastructure as a Service
model 562. A type of network model where all com-
puters on the network share responsibility
D. none of above and there is no one central server.
557. Which of the following is a type of Ser- A. Peer to peer
vice Models?
B. Client-server
A. Public-as-a-Service
C. Mesh
B. Platform-as-a-Service
D. Virtual network
C. Community-as-a-Service
D. Public-as-a-Service 563. Tethering is
558. Choose the cloud enabled technology A. where a network acts as an access
point to share its internet connection
A. Broadband Networks and Internet Ar-
chitecture B. where a smartphone acts as an access
B. Web Technology point to share its files
C. Service Technology C. where a network acts as an access
point to share its files
D. All of them
D. where a smartphone acts as an access
559. Whats wayne’s favorite present to get? point to share its internet connection
A. toblerome
564. Select the cloud services from cloud
B. tobelrone
providers.
C. toblerone
A. Dropbox
D. fresh socks
B. AWS
E. shoes
C. Google sheet
560. Choose the scenarios that need virtualiza-
tion software. D. All of them
A. A client needs to run one operating sys- 565. Which of the following cloud service
tem at a time. types would be the best option for a web
B. A company needs an application to re- developer intending to create an app?
duce hardware and electricity costs. A. IaaS
C. A company needs to additional costs
B. SaaS
and configuration complexities when up-
grading the hardware. C. PaaS
D. none of above D. DaaS

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1.17 Miscellenous 200

566. Which of the following is a feature found A. Amazon Cloud-front

in most cloud accounts?
B. Elastic Caches
A. Automatic backup
C. Amazon RDS
B. Cloud storage space
D. Elastic Load Balancing
C. Apps to connect multiple devices to
your account 572. Select if all applicable for features of
D. All of these are features found in most cloud?

NARAYAN CHANGDER
cloud accounts. A. Development of applications that can
567. Which one of the following offers the manage several clients at a time.
control structures and development frame- B. Access and management of the com-
works? mercial software.
A. IaaS C. Centralization of software will elimi-
B. SaaS nate the need of downloading the updated
versions.
C. PaaS
D. All the above mentioned D. All of them

568. What is commonly meant for losing en- 573. If your laptop uses the cloud for every-
crypted data? thing, your hard drive must be
A. lose the encryption standard A. empty
B. lose the keys B. high tech
C. lose of account C. fast
D. all of them D. full
569. What does IP-Address stand for?
574. Which of the following is about the on-
A. Interweb-protocol address demand self-service feature of cloud com-
B. Internet-protocol address puting?
C. Internet-probable address A. Users do not need to communicate the
service providers at all when using cloud
D. Intranet-protocol address
computing resources.
570. What is a system of interconnected B. After determining the required cloud
computers and other electronic devices computing service, users can apply for
called? cloud computing resources by them-
A. Server selves.
B. Network C. The cloud computing service providers
C. Data Link only need to prepare the cloud services
and users will complete remaining pro-
D. Cloud Computing cess all by themselves.
571. Which of the following dynamically grow D. When using cloud computing re-
and shrink the load-balancing capacity to sources, the users need to solve all by
adjust to traffic demands problems by themselves.

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1.17 Miscellenous 201

575. Which is not an advantage of Grid? 581. Which service provides raw compute,
A. Scalable storage, and network capabilities, orga-
nized virtually into resources that are sim-

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B. uses unused computing power ilar to physical data centers?
C. provide standard and high cpu A. FaaS
D. multi-tenancy B. IaaS
576. HDFS is implemented in programming C. PaaS
language D. SaaS
A. C++ 582. What are advantages of external host-
B. Java ing?
C. Scala A. Costs less than an internal host
D. None of the mentioned B. Little technical knowledge required
C. More prone to viruses and hacking
577. Which of the following is a cloud comput-
ing deployment model in which the cloud D. Backups are made for you
infrastructure is provisioned for open use 583. There are types of cloud computing.
by the general public?
A. two
A. Hybrid Cloud
B. four
B. Public Cloud
C. three
C. Private Cloud D. unlimited
D. Community Cloud
584. Deployment models of the cloud comput-
578. IaaS shares issues with? ing
A. PaaS A. Public, private, and hybrid
B. SaaS B. Public, completed, and private
C. Both a and b C. Public, private, and protected
D. None of the above D. none of above

579. ensures the ability to exchange/ ob- 585. Which of the following can be considered
tain the information to be consumed PaaS offering?
A. Google Maps
A. Data Level Interoperability
B. Gmail
B. Service Level Interoperability
C. Google Earth
C. Security Level Interoperability
D. All of the mentioned
D. Machine Level Interoperability
586. Choose the issues relates to cloud com-
580. Amazon Web Services is an example of puting.
A. Infrastructure as a Service A. Legal and compliance
B. Software as a Service B. Security Issues
C. Platform as a Service C. Data Management Issue
D. None of these D. All of them

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1.17 Miscellenous 202

587. Which of the following statements are 591. Cloud computing is an abstraction based
true about key/value pairs in Hadoop? on the notion of pooling physical resources
and presenting them as a resource.
A. A map() function can emit up to a max-
imum number of key/value pairs (depend- A. real
ing on the Hadoop environment). B. virtual
B. A map() function can emit anything be- C. cloud
tween zero and an unlimited number of
D. none of the mentioned
key/value pairs.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
C. A reduce() function can iterate over 592. Tim is worried about losing his files
key/value pairs multiple times. stored on his personal computer. Tim
should use to eliminate that problem.
D. A call to reduce() is guaranteed to re-
ceive key/value pairs from only one key. A. Cloud Computing
B. Networking
588. Which of the following storage devices
exposes its storage to clients as Raw stor- C. Storage Space
age that can be partitioned to create vol- D. A newer computer
umes?
593. CRM is an example of
A. block
A. SaaS
B. file
B. PaaS
C. disk
C. IaaS
D. all of the mentioned
D. Both 1 and 2
589. Resource usage is monitored, measured, E. All of the above
reported and billed based on use.
594. Cloud computing is a system and it is
A. Measured service necessarily unidirectional in nature.
B. Measured outcomes A. Stateless
C. Pay as you grow B. Stateful
D. Pay as you measure C. Reliable
D. All of the above
590. Identify which statement is TRUE about
a bare metal hypervisor? 595. How many deployment models in cloud
A. It can only be hosted on an existing op- computing?
erating system. A. 4
B. It requires a separate license for the B. 3
native operating system
C. 2
C. It has minimum functionality to sup- D. 7
port only one type of operating system
D. It runs directly on server hardware to 596. Cloud Computing has below layers
provide virtual machines with timesharing A. User, Software, Platform, Infrastruc-
resources. ture, Server

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1.17 Miscellenous 203

B. Client, Application, Platform, Infras- 601. Which of the following is not an exam-
tructure, Server ples of Type 1 hypervisors?

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C. Software, Application, Platform, In- A. VMware ESXi
frastructure, Server
B. Citrix XenServer
D. none of above
C. VMware Player
597. Which of the following is true concerning D. Microsoft Hyper-V hypervisor
a local Google Drive folder?
602. Which compute service would be consid-
A. The app for creating a local folder is
ered IaaS?
built into Windows 10
A. Compute Engine
B. You create the folder in File Explorer,
then configure it to sync with your My B. Cloud Functions
Drive location C. App Engine
C. It is set for automatic synchronization D. Google Kubernetes Engine
with your My Drive location
D. The app for creating a local folder is 603. Which of the following statement is not
built into iOS true?
A. Through cloud computing, one can be-
598. Which are advantages of local hosting? gin with very small and become big in a
A. Ideal for local network users-less rapid manner.
bandwidth needed B. All applications benefit from deploy-
B. Always on-cannot use sleep mode ment in the Cloud.
C. Costs less than external hosting C. Cloud computing is revolutionary, even
though the technology it is built on is evo-
D. Slow bandwidth connection
lutionary.
599. I can print to my printer from anywhere D. NON
in the building because
604. A is a combination load balancer and
A. It is a wireless printer
application server that is a server placed
B. It has a bluetooth connection between a firewall or router.
C. It is connected to iCloud A. ABC
D. It is on a network B. ACD

600. One problem with streaming movies and C. ADC

music from the cloud is that D. All of the mentioned
A. Cloud services are expensive
605. In which layer does IPsec work?
B. You need internet access to watch or
A. Data link layer
listen
B. Network layer
C. The cloud is not open to the public
C. Transport layer
D. You can’t keep the media on your de-
vice D. Presentation layer

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1.17 Miscellenous 204

606. A single instance of a software applica- A. hardware settings such as how much
tion serves multiple customers. memory the VM should have.
A. Multi-tenancy B. what hard disks should be virtualized
B. Tenancy scaling through which container files and what
CDs are mounted,
C. Elastic tenancy
C. devide the operating system into mul-
D. Multi-scalable
tiple versions based on latest update.

NARAYAN CHANGDER
607. Which of the following is not an actor in D. state information whether the Virtual
cloud computing? Machine is currently running and saved its
A. cloud consumer snapshots.
B. cloud provider
612. In the case of a private cloud, the connec-
C. cloud carrier tivity may be provided by
D. cloud monitor A. LAN
608. Cloud computing is a concept that in- B. MAN
volves pooling physical resources and of-
C. WAN
fering them as which sort of resource?
A. cloud D. None

B. real 613. Hardware is the physical equipment of a

C. Virtual computer. It includes:
D. none of the mentioned A. Input Devices

609. . as a Service is a cloud computing infras- B. Memory and CPU

tructure that creates a development envi- C. Output Devices
ronment upon which applications may be
build. D. All of the Above

A. Infrastructure 614. Which of the following dimension is re-

B. Service lated to organization’s boundaries?
C. Platform A. Physical location of data
D. All of the mentioned B. Ownership
610. How many types of service model are C. Security boundary
mainly present in Cloud? D. All of the mentioned
A. 1
615. Where are Google Cloud resources de-
B. 2
ployed?
C. 3
A. Multi-region
D. 4
B. Region
611. In creating a new virtual machine, by us-
C. Zone
ing a virtualization software, a user is
able to do following EXCEPT: D. Location

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1.17 Miscellenous 205

616. What is a benefit of Cloud Computing? 621. Which of the following network re-
A. Use your computers in any weather sources can be load balanced?

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B. Share Files A. Connections through intelligent
C. It does your work for you switches

D. Your files can fly B. DNS

617. Simple Storage Service use for? C. Storage resources

A. It allows the users to store and re- D. All of the mentioned
trieve various types of data using API
calls. 622. How many types of hypervisor are
B. It does contain computing element. there?
C. Both A and B A. 2
D. None of the above B. 3
618. What is the Compute Engine feature that C. 4
allows VMs to be added to or subtracted
D. 5
from an application based on load met-
rics?
623. model consists of the particular types
A. Network time protocol (NTP) of services that you can access on a cloud
B. Autoscaling computing platform.
C. Persistent disks A. Service
D. Load balancing B. Deployment
619. Hardware services are provided virtu- C. Application
ally while customers are responsible for
their own application installations and D. None of the mentioned
data management in this type of cloud com-
puting. 624. Which of the following Computer Tools
are “Cloud Computing” resources:
A. IaaS
B. PaaS A. Google Drive
C. SaaS B. Ubuntu One
D. XaaS C. deviant
620. Swiggy.in formed a cloud for its all D. microsoft office
branches but due to its limited recources it
obtained the services of AWS for extended 625. Cloud computing shifts capital expendi-
provisioning and thus modified its cloud; tures into expenditures.
The cloud so formed is the example of
A. operating
A. Private Cloud
B. service
B. Public Cloud
C. Hybrid Cloud C. local
D. Community Cloud D. none of the mentioned

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1.17 Miscellenous 206

626. which of the following could be consid- D. APIs provide monthly pricing dis-
ered a drawback of cloud computing espe- counts.
cially in OUR SCHOOL
A. the need for high speed internet 631. IaaS stands for?

B. management of data A. IT-as-a-Service

C. absence of hardware B. Internet-as-a-Service
D. wide connection of networks C. Infrastructure-as-a-service

NARAYAN CHANGDER
627. What is an example of a WAN network? D. Interoperability-as-a-service
A. Personal Hotspot
632. Name of the Cloud provided by Microsoft
B. Bluetooth
A. AWS
C. The Internet
D. Router B. App Engine
C. Azure
628. One of the disadvantages of the hybrid
cloud is: D. Cloudera
A. a) Your security depends on the public
cloud service provider. 633. Which billing tool is designed to prevent
the over-consumption of resources due to
B. B) none, it is perfect. an error or a malicious attack?
C. C) Hybrid cloud management makes
A. Budgets
the company dependent on the provider’s
services B. Alerts
D. the A and C C. Quotas
629. Which of the following is a cloud com- D. Reports
puting feature that allows computing re-
sources to be automatically allocated in re- 634. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT AN
sponse to demand? AUTHENTICATION MECHANISM
A. Rapid Elasticity A. OTP
B. On-demand B. OAuth
C. Resource Pooling
C. SSO
D. Measured Service
D. SAML-TOKEN
630. What is the purpose of APIs offered by
various Google Cloud services? 635. You can’t count on a cloud provider main-
A. APIs allow physical access to data cen- taining your in the face of government
ters. actions.
B. APIs provide Cloud Console access A. scalability
through a simple web-based graphical B. reliability
user interface.
C. privacy
C. APIs allow code to be written to con-
trol Google Cloud services. D. None of the mentioned

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1.17 Miscellenous 207

636. dimension corresponds to two dif- B. Hire a security guard

ferent states in the eight possible cloud C. Store data on multiple servers in dif-
forms.

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ferent locations
A. Physical location of data D. Delete data to hide it
B. Ownership
641. Sharing resources is the main priority of
C. Security boundary
A. Client server computing
D. None of the mentioned
B. P2P Computing
637. What are two advantages of cloud com-
C. Distributed computing
puting
D. collaborative computing
A. Available 24/7
B. Automatic updates 642. Examples of VoIP platforms include
C. Easy to access A. Skype
D. Optional backups B. WhatsApp
C. Google Gmail
638. What are two traits of a cloud computing
architecture? (Choose two.) D. Facebook Messenger
A. single tiered E. AIM
B. not scalable 643. Which is/are true regarding cloud com-
C. on-demand access to resources puting?
D. internet/intranet accessible serverE. A. It provides on-demand network ac-
client and server run inthe same physical cess
environment B. It does not provide ubiquitous access
639. Which cloud computing feature allows the C. Resources can be released with no
service to change in size or volume to meet management effort
user needs. D. None of these
A. Security
644. . In which category of SaaS services does
B. Scalability customerrelationship management (CRM)
C. Cost savings software fall?
D. Virtualization A. Consumer services

640. How can a cloud-tech company protect B. Communication services

data (multiple correct answers)? C. Infrastructure services
A. Encryption D. Business services

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