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CV - VTU ETR Question paper 2020

Civil engineering (Visvesvaraya Technological University)

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VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : A

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Civil Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.

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PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is
a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Action Research d) Survey

2. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of

a) Qualitative Research b) Empirical Research
c) Analytical Research d) Fundamental Research

3. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is

a) Applied Research b) Descriptive Research
c) Evaluation Research d) Causal Research

4. The first step of Research process is

a) Research design b) Analysis of data
c) Review of literature d) Identification of research problem

5. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables

a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Survey d) Literature review

6. Choose the best answer, which is the most reliable source of information for your literature
review :
a) A TV documentary b) A Newspaper article
c) A peer reviewed research article d) A relevant chapter from a text book

7. Which literature review involves time line based collection of literature review
a) Narrative method b) Systematic method
c) Meta – analysis method of literature review
d) Meta – synthesis method of literature review.

8. Narrative literature review method is also known as

a) Advanced method b) Scientific method
c) Traditional method d) Systematic method.

9. A review of the literature should sort out the information into a _____framework
a) Conceptual b) Selective c) Theoretical d) Universal

10. The internet should not be used for finding published literature
a) True b) False

11. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
a) National sample surveys b) Demographic health surveys
c) National family health surveys d) Census

12. Which one is called non – probability sampling?

a) Cluster sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Quota sampling
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13. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement

a) Interval b) Ratio c) Nominal d) Ordinal

14. Absolute zero exists in

a) Ratio scale b) Interval scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale

15. Which data is cheaper to collect?

a) Primary data b) Collective data c) New data d) Secondary data

16. After the data has been processed and analysed, the research process requires
a) Interpretation of data b) Presentation of data
c) Reporting of data d) Testing of data

17. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category names is
known as
a) Concurring b) Coding c) Coloring d) Segmentation

18. The most repeated value in the series is called as

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range

19. A study in statistics that helps to interpret the variability of data known as
a) Standard deviation b) The measure of central tendency
c) The measure of dispersion d) None of the above

20. For a frequency distribution of a variable X, mean = 32 and median = 30. The distribution is
a) Positive skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Mesokurtic d) Platykurtic

21. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?

a) Judgemental sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling

22. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as

a) Non - random b) Probability c) Sampling error d) Random

23. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size

a) True b) False c) True to some extent d) None of the above

24. Population under research study is referred as

a) Standard Population b) Final Population
c) Infinite Population d) Target Population

25. The process of finding true but unknown value of population parameter is called as
a) Statistical inference b) Estimation
c) Guess d) Biased
26. Arrange the following steps in the process of hypothesis testing in proper sequence
A) Select the level of significance B) Setup null and alternative hypothesis
C) Establish the decision rule D) Performance computations
E) Select test statistics F) Draw conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) A, B, C, D, E, F b) A, B, E, D, C, F c) B, A, C, D, E, F d) B, A, E, C, D, F
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27. Which among the following is non parametric statistics?

a) t - test b) F - test
c) 2 - test d) Spearman’s rank order correlation

28. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :

a) ‘ t’ test b) ‘F’ test c) X2 Chi – square test d) ‘z’ test

29. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she

a) Accepts null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejects null hypothesis when it is true
c) Accepts null hypothesis when it is true d) Rejects null hypothesis when it is false

30. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistic,
the test is called
a) One tailed b) Two tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

31. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA

a) Describe those groups that have reliable difference between group means
b) Set the critical value for the ‘F’ test (or Chi – Square)
c) Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred
d) None of these

32. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to

a) The dependent variable b) The independent variable
c) Different levels of a treatment d) The critical value of F

33. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to

a) Experimental units b) Different levels of a factor
c) a factor d) Applying antibiotic to a wound

34. When conducting an ANOVA , F DATA will always fall within what range?
a) Between 0 and infinity b) Between 0 and 1
c) Between negative infinity and infinity d) Between 1 and infinity

35. In one way ANOVA which of the following is used within F – ratio as a measurement of the
variance F individual observations
a) SSE b) MSE c) MSRT d) None of the above

36. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is

a) The independent variable b) The dependent variable
c) Usually denoted by x d) Usually denoted by r

37. If the regression equation is equal to Y = 23.6 – 54.2x, then 23.6 is the ____ while – 54.2 is the
____ of the regression line.
a) Slope, intercept b) Slope, regression coefficient
c) Intercept , slope d) Radius, intercept

38. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model (one
independent variable).
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

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39. Which of the following is not the part of the exploratory factor analysis process
a) Extracting factors
b) Determining the number of factors before the analysis.
c) Rotating the factors d) Refining and interpreting the factors

40. If a researcher wanted to determine which variable were associated with which factors she/he
would look at
a) Factor scores b) Factor loadings c) Factor d) Factor associations

41. What is a complementary event for “At least one head appears” if two coins are tossed
simultaneously?
a) Exactly one head appears b) Atleast one tail appears
c) Atmost one tail appears d) None head appears

42. A bag contains 7 Red and 4 Blue Balls. Two Balls are drawn at random with replacement. The
probability of getting the Balls of different colors is :
a) 28/121 b) 56/121 c) ½ d) None of the above

43. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting atleast one head?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4

44. What are Independent Events?

a) If the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another
b) If the outcome of one event affects the outcome of another
c) Any one of the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another.
d) Any one of the outcome of one event does affect the outcome of another

45. In class, 30% of students study Hindi, 45% study Maths and 15% study Both Hindi and Maths.
If a student is randomly selected, what is the probability that he/she study Hindi and Maths?
a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7

46. The normal distribution

a) Mean = Variance = 1 b) Standard deviation = Variance = 0
c) Mean = 0 , Variance = 1 d) Mean = Standard deviation

47. The shape of normal distribution curve

a) Bell shaped b) Flat c) Circular d) Spilled

48. In a Binomial distribution, if ‘n’ is the number of trials and ‘p’ is the probability success, then
the mean value is
a) np b) n c) p d) np (1-p)

49. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is

a) (sqrt{m}) b) m2 c) m d) m/2

50. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is

a) n* K / N-1 b) n* K-1 / N c) n-1* K / N d) n* K / N

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PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Civil Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. Consider the structural system shown in figure under the action of weight W. All joints are
hinged. The properties of the members in terms of length (L), area (A) and the modulus of
Elasticity (E) are also given in the figure. Let L, A and E be 1 m, 0.05 m2 and 30  10 6 N/m2,
respectively, and W be 100 kN. Which one of the following gives the change in length of the
horizontal member QS?

a) Shortening = 0.0118 m b) Extension = 0.0118 m

c) Shortening = 0.0471 m d) Extension = 0.0471 m

52. What will be the magnitude of horizontal reaction at P of the truss shown in figure?

a) 56 kN b) 33.33 kN c) 42.43 kN d) 51.29 kN

53. Fixed End Moment (FEM)AB for the beam shown below is

a) 12.3 kNm b) 10.8 kNm c) 12.5 kNm d) 9.54 kNm

54. A beam of span l is fixed at one end and simply supported at the other end. It carries a
uniformly distributed load of  per unit run over whole span. The reaction at simply supported
end will be
3 3 3 5
a) R  l b) R  l 2 c) R  l d) R  l
7 8 8 8

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55. The kinematic indeterminancy of the plane truss shown in the figure is

a) 11 b) 8 c) 3 d) 0

56. A rectangular double bottom tank 12 m long and 10 m wide is full of sea water. Calculate the
head of water above the tank top if the load due to water pressure on the tank top is 9.6 MN.
The correct head is
a) 8.0 m b) 7.96 m c) 7.86 m d) None of these

57. The shape of the ship body below the designed water line depends upon
a) Water plane coefficient, Cw b) Mid ship section coefficient, Cm
c) Block coefficient, Cb d) All of these

58. G is the centre of gravity of a ship. M is the transverse meta centre. For a stable ship at sea for
small angle of hull.
a) G lies below M b) G lies above M
c) G coincides with M d) None of these

59. The water plane area of a ship is 1730 m2 when floating. Calculate the tonne per centimeter
immersion (TPC) of the ship. The correct answer is
a) 20.0 b) 18.0 c) 17.73 d) None of these

60. A ship is fitted with two stroke slow speed reversible diesel engine for giving propulsive power
to ship. The ship is fitted with
a) Fixed pitch propeller b) Controllable pitch propeller
c) Azipod propeller d) None of these

61. Which one is not property of hard concrete?

a) Compression strength b) Tensile strength
c) Bond strength d) Workability

62. The higher creep value in fresh concrete results in

a) Higher relaxation of stress b) Lower relaxation of stress
c) Very lower relaxation of stress d) No relaxation of stress

63. The ability of special concrete to flow through congested reinforcement without segregation and
blocking is called
a) Rillability b) Flowability
c) Segregation resistance d) All of these

64. Which among the following is not a type of non-destructive testing?

a) Compression Test b) Visual Testing
c) Ultrasonic Testing d) Eddy Current Testing

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65. How creep is related to the strength of concrete?

a) Directly proportional b) Inversely proportional
c) Equal d) Similar

66. If the value of limiting moment of resistance is Mu,lim = 298 kNm for a singly reinforced
rectangular beam of cross section 300 mm  600 mm with M20 Grade of concrete and Fe 415
grade of steel is used, what will be the value of limiting moment of resistance for singly
reinforced beam of cross section 300 mm  450 mm for the same grade of concrete and steel.
a) 125.2 kNm b) 223.5 kNm c) 167.6 kNm d)100.3 kNm

67. The dominant mode of failure of an over-reinforced concrete beam is

a) Yielding of reinforcement b) Crushing of concrete
c) Bond failure d) Shear failure

68. Development length of 16 mm diameter reinforcement bar is 82.1 mm for M20 grade of
concrete. The development length of 20 mm diameter reinforcement for the same grade of
concrete is _________.
a) 65.68 mm b) 64.9 mm c) 128.2 mm d) 102.62 mm

69. The minimum and maximum reinforcement in percentage for RCC columns is ________.
a) 0.8 and 4 b) 0.4 and 8 c) 0.4 and 0.6 d) 0.8 and 6

70. The maximum moment per unit width in a RCC slab are given by _______ where lx and ly are
lengths of shorter span and longer span respectively.
a) M x   x  lx2 and M y   y ly2 b) M x   x  ly2 and M y   y lx2
c) M x  M y   ω l 2 d) M x   x  lx2 and M y   y lx2

71. In a three phase system of soil, Relative Density (ID) is defined as

e e e e e e
a) I D  max min b) I D  max c) I D  min d) I D 
emax  e emax  emin emax emax

72. As per Indian standard soil classification system, the group symbol CH is used for
a) Organic silt and clay of high plasticity
b) Inorganic silt of high plasticity
c) Organic class of high plasticity
d) Inorganic clays of high plasticity

73. A coarse grained soil has a voids ratio of 0.78 and specific gravity of 2.67. The critical gradient
at which quick sand condition will occur is
a) 2.06 b) 2.14 c) 0.94 d) 1.0

74. Unconfined compression test can be conducted for

a) Purely cohesive soils b) Cohesionless soils
c) Gravels d) Soft Rock

75. Unit of coefficient of consolidation can be expressed as

a) kN-m/min b) m2/min c) m2/kN d) kN/m2

76. What is the coefficient of friction needed if no super elevation is provided for a horizontal
circular curve of radius 190 m and design speed of 65 kmph
a) 0.155 b) 0.165 c) 0.175 d) 0.185
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77. What is the minimum length of overtaking zone for a design speed of 96 kmph assuming
acceleration as 0.69 m/s2, reaction time as 2 sec and traffic road as one way?
a) 342 m b) 648 m c) 1026 m d) 1710 m

78. Bitumen grade 80/100 indicates that under the standard test conditions, penetration value of
bitumen would vary from
a) 0.8 mm to 1 mm b) 8 mm to 10 mm
c) 8 cm to 10 cm d) 0.08 mm to 0.1 mm

79. Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of aircraft?
a) Apron b) Hanger c) Terminal building d) Holding Apron

80. The function of an expansion joint in rigid pavements is to

a) Relieve Warping Stresses b) Relieve Shrinkage Stresses
c) Resist stresses due to expansion d) Allow free expansion

81. A crop requires a total depth of 92 cm of water for a base period of 120 days. What is the duty
of water?
a) 1230 Ha/cumec b) 1127 Ha/cumec
c) 1068 Ha/cumec d) 943 Ha/cumec

82. An irrigation canal, freely flowing under drainage channel is called a

a) an aqueduct b) a super passage
c) a level crossing d) syphon

83. The bed level of a canal and the high flood level of a drain at their crossing point are
respectively 216 m and 214 m. What kind of cross drainage work is constructed?
a) Super passage b) Siphon
c) Aqueduct d) Syphon aqueduct

84 A reservoir, extending 20 km upstream and having a design wind velocity of 100 km/hour, a
gravity dam should be provided with a free board of
a) 1.2 m b) 1.6 m c) 2.5 m d) 3 m

85. The most preferred soil for the central impervious core of a zoned embankment type of earth
dam is
a) highly impervious clay b) highly pervious gravel
c) course sand d) clay mixed with fine sand

86. A double U type butt weld is used to connect two plates 180 mm  18 mm each a moment of
14 kNm is acting. Effective throat thickness of weld = 18 mm. For Fe 410 steel, fu = 410 MPa,
fy = 250 MPa, fyw = 250 MPa. The amount of stress developed will be
a) 145.819 MPa b) 1441.338 MPa
c) 144.027 MPa d) 1440.329 MPa

87. Two equal angles 150  150  10 mm connected back to back on same side of gusset plate
acting as a strut in truss. Ag = 2921 mm2 for each angle and Ixx = Iyy = 633.5  104 mm4. The
distance of the centroid from face Cx = C y = 40.8 mm the minimum radius of gyration is
a) 93.2 mm b) 62.7 mm
c) 46.57 mm d) 29.8 mm

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88. For bolts of property class 8.8 conforming to IS:1367 (part 6), respective ultimate tensile
strength and yield strength will be
a) 800 MPa and 480 MPa b) 640 MPa and 800 MPa
c) 800 MPa and 640 MPa d) 800 MPa and 560 MPa

89. A bracket plate connected to a column flange transmits a load of 100 kN as shown in the figure.
The maximum force for which the bolts should be designed is _______kN.

a) 156.20 b) 145.20 c) 256.20 d) None of these

90. What is the bolt valve of 18 mm diameter bolt connecting 10 mm plate in single shear?
Permissible stresses for bolts in shear and bearing are 80 MPa and 250 MPa respectively.
a) 23981.8 N b) 22981.8 N
c) 23891.8 N d) 21981.8 N

91. Which of the following method is used to forecast the population of new and rapidly increasing
city?
a) Arithmetic increase method b) Geometrical progression method
c) Graphical method d) Incremental increase method

92. Methemoglobinemia (Blue baby disease) may be caused in infants due to drinking water,
containing higher concentration of:
a) nitrites b) nitrates
c) lead d) arsenic

93. The process which involves chlorination beyond break point chlorination is known as:
a) Prechlorination b) Supper chlorination
c) Post chlorination d) Dechlorination

94. The appropriate percentage of water and solids present in sewage respectively are
a) 90% + 10% b) 99% + 1%
c) 95% + 5% d) 99.9% + 0.1%

95. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) of sewage is the

a) Oxygen required to oxidized biologically active organic matter
b) Oxygen required to oxidized biologically inactive organic matter
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

96. If bearing of AB = 40, bearing of BC = 300, then ABC =

a) 80 b) 100 c) 260 d) 180

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97. When the staff is held on a BM of RL 100.000, the staff reading was 2.000 when the staff is
held on station P, the reading was 3.000. Hence height of the instrument is
a) 100.000 b) 102.000
c) 103.000 d) 99.000

98. In a theodolite the line of collimation is

a) Parallel to axis of plate levels
b) Parallel to the vertical axis
c) Perpendicular to the trunnion axis
d) Parallel to the horizontal axis

99. Point of tangency is the

a) Beginning of the curve
b) End of the curve
c) Common point where the radius changes
d) Common point where the radius and direction changes

100. A total station is a combination of

a) EDM and Theodolite
b) Compass and EDM
c) Electronic Theodolite and EDM
d) EDM and electronic compass

VER-A : CV 10 of 10

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VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : B

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Civil Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.

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PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. What is a complementary event for “At least one head appears” if two coins are tossed
simultaneously?
a) Exactly one head appears b) Atleast one tail appears
c) Atmost one tail appears d) None head appears

2. A bag contains 7 Red and 4 Blue Balls. Two Balls are drawn at random with replacement. The
probability of getting the Balls of different colors is :
a) 28/121 b) 56/121 c) ½ d) None of the above

3. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting atleast one head?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4

4. What are Independent Events?

a) If the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another
b) If the outcome of one event affects the outcome of another
c) Any one of the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another.
d) Any one of the outcome of one event does affect the outcome of another

5. In class, 30% of students study Hindi, 45% study Maths and 15% study Both Hindi and Maths.
If a student is randomly selected, what is the probability that he/she study Hindi and Maths?
a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7

6. The normal distribution

a) Mean = Variance = 1 b) Standard deviation = Variance = 0
c) Mean = 0 , Variance = 1 d) Mean = Standard deviation

7. The shape of normal distribution curve

a) Bell shaped b) Flat c) Circular d) Spilled

8. In a Binomial distribution, if ‘n’ is the number of trials and ‘p’ is the probability success, then
the mean value is
a) np b) n c) p d) np (1-p)

9. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is

a) (sqrt{m}) b) m2 c) m d) m/2

10. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is

a) n* K / N-1 b) n* K-1 / N c) n-1* K / N d) n* K / N

11. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA

a) Describe those groups that have reliable difference between group means
b) Set the critical value for the ‘F’ test (or Chi – Square)
c) Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred
d) None of these

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12. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to

a) The dependent variable b) The independent variable
c) Different levels of a treatment d) The critical value of F

13. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to

a) Experimental units b) Different levels of a factor
c) a factor d) Applying antibiotic to a wound

14. When conducting an ANOVA , F DATA will always fall within what range?
a) Between 0 and infinity b) Between 0 and 1
c) Between negative infinity and infinity d) Between 1 and infinity

15. In one way ANOVA which of the following is used within F – ratio as a measurement of the
variance F individual observations
a) SSE b) MSE c) MSRT d) None of the above

16. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is

a) The independent variable b) The dependent variable
c) Usually denoted by x d) Usually denoted by r

17. If the regression equation is equal to Y = 23.6 – 54.2x, then 23.6 is the ____ while – 54.2 is the
____ of the regression line.
a) Slope, intercept b) Slope, regression coefficient
c) Intercept , slope d) Radius, intercept

18. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model (one
independent variable).
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

19. Which of the following is not the part of the exploratory factor analysis process
a) Extracting factors
b) Determining the number of factors before the analysis.
c) Rotating the factors d) Refining and interpreting the factors

20. If a researcher wanted to determine which variable were associated with which factors she/he
would look at
a) Factor scores b) Factor loadings c) Factor d) Factor associations

21. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
a) National sample surveys b) Demographic health surveys
c) National family health surveys d) Census

22. Which one is called non – probability sampling?

a) Cluster sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Quota sampling

23. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement

a) Interval b) Ratio c) Nominal d) Ordinal

24. Absolute zero exists in

a) Ratio scale b) Interval scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale
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25. Which data is cheaper to collect?

a) Primary data b) Collective data c) New data d) Secondary data

26. After the data has been processed and analysed, the research process requires
a) Interpretation of data b) Presentation of data
c) Reporting of data d) Testing of data

27. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category names is
known as
a) Concurring b) Coding c) Coloring d) Segmentation

28. The most repeated value in the series is called as

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range

29. A study in statistics that helps to interpret the variability of data known as
a) Standard deviation b) The measure of central tendency
c) The measure of dispersion d) None of the above

30. For a frequency distribution of a variable X, mean = 32 and median = 30. The distribution is
a) Positive skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Mesokurtic d) Platykurtic

31. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is

a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Action Research d) Survey

32. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of

a) Qualitative Research b) Empirical Research
c) Analytical Research d) Fundamental Research

33. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is
a) Applied Research b) Descriptive Research
c) Evaluation Research d) Causal Research

34. The first step of Research process is

a) Research design b) Analysis of data
c) Review of literature d) Identification of research problem

35. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables

a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Survey d) Literature review

36. Choose the best answer, which is the most reliable source of information for your literature
review :
a) A TV documentary b) A Newspaper article
c) A peer reviewed research article d) A relevant chapter from a text book

37. Which literature review involves time line based collection of literature review
a) Narrative method b) Systematic method
c) Meta – analysis method of literature review
d) Meta – synthesis method of literature review.

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38. Narrative literature review method is also known as

a) Advanced method b) Scientific method
c) Traditional method d) Systematic method.

39. A review of the literature should sort out the information into a _____framework
a) Conceptual b) Selective c) Theoretical d) Universal

40. The internet should not be used for finding published literature
a) True b) False

41. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?

a) Judgemental sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling

42. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as

a) Non - random b) Probability c) Sampling error d) Random

43. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size

a) True b) False c) True to some extent d) None of the above

44. Population under research study is referred as

a) Standard Population b) Final Population
c) Infinite Population d) Target Population

45. The process of finding true but unknown value of population parameter is called as
a) Statistical inference b) Estimation
c) Guess d) Biased

46. Arrange the following steps in the process of hypothesis testing in proper sequence
A) Select the level of significance B) Setup null and alternative hypothesis
C) Establish the decision rule D) Performance computations
E) Select test statistics F) Draw conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) A, B, C, D, E, F b) A, B, E, D, C, F c) B, A, C, D, E, F d) B, A, E, C, D, F

47. Which among the following is non parametric statistics?

a) t - test b) F - test
c) 2 - test d) Spearman’s rank order correlation

48. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :

a) ‘ t’ test b) ‘F’ test c) X2 Chi – square test d) ‘z’ test

49. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she

a) Accepts null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejects null hypothesis when it is true
c) Accepts null hypothesis when it is true d) Rejects null hypothesis when it is false

50. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistic,
the test is called
a) One tailed b) Two tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

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PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Civil Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. Which of the following method is used to forecast the population of new and rapidly increasing
city?
a) Arithmetic increase method b) Geometrical progression method
c) Graphical method d) Incremental increase method

52. Methemoglobinemia (Blue baby disease) may be caused in infants due to drinking water,
containing higher concentration of:
a) nitrites b) nitrates
c) lead d) arsenic

53. The process which involves chlorination beyond break point chlorination is known as:
a) Prechlorination b) Supper chlorination
c) Post chlorination d) Dechlorination

54. The appropriate percentage of water and solids present in sewage respectively are
a) 90% + 10% b) 99% + 1%
c) 95% + 5% d) 99.9% + 0.1%

55. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) of sewage is the

a) Oxygen required to oxidized biologically active organic matter
b) Oxygen required to oxidized biologically inactive organic matter
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

56. If bearing of AB = 40, bearing of BC = 300, then ABC =

a) 80 b) 100 c) 260 d) 180

57. When the staff is held on a BM of RL 100.000, the staff reading was 2.000 when the staff is
held on station P, the reading was 3.000. Hence height of the instrument is
a) 100.000 b) 102.000
c) 103.000 d) 99.000

58. In a theodolite the line of collimation is

a) Parallel to axis of plate levels
b) Parallel to the vertical axis
c) Perpendicular to the trunnion axis
d) Parallel to the horizontal axis

59. Point of tangency is the

a) Beginning of the curve
b) End of the curve
c) Common point where the radius changes
d) Common point where the radius and direction changes
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60. A total station is a combination of

a) EDM and Theodolite
b) Compass and EDM
c) Electronic Theodolite and EDM
d) EDM and electronic compass

61. A crop requires a total depth of 92 cm of water for a base period of 120 days. What is the duty
of water?
a) 1230 Ha/cumec b) 1127 Ha/cumec
c) 1068 Ha/cumec d) 943 Ha/cumec

62. An irrigation canal, freely flowing under drainage channel is called a

a) an aqueduct b) a super passage
c) a level crossing d) syphon

63. The bed level of a canal and the high flood level of a drain at their crossing point are
respectively 216 m and 214 m. What kind of cross drainage work is constructed?
a) Super passage b) Siphon
c) Aqueduct d) Syphon aqueduct

64. A reservoir, extending 20 km upstream and having a design wind velocity of 100 km/hour, a
gravity dam should be provided with a free board of
a) 1.2 m b) 1.6 m c) 2.5 m d) 3 m

65. The most preferred soil for the central impervious core of a zoned embankment type of earth
dam is
a) highly impervious clay
b) highly pervious gravel
c) course sand
d) clay mixed with fine sand

66. A double U type butt weld is used to connect two plates 180 mm  18 mm each a moment of
14 kNm is acting. Effective throat thickness of weld = 18 mm. For Fe 410 steel, fu = 410 MPa,
fy = 250 MPa, fyw = 250 MPa. The amount of stress developed will be
a) 145.819 MPa b) 1441.338 MPa
c) 144.027 MPa d) 1440.329 MPa

67. Two equal angles 150  150  10 mm connected back to back on same side of gusset plate
acting as a strut in truss. Ag = 2921 mm2 for each angle and Ixx = Iyy = 633.5  104 mm4. The
distance of the centroid from face Cx = C y = 40.8 mm the minimum radius of gyration is
a) 93.2 mm b) 62.7 mm
c) 46.57 mm d) 29.8 mm

68. For bolts of property class 8.8 conforming to IS:1367 (part 6), respective ultimate tensile
strength and yield strength will be
a) 800 MPa and 480 MPa
b) 640 MPa and 800 MPa
c) 800 MPa and 640 MPa
d) 800 MPa and 560 MPa

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69. A bracket plate connected to a column flange transmits a load of 100 kN as shown in the figure.
The maximum force for which the bolts should be designed is _______kN.

a) 156.20 b) 145.20 c) 256.20 d) None of these

70. What is the bolt valve of 18 mm diameter bolt connecting 10 mm plate in single shear?
Permissible stresses for bolts in shear and bearing are 80 MPa and 250 MPa respectively.
a) 23981.8 N b) 22981.8 N
c) 23891.8 N d) 21981.8 N

71. Which one is not property of hard concrete?

a) Compression strength b) Tensile strength
c) Bond strength d) Workability

72. The higher creep value in fresh concrete results in

a) Higher relaxation of stress b) Lower relaxation of stress
c) Very lower relaxation of stress d) No relaxation of stress

73. The ability of special concrete to flow through congested reinforcement without segregation and
blocking is called
a) Rillability b) Flowability
c) Segregation resistance d) All of these

74. Which among the following is not a type of non-destructive testing?

a) Compression Test b) Visual Testing
c) Ultrasonic Testing d) Eddy Current Testing

75. How creep is related to the strength of concrete?

a) Directly proportional b) Inversely proportional
c) Equal d) Similar

76. If the value of limiting moment of resistance is Mu,lim = 298 kNm for a singly reinforced
rectangular beam of cross section 300 mm  600 mm with M20 Grade of concrete and Fe 415
grade of steel is used, what will be the value of limiting moment of resistance for singly
reinforced beam of cross section 300 mm  450 mm for the same grade of concrete and steel.
a) 125.2 kNm b) 223.5 kNm c) 167.6 kNm d)100.3 kNm

77. The dominant mode of failure of an over-reinforced concrete beam is

a) Yielding of reinforcement
b) Crushing of concrete
c) Bond failure
d) Shear failure

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78. Development length of 16 mm diameter reinforcement bar is 82.1 mm for M20 grade of
concrete. The development length of 20 mm diameter reinforcement for the same grade of
concrete is _________.
a) 65.68 mm b) 64.9 mm c) 128.2 mm d) 102.62 mm

79. The minimum and maximum reinforcement in percentage for RCC columns is ________.
a) 0.8 and 4 b) 0.4 and 8 c) 0.4 and 0.6 d) 0.8 and 6

80. The maximum moment per unit width in a RCC slab are given by _______ where lx and ly are
lengths of shorter span and longer span respectively.
a) M x   x  lx2 and M y   y ly2 b) M x   x  ly2 and M y   y lx2
c) M x  M y   ω l 2 d) M x   x  lx2 and M y   y lx2

81. Consider the structural system shown in figure under the action of weight W. All joints are
hinged. The properties of the members in terms of length (L), area (A) and the modulus of
Elasticity (E) are also given in the figure. Let L, A and E be 1 m, 0.05 m2 and 30  10 6 N/m2,
respectively, and W be 100 kN. Which one of the following gives the change in length of the
horizontal member QS?

a) Shortening = 0.0118 m b) Extension = 0.0118 m

c) Shortening = 0.0471 m d) Extension = 0.0471 m

82. What will be the magnitude of horizontal reaction at P of the truss shown in figure?

a) 56 kN b) 33.33 kN c) 42.43 kN d) 51.29 kN

83. Fixed End Moment (FEM)AB for the beam shown below is

a) 12.3 kNm b) 10.8 kNm c) 12.5 kNm d) 9.54 kNm

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84 A beam of span l is fixed at one end and simply supported at the other end. It carries a
uniformly distributed load of  per unit run over whole span. The reaction at simply supported
end will be
3 3 3 5
a) R  l b) R  l 2 c) R  l d) R  l
7 8 8 8

85. The kinematic indeterminancy of the plane truss shown in the figure is

a) 11 b) 8 c) 3 d) 0

86. A rectangular double bottom tank 12 m long and 10 m wide is full of sea water. Calculate the
head of water above the tank top if the load due to water pressure on the tank top is 9.6 MN.
The correct head is
a) 8.0 m b) 7.96 m c) 7.86 m d) None of these

87. The shape of the ship body below the designed water line depends upon
a) Water plane coefficient, Cw b) Mid ship section coefficient, Cm
c) Block coefficient, Cb d) All of these

88. G is the centre of gravity of a ship. M is the transverse meta centre. For a stable ship at sea for
small angle of hull.
a) G lies below M b) G lies above M
c) G coincides with M d) None of these

89. The water plane area of a ship is 1730 m2 when floating. Calculate the tonne per centimeter
immersion (TPC) of the ship. The correct answer is
a) 20.0 b) 18.0 c) 17.73 d) None of these

90. A ship is fitted with two stroke slow speed reversible diesel engine for giving propulsive power
to ship. The ship is fitted with
a) Fixed pitch propeller b) Controllable pitch propeller
c) Azipod propeller d) None of these

91. In a three phase system of soil, Relative Density (ID) is defined as

e e e e e e
a) I D  max min b) I D  max c) I D  min d) I D 
emax  e emax  emin emax emax

92. As per Indian standard soil classification system, the group symbol CH is used for
a) Organic silt and clay of high plasticity
b) Inorganic silt of high plasticity
c) Organic class of high plasticity
d) Inorganic clays of high plasticity

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93. A coarse grained soil has a voids ratio of 0.78 and specific gravity of 2.67. The critical gradient
at which quick sand condition will occur is
a) 2.06 b) 2.14 c) 0.94 d) 1.0

94. Unconfined compression test can be conducted for

a) Purely cohesive soils b) Cohesionless soils
c) Gravels d) Soft Rock

95. Unit of coefficient of consolidation can be expressed as

a) kN-m/min b) m2/min c) m2/kN d) kN/m2

96. What is the coefficient of friction needed if no super elevation is provided for a horizontal
circular curve of radius 190 m and design speed of 65 kmph
a) 0.155 b) 0.165 c) 0.175 d) 0.185

97. What is the minimum length of overtaking zone for a design speed of 96 kmph assuming
acceleration as 0.69 m/s2, reaction time as 2 sec and traffic road as one way?
a) 342 m b) 648 m c) 1026 m d) 1710 m

98. Bitumen grade 80/100 indicates that under the standard test conditions, penetration value of
bitumen would vary from
a) 0.8 mm to 1 mm b) 8 mm to 10 mm
c) 8 cm to 10 cm d) 0.08 mm to 0.1 mm

99. Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of aircraft?
a) Apron b) Hanger c) Terminal building d) Holding Apron

100. The function of an expansion joint in rigid pavements is to

a) Relieve Warping Stresses b) Relieve Shrinkage Stresses
c) Resist stresses due to expansion d) Allow free expansion

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VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : C

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Civil Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.

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PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?
a) Judgemental sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling

2. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as

a) Non - random b) Probability c) Sampling error d) Random

3. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size

a) True b) False c) True to some extent d) None of the above

4. Population under research study is referred as

a) Standard Population b) Final Population
c) Infinite Population d) Target Population

5. The process of finding true but unknown value of population parameter is called as
a) Statistical inference b) Estimation
c) Guess d) Biased

6. Arrange the following steps in the process of hypothesis testing in proper sequence
A) Select the level of significance B) Setup null and alternative hypothesis
C) Establish the decision rule D) Performance computations
E) Select test statistics F) Draw conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) A, B, C, D, E, F b) A, B, E, D, C, F c) B, A, C, D, E, F d) B, A, E, C, D, F

7. Which among the following is non parametric statistics?

a) t - test b) F - test
c) 2 - test d) Spearman’s rank order correlation

8. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :

a) ‘ t’ test b) ‘F’ test c) X2 Chi – square test d) ‘z’ test

9. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she

a) Accepts null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejects null hypothesis when it is true
c) Accepts null hypothesis when it is true d) Rejects null hypothesis when it is false

10. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistic,
the test is called
a) One tailed b) Two tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

11. What is a complementary event for “At least one head appears” if two coins are tossed
simultaneously?
a) Exactly one head appears b) Atleast one tail appears
c) Atmost one tail appears d) None head appears

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12. A bag contains 7 Red and 4 Blue Balls. Two Balls are drawn at random with replacement. The
probability of getting the Balls of different colors is :
a) 28/121 b) 56/121 c) ½ d) None of the above

13. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting atleast one head?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4

14. What are Independent Events?

a) If the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another
b) If the outcome of one event affects the outcome of another
c) Any one of the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another.
d) Any one of the outcome of one event does affect the outcome of another

15. In class, 30% of students study Hindi, 45% study Maths and 15% study Both Hindi and Maths.
If a student is randomly selected, what is the probability that he/she study Hindi and Maths?
a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7

16. The normal distribution

a) Mean = Variance = 1 b) Standard deviation = Variance = 0
c) Mean = 0 , Variance = 1 d) Mean = Standard deviation

17. The shape of normal distribution curve

a) Bell shaped b) Flat c) Circular d) Spilled

18. In a Binomial distribution, if ‘n’ is the number of trials and ‘p’ is the probability success, then
the mean value is
a) np b) n c) p d) np (1-p)

19. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is

a) (sqrt{m}) b) m2 c) m d) m/2

20. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is

a) n* K / N-1 b) n* K-1 / N c) n-1* K / N d) n* K / N

21. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA

a) Describe those groups that have reliable difference between group means
b) Set the critical value for the ‘F’ test (or Chi – Square)
c) Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred
d) None of these

22. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to

a) The dependent variable b) The independent variable
c) Different levels of a treatment d) The critical value of F

23. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to

a) Experimental units b) Different levels of a factor
c) a factor d) Applying antibiotic to a wound

24. When conducting an ANOVA , F DATA will always fall within what range?
a) Between 0 and infinity b) Between 0 and 1
c) Between negative infinity and infinity d) Between 1 and infinity
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25. In one way ANOVA which of the following is used within F – ratio as a measurement of the
variance F individual observations
a) SSE b) MSE c) MSRT d) None of the above

26. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is

a) The independent variable b) The dependent variable
c) Usually denoted by x d) Usually denoted by r

27. If the regression equation is equal to Y = 23.6 – 54.2x, then 23.6 is the ____ while – 54.2 is the
____ of the regression line.
a) Slope, intercept b) Slope, regression coefficient
c) Intercept , slope d) Radius, intercept

28. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model (one
independent variable).
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

29. Which of the following is not the part of the exploratory factor analysis process
a) Extracting factors
b) Determining the number of factors before the analysis.
c) Rotating the factors d) Refining and interpreting the factors

30. If a researcher wanted to determine which variable were associated with which factors she/he
would look at
a) Factor scores b) Factor loadings c) Factor d) Factor associations

31. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
a) National sample surveys b) Demographic health surveys
c) National family health surveys d) Census

32. Which one is called non – probability sampling?

a) Cluster sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Quota sampling

33. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement

a) Interval b) Ratio c) Nominal d) Ordinal

34. Absolute zero exists in

a) Ratio scale b) Interval scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale

35. Which data is cheaper to collect?

a) Primary data b) Collective data c) New data d) Secondary data

36. After the data has been processed and analysed, the research process requires
a) Interpretation of data b) Presentation of data
c) Reporting of data d) Testing of data

37. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category names is
known as
a) Concurring b) Coding c) Coloring d) Segmentation

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38. The most repeated value in the series is called as

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range

39. A study in statistics that helps to interpret the variability of data known as
a) Standard deviation b) The measure of central tendency
c) The measure of dispersion d) None of the above

40. For a frequency distribution of a variable X, mean = 32 and median = 30. The distribution is
a) Positive skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Mesokurtic d) Platykurtic

41. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is

a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Action Research d) Survey

42. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of

a) Qualitative Research b) Empirical Research
c) Analytical Research d) Fundamental Research

43. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is
a) Applied Research b) Descriptive Research
c) Evaluation Research d) Causal Research

44. The first step of Research process is

a) Research design b) Analysis of data
c) Review of literature d) Identification of research problem

45. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables

a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Survey d) Literature review

46. Choose the best answer, which is the most reliable source of information for your literature
review :
a) A TV documentary b) A Newspaper article
c) A peer reviewed research article d) A relevant chapter from a text book

47. Which literature review involves time line based collection of literature review
a) Narrative method b) Systematic method
c) Meta – analysis method of literature review
d) Meta – synthesis method of literature review.

48. Narrative literature review method is also known as

a) Advanced method b) Scientific method
c) Traditional method d) Systematic method.

49. A review of the literature should sort out the information into a _____framework
a) Conceptual b) Selective c) Theoretical d) Universal

50. The internet should not be used for finding published literature
a) True b) False

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PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Civil Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. In a three phase system of soil, Relative Density (ID) is defined as

e  emin e e e e
a) I D  max b) I D  max c) I D  min d) I D 
emax  e emax  emin emax emax

52. As per Indian standard soil classification system, the group symbol CH is used for
a) Organic silt and clay of high plasticity
b) Inorganic silt of high plasticity
c) Organic class of high plasticity
d) Inorganic clays of high plasticity

53. A coarse grained soil has a voids ratio of 0.78 and specific gravity of 2.67. The critical gradient
at which quick sand condition will occur is
a) 2.06 b) 2.14 c) 0.94 d) 1.0

54. Unconfined compression test can be conducted for

a) Purely cohesive soils b) Cohesionless soils
c) Gravels d) Soft Rock

55. Unit of coefficient of consolidation can be expressed as

a) kN-m/min b) m2/min c) m2/kN d) kN/m2

56. What is the coefficient of friction needed if no super elevation is provided for a horizontal
circular curve of radius 190 m and design speed of 65 kmph
a) 0.155 b) 0.165 c) 0.175 d) 0.185

57. What is the minimum length of overtaking zone for a design speed of 96 kmph assuming
acceleration as 0.69 m/s2, reaction time as 2 sec and traffic road as one way?
a) 342 m b) 648 m c) 1026 m d) 1710 m

58. Bitumen grade 80/100 indicates that under the standard test conditions, penetration value of
bitumen would vary from
a) 0.8 mm to 1 mm b) 8 mm to 10 mm
c) 8 cm to 10 cm d) 0.08 mm to 0.1 mm

59. Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of aircraft?
a) Apron b) Hanger c) Terminal building d) Holding Apron

60. The function of an expansion joint in rigid pavements is to

a) Relieve Warping Stresses b) Relieve Shrinkage Stresses
c) Resist stresses due to expansion d) Allow free expansion

61. Which of the following method is used to forecast the population of new and rapidly increasing
city?
a) Arithmetic increase method b) Geometrical progression method
c) Graphical method d) Incremental increase method
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62. Methemoglobinemia (Blue baby disease) may be caused in infants due to drinking water,
containing higher concentration of:
a) nitrites b) nitrates
c) lead d) arsenic

63. The process which involves chlorination beyond break point chlorination is known as:
a) Prechlorination b) Supper chlorination
c) Post chlorination d) Dechlorination

64. The appropriate percentage of water and solids present in sewage respectively are
a) 90% + 10% b) 99% + 1%
c) 95% + 5% d) 99.9% + 0.1%

65. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) of sewage is the

a) Oxygen required to oxidized biologically active organic matter
b) Oxygen required to oxidized biologically inactive organic matter
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

66. If bearing of AB = 40, bearing of BC = 300, then ABC =

a) 80 b) 100 c) 260 d) 180

67. When the staff is held on a BM of RL 100.000, the staff reading was 2.000 when the staff is
held on station P, the reading was 3.000. Hence height of the instrument is
a) 100.000 b) 102.000
c) 103.000 d) 99.000

68. In a theodolite the line of collimation is

a) Parallel to axis of plate levels
b) Parallel to the vertical axis
c) Perpendicular to the trunnion axis
d) Parallel to the horizontal axis

69. Point of tangency is the

a) Beginning of the curve
b) End of the curve
c) Common point where the radius changes
d) Common point where the radius and direction changes

70. A total station is a combination of

a) EDM and Theodolite
b) Compass and EDM
c) Electronic Theodolite and EDM
d) EDM and electronic compass

71. A crop requires a total depth of 92 cm of water for a base period of 120 days. What is the duty
of water?
a) 1230 Ha/cumec b) 1127 Ha/cumec
c) 1068 Ha/cumec d) 943 Ha/cumec

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72. An irrigation canal, freely flowing under drainage channel is called a

a) an aqueduct b) a super passage
c) a level crossing d) syphon

73. The bed level of a canal and the high flood level of a drain at their crossing point are
respectively 216 m and 214 m. What kind of cross drainage work is constructed?
a) Super passage b) Siphon
c) Aqueduct d) Syphon aqueduct

74. A reservoir, extending 20 km upstream and having a design wind velocity of 100 km/hour, a
gravity dam should be provided with a free board of
a) 1.2 m b) 1.6 m c) 2.5 m d) 3 m

75. The most preferred soil for the central impervious core of a zoned embankment type of earth
dam is
a) highly impervious clay b) highly pervious gravel
c) course sand d) clay mixed with fine sand

76. A double U type butt weld is used to connect two plates 180 mm  18 mm each a moment of
14 kNm is acting. Effective throat thickness of weld = 18 mm. For Fe 410 steel, fu = 410 MPa,
fy = 250 MPa, fyw = 250 MPa. The amount of stress developed will be
a) 145.819 MPa b) 1441.338 MPa
c) 144.027 MPa d) 1440.329 MPa

77. Two equal angles 150  150  10 mm connected back to back on same side of gusset plate
acting as a strut in truss. Ag = 2921 mm2 for each angle and Ixx = Iyy = 633.5  104 mm4. The
distance of the centroid from face Cx = C y = 40.8 mm the minimum radius of gyration is
a) 93.2 mm b) 62.7 mm
c) 46.57 mm d) 29.8 mm

78. For bolts of property class 8.8 conforming to IS:1367 (part 6), respective ultimate tensile
strength and yield strength will be
a) 800 MPa and 480 MPa b) 640 MPa and 800 MPa
c) 800 MPa and 640 MPa d) 800 MPa and 560 MPa

79. A bracket plate connected to a column flange transmits a load of 100 kN as shown in the figure.
The maximum force for which the bolts should be designed is _______kN.

a) 156.20 b) 145.20 c) 256.20 d) None of these

80. What is the bolt valve of 18 mm diameter bolt connecting 10 mm plate in single shear?
Permissible stresses for bolts in shear and bearing are 80 MPa and 250 MPa respectively.
a) 23981.8 N b) 22981.8 N
c) 23891.8 N d) 21981.8 N

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81. Which one is not property of hard concrete?

a) Compression strength b) Tensile strength
c) Bond strength d) Workability

82. The higher creep value in fresh concrete results in

a) Higher relaxation of stress b) Lower relaxation of stress
c) Very lower relaxation of stress d) No relaxation of stress

83. The ability of special concrete to flow through congested reinforcement without segregation and
blocking is called
a) Rillability b) Flowability
c) Segregation resistance d) All of these

84 Which among the following is not a type of non-destructive testing?

a) Compression Test b) Visual Testing
c) Ultrasonic Testing d) Eddy Current Testing

85. How creep is related to the strength of concrete?

a) Directly proportional b) Inversely proportional
c) Equal d) Similar

86. If the value of limiting moment of resistance is Mu,lim = 298 kNm for a singly reinforced
rectangular beam of cross section 300 mm  600 mm with M20 Grade of concrete and Fe 415
grade of steel is used, what will be the value of limiting moment of resistance for singly
reinforced beam of cross section 300 mm  450 mm for the same grade of concrete and steel.
a) 125.2 kNm b) 223.5 kNm
c) 167.6 kNm d)100.3 kNm

87. The dominant mode of failure of an over-reinforced concrete beam is

a) Yielding of reinforcement b) Crushing of concrete
c) Bond failure d) Shear failure

88. Development length of 16 mm diameter reinforcement bar is 82.1 mm for M20 grade of
concrete. The development length of 20 mm diameter reinforcement for the same grade of
concrete is _________.
a) 65.68 mm b) 64.9 mm
c) 128.2 mm d) 102.62 mm

89. The minimum and maximum reinforcement in percentage for RCC columns is ________.
a) 0.8 and 4 b) 0.4 and 8
c) 0.4 and 0.6 d) 0.8 and 6

90. The maximum moment per unit width in a RCC slab are given by _______ where lx and ly are
lengths of shorter span and longer span respectively.
a) M x   x  lx2 and M y   y ly2
b) M x   x  ly2 and M y   y  lx2
c) M x  M y   ω l 2
d) M x   x  lx2 and M y   y lx2

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91. Consider the structural system shown in figure under the action of weight W. All joints are
hinged. The properties of the members in terms of length (L), area (A) and the modulus of
Elasticity (E) are also given in the figure. Let L, A and E be 1 m, 0.05 m2 and 30  10 6 N/m2,
respectively, and W be 100 kN. Which one of the following gives the change in length of the
horizontal member QS?

a) Shortening = 0.0118 m b) Extension = 0.0118 m

c) Shortening = 0.0471 m d) Extension = 0.0471 m

92. What will be the magnitude of horizontal reaction at P of the truss shown in figure?

a) 56 kN b) 33.33 kN
c) 42.43 kN d) 51.29 kN

93. Fixed End Moment (FEM)AB for the beam shown below is

a) 12.3 kNm b) 10.8 kNm

c) 12.5 kNm d) 9.54 kNm

94. A beam of span l is fixed at one end and simply supported at the other end. It carries a
uniformly distributed load of  per unit run over whole span. The reaction at simply supported
end will be
3
a) R  l
7
3
b) R  l 2
8
3
c) R  l
8
5
d) R  l
8
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95. The kinematic indeterminancy of the plane truss shown in the figure is

a) 11 b) 8 c) 3 d) 0

96. A rectangular double bottom tank 12 m long and 10 m wide is full of sea water. Calculate the
head of water above the tank top if the load due to water pressure on the tank top is 9.6 MN.
The correct head is
a) 8.0 m b) 7.96 m c) 7.86 m d) None of these

97. The shape of the ship body below the designed water line depends upon
a) Water plane coefficient, Cw b) Mid ship section coefficient, Cm
c) Block coefficient, Cb d) All of these

98. G is the centre of gravity of a ship. M is the transverse meta centre. For a stable ship at sea for
small angle of hull.
a) G lies below M b) G lies above M
c) G coincides with M d) None of these

99. The water plane area of a ship is 1730 m2 when floating. Calculate the tonne per centimeter
immersion (TPC) of the ship. The correct answer is
a) 20.0 b) 18.0 c) 17.73 d) None of these

100. A ship is fitted with two stroke slow speed reversible diesel engine for giving propulsive power
to ship. The ship is fitted with
a) Fixed pitch propeller b) Controllable pitch propeller
c) Azipod propeller d) None of these

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VTU-ETR Seat No. Question Paper Version : D

Visvesvaraya Technological University, Belagavi

Eligibility Test for Research (VTU-ETR) Programmes
Ph.D./M.S. (Research) November – 2022
Civil Engineering
Time: 3 hrs. Max. Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES

1. Ensure that the question paper booklet issued to you is of your opted discipline.
2. If your name, ETR number, OMR No., branch and branch code are not already printed on
the OMR answer sheet, write them in clear handwriting in the space provided.
3. The question paper has 100 multiple choice questions. Each question carries one mark.
4. All the questions are compulsory.
5. Missing data, if any, may be suitably assumed.
6. There shall be no negative marking for wrong answers.
7. The examinees shall select the response which they want to mark/indicate on the response
sheet and shade/darken/blacken completely the inside area of the corresponding checkbox
bubble of circular or oval shape.
8. Candidates should use black ball point pen to shade the checkbox bubble so that it is fully
dark and the computer can detect without fail. Shading should be limited to the checkbox
bubble only.
9. Shading of multiple checkbox bubbles shall be treated as invalid answer.
10. Partial or incomplete shading/darkening of the bubble be avoided.
11. Use of whiteners/correction fluid to change the shaded/filled checkbox bubble to fill another
is prohibited.
12. Erasing of filled checkbox bubble/s to fill another is prohibited.
13. Any type of writing, scribbling etc., on the question paper and ticking the response of a
question/s are prohibited. Violation of this condition shall lead to disciplinary action like
debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet shall not be considered for
evaluation process.
14. Only non-programmable scientific calculator is permitted. Violation of this condition shall
lead to disciplinary action like debar from the examination. Also, the OMR answer sheet
shall not be considered for evaluation process.
15. Folding/crushing/mutilating of OMR sheet is not permitted.
16. Handover the OMR sheet to the Room Invigilator while leaving the examination hall.

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PART – I
(Research Methodology)
[50 MARKS]
1. What is the function of a post test in ANOVA
a) Describe those groups that have reliable difference between group means
b) Set the critical value for the ‘F’ test (or Chi – Square)
c) Determine if any statistically significant group differences have occurred
d) None of these

2. In ANOVA procedure ‘Factor’ refers to

a) The dependent variable b) The independent variable
c) Different levels of a treatment d) The critical value of F

3. In the ANOVA ‘treatment’ refers to

a) Experimental units b) Different levels of a factor
c) a factor d) Applying antibiotic to a wound

4. When conducting an ANOVA , F DATA will always fall within what range?
a) Between 0 and infinity b) Between 0 and 1
c) Between negative infinity and infinity d) Between 1 and infinity

5. In one way ANOVA which of the following is used within F – ratio as a measurement of the
variance F individual observations
a) SSE b) MSE c) MSRT d) None of the above

6. In regression analysis, the variable that is being predicted is

a) The independent variable b) The dependent variable
c) Usually denoted by x d) Usually denoted by r

7. If the regression equation is equal to Y = 23.6 – 54.2x, then 23.6 is the ____ while – 54.2 is the
____ of the regression line.
a) Slope, intercept b) Slope, regression coefficient
c) Intercept , slope d) Radius, intercept

8. How many coefficients do you need to estimate in a simple linear regression model (one
independent variable).
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4

9. Which of the following is not the part of the exploratory factor analysis process
a) Extracting factors
b) Determining the number of factors before the analysis.
c) Rotating the factors d) Refining and interpreting the factors

10. If a researcher wanted to determine which variable were associated with which factors she/he
would look at
a) Factor scores b) Factor loadings c) Factor d) Factor associations

11. Research conducted to solve an immediate problem is

a) Fundamental Research b) Analytical Research
c) Action Research d) Survey
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12. Research pertaining to pure mathematics or natural laws is the example of

a) Qualitative Research b) Empirical Research
c) Analytical Research d) Fundamental Research

13. Research to study the effect of certain Policies, Plans and Program is
a) Applied Research b) Descriptive Research
c) Evaluation Research d) Causal Research

14. The first step of Research process is

a) Research design b) Analysis of data
c) Review of literature d) Identification of research problem

15. Which of the following helps to compare two or more variables

a) Classification b) Tabulation c) Survey d) Literature review

16. Choose the best answer, which is the most reliable source of information for your literature
review :
a) A TV documentary b) A Newspaper article
c) A peer reviewed research article d) A relevant chapter from a text book

17. Which literature review involves time line based collection of literature review
a) Narrative method b) Systematic method
c) Meta – analysis method of literature review
d) Meta – synthesis method of literature review.

18. Narrative literature review method is also known as

a) Advanced method b) Scientific method
c) Traditional method d) Systematic method.

19. A review of the literature should sort out the information into a _____framework
a) Conceptual b) Selective c) Theoretical d) Universal

20. The internet should not be used for finding published literature
a) True b) False

21. What is a complementary event for “At least one head appears” if two coins are tossed
simultaneously?
a) Exactly one head appears b) Atleast one tail appears
c) Atmost one tail appears d) None head appears

22. A bag contains 7 Red and 4 Blue Balls. Two Balls are drawn at random with replacement. The
probability of getting the Balls of different colors is :
a) 28/121 b) 56/121 c) ½ d) None of the above

23. If two coins are tossed simultaneously, what is the probability of getting atleast one head?
a) 1/2 b) 1/3 c) 1/4 d) 3/4

24. What are Independent Events?

a) If the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another
b) If the outcome of one event affects the outcome of another
c) Any one of the outcome of one event does not affect the outcome of another.
d) Any one of the outcome of one event does affect the outcome of another
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25. In class, 30% of students study Hindi, 45% study Maths and 15% study Both Hindi and Maths.
If a student is randomly selected, what is the probability that he/she study Hindi and Maths?
a) 1/5 b) 3/5 c) 2/5 d) 2/7

26. The normal distribution

a) Mean = Variance = 1 b) Standard deviation = Variance = 0
c) Mean = 0 , Variance = 1 d) Mean = Standard deviation

27. The shape of normal distribution curve

a) Bell shaped b) Flat c) Circular d) Spilled

28. In a Binomial distribution, if ‘n’ is the number of trials and ‘p’ is the probability success, then
the mean value is
a) np b) n c) p d) np (1-p)

29. If ‘m’ is the Poisson distribution, the standard deviation is

a) (sqrt{m}) b) m2 c) m d) m/2

30. The mean of hypergeometric distribution is

a) n* K / N-1 b) n* K-1 / N c) n-1* K / N d) n* K / N

31. Which among the following is a probability sampling method?

a) Judgemental sampling b) Quota sampling
c) Simple random sampling d) Convenience sampling

32. The difference between a static and the parameters is called as

a) Non - random b) Probability c) Sampling error d) Random

33. Sampling error increases as we increases the sampling size

a) True b) False c) True to some extent d) None of the above

34. Population under research study is referred as

a) Standard Population b) Final Population
c) Infinite Population d) Target Population

35. The process of finding true but unknown value of population parameter is called as
a) Statistical inference b) Estimation
c) Guess d) Biased

36. Arrange the following steps in the process of hypothesis testing in proper sequence
A) Select the level of significance B) Setup null and alternative hypothesis
C) Establish the decision rule D) Performance computations
E) Select test statistics F) Draw conclusion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
a) A, B, C, D, E, F b) A, B, E, D, C, F c) B, A, C, D, E, F d) B, A, E, C, D, F

37. Which among the following is non parametric statistics?

a) t - test b) F - test
c) 2 - test d) Spearman’s rank order correlation

38. Which test is normally applied for qualitative data :

a) ‘ t’ test b) ‘F’ test c) X2 Chi – square test d) ‘z’ test
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39. An investigator commits Type – 1 error in testing hypothesis when he / she

a) Accepts null hypothesis when it is false b) Rejects null hypothesis when it is true
c) Accepts null hypothesis when it is true d) Rejects null hypothesis when it is false

40. If the critical region is located equally in both sides of the sampling distribution of test statistic,
the test is called
a) One tailed b) Two tailed c) Right tailed d) Left tailed

41. Which one among the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
a) National sample surveys b) Demographic health surveys
c) National family health surveys d) Census

42. Which one is called non – probability sampling?

a) Cluster sampling b) Systematic sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Quota sampling

43. Which scale is the simplest form of measurement

a) Interval b) Ratio c) Nominal d) Ordinal

44. Absolute zero exists in

a) Ratio scale b) Interval scale c) Nominal scale d) Ordinal scale

45. Which data is cheaper to collect?

a) Primary data b) Collective data c) New data d) Secondary data

46. After the data has been processed and analysed, the research process requires
a) Interpretation of data b) Presentation of data
c) Reporting of data d) Testing of data

47. The process of marking segments of data with symbols, descriptive words or category names is
known as
a) Concurring b) Coding c) Coloring d) Segmentation

48. The most repeated value in the series is called as

a) Mean b) Mode c) Median d) Range

49. A study in statistics that helps to interpret the variability of data known as
a) Standard deviation b) The measure of central tendency
c) The measure of dispersion d) None of the above

50. For a frequency distribution of a variable X, mean = 32 and median = 30. The distribution is
a) Positive skewed b) Negatively skewed c) Mesokurtic d) Platykurtic

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PART – II
Discipline Oriented Section
(Civil Engineering)
[50 MARKS]

51. A crop requires a total depth of 92 cm of water for a base period of 120 days. What is the duty
of water?
a) 1230 Ha/cumec b) 1127 Ha/cumec
c) 1068 Ha/cumec d) 943 Ha/cumec

52. An irrigation canal, freely flowing under drainage channel is called a

a) an aqueduct b) a super passage
c) a level crossing d) syphon

53. The bed level of a canal and the high flood level of a drain at their crossing point are
respectively 216 m and 214 m. What kind of cross drainage work is constructed?
a) Super passage b) Siphon
c) Aqueduct d) Syphon aqueduct

54. A reservoir, extending 20 km upstream and having a design wind velocity of 100 km/hour, a
gravity dam should be provided with a free board of
a) 1.2 m b) 1.6 m
c) 2.5 m d) 3 m

55. The most preferred soil for the central impervious core of a zoned embankment type of earth
dam is
a) highly impervious clay b) highly pervious gravel
c) course sand d) clay mixed with fine sand

56. A double U type butt weld is used to connect two plates 180 mm  18 mm each a moment of
14 kNm is acting. Effective throat thickness of weld = 18 mm. For Fe 410 steel, fu = 410 MPa,
fy = 250 MPa, fyw = 250 MPa. The amount of stress developed will be
a) 145.819 MPa b) 1441.338 MPa
c) 144.027 MPa d) 1440.329 MPa

57. Two equal angles 150  150  10 mm connected back to back on same side of gusset plate
acting as a strut in truss. Ag = 2921 mm2 for each angle and Ixx = Iyy = 633.5  104 mm4. The
distance of the centroid from face Cx = C y = 40.8 mm the minimum radius of gyration is
a) 93.2 mm b) 62.7 mm
c) 46.57 mm d) 29.8 mm

58. For bolts of property class 8.8 conforming to IS:1367 (part 6), respective ultimate tensile
strength and yield strength will be
a) 800 MPa and 480 MPa
b) 640 MPa and 800 MPa
c) 800 MPa and 640 MPa
d) 800 MPa and 560 MPa

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59. A bracket plate connected to a column flange transmits a load of 100 kN as shown in the figure.
The maximum force for which the bolts should be designed is _______kN.

a) 156.20 b) 145.20 c) 256.20 d) None of these

60. What is the bolt valve of 18 mm diameter bolt connecting 10 mm plate in single shear?
Permissible stresses for bolts in shear and bearing are 80 MPa and 250 MPa respectively.
a) 23981.8 N b) 22981.8 N
c) 23891.8 N d) 21981.8 N

61. Consider the structural system shown in figure under the action of weight W. All joints are
hinged. The properties of the members in terms of length (L), area (A) and the modulus of
Elasticity (E) are also given in the figure. Let L, A and E be 1 m, 0.05 m2 and 30  10 6 N/m2,
respectively, and W be 100 kN. Which one of the following gives the change in length of the
horizontal member QS?

a) Shortening = 0.0118 m b) Extension = 0.0118 m

c) Shortening = 0.0471 m d) Extension = 0.0471 m

62. What will be the magnitude of horizontal reaction at P of the truss shown in figure?

a) 56 kN b) 33.33 kN c) 42.43 kN d) 51.29 kN

63. Fixed End Moment (FEM)AB for the beam shown below is

a) 12.3 kNm b) 10.8 kNm c) 12.5 kNm d) 9.54 kNm

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64. A beam of span l is fixed at one end and simply supported at the other end. It carries a
uniformly distributed load of  per unit run over whole span. The reaction at simply supported
end will be
3 3 3 5
a) R  l b) R  l 2 c) R  l d) R  l
7 8 8 8

65. The kinematic indeterminancy of the plane truss shown in the figure is

a) 11 b) 8 c) 3 d) 0

66. A rectangular double bottom tank 12 m long and 10 m wide is full of sea water. Calculate the
head of water above the tank top if the load due to water pressure on the tank top is 9.6 MN.
The correct head is
a) 8.0 m b) 7.96 m c) 7.86 m d) None of these

67. The shape of the ship body below the designed water line depends upon
a) Water plane coefficient, Cw b) Mid ship section coefficient, Cm
c) Block coefficient, Cb d) All of these

68. G is the centre of gravity of a ship. M is the transverse meta centre. For a stable ship at sea for
small angle of hull.
a) G lies below M b) G lies above M
c) G coincides with M d) None of these

69. The water plane area of a ship is 1730 m2 when floating. Calculate the tonne per centimeter
immersion (TPC) of the ship. The correct answer is
a) 20.0 b) 18.0 c) 17.73 d) None of these

70. A ship is fitted with two stroke slow speed reversible diesel engine for giving propulsive power
to ship. The ship is fitted with
a) Fixed pitch propeller b) Controllable pitch propeller
c) Azipod propeller d) None of these

71. Which of the following method is used to forecast the population of new and rapidly increasing
city?
a) Arithmetic increase method b) Geometrical progression method
c) Graphical method d) Incremental increase method

72. Methemoglobinemia (Blue baby disease) may be caused in infants due to drinking water,
containing higher concentration of:
a) nitrites b) nitrates
c) lead d) arsenic

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73. The process which involves chlorination beyond break point chlorination is known as:
a) Prechlorination b) Supper chlorination
c) Post chlorination d) Dechlorination

74. The appropriate percentage of water and solids present in sewage respectively are
a) 90% + 10% b) 99% + 1%
c) 95% + 5% d) 99.9% + 0.1%

75. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) of sewage is the

a) Oxygen required to oxidized biologically active organic matter
b) Oxygen required to oxidized biologically inactive organic matter
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None of these

76. If bearing of AB = 40, bearing of BC = 300, then ABC =

a) 80 b) 100 c) 260 d) 180

77. When the staff is held on a BM of RL 100.000, the staff reading was 2.000 when the staff is
held on station P, the reading was 3.000. Hence height of the instrument is
a) 100.000 b) 102.000
c) 103.000 d) 99.000

78. In a theodolite the line of collimation is

a) Parallel to axis of plate levels
b) Parallel to the vertical axis
c) Perpendicular to the trunnion axis
d) Parallel to the horizontal axis

79. Point of tangency is the

a) Beginning of the curve
b) End of the curve
c) Common point where the radius changes
d) Common point where the radius and direction changes

80. A total station is a combination of

a) EDM and Theodolite
b) Compass and EDM
c) Electronic Theodolite and EDM
d) EDM and electronic compass

81. In a three phase system of soil, Relative Density (ID) is defined as

e  emin e e e e
a) I D  max b) I D  max c) I D  min d) I D 
emax  e emax  emin emax emax

82. As per Indian standard soil classification system, the group symbol CH is used for
a) Organic silt and clay of high plasticity
b) Inorganic silt of high plasticity
c) Organic class of high plasticity
d) Inorganic clays of high plasticity
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83. A coarse grained soil has a voids ratio of 0.78 and specific gravity of 2.67. The critical gradient
at which quick sand condition will occur is
a) 2.06 b) 2.14 c) 0.94 d) 1.0

84 Unconfined compression test can be conducted for

a) Purely cohesive soils b) Cohesionless soils
c) Gravels d) Soft Rock

85. Unit of coefficient of consolidation can be expressed as

a) kN-m/min b) m2/min c) m2/kN d) kN/m2

86. What is the coefficient of friction needed if no super elevation is provided for a horizontal
circular curve of radius 190 m and design speed of 65 kmph
a) 0.155 b) 0.165 c) 0.175 d) 0.185

87. What is the minimum length of overtaking zone for a design speed of 96 kmph assuming
acceleration as 0.69 m/s2, reaction time as 2 sec and traffic road as one way?
a) 342 m b) 648 m c) 1026 m d) 1710 m

88. Bitumen grade 80/100 indicates that under the standard test conditions, penetration value of
bitumen would vary from
a) 0.8 mm to 1 mm b) 8 mm to 10 mm
c) 8 cm to 10 cm d) 0.08 mm to 0.1 mm

89. Which of the following is used for servicing and repairs of aircraft?
a) Apron b) Hanger c) Terminal building d) Holding Apron

90. The function of an expansion joint in rigid pavements is to

a) Relieve Warping Stresses b) Relieve Shrinkage Stresses
c) Resist stresses due to expansion d) Allow free expansion

91. Which one is not property of hard concrete?

a) Compression strength b) Tensile strength
c) Bond strength d) Workability

92. The higher creep value in fresh concrete results in

a) Higher relaxation of stress b) Lower relaxation of stress
c) Very lower relaxation of stress d) No relaxation of stress

93. The ability of special concrete to flow through congested reinforcement without segregation and
blocking is called
a) Rillability b) Flowability
c) Segregation resistance d) All of these

94. Which among the following is not a type of non-destructive testing?

a) Compression Test b) Visual Testing
c) Ultrasonic Testing d) Eddy Current Testing

95. How creep is related to the strength of concrete?

a) Directly proportional b) Inversely proportional
c) Equal d) Similar

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96. If the value of limiting moment of resistance is Mu,lim = 298 kNm for a singly reinforced
rectangular beam of cross section 300 mm  600 mm with M20 Grade of concrete and Fe 415
grade of steel is used, what will be the value of limiting moment of resistance for singly
reinforced beam of cross section 300 mm  450 mm for the same grade of concrete and steel.
a) 125.2 kNm b) 223.5 kNm c) 167.6 kNm d)100.3 kNm

97. The dominant mode of failure of an over-reinforced concrete beam is

a) Yielding of reinforcement b) Crushing of concrete
c) Bond failure d) Shear failure

98. Development length of 16 mm diameter reinforcement bar is 82.1 mm for M20 grade of
concrete. The development length of 20 mm diameter reinforcement for the same grade of
concrete is _________.
a) 65.68 mm b) 64.9 mm c) 128.2 mm d) 102.62 mm

99. The minimum and maximum reinforcement in percentage for RCC columns is ________.
a) 0.8 and 4 b) 0.4 and 8 c) 0.4 and 0.6 d) 0.8 and 6

100. The maximum moment per unit width in a RCC slab are given by _______ where lx and ly are
lengths of shorter span and longer span respectively.
a) M x   x  lx2 and M y   y ly2 b) M x   x  ly2 and M y   y lx2
c) M x  M y   ω l 2 d) M x   x  lx2 and M y   y lx2

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