AMICI REVIEW CENTER

1000 STARS

CLJ

1. Genetic information derived from DNA testing of a biological sample obtained

from a person which biological sample is clearly identifiable as originating from
that person?
A. DNA Evidence
B. DNA Profile
C. DNA Testing
D. DNA Fingerprinting

2. What term describes the crime wherein a person sends email with a claim to
being part of a legitimate transaction to influence the recipient into divulging
personal information?
a. Phishing scams
b. Information fraud
c. Identity theft
d. Computer fraud

3. One type of robbery is robbery with force upon things and the other is robbery
with:
a. Force upon persons
b. Violence upon things
c. Intimidation of persons
d. Violence against person

4. RA 3019 also known as the “Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act”. The
government employee salary grade less than 27 shall be filed in ________.
a. Municipal Trial Court
b. Municipal Circuit Trial Court
c. Regional Trial Court
d. Sandiganbayan – salary grade 27 and above

5. The following are considered grave felony EXCEPT.

a. Reclusion Perpetua
b. Death Penalty
c. Prison Correccional
d. Prision Mayor

6. Despite due diligence and without intention to commit a crime and without
fault, the act of DWIGHT resulted to physical injuries against the person of
RAMOS, what is the applicable modifying circumstance in the case?
a. Exempting - Accident
b. Aggravating
c. Alternative
d. Mitigating

7. Exclusion of evidence simply means (August 2023, CLE) 3X LUMABAS

a. That witness not subject for examination should be excluded from the court.
b. That evidence obtained unlawfully shall be excluded by the court and not
admitted.
c. That evidence which are testimonial but objectionable shall be excluded.
d. That witness not subject for examination should be excluded from the court.

8. KAI in the commission of the crime of murder against SOTTO, ensured that Erika
cannot retaliate or cause harm against the former, what is the applicable
modifying circumstance?
a. Exempting
b. Aggravating
c. Alternative
d. Mitigating

9. After the decision was rendered by the court disposing of the case, which of the
following remedies allow the presentation of new evidence? (August 2023, CLE)
2X LUMABAS
a. Motion for reconsideration
b. Motion for new trial
c. Notice of appeal
d. Petition for review

10. When fire is used with the intent to kill a particular person who may be in a
house and that objective is attained by burning the house, the crime is:
a. Arson
b. Arson with Homicide
c. Murder
d. Murder with Arson

11. If all pieces of evidence (exhibits) presented before the court by the
prosecution are in dubious or cannot produce conviction, as counsel of the
accused, what must do?
a. File motion to quash
b. The court must decide in favor of the accused
c. File demurrer to evidence
d. File application for probation

12. Gina directly acknowledged that there are 24 hours in a day. (August 2023, CLE
2X LUMABAS)
a. Admission
b. Confession
c. Testimony
d. Judicial Notice

13. What is the other term for Similar Acts as Evidence Rule?
a. Res Inter Alios Acta #1
b. Res Inter Alios Acta #2
c. Previous Conduct
d. Similar Acts

14. Evidence having any value in reason as tending to prove any matter provable
in an action?
a. Positive Evidence
b. Relevant Evidence
c. Competent Evidence
d. Prima Facie Evidence

15. The proof of fact or facts from which, taken either singly or collectively, the
existence of the particular fact in dispute may be inferred as a necessary or
provable consequence?
a. Material Evidence
b. Relevant Evidence
c. Circumstantial Evidence
d. Testimonial Evidence

16. When a witness states he did not see or know the occurrence of a fact?
a. Positive Evidence – a fact did or did not see or occur
b. Negative Evidence
c. Relevant Evidence
d. Irrelevant Evidence

17. A rule of evidence that excludes evidence obtained in violation of one’s

constitutional rights or obtained through illegal means, such as those obtained by
tortures and the like.
a. Exculpatory Rule
b. Exclusionary Rule
c. Fruit of Poisonous Tree
d. Not excluded by constitution

18. Refers to a movement which seeks merely to affect some changes of minor
importance to prevent the exercise of governmental authority with respect to
particular matters or subjects.
a. Rebellion
b. Insurrection
c. Treason
d. Sedition

19. Under the law, what agency that is empowered to order the change of venue
or place of trial in order to prevent the miscarriage of justice?
a. Regional Trial Court
b. DOJ
c. Supreme Court
d. Executive Judge

20. The illness of the offender must diminish the exercise of his willpower.
a. Exempting Circumstances
b. Mitigating Circumstances
c. Alternative Circumstances
d. Justifying Circumstances
21. Organized crime groups are usually successful on its illegal operations because
most of the time they have deeper connections with?
a. Underground Operatives
b. Government Officials
c. Private Entrepreneurs
d. Terrorism

22. The following are elements of Attempted Stage in the commission of the
crime, EXCEPT?
a. The offender commences the felony directly by overt acts
b. Does not perform all acts which would produce the felony
c. By reason of causes independent of the will of the perpetrator
d. His acts are not stopped by his own spontaneous desistance

23. Who among the following is a person in authority?

a. Policeman
b. Barangay Captain
c. MMDA Enforcer
d. Barangay Tanod

24. A, B and C are prison guards who escorted D in attending a court hearing in
Manila City. Arriving too early in the courtroom A and B went to a nearby
restaurant to have coffee. When D was being watched by C only. D and his cohorts
succeeded in escaping. The said prison guards can be held liable for what crime?
a. Conniving with prisoner
b. Consenting to evasion
c. Illegal Break Time
d. Evasion through negligence

25. Dwight is a friend of Ramos. Dwight has heated argument with Ramos, while
arguing he suddenly stabbed him to death. Afterwards, he burned the body of
Ramos. What was the crime committed?
a. Murder
b. Arson and Murder
c. Arson with Homicide
d. Arson
26. Eleazar saw Ace with an angry expression on his face while holding a firearm
moving towards his direction. When Ace was already near him, Eleazar picked up
a 2x2 hard wood and hit Ace on both his arms, resulting to the injuries to the
latter. It was revealed during the investigation that ACE is without bad intention
against Eleazar. Eleazar was charged for serious physical injuries. The situation fits
the principle of?
a. Mistake in identity
b. Mistake in the blow
c. Mistake of facts
d. Ignorance of the law

27. Kai burned the house of Dwight without knowing that he is inside and died as
a result. Kai is liable for?
a. Murder
b. Arson
c. Arson and Murder
d. Arson with Homicide

28. Eleazar father of Duterte sold the cellphone to Cardo knowing it is from the
theft. Eleazar is liable for?
a. Accomplice
b. Accessory
c. Principal
d. Fencing

29. A with intimidation pointed the knife to B to get the latter’s jewelry. Upon
evading from the former by driving his motorcycle, accidentally bumped and hit
his wife resulting to the death of the latter. What crime is committed by A?
a. Robbery with Parricide
b. Robbery
c. Robbery with Homicide
d. Robbery and Murder

30. Exclusion of evidence simply means _______ (August 2023, CLE 3X Lumabas)
a. That evidence obtained unlawfully shall be excluded by the court and not
admitted
b. That evidence which are testimonial but objectionable shall be excluded
c. That witness not subject for examination should be excluded from the court
d. All of these

31. They are immune under GENERAL characteristics of our criminal law except?
a. Japanese military permit to march in our Philippine territory
b. Police and Military
c. Head of State
d. Ambassador

32. Which of the following are the elements of abandoning a minor?

I. That the offender has the custody of the child
II. That the child is under 7 years of age
III. That he abandons such child
IV. That he has no intent to kill the child when the latter is abandoned

a. I, II, III
b. I, III, IV
c. II, III, IV
d. I, II, III, IV

33. Which are elements of defamation?

I. There must be imputation of a crime, or of a vice or defect, real or imaginary.
II. That the imputation must be made publicly
III. That it must be malicious

a. I and II
b. I and III
c. I, II, III
d. I and II

34. Accident is a circumstance that affects criminal liability is a kind of ________.

a. Justifying Circumstance
b. Exempting Circumstance
c. Mitigating Circumstance
d. Aggravating Circumstance

35. Avoidance of greater evil or injury is a kind of ______.

a. Alternative Circumstance
b. Exempting Circumstance
c. Justifying Circumstance
d. Mitigating Circumstance

36. A police officer entered the house of another. There is a no express or

implied signage. When can the police officer be liable for violation of domicile?
A. He will be liable only once the owner noticed his entry without consent.
B. He will not be liable unless told to leave by the owner of the house but refused
to do so.
C. He will be liable once the owner ask him to leave and the former refused to
leave
D. The police officer will be liable the very moment of his/her entry

37. A police officer entered the house of another. There is a signage prohibiting
anyone to enter without the permission of the owner. When can the police
officer be liable for violation of domicile?
A. He will not be liable unless told to leave by the owner of the house.
B. The police officer will be liable the very moment of his/her entry
C. He will be liable only once the owner noticed his entry without consent
D. He will be liable unless the owner gives his consent once discovered

38. Preliminary investigation is required in those criminal cases where the

penalty provided by law for the offense charged is
__________________________.
a. over 6 years imprisonment regardless of the amount of fine
b. exceeding 6 years imprisonment irrespective of the amount of fine
c. at least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day of imprisonment irrespective of the
amount of fine
d. at least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day of imprisonment but depending on the of
the amount of fine

39. To constitute as a crime of Kidnapping and Serious Illegal Detention, one of

the elements is that the offender must kidnap or detain the offended person for
_____.
A. more than 3 days
B. 3days or less
C. at least 3 days
D. 3 days

40. The person is suspected of committing a crime which is punishable by

imprisonment of at least 4 years, 2 months and 1 day. The person was not
subject to warrantless arrest. How will you proceed with the case?
A. Report the matter to my superior and let them decide what to do with the
situation.
B. Exert effort to arrest a person even without a warrant for the commission of a
crimes
C. File a direct complaint with the prosecutor’s office for inquest proceedings.
D. File a direct complaint with prosecutor’s office for preliminary investigation

41. What type of evidence that has a mass?

a. Physical
b. Testimonial
c. Prima Facie
d. Circumstantial

42. Carlo a private individual detains Rica a woman for 2 days without a lawful
cause. What was the crime committed by Carlo?
A. Kidnapping or Illegal Detention – eto ginagamit ni Atty. Gabao sa actual board
B. Kidnapping
C. Illegal Detention
D. Arbitrary Detention

43. The form of evidence that is subject to the senses of the court is _______.
a. Physical
b. Object
c. Real
d. All of these

44. Uncle/Auntie killed his/her nephew, what crime is committed?

a. Parricide
b. Infanticide
c. Not liable for infanticide
d. Not liable for murder
45. The remedy to a duplicitous information is to file a motion to quash:
a. before arraignment
b. after arraignment
c. before and after arraignment
d. during arraignment

46. After the prosecution rested its case, the accused filed a demurrer to
evidence. Would double jeopardy be a valid defense if he is charged again with
the same offense?
A. Yes, because the dismissal is tantamount to acquittal.
B. Yes, the case was not terminated on its own merits.
C. No, because the dismissal is with his consent or upon his own motion.
D. No, The case was not terminated on its merits hence double jeopardy is not a
valid defense.

47. After the prosecution rests its case, the accused person may move for the
dismissal of the case through:
a. on its own initiative after giving the prosecution an opportunity to be heard.
b. Demurrer to evidence
c. motion for reconsideration
d. motion for new trial

48. What pillars of the Criminal Justice System where justice is started, and the
other pillars do not function without it being started?
a. Law Enforcement
b. Prosecution
c. Courts
d. Corrections

49. The crime committed is punishable by imprisonment of 4 years, 2 months and

less. The crime was committed in the province. Where the complaint should be
filed in order to initiate the crime action?
a. May file the complaint directly with the Municipal Trial Court
b. At the police station for warrantless arrest and Inquest proceedings
c. May file the information directly with the Regional Trial Court.
d. At the prosecutor's office for the conduct of preliminary investigation
50. The power to apply the laws to contest or disputes concerning legally
recognized right or duties of and between the state and the private persons or
between individual litigants in case properly brought before the judicial tribunals.
a. Judicial Review
b. Jurisdiction
c. Judicial power
d. Judiciary

51. It is an act which would be an offense against persons or property were it not
for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment, or an account of the
employment of inadequate or ineffectual means employed by the offender.
a. External Act
b. Proximate cause
c. Impossible crime
d. Offense

52. In order to test the credibility and veracity of the testimony of an opposing
witness, what right is given to a party, especially to the accused, in criminal cases?
a. Right against self-incrimination
b. Right to a lawyer
c. Right to confront and cross-examine the witness against him
d. All of these

53. This is a misapprehension of fact on the part of the person causing injury to
another. The actor, however, is not criminally liable.
a. Ex Post Facto
b. Mistake in identity
c. Mistake in the blow
d. Mistake of fact

54. The constitutional limitation of bill of attainder in the enactment of criminal

laws simply means that our criminal law shall ______.
A. Decrease the imposed penalty to favor the accused
B. Imposed the penalty even without hearing and trial
C. Applied the penalty only sparingly in favor of the state
D. Impose the penalty only after due hearing and trial
Situation: Alden was convicted for Homicide and was sentenced to suffer an
imprisonment from 14 years and 1 day to 17 years. While serving his sentence he
was allowed to escape from his cell.

55. If the offender is the custodian of the convicted prisoner what crime was
committed?
A. Delivering prisoners from jail
B. Evasion of service
C. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
D. Other cases of evasion

56. If the offender is not the custodian at the time of the escape of said prisoner,
what crime was committed?
A. Evasion of service
B. Delivering prisoners from jail
C. Infidelity in the custody of prisoners
D. Other cases of evasion

57. What is the liability of the convicted prisoner serving his sentence?
A. Evasion of service of sentence
B. Delivering prisoners from jail
C. Consenting or conniving to evasion
D. Evasion through negligence

58. But if the detention prisoner conspires with the one letting his escape, said
detention is liable for _____ as principal by indispensable cooperation.
A. Delivering prisoner from jail
B. Delivering prisoners from jail
C. Evasion of service
D. Evasion through negligence

59. What is the liability of the jail warden if the evasion of a prisoner should take
place through his negligence?
A. Delivering prisoners from jails
B. Evasion through negligence
C. Reckless imprudence
D. Conniving with consenting to evasion

60. When will the provisional dismissal punishable by not more than 6 years
become permanent?
a. If the offended party dies
b. If one year after the issuance of the order of provisional dismissal lapsed
without the case having been revived.
c. If two years after the issuance of the order of provisional dismissal lapsed
without the case having been revived.
d. If the judge dies then cryo-frozen but is resurrected later by modern science.

Provisional dismissal punishable by more than 6 years become permanent If TWO

YEARS after the issuance of the order of provisional dismissal lapsed without the
case having been revived.

61. Supposed that after conviction for the crime of murder and while being
escorted for transport to the National Bilibid Prison, James escaped. After more
than 20 years, Kokoy chanced upon James and arrested the latter so that he may
serve his prison sentence for murder. Did the penalty for crime of murder
prescribed?
A. No, he was not yet committed to the National Bilibid Prison
B. Yes, because it has been more than 20 years already since his escape after his
conviction.
C. None of these
D. No, because his prescription of penalty for the crime of murder is 30 years

Note:
Escorted for transport at nakaescape, hindi pa consider as evasion.

Prescription of penalties shall commence to run from the date when the culprit:
Evade the service of the sentence

It shall be interrupted if the defendant:

 Should give himself up
 Be captured
 Should go to some foreign country with which has no extradition treaty (If
walang extradition treaty, interrupted ang prescription)
 Or should commit another crime before the expiration of the period of the
prescription

62. What is this PHASE in the commission of the crime where person did not stop
the commission of the crime because of spontaneous desistance or because of
the presence of the police until he performs all the acts of execution but does
not produce the felony?
A. Internal
B. External
C. Objective
D. Subjective

63. What is this justifying circumstance wherein the person assaulted is related to
the accused by consanguinity within the fourth degree?
A. Defense of relative
B. Parricide defense
C. Self-defense
D. Defense of stranger

64. In the exempting circumstance of compulsion of irresistible force, the

irresistible force must be in the form of ______.
A. Intimidation
B. Physical fear
C. Spiritual force
D. Physical force

65. PD 1612 - have been derived from the proceeds of the following crimes,
except:
A. Estafa
B. Qualified Theft
C. Robbery
D. Theft

66. CARDO, a police officer, arrested HIPLITO without a warrant for the
commission of a crime. Which is NOT one of the elements that will constitute
arbitrary detention?
A. CARDO is a public officer or employee.
B. HIPOLITO is suffering from violent insanity.
C.CARDO arrested HIPOLITO without a warrant.
D. CARDO's detention of HIPOLITO is without legal ground

67. Accused was charged for homicide. He interposes the justifying circumstance
of self-defense. In case, the burden of proof.
A. rests to whoever presents the evidence
B. still belongs to the prosecution
C. upon the discretion of the court
D. shifts to the accused

68. The following are the instances in which the testimony of the witness may be
impeached. EXCEPT
A. evidence of the witness’ wrongful acts
B. contradictory evidence
C. evidence that the witness has made at other times statements inconsistent
with his present testimony
D. evidence that the general reputation of the witness for truth, honesty or
integrity is bad

69. Which of the following is not a public document?

A. The written official acts, or records of the official acts of the sovereign authority
B. Public records, kept in the Philippines, of private documents required by law
C. Documents acknowledged before a notary public
D. Notarized last wills and testaments

70. Which of the following is a public document?

A. All of the above
B. Public records, kept in the Philippines, of private documents required by law
C. Love letter
D. Notarized last wills and testaments

71. The statement of the person stating the circumstances of the crime as
charged but without acknowledging his guilt is _______.
a. Admission by silence
b. Admission
c. Confession
d. Admission against interest
72. The effect of failure to prove the guilt of the accused beyond reasonable
doubt is
A. The acquittal of accused
B. None of these.
C. The finding of civil liability.
D. The dismissal of the case.

73. The Metropolitan Trial Court, Municipal Trial Court or Municipal Circuit Trial
Court has jurisdiction over a case the penalty of which is imprisonment of
A. 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
B. 6 years and 1 day
C. 12 years or more
D. not exceeding 6 years

74. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the hearing or
observation of a party, who does or says nothing when the act or declaration is
such as naturally to call for action or comment if not true, and when possible, for
him to do so, may be given in evidence against that party. This is known as
_____________.
a. admission
b. declaration against interest
c. admission by silence
d. extrajudicial confession

75. The prosecution shall offer in evidence its documentary evidence ______.
A. At any time the prosecution may deep proper at its discretion to offer
B. After the presentation of testimonies of witnesses have been terminated
C. After the presentation of the witnesses of the defense are terminated
D. All of the above

Note:
Pagkatapos maipresenta ang mga testimonya ng mga witness.

76. When should be informed of Miranda rights?

A. Before he is put into custody
B. After he was asked any question related to crime he was arrested for.
C. Immediately after he is arrested
D. When he is already assisted by a counsel of his choice or as provided for

77. The questioning initiated by law enforcement authorities after a person is

taken into custody or otherwise deprived of freedom of action is ___________.
A. Illegal detention
B. Arbitrary detention
C. Custodial Investigation
D. Preliminary investigation

78. The accused was present during arraignment and he entered his plea.
Despite notice and the issuance of warrant for his arrest, the accused remains
absent. What should the court do in this kind of situation?
A. Proceed with the trial of the case dispensing the presentation of evidence of
the accused
B. None of these
C. Not to proceed with the trial of the case because the accused has the right to
confront the witnesses
D. Proceed with the trial of the case in absentia of the accused

79. The accused in criminal proceedings has in his favor the rule that criminal
law should be construed liberally in his favor because ______.
A. Of the requirement of observance of due process
B. The prosecution has the burden of proof
C. The police is presumed to perform their duty with regularly
D. The accused is presumed innocent until proven guilt

80. For the attempted stage to exist, one of the requirements is that there must
be an “overt act” Overt acts in attempted stage means .
a. A physical undertaking as can clearly be seen by police officers
b. An outward manifestation that the person is about to commit crime
c. A physical act indicating the intention of the accused to commit a specific crime
d. An obvious physical activity directly observed by the police of any possible
crime

81. Right to appeal.

A. Right
B. Privilege
C. Not a constitutional right
D. Constitutional right

82. The accused may prove his good moral character which is
A. of the knowledge of the court
B. pertinent to the moral trait involved in the offense charged
C. of judicial knowledge
D. necessary to prove his innocence of the crime charge

83. Human rights cannot be just taken away from an individual such as freedom
from torture.
a. inherent
b. inalienable
c. interdependent
d. imprescriptible

84. As a general rule, what does the constitution provide in so far as search and
seizure is concern?
a. Search must be done by the police only.
b. Search must be upon order of the court.
c. Search should be conducted when there is a warrant.
d. Search must not deprive the person of his property.

85. Which crime is considered as LESS GRAVE Felony?

A. The crime committed has a penalty of imprisonment of at least 4 years and 1
day
B. The crime committed has a penalty of imprisonment of not exceeding 30 days
C The crime committed has a penalty of imprisonment of at least 6 years and 1
day
D. The crime committed has a penalty of imprisonment ranging from 30 days and
1 day to 6 years

86. A killed his love one. His love one was suffering from incurable disease and
without the possibility of resuscitation?
a. Murder
b. Homicide
c. Parricide
d. Infanticide
87. The new and independent act which is the immediate cause of the injury and
which breaks the connection between the original wrong and the injury is
referred to as the ______ cause.
A. efficient connecting
B. causal connecting
C. efficient intervening
D. effective intervening

88. A person asked you for advice on how to file a case of adultery against his
wife? Which of the following are allowed by the RULES in order to initiate the
filing a concubinage case?
A. The case of the adultery is a public offense, it can be initiated by the police
B. The case of the adultery can only be initiated by the complaint of the offended
spouse
C. The case of adultery can be initiated even without the complaint of the
offended spouse
D. None of these

89. Because the burden of proof rests with the prosecution, the duty to convict
the person belongs to _________
a. None of these
b. The strength of the prosecution's evidence
c. The court’s discretion based on evidence
d. The weakness of the accused's evidence

90. In Art. 125 of RPC, what does it mean to deliver the detained person to the
proper judicial authorities?
a. Bringing the offender to justice
b. Filing of complaint to the prosecutor
c. Bringing the victim to justice
d. Filing of information in court of competent jurisdiction

91. Which of the following circumstances makes the evidence incompetent?

A. Evidence obtained in accordance with the constitution
B. Evidence obtained through third degree method of investigation
C. Evidence obtained in accordance with law or statute
D. Evidence obtained accordance with the rules

92. Balmond and Layla are not married and they have a child Alpha. During a
storm, Balmond killed Alpha. What crime is committed by Balmond?
A. Murder
B. Homicide
C. Parricide
D. Infanticide

93. Step-father killed his 7 year old stepson.

A. Murder
B. Homicide
C. Parricide
D. Infanticide

94. A jail guard who is in custody of a prisoner would be held liable for infidelity in
the custody of prisoners if he consented to the escape of a prisoner under his
charge. What if the guard involved is an off-duty guard from the
BUCOR/BJMP/PNP and he took out a prisoner from the place of confinement and
replaced him with another? What was the crime committed by the guard?
a. delivering prisoners from jail
b. infidelity in the custody of prisoners still
c. bribery
d. corruption of public officer

95. Which of these courts will have jurisdiction over a Chinese crew who
murdered a Filipino crew member on board a sea vessel registered under
Canadian law while that vessel is anchored within Subic Bay?
a. Japanese court because the offenders are Japanese.
b. Manila court because we follow the English rule.
c. American court because we follow the French rule.
d. International Criminal Court

96. This criminal justice model is based on the idea that the most important
function of the CJS is the protection of the public and the repression of criminal
conduct.
a. Crime Prevention
b. Crime Control
c. Law and Order
d. Due Process

97. According to this criminal justice model, the rights of an individual must be
co-equal with the concern for public safety.
a. Crime prevention
b. Crime control
c. Law and order
d. Due process

98. The organized crime groups maintain their power and profit through _____.
A. Corruption
B. Violence
C. Continuous association with criminal protectors
D. Tolerance of law-abiding citizens

99. These are persons and organizations which grant power and the perception
of legitimacy to organized crime groups.
A. The Protectors composed of a network of corrupt officials who protect them
from the criminal justice system
B. The specialized supporter who provide them contract services such as pilots,
chemists, arsonists and hijackers.
C. Audience of consumers of illegal goods and services
D. Social supporters such as civic organizations, influential citizens etc.

100. What is the hallmark of organized crime essential to ensure compliance

with rules of the organization in order to attain organization goals?
A. Use of force against its members
B. Corruption of public officials
C. Use of violence and bribery
D. Adoption of formal rules and guidelines

LEA

1. In custodial investigation, who is the immediate family? Except.

a. Parents
b. Spouse
c. Fiancee
d. Cousin

2. What law that supervises and control the training and operations of security
agencies and issue licenses to operate security agencies, and to security guards
and private detectives, for the practice of their professions.
a. RA 10575
b. RA 6975
c. RA 9263
d. RA 9208

3. Has civil laws, specialized police forces, punishment is inconsistent, sometimes

harsh, sometimes lenient.
a. Folk-Communal Society
b. Urban-Commercial Society
c. Urban- Industrial Society
d. Bureaucratic Society

4. This type of society has not only codified laws but also that prescribes good
behavior and a specialized police system and principle based system of
punishment being followed by England and the US.
a. Bureaucratic Society
b. Urban-Industrial Society
c. Post-Modern Society
d. Folk-Communal Society

5. The Bahala na or come what may attitude of leaving up to God to sort things
out when facing difficulties and short comings.
a. Fatalism
b. Mańana Habit
c. Crab Mentality
d. Hypocrisy

6. Victims becomes more careless of their belongings and opportunities for

committing crime multiply.
a. Economic Migration Theory
b. Modernization Theory
c. Anomie Theory
d. Opportunity Theory
7. Constructed in such a way that visual access through the fence is denied.
a. Barrier
b. Wall
c. Full-View Fence
d. Solid Fence

8. Is the belief in leaving everything to the hands of fate?

a. Ningas Cogon
b. Juan Tamad
c. Fatalism
d. Mańana Habit

9. In establishing checkpoint, it shall lead by?

a. Non-commissioned officer
b. Commissioned Officer
c. Patrolman
d. General

10. To help locate missing persons, often minors, or to help identify persons who
are unable to identify themselves.
a. Black
b. Yellow
c. Blue
d. Red

11. What method of comparative research when the researcher communicates

with a foreign researcher?
a. Corroborative Method
b. Safari Method
c. Collaborative Method
d. Mixed Method

12. Mr. Juan was the owner of a business in Antipolo City, one of her suggestions
is to build fences around the full perimeter of her land, particularly to secure it
and keep outsiders from peeping inside her business. Which fences did Mr. Juan
intends to install?
a. Solid Fences
b. Full-View Fences
c. Chain Link Fences
d. Barbed Wire Fences

13. What type of police PLANNING that is widely used in the organization based
on problem-oriented approach?
a. Strategic
b. Tactical
c. Contingency
d. Synoptic

14. Problems are grouped together and solve it one at a time. (Exact na tanong
August 2023 CLE) – Beware napakatricky na tanong.
a. Synoptic
b. Incremental
c. Transactive
d. Advocacy

15. This is used by analysts in law enforcement agencies to visualize, and analyze
crime incident patterns. It is a key component of crime analysis and policing
strategy using Geographic Information System (GIS), and allows crime analysts to
identify crime hot spots, along with other trends and patterns.
a. Crime Rate
b. Crime Index
c. Crime Diagram
d. Crime Mapping

16. In an urban area of adjacent buildings where fences are unnecessary, what will
be the first line of defense?
a. Door
b. Fences
c. Walls
d. Window

17. Which is the National Language of Philippines?

a. Pilipino
b. Filipino
c. Baybayin
d. Tagalog

18. Functional unit within a division that is necessary for specialization.

a. Bureau
b. Unit
c. Section
d. Sector

19. Which of the following statement is one of the General Orders?

a. Talk to everybody inside the firm
b. To salute and respect those managers
c. To report all violations of regulations and orders I am instructed to enforce
d. To quit my post when I am busy

20. Which among the following is a qualified regular member of the NAPOLCOM?
a. A graduate of Medicine with at least 3 years experience
b. A graduate of Public Administration with at least 4 years experience
c. A member of the Philippine Bar with at least 5 years experience
d. A graduate of Criminology with at least 2 years of experience

21. A comparative research methods which covers three or more countries.

a. Safari Method
b. Collaborative Method
c. Group Studies
d. Two-culture studies

22. Constructed in such a way that visual access through the fence is denied.
a. Barrier
b. Wall
c. Full-view fence
d. Solid fence

23. Under this principle, each group reports to an individual who is part of a
supervisory group that answers to a higher supervisor and so on until a group of
administrators report to the chief executive.
A. Unity of Command
B. Scalar Principle
c. Span of Control
d. Aggregation principle

24. Refers to the utilization of units or elements of the PNP.

a. Deployment
b. Delegation
c. Employment
d. Administration

25. What is the PDEA highest rank?

a. Secretary
b. Director General
c. Undersecretary
d. Chief, PDEA

26. It is the single authority responsible for the security of the transportation
systems of the country.
a. Department of Transportation
b. Office for Transportation Security
c. Land Transportation Office
d. Department of Public Works and Highways

27. The researcher visits another country to compare.

a. Safari Method
b. Collaborative Method
c. Legalistic
d. Service

28. Holds that progress comes along with rising expectations

a. Demographic Theory
b. Deprivation Theory
c. Modernization Theory
d. Opportunity Theory

29. Strong inquisitorial system where less right is granted to the accused.
a. Common Law System
b. Civil Law System
c. Socialist System
d. Islamic System

30. Has civil laws, specialized police forces, punishment is inconsistent, sometimes
harsh, sometimes lenient.
a. Folk-Communal Society
b. Urban-Commercial Society
c. Urban-Industrial Society
d. Bureaucratic Society

31. The problem-solving process called SARA consists of four stages. What stages
is identification of existence of the problem. (6X lumabas lahat yung SARA nung
August 2023, CLE) Note: Mahaba mga tanong nito noong August pero pag alam
mo concept nito siguradong bullseye!
a. Scanning
b. Analysis
c. Response
d. Assessment

32. Dr. Mendez decided to have his house renovated, he asked his contractor to
use steel for windows, good quality locks for the doors and grills for the windows
in order to prevent unauthorized entry, what line of physical defense of security
Dr. Mendez is considering?
a. First Line of Defense
b. Second Line of Defense
c. Third Line of Defense
d. Self-Defense

33. It is a computer system that analyzes and displays geographically reference

information.
a. Geographic Information System
b. Global Positioning System
c. Geographic Incorporated System
d. Geographic Identification System
34. What type of nationalism that lies within radical and liberal?
a. Civic Nationalism
b. Ethnic Nationalism
c. Religious Nationalism
d. Territorial Nationalism

35. A crisis or important event can cause a person to rise to the occasion, putting
forth extraordinary qualities of leadership in an ordinary person.
a. Trait Theory
b. Great Events Theory
c. Transformational Theory
d. Process Leadership Theory

36. Leaders let their members make decisions, solve problems, and get their work
done without having to worry about their every move being obsessively watched
by the leader.
a. Democratic
b. Bureaucratic
c. Laissez-faire
d. Autocratic

37. An approach in decision-making when people will point to a gut feeling or

hunch as the cause for a choice, reflecting those explanations is not accessible
through conscious thought.
a. Rational
b. Intuitive
c. Analytical
d. Random

38. In this approach a decision is made on impulse, without thought.

a. Rational
b. Intuitive
c. Chance – Random parehas lang
d. Analytical
39. The PNP is considered servants of the community who depends for the
effectiveness of their functions upon the express wishes of the people. This is in
adherence with the:
a. Continental Theory
b. Home Rule Theory
c. New Concept
d. Old Concept

40. In this theory, the people have no share or little participation with the duties
or connection with the police organization.
A. Old concept
B. Continental theory
C. Home rule theory
D. Modern concept

41. It is based on the event when greater number of children are being born.
a. Opportunity Theory
b. Demographic Theory
c. Modernization Theory
d. Economic Theory

42. Style of policing that use of threats or actual arrest?

a. Legalistic
b. Watchman
c. Service
d. Centralized

43. Another type of policing where it is more on helping the community, as

opposed to enforcing the law?
a. Legalistic
b. Watchman
c. Service
d. Centralized

44. A central receiving entity for citizens complaint against PNP members?
a. NAPOLCOM
b. PLEB
c. NAB
d. RAB

45. What is the initial stage of leadership?

a. Self-Leadership
b. Organizational Leadership
c. Followers
d. Process Leadership

46. Which of the following is related to the principle of span of control when the
tasks are divided among the police personnel by one over-all supervisor present
at all times?
A. Command responsibility
B. Unity of command
C. Delegation of authority
D. Police management

47. The PNP Chief is the only person in command of the entire PNP organization.
As such, even the President of the Philippines cannot just give command to the
PNP, if such command will not pass through the PNP Chief, for him to disseminate
it further to the other members of the organization. This principle of police
organization refers to:
A. Command Responsibility
B. Unity of command
C. Span of control
D. Scalar chain

48. An organization is effective if it enables the individuals to contribute to the

organization’s objectives.
a. Principle of Unity of Objectives
b. Principle of Organizational Efficiency
c. Scalar Principle
d. Principle of Delegation by Results

49. See themselves as having absolute power and making decisions on their
subordinates' behalf.
a. Laissez-Faire
b. Autocratic
c. Bureaucratic
d. Charismatic

50. Which of the following is a fact-finding probe to determine a plant’s adequacy

and deficiency in all aspects is called ________.
A. Security survey
B. Security education
C. Security inspection
D. Security awareness program

51. Is the process of conducting physical examination to determine compliance

with establishment security policies and procedures?
A. Security Education
B. Security Inspection
C. Security Planning
D. Security Survey

CDI

1. When the evaluation guide of information represents usually fairly reliable,

having a probably true accuracy.
a. A-2
b. B-5
c. C-3
d. C-2

2. The broken part of vehicle rubbish, dust and other materials left at the scene of
vehicular accident by a collision is commonly known as?
a. Auto parts
b. Materials
c. Debris
d. Particles

3. Which of the following is NOT included in the coverage of special crime

investigation?
a. Gambling cases
b. Falsification cases
c. Estafa cases
d. Hit and Run cases

4. The purpose of search at the crime scene is to determine the presence of

physical evidence, which is NOT one of them?
a. Corpus Delicti
b. Associative Evidence
c. Circumstantial Evidence
d. Tracing Evidence

5. In this process, written confession of the accused is used as a script in

describing events of the crime.
a. Crime reenactment
b. Crime reconstruction
c. Mental reconstruction
d. Physical reconstruction

6. Physical injury located not at the site nor opposite the site of the application of
force but in some areas offering the least resistance to the force applied.
a. Contre coup
b. Coup d’etat Resistencia
c. Coup contre coup
d. Locus Minoris Resistencia

7. A sentence that makes a statement, provides a fact, offers an explanation, or

conveys information.
a. Declarative
b. Interrogative
c. Imperative
d. Exclamatory

8. A wound produced by a sharp pointed instrument.

a. Stab Wound
b. Lacerated Wound
c. Incised Wound
d. Punctured Wound
9. The systematic examination of all facts relating to conditions, actions and
physical features associated with motor collision.
a. Criminal Investigation
b. Hit and Run Investigation
c. Traffic Accident Investigation
d. Motor Vehicle Accident Investigation

10. Preliminary investigation of drug cases is being terminated within the period
of how many days from the date of filing?
a. 15
b. 30
c. 20
d. 60

11. Mr. Doong killed Mr. Deguibo by burning the latter’s house. What crime is
committed by the former?
a. Arson only
b. Arson with Murder
c. Murder only
d. Arson with Homicide

12. What kind of search method wherein the crime scene is subdivided into
areas, a building into rooms or floors then each of the fire officer or officers are
then assigned accordingly?
A. Concentric Search – Spiral
B. Sector Search – Zone
C. Strip Search
D. Double Strip

13. What kind of evidence that can be associated with the group?
a. Individual Characteristics
b. Testimonial Evidence
c. Class Characteristics
d. Group Evidence

14. The entire width between boundary lines of every way or place of which any
part is open to the use of public for purposes of vehicular traffic as a matter of
right or custom?
a. Roadway
b. Highway
c. Traffic way
d. Highway

15. It is the movement or conveying of persons and goods from one place to
another.
a. Traffic
b. Transportation – pag merong conveying matik na transportation na wag na
magdalawang isip pa
c. Movement
d. Traffic Unit

16. Which are the three fold aim of criminal investigation, EXCEPT.
a. Prosecute the suspect
b. Locate the suspect
c. Identify the suspect
d. Gather evidence of guilt of the suspect

17. Emphasizes on structuring an organization into hierarchy and having clearly

defined rules to help govern an organization and its member.
a. Hierarchical
b. Administration
c. Bureaucratic
d. Democratic

18. Is seeing, feeling or hearing and understanding the usual or unexpected

movement or condition that could be taken as sign of the accident about to
happen?
a. Start of evasive action
b. Perception of hazard
c. Maxmimum engagement
d. Initial contact

19. Is a first accidental touching of an object collision course of otherwise avoid

hazard?
a. Maximum Engagement
b. Start of Evasive Action
c. Initial Contact
d. Accident

20. Drugs which affect sensation, thinking, self-awareness and emotion of a

person?
a. Stimulants
b. Depressants
c. Hallucinogens
d. Sedatives

21. The tool employed by an arsonist to delay the start of the fire and allow him to
establish an alibi is
a. Accelerant
b. Stopper
c. Timing device
d. Delaying tactic

22. While investigating a case, you stumbled on an intelligence records which

could be important for your investigation. Probably the GREATEST problem of
Intelligence records as the basis for an on-going investigation is that they are not
______.
A. purged thus, not totally current
B. given to the investigator on time
C. always completely accurate
D. the full story

23. It uses a protactor to measure the angle formed by two lines?

a. Compass point method
b. Baseline method
c. Triangulation method
d. Sector method

24. They shall be responsible for the efficient and effective law enforcement of the
Cybercrime Prevention Act?
a. PNP ACG
b. NBI
c. DOJ
d. NBI and PNP

25. A crime whereby the proceeds of an unlawful activity are transacted thereby
making them appear to have originated from legitimate sources?
a. Smuggling
b. Fraud
c. Money Laundering
d. Cybercrime

26. Is the physical disposal of the money by moving funds from direct association
with crime and putting them into the financial system?
a. Money Laundering
b. Placement
c. Layering
d. Integration

27. A building must have this design which is used as it continuous passageway for
the transmission of air?
a. Duct
b. Duct system
c. Exhaust system
d. Damper

28. How should a driver approach in intersection?

a. Be at the right of way
b. Give a signal
c. Be at full stop
d. Overtake other vehicles

29. It is the part of the investigation report that gives a brief summary of the
major investigation steps accomplished.
a. Abstract
b. Synopsis
c. Summary
d. Findings
30. Rigor Mortis (stiffening of muscle tissues) first detected in?
a. 2 hours
b. 3 hours
c. 4 hours
d. 6 hours

31. A type of wound produced by penetration of sharp pointed instrument?

a. Incised wound
b. Stab wound
c. Patterned wound
d. Punctured wound

32. Police Investigation Report is written in what tense?

a. Past
b. Present
c. Future
d. Past Perfect

33. A police responded to a firefighting incident while kidnapping is also

happening. As first responder what will be the your primary course of action after
the scene?
a. File complaint to the involved
b. Charge him a crime
c. Contain or secure the scene
d. Evacuate the wounded to the morgue

34. The principal source of all forms of cocaine is

A. Middle East
B. South America
C. South West Asia
D. South East Asia

35. Traffic safety education for children needs to be systematic to:

A. Instill safety consciousness among the children
B. Cope up with the demands of time
C. Lessen the fatalities among children while they are young
D. Learn easier than adults
36. LTO is under of what E’s of Traffic?
a. Traffic Economy
b. Traffic Enforcement
c. Traffic Education
d. Traffic Engineering

37. In rules of right of way, when a vehicle is traversing a “thru-highway” or

intersection, its driver should ______ before crossing.
A. Be at full stop
B. Proceed slowly
C. Turn his engine off
D. Wait for the enforcer’s signal

38. When there are two or more vehicles approaching the intersection almost at
the same time, one is travelling along the national road and the other is in the
secondary road. Who has the right of way?
A. vehicle on the left
B. vehicle on the right
C. Vehicle on the national road
D. Vehicle on the secondary vehicle

39. Under the Land Transportation Code, it is NOT parking prohibition if you park
_____.
a. Within 4 meters of the driveway of a Fire Station
b. Within the intersection
c. In front of private driveway
d. On a sidewalk

40. What is the combination of verbal warning and citations called?

a. Traffic citation
b. Verbal warnings
c. Written warnings
d. Visual warnings

41. Friction mark on a pavement made by a tire, which is both rotating a slipping is
called:
A. Centrifugal Skid
B. Skid Mark – hindi na umiikot yung gulong
C. Centrifugal Force
D. Scuff Mark

42. Product of combustion which combustible materials and oxidizing agents react
to heat.
A. Flame
B. Fire
C. Smoke
D. Ember

43. Which is not a description of materials or compounds that are easily set on
fire?
A. Flammable
B. Inflammable
C. Combustible
D. Corrosive

44. A building must have this design which is used as it continuous passageway for
the transmission of air?
a. Duct system
b. Duct
c. Exhaust system
d. Vestibule

45. A finely powdered substance which, when mixed with air in the proper
proportion and ignited will cause an explosion.
a. Damper
b. Shaft
c. Dust
d. Rust

46. It is a word, clause, or phrase or a group of clauses or phrases forming a

syntactic unit which expresses an assertion, a question, a command, a wish, an
exclamation, or the performance of an action.
a. Sentence
b. Paragraph
c. Phrase
d. Complex

47. It is a type of sentence that makes a statement.

a. Declarative
b. Interrogative
c. Imperative
d. Exclamatory

48. It is the object of the verb that followed by the verb and then the subject.
a. Active - subject of a sentence is followed by the verb
b. Passive
c. Persuasive
d. Declarative

49. This involves flooding a computer resource with more requests than it can
handle, causing it to crash thereby denying authorized users the service offered by
the resource.
a. Phishing
b. Pharming
c. Smishing
d. Denial of Service Attack

50. Online fraud that involves the use of malicious code to direct victims to
spoofed websites in an attempt to steal their credentials and data.
a. Phishing
b. Pharming
c. Smishing
d. Denial of Service Attack

51. Refers to the species or subspecies of flora and fauna which are naturally
occurring and found within specific areas in the country.
A. Exotic
B. Anemic
C. Biotic
D. Endemic
52. Refers to forest reservations essentially of natural wilderness character which
have been withdrawn from settlement, occupancy or any form of exploitation
except in conformity with approved management plan and set aside as such
exclusively to conserve the area.
A. Natural Park
B. National Park
C. Protected Area
D. Marine Reservations

53. Which of the following is NOT included in the coverage of special crime
investigation?
a. Falsification cases
b. Hit and run cases
c. Gambling cases
d. Estafa cases

54. Forensic specialist have the duty to train investigator and crime searchers in
the _____ of evidence.
a. Analysis
b. Recognition
c. Cataloguing
d. Interpretation

FORENSIC SCIENCE

1. A primitive practice of detecting deception whereby controversies in

accusations are settled by means of duel, the victor will be spared from the
consequences while the loser will be pronounced guilty.
a. Trial by Ordeal
b. Trial by Combat
c. Trial by Duel
d. Trial by Competition

2. If the mother has a blood type of A, and the father has a blood type of A. What
is the possible blood type of the child?
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O – pwede pero mas piliin ang nauna

3. You saw a Crime Scene Investigator carrying a Ninhydrin solution, what

evidence do you think that the Investigator is looking for?
a. Bullet
b. Fingerprint
c. Blood
d. Semen

4. Metal bellows attached under the arms and chair of the subjects detects
a. Body movements
b. Muscle movements
c. Hand movements
d. Finger movements

5. A compression process to significantly reduce the image file size making them
easier to store and load on webpages.
a. CMOS
b. ETAL
c. JPEG
d. BIT

6. The test to determine whether blood is of human origin or not.

A. Blood Typing
B. Precipitin Test
C. Confirmatory Test
D. Preliminary Test

7. In crime scene you recovered projectile, the following are projectile. EXCEPT.
(August 2023, CLE) 2X LUMABAS
a. Bullet
b. Slug
c. Cartridge
d. Shot
8. For collecting exemplar and standard obtain sufficient handwriting exemplars,
at least ________ signatures.
a. 5 – 10
b. 20 – 30
c. 20 – 25 – eto isagot since eto pinakamalapit
d. 10 – 15

COLLECTED OR PROCURED STANDARDS

• 15-20 genuine signatures
• 4-5 pages of handwriting
REQUESTED OR DICTATED STANDARDS
• 25-30 genuine signatures
• 5-6 pages handwriting

9. Friction ridge starts to develop its arrangement at _____.

a. Infant
b. Immediately after birth
c. 4 months
d. 5 months

10. What division is composed of the pattern types present in the index fingers?
A. Key
B. Sub-secondary
C. Secondary
D. Primary

11. It is one of the methods in developing fingerprints and considered as the best
method used in prints impressed in paper.
a. Dusting Method
b. Ninhydrin Method
c. Fuming Method
d. Rolling Method

12. Is an inked finger impression, they appear as tiny black lines with white dots
called pores?
a. Furrows
b. Lands
c. Ridges
d. Fingerprint

13. Is the type of impression made or printed on the card by individually rolling
the bulb of the finger?
a. Plain Impression
b. Rolled Impression
c. Molded Prints
d. Impression

14. When strong light directed through the two sheets of paper either from below
or behind?
a. Carbon process
b. Indention process
c. Transmitted light process
d. Oblique light process

15. When a bullet is fired through a pane of glass, the side of the glass here the
concentric fractures will MOST probably appear is the pane of the glass.
a. Both side where the bullet entered
b. Neither side
c. The side where the bullet exited – RADIAL CRACK
d. The side where the bullet entered

16. Burning test is used for?

a. Solid
b. Glass
c. Fiber
d. Wood

17. Photographing of object directly enlarge to the negative and magnified from
1 to 9x?
a. Wide Angle Lens
b. Microphotography
c. Telephotography – far object
d. Macrophotography
18. How do you call the rules or imaginary line in which the writing rest?
a. Beard
b. Base
c. Vase
d. Spur

19. A type of a lens that would make an object to be exaggeratedly closes to the
photographer and is ideal in stake out surveillance photography?
a. Wide Angle Lens
b. Normal Focus Lens
c. Telephoto Lens
d. Zoom Lens

20. When the ridge traced ends abruptly, the tracing continues on?
a. Upper Ridge
b. Lower Ridge
c. End of the Tracing
d. None of these

21. What fingerprint pattern has the highest frequency?

a. Loop
b. Whorl
c. Arch
d. Plain Whorl

22. A preliminary test of blood in a solution of 1 to 300,000 dilution is?

a. Guaicum Test
b. Phenolphtalein Test
c. Benzidine Test
d. Leucomalachite Test

23. The image forming device. It is used to (collect, transmit) focus the light
coming from the subject?
a. Shutter
b. Lens
c. Film
d. Camera
24. Which of the following is the highest percentage of black powder
composition?
a. Sulfur
b. Pottasium Nitrate
c. Charcoal
d. Powder

25. In the illustration below, which of the following depicts typelines?

(August and April 2023, CLE)

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

26. An artificial light examination best used in deciphering obliterated writing?

a. Ultra-Violet Light
b. Infra-Red Light
c. Transmitted Light
d. Oblique Light

27. An artificial light examination best used is deciphering erased writing, contact
writing as well as invisible writing.
a. Transmitted Light
b. Oblique Light
c. Infra-Red Light
d. Ultra-Violet Light

28. What is the positive or visible result of Diphenylamine Test?

a. Pink
b. Blue
c. Yellow
d. Brown

29. The part of the hair that is most important in DNA examination to identify the
person.
a. Root
b. Medula
c. Cortex
d. Cuticle

30. Best sources of DNA, except?

a. saliva
b. blood
c. hair without root
d. bones

31. Which is retouching of defective portion of a writing stroke which is common

defect in questioned documents examination?
a. Patching
b. Shading
c. Altering
d. Retracing – goes back over another writing stroke

32. Which of the following methods is NOT used in detecting deception? A.

Polygraphy
B. Hypnotism
C. Administer truth serum
D. Electro encephalogram

33. In Red Hot Iron Ordeal, the accused placed his tongue to a red hot iron for a
______?
a. 7 times
b. 8 times
c. 9 times
d. 10 times
34. Corrugated rubber belows with the aid of beaded chain should be fastened of
the subjects _____.
a. Muscles
b. Chest – Chest and Abdomen
c. Fingers
d. Arms

35. The subject will lie or if he does not really lie he will think about it at the time
it is asked or be unsure of the complete truthfulness of his answer. (August 2023
Actual Board Tricky Question)
a. Relevant Questions
b. Irrelevant Questions
c. Control Questions
d. Symptomatic Question

36. An erroneous decision that an examinee is being truthful when the

examinee is in fact actually being deceptive.
a. False Positive - examinee is being deceptive when the examinee is actually
truthful
b. False Negative
c. Inconclusive Result
d. Conclusive Result

27. What part of a cartridge case designed to prevent the bullet to push back?
a. Extracting Grooves
b. Vent
c. Crimp – holding of the bullet out of the neck (para hindi makalabas)
d. Cannelure – baka ang gagamitin sa board push down parehas lang yan (para
hindi babaon sa loob)

28. What equipment is shown below?

a. Compound Microscope
B. Comparison Microscope
c. Onoscope
d. Telescope

29. What type of fingerprint pattern in the illustration below if it is from the Left
Hand?

a. Radial Loop
b. Tented Arch
c. Plain Whorl
d. Ulnar Loop

30. What will you use if you are going to capture an image using a light?

a.

b.

c.
d.

31. On the illustration below, which of the following may considered as CORE?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

Note: The core is located between two center rods shoulder farthest to delta.

32. Which of the following is the ridge ending?

a.

b.
c.

d.

33. Which of the following is the Pen Emphasis?

a. A, B, C, D
b. A, B, C, D
c. A, B, C, D
d. A, B, C, D

34. Is a diverging ridge that tends to surround the pattern area and serves as a
basic boundary of fingerprint impression.
a. Delta
b. Pattern Area
c. Typelines
c. Enclosure

35. Which of the following depth of wound makes it a permanent scar?

a. More than 1mm
b. Less than 1mm
c. Wound in Epidermis
d. All of these
CORAD

1. Which of the following is a grave offense of jail inmates?

a. Rendering personal service to fellow inmate
b. Failure to report for work detail of sentenced inmates without justifiable reason
c. Malingering
d. Making untruthful statements or lies in any official communication, transaction
or investigation
2. One of the juridical conditions of penalty, the consequence must be in
accordance with the law it is a result of a judgment rendered by court of justice.
a. Equal
b. Legal
c. Commensurate
d. Personal

3. An older member of the community tasked to provide guidance to the newly

committed residents?
a. Senior Resident
b. Big Brother
c. Leader
d. Colonist

4. It is an outreach correction done by any member of the TC Community to

another member who has done a minor infraction but is not aware of it.
a. Talk To
b. Pull-up
c. Dealt With
d. Haircut

5. Which of the following is NOT the requirement before granting STAL?

A. That there must be a calamity and pronouncement of passing away the
calamity
b. The PDL may choose to stay or escaped and returned within the prescribed
period
c. Must serving his sentence
d. Must wear the prescribed uniformed before escape

6. Who conducts thorough physical examination of the inmate to determine his or

her true physical condition?
a. Gater
b. Admission Unit
c. Records Unit
d. Health Unit
7. The combined effective action of all personnel.
a. Commitment
b. Attachment
c. Teamwork
d. Competency

8. Aftercare is an outpatient program that requires clients to report?

a. Once a week
b. Twice a week
c. Within one week
d. Thrice a week

9. This is done when the violator is unknown and must be validated first prior to
bringing up in the morning meeting.
a. General meeting
b. Talk To
c. Pull Up
d. Dealt With

10. A behavior shaping tool to prohibit a resident to a specific area, activity,

verbal, another client.
A. Learning Experience
B. Haircut
c. Bans
d. Pull Up

11. The inmate is now preparing for his life outside of jail and is focused on
making himself a productive citizen.
a. Aftercare
b. Re-entry
c. Pre Re-entry
d. Primary Treatment

12. A type of dormitory, houses inmate above 500 capacity and lot area of more
than 1.5 hectares?
a. Type A Dormitory
b. Type B Dormitory
c. Type C Dormitory
d. Type D Dormitory

13. Any article, item, or thing prohibited by law and/or forbidden by jail rules that
would pose as security hazards or endanger the lives of inmates.
A. Nuisance Contraband
B. Bans
C. Illegal Contraband
D. Contraband

14. It refers to those items, though authorized, is already in excessive quantities to

become a fire hazard, a threat to security or has become causative in making the
place unsanitary.
A. Contraband
B. Paraphernalia
C. Illegal Contraband
D. Nuisance Contraband

15. Who appoint Jail Superintendent?

a. President
b. Chief of BJMP
c. Secretary of DILG
d. Regional Director

16. Which of the following is considered as informal component of Philippine

Criminal Justice System?
a. Provincial and City Prosecutors
b. Municipal Circuit Trial Court
c. Parole and Probation Office
d. Crusades against violent crimes and corruption

17. Which of the following is grave offenses of jail inmates?

a. Rendering personal service to fellow inmate & jail personnel
b. Failure to report for work detail of sentenced inmates without justifiable reason
c. Malingering
d. Making untruthful statements or lies in any official communication, transaction
or investigation
18. It is a basic characteristics of human rights that cannot be rightfully taken away
from a free individual.
a. Inherent
b. Inalienable
c. Imprescriptible
d. Indivisible

19. Stage of human rights where the support for ideas become strong, and thus
incorporate into legal instruments.
a. Idealization
b. Positivization
c. Realization
d. Fundamental

20. The resident is now ready to undergo the treatment proper. He becomes a
part of the community starting as a crew member of the Housekeeping
department.
a. Aftercare
b. Orientation
c. Primary Treatment
d. Pre-Reentry

21. What conference should be undertaken after all the tests, interviews and
examination has been conducted to plan for the inmate program for treatment
and training?
A. Admission
B. Treatment
C. Inmate
D. Staff

22. All letters for the inmates before distribution shall pass through ______ for
inspection and examination of contents.
a. Mail examination
b. Letter checking
c. Letter sorting
d. Mail censorship
23. All letters passed by censors should bear the censor’s stamp at the ____ of
each page and on the envelope. The letter should be placed back in the same
envelope and resealed.
A. Back
B. Conspicuous Area
C. Side
D. Top

24. Any BJMP personnel who has not been promoted for a continuous period of
____ years shall be retired or separated.
a. 3
b. 5
c. 10
d. 15

25. After the Physical Agility Test what is the next stage?
a. Medical Examination
b. Interview
c. Neuro-Psychiatric Examination
d. Final Deliberation

26. It is exercise exclusively within the sound discretion of the President for the
objective of preventing miscarriage of Justice or correcting manifests injustice.
A. Parole
B. Pardon
C. Executive Clemency
D. Reprieve

27. Recommends the grant of executive clemency to the President.

a. BPP
b. PPA
c. Court
d. Congress

28. Which of the following requirements shall qualify a prisoner for parole?
1. Confinement in jail or prison to serve an indeterminate sentence
2. Maximum period exceeds one (1) year pursuant to a final judgment of
conviction
3. Service of the minimum period of said sentence less the good conduct time
allowance earned
4. Service of 1/2 of the minimum period of sentence
a. 4, 1 and 2
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 3, 4 and 1
d. 1, 2 and 3

29. Mr. Bogie was convicted of a crime and sentenced to an imprisonment term of
8 years, since he is disqualified for probation, he decided to appeal his case to a
higher court. The appellate court declared him again guilty but to a lesser penalty
of six years. Can he apply now for probation?
a. Yes, because his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 day
b. No, because he already appealed his case
c. No, because he is disqualified
d. Yes, because his 1st sentence is non probationable and his 2nd sentence is a
probationable offense.

30. In case of mass jail break, all members of the custodial force shall be
immediately issued firearms and assigned to critical posts to _____.
A. Plug off the escape routes
B. Protect the other inmates
C. Shoot the escapees
D. Give warning shots

31. Which of the following cases is disqualified to apply for probation?

A. Infanticide
B. Simple Theft
C. Malicious Mischief
D. Unjust Vexation

32. It is the temporary suspension in the execution of sentence?

a. Pardon
b. Appeal
c. Commutation
d. Reprieve

33. This is a serious and stern reprimand done by one senior member and two (2)
peers. It has no sanctions but demands for awareness and immediate change in
behavior.
a. Talk to
b. Spoken to
c. Dealt with
d. Pull-ups

34. How many stars of Deputy Chief for Administration of BJMP?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

35. The Municipal Jail Warden shall have the rank of

A. Chief inspector – City Jail Warden
B. Inspector
C. Senior inspector
D. Superintendent – District Jail Warden

36. Which of the following is an executive clemency that requires the concurrence
of congress?
a. Probation
b. Amnesty
c. Pardon
d. Parole

37. It is an act of clemency which changes a heavier sentence to a less serious one
or a longer term to a shorter term.
a. Amnesty
b. Reprieve
c. Commutation
d. Pardon
38. Is a statutory privilege granted to a prisoner that shall entitle him to a
deduction of his term of imprisonment.
A. Probation
B. Executive Clemency
C. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty
D. Good Conduct Time Allowance

39. A person convicted and sentenced to serve for not more than six months is
classified as
A. Municipal Prisoner
B. City Prisoner
C. Insular Prisoner
D. Provincial Prisoner

40. Mr. Durant a person convicted to serve 6 months and 1 day to 3 years
imprisonment would be classified as what kind of prisoner?
a. Municipal prisoner
b. Insular prisoner
c. Provincial prisoner
d. City prisoner

41. This theory use non-punitive to offender refers to _______.

a. Classical
b. Positivist
c. Neo-Classical
d. Eclectic

42. What could be the role of law enforcement in future corrections or

community-based corrections collaboration?
A. Monitoring and enforcement activities
B. Imposition of conditions as part of sentencing decisions
C. Ensures health safety standards
D. Crafting effective sentencing strategies

43. What is the role of the prosecution in the future of corrections?

a. supervision efforts, providing support to monitoring and enforcement activities.
b. assist by crafting effective sentencing strategies
c. imposition of conditions as part of their sentencing decisions provide the
structure and tools that community corrections needs to manage offenders
successfully and promote offender success in the community.
d. All of these

44. What is the role of the judges in the future of corrections?

a. supervision efforts, providing support to monitoring and enforcement activities.
b. assist by crafting effective sentencing strategies
c. imposition of conditions as part of their sentencing decisions provide the
structure and tools that community corrections needs to manage offenders
successfully and promote offender success in the community.
d. All of these

45. A person convicted and sentenced to serve for more than 3 years is classified
as
A. Municipal prisoner
B. City prisoner
C. Insular prisoner
D. Provincial Prisoner

46. Who are not qualified for good conduct time allowance? Except.
a. Convicted under RA 9165
b. Those who violate prison rules
c. Recidivists or habitual delinquents
d. Escapees and persons charged with heinous crimes

47. A judicial action for legal disposition that allows the offender to remain in the
community subject to conditions imposed by the court?
a. Reprieve
b. Probation
c. Commutation
d. Parole

48. Who are disqualified for GCTA?

A. Those convicted of RA 9165
B. Those former police officer
C. Those who were cooperative
D. Those who violated the jail rules

49. Pining Garcia was convicted of a crime and sentenced to an imprisonment

term of 8 years, since he is disqualified for probation, he decided to appeal his
case to a higher court. The appellate court declared him again guilty but to a
lesser penalty of six years. Can he apply now for probation?
a. Yes, because his sentence is less than 6 years and 1 day
b. No, because he already appealed his case
c. No, because he is disqualified
d. Yes, because his 1st sentence is non probationable and his 2nd sentence is a
probationable offense.

50. The following are disqualified offenders on probation, Except.

a. Sentenced to serve a maximum term of imprisonment of not more than six (6)
years.
b. Convicted of any crime against national security
c. Who have previously been convicted by final judgment of an offense punished
by imprisonment of more than six (6) months and one (1) day
d. Who have been once on probation

51. Whenever a riot or escape alarm is sounded by siren, bell or gunfire, all
prisoners shall be order to ______.
A. Kneel down with both hands raised in the air
B. Lie flat on the ground, face down and with arms and legs spread out of the
body
C. Stop their movements and maintain their positions until being told otherwise
D. Sit down with both hand placed at the back of the neck

52. Who composed of guards trained on proper handling and use of firearms who
shall be ready to fire when the lives of the guards are in danger on orders of the
Officer in Command?
A. 1st group Anti-Riot
B. 4th Group Anti-Riot
C. 3rd Group Anti-Riot
D. 2nd Group Anti-Riot

53. When a jail break, escape, or riot is in progress or has just been perpetuated in
the jail, the officer at the control centers shall immediately ______.
A. Sound the alarm
B. Locked prisoners in their respective cells
C. Notify the nearest police precinct
D. Call the warden

54. A TC Hierarchy that serves as liaison between resident and staff.

A. Coordinator
B. Chief Expediter
C. Department Head
D. Department Crew

55. From the date of conviction and sentence, when may an applicant for
probation file the application for probation?
A. Before 15 days
B. After 15 days
C. Within 15 days
D. On appeal

56. Mr. Cruz, was sentenced to imprisonment on March 21, 2013. On March 25,
2013 the Judge who promulgated the decision died . What is the effect of the
Judge’s death to the service of Cruz sentence?
A. His sentence will not be binding anymore
B. He will have to serve his sentence
C. His sentence will be suspended
D. His sentenced will be reduced

57. How do inmates know that they have letters?

A. A list of mails for inmates is posted
B. A jail guard delivers the letter personally
C. An inmate trustees delivers the letters to the addressee
D. Inmate with letters is called to the Jail Warden’s Office

Note:
Dapat makuha ng PDL ang letter within 24 hours.

58. What will happen to the sentence of the offender who has been granted
probation?
a. Sentence will be abolished
b. Sentence will be suspended
c. Sentence will be terminated
d. Sentence will be served during period of probation

59. What is this core values of the BJMP that concern on the willingness in
sharing effort in implementing plans and achieving goals?
A. Competence
B. Cooperation
C. Commitment
D. Courtesy

60. How many times an offender be granted probation under PD 968.

a. Never
b. Twice
c. Only once
d. 3 times

61. Who appoints Jail Sr. Superintendent?

a. Chief Executive
b. DILG Secretary
c. Chief BJMP
d. Chief of BUCOR

BJMP Appointment System:

JO1 – SJO4 = Appointed by Regional Director, recommended by Immediate
Superior
JINP – JSUPT = Appointed by Chief of BJMP, recommended by Immediate Superior
JSSUPT = Appointed by DILG, Secretary, recommended by Chief BJMP
JCSUPT – Jail Director = Appointed by President, recommended by DILG, Secretary

Civilian (NHQ) = Appointed by Chief, BJMP

JO1 to SJO4 = Appointed by Chief, BJMP

62. When the condition has been critical and the disturbance has reached full
intensity, the guard-in-charge shall cause the sounding of the ________.
a. 1st alarm
b. 2nd alarm
c. 3rd alarm
d. 4th alarm

63. Probation shall be denied if the court finds that _______.

a. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the offense committed. (Ex.
Murder)
b. The offender is in need of correctional treatment (ex. Heinous crime)
c. There is undue risk that during the period of probation the offender will commit
another crime (recidivist, habitual delinquent)
d. All of the choices

64. Punishment is effected by placing offenders in prison so that society will be

ensured from further criminal depredations of criminals.
A. Deterrence
B. Retribution
C. Protection
D. Atonement

Specific Answer: Incapacitation & Protection

65. What law creates the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology?
a. RA 6975
b. RA 8551
c. RA 9263
d. RA 10575

Note: Section 60, RA 6975

66. How many members of Board of Pardons and Parole?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

67. What is referred to as the reduction of the duration of prison sentence?

a. Commutation of Sentence
b. Parole
c. Absolute pardon
d. Conditional pardon

68. God given rights, acknowledged by everybody to be morally good.

A. Natural Rights
B. Constitutional Rights
C. Statutory Rights
d. Human Rights

69. JO3 Ricardo Dalisay apply for lateral entry , what will be his next rank?
A. Senior Inspector
B. Inspector
C. SJO4
D. SJO1

70. One who has not reported for initial supervision within 72 hours from receipt
of the probation order and/or whose whereabouts could not be found, located,
or determined
despite due diligence.
a. Absconding petitioner
b. Absconding client
c. Absconding parolee
d. Absconding probationer

71. Assuming that the court will deny the application for probation of a person,
what is the
proper course of action for him?
a. Appeal the decision to the court of appeals
b. Appeal the decision to the court who denied the application for probation
c. Ask for forgiveness to the victim
d. File a motion for reconsideration in the trial court or Petition for Certiorari –
GRAVE ABUSE OF DISCRETION

72. Manny is a CICL who has been convicted and sentenced by the court and
placed under probation. He successfully completed his probation period and was
granted final discharged by the court. When he reached 21 years old, he was
again convicted of another offense and was meted with a penalty of four(4) years.
In this case, can Manny still apply for probation?
a. Yes, he can
b. No, he cannot
c. Maybe
d. Maybe not

73. The final discharge of the probationer shall operate to restore to him all
__________ rights lost or suspended as a result of his conviction.
a. Civil and political
b. Human and civil
c. Economic and cultural
d. Social and political

74. For conditional pardon, the prisoner shall have served at least _____ of the
minimum of
his original indeterminate and/or definite sentence.
a. One third (1/3)
b. One fifth (1/5)
c. One half (1/2)
d. One fourth (1/4)

75. The application for probation shall be in the form approved by the _____ as
recommended by the Administrator or as may be prescribed by the Supreme
Court
a. Chief Probation Officer
b. Probation Officer
c. Secretary of Justice
d. Supreme Court

76. What disciplinary sanction can be imposed on inmates?

A. Payment of Fees to the Jail Warden
B. Cancellation of recreational privillages
c. Cancellation of e-dalaw
d. Forfeiture of salaries and wages

Criminology

1. The legal doctrine Parens Patriae means ______.

a. Guardian of the Country
b. Father of the Country
c. Guardian of the Galaxy
d. Protector of the Child

2. Refers to a series of activities which are designed to address issues that caused
the child to commit an offense. It may take the form of an individualized
treatment program which may include counseling, skills training, education, and
other activities that will enhance his/her psychological, emotional and
psychosocial wellbeing.
a. Diversion
b. Intervention
c. Diversion Program
d. Restorative Justice

3. What do you call a juvenile act that when committed by an adult will not result
to any prohibited or even demeanor act?
a. Moral Offenses
b. Behavioral deviation
c. Status Offense
d. Offense

4. 13 years old having a drinking spree of alcoholic beverages.

a. Juvenile Offense
b. Minor Offense
c. Status Offense
d. Child Offense

5. Process documents and papers expeditiously. All officials papers and

documents must be processed and completed within a reasonable time from the
preparation thereof. Official next-in-rank or officer in charge shall sign for and
their behalf. How many signatories?
a. Not more than 2 signatories
b. Not more than 3 signatories
c. Not more than 5 signatories
d. Not more than 10 signatories
6. In APA format text citation when there are 3 or more author used only the last
name of first author followed by?
a. i.e.
b. et al.
c. etc.
d. ibid

7. What is the main objective of RA 6713 “Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards
for Public Officials and Employees”?
a. Public officials and employees have an obligation to accomplish and submit
declarations under oath of, and the public has the right to know, their assets,
liabilities, net worth and financial and business interests.
b. A public official or employee shall avoid conflicts of interest at all times
c. It promote a high standard of ethics in public service.
d. Public officials and employees shall always uphold the public interest over and
above personal interest.

8. It propose that people internalize moral codes more through the process of
socialization?
a. Social Learning Theory
b. Interaction Theory
c. Differential Association Theory
d. Positivist

9. Ana is very kind. She always helps people in need. This exemplifies to ___?
a. Socialism
b. Communism
c. Capitalism
d. Altruism

10. Fredie hearing voices in his head that he should kill his brother.
a. Delusion
b. Hallucination
c. Illusion
d. Paranoia
11. Characterized by an exaggerated self-importance and pre-occupation with
receiving attention.
a. Paranoid Personality
b. Dependent Personality
c. Borderline Personality
d. Narcissistic Personality

12. This format of thesis writing is most commonly used to cite sources.
A. HARVARD
B. Modern Language Association
C. American Psychological Association (APA)
D. NOTA

14. It is the “blueprint” of the study. It guides the collection, measurement and
analysis of data.
A. Research Outline
B. Research Framework
C. Research Chart
D. Research Design

15. This is an attempt to remove uncertainty from the future.

a. Predict
b. Prevent
c. Prepare
d. Perform

16. Institution of passive and active security measures, as well as the remedy or
solution of establishing factors and or security flaws leading to such crisis and
emergencies.
a. Prevention
b. Preparation
c. Prediction
d. Performance

17. A type of fraud which the writer presents the ideas or work of someone else
as his or her own is known as?
a. Copyright
b. Plagiarism
c. Editing
d. Patent

18. They are atavists according to Lombroso because they have inherited their
criminal tendencies?
a. Criminal
b. Criminaloids
c. Born Criminals
d. Insane Criminals

19. Behavior that departs from social norms is otherwise known as?
a. Crime
b. Truant
c. Offense
d. Deviant

20. In the mitigating circumstances, the age of minor is below 18. What about
senility?
a. 60
b. 65
c. 70 above
d. 70 below

21. Anyone can be a victim of crime or be a criminal of a crime?

a. Crime is general
b. Crime is pervasive
c. Crime is progressive
d. Crime is reflective

22. It is a means of developing general summary statements based on the

observation of a homogenized group of criminals and categorized based on their
age, sex, current offense, personality type, and social class.
a. Typology
b. Criminology
c. Classification of Crime
D. Group of Crime
23. Machinery of the state which enforces the rules of conduct necessary to
protect life and property and to maintain peace and order.
a. Law Enforcement
b. Prosecution
c. Criminal Justice System
d. Court

24. It is a means of developing general summary statements based on the

observation of a homogenized group of criminals and categorized based on their
age, sex, current offense, personality type, and social class.
a. Typology
b. Criminology
c. Classification of Crime
d. Group of Crime

25. Criminology is also related to the study of ______________ behaviors or those

actions that depart from social norms, values, beliefs, and customs.
A. Deviant
B. Delinquency
C. Abnormal
D. Violent

26. What is theory in criminal law wherein the exercise of free will is recognized
however the person still commits the crime contrary to his volition.
A. Positivist
B. Neo-classical
C. Eclectic
D. Mixed

27. Which type of criminal possesses atavistic tendency?

A. Neurotic
B. Born
C. Psychotic
D. Hedonistic

28. What is NOT an element of classical criminology?

a. The use of scientific method in explaining phenomenon like criminal behavior.
b. Crime is attractive when it promises great benefits with little effort.
c. People have free will to choose lawful solutions to meet their needs or settle
their problems
d. Crime may be controlled by the fear of punishment.

29. What is the concept or principle in Criminology that is synonymous with the
term Conflict perspective?
a. Peacemaking Criminology
b. Biosocial Criminology
c. Radical Criminology
d. Convict Criminology

30. Grounds for Removal or Suspension of Board Chairperson/Member, EXCEPT.

a. Manipulation or rigging of the results in the licensure examination for
criminologist
b. Gross neglect, incompetence or dishonesty in the discharge of one's duty
c. Manipulation or rigging of the results in the licensure examination for
criminologists, disclosure of secret and confidential information on the
examination questions prior to the conduct thereof, or tampering of grades
d. Commission of any crime involving moral turpitude

31. Motorists sometimes forget to lock their vehicles or may unintentionally leave
their cellular phones behind. In doing so, they become victims of a crime.
a. Victim provocation
b. Victim administration
c. Victim precipitation
d. Victim facilitation

32. Which of the following DOES NOT characterize anomie?

A. It is the ability to adjust easily to changing norms.
B. It is a conflict within the norms itself.
C. It is the inability to adjust on changing norms.
D. It is the failure of the individuals to internalize the norms of the society.

33. Which is not a function and consequence of crime in society according to

Emile Durkheim?
A. Society becomes vigilant
B. It creates unity in the society
C. Disintegration and disunity of the society
D. Society decide what behavior must be prohibited

34. Which of the following is the illusory superiority?

a. Obedient
b. Kind
c. Smart
d. Character

35. Characterized by an exaggerated self-importance and pre-occupation with

receiving attention.
a. Paranoid Personality
b. Dependent Personality
c. Borderline Personality
d. Narcissistic Personality

36. In arbitration, which of the following is not true?

a. Public – Confidential dapat
b. Mandatory
c. Binding
d. Voluntary

37. This is the act, process, or practice of settling a dispute in a court of law.
a. Litigation
b. Mediation
c. Alternative Dispute Resolution
d. Arbitration

38. Means any mediation process conducted under the auspices of the court,
after such court has acquired jurisdiction of the dispute.
a. Mediation
b. Court-Annexed Mediation
c. Court-Referred Mediation
d. Arbitration
39. The hostage-taker’s mobility to the smallest location in the building or exterior
area and deny him the opportunity to observe the presence of police and their
activities.
a. Isolate
b. Contain
c. Evaluate
d. Report

40. It is the assumed effect of another variable. It is the change that occurs in the
study population when one or more factors are changed or when an intervention
is introduced.
a. Independent variable
b. Dependent variable
c. Antecedent variable
d. Intervening variable

41. What is the symbol to be used if there are multiple authors?

a. et al.
b. ibid
c. etc.
d. i.e.

42. Which of the following exemplifies APA Format?

a. Triple Spacing
b. Page margins are 2 inches of all sides
c. Indent the first line of every paragraph 2.5 inches
d. Page header appears within the top right corner

43. Is the customary code of polite behavior in society or among members of a

particular profession or group.
a. Etiquette
b. Values
c. Moral
d. Standard

44. It provides that only nationals of foreign countries in which the requirements
for the licensure examination and/or registration and practice of criminology are
substantially the same as those required and contemplated by the Philippine laws
and regulations, and which laws and regulations allow Philippine citizens to
practice criminology within the territory of such foreign countries shall be allowed
to take the Philippine Criminologists licensure examination
a. Foreign Invader
b. Foreign Reciprocity
c. Foreign Alliance
d. Foreign Treaty