PHYSICS

1. The velocity ~ time graph of a stone thrown vertically upward with an initial velocity
(taken +ve upward) of 30m/s is shown in the figure below. What is the maximum height to
which the stone rises?

a) 30m b) 60m c) 45m d) 90m

Ans : c) 45m
2. A child accompanying a passenger facing towards engine in a train threw a ball vertically
upward in his playful mood inside the train. The ball instead of returning to his hand held
at the same place fell down in front of him. What would you think about the state of
motion of the train at that time.
a) The train was moving uniformly.
b) The train was accelerating uniformly.
c) The train was standing at rest.
d) The train was retarding its motion by applying break.
Ans : d)The train was retarding its motion by applying break.
3. Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given
below:
Assertion (A): Two balls of different masses are thrown vertically upward with same
speed. They will pass through their point of projection in the downward direction with the
same speed.
Reason (R) : The maximum height and downward velocity attained at the point of
projection are independent of the mass of the ball.
a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
c) Assertion is true but reason is false
d) Assertion and reason both are false
Ans: a) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
4. In which of the following cases forces may not be required to keep the
 (a) particle going in a uniform circular motion
(b) particle going along a straight line
(c) momentum of the particle constant
(d) acceleration of the particle constant
Ans : (c) momentum of the particle constant
5. A system of two blocks (1 and 2) is placed on a rough
horizontal ground as shown in the figure. A force F is
applied horizontally on block 2 such that both the blocks
start moving together. If f1, is the frictional force on body
1 due to the body 2 and f2 is the fiction of the ground on
body 2, then which of the following statements is correct
a) f1 and f2 are in forward direction
b) f1 and f2 are in backward direction
c) f1 is in forward and f2 is in backward direction
d) f1 is in backward and f2 is in forward direction
Ans : c) f1 is in forward and f2 is in backward direction
6. A gun of mass 10kg fires 4 bullets per second. The mass of each bullet is 20g and the
velocity of the bullet when it leaves the gun is 300m/s. The force required to hold the gun
while firing is
a) 6N
b) 8N
c) 24N
d) 240N
Ans : c) 24N

7. A body falling for 2second covers a distance s equal to that covered in the next second.
Then s equals to (g = 10m/s2)

a) 30m
b) 10m
c) 60m
d) 20m.

Ans : a) 30m
8 . A force 10N is applied on a body of mass 5 kg for 10 seconds. The body is on a smooth
surface. The acceleration of the body at 15 second is
a) 2m/s2
b) zero
c) 20m/s2
d) None
Ans : b) zero
9. An object is placed at the focus of a concave lens of focal length ‘f ’. The image will be
formed at
a) Infinite
b) 𝑓
c) 2f
d) f/2
Ans: d) f/2

10. Assertion : The equation V = RI applies to all conducting devices- even the ones which do
not obey Ohm’s law.
Reason : V = RI is a statement of Ohm’s law.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans. option C - Assertion is true but reason is false.
11.Which of the following is correct regarding the nature of parallel and anti-parallel
currents?
a) Parallel currents repel and antiparallel currents attract.
b) Parallel currents attract and antiparallel currents repel.
c) No force exist due to both currents.
d) None of these.
Ans : b) Parallel currents attract and antiparallel currents repel.
12. Which one of the following statements is not true for the appearance of blue colour of
sky.
a) Human eyes are more sensitive to the scattered blue light.
b) Violet and blue lights get scattered more than the lights of other colours by the
atmosphere.
c) Blue light moves faster in air than light of any other colour.
d) Light of all other colours except violet and blue scatter least by the atmosphere.
Ans : c) Blue light moves faster in air than light of any other colour.
13. Green light of frequency 5494 × 102 GHZ is incident on air-glass interface.
If the refractive index of glass is 1.5, the frequency of this light in glass would be
a) 3662 × 102 𝐺𝐻𝑧
b) 8241 × 102 𝐺𝐻𝑧
c) 5494 × 102 𝐺𝐻𝑧
d) None of the above
Ans : c)5494 × 102 𝐺𝐻𝑧
14. Two plane mirrors are perpendicular to each other. A ray after suffering reflection form
the two mirrors will be
a) Perpendicular to first mirror
b) Parallel to first mirror
c) Perpendicular to original ray
d) Parallel to original ray
Ans : d) Parallel to original ray
15. An object is placed in front of a concave mirror between its pole and the focus. What
would be correct stating the nature, size and position of the image?
a) A real, inverted image diminished in size between f and 2f.
b) A real, inverted image equal in size at 2f.
c) A real, inverted image highly magnified beyond 2f.
d) A virtual, erect image and magnified behind the mirror.
Ans : d) A virtual, erect image and magnified behind the mirror.
16. Two electric bulbs rated P1 and P2 watt at V volt are connected in series across V volt
mains. Then their total power consumption P is
a) 𝑃1 + 𝑃2
b) √𝑃1 𝑃2
c) 𝑃1 𝑃2 /(𝑃1 + 𝑃2 )
d) (𝑃1 + 𝑃2 )/𝑃1 𝑃2
Ans : c) 𝑃1 𝑃2 /(𝑃1 + 𝑃2 )
17. A wire has resistance of 24  is bent in the following shape. The effective resistance
between A and B is
60°

60°
A
(a) 24  5 cm
B

(b) 10  10 cm

16
(c) 3 
(d) None of these
Ans : b) 10 
18. A battery of 6V with internal resistance of 1𝛺 is
connected to an external resistance of 35 𝛺 as shown
in the figure. The reading in the voltmeter is

6
a) 𝑉
35
35
b) 𝑉
6
c) 6 V
d) 216 V
35
Ans : b) 𝑉
6
19. Two statements are given in each case – one related to Asserting (A) and the other
labeled as Reasoning (R). Select the correct option from the four codes (a), (b), (c),(d)
Assertion (A) : A uniform magnetic field is acting in a direction from left to right on
planes parallel to the horizontal page of this paper. If an electron enters this field at right
angle in a top to bottom direction with a uniform velocity; it will experience a force
which would be directed out of the page.
Reason (R) : The direction of the force is perpendicular to the direction of magnetic
field as well as the current direction according to Fleming’s left Hand Rule.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of the assertion
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true
Ans : c) A is true but R is false
20. Two long straight parallel conductors carrying equal current are placed as shown in the
figure. B is the midpoint between the two conductors and positions A and C are as
shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is correct?

A B C

a) Magnetic field at A is equal to the magnetic field at C.

b) Direction of magnetic field at B is inward.
c) Direction of magnetic field at B is outward.
d) Magnetic field at B is zero.
Ans : d) Magnetic field at B is zero.
 CHEMISTRY

21.A hydrated salt of Na2SO3 loses 22.22% of its mass on strong heating. The hydrated
salt is :
a) Na2SO3. 4H2O
b) Na2SO3.6H2O
c) Na2SO3.H2O
d) Na2SO3.2H2O

Ans : d) Na2SO3.2H2O

22.Which of the following represents 32 gram of substance ?

a) 1 mole of oxygen molecule
b) 1 gram atom of sulphur
c) 22.4L of oxygen gas at STP
d) All of these

Ans: d) All of these

23.The ion that is iso-electronic with carbon monoxide is :

a) 𝑂2−
b) 𝑁2+
c) 𝐶𝑁 −
d) 𝑂2+
Ans –c) 𝐶𝑁 −

24.Assertion (A) : In Rutherford’s gold foil experiment very few alpha particles are
deflected back.
Reason (R) : Nucleus present inside the atom is positively charged.
Mark the correct choices as:
a) Both the assertion (A) and reason(R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
b) Both assertion (A) and reason(R) are true but reason(R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true but reason(R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false but reason(R) is true.

Ans : b) Both assertion (A) and reason(R) are true but reason(R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
25.The density of water at room temperature is 1.0gmL-1. How many molecules are there
in a drop of water if its volume is 0.05ml ?

a) 2.4 × 1022
b) 1.68 × 1021
c) 6.02 × 1021
d) 3.9 × 1020

Ans : b) 1.68 × 1021

∆
26.Assertion (A): 4𝐻3 𝑃𝑂3 → 3𝐻3 𝑃𝑂4 +𝑃𝐻3 is an example of disproportionation reaction.
Reason (R): In a disproportionation reaction an element in one oxidation state is
simultaneously oxidized and reduced.
Mark the correct choices as:
a) Both the assertion (A) and reason(R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
b) Both assertion (A) and reason(R) are true but reason(R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true but reason(R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false but reason(R) is true.

Ans : a) Both the assertion (A) and reason(R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
27.A white solid (A) on thermal decomposition produces a yellow solid (B), a brown gas
(C) along with oxygen. The correct chemical equation for the above reaction is :

∆
a) 2𝑃𝑏(𝑁𝑂3 )2 → 2𝑃𝑏𝑂 + 2𝑁2 + 5𝑂2
∆
b) 2𝑃𝑏(𝑁𝑂3 )2 → 2𝑃𝑏𝑂 + 4𝑁𝑂 + 3𝑂2
∆
c) 2𝑃𝑏(𝑁𝑂3 )2 → 2𝑃𝑏𝑂 + 4𝑁𝑂2 + 𝑂2
∆
d) 𝑃𝑏(𝑁𝑂3 )2 → 𝑃𝑏𝑂 + 𝑁2 𝑂 + 2𝑂2
∆
Ans: c )2𝑃𝑏(𝑁𝑂3 )2 → 2𝑃𝑏𝑂 + 4𝑁𝑂2 + 𝑂2
28.The products formed by the following reaction are :
𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻2 𝑂 + 𝐶𝑂2 + 𝑁𝐻3 →

a) 𝑁𝐻4 𝐻𝐶𝑂3, 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙

b) (𝑁𝐻4 )2 𝐶𝑂3 , 𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙
c) 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙, 𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3
d) 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙, 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3
Ans : c) 𝑁𝐻4 𝐶𝑙, 𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3
29.A gas ‘X’ is obtained by the action of dilute acid on washing soda. When the gas ‘X’ is
passed through lime water, it turns milky and on passing excess the gas, the milkiness
disappears. The correct reactions showing the formation of gas ‘X’ and formation of
milky compound respectively are:

a) 2𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3 + 𝐻2 𝑆𝑂4 → 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂4 + 𝐶𝑂2 + 𝐻2 𝑂

𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 + 𝐶𝑂2 + 𝐻2 𝑂 → 𝐶𝑎(𝐻𝐶𝑂3 )2

b) 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3 + 2𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 2𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝐶𝑂2 + 𝐻2 𝑂

𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 + 𝐶𝑂2 → 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 + 𝐻2 𝑂

c) 𝑁𝑎2 𝑆𝑂3 + 2𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 2𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝐻2 𝑂 + 𝑆𝑂2

𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 + 𝑆𝑂2 → 𝐶𝑎𝑆𝑂3 + 𝐻2 𝑂
d) All of the above

Ans : b) 𝑁𝑎2 𝐶𝑂3 + 2𝐻𝐶𝑙 → 2𝑁𝑎𝐶𝑙 + 𝐶𝑂2 + 𝐻2 𝑂

𝐶𝑎(𝑂𝐻)2 + 𝐶𝑂2 → 𝐶𝑎𝐶𝑂3 + 𝐻2 𝑂

30. Between H3PO4 and H3PO3 , which of the following statement is correct ?
a) H3PO3 is a reducing agent and dibasic in nature.
b) H3PO4 is a reducing agent and dibasic in nature.
c) H3PO4 is a reducing agent and tribasic in nature.
d) H3PO3 is neither a reducing agent nor dibasic in nature.
Ans : a) H3PO3 is a reducing agent and dibasic in nature.
31.A metal ‘X’ when exposed to moist air containing CO2 produced a green coating ‘Y’
‘X’ and ‘Y’ are :
a) Cu and CuO.Cu(OH)2
b) Zn and ZnCO3.Zn(OH)2
c) Cu and CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
d) Zn and ZnO.Zn(OH)2

Ans : c) Cu and CuCO3.Cu(OH)2

32. Four metals A, B, C and D are in turn, added to the following solutions one by one
and the observations made are tabulated below
Metals FeSO4(aq) CuSO4(aq) Al2(SO4)3(aq) AgNO3(aq)

A No reaction Displacement No reaction Displacement

B Displacement Displacement No reaction Displacement

C Displacement Displacement Displacement Displacement

D No reaction No reaction No reaction No reaction

The correct order of reactivity of the metals A, B, C and D is

 a) C>A>B>D
b) D>A>B>C
c) D>B>A>C
d) C>B>A>D

Ans :d) C > B > A > D

O
||
33. The name of CH 3  C = CH  CH 2  C  CH  CH 3
| |
CH 3 Br
according to IUPAC nomenclature system is:

a) 6-Bromo-2-methylhept-2-en-5-one
b) 2-Bromo-6-methylhept-5-en-3-al
c) 2-Bromo-6-methylhept-5-en-3-one
d) 6-Methyl-2-bromohept-5-en-3-one
Ans : c) 2-Bromo-6-methylhept-5-en-3-one
34. Propanol and methoxyethane both are:
a) Position isomers
b) Chain isomers
c) Metamers
d) Functional isomers
Ans : d) Functional isomers
35.Assertion (A) : Carbon shows catenation to large extent than that of silicon though
both the elements belong to the same group of modern periodic table.
Reason (R) : C-C bond is stronger than Si-Si bond.
Mark the correct choices as:
a) Both the assertion (A) and reason(R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
b) Both assertion (A) and reason(R) are true but reason(R) is not the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
c) Assertion (A) is true but reason(R) is false.
d) Assertion (A) is false but reason(R) is true.
Ans : a) Both the assertion (A) and reason(R) are true and reason (R) is the correct
explanation of assertion (A).
 36.The number of covalent bonds present in first member of the homologous series of
ketone is :
a) 4
b) 7
c) 9
d) 10
Ans : d) 10
37. The haemoglobin form red corpuscles of most mammals contains approximately
o.33% of iron by weight. The molecular weight of haemoglobin is 67200g. The number
of iron atoms in each molecule of haemoglobin are
a.1 b. 2 c. 3 d.4
Ans : d) 4
38. 16 g of carbon monoxide has same number of molecules as in:
(a) 16g of CO2
(b) 28 g of N2
(c) 14g of N2
(d) 2 g of H2
Ans : c) 14g of N2
39. A carboxylic acid molecular formula (C3H6O2) reacts with an alcohol in presence of
conc. H2SO4 to form a compound X. The alcohol is on oxidation with alkaline KMnO4
followed by acidification gives the same carboxylic acid C2H4O2.X is
a) Ethyl ethanoate
b) propyl propanoate
c) Ethyl propanoate
d) Methyl ethanoate
Ans : b) propyl propanoate
40. X is an ore of a metal Y. The concentrated ore X on heating with oxygen in absence of
air produce T. T on smelting gives metal Y. Y reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid produce
brisk effervescence .X, Y and T are respectively:
a) Zn, ZnCO3 & ZnO
(b) Zn, Zn(OH)2 & ZnCO3
(c) ZnS , Zn & ZnO
(d) ZnCO3 , Zn & ZnO

Ans : d) ZnCO3 , Zn & ZnO

 MATHEMATICS
41. Find the number of integral solutions of 𝑥𝑦 = 22 34 57 (𝑥 + 𝑦)
a) 775
b) 675
c) 125
d) 575
Ans : b) 675
42. For a real number x < -1 which of the following is true?
a) x < x2 < x3
b) x < x3 < x2
c) x2 < x3 < x
d) x3 < x < x2
Ans : d) x3 < x < x2
1 1
43. If 𝑥 = 2 + √3 and 𝑦 = 2 − √3, then the value of ( + ) is
𝑥3 𝑦3
a) 42
b) 48
c) 50
d) 52
Ans : d) 52
44. A certain number when divided by 222 leaves a remainder 35, another number when divided
by 407 leaves a remainder 47. What will be the remainder when some of these two numbers is
divided by 37
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
Ans : c) 8
1
45. Let p(x) be a polynomial of degree 3 and 𝑝(𝑛) = for n=1,2,3,4. Then the value of p(5) is
𝑛
(a) 0
1
(b)
5
−2
(c)
5
3
(d)
5
Ans : a) 0
46. Number of real roots satisfying the equation √2𝑥 + 7 + √𝑥 + 4 = 0
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) More than 2
Ans : c) 0
47. Let p and q are distinct prime numbers, then number of positive integral solutions of the
1 1 1
equation + = is
𝑥 𝑦 𝑝𝑞
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
Ans : d) 9

48. Pick out the correct option with regard to the following statements.
I. The pair of linear equations 𝑎1 𝑥 + 𝑏1 𝑦 + 𝑐1 = 0 and 𝑎2 𝑥 + 𝑏2 𝑦 + 𝑐2 = 0 have no solution
𝑎1 𝑏1
if ≠
𝑎2 𝑏2
II. The pair of linear equation 𝑎1 𝑥 + 𝑏1 𝑦 + 𝑐1 = 0 and 𝑎2 𝑥 + 𝑏2 𝑦 + 𝑐2 = 0 have infinite
𝑎1 𝑏1 𝑐1
solutions if = =
𝑎2 𝑏2 𝑐2

a) I is true but II is false

b) I is false but II is true
c) Both I and II are true
d) Both I and II are false
Ans : b) I is false but II is true

49. A man row downstream at 12 km /hr and upstream at 8km/hr. Then the speed of the man in
still water is
a) 12 km/hr
b) 10 km/hr
c) 8 km/hr
d) 4 km/hr
Ans : b) 10 km/hr

50. The length of each side of a ∆𝐴𝐵𝐶 are in integral units. If the length of side AB=10units,
length of side BC=15 units, then the number of distinct possible value of length of side AC is
a) 13
b) 19
c) 21
d) 25
Ans : b) 19
51. In the given figure, PQ and PR are tangents to the circle. QS is the diameter of the circle.
Then which one of the following is correct?

1
a) ∠𝑄𝑃𝑅 = ∠𝑅𝑄𝑆
2
b) ∠𝑄𝑃𝑅 = ∠𝑅𝑄𝑆
c) ∠𝑄𝑃𝑅 = 2 ∠𝑅𝑄𝑆
d) None of these
Ans: c) ∠𝑄𝑃𝑅 = 2 ∠𝑅𝑄𝑆

52. The diagonals 𝐴𝐶 and 𝐵𝐷 of a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD intersect each other at right angle
in E. Let R be the circumradius of the ABCD and EA2+EB2+EC2+ED2=nR2 then the value of
n is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans : d) 4
53. Two circles with centres A and B have radii 8cm and 1cm respectively. The length of the line
AB is 13cm. A third circle with centre ‘C’ and radius ‘r’ cm touches both circles externally. If
∠ACB=900, then value of ‘r’ is
a) 11
b) 9
c) 7
d) 4
Ans : d) 4
54. If three circles of radius 1 unit each are inscribed in an equilateral triangle, then the area of the
triangle is
a) (6 + 4√3) 𝑠𝑞. 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
b) (8 + √3) 𝑠𝑞. 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
c) (6 + √3) 𝑠𝑞. 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
d) 4(1 + √3) 𝑠𝑞. 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
Ans : a) (6 + 4√3) 𝑠𝑞. 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
55. If 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥 + 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝑥 = 1, then which one the following is true ?
a) 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 = 1
b) 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑥 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 = 1
c) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 4 𝑥 = 1
d) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 4 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 3 𝑥 = 1

Ans : c) 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝑥 + 𝑐𝑜𝑠 4 𝑥 = 1

56. The shadow of a tower standing on the ground level is found to be 60 metres longer when the
Sun’s attitude is 300 than when it is 450. Then height of the tower is
a) 60 metres
b) 30 metres
c) 30(√3 + 1)metres
d) 60(√3 − 1) metres
Ans : c) 30(√3 + 1)metres

57. Which of the following statement is/are true ? I. There exist irrational numbers ‘a’
and ‘b’ such that ab can be rational. II. There exists a rational number ‘a’ (other than 0
and 1) and an irrational number ‘b’ such that ab can be rational.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Ans : c) Both I and II

58. Let XOY be a triangle with 𝑚∠𝑋𝑂𝑌 = 900 let M and N be the midpoints of Legs 𝑂𝑋 and
𝑂𝑌 respectively with XN=19cm, YM=22cm then Length of XY is
a) 23cm
b) 24cm
c) 25cm
d) 26cm
Ans : d) 26cm
59. Let N1=255+1 and N2=165 Then
a) N1 and N2 are co prime
b) The HCF (Highest common factor ) of N1 and N2 is 55
c) The HCF of N1 and N2 is 11
d) The HCF of N1 and N2 is 33

Ans : d) The HCF of N1 and N2 is 33

 𝑠𝑖𝑛6 𝜃−𝑐𝑜𝑠 6 𝜃
60. The value of is equal to
𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃−𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝜃
a) 𝑠𝑖𝑛4 𝜃 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜃 4

b) 𝑠𝑖𝑛3 𝜃 − 𝑐𝑜𝑠 3 𝜃
c) 1 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝜃
d) 1 − 3𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝜃
𝐴𝑛𝑠 ∶ 𝑐) 1 − 𝑠𝑖𝑛2 𝜃. 𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 𝜃

61. If 𝛼 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛽 are the roots of the equation 3𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 3 = 0, then the quadratic equation
whose roots are 𝛼 2 𝛽 and 𝛼𝛽2 is

a) 3𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 3 = 0
b) 3𝑥 2 − 8𝑥 + 5 = 0
c) 3𝑥 2 − 8𝑥 + 3 = 0
d) 3𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 − 3 = 0
Ans : a) 3𝑥 2 − 5𝑥 + 3 = 0
1
62. The water level in a cylindrical container of radius 𝑚 is 3.2 m. When a spherical solid
2
object is completely submerged in the water, the water level rises by 0.6m. Then the
volume (in m3) of the sphere is
11
a)
35
11
b)
70
33
c)
70
d) None of these
33
Ans : c)
70
63. Let x1,x2….x11 be 11 distinct positive integers. If we replace the largest of these integers by the
median of the other 10 integers, then
a) the median remains the same
b) the mean increases
c) the median decreases
d) the mean remains the same
Ans : c) the median decreases
64. If sinx +cosecx=2, then sinnx+cosecnx is equal to

(a) 2
(b) 2n
(c) 2n-1
(d) 2n-2

Ans : a) 2
65. The 10th term from the end of the AP 5, 12,19,….,173 is
a) 117
b) 103
c) 110
d) 96
Ans : c)110
66.How many pairs of natural numbers are there so that difference of their squares is 60 ?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Ans: c) 2
67. If the rank of 10 students A1, A2…., A10 is displayed with a condition that no two student
will get the same rank, then what is the probability that the student A1 will always secure
better rank than A2
1
a)
4
1
b)
2
1
c)
3
2
d)
3
1
Ans : b)
2

68. A shoe company, making shoes for adults only, wants to know the most popular size of shoes.
Which measure of central tendency will be most suitable for it?
a) Mean
b) Median
c) Mode
d) Mean and Median
Ans : c) Median
69. If the 9th term of an Arithmetic progression (AP) is 499 and 499th term is 9, then which term of
the AP is zero ?
a) 509th
b) 508th
c) 507th
d) 506th
Ans :b) 508th
70. Two right circular cones having the same base radius of 2cm , but heights 3cm and 5cm are
melted and recasted into a single sphere. Then the surface area of the sphere in cm2 is
a) 32𝜋
b) 20𝜋
c) 16𝜋
d) 10𝜋
Ans : 𝑐) 16𝜋

71. The radius ‘r’ of a cylinder is made twice as large by keeping the volume same as before. If
‘h’ is the height of the original cylinder and ‘H’ is the height of the new cylinder , then which
of the following condition is true ?
1
a) 𝐻 = ℎ
4
b) 𝐻 ≥ ℎ
1
c) ℎ = 𝐻
4
d) 𝐻 = 2ℎ
1
Ans : a) 𝐻 = ℎ
4
72. There are two temples, one on each bank of a river, just opposite to each other. One temple is
54m high. From the top of this temple, the angles of depression of the top and the foot of the
other temple are 300 and 600 respectively. Then the height of the other temple is
a) 54m
b) 46m
c) 36m
d) 18m
Ans : c) 36m
73. If A, B,C,D are the angles of a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD, then the value of
cosA+cosB+cosC+cosD is
−1
a)
√2
1
b)
2
√3
c)
2
d) 0
Ans : d) 0
𝐴 5 𝐶 2
74. In a triangle ABC if 𝑡𝑎𝑛 = and 𝑡𝑎𝑛 = then
2 6 2 5
a) a, c, b are in AP
b) a, b,c are in AP
c) b,a,c are in AP
d) None of these
Ans : d) None of these
75. A wire length ‘l’ is made into a square and then a circle. The ratio of area of the square to that
of circle is.
a) 4 : 3.14
b) 3.14 : 4
c) 16 : 3.14
d) 3.14 : 16
Ans : b) 3.14 : 4
76. Consider the following statements for any convex quadrilateral
I. The line segments joining the midpoints of the two pairs of opposite sides, bisect each
other at the point of intersection.
II. The area of the quadrilateral formed by joining the midpoints of the adjacent sides is half
of the total of the original quadrilateral.
Which of the following statement (s) is /are true?
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I and II
Ans : c) Both I and II
77. If 𝑡𝑎𝑛2 𝜃 = 1 − 𝑎2 , then 𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 + 𝑡𝑎𝑛3 𝜃 . 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 is equal to
a) √2 − 𝑎2
b) (2 − 𝑎2 )3/2
c) 2 − 𝑎2
d) None of these
Ans : b) (2 − 𝑎2 )3/2
78. If 00 < 𝜃 < 900 , and 2𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃 + 2√2 = 3𝑠𝑒𝑐𝜃 , then the value of 𝜃 is
a) 300
b) 600
c) 450
d) None of these
Ans : c) 450
79. The percentage increase in the area of a triangle, if its each side is doubled is
a) 200%
b) 50%
c) 300%
d) 400%
Ans : c) 300%
80. If 𝑝(𝑥) = 𝑎𝑥 3 + 4𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 − 4 and 𝑞(𝑥) = 𝑥 3 − 4𝑥 + 𝑎 have the same remainder when
divided by (x-3), then the value of a is
a) -1
b) 0
c) 1
d) None of these

Ans : a) -1
 BIOLOGY
81. Double fertilization is a unique process that takes place in angiosperms. The process is
initiated with compatible pollen-pistil interaction. It is of great significance with regard to
formation and development of embryo. It involves
(a) fertilization of egg cell by two male gametes.
(b) fertilization of egg cell and a central cell by two male gametes brought by same pollen
tube.
(c) fertilization of egg cell and a central cell by single male gamete brought by the pollen tube.
(d) fertilization of egg cell and a central cell by two male gametes brought by different pollen
tubes.
Ans : (b) fertilization of egg cell and a central cell by two male gametes brought by same
pollen tube.
82. Oogenesis is a hormone regulated process that takes place in the female reproductive system.
In mammals it may take several months and years for completion. The last stage of the
process is maturation of secondary oocyte which is completed
(a) shortly after ovulation but before the secondary oocyte makes entry into the fallopian
tube.
(b) just after the secondary oocyte has been penetrated by the sperm.
(c) after the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum.
(d) in the graafian follicle following the first maturation division.
Ans : (b) just after the secondary oocyte has been penetrated by the sperm.
83. Plant tissue culture is a collection of techniques used to maintain or grow plant cells, tissues
or organs under sterile conditions on a nutrient culture medium of known composition. To
obtain virus free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture technique, which
part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken?
(a) Apical meristem only
(b)Palisade parenchyma
(c)Both apical and axillary meristems
(d)Epidermis only
Ans : (c)Both apical and axillary meristems
84. In a plant species, flower colour yellow is dominant over white and fruit shape round is
dominant over elongated. Crossing over was performed between two pure lines, i.e. one
having yellow flower and round fruit and another with white flower and elongated fruit.
About 20 plants survived in F1 progeny. Plants of F1 were allowed for self fertilization and
about 960 plants survived in F2. If the traits follow Mendelian inheritance, the number of
plants that would have yellow flower and round fruit in F1 and F2 respectively will be
(a) 10, 180
(b) 20, 540
(c) 20, 60
(d) 20, 180
Ans : (b)20, 540
85. A homozygous tall plant was grown in nutrient deficient soil and remained dwarf. When it
is crossed a with dwarf plant and the seeds grown under normal conditions, then
(a) all hybrid plants are dwarf
(b) all hybrid plants are tall
(c) 50% tall and 50% dwarf
(d) 75% tall and 25% dwarf
Ans : (b) all hybrid plants are tall
86. Assertion(A): In humans the type of male gamete that fuses with the egg determines whether
the child will be male or female.
Reason(R): Male produces heterogametes whereas female produces homo-gametes in all
animals.
A. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
B. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. Assertion is true but reason is false.
D. Assertion is false but reason is true
Ans : C. Assertion is true but reason is false.

87. Consider the following statements concerning food chains and food web:
I. Removal of 90% tigers from an area resulted in greatly increased growth of vegetation.
II. In a food web the same organism may be found at different trophic levels.
III. The length of food chains is generally limited to 3-4 trophic levels due to energy loss.
IV. The organism at the last trophic level of the food chain receives the maximum amount
of energy.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) III only
(b) II and III
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I and II
Ans : (b)II and III
88. Assertion(A): UV radiation causes photo dissociation of ozone into O2 and O, thus causing
damage to the stratospheric ozone layer.
Reason(R): UV-B is responsible for causing mutations leading to various types of cancer.
A. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
B. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. Assertion is true but reason is false.
D. Assertion is false but reason is true
Ans : D. Assertion is false but reason is true
89. Nephrons are the structural and functional unit of kidney involved in the process of excretion
and osmoregulation. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which of the
following to be expected?
(a)The urine will be more concentrated
(b)The urine will be more dilute
(c)There will be no urine formation
(d)There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed.
Ans : (b)The urine will be more dilute

90. Due to some injury the chordae tendineae of mitral valve in human heart became partially
non-functional. What would be its effect on blood circulation?
(a)The flow of blood into pulmonary artery will be reduced.
(b) The blood will tend to backflow into left atrium.
(c) The blood will tend to backflow into right atrium.
(d)There will be more flow of blood into the aorta.
Ans : (b) The blood will tend to backflow into left atrium.

91. Assertion(A): The inner membrane of mitochondrion is highly folded forming finger like
projections called cristae.
Reason(R): The inner membrane is less permeable in comparison to the outer mitochondrial
membrane.
A. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
B. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
C. Assertion is true but reason is false.
D. Assertion is false but reason is true
Ans : B. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
92. The RER in the cell synthesises proteins which would be later used in building the plasma
membrane. But it is observed that the protein in the membrane is slightly different from the
protein made in the RER. Identify the organelle in which the protein was probably modified.
a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondria
c. Golgi bodies
d. Lysosome
Ans : c) Golgi bodies
93. Chloroplast contains pigments such as chlorophylls, xanthophylls, carotenoids for absorption
of sunlight. Both grana and stroma are equally important for the process of photosynthesis.
Choose the location of Chlorophyll pigments in chloroplast.
a. In outer membrane
b. In Stroma
c. In grana and stroma
d. In thylakoid
Ans : d) In thylakoid
94. Epithelial cells are found covering the body and visceral organs with necessary
modifications. Somewhere these are cuboidal, somewhere columnar and these may or may
not be provided with cilia. The type of epithelial cells forming the linings of kidney tubules
and ducts of salivary glands are
a. ciliated columnar epithelium
b. cuboidal epithelium
c. squamous epithelium
d. stratified epithelium

Ans : b)cuboidal epithelium

95. A plant cell having a cellulosic wall, a thin lining of cytoplasm, enucleated but still living. It
is a part of complex permanent tissue. The cell is
a. tracheid
b. companion cell
c. sieve tube cell
d. vessels
Ans : c) sieve tube cell
96. People who have migrated from the plains to an area adjoining Rohtang pass about
six months back:
a. have more RBCs and their haemoglobin has a lower binding affinity to O2.
b. are not physically fit to play games like football.
c. suffer from altitude sickness with symptoms like nausea,fatigue,etc.
d. have the usual RBC count but their haemoglobin has very high binding affinity to
O2.
Ans : a)have more RBCs and their haemoglobin has a lower binding affinity to O2.
97. A Red Blood Cell and a plant cell (with thick cell wall) are placed in distilled water.
The solute concentration is same in both the cells. What changes would be observed
in them?
(a) The plant cell would increase in size and burst while the RBC would remain
about the same size.
(b) both the plant cell and RBC will decrease in size and collapse.
(c) both plant cell and RBC would not undergo any change.
(d) the RBC would increase in size and burst while the plant cell would remain
about the same size.
Ans : d)the RBC would increase in size and burst while the plant cell would remain
about the same size.
98. Which of the following are phagocytic in nature?
a. Neutrophil,monocyte and basophil
b. Neutrophil,monocyte and macrophage
c. Neutrophil, basophil and macrophage
d. Neutrophil,basophil and lymphocyte
Ans : b) Neutrophil,monocyte and macrophage

99. Digestion of food stuffs is mediated by both mechanical and chemical processes. Enzymes
are the biocatalysts, accelerating the chemical reactions of our body. If for some reason the
parietal cells of the gut epithelium become partially non-functional, what is likely to
happen?
a. pH of the stomach will fall abruptly.
b. Pepsin will be more effective
c. Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones.
d. The pancreatic enzymes and specially trypsin and lipase will not work efficiently.
Ans : c) Proteins will not be adequately hydrolysed by pepsin into proteoses and peptones.

100. During which stage in the complete oxidation of glucose highest number of ATP molecules
are formed from ADP?
a. Conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl Co-A.
b. Glycolysis
c. Electron transport chain
d. Krebs cycle

Ans : c) Electron transport chain