Final Coaching in

Crime Detection and Investigation

Prepared by: Karolina Erika A. Buted, RCrim

FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL INVESTIGATION -P2

TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION – P7

SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION - P12

ORGANIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION -P17

DRUGS EDUCATION AND VICE CONTROL -P22

FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON INVESTIGATION -P27

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 its task in achieving the objectives of criminal
FUNDAMENTALS OF CRIMINAL investigation.
a. Information
INVESTIGATION b. Criminalistics
c. Instrumentation
1. The following are cardinal points of 10. Coerced and uncounseled statements are
investigations, except? considered involuntary or forced confession which are
a. What is the crime committed usually an:
b. Who commits the crime a. Judicial
c. What is the marital status of offender b. Extra judicial
d. Where is the crime committed c. Prosecutorial
2. What specific offence has been committed? d. Admission
Who committed it? When it was committed? Where it 11. After apprising him of his rights under
was committed? Why it was committed? And how it Republic Act 7438, Edmond Rivera who was invited and
was committed? These are interrogated for the crime of murder executed an
called_______________________ of criminal extra-judicial confession acknowledging his guilt to the
investigation. crime charged. What is the effect of such confession to
a. Cardinal Points his case?
b. Three I’s a. It can be used as evidence against him
c. Golden Rule b. He will be convicted for the crime of murder
d. Bridges burn c. He waived his rights to prove his innocence
3. In searching for physical evidence at the d. His case will prosper
crime scene, the following types of search could be 12. n act or declaration made in the presence and
used depending upon locale, number of personnel within the hearing or observation of a party who does
available, type of object sought and speed desired, or says nothing, when the act or declaration naturally
except: calls for action if comment is not true.
a. Strip and double strip search a. Admission by Silence
b. Zone search b. Res inter alios acta
c. Rectangular and circular search c. Admission
d. Spiral and wheel search d. Negative pregnant
4. Criminals are identified through, except: 13. Which of the following is not an element of
a. By confession or admission by the criminal corpus delicti?
b. By corpus delicti a. Proof of the occurrence of certain event
c. By circumstantial evidence b. Person’s criminal responsibility for the acts
d. By eyewitness C. Additional evidence of a different character to
5. The methodology involving the systematic the same point
searching, handling, distribution and accountability of D. Proper chain of custody
all evidence found at the crime scene, including the 14. Which of the following need not be present in
documentation of every article of evidence from the order to prove the guilt of the accused by means of
point of initial discovery at the scene, to its collection confession or admission?
and transport to the point of examination, its a. Confession must be supported by
temporary storage and its final disposal is referred to corroborative evidence
us. b. Corpus delicti must be established separately
a. Corpus delicti c. Confession must be voluntarily and freely
b. Body of the crime given
c. Blotter d. d. Confession must be ratified by the judge or
d. Chain of custody the fiscal
6. What kind of evidence links the suspect to the 15. Assume that you are an investigator who
crime scene? It puts him in the crime scene which investigates a murder case perpetrated by an unknown
discredits his alibis and defenses which purports him suspect. A person in the name of Ruel, a call center
not to be at the crime scene when the crime agent, saw the crime and he is willing to identify the
transpired? suspect. Which of the following methods will you not
a. Associative utilize to establish the identity of the suspect?
b. tracing a. Verbal Description (Portrait Parle) and
c. corpus delicti Rogue’s
d. none of these Gallery (Photographic Files)
7. It deals with the identity, location and arrest b. General Photographs and Cartographic Sketch
of a person who commits a crime and simultaneously (Artist’s Assistance) [Composite Artist]
identifies, collect, preserve and evaluate evidence for c. Police Line-up
the purpose of bringing criminal offender to justice. d. Systematic interview that may lead to the
(June 2019 Board Exam Question) identity of a known criminals
a. Criminal Procedure 16. Covert observation of a person, place, or
b. Criminal investigation things by human or technical means to acquire
c. Crime investigation information.
d. Criminal inquest a. Surveillance
8. Which phase of criminal Investigation that the b. Stationary surveillance
investigator apprised the person of his right under c. Undercover
Republic Act 7438? d. Technical surveillance
a. During the identification of criminal offender 17. The most unusual style of interrogation:
b. During the arrest, detention and interrogation (December 2018 Board Exam Question)
of the offender a. Jolting
c. During the gathering of evidence to prove the b. Hypnotism
guilt of criminal offender c. Mutt and Jeff
d. During police line-up d. Bluff on a split pair
9. Through this tool of criminal investigation
tangible things may be used to detect crimes, identify
the criminals, facilitate, and assist the investigator in

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18. Photographs to be taken at the scene of the c. During the announcement that he is under
crime, EXCEPT arrest
a. Over-All and environment’s photograph d. At the moment that he is invited for
b. Photographs of articles of evidence and questioning
photographs of the deceased 28. “Eavesdropping the crime scene” means:
c. Photographs of the scene of the crime a. Extent the estimate of the scene
operatives showing their identity b. Search physical evidence at the scene
d. Special techniques photograph of the body c. Playing the role of a curious spectator and mix
after removal with the crowd to listen to their conversation
19. It supplements photographs of the crime d. None of the above
scene and considered to be the simplest and the most 29. Which of the following is NOT one of the
effective way of showing actual measurements and of examples of covert information: (June 2018 Board
identifying significant of evidence in their location at Exam Question)
the scene. a. Grapevine
a. Crime scene sketch b. Information
b. Rough sketch c. Informers
c. Finished sketch d. Public Records
d. Direction sketch 30. The disinterment of the body to determine the
20. Which of the following must be done to cause of death is called.
maintain the legal integrity of evidence? a. Autopsy =
a. Evidence must be properly documented b. Medico Legal
b. Maintain its chain of custody c. Exhumation
c. Identify, tag and seal the evidence d. All of these
d. Photographed and packaged the evidence 31. Marking produced by screw driver used to
21. Which of the following must be done to forcibly open the cabinet is called .
maintain the physical integrity of evidence? a. Scratch marks
a. Evidence must be photographed and b. Scuff marks
packaged c. Tool marks
b. Evidence must be properly documented d. Skid marks
c. Maintain its chain of custody 32. Which of the following are the questions in
d. Identify, tag and seal the evidence incidents involving assaults that CANNOT be answer by
22. In questioning a witness, an ideal type of a medico legal?
written statement is: A. How many are the victims?
a. Narrative type because it is easier and will be B. What is the position of the victim when he was
short assaulted
b. Question and answer because it provides C. Was there evidence of defense mark or
details of acts struggle
c. Combination of the two D. From what direction was the force applied
d. Your convenient type coming from
23. An accusation in writing charging a person 33. The word investigation is taken from the Latin
with an offense subscribed by the prosecutor and filed word “vestigare” which means to:
to court. a. determine C. solve
a. complaint b. prove D. trace
b. deposition 34. Vigorous questioning of one who is reluctant
c. information to divulge information.
d. Blotter a. Interview
24. What are the Golden Rules in homicide b. Interrogation
investigation? c. Investigation
a. Never touch, alter and change the position of d. All of the foregoing
anything until identified, measured and photographed 35. Made by the investigator at the crime scene.
b. If article has been move it can never be No scale, proportion ignored and everything is
restored again to its original position approximate.
c. A and B are true a. Sketch
d. All of the above b. Draft
25. It works to exclude any evidence against an c. Rough sketch
individual which was seized in violation of the person’s d. Finished sketch
constitutional rights. 36. The explanation of any symbols used to
a. Hammurabi Law identify objects in a sketch.
b. Laurel’s Law a. Compass direction
c. Miranda Rule b. Title
d. Exclusionary Law c. Legend
26. Statement no. 1-Tagging of physical evidence d. Scale
aside from the marking should be made immediately 37. Such articles and evidences which assists the
after receipt by the evidence custodian; Statement no. investigator in locating the suspect.
2- Marking or labeling of physical evidence should be a. Physical evidence
made at the crime scene upon collection. b. Material evidence
a. Statement No. 1 is correct c. Associative evidence
b. Statement No. 2 is incorrect d. Tracing evidence
c. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct 38. It is a kind of view which best gives the nature
d. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect of the crime
27. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the a. General
police’ custody of suspect to a crime commence, hence b. medium
the latter is entitled to be informed of his rights under c. close up
the Miranda doctrine which cannot be waived? d. extreme closeup
a. At the time of custodial investigation
b. During the actual questioning

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39. This kind of sketch gives picture of the scene, 50. The investigator should employ friendly
the crime and its environs, including neighboring approach and should spend time in explaining that the
building, roads, etc. information obtained will be treated as a confidential
a. Sketch of locality matter.
b. sketch of the ground a. Boasting Egoistic, or Egocentric Witness
c. sketch of details b. Timid type
d. cross projection sketch c. Suspicious Type
40. Information furnished by underworld d. Deceitful Witness
characters such as prisoners and ex-convicts are 51. It is a procedure wherein only one person is
considered coming from: shown to the witness usually at the scene of the crime
A. classified information and made immediately after the arrest of the suspect.
B. cultivated source a. physical lineup
C. grapevines source b. physical show up
D. regular source c. line up
41. What is the most dangerous undercover d. show up
assignment? 52. A crime scene staged to mislead, cover-up, or
a. social conceal what really happened.
b. work a. Secondary Crime Scene
c. neighborhood b. Primary Crime Scene
d. subversive organization c. Pseudo Crime Scene
42. He popularized the Scientific Criminal d. Tertiary Crime Scene
Investigation by creating the fictional detective 53. A moving force which impels a person to act:
SHERLOCK HOLMES and his friend Dr. WATSON. a) Modus operandi
a. Dr. Conan Doyle b) Motive
b. Francis Galton c) Intent
c. Eugene Vidocq d) Opportunity
d. Jonathan Wild 54. Which of the following best describes corpus
43. A method of criminal identification whereby delicti:
the perceptions of witnesses are key and criminals are a. the body of the victim in case of homicide or
identified by depiction. murder.
a. Verbal description b. essential parts of the body of the crime or the
b. General photographs body of the crime itself.
c. Police line up c. the recovered stolen properties in case of theft
d. Rouge gallery or robbery.
44. Type of shadowing where constant d. any recovered weapon, either firearm or
surveillance is necessary. bladed weapon.
a. Loose tail 55. These are places of amusements, such as
b. Rough shadowing bars, nightclubs, and other places of entertainment
c. Close tail where his subject frequents.
d. None of the foregoing a. Social Assignment
45. The general questioning of all persons at near b. Residential Assignment
or around the crime scene. c. Work Assignment
A . Interrogation d. All of these
B . Interview 56. These are places of amusements, such as
C . Field inquiry bars, nightclubs, and other places of entertainment
D . Crime Scene interview where his subject frequents.
46. These are the most dangerous and difficult a. Social Assignment
types of informants, Most effective among informers b. Residential Assignment
because they could easily penetrate the ranks of c. Work Assignment
criminals with less suspicion. d. All of these
A. Double Crosser 57. It is an acknowledgement of a fact or
B. Frightened Informants circumstance without accepting guilt.
C. Women a. Confession
D. Mercenary b. Admission
47. Those agents who have reached the enemy c. Investigation
camp, gathered information, and are able to get back d. Information
without being caught and come back alive are called? 58. The person charged with the duty of carrying
A. Double agents out the objectives of investigation is called:
B. Agent in place A. criminal investigator C. team leader
C. Agent of influence B. first responder D. desk officer
D. Penetration agents 59. The law that defines certain rights of persons
48. A biographical data through fictional, which arrested, detained, and under custodial investigation,
will portray the personality of the agent he assumed? as well as the duties of arresting, detaining, and
A.Cover support investigating officers is known as:
B. Covert investigation A. RA 7532 C. RA 7348
C. Cover story B. RA 7438 D. RA 7352
D. Cover 60. In case there is no other available means of
49. It is a convenient, secure and unsuspecting establishing the age of the offender, what should be
place where a police, undercover man, informer or done if he claims that he is still a minor?
informant by a pre-arrangement leaves a note, a small A. Do not listen to his claim because probably he is
package, and envelope to item for the action agent, already of majority age.
supervisor or another agent. B. Wait for the court to determine the age of the
A. Lost offender.
B.Rabbit C. Resolve the issue in favor of the declarant.
C.Drop D. Ask the social worker to determine the age of the
D. Convoy offender.

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61. What kind of criminals are those not yet B. Ask the desk officer to proceed to the crime scene
known to the witnesses by names and other personal and assist him with the situation.
circumstances before the commission of the crime? C. Call the investigator and inquire about his decision
A.unknown criminals concerning the victim.
B. unidentified criminals D. Evacuate the victim and bring him to the nearest
C. grapevines source hospital
D. none of the above 74. What type of informant is one who gives
62. The first police officer who arrives at the crime information to the police to learn more about the
scene before the investigator is called information the police have in possession?
_______________. A. double crosser informant
A.technical team c. desk officer B. self-aggrandizing informant
B. arresting officer d. first responder C. false informant
63. Time element is material in which felony D. Anonymous informant
under the Revised Penal Code? 75. During custodial investigation in the police
A. Robbery C. Homicide station, Mr. X confessed that he was the one who killed
B. Infanticide D. Kidnapping Mr. Y because the latter killed his brother a week ago.
64. The ability of an investigator to last physically He voluntarily signed a statement containing his
and mentally in enduring sleepless nights and tiresome confession, but he refused the assistance of a lawyer
days in conducting investigation. claiming that he is not capable of paying the services
A. perseverance C. adaptability of a private counsel. Is the confession admissible in
B. optimism D. endurance evidence?
65. Confession made by the suspect during A. Yes, because it was voluntary given by the suspect.
custodial investigation is considered: B. Yes, because the confession is in writing.
A. judicial confession C. No, because it is not a confession but an admission.
B. extra judicial confession
C. judicial determination of guilt D. No, because he made the confession without the
D. mitigating circumstance assistance of a counsel.
66. What is the term being used by the police 76. What interrogation technique may be applied
during investigation of crimes referring to a person who to calm and nervous subjects by constantly observing
commits a crime? their behavior and then the investigator chooses the
A. criminal C. respondent right moment to shout a pertinent question?
B. accused D. suspect A. emotional appeal
67. Case investigated by the police is considered B. jolting
solved if: C. sympathetic appeal
A. Suspect is identified D. extenuation
B. Suspect is arrested and evidence against him are 77. It is the result or accomplishment of the act
gathered which is needed to be proved in order to obtain
C. Suspect is charged with appropriated case conviction.
D. All of the above A. motive
68. The specific place or location where an B. intent
unlawful act takes place is called: C. sympathetic appeal
A. venue D. execution
B. crime scene 78. Latent fingerprints and shoe impression left
C. judicial determination of guilt by the suspect at the crime scene are examples of
D. area of responsibility ____________________.
69. The desk officer upon receipt of the crime A. circumstantial evidence C. tracing
incident shall have the following duties, EXCEPT: evidence
A. Record the date and time the report was made B. associative evidence D. real evidence
B. Immediately respond to the crime scene 79. When the informant gives information to the
C. Made a synopsis of the incident police about the illegal activities of a rival gang, he is
D. Inform the his superior officer or duty officer motivated by ___________________.
regarding the report A. competition C. jealousy
70. What is the area located adjacent to the crime B. revenge D. remuneration
scene where the briefing is to be conducted and also
the place where the evidence custodian receives the 80. While a policeman was patrolling, he heard a
evidence collected during crime scene investigation? scream from a house. He immediately ran towards the
A. crime scene C. fixed post house and saw a man coming out the house carrying a
B. command post D. reception area bloody knife. He arrested the man and subsequently
71. What type of pictorial view is taken from a entered the house where he discovered a female victim
distance of eight to ten feet: lying on the floor sustaining stab wound to the chest.
A. general view C. long range view This scenario is an example of
B. mid-range view D. close-up view _________________________.
72. In preliminary survey of the crime scene, the A. circumstantial evidence
team leader performs the following duties, EXCEPT: B. associative evidence
A. Takes down note to document important factors C. arrest in flagrante delicto
B. Makes a general assessment of the crime scene D. direct evidence
C. Photograph the crime scene before walking through
the crime scene 81. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of
D. Defines the extent of search area investigation?
73. PO1 Rizal Ali is the first officer to arrive at the A. Identify, locate, and arrest a person who commits
scene of a shooting incident. He saw the victim lying crime
on the pavement sustaining multiple gunshot wounds, B. Prosecute and convict the criminal
but still moving. What is the proper course of action he C. Identify, collect, preserve, and evaluate physical
should take? evidence
A. Cordon the area and wait for the SOCO Team to D. Bring the criminal offender to justice
arrive.

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82. One of the elements of sketch wherein the b. Strip search
graphical representation must indicate the _________ c. Sector search
direction for proper orientation of the scene. d. Double strip search
A. North C. West
B. East D. South 92. A type of shadowing employed when a
general impression of the
83. These the possible sources of physical
subject’s habits and associates is required.
evidence, EXCEPT:
A. loose tail
A. crime scene C. victim
B. casing
B. court D. offender
C. pony tail
84. Who conducts the final survey of the crime D. close tail
scene?
A. Chief Investigator 93. 9.A kind of evidence that tends to prove
C. Team Leader additional evidence of a
C. Chief of Police same character to the same point.
D. Investigator-on-case A. Corroborative evidence
B. Circumstantial evidence
85. When a person is caught in the act of C. Direct evidence
committing an offense, he is said to have been arrested D. Cumulative
________________.
A. arbitrarily 94. Ways and means are resorted for the purpose
B. during hot pursuit operation of trapping and
C. in flagrante delicto capturing the law breaker during the execution of a
D. legally criminal act.
86. Alibi is considered the weakest defense in A. Instigation
criminal prosecution, which means that the accused B. Inducement
claims he was: C. Buy bust operation
A. not the perpetrator D. Entrapment
B. innocent
C. somewhere else when the incident took place 95. The use of an equipment or tool to listen and
D. near the place of incident record discreetly
conversations of other people.
87. “Never touch, move, or alter any object at the A. Bugging
crime scene unless it has been photographed, B. Dubbing
measured, and sketched from any conceivable angle,” C. Mimicking
this statement is the Golden Rule in D. Elicitation
_______________________.
A. Criminal Investigation C. Criminalistics 96. What interrogation techniques when the
B. Forensic Investigation D. Crime Scene investigator indicates he does not consider his subject’s
Investigation indiscretion a grave offense.
88. What is the purpose of conducting final survey A. Sympathetic Appeal C. Mutt and Jeff
of the crime scene? B. Extenuation D. Emotional Appeal
A. To determine whether or not the processing has
been completed. 97. It refers to Police files of Photograph of known
B. To turn over the scene to the Chief of Police. criminals, their Modus Operandi, hiding places and
C. To check all evidence gathered from the crime names of associate criminals.
scene. A. Physical Line-up C. Physical Show-up
D. To determine whether there is a need to request for B. Geographic Sketch D. Rogues Gallery
additional personnel.
5 98. In the crime of theft, the corpus delicti is
89. America's most famous private investigator ____
and founder of Criminal Investigation. A. the property taken
A. Alec Nayhem B. the fact that the crime was committed
B. Allan Pinkerton C. anything of value
C. Thomas Byrnes D. Intent of the suspect
D. None of these
99. Crime scene photographs are admissible as
90. Which of the following notion regarding evidence in court; it should be taken from ____.
criminal investigation is true? A. General View C. Close-up view
B. Mid-range D. General to Specific
i. Criminal investigation is an art.
ii. Crime probe is governed by intuition, felicity
100. A bullet found at the crime scene to be used
of inspiration, and chance of luck
as a evidence should be marked where ____.
iii. Criminal investigation is governed by rigid
A. At the ogive C. At the nose
rules
B. At the base D. Any of the
iv. Criminal investigation involves application of
above
various sciences, therefore it is a science.
a. I,ii,iii
b. I,ii,iv
c. I,iii,iv
d. I,ii,iii,iv

91. What kind of search method wherein the

crime scene is subdivided into areas, buildings into
rooms or floors then each of the officer are then
assigned accordingly?
a. Concentric search

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TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT AND ARSON 12. It is a police operation purposely to seal off
INVESTIGATION the probable exit points of fleeing suspects from the
crime scene to prevent their escape.
a. Saturation drive
1. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the
b. Entrapment
brakes were applied strongly, hence the wheels locked,
c. Instigation
and not free to rotate
d. Dragnet operation
A. Key event
13. It is a state in which the driver who is in a
B. Scuff marks
better position to avoid the accident but fails, should
C. Debris
shoulder the responsibility of the accident.
D. Skid marks
a. State of necessity
2. The first action taken by a traffic unit to
b. Defensive driving
escape from collision course or otherwise avoid a
c. Last clear chance
hazard
d. Evasive action
a. start of evasive action
14. Elevated areas located at the center of the
b. point of possible perception
road.
c. point of no escape
a. Traffic islands
d. final position
b. Pedestrian Barriers
3. On a highway, a traffic sign reads 80 kph as
c. Parking areas
the maximum speed. While the area is very foggy, a
d. Pavement markings
man drives at 80 kph. If you are a traffic patrol officer
15. Which of the following is otherwise known as
assigned at the area, you may apprehend the driver
the “Land Transportation and Traffic Code of the
for?
Philippines”?
A. Underspeeding
A. RA 4136 C. RA 5487
B. Failure to slow down
B. RA 7877 D. RA 9208
C. Reckless driving
16. It is responsible regulation of transport
D. Overspeeding
routes, granting, denying, suspending or canceling
4. What is the general rule for the movement of
land transport franchises.
vehicular traffic in the Philippines?
a. Department of Transportation &
a. “keep to the left”
Communication
b. “Safety First” =
b. LTFRB
c. “keep to the right”
c. Land Transportation Office
d. “watch out”
d. Traffic Management Bureau
5. When a driver unloads passengers on the
17. Any motor vehicle accident occurring on a
middle of the road, he committed:
traffic way.
a. illegal unloading
A. non motor vehicle traffic accident
b. traffic obstruction
B. non motor vehicle non-traffic accident
c. illegal loading
C. motor vehicle non-traffic accident
d. illegal stopping
D. motor vehicle traffic accident
6. it is the separation of a traffic unit in motion
18. Which of the following law created the
from an object with which it has collided; the force
Metropolitan Manila Development Authority (MMDA)?
between the object ceases at this time
A. RA 8750 B .RA 7924
A. Stopping
C. RA 8749 D. PD 96
B. Disengagement
19. It refers to a modern urban system of
C. Injury
roadway above street level for free-flow traffic.
D. Initial Contact
A. Expressway B. Subway
7. The narrow portion of the roadway due to
C. Skyway D. Tunnel road
traffic congestions or where “build up” usually occurs
is called:
20. It refers to enforcement actions which consist
a. gridlock
of taking a person into custody for the purpose of
b. congestion
holding or detaining him to answer a charge of law
c. traffic jam
violation before a court.
d. bottleneck
A. Arrest B. Traffic Arrest
8. Any motor vehicle accident that results in
C. Traffic Citation D. Traffic Warning
injuries other than fatal to one or more persons.
A. Fatal Injury accident
21. Holder of student driver’s permit for the
B. Non-fatal Injury accident
period of not less than ___ can apply for non-
C. Mortal Injury accident
professional driver’s license
D. Property damage accident
A. 150 Days B. 180 Days
9. It refers to either side of the roadway,
C. 60 Days D. 30 Days
especially along highways.
a. curb
22. Which of the following consideration does not
b. shoulder
act as a deterrent to motorist and pedestrian?
c. trafficway
A. Fear of fine and punishment
d. pavement
B.Loss of driving privileged
10. It refers to the edge where a raised sidewalk
C.Possibility involve in an accident
meets the roadway or a street.
D.Increase of insurance premium
a. curb b. shoulder
c. trafficway d. pavement
23. When two vehicles approach an intersection
11. Taillights should be visible ________ from
at approximately the same time, which shall give the
the rear of the vehicle.
right of way:
a. At least 30 meters
a. The vehicle coming from the right
b. At least 50 meters
b. Vehicle from the center
c. At least 100 meters
c. The vehicle coming from the left
d. At least 200 meters
d. The vehicle that arrives first

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24. The following are NOT functions of Land 34. What is the test in determining drunkenness
Transportation Office, EXCEPT: wherein the subject is required to stand straight with
A. Reparation of vehicles heels together and with closed eyes for at least one (1)
B. Registration and licensing minute and if drunk, not stable?
C. Rental and license A. Brawl’s test
D. operating B. Romberg’s test
C. Takayama test
25. One of the following statements that best D. Stand erect test
indicates the main purpose of traffic law enforcement 35. When we speak of chain of events in vehicular
is: accidents, the ____ is defined as seeing feeling, or
a. reduce traffic by punishing hearing and understanding the unusual or unexpected
b. violators of traffic rules movement or condition that could be taken as sign of
c. keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid an accident about to happen. What was the question
bottlenecks defined?
d. prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow A. Perception of hazards
of traffic B. Start evasive action
C. Initial contact
26. As you are driving in a public thoroughfare, D. Maximum engagement
you approach an intersection with the traffic light with 36. Human errors as one of the causes of traffic
a “green color” on but a traffic policeman is standing congestion is best characterized by,
at the center of intersection conducting the flow except:
normally. As a driver you will ignore the traffic man and A. Poor legislative activities
follow the automatic traffic light- B. Slow drivers or bad driving habit
A. True B. False C. Lack of foresight on the part of pedestrians
C. Sometimes D. It depends D. Presence of traffic officers

27. Term used for an operator or a vehicle which 37. The study of biorhythm is an important aspect
strikes another vehicle, object or person and left the of traffic safety because a person can avoid accident:
scene without stopping to identify himself or render aid A. By hinting on how he will tend to feel in a certain
A. hit and run day
B. third party liability B. By knowing his intellectual capacity on certain day
C. reckless driving C. By knowing his physical capacity on certain day
D. side sweeper D. By ascertaining his physical, emotional and
intellectual condition in a certain month.
28. When cruising on a four-lane two-way
highway, slow moving vehicles should use the: 38. The chronological arrangement of the color
a. lanes 2 and 3 of the traffic lights from the bottom.
b. outer lanes A. Yellow, red, green C. Red, yellow, green
c. inner lanes B. Green, red, yellow D. Green, yellow, red
d. either the inner or outer lanes
39. When approaching in an intersection where
29. The double solid white line: the flashing red is on, the motorist should:
a. doesn’t allow lane changing A. Stop and proceed with caution
b. allows overtaking B. Slow down and proceed with caution
c. allows lane changing C. Reduce speed
d. allows parking D. Give way to motor vehicles coming from the
opposite direction
30. Defined as the act or process of conveying
from one place to another? 40. Used when traffic enforcer observed a minor
a. Traffic violation but preoccupied at a moment.
b. Collision a. visual warning
c. Transport b. verbal warning
d. Transportation c. written warning
d. oral warning
31. On a high way , a yellow or white line with a
dotted white line which means that 41. A number representing the resistance to
A. Allowed to overtake if the solid in your side sliding of two surfaces in contract is known as:
B. You cannot overtake if the solid is in your side a. coefficient of friction
C. Keep right b. traffic jam
D. Keep left c. attribute
d. contract damage
32. It means the right to proceed ahead of 42. When wheeled carts were invented, the next
another vehicle or pedestrian problem by man when travelling was?
A. Left turn a. Wider pathways which will accommodate the much
B. Right of way wider wheeled cart
C. Right turn b. An engine which will power the wheeled carriages
D. Left of way c. how to propel the vehicles
d. how to get rid the domesticated animals
33. When there are two vehicles approaching in
an intersection at the same time, which one should give 43. The inter-link between municipalities and
the right of way? within the city proper with a right of way of 15
A. The vehicle coming from right meters.
B. The vehicle approaching form the left a. Provincial Road
C. The vehicle which is turning right at the movement b. Barangay Road
D. The vehicle which is about to turn left at movement c. Municipal Road
d. City Road

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 countries may be allowed to operate motor vehicles
44. On traffic enforcement, what do you call on during their stay but not beyond?
the act of bringing a motor vehicle as a consequence A. 12 months B. 90 days
of traffic law violation? C. 60 days D. 3 years
A. Confiscation
B. impounding 54. This type of driving instruction method which
C. Encumbrance depends on instructor-student communication is
D. Seizure referred to as: *
A. Traditional
45. On a highway, a traffic sign reads 80 kph as B. Comprehensive
the maximum speed. While the area is very foggy, a C. Commentary
man drives at 80 kph. If you are a traffic patrol officer D. Simulated
assigned at the area, you may apprehend the driver
for? 55. For professional drivers or drivers of trucks,
A. Underspeeding buses, motorcycles and public utility vehicles, the
B. Failure to slow down allowable BAC is?
C. Reckless driving A. 1 percent B. 2 percent
d. Overspeeding C. 0 percent D. 0.05 percent

46. What is the Protocol Plate number of a 56. It is the distance travelled before applying the
Congressman? brakes.
A.4 B. 6 A. Reaction Time
C. 8 D. 14 B. Distance Time
47. They are self-centered and not learned how C. Response Time
to be unselfish. D. Safe time
A. Egotist
B. Over-emotional 57. In measuring critical measurements such as
C. Thwarted skid marks, how many prober will conduct at
D. Top Notch least?
48. A state or condition of severe road congestion A. 2 B. 3
arising when continuous queues of vehicles block an C. 4 D. 1
entire network of intersecting streets bringing traffic in
all directions to a complete standstill. 58. How many days is the extension for the TOP
A. Traffic Jam or temporary operators permit?
B. Collission a.72 hours
C. Gridlock b. 3 days
D. Traffic Congestions c. none
d. both a and b
49. Single white dotted line indicates all of the
following EXCEPT 59. Whenever the load of vehicle extends more
A. on two-lane road, it separates traffic moving in the than one meter beyond body, this should be attached.
opposite directions A. Red lights
B. on a one-way street, separates traffic moving in one B. Tail lights
direction C. Red flags
C. overtaking is possible when other lane is clear of D. Mufflers
oncoming vehicle
D. absolutely no overtaking 60. A type of nomad where they wander for
search of food.
50. For open country roads with no blind corners a. Foraging populations
the maximum allowable speed is___ km/h for b. Pastoral nomad
passenger vehicles and motorcycles, 50 km/h for trucks c. Nomad
and buses; for through streets clear of traffic 40 km/h d. gypsies
and 20 km/h respectively; for city and municipal streets
30 km/h and for through crowded streets approaching 61. Known as the two-humped Camel
intersections at blind corners passing school zones the a. Bactrian camel
maximum allowable speed is 20 km/h for both b. Dromedary camel
passenger cars, motorcycles as well as trucks and c. Humpy camel
buses. d. two-humped camel
A. 60 B. 70
C. 80 D. 200 62. Where was wheel invented?
a. USA b. Western Asia
51. New Anti-Carnapping Act of 2016 c. Europe d. Russia
A. Republic Act No. 10883
B. Republic Act No. 7924 63. What was the oldest wheel found?
C. Republic Act No. 6539 a. Ljubljana Marshes Wooden Wheel
D. Republic Act No. 10586 b. Pneumatic Wheel
c. Western Wheel
52. A classification of films which offers visual d. Etoinne Lenoir Wooden Wheel
realism. *
A. Analytical film 64. They were the major road builders in the
B. Didactic film ancient world
C. Simulation film a. Spaniards
D. Movie film b. Romans
53. Bona fide tourist and transients who are duly c. Americans
licensed to operate motor vehicles in their respective d. Chinese

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65. It connects low-to-moderate highways or b. at least 17 years old
roads to arterial highways such as those entering c. You must have no unsettled traffic violation.
residential properties. It also refers to a highway that d. You must have attended at least 15 hours of
serves primarily to funnel traffic from one local highway theoretical driving lessons from any LTO-accredited
to another or between arterials and local highways. driving school
a. Arterial Highways
b. Carriageway 75. If you’re a holder of a driver’s license that has
c. Collector Highway been expired for 10 years or more, you are no longer
d. Local Collector Road allowed to drive and are required by the LTO to apply
for a student permit again.
66. It is the most common type which involved a. True b. False
crossings of two roadways c. Yes d. No
a. 3-way intersection
b. 4-way intersection 76. The SP shall be valid for two years from the
c. 5-way intersection date of its issuance. After two years, it cannot be used
d. 6-way intersection for purposes of the practical driving course.
a. True b. False
67. Motor vehicle registered for more than nine c. Yes d. No
passengers
a. Passenger automobile 77. This kind of license is issued to owners of
b. Passenger truck private-owned vehicles or those not for hire or paid for
c. Passenger jeepney driving
d. Truck a. Student Permit
b. Professional Driver's License
68. It has no traffic signals or traffic signs. c. Non-Professional Driver's License
a. Uncontrolled Intersection d. Military Driver's License
b. Box Junction
c. Yield-sign intersection 78. It mandates the LTO to conduct a
d. Cloverleaf examination on both applicants of new driver’s licenses
and on those who are renewing expired ones.
69. It is strictly prohibited, except for conductors a. RA 4136
collecting passenger fare. b. RA 10930
a. Cargo Carrying Devices c. RA 10586
b. Riding on running board d. RA 8750
c. Riding on top of the MV
d. Hitching 79. It refers to the collective code representing
the vehicle category/ies that a licensed person is
70. ________ and whenever weather conditions allowed to operate.
so require, headlights shall both be lighted. a. DL Code
a. one-half hour after sunset and until at least b. Driver's Restriction Code
one-half four before sunrise c. Vehicle Category
b. one hour after sunset and until at least one- d. any of the above
half hour before sunrise
c. one-half hour after sunset and until at least 80. A driver's condition where a driver should
one hour before sunrise wear corrective lenses.
d. two hours after sunset and until at least one- a. 1 b. 2
half four before sunrise c. A d. B

71. Every motor vehicle propelled by an internal 81. Statement no. 1: Procuring driver’s license is
combustion engine shall be equipped with a _______, a right. Statement no. 2 Conductor must possess a
and whenever said motor vehicle passes through a license.
street of any city, municipality, or thickly populated a. Statement no. 1 is true. Statement no. 2 is
district or barrio false
a. Engine b. Statement no. 2 is false. Statement no. 2 is
b. Windshield true
c. Muffler c. Both statements are true
d. Lights d. Both statements are false

72. A a driver COULD leave the area of accident 82. A motor vehicle with a plate number of KJN
without being held liable for HIT-AND-RUN, EXCEPT 2247 shall be registered on _______
when: a. June - 1st week
a. His life is in imminent danger of being harmed b. July - 1st week
by other person/s by reason of the accident c. June - 2nd week
b. He surrenders to proper authority d. July - 2nd week
c. He summons the assistance of a physician or
nurse to aid the victim 83. In arresting the traffic violator or when it
d. He has a meeting to attend involved arrest due to traffic violation, the following
procedures are followed except:
73. A Temporary Operator's Permit is valid for a. bring the suspended person before the court
______. b. detention of the arrested person may take
a. 24 hours b. 48 hours place
c. 72 hours d. 15 days c. arrest can be effected even without a warrant
d. impose the probable penalty that might be
74. the following are qualifications for applying a imposed
student permit, except:
a. Filipino citizen

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84. A traffic police officer stationed the route of a 93. What part of the vehicle can tell or serve as
parade has been ordered by his superior to allow no basis in determining its make?
cars to cross the route. While the parade is in progress, a. Headlight
an ambulance driver on an emergency run attempts to b. Tail light
drive his ambulance across the route while the parade c. Windshields
is passing. Under these circumstances the traffic police d. Bumper
officer should.
a. ask the driver to wait until the traffic police 94. If you are the investigator, what particular
officer contact his superior and obtains decisions evidence should be obtained in hit-and-run cases?
b. stop the parade long enough to permit the a. Blood
ambulance to cross the street b. Fiber clothing
c. hold up the ambulance in accordance with the c. Debris
superior's order d. Plate number
d. direct the ambulance driver to the shortest
detour which will add at least then minutes to run 95. Which of the following traffic concept instruct
drivers and pedestrians when, how pedestrian move,
85. This refers to the number of vehicles not to move or stand steady at a particular time?
occupying a specific length of a roadway at a given a. Traffic direction
instant: b. Traffic supervision
a. Density b. Volume c. Traffic control
c. Gravity d. Number of units d. Traffic management

86. The basic principle behind selective 96. What is the traffic engineering system that
enforcement in traffic control is: employs prescribed traffic rules and regulations and
a. selection of geographical areas for strict devices such as signals, and markings, to relieve
enforcement vehicle congestion and to promote safety and
b. concentration of enforcement activities at pedestrian mobility?
peak traffic hours a. Traffic direction
c. a shifting emphasis on different types of b. Traffic supervision
violations c. Traffic control
d. a warning rather than a citation will act as d. Traffic management
preventive measure for future violation
97. What mark is caused by the forward rotation
87. He perfected the Macadamized road system of the wheels being slower than the forward movement
in England: of the vehicle?
a. John road a. Skip marls
b. John Palmer b. Impending skid marks
c. John Mc Adam c. Skid marks
d. John Negroponte d. Yawn marks

88. Are signs left on the road by tires that are 98. If a driver is involved in a traffic accident, he
sliding or scrubbing while the wheel is still turning. must report to the nearest police station _________.
A. Skid Marks a. Within 8 hours
B. Scuff Marks b. Within 12 hours
C. Centrifugal skid c. Within 24 hours
D. Yawn Marks d. At once

89. It is the elevated structure built for the safety 99. When parking on uphill parallel to the
of pedestrians crossing busy highways. highways and there is a curb , the front wheels should
a. Skyway be sharply turned to:
b. Overpass a. Right
c. Flyover b. Left
d. Underpass c. Center
d. Either right or left
90. Painted on the pavement and placed at the
intersections and other places to provide pedestrians 100. an event on the road which characterizes the
with safety zone when crossing. manner of occurrence of a motor vehicle traffic
a. Lane b. Stop lines accident
c. Markers d. Cross walk a. Attribute
b. Key event
91. Frontal collision of vehicles. c. Tactic
a. Full impact collision d. Running off road
b. Head on collision
c. Frontal collision
d. Collision

92. A general principle of traffic accident,

investigation is to:
A. Look for the key event that causes the accident
B. Regard any unfavorable factor, existing immediately
prior to the accident, as a cause
C. Consider violations as primary causes and any
factors as secondary causes
D. Consider road conditions as limiting conditions
rather as causes

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SPECIAL CRIME INVESTIGATION B. Robbery w/ Rape
C. Robbery and Rape
1. IIs the stiffening of certain group of muscles D. NONE
occurring at the moment of death, usually associated
with violent death due to extreme nervous tension, or 10. On a sari-sari store, a vehicle bumped the
even fatigue. wall. The wall collapsed. There was a small opening
A. Rigor Mortis there. At night, a man entered through that opening
B. Cadaveric spasm without breaking the same and gets items there. What
C. Cold stiffening crime is committed?
D. heat stiffening A. Robbery
B. Theft
2. When the gunshot wound of the victim is C. Robbery w/ force upon things
located in the area of the body that is relatively D. None
inaccessible to the victim, it is an indication of:
A. natural death 11. The Access Devices Regulation Act of 1998:
B. homicidal death A. RA 8484 B. RA 7877
C. Accidental death C. RA 7080 D. RA 8353
D. Suicide
12. If stolen goods such as laptops and cell
3. Rape is committed either by sexual phones are found in your house by the police, then it
intercourse or by sexual assault. Which of the following is ____.
is not a rape by sexual assault? a. Prima facie evidence of Fencing
a. Inserting penis into another person's anal orifice b. Prima facie evidence of theft
B. Inserting penis while the woman is sleeping c. Conclusive Evidence of Theft
C. Inserting any instrument or object, into the genital d. Conclusive Evidence of Fencing
or anal orifice of another person
D. Inserting penis into another person's mouth 13. Physical or personal appearance is important
when testifying in court because –
4. Which of the following drug trafficking a. it will determine the quality of your testimony
organization which furnishes drugs to the users? a. b. it will determine the quantity of your
Core organization testimony
b. Secondary organization c. it will affect the weight given to your
c. Cartel testimony by the court
d. Local organization d. it will reduce the chances of the defense

5. Which of the following is the most common 14. What does DNA stand for?
means of the death by asphyxia? a. Deoxyrebunucleic Acid
A. Strangulation b. Deoxyribunucleic Acid
C. Pneumonia c. Deoxyribonucleic Acid
B. Shock d. Deoxyribunucliec Acid
D. Convulsion
15. It is the art of suspect’s surveillance, and this
6. Which of the following is not the function of was pioneered by Allan Pinkerton
criminal investigation? a. Every contact leaves a Mark
a. Identify, locate and arrest the person who b. modus operandi
commits crime c. shadowing
b. Prosecute and convict the criminal d. casing
c. Identify, collect and preserve evidence
d. Bring the offender to justice 16. The fact that no physical evidence was found
at the scene of the crime will most likely mean that
7. Below are serious crimes which leave physical a. the victim cleaned up before the police arrived
evidence, EXCEPT: b. the suspect was professional
a. Homicide c. the suspect was juvenile
b. Carnapping and arson d. the police probably did not conduct a
c. Sexual assault and robbery complete search for evidence.
d. Libel
17. The killing is murder when the offender after
8. There are two robbers who broke into a house killing the victim cut off the head and limbs and opened
and carried away some valuables. After they left such up of the body to remove the intestines of the
house these two robbers decided to cut or divide the deceased. What circumstance qualified the killing?
loot already so that they can go of them. So while they A. By mockery at the corpse of the victim
are dividing the loot the other robber noticed that the B. By outraging or scoffing at the corpse of the victim
one doing the division is trying to cheat him and so he C. By inhumanly augmenting the suffering of the victim
immediately boxed him. Now this robber who was D. By employing means to weaken the defense
boxed then pulled out his gun and fired at the other
one killing the latter. What crime is committed? 18. When murders based on relationship are to be
a. Robbery and Murder committed in a home, who among the following MOST
b. Murder LIKELY could be murdered in the bedroom?
c. Robbery w/ Homicide A. Female
d. Homicide B. Children
C. Parents-in law
9. A committed robbery but during the robbery D. Male
he saw B a beautiful woman which he raped it. But B.
pardoned A, and they get married. What crime is 19. Cherry red to pinkish color of lividity suggests
committed? that the person died due to ________.
A. Robbery A. Racumin

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B. Overdosed b. Murder d. Any of the choices
C. Cyanide Poisoning
D. Phosphorus poisoning 30. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the
offender must have tthe intent to kill the victim. If there
20. The lifting or removal of a dead body from the is no intent to kill, the offender is liable for-
grave for the conduct of medical examination: a. Physical injury c. Serious physical injury
A. Interment b. Homicide d. Consummated physical
B. Exhumation injury
C. Autopsy
D. Inhumation 31. What is the final phase of crime scene
investigation?
21. Crimes involving destruction of life, except: A. preliminary survey C. documentation
a. Mutilation serious physical injuries and rape of scene
b. Duel, abortion and infanticide B. collection of evidence D. release of crime scene
c. Homicide and murder
d. Parricide 32. The essence of this crime is the taking and
transporting of a person against his will from one place
22. Vincent killed his adoptor after the rendition to another.
of judgment of the petition for adoption. What was the a. Kidnapping c. Abduction
crime committed by Vincent? b. Illegal detention d. Coercion
a. Parricide c. Homicide
b. Murder d. None of the above 33. Elements of robbery are the following EXCEPT
one:
23. Considered to be the beginning of any a. Unlawful taking of personal property
homicide investigation is: b. The taking is done without violence
a. Process of establishing the accurate cause of death c. The property must belong to another
b. Process of determining who is responsible for the d. The taking is with intent to gain
death
c Process of determining how the victim was killed 34. Which of the following is the most common
d. Process of determining when the victim was killed means of the death by asphyxia?
A. Strangulation
24. In a case of dead person, when autopsy C. Pneumonia
should be performed? B. Shock
a. Death has been caused by violence D. Convulsion
b. At once when there is the slightest reason to suspect
the probability of homicide. 35. Kellin killed Quinn his Common Law Partner.
c. Upon the request of the dead person’s family What is the crime committed?
d. In all cases involving death A. Parricide
B. Homicide
25. Which of the following is the primary role of C. Murder
the investigator upon arrival at the homicide scene? D. Matricide
a. Verification of death
b. Identification of the person who is 36. Bad jacketing or snitch jacketing means:
responsible for the death A. rebelling over others
c. Call a physician for the proper declaration B. falsely accusing individuals of being informants
of death C. promoting untrue businesses
d. All of the above D. unknown to many

26. Post-mortem change that is characterized by 37. In collecting fresh blood samples from the
the discoloration of the body after death. crime scene this liquid is used to ensure that the
A. livor mortis C. algor mortis evidence is preserved.
B. rigor mortis D. all of the above A. Brine Solution
B. Etching Solution
27. It As soon as the child is rescued, the child C. Saline Solution
shall be endorsed to the LSWDO and the rescue D. Formaldehyde
operations entered in the Pink Blotter. The responding
officer shall immediately rescue the child and shall 38. The main cause of death in electrocution is:
undertake first in case If the child’s offense is light ? A. Asphyxia B. Marijuana
A. Immediately Notify the Parents or guardians C. Burn D. Shock
B. Immediately transfer the physical custody of
the child directly to the barangay of residence for 39. A type of lividity in which the blood is still in
proper disposition fluid form inside blood vessel; change as position of the
C. Give the child a friendly advice or “payo” or a body changes. Blood remains fluid in the blood vessel
simple warning not to repeat the act/s she/he has for 6- 8 hours.
committed A. Hypostatic lividity
D. Immediately refer to LSWDO B. Diffusion lividity
C. Post-mortem lividity
28. In this case, a price, reward or promise has
been considered to kill the victim: 40. The following are the elements of parricide,
A. Homicide C. Infanticide except:
B. Parricide D. Murder A. That a person is killed.
B. That the deceased is killed by the accused.
29. Any person who killed his father, mother or C. That the deceased is the father, mother, or child,
child, whether legitimate or illegitimate, or any of his whether legitimate or illegitimate, or a legitimate other
ascendants, or his spouse, is guilty of what crime? ascendant or other descendant, or the legitimate
a. Homicide c. Parricide spouse, of the accused.

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D. With evident premeditation d. all of the choices

41. The cracks produced in glass originate on the 50. It is the art of suspect’s surveillance, and this
opposite surface of the glass and subjected to was pioneered by Allan Pinkerton
stretching are known as: a. Every contact leaves a Mark
A. radial b. modus operandi
B. Concentric c. shadowing
C. A and c d. casing
D. None

42. When the gunshot wound of the victim is 51. A type of surveillance in which extreme
located in the area of the body that is relatively precautions and actions are taken in not losing the
inaccessible to the victim, it is an indication of: subject.
A. natural death A. loose tail B. casing
B. homicidal death C. pony tail D. close tail
C. Accidental death
D. Suicide 52. A type of shadowing employed when a
general impression of the subject’s habits and
43. The validity period of Search Warrant is ____. associates is required.
A. 10 days A. loose tail
B. No time Limit B. casing
C. 15 days C. pony tail
D. NONE D. close tail

44. Rape is committed under any of the following 53. A surveillance activity for the purpose of
circumstance, EXCEPT: waiting the anticipated arrival of a suspect or observing
A. through the use of force, threat or his actions from a fixed location.
intimidation A. Casing
B. when the offended party is deprived of B. Tailing
reasons or otherwise unconscious C. Stake out
C. by means of fraudulent machinations or grave D. Espionage
abuse of authority
D. it is an exclusive offense committed by man 54. An examination of an individual’s person,
to a woman houses, or effects or a building, or premises with the
purpose of discovering contraband's or personal
45. As provided by the Revised Penal Code, properties connected in a crime.
robbery is divided into two different classifications, one A. Search
is robbery by the use of force upon things, and the B. Raid
other is: C. Investigation
A. robbery with violence, or intimidation of D. Seizure
person
B. taking of personal property belonging to 55. A kind of evidence that tends to prove
another additional evidence of a different character to the same
C. with intent, to gain and to possess the point.
property A. Corroborative evidence
D. pre-conceived plans and unexpected B. Circumstantial evidence
opportunity C. Direct evidence
D. Cumulative evidence
46. It is a kind of wound wherein the instrument
pierces a solid organ as well as the inner structure of 56. The process of bringing together in a logical
the body manner all evidence collected during the investigation
a. penetrating wound and present it to the prosecutor.
b. perforating wound A. case preparation
c. laceration B. order maintenance
d. petechiae C. crime prevention
D. public service
47. Rape thru sexual intercourse can be
committed against_____ 57. A special qualification for an undercover
a. women only agent.
b. men only A. excellent built
c. men and women B. excellent eyesight
d. transgenders C. excellent looks
D. excellent memory
48. Sharp-pointed steel which is used to scratch
or engraved the initial on a collected hard object is 58. The questioning of a person by law
called? enforcement officers after that person has been taken
A. Collection into custody.
C. Scratcher A. preliminary investigation
B. Luminous B. interrogation
D. Stylus C. custodial investigation
D. cross examination
49. Physical evidence is generally given weight
the courts because-
a. it speaks for itself 59. As a general rule, a warrant of arrest can be
b. it cannot lie served at
c. not affected by emotion A. day time

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 B. night time b.canals
C. any day and at any time of the day or night c.water
D. weekdays d. rotten flesh
69. Crimes involving destruction of life, except:
60. The tools in criminal investigation, whereby a. Mutilation serious physical injuries and rape
their application varies in proportion on their necessity b. Duel, abortion and infanticide
to establish the guilt of the accused in a criminal case. c. Homicide and murder
A. information, interrogation, instrumentation d. Parricide
B. move, alter, contaminate ‘
C. moved, embalmed, burned 70. In a case of dead person, when autopsy
D. what, who, where, when, why, how should be performed?
a. Death has been caused by violence
61. A kind of evidence which may link the suspect b. At once when there is the slightest reason to suspect
to the crime scene or offense. Examples are the probability of homicide.
fingerprints, impressions, blood etc. c. Upon the request of the dead person’s family
A. physical evidence d. In all cases involving death
B. associative evidence
C. tracing evidence 71. You are a police officer responding to a crime
D. factual evidence which there is a dying person. You will obtain dying
declaration from him. Which of the following is not one
62. Articles and materials which are found in of your duties in regard to dying declaration?
connection with an investigation and which help in a. Observe the victim as to whether he is manifesting
establishing the identity of the perpetrator or the a feeling of his impending death
circumstances under which the crime was committed b. Observe carefully the mental condition of the victim
or which in general, assist in the prosecution of the and jot down immediately his statements
criminal. c. Attempt to save the life of the victim
A. physical evidence
B. documentary evidence d. Avoid leading questions and produce the statement
C. tracing evidence 72. Post-mortem change that is characterized by
D. testimonial evidence the discoloration of the body after death.
a. livormortis
63. one where arrest is made only after the b. rigormortis
investigators believed they have identified the c.algor mortis
maximum number of suspect gathered the necessary d. all of the above
evidence to sustain successful prosecutions
a. large operation 73. This is the first that a first responder must do
b. sting operation upon his arrival at the scene of the crime:
c. covert operation a. Secure the crime scene
d. intelligence operation b. Taking a picture
c. Interview of witness
64. often indicated the side on which the pane d. Attend to emergency
was struck. As the force moves through the pane,
pressure directly in front of the striking objects creates 74. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus
a cone-like opening in the glass. from the mother’s womb:
a. Radial fracture a. Infanticide
b. Concentric fracture b. Parricide
c. Cone fracture c.Abortion
d. Circular fracture d. Murder

65. current method of comparing and analyzing 75. In this case, a price, reward or promise has
soil samples. been considered to kill the victim:
a. Soil Density Gradient Test a. Homicide
b. Soil Substance Exam b. Parricide
c. Soil Comparison Test c. Infanticide
d. Soil Gradient Exam d. Murder

66. death due to sudden or gradual cessation of 76. It is the photographing of arrested suspect
oxygen intake both full face and side profile.
a. Stroke a. Line up
b. Cardiac Arrest b. Portrait parle
c. Asphyxia c. Selfie
d. Strangulation d. Mug shot

67. suspects rape to assert their masculinity and 77. What is the liability of the offender who, on
dominance over victims. He does not doubt his the occasion of the crime of robbery, killed his cohort
masculinity but uses rape as a form of symbolic power while trying to flee from the scene?
over women A. robbery with homicide
a. Power-reassurance B. robbery and homicide
b. Power-assertive C. robbery with murder
c. Sadistic D. robbery and murder
d. Opportunistic
78. Which of the following is not a crimes against
68. The Female Blowfly which typically lay it’s person?
eggs at the _______. (December 2018 Board Exam A. Physical injury
Question) B. Illegal discharge of F/A
a. drainage C. Direct Assault

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d. Parricide
89. A and B are husband and wife, while working
79. Aldus snatched the bag of a lady walking as a security guard of a bank, A felt sick one night and
along Hidalgo Street committed what crime? decided to go home around midnight and saw B having
A. Theft sexual intercourse with a neighbor C. A grabbed C and
B. Estafa hacked the latter to death. As an investigator, what
C. Robbery crime if any, would you charge against A?
D. Malicious mischief a. Homicide
b. Murder
80. Which of the following is a blunt force injury caused c. Parricide
by dragging that tears off the tissue often caused by d. None, because A is exempted from criminal
very forceful blunt- instrument blows? liability.
a. A. Abrasions 90. Which of the following is not a crime against
b. B. Contusions persons?
c. C. Punctures A. Physical injury C. Abduction
d. D. Lacerations B. Mutilation D. Parricide

81. These are spontaneous and unplanned 91. Under RA 8294 the use of unlicensed firearm
remarks made by persons at the scene of the crime: in the commission of a crime is not considered as a
a. Adverse testimony separate crime but shall be appreciated as a-
b. Hearsay a. Mere alternative circumstance
c. Res Gestae b. Mere aggravating circumstance
d. Dying declaration c. Qualifying circumstance
82. Which of the following are the questions in d. Generic aggravating circumstance
incidents involving assaults that CANNOT be answer by
a medico legal? 92. X a male, takes Y another male, to a motel
a. How many are the victims? and there, through threat and intimidation succeeds in
b. What is the position of the victim when he was inserting his penis into the anus of Y. What crime, if
assaulted any does X commit?
c. Was there evidence of defense mark or struggle a. Sexual assault c. Acts of lasciviousness
D, From what direction was the force applied coming b. Rape d. None
from
93. Known as Anti Fencing Law of 1979.
83. June killed his illegitimate grandchild. What is a. PD 1612 c. BP 22
the crime committed? b. RA 3019 d. PD 532
A.Parricide
B. Homicide 94. Republic Act No. 7438 defines immediate
C. Infanticide members of the family are as follows, except:
D. Arson a. Spouse, fiancé/fiancée, parents, child, brother or
84. One night, while high on drugs, Ana threw her sister
less than three hours old baby down the stairs, which b. Grandparents, grandson/daughter, great
caused the same to die. What crime has been granddaughter/grandson
committed? c. Uncle, aunt, guardian, ward
a. Infanticide d. Relatives, intimate friends and best friends
b. B. Parricide
c. C. Murder 95. Jessie was invited by the NBI operatives to
d. D. homicide answer questions pertinent to the murder case
85. Supposed Ana threw the three days old baby investigated. After the questioning at the NBI
of her sister, what crime has been committed? Headquarters however, he was held for further
A. Infanticide questioning and considered him a suspect already.
B. Parricide Persons who can visit him are as follows, except:
C. Murder a. Lovers, friends and countrymen
D. homicide b. Immediate member of his family
86. Rape by sexual assault, except: c. Any medical doctor, priest or religious minister
a. Inserting penis into another person’s mouth d. Personnel of the C.H.R.
b. Inserting penis into another person’s anal 96. A killed B with treachery. What is the crime
orifice committed by the latter?
c. Inserting instrument or object into another’s a. Homicide
genital or anal orifice. b. Murder
d. Inserting instrument into another person’s c. Parricide
mouth d. None
87. This is the Anti-Sexual Harassment Act of
1995. 97. Post-mortem change that is characterized by
a. RA 8353 the discoloration of the body after death.
b. RA 8505 A. livor mortis C. algor mortis
c. RA 7877 B. rigor mortis D. all of the above
d. RA 9995
98. Rape by fraudulent machinations under RA
88. Refers to an act by which severe pain or 8353 can be committed either among the choices
suffering, whether physical or mental, is intentionally except one.
inflicted on a person for such purposes as obtaining a. Promise to marry
from him/her or third person information or confession. b. Prostitute who has not been paid as agreed
a. Torture c. Person in authority who arrest another and
b. Mental torture having sex with the latter with the promise of release
c. Physical torture from custody
d. Psychological torture

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d. Sexual intercourse while the victim is 7. Who is the chairperson of the Anti-Terrorism
unconscious or otherwise deprive of reason Council?
a. National Security Adviser
99. You are an investigator who investigates an b. Executive secretary
alleged robbery with homicide case perpetrated by an c. National Defense Secretary
unknown suspects. Since there are no witnesses to the d. Executive Director of Anti Money Laundering
crime the following may give you a hint to identify the
suspect, except one. 8. Also called “heavy soaping”, the conversion of
a. Motive and opportunity cash into monetary instruments and the conversion of
b. Declaration and acts indicative of guilt, preparation tangible assets obtained by means of cash purchases.
for a commission of crime and possession of fruits of a a. Layering
crime of the perpetrator b. Incorporation
c. Modus Operandi, associative evidence and criminal c. Placement
potentiality d. Integration
d. Knowledge, skills, tools or facilities that could easily
be adopted to criminal use by the suspect 9. Member of the organized criminal group
difficult assignments involving the use of violence in a
100. What is the final phase of crime scene rational manner.
investigation? a. Corrupter
A. preliminary survey C. documentation of scene b. Fixer
B. collection of evidence D. release of crime scene c. Enforcer
d. Intelligence analyst
ORGANIZED CRIME INVESTIGATION
10. It is not unlawful or punishable for any peace
1. An offense whose inception, prevention officer, who is authorized by a written order of the
and/or direct or indirect effects involved more than one Court of Appeals on the crime terrorism, to execute
country. acts of wire tapping, such Authorization shall be
a. Drug trafficking and human smuggling effective for the period not exceeding?
b Terrorism, piracy and cyber crimes a. 30 days
c. Transnational crimes b. 60 days
d. Global crimes c. 10 days
d. 48 hours
2. In 2000 the United Nations Convention
against Transnational Organized Crime extended the 11. It is the same level of underboss or the one
legal definition of money laundering to include all who considered as council or adviser.
serious crimes. This is known as: a. Boss
a. Palermo Convention b. Caporogime
b. United Nations Convention c. Consigliere
c. Transnational Organized Crime Convention d. Capo de tuti capi
d. Organized Crime Convention
12. A fraudulent act interfering with judicial
3. The code of secrecy of Mafia is called? machinery performing task of impartial adjudication as
a. Mafioso by preventing opposing party from presenting his case
b. Omerta or defense.
c. code of ethics A. fraud on court
d. code of silence B. intrinsic fraud
C. wire fraud
4. The G-7 Nations were mandated to develop D. positive fraud
international standards and policies in fighting money
laundering. All except one are not member of the G-7 13. As a criminologist/responder to terrorism,
Nations? how could you protect yourself and the public by
A. Canada, France, Germany isolating terrorist?
B. Italy, Japan A. Note down specific danger
C. North Korea, China B. Free the captured victim right away
D. United Kingdom, United States C. Downplay potential threats
D. Collect and share threat information
5. Under the new Anti-Terrorism Bill now the so-
called ―Human Security Act of 2007‖, how many days 14. A fraud which consist of any act of
can a suspect be held or detained for investigation? commission, omission contrary to legal or equitable
A. 10 duty, trust or confidence justly reposed, which is
B. 5 contrary to good conscience and operates to the injury
C. 3 of another.
D. 7 A. fraud in fact
B. extrinsic fraud
6. Structural group of three or more persons C. actual fraud
existing for the period of time and acting in concert, D. constructive fraud
with the aim of committing one or more serious crimes
or offenses established in accordance with this 15. Relative participants of fraud which consist of
conviction in order to obtain, directly or indirectly, a two or more person in collusion all insiders or outsiders.
financial or other material benefit. a. Simple
a. Crime syndicate b. Compound
b. Organized criminal group c. Complex
c. Criminal gang d. Complex Crime Proper
d. Fraternity

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16. The I love you virus by Onel de Guzman was 25. Are those marked by excessibe enthusiasm
released in 2000, where his case was_____ on may and often intense uncritical devotion.
2000 a. Cult
a. Dismissed b. Sect
b. Tried and Heard c. Fanatics
c. Convicted d. Terrorists
d. Suspended
26. Overtly violent organized crime group whose
17. It means wild beast without nationality members are known to be los hampones (the
because of the uncertainty of origin of a certain group hoodlums) and controller of coca cultivation in Bolivia
operating in a territory. and Peru; production-drug labs in Colombia,
a. Terrorist Nicaragua, and Panama; smuggling operations-
b. Anarchist Bahamas, Turks, and Caicos, and later in Mexico. (Dec.
c. Regime 2017 Board Question)
d. Pathocracy a. Colombian Drug Cartels
b. The Cali Cartel
18. On the OCG, they are the one who bribes, c. Medellin Cartel
buys, intimidates, negotiates and sweettalks with the d. Northern Valle Del Cauca
police, public officials and anyone else who might be a
help to their group. 27. The Yakuza is organized into families which
a. Enforcer adopts a relationship known as: (Oct. 2015 Board
b. Corrupter question)
c. Corruptee a. Oyabun-Kobun
d. Collusioner b. Yubitsume
c. Kabuki-mono
19. It means smuggling and manufacturing of d. Bakuto
untaxed alcohol?
a. Bootlegging 28. In state sponsored terrorism, the state’s
b. Buttleging regime:
c. Apostasy a. Insist fear against elements of its own
d. Scam population to create conditions sufficient to remain in
political control.
20. Oldest form of terrorism b. Uses its military instrument against the civilian
a. Assassination population of an enemy nation for the purpose of
b. Bombing undermining the population’s will to support its own
c. War government, or shattering the cohesion of the
d. Cyberwarfare population making it unable to support its government.
c. Employs lethal force across international
21. Police service corruption where police borders for the purpose of destroying or weakening the
participates in shakedowns, shopped at burglary political cohesion of a targeted political entity without
scenes and enganged in more active deviant practices. using its own military instrument to deliver the lethal
a. Grass eater force, but harness social elements within the targeted
b. Meat eater entity to do so.
c. Slippery slope d. All of the following
d. Graft and Corruption
29. Terrorist safe haven is:
22. This is known as the CyberCrime Prevention a. an area of relative security exploited by
Act of 2012, which was signed into law by President terrorists to indoctrinate, recruit, train, and regroup, as
Benigno Aquino. well as prepare and support their operations.
a. RA 10575 b. a place where terrorists hide and coddled by
b. RA 10175 their sympathizers
c. Ra 4200 c. global media, and satellite communications
d. RA 3019 that allow terrorists to fulfill many of their functions
d. an area which is difficult to track and control.
23. It means absolute ownership or full right or
proprietorship 30. The leader of Al Qaeda is called:
a. Covered Transaction a. The Base
b. Embezzlement b. Jihad
c. Fee Simple c. The Emir
d. Suspicious Transaction d. Bearer of the Sword

24. The written order of the authorizing division 31. An operation launch by the Philippine National
of the Court of Appeals to track down, tap, listen to, Police- Special Action Force Commandos that led to the
intercept, and record communications, messages, killing of the international terrorist Zulkifli bin Hir at the
conversations, discussions, or spoken or written words Mamasapano, Maguindanao.
of any person suspected of the crime of terrorism or a. Oplan Wolverine
the crime of conspiracy to commit terrorism shall only b. Oplan Neptune Spear
be effective for the length of time specified in the c. Oplan Terminator
written order of the authorizing division of the Court of d. Oplan Exodus
Appeals, which shall not exceed a period of? (CLE DEC
2021) 32. Known as G-7 Nations, they were mandated
a. 60 days to devise international standards and policies to
b. 30 days combat money laundering. Which of the following is
c. 180 days not one of them? (June 2019 Board Question)
d. 10 days from receipt a. France, Germany and Italy
b. Japan

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c. United Kingdom of Great Britain, United D. limited or exclusive membership
States of America, and Canada
d. China, South Korea and Russia 42. Sending of fraudulent e-mails or website pop-
ups, to get victims to divulge sensitive financial
33. Black Notice is INTERPOL’s notice to: information such as credit card numbers or social
a. Determine the identity of deceased person security numbers.
b. Provide information on modus operandi, A. Website defacement
objects, devices and concealment methods used by B. Phishing
criminals. C. Identity Theft
c. Individuals and entities that are subject to UN D. Computer Virus
sanctions.
d. Any of the above 43. The sake-sharing ceremony to seal bonds of
brotherhood between individual yakuza members or
34. This rituals by yakuza is is for the first offense, groups.
the transgressor must cut- off the tip of his left little A. Irezumi
finger and hand the severe portion to the boss as B. Yubitsume
penance or apology. ( Oct. 2015 board exam C. Pearlings
questions.) D. Sakazuki
a. Yubitsume
b. Irezumi 44. Operates in Mindanao headed by Tahir
c. Pearling Alonto, a creation of MILF to generate funds.
d. Oichu kabu A. Lexus Group
B. Pentagon Group
35. What country is considered as the haven for C. Francisco Group
sex industry. D. Rex "Wacky" Salud Group
a. China
b. Thailand 45. He is the first leader of Abu Sayyaf group.
c. Philippines A. Abdurajak Janjalani
d. Japan B. Isnilon Totoni Hapilon
C. Bernabe Vuscayno
36. In an organized crime, he is the one who D. Hilarion del Rosario Santos III
makes an arrangement for the killing and injuring
whether physically, economically and psychology of a 46. He is the first person to be convicted for
member of non-member: violation of E-commerce Act of 2000:
a. Corrupter a. JJ Maria Giner
b. Enforcer b. Onel Deguzman
c. Corruptee c. Francesca Rojas
d. Boss d. People of the Philippines vs. Medina

37. This terrorist organization in the Philippines is 47. Is a higher form of hacking in which the
known as “Back to Islam”: unauthorized access culminates with the process of
a. Abu Sayyaf defeating the security system for the purpose of
b. Moro Islamic Liberation Front acquiring money or information and/or availing of free
c. Jemaah Islamiya services.
d. Rajah Solaiman Movement A. A computer virus
B. Cracking
38. The convention held at Palermo Italy in 2000 C. Identity theft
provides that an organized criminal group must have a d. Worm
membership of at least :
a. 3 or more 48. The procurement and transportation of
b. 2 or more women from far flung places for immoral purposes.
c. 4 or more a. White slavery
d. 5 or more b. Prostitution
c. Organized crimes
39. This terrorist organization is responsible for d. All of the foregoing
the bombing of the World Trade Center:
a. Abu Sayyaf 49. What type of OCG which is manned by semi-
b. Hamas organized individual with the end view of attaining
c. Al Qaeda psychological gratification such as adolescent gangs.
d. Taliban A.In-Group Oriented Organized Crime
B.Political Graft
40. One of the largest and most violent C.Predatory Organized Crime
associations of street gangs in the United States, with D.Syndicated Organized Crime
an estimated 30,000 to 35,000 members.
A. Mara Salvatrucha 50. It is a form of modern day slavery.
B. Stidda A. Human Trafficking
C. The Crisps B. Prostitution
D. Camorra C. Drug Trafficking
D. Sex tourism
41. The attribute of organized crime having a
vertical power structure with at least three permanent 51. In what terrorist group does Abu Sayyaf is
ranks not just leader and followers each with authority formerly included.
over the level beneath: A. Al Qaeda
A. No political goals B. MILF
B. Hierarchical C. MNLF
C. Constitute a unique subculture D. JIHAD

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 62. It is a center created by Executive Order No.
52. These are the most frequent terrorist acts, 62 to establish a shared database among concerned
accounting for as much as 80% of terrorist-related agencies for information on criminals, methodologies,
violence: arrests and conviction on transnational crime.
A. Bombings B. Assassinations a. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes
C. Kidnapping D. Prostitution (PCTC)
b. National Commission on Anti Hijacking
53. An organized crime in the Philippines which (NACAH)
is made up of former MNLF and MILF rebels. c. International Criminal Police Organization
a. A.Lexus Group (ICPO)
b. B.Pentagon Group d. Philippine National Police (PNP)
c. C.Abu Sayyaf
d. D.Ilonggo KFR Group 63. It refers to a computer program that can copy
itself and infect a computer without permission or
54. Also known as the Mob’s Accountant knowledge of the user
a. Meyer Lansky A. Virus
b. Charles Luciano B. Trojan Horse
c. Al Capone C. Logic Bomb
d. Pablo Escobar D. Worm

55. What numeric code refer to the Dragon head 64. Considered to be the oldest and the biggest
of the Chinese triads? criminal organization in the world.
a. A.438 A. Al Qaeda B. Jihad
b. B.49 C. Chinese Mafia D. Nuestra Costra
c. C.489
d. D.426 65. It is the Latin term meaning to frighten:
A. Terrorisme B.Terrere
56. It is a form of Japanese extortion. Instead of C. Rapere D. Vestigarre
harassing small business, the yakuza harasses a
stockholders’ meeting of a larger corporation. 66. Founder of the New People’s Army of NPA
a. Gokudo a. Jose Mari Chan
b. Kumicho b. Jose Maria Sison
c. Sokaiya c. Jose Marie Gonzales
d. Burakumin d. Jose Maria Sioson

57. What kind of vices are Lotto and casino? 67. The most notorious and sought after terrorist
a. common group responsible for the 9/11 bombing in the USA.
b. prohibited a. Hezbollah
c. regulated b. Al Qaeda
d. unusual c. Fatah
d. Hamas
58. It is known as IP address that changes every
time the internet accesses his ISP: 68. Refers to the terrorist group “Party of God”.
A. ISP a. Abu Sayaff
B. Dynamic IP address b. Hezbollah
C. Static IP Address c. Fatah
D. IP Address d. Hamas

59. What kind of hacker who breaks into 69. The founder of the Moro National Liberation
computer systems with malicious intent, usually for Front
some criminal purpose. a. Nur Misuari
A. Black Hat Hackers b. Khadaffy Janjalani
B. Gray Hat Hacker c. Hashim Salamat
C. White Hat Hackers d. Abdurajack Janjaalani
D. Any color
70. Who formally organized the Kuratong
60. It is a crime whereby the proceeds of unlawful Baleleng?
activity are transacted or attempted to be transacted, a. Francisco Manuel
to make them appear to have originated from b. Franco Calanog
legitimate sources: c. Fidel Ramos
A. Estafa d. Fajardo Sebastian
B.Money Laundering
C. Anti-Money Laundering 71. An organized crime in the Philippines which is
D. Swindling made up of former MNLF and MILF rebels.
a. A.Lexus Group
61. This refers to any distinctive mark, b. B.Pentagon Group
characteristic and/or sound in electronic form, c. C.Abu Sayyaf
representing the identity of a person and attached to d. D.Ilonggo KFR Group
or logically associated with the electronic data
message: 72. The largest and most powerful triad.
A. electronic key a. A.Sun Yee On
B. originator b. B.14K
C. electronic signature c. C.Wo Shing Wo
D. electronic date message d. Sham Shui Po

73. A number game that means good for nothing?

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a. 489 c. RA 7080
b. 982 d. RA 3019
c. 893
d. 983 85. It is robbery or forcible depredation on high seas,
without lawful authority with animo furandi and in the
74. What do you call the act of lending money in spirit and intention of universal hostility:
exchange of exorbitant interest? a. Mutiny
a. Tax evasion b. Piracy
b. Revolutionary tax c. Espionage
c. Sokaiya d. All of these
d. Loansharking
86. It is the Anti-Hijacking Law:
75. A grant by the federal government to an a. RA 6955
inventor of the right to exclude others from making, b. RA 6235
using, or selling the invention. c. RA 8294
a. Trademarks d. RA 4200
b. Trade secret
c. Patents 86. According to the Nations Convention of
d. Copyright Transnational Organized Crime (Article 3: 2), an
offense is transnational if it: EXCEPT
76. It has the lowest cases of organized activities a. It is committed in more than one state
due to stringent laws and severe penalties. b. It is committed in one state and substantial part of
a. Ireland its preparation, planning, direction or control takes
b. Iceland place in the same state
c. Singapore c. It is committed in one state but involves an
d. Dubai organized crime group that engages in criminal
activities in more than one state
77. Which of these acts is not punishable under d. It is committed in one state but has substantial
E-commerce Act of 2000? effects in another state
a. Internet gambling
b. Hacking 87. Mujahedeen is also known as:
c. Cracking a. Freedom fighter
d. Denial of service attack b. Jihad
c. Holy warriors
78. When responding to cyber related crime, it is d. Terrorist
okay for a responding officer to turn off the computer
if it is on. 88. Another technological term referring to wire-
a. The statement is definitely wrong tapping;
b. The statement is definitely correct A. Techno-trespassing C. Cyber-spy
c. The statement is partly wrong B. Cyber-tech D. Electro-recording
d. The statement is partly correct
89. Bad jacketing or snitch jacketing means;
79. It is a portfolio of a person/ organization/ A. Falsely accusing individuals of being
entity/ company/ which is posted on the internet for informants
accessibility worldwide. B. Rebelling over others
a. Facebook C. Promoting untrue businesses
b. Friendster D. Unknown to many
c. website
d. Twitter 90. Considered as the ultimate political violence
of the government, the mass destruction and
80. This legislation is also known as the Anti- annihilation of the population.
Money Laundering Act of 2001. A. Leftist C. Secret Police
a. RA 9160 B. Genocide D. Underground
b. RA 9165 force
c. RA 8551
d. RA 6235 91. It is a term coined by William Gibson when he
said, it is something that an advertising man might
81. It is an act known as the Access Devices Act have thought up, and when I got into it knew it was a
of 1998: slick and essentially hallow and that I have filled it up
a. RA 8551 b. RA 8484 with meaning.
c. RA 9160 d. RA 9165 A. Internet C. Computer
B. Cyberspace D. Networks
82. It refers to all activities done with criminal intent in
cyberspace 92. According to cooper, terrorist engage in all
a. Hacking b. Cracking types of crimes, but their purpose is not criminal. The
c. Cyber Crime d. Website defacement ultimate object of their terrorist is to;
A. Grab political power
83. It is an act of intruding into a server and changing B. Ensure they win the election
without permission all the aspect of a website which C. Change political behaviour
the public can see: D. Unite political parties
a. Web defacement b. Internet gambling
c. cyber stalking d. all of these 93. He is a sort of midlevel manager who serves
as a buffer between the lowest-level members and the
84. It is the Anti-terrorism Act of 2020. upper-level members of the crime family.
a. RA 9372 a. Consigliere
b. RA 11479 b. Underboss

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c. Capos A. Sedatives
d. Soldiers B. Hypnotic
C. Hallucinogens
94. Members of the Mafia are bound by an oath D. Tranquillizers
of five basic principles. Which of the following is not
one of them? 3. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse
a. Assistance to any befriended Mafia faction, no hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control
question asked, and to avenge any attack on members becomes difficult according to some authorities due to
of the family the fact that:
b. Omerta or code of silence and total obedience a. It is easy to smoke it secretly
to the “Don” or “Boss” b. It is sellable in the market
c. Avoid any and all contact with law c. It is easy to cultivate
enforcement authorities d. It is in demand
d. Avoid killing police officer
95. Which of the following is not one of the 4. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse
categories of organized crime behavior? hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control
a. Violence and strong commitment and becomes difficult according to some authorities due to
determination to get what they want the fact that:
b. Conspiracy and penetration of legitimate a. It is easy to smoke it secretly
business b. It is easy to cultivate even on someone’s backyard
c. Provision of illicit goods and services c. it is inexpensive
d. Extortion and corruption d. It is in demand

96. Criminality of an organized crime group is 5. Drugs that is commonly used by athletes
directed by: having the properties of increasing stamina and/or
a. The boss energy.
b. The pursuit of eliminating competitors a. Ecstasy
c. The pursuit of profit along well-defined lines b. Shabu
d. Violence, when the interests of the c. MDMA
organization are threatened d. Anabolic Steroid

97. In terms of organizational structure, what is 6. Transactions involving the illegal trafficking of
the similarity of organized crimes from military or dangerous drugs and/or controlled precursors and
police? essential chemicals using electronic devices such as,
a. Autocratic but not limited to, text messages, email, mobile or
b. Democratic landlines, two-way radios, internet, instant messengers
c. Bureaucratic and chat rooms or acting as a broker in any of such
d. Patrimonial transactions whether for money or any other
consideration in violation of this Act.
98. Which of the following is not one of the A. Trading
traditional terrorist tactics? B. Manufacture
a. Bombing and hijacking C. Deal
b. Rape or any form of sexual assault D. Ephemeral electronic evidence
c. Arson and assault
d. Kidnapping and taking hostages 7. The Golden Crescent is located in the South
West Asia composed of Which Countries?
99. The giving of alms for the poor and needy as a. Iran, Persia, India and Pakistan
prescribed by the Quaran which is the primary means b. Afghanistan, Iran, India and Pakistan
within the Muslim world for terror organizations to c. Pakistan, Afghanistan, Persia and Iraq
legitimately receive money. d. Iraq, Iran, Lebanon and Turkey
a. Zakat
b. Islamic Banking 8. What court has the jurisdiction to hear and try
c. Hawala drug cases?
d. Money Laundering a. Heinous Crime Court designated by the SC among
the existing
100. Arch-terrorist who used to be the most b. Special Court designated by the SC
wanted terrorist in the world who issued a “fatwa” that c. Sandiganbayan
calls all Muslims around the world to slay Americans d. Special Court designated by the SC among the
and their allies. existing RTC
A. Abu-Abbas
B. Ramzi Ahmed Yousef 9. Durant is a drug addict. Realizing that drug
C. Ahmed Yassin use will bring him elsewhere he ceased from using it.
D. Osama bin-Laden Teofilo’s act is called:
a. Abstinence
DRUG EDUCATION AND VICE CONTROL b. Rehabilitation
c. Self-medication
d. Dependence
1. Which of the following is not false?
a. R.A. 9165 gives a single definition to dangerous drug
10. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
b. R.A. 9165 did not remove the distinction between
a. Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
regulated and prohibited drug
b. Its pungent scent when matured or fully grown.
c. R.A. 9165 defers dangerous drug to prohibited drug
c. Its branches which occur at opposite points on the
d. R.A. 9165 defined regulated drug as dangerous drug
stalk
d. Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose
2. The group of drugs that are considered to be
edges are serrated in shape.
mind altering and gives the general effect of mood
distortion are generally called

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11. After the filing of the criminal case, the courts a. 60%
conduct ocular inspection of seized drugs within how b. 80%
many hours? c. 70%
a. 48 d. 90%
b. 24
c. 72 22. The willful act of any person of maliciously
d. 36 and surreptitiously inserting, placing, adding or
attaching directly or indirectly, through any overt or
12. A dangerous drug which predominant covert act, whatever quantity of any dangerous drug
legitimate use as a veterinary anesthetic. and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical in
a. ketamine the person, house, effects or in the immediate vicinity
b. codeine of an innocent individual for the purpose of implicating,
c. anesthesia incriminating or imputing the commission of any
d. sleeping pills violation of Republic Act No. 9165.
a. incrimination innocent persons
13. Hashish is 8 to 10 times stronger than the b. indictment
commercial trade marijuana; it is: c. bungling
a. concentrated resin extracted from marijuana d. planting of evidence
b. dried flower of marijuana
c. fruiting top of the plant cannabis sativa 23. The first drugs law in the Philippines.
d. finest and high grade leaves of marijuana plant A. RA 9165
B. RA 9531
14. Who shall handle the prosecution of drug C. RA 953
related cases? D. RA 6425
a. public attorney’s office
b. ombudsman 24. Considered to be one of the prime suppliers
c. national prosecution service of Heroin in Asia is the so called Golden Triangle where
d. special prosecutor designated by the DOJ 80% of illicit drugs of the world originate. This lies on
the borders of: (Oct. 2015 board questions)
15. Operation of drug syndicates are usually a. Thailand –Laos –Burma
made secretly that makes it detection quite difficult. b. Iran –Afghanistan – Pakistan
Various techniques were made by its operator in c. Thailand – Laos- Myanmar
concealing their activities. d. Peru- Columbia- Bolivia
a. hide –out operation
b. disguised operation 25. Considered as the golden crescent. ( April
c. clandestine operation 2016 Board questions)
d. confidential a. Thailand- myanmar-laos
b. Afghanistan-pakistan-india-iran
16. Among the group of hallucinogen drugs, c. Peru-bolivia-panama
which of them is considered the most powerful? d. Thailand- burma-laos
a. Demerol
b. DMT 26. One of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs
c. LSD in the Philippines that contain active components
d. STP known as Tethrahydro-cannabinol?
17. A form of physical dependence, severe a. Mescaline
craving for the drug even to the point of interfering b. Marijuana
with the person’s ability to function normally. c. LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamine)
a. Tolerance d. Ecstacy(methylenedioxymethamphetamine)
b. Addiction
c. Habituation 27. A type of Drugs according to pharmacological
d. Psychological Dependence classification which often relives pain and induces
sleep.
18. Removal of toxic substances from the body as a. Hallucinogens
a result of abusing drugs: b. Sedatives/Depressant
a. Cleansing process c. Stimulants
b. Aversion treatment d. Narcotics
c. Abstinence
d. Detoxification 28. What will be the disposition in a case where
minor is convicted for the possession of dangerous
19. What are the symptoms of the use of drugs? (June 2019 Board Exam Question)
amphetamines? a. Judgment will be suspended
a. Sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color b. Turn-over to DSWD
b. False perceptions of objects and experiences c. Sentence will be suspended
c. Excitement, alertness and wakefulness d. None of the above
d. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability
29. A person found guilty of use of dangerous
20. Chinese Emperor who prohibited the trading drugs for the first time shall be punished with:
of opium in China by the British Indies that lead to the a. Imprisonment of 6 yrs and one day to 12
Opium War of 1840. years =
a. Lao Tzu b. Rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6
b. Sun Tzu months
c. Yung Chen c. Rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months
d. Mao Zedong d. Imprisonment of at least 6 months

21. The Golden Triangle produces how many

percent of opium in the world?

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30. National campaign strategy against illegal 38. The amount of drug that produces untoward
drugs, focus of which is through law enforcement, effect or symptoms of poisoning.
prosecution and judicial actions. A. Toxic Dose
a. Demand reduction = through policy B. Minimal Dose
formulation, preventive education, research, C. Maximal Dose
treatment, rehabilitation and reintegration D. Lethal Dose
b. Supply reduction
c. Inter-agency coordination 39. If a person devotes considerable time and
d. International cooperation effort in obtaining the drug, thinking and discussing
about it and using it to meet his problems and to
31. Considered by the Assyrians as a “Sacred escape from reality, he is .
Tree” planted by the Incas of Peru. It is considered as A. socially dependent on drugs
the world’s Oldest cultivated plant which is the source B. mentally dependent on drugs
of dangerous drug. (June 2019 Board Exam Question) C. psychological dependent on drugs
A. Papaver Somniferum D. physically dependent on drugs
B. Cannabis Sativa
C. Coca Plant 40. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the
D. Ephedrine indulgence of which leads to depravity, wickedness and
corruption of the minds and body. (June 2019 board
32. Known as the “Father of Medicine”. He Exam question)
prescribed opium poppy juice in surgery which was a. Prostitution
cultivated by the Summerrians during 7000 BC. b. Gambling
a. Hippocrates c. Drug addiction
b. Morpreus d. Vice
c. Confucious
d. Socrates 41. What is referred to as the “Green Triangle
Area”?
33. Known as the “Big Four Drugs” trafficked in a. Mindoro- Palawan- Masbate
the global drug market. (June 2019 Board Exam b. Benguet- Kalinga Apayao- Mt Province
question) c. Ilocos Sur- Benguet- Mt Province
I. Heroin and Cocaine d. Zamboanga- Cotabato- Davao
II. Shabu and Ecstacy
III. Marijuana and Methamphetamine 42. What National Anti-Drug Campaign strategy is
IV. Narcotics, Hallucinogens, Stimulants and carried out by preventive education and information
Depressants drive?
a. Supply Reduction Strategy
a. I and II b. Demand Reduction Strategy
b. I and III c. International Coordination
c. II and III d. All of these
d. V
43. What is the technique in anti-drug operation
34. Bembol” was arrested for possessing seven that is carried out by allowing suspect consignment of
(7) grams of Shabu at 7:00 P.M. October 23, 2012. Up illegal drugs, psychotropic substances substituted for
to what time and date the arresting officer have to them to pass out into one or more country with
subject “Bembol” to a drug test as required by the law? knowledge of their competent authorities with a view
A. 7:00 P.M, October 25 to identify persons involved in the commission of drug
B. 7:00 P.M., October 24 related offenses?
C. 8:00 A.M., October 26 a. Buy-bust operations
D. 8:00 A.M., October 25 b. Controlled delivery
c. Undercover operations
35. The head of the PDEA is known as the d. Airport/Seaport Interdictions
Director General with a rank of ?
A. Secretary 44. The body sign in dangerous drug death
B. Assistant Secretary investigation of bluish discoloration of the face and or
C. Undersecretary fingernails due to insufficient oxygenation of the blood
D. Senior Secretary caused by increase in carbon dioxide in the body is
called?
36. A degree of Intoxication wherein the mind is a. Asphyxia
confused, behavior is irregular and the movement is b. Cyanosis
uncontrolled. The speech is thick and in coordinated. c. Hematoma
The behavior is uncontrollable. d. Petechial hemorrhage
A. Slight Inebriation
B. Moderate Inebriation 45. The burning of a small quantity of the
C. Drunk suspected substance and determining the odor or smell
D. Coma having similar to burnt banana leaves or has a sweetish
odor is a field test that can reveal the drug as:
37. There are two schools of thoughts as regards a. Opium
prostitution. What school of thoughts believes that b. Coca leaves
prostitution is both a crime and vice and should be c. Marijuana
repressed and prohibited? d. Peyote Cactus
A. The School of Regulatory Control
B. The School of Prostitution Control 46. One who uses drug to keep wakefulness or
C. The School of Total Repression additional energy in performing an important work is
D. The School of Total Control and Repression a:
a. Habitual drug user
b. Situational drug abuser

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c. Spree user 57. Oldest profession known to man which
d. None of these involves habitual indulgement in sexual intercourse for
47. What drug is known as the “king of all drugs” money or profit.
for being the most abused drug in the world? A. Gambling
a. Hallucinogen B. Prostitution
b. Solvent C. Addiction
c. Amphetamine D. All of the foregoing
d. Alcohol
58. This strategy aims to disrupt the production
48. A country where consumption and and supply of illicit drugs as well as limit the access and
manufacture of alcohol is prohibited. availability of licit drugs in certain contexts. In the
a. Singapore school setting, this includes measures taken to limit the
b. South Africa use, possession, and sale of illicit drugs on school
c. Saudi Arabia premises, and may also include measures taken to
d. Italy discourage tobacco use.
A. Demand reduction strategies
49. What color reaction test is used to identify a B. Supply reduction strategies
substance as cocaine? C. Strategies for the reduction of the adverse
a. Cobalt Thiocyanate consequences
b. Marquis Test D. All of these
c. Nitric Acid Test
d. PABA 59. The preliminary investigation of cases filed
under RA 9165 shall be terminated within a period of
50. For the tentative identification of the opium, __ days from the date of their filing.
the ______ test is used: a. 30 c. 30 days
a. Marquis test b. 15 d. 15 days
b. Zwikker Test
c. KN Test 60. Any person who knowingly and willfully
d. Nitric Acid Test consents to the unlawful acts provided for RA 9165.
a. Financier c. coddler
51. Duquenois-Levine test is for marijuana; b. Protector d. both c & b
Symone’s test is for:
a. Cocaine 61. A law which integrated drug related curricula
b. Barbiturates in tertiary level?
c. Opium derivatives A.RA 7624 c. RA 9165
d. Shabu B.RA 953 d. RA 6425

52. What is the dangerous drugs can be extracted 62. Which of the following country in the Middle
from the Chinese plant know as ephedra or ―ma East is the biggest producer of cannabis sativa? (April
huang―? 2016 BEQ)
A. cocaine a. Lebanon
B. shabu b. Iraq
C. mescaline c. Kuwait
D. Benzedrine d. Afghanistan

53. To be considered a ―drug syndicate‖ under 63. The combined effects of psychoactive drugs
the drug law, the number of persons joining together like barbiturates and alcohols which are both
with the intention of committing any offense under the depressant drugs is known as *
said law is how many persons? A. Four A. withdrawal sickness
B. Three B. synergistic effects
C. Five C. tolerance
D. Two D. none of the above

54. Refers to the increasing the dosage of drugs 64. it refers to the individual reaction to a drug,
to maintain the same effect. food, etc. for unexplained reasons
a. Tolerance A. Idiosyncrasy
b. Physical dependence B. Allergy
c. Poly drug abuse C. Side Effects
d. Drug experimenter D. Overdose

55. Originally known as “Kakuseizai” meaning 65. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug
walking drug, it was brought to the Philippines by a Testing according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT. (October
Japanese tourist. 2015 Board Exam Question)
A. Marijuana a. Officers and Employee of public and private offices.
B. Cocaine b. Applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry
C. Shabu firearms outside residence.
D. Opium c. Officers and Members of the Military, police and
other law enforcement agencies.
56. Office that controls and regulates gambling. d. All persons charged before the prosecutor’s office
A. PAGCOR with a criminal offense having an imposable penalty of
B. PCGG not less than six (6) years and one (1) days.
C. PACC
D. PNP 66. They serve as permanent consultant of the
Dangerous Drug Board:
a. Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice
b. NBI Director and PNP Director General

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c. PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief A. cocaine B. marijuana
d. PNP Director and PDEA Director C. opium D. shabu

67. PO3 Suboh planted 0.5 grams of shabu to 79. What opium preparation is combined with
their suspect and PO2 Lebron planted 1 gram of shabu. camphor to produce a
Is their penalty the same? household remedy for diarrhea and abdominal pain?
a. No A. Tincture of opium
b. Yes B. Raw opium
c. False C. Paregoric
D. Granulated opium
68. d. True The Summerians called it “Hul Gil”
which means, “plant of joy” due to its jouful effect 80. The hallucinogenic alkaloid from a small
when administered. Mexican mushroom used
A. Opium by Mexican Indians to induce nausea and muscular
B. MJ relaxation is
C. Peyote called:
D. Psilocybin A. Psilocybin
B. STP
69. In acute cases withdrawal of drugs causes C. DMT
serious physical illness also called abstinence D. Ibogaine
syndrome. It is also otherwise known as:
A. Psychological dependence 81. The presence of the symptom of alcohol
B. Physical dependence intoxication with out
C. Drug Addiction smell of alcoholic breath is a sign that the
D. “Cold Turkey” suspected person is
under the influence of:
70. Intoxication when considered under the law is A. Amphetamine drug
considered B. Barbiturates
A. Alternative Circumstance C. Hallucinogens
B. Exempting circumstance D. Narcotics
C. Delinquent act
D. aggravating Circumstance 82. Methylene dioxymethamphetamine is
commonly known as:
71. It refers to the “the paradise of drug users in a. ecstasy C. morphine
Europe”. b. ketamine D. amphetamine
A. Philippines B. Mexico
C. Spain D. Lebanon 83. Also known as “pep pills”
a. ecstasy C. morphine
72. The Dangerous Drug board shall be composed b. ketamine D. amphetamine
of how many Ex-officio Members?
A. 2 C. 2 84. Strongest of all Marijuana.
B. 12 D. 17 a. Staminate
b. Pistillate
73. Anti-Drunk and Drugged Driving Act of 2013. c. THC
a. RA 10983 d. Panama Red
b. RA 10586
c. RA 11549 85. It is most commonly abused narcotic in the
d. RA 11479 world:
a. cocaine C. shabu
74. Typical effect of BAC having 0.6-0.11% b. opium D. heroin
a. Buzz Zone
b. Drunk Zone 86. A dark brown resin that is collected from the
c. Elevated Risk Zone tops of potent cannabis sativa.
d. High Risk Zone a. Hashish
b. Opium
75. This is the first test that is typically c. Morphine
administered in Field Sobriety Test. The officer stands d. Marijuana
about one foot away from the driver and looks for
involuntary jerking of the eyes as they gaze toward 87. It is refers to any act of introducing any
from side to side with a moving object. dangerous drugs into the body of any person, with or
a. Eye Test without his knowledge by injecting, ingestion or other
b. Walk Test means or of committing any act of indispensable
c. One leg stand assistance to a person in taking a dangerous drug to
d. Blood Alcohol Test himself or herself.
A. administer B. taking
76. The person who manages houses of ill-refute C. using D. introducing
where the business of prostitution is conducted.
A. Pimp B. prostitute 88. It is the sale, distribution, supply or transport
C. Knocker D. Maintainer of legitimately imported, in-transit, manufactured or
procured controlled precursor and essential chemicals.
77. Opium alkaloid, used for painkiller, but more A. cultivate B. culture
as a cough reliever? C. chemical diversion D. all of the
A. morphine B. cocaine above
C. opium D. codeine
89. Are commercially produced drugs that may be
78. Methyl Benzoyl Ecgonine is known as purchased legally without prescription?

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A. over-the-counter drug c. Dependence
B. prescription drug d. Addiction
C. unrecognized drug
D. herbal drug 100. This chemical is used as drugs for date rape:
A. GHB
90. orphine addiction from among the veterans of B. LOVE
war came to be known as: C. X
A. merchants of death D. LSD
B. casualties of war
C. soldier’s disease FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON
D. addiction of veteran INVESTIGATION

91. Which of the following does not carry a capital 1. Preparation to set a fire. It is design to feed
punishment? the fire as rapidly as possible when ignition device is
a. possession of 20 grams morphine lighted.
b. possession of 100 grams of marijuana a. Plants
c. possession of 15 grams of MDMA b. Trailers
d. possession of 60 grams of shabu c. Accelerants
d. Fuel
92. Cocaine has originated from Columbia; Shabu
originated from: 2. When carbon monoxide is absent in the
a. Japan blood of the dead body found in a burned structure,
b. China this will be strong circumstantial evidence that the
c. Mexico person:
d. India a. Was dead before the fire began
b. Was killed by someone else during the flame
93. Pedro cannot function without drugs in his c. Was alive before the fire
system and if he does not take drugs, he develops d. Died due to suffocation
withdrawal signs such as restlessness, pain, or
convulsions. Pedro is: 3. Means employed to pacify the fire.
a. physically dependent on drugs a. Fire prevention
b. mentally dependent on drugs b. Fire safety
c. psychologically dependent on drugs c. Fire control
d. socially dependent on drugs d. Fire suppression

94. Transshipment point of all forms of heroin in 4. An act of removing fire hazards from the
the world. building.
a. Japan a. Lien
b. Hong Kong b. Abatement
c. Philippines c. Inspection
d. Malaysia d. Renovation

95. Ecstasy is Essence; LSD is wedding bells; 5. A kind of fire extinguisher which is non-
mescaline is _____ combustible and non-reactive with most substances. It
a. Buttons provides its pressure for discharge from storage
b. Dope cylinders or extinguishers.
c. Herbals A. Water fire extinguisher
d. Snow B. Carbon Dioxide fire extinguisher
C. Dry powder fire extinguisher
96. Samples of seized dangerous drugs shall be D. Metal/Sand extinguishers
destroyed _____ after promulgation of judgment
a. 24 hours 6. If conflagration is only the means of killing the
b. 48 hours victim, the crime that you have to file is:
c. 72 hours Z. Arson
d. 12 hours X. Murder
C. Murder with arson
97. Principal source of all forms of cocaine. V. Arson with murder
a. Southeast Asia
b. South America 7. The killing is murder when the offender after
c. Middle East killing the victim cut off the head and limbs and opened
d. Southwest Asia up of the body to remove the intestines of the
deceased. What circumstance qualified the killing?
98. Sources of dangerous drugs particularly A. By mockery at the corpse of the victim
opium poppy is cultivated and harvested mostly in the B. By outraging or scoffing at the corpse of the victim
areas of which part of the globe? C. By inhumanly augmenting the suffering of the victim
A. Southeast Asia D. By employing means to weaken the defense
B. South America
C. Middle East 8. A strong oxidizing organic compound which
D. Southwest Asia releases oxygen readily.
A. Organic Peroxide
99. The inadvertent or deliberate consumption of B. Hypergolic Fuel
much larger doses that the habitually used by the C. Dust
individual in question and resulting in serious toxic D. Fire trap
reaction or death.
a. Tolerance
b. Overdose

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9. In arson investigation, the constant c. Burning
temperature at which the vapor pressure of the liquid d. Pyrolysis
is equal to the atmospheric pressure is called:
A. Fire Point 20. Known as the “Fire Code of the Philippines”.
B. Boiling point a. RA 6975
C. Flashpoint b. RA 9263
D. Flame pressure c. RA 9514
d. PD 1613
10. Which of the following circumstances is an 21. What is a normally open device installed
indication that the fire was intentionally set? A. Buying inside an air duct system which automatically closes to
of lighters restrict the passage of smoke or fire?
B. Suspect’s financial difficulties A. fire exit
C. Heavy particles in suspect’s house B. damper
D. Removal of valuable articles C. fire trap
D. fire alarm
11. Is the crime of arson consummated even if
the fire had just started and only a very small or 22. Heat transfer that occurs in fluids.
insignificant portion of the house was damaged? a. Convection
A. Yes b. Radiation
C. No c. Conduction
B. Possible d. Electrolysis
D. It depends
23. It refers to the size of fire which is determined
12. In fire query, the burning of a low-grade by the size of flame and the area of fuel that is burning.
heavy oils or resinous on tarry materials with a. Temperature
reasonable air forms as soot is called: b. Heat
A. Manganese c. Intensity
B. permanganate d. Magnitude
c. Lampblack
D. carbon lock 24. The burnt pattern in woods indicating the
spontaneous and intensive burning has occurred.
13. The fact of having set fire to some rags and a. Alligatoring
jute sacks, soaked in kerosene oil, and placing them b. Discoloration
near the wooden partition of the house, should be? c. Collapse
A. Frustrated Arson d. Charring
B. Consummated Arson
C. Attempted Arson 25. Which of the following should be performed
D. Malicious Mischief first in conducting fire investigation?
a. Secure the fire scene
14. Is the number of suspects in the case of arson b. Photograph the façade
material in determining the penalty? c. Pacify the fire
A. It depends C. sometimes d. Conduct search
B. Yes D. no
26. System of interconnected pipe that supplies
15. What is the percentage of water and foam in water for fire suppression system in a particular
AFFF?? installation.
A.96% water and 4% foam a. Wet pipe
B.96%foam and 4%water b. Dry pipe
C.60%water and 40% foam c. Standpipe
D.50% water and 50% foam d. Sprinkler

16. Also known as on-the-spot planning, this is 27. Most arson cases are proved
the process knowing the emergency situation. by evidence rather than that direct evidence.
A. Pre fire Planning a. Circumstantial
B. Evaluation/ Size up b. Documentary
C. EVACUATION c. Testimonial
D. RESCUE d. Physical

17. The fuel is comprised of normal combustible 28. To establish the prima facie evidence of
materials such as wood, paper, fibers, draperies and arson, the total insurance carried on the building
trash. It requires saturation by water or water fog and/or goals is more than of the value of such
A. CLASS A FIRE building and/or goods at the time of the fire.
B. CLASS C FIRE a. 60%
C. CLASS K FIRE b. 50%
D. CLASS B FIRE c. 80%
d. 90%
18. Fire stage that has the highest rate of
intensity. 29. When carbon monoxide is absent in the blood
a. Incipient of the dead body found in a burned structure, this will
b. Free burning be a strong circumstantial evidence that the person:
c. Smoldering A. Was dead when the fire began
d. Initial B. Was killed by someone else during the blaze
C. Was still alive before the fire
19. Decomposition of matter in reaction to heat. D. Died due to suffocation
a. Thermal balance
b. Oxidation

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30. If combustion waves propagate at supersonic
speed, a shock front develops ahead of it to produce: 39. A popular chemical element used by the
a. Explosion arsonist to hide the odor of flammable liquids.
b. Detonation a. Sulfides
c. Conflagration b. Nitrates
d. Big fire c. Sulfur
d. Ammonia
30. What is the enclosed space of passage that
extends from floor to floor as well as from the base to 40. William already placed gasoline-soaked rags
the top of the building? (October 2015 Board Exam beside the wall of Happy Ending Spa but was caught
Question) by Kurt before he could strike the match to burn the
a. vertical shaft building. William committed arson at what stage?
b. sprinkler system A. Frustrated
c. Standpipe B. Attempted
d. flash point C. Belated
31. Refers to the breaking of pieces of the surface D. Consummated
of concrete, brick or cement due to intense heat.
A. Crazing 41. In order for arson to be deemed committed
B. Alligatoring effect by a syndicate, what is the minimum number of
C. Spalling persons involved?
D. Fire A. 1
32. The cause of the majority of fire death is B. 2
__________. C. 3
A. Infection D. 4
B. Shock
C. Burns 42. Highly flammable chemicals that are used to
D. Asphyxiation facilitate flame propagation.
33. A fatal condition that takes place when the fire A. Trailer
resists extinguishment operations and become B. Gasoline
stronger and bigger instead. C. Accelerant
a. Bite back D. Plant
b. Backdraft
c. Flash Fire 43. When a particle follows a smooth path
d. Flashover through a gaseous flame.
a. Laminar Flame
34. Any liquid having a flash point at or above b. Turbulent Flame
37.8°C (100 °F). c. Premixed Flame
a. Flammable Liquid d. Diffusion Flame
b. Combustible Liquid
c. Boiling Liquid
d. Fire point 44. This is the normal/common behavior of fire in
a building:
35. This is a term use to describe heat transition Z. It moves vertically
which occurs in the development of a fire when for X. It has a circular movement
example most of the entire combustible surface within C. It only moves horizontally
a room is heated above their ignition temperature at V. It has a circular movement while moving horizontally
the same time.
A. Ignition 45. Descriptive of any material when by its nature
B. Starter or as a result of its reaction with other elements
C. flashover promotes a rapid drop in temperature of the immediate
D. Intensity surroundings.
36. The colorless gas, insoluble with water and a. Dust
alcohol that is formed from the incomplete combustion b. Oxidizing material
of carbon fuel such as wood, oil coal and kerosene and c. Pyrolysis
also known as “silent killer is d. Cryogenic
A. Carbon Dioxide
B. Hydrogen Cyanide 46. A building unsafe in case of fire because it will
C. Carbon Monoxide burn easily or because it lacks adequate exits or fire
D. Dihydrogen Oxide escapes.
a. Fire Hazard
37. To prevent the fire from rekindling. Looking b. Fire Trap
for remaining sources of ignition such as embers, open c. Fire Wall
flames, sparks among debris. Making the area safe and d. Fire Lane
habitable. Gathering physical evidences among debris
to determine cause of the fire. * 47. It is the activity of protecting the properties
A. Ventilation from preventable damage other than the fire. The
B. Extinguishment steps are a) remove the material outside the burning
C. Overhauling area, and b) protecting or cover the materials by using
D. Salvage tarpaulins (cotton canvass treated with water
proofing).
38. The heat energy derived from nuclear energy a. Salvage
by the splitting of atoms is known as: b. Confinement
A. Fission c. Rescue
B. Radiation d. Retrieval Operations
C. Ignition
D. Fusion

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48. It is the operation of removing (extricating), 58. Rapid oxidation accompanied by heat and
thus saving people and other livestock from the light.
burning building and other involved properties, a. Pyrolysis
conveying them to a secure place. b. Combustion
a. rescue c. Detonation
b. salvage d. All of the foregoing
c. evacuation
d. overhauling 59. An occurrence when the heat has brought the
combustible portion of the ceiling to their ignition
49. The amount of heat necessary to convert solid temperature, it is characterized by a sudden burst or
to liquid. shooting forth light and flames.
a. Specific heat a. Flashover
b. Latent heat b. Backdraft
c. Heat of Combustion c. Thermal balance
d. Heat of fusion d. Thermal imbalance

50. Matter made up of very fine particles and 60. An explosive condition in the smoldering
condensed vapor as a result of combustion. phase of fire, it is a result of a sudden introduction of
a. Fire oxygen.
b. Flame a. Flashover
c. Heat b. Backdraft
d. Smoke c. Thermal balance
d. Thermal imbalance
51. Which among the following is commonly used
in fire resistant materials? 61. is exemplified by a Bunsen-type laboratory
a. Asbestos burner where hydrocarbon (any substance containing
b. Diamond primarily carbon and hydrogen) is thoroughly mixed
c. Asphalt with air before reaching the flame zone.
d. Cotton a. Pre-mixed flame
b. Diffusion flame
52. Changes whereby heat is absorbed before the c. Laminar flame
reaction takes place. d. Turbulent flame
a. Endothermic reactions
b. Exothermic reactions 62. is any condition or act that increases or may
c. Oxidation cause increase in the probability that fire will occur or
d. Combustion which may obstruct, delay, hinder or interfere with
firefighting operations and the safeguarding of life and
53. A device used by arsonists to spread the fire property
within the room or throughout the structure. a. Fire Trap
a. Accelerant b. Fire Hazard
b. Plants c. Fire risk
c. Trailer d. Fire threat
d. Wick
63. What substance is burned when there is a
54. Lowest temperature of a liquid in open bright reddish yellow flame?
container at which vapors are evolved fast enough to a. Rubber
support continuous combustion. b. Calcium
a. Ignition temperature c. Manganese
b. Kindling temperature d. Nitrogen products
c. Fire point 64. This is the activity of restricting the fire at the
d. Flash point place (room) where it started : the process of
preventing fire from extending from another section or
55. The temperature at which flammable liquid form one section to another section of the involved
form a vapor-air mixture that ignites. building.
a. Ignition temperature a. Fire control
b. Kindling temperature b. Containment
c. Fire point c. Ventilation
d. Flash point d. Exposure

56. Minimum temperature in which the substance 65. this is the activity of securing other buildings
in the air must be heated in order to initiate or cause a near the burning structure in order to prevent the
self-contained combustion without the addition of heat fire from the extending to another building.
from outside sources. a. Fire control
a. Boiling point b. Containment
b. Ignition temperature c. Ventilation
c. Fire point d. Exposure
d. Flash point
66. Method of extinguishment by reducing the
57. An exothermic chemical change in which a heat to below the ignition temperature
combustible material react with an oxidizing agent. a. Cooling
a. Thermal balance b. Smothering
b. Thermal imbalance c. Blanketing
c. Combustion d. Starvation
d. Oxidation
67. Any of the following circumstances shall
constitute prima facie evidence of arson, except:

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a. If the fire started simultaneously in more than 76. What is the upper section of an extension
one part of the building or establishment; ladder?
b. If substantial amount of flammable substance A. top C. fly
or materials are stored within the building not B. butt D. extension
necessary in the business of the offender nor for the
household use; 77. How many percent of air is needed to sustain
c. If gasoline, kerosene, petroleum or other combustion?
flammable or combustible substances or materials A. 20 C. 30
soaked therewith or containers, thereof or any B. 10 D. 15
mechanical, electrical, or foregoing are found in the
ruins or premises of the burned building or property; 78. It is any substance that ignites spontaneously
d. If the building or property is insured for when exposed to air.
substantially less than its actual value at the time of a. Cryogenic
the issuance of the policy; b. Hypergolic
c. Pyrophoric
68. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, d. Flammable
the crime that you have to file is:
A. murder with arson C. arson with murder 79. It is designed to prevent spread of fire.
B. murder D. arson a. Fire trap
b. Firewall
69. What color of smoke is present when the c. Fire protection
materials burning are Phosphorus, vegetable or hay? d. Fire hazard
A. Black C. White
B. Yellow D. Blue 80. It is an activity intended to save lives and
property.
70. These are borders defining the differences in a. Fire protection
certain heat and smoke effects of the fire upon various b. Fire fighting
materials. c. Fire inspection
a. Surface effect d. Fire prevention
b. Lines or areas of demarcation
c. Fusion 81. It is the most common source of heat in
d. Charring combustion reactions.
71. An integrated network of hydraulically a. Chemical energy
designed piping installed in a building, structure or area b. Mechanical energy
with outlets arranged in a systematic pattern which c. Nuclear energy
automatically discharges water when activated by heat d. Physical energy
or combustion products from a fire.
a. Vestibule 82. These are installed to separate areas of
b. Vertical shaft hazardous occupancies from areas of ordinary or light
c. Standpipe system hazard occupancies that resist the passage of fire
d. Sprinkler system fromone area to another.
a. Firewall
72. Refers to the cracking of glass into smaller b. Fire partitions
segments of subdivision in an irregular pattern c. Fire building
a. Alligatoring d. Fireproof wall
b. Crazing
c. Charring 83. It is a hot piece or lump that remains after a
d. Spalling material has partially burned and is still oxidizing
without the manifestation of flames.
73. A process where impurities and/or deleterious a. Arc
materials are removed from a mixture in order to b. Ember
produce a pure element of compound. It shall also refer c. Damper
to partial distillation and electrolysis. d. Duct
a. Refining
b. Smelting 84. The primary course of action in case of a fire.
c. Oxidizing A. pack up and flee
d. Fermentation B. run for your life
C. call an ambulance
74. A rocket or liquid propellant which consists of D. raise the alarm
combinations of fuels and oxidizers which ignite
spontaneously on contact with each other. 85. The following are some of the factors that
a. Cryogenic may affect the extent of burning except:
b. Hypergolic fuel a. Wind velocity
c. Corrosive b. Relative humidity
d. Combustible c. Air temperature
d. Numbers of incendiary
75. The increase or rising of amperage while
electric current is flowing in a transmission line 86. What is the visual or audible signal produced
resulting to the damage or destruction of insulating by a device to warn the occupants of the building of
materials, maybe gradual or rapid, internal or external. the presence of danger of fire?
a. Overheating a. Fire exit
b. Arcing b. Fire alarm
c. Sparking c. Fire signal
d. Induced Current d. Fire drill

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87. Responsible for the inspection of all 97. The technique used in clearing a building of
compliance of provisions of the Fire Code smoke and with the use of smoke ejector is called as
a. BFP Chief what?
b. Mayor A. smoke ejector C. forced ventilation
c. City/Municipal Fire Marshall B. horizontal ventilation D. vertical
d. Chief, Fire Safety Enforcement Section
98. As the product of combustion rises in a
88. Means employed to pacify a fire. building or flows out of an opening an equal volume of
a. Fire protection air replaces them. If during extinguishments, water is
b. Fire control distributed in such a manner as to upset the thermal
c. Fire suppression balance, a condition will appear known as: (December
d. Fire inspection 2018 Board Exam question)
a. Explosion of steam
89. It is performed to assess the safety of an b. Thermostat
installation from destructive fires. c. Thermal imbalance
a. Fire protection d. Sudden burst of fire
b. Fire control
c. Fire suppression 99. Considered as the first firefighters in the
d. Fire inspection Philippines.
a. Police officer
90. A building must have this design which is used b. Streetsweepers
a continuous passageway for transmission of air? c. Men
a. Exhaust system d. Fire brigade
b. Duct system
c. Fire exit 100. Out of anger, because his younger brother
d. Damper was mauled by the neighbor Munding, Juswa burned
the house of Munding who unknown to him was
91. What type of ladder is best suited for sleeping in the said house during that time. As an Arson
firefighting operation involving high-rise building? Investigator you will charge Juswa with
A. attic .
B. extension A. Arson with Murder
C. aerial B. Murder only
D. hook C. Arson and Murder
D. Arson only
92. An instance that may cause fires from the
heat accumulated from
the rolling, sliding or friction in machinery or between
two hard
surfaces, at least one of which is usually a metal is
called.
A. static electricity
B. overheating of machine
C. friction heat
D. heat from arching

93. An extensive fire that destroys a great deal of

land or property.
A. Conflagration
B. Burning
C. Fire
D. Combustion

94. The following are the special aggravating

circumstances in arson, except:
a. if committed with intent to gain;
b. If committed for the benefit of another;
c. If the offender is motivated by spite or hatred
towards the owner or occupant of the property burned;
d. If committed by 2 persons

95. Setting fire on any train, airplane or any

aircraft, vessel or watercraft, or conveyance for
transportation of persons or property
a. Simple arson
b. Destructive arson
c. Arson
d. Other cases of arson

96. After the fire fighting operation and fire out

has been declared, what is the first thing that a fire
prober must determine?
A. look for survivors
B. search for debris
C. locate the point of origin
D. established corpus delicti

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