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Request for crazy integrals Ask Question

Questions Asked 5 years ago Modified 6 months ago Viewed 6k times

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I'm a sucker for exotic integrals like the one evaluated in this post. I don't really know
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why, but I just can't get enough of the amazing closed forms that some are able to
Users
come up with.
28 Seeking feedback on tag colors update
Unanswered
So, what are your favorite exotic integral identities, and how do you prove them? Site maintenance - Wednesday,
TEAMS
December 13, 2023 @ 01:00 UTC
(Tuesday,...
integration definite-integrals soft-question big-list
Stack Overflow for
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collaborating and
Linked
sharing organizational Share Cite Follow asked Dec 5, 2018 at 20:40
knowledge. 250 "Integral Milking"
clathratus
16.8k 3 24 74
40 Integral for the New Year 2019!

37
Definite integrals solvable using the
2 You may want to invest in this book. I am giving it to myself as a Christmas present Feynman Trick
amazon.com/dp/0521796369/… – user150203 Dec 6, 2018 at 3:39
42
An astounding identity:
π/2
1 You should refer to this question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1096701/nice-book- ∫0 ln|sin(mx)| ⋅ ln|sin(nx)| dx
Create a free Team on-integrals – user150203 Dec 6, 2018 at 3:46
18
Nice book on integrals
Why Teams?
1 I know what you mean - I can't get enough of 'em either! There's that one that Peter Borwein
2
likes to use in his demostrations: a product of progressively scaled sinc functions, that's π/2 1 (x +1) ln(1+x)
10 Integral ∫0 dx
upto a certain point then starts to be a bit less. A very very tiny bit! – AmbretteOrrisey Dec x4 −x2 +1
8, 2018 at 2:32 Evaluating the integral
14
cos(x− x )
1
You can invent such integrals through "milking" techniques described here. Perhaps this one ∞
∫−∞ 1+x2
dx
is the most remarkable they found. – J.G. Dec 3, 2020 at 8:13
29 Evaluate
2 3
–
x log(1 + x )[log( )]
∞ x ln(tanh(x))2 ln 3 ln3 (2 + √3) 1 2 1−x
π4 π2 ∫0 dx
∫ dx = − – − – − – Li2 1+x
0 3 cosh(2x) − 2e−2x 96√3 24√3 12√3
2
∞ arctan(x )
1 π2 1 π2 – 1 – 16 Integral ∫0
(− – ) + ( )
dx
– Li 2 – − – Li 2 (√ 3 − 2) − – Li 4 (2 − √ 3) x4 +x2 +1
√3 12√3 √3 4√3 2√3
1 Examples of non-trivial exclusively
– 6
+ – Li4 (−2 + √3) irrational integrals?
2√3

– Setness Ramesory Sep 28, 2021 at 13:02 See more linked questions

Show 2 more comments Related

Closed-forms for several tough integrals
9 Answers Sorted by: Highest score (default) 29

12 Where to find interesting integrals for a

Calc III student?
Here are some of my favorites:
95
Do numbers get worse than
π
−−−−−− π
23 ∫ sin2 (x − √π 2 − x 2)dx = transcendental?
0 2
7
Should I figure something out before
∞ learning how? SELF STUDY
ln(x)
∫ dx = 0 "Integral Milking"
0 (1 + x √2)√2 250

∞ Proving existence of improper integrals

dx 1
∫
3
= –
0 (1 + x 1+√2 )1+√2 √2
∞ Hot Network Questions
−−
∫ ln(2 − 2 cos(x 2 ))dx = −√2πζ(3/2)
−∞ Do people who "withhold judgement" also have
a burden of proof?
–
∞
erf2 (x) 4 ln(1 + √2)
∫ dx = Sci-fi short story in which a dictator loses
0 x2 √−π authority by being attacked/blinded by laser

240v L14-30R wiring air compressor switch

3 x3 x2 4
∞ x ln(e + x
+ + x + 1) − x π2
∫ 6 2
= Is taking an Eshat Yefat To'ar allowed today?
0 x3
+ x2
+x+1 2
6 2 Does being swallowed end a grapple?

π/2 Is a contract written by a language model valid?

∫ 2
ln(x + ln (cos(x)))dx = π ln(ln(2)) 2
0 When is it appropriate to mix 74LSxx
components with original TTL 74xx?
∞
arctan(2x) + arctan(x/2) π2
∫ dx = If you wanted to say "light skin" or "dark skin",
0 x2 + 1 4 would it be correct to say "⾊⽩" and "⾊黒"?

Why did the U.S. veto the UN ceasefire

π/2
sin(x + 100 tan(x)) π
∫ dx = resolution?
0 sin(x) 2 Home ownership burden of insurance in
Scotland
1
x ln(1 + x + x 4 + x 5 ) ln2 (2)
∫ dx = A clear map of mathematical approaches to
0 1 + x2 2 Artificial Intelligence

What algorithm(s) do numpy and scipy use to

1/2
sin2 (1)
∫ 4 4 2
sin(8x + x) cos(8x − x) cos(4x )xdx = calculate matrix inverses?
0 16 Why is the dividend yield on the S&P 500 so
low?
2π −−−−−−−−−−−−−− −−−
−−
−−
−−−−
−−
−−
−−
−
∫ √ 2 + cos(x) + √ 5 + 4 cos(x)dx = 4π Choose-your-path book in which a spaceship
0 breaks apart, forcing a kid to jettison onto a
planet where he encounters aliens
And here are four extremely exotic scrumptious integrals: What is the sum of an infinite resistor ladder
with geometric progression?
1
sin(πx) π
∫ dx = Is "NATI SUMUS UT NUTRICATI VERITATE"
0 x x (1 − x)1−x e grammatically correct latin sentence to express
"We born to be fed by truth"?
∞
dx 1
∫ = What is this scam? Card CVV entered
−∞ (ex − x)2 + π 2 1+Ω incorrectly too many times

How to repair my relationship with management

∞ 2 2
3π + 4(z − sinh(z)) after accidentally getting access to a
∫ dz confidental document?
0 [3π 2 + 4(z − sinh(z))2 ]2 + 16π 2 (z − sinh(z))2
Meaning of a present participle in a verse of
1 Vergil's Eclogue 8
= −−−−−−
8 + 8√1 − w2 Faraday's law and Kirchhoff's law

π/2
π 3 gcd2 (m, n) π ln2 (2) Why am I getting "no such file" in find results
∫ ln | sin(mx)| ln | sin(nx)|dx = + for files that exist?
0 24 mn 2
Chess, but with gravity? #1

...where Ω is the Omega Constant, w is the Dottie Number, and m, n ∈ N . Big difference in rendered appearance between
blender 3.6.4 and 4.0.2

Share Cite Follow edited Jan 24, 2019 at 21:27 answered Dec 18, 2018 at 0:43 Taking directly my second flight instead of
layover
Franklin Pezzuti Dyer
39.4k 9 71 162
Question feed

1 Just the user I was hoping would answer! Thank you for your contribution, those integrals
look delicious! :) – clathratus Dec 18, 2018 at 1:02

Are you sure that the 6 -th integral you listed (the one that evaluates as π 2 ) converges? The
graph of it tells me otherwise... – clathratus Jan 24, 2019 at 17:30

@clathratus My apologies; the −x2 should have been −x4 . I have fixed my answer so that the
integral converges. – Franklin Pezzuti Dyer Jan 24, 2019 at 21:28

Add a comment

Here are some links to a few integrals: 1 (Big list, but not all of them got the right
answer). From AoPS: 2, 3 , 4. Some that are solvable with Feynman's trick: here.

14 As for my favourites (most of them appeared on Romanian Mathematical Magazine),

some are:
π
arctan(tan x sec x) π π –
I1 = ∫
2
dx = ln 2 − ln(2 + √3)
0 tan x + sec x 2 6
∞
3x 2 + 15 2x
) cos( 2 ) 2
dx π
I2 = ∫ exp(− 2 =
0 2x + 18 x +9 x +1 e
1
ln2 (1 + x)(ln2 (1 + x) + 6 ln2 (1 − x)) 21
I3 = ∫ dx = ζ(5)
0 x 4
∞
dx ln x
π
I4 = ∫ − = −
0 (π 2 + ln2 x)(1 + x)2 √x 24
∞
1 − cos x π
I5 = ∫ dx =
0 8 − 4x sin x + x 2 (1 − cos x) 4
∞
arctan x π2 2 π –
I6 = ∫ dx = – − G + ln(2 + √ 3)
0 x4 + x2 + 1 8√3 3 12
∞
ln(1 + x)
π – 2 π2
I7 = ∫ dx = ln(2 + √3) + G − –
0
4 2
x −x +1 6 3 12√3
1
ln(1 − x 2 ) ln(1 + x 2 ) π3 π 2
I8 = ∫ dx = − 3G ln 2 + ln 2.
0 1 + x2 32 2
π
−−−−−−−− π – 7π
I9 = ∫ ln(2 + √1 − tan2 x)dx = ln(1 + √2) +
4
ln 2
0 2 24
π – G
− ln(1 + √3) −
3 6
1
∞ sin(x − ) π
I10 = ∫ x
dx =
−∞ x+ 1 e2
x

1
∞ cos(x − ) π
I11 = ∫ x
dx =
−∞ (x + 1 2
) 2e2
x

1
ln(1 − x) ln(1 − x 4 ) 67 π
I12 = ∫ dx = ζ(3) − G
0 x 32 2
π –
−−−− √ 2π(5π 2 + 12π ln 2 − 12 ln2 2)
I13 = ∫
2
2
x √tan xdx =
0 96
π
5 π
I14 = ∫ Cl2 ( )
4
arcsinh(sin x)dx = G −
0 8 3
π
π3 π
I15 = ∫
2
x arcsin(sin x − cos x)dx = + ln2 2
0 96 8
∞ ∞
ln(1 + x + y) 7
I16 = ∫ ∫ dxdy = ζ(3)
0 0 xy ((1 + x + y)(1 + 1/x + 1/y) − 1) 2

Where G is Catalan's constant and Cl2 (x) is the Clausen function.

Share Cite Follow edited Jun 12, 2020 at 10:38 answered Dec 5, 2018 at 22:41
Community Bot Zacky
1 25.5k 2 68 154

6 These are really nice integrals. Thanks. – clathratus Dec 6, 2018 at 0:58

2 Cheers @Zacky! I too will be working on these! – user150203 Dec 6, 2018 at 3:37

Could I have a starter tip on I6 and I7 ? I'm very lost – clathratus Dec 13, 2018 at 3:09

1 @Zacky Oh yeah, looks like you have one. Nice! – Franklin Pezzuti Dyer Jan 5, 2019 at
19:53

1 @Frpzzd Here is another one that you might like:

∞ 1
cos(x − )
∫ x
dx
1 2
−∞ (x + x)

– Zacky Jan 5, 2019 at 20:04

Show 13 more comments

You might find a lot of crazy integrals and series in the book, (Almost) Impossible
Integrals, Sums, and Series. A few examples of integrals,

8 π/2
∫ cot(x) log(cos(x)) log2 (sin(x)) Li3 (− tan2 (x))dx
0

109 23 1
= ζ(7) − ζ(3)ζ(4) + ζ(2)ζ(5);
128 32 16
log(1+√2)
∫ coth(x) log(sinh(x)) log(2 − cosh 2 (x))Li2 (tanh2 (x)) dx
0

73 17
= ζ(5) − ζ(2)ζ(3);
128 64

log2 (1 − x) Li3 ( )
x
1 x−1
∫ dx
0 1+x
1 1 7 5
= log6 (2) − log4 (2)ζ(2) + log3 (2)ζ(3) + log2 (2)ζ(4)
36 6 24 8
581
− ζ(6)
48
7 79 2
− log(2)ζ(2)ζ(3) − ζ (3);
8 64
1
sin(θ) sin( ) ∫
θ x
(ζ(m + 1)
2 0 (1 − x) (1 − 2x cos(θ) + x 2)

− Lim+1 (x))dx
∞
(k + 1)θ
) )
Hk+1 kθ
= (−1) m−1
∑ sin( sin(
k=1
(k + 1)m+1 2 2

(k + 1)θ
) sin( )
kθ
∞ sin(
m
2 2
+(−1) m−1
∑(−1) i−1
ζ(i) ∑ ;
i=2 k=1
(k + 1)m−i+2
1
x(cos(θ) − x)
sin( ) ∫
θ
(ζ(m + 1) − Lim+1 (x))dx
2 0 (1 − x)(1 − 2x cos(θ) + x 2)

∞
(k + 1)θ
) )
Hk+1 kθ
= (−1) m−1
∑ sin( cos(
k=1
(k + 1)m+1 2 2

(k + 1)θ
) cos( )
kθ
∞ sin(
m
2 2
+(−1) m−1
∑(−1) i−1
ζ(i) ∑ .
i=2 k=1
(k + 1)m−i+2

A few examples of series (which you may also transform into some fancy integrals if
you wish to),

∞
9
( )
Hn H1 H2 Hn
∑ + + ⋯ + = 10ζ(7) + ζ(2)ζ(5)
n=1
n2 13 23 n 3 2
23
− ζ(3)ζ(4);
2
∞
23 11
( )
Hn H1 H2 Hn
∑ + + ⋯ + = ζ(3)ζ(4) − ζ(2)ζ(5)
n=1
n3 12 22 n 2 2 2
− 4ζ(7);
∞
Hn2 H1 45 7
∑ 2 ( 2 + 2 +⋯+ 2 )=
H2 Hn
ζ(7) − ζ(2)ζ(5)
n=1
n 1 2 n 16 2
17
+ ζ(3)ζ(4);
2

∑ 2 ( 2 + 2 +⋯+ 2 )=
∞
Hn H12 H22 Hn2 93 11
ζ(7) + ζ(2)ζ(5)
n=1
n 1 2 n 8 2
51
− ζ(3)ζ(4);
4
ζ(4)
2
8 ∞ Hn H2n 64 ∞ (H2n ) 64 ∞
= ∑ ∑ ∑
H2n
+ +
5 n=1 n2 5 n=1 (2n + 1)2 5 n=1 (2n + 1)3

8 ∞ (H2n ) 2 32 ∞ Hn H2n 64 ∞
H2n
− ∑ − ∑ − log(2) ∑
5 n=1 n2 5 n=1 (2n + 1)2 5 n=1
(2n + 1)2
(2)
8 ∞ H2n
− ∑ 2 .
5 n=1 n

Extremely crazy integrals you may also find in the paper The derivation of eighteen
special challenging logarithmic integrals by Cornel Ioan Valean.

I'm sure a lot of crazy integrals you'll also meet in the sequel of the book (Almost)
Impossible Integrals, Sums, and Series since the author prepares a
continuation of this book.

Share Cite Follow edited Aug 2, 2019 at 17:35 answered Aug 2, 2019 at 17:29
user97357329
5,199 27 45

3 WOAH!! This is very impressive! I will have to buy that book! Thanks for the great answer
(+1) – clathratus Aug 2, 2019 at 17:45

Add a comment

∞ n
θ
∫ ∏ sinc dθ = π,
−∞ k=1 (2k − 1)
7
provided n ∈ 1. . . 7 ... for n ≥ 8 , it starts being < π by the most miniscule amounts!

Share Cite Follow edited Dec 8, 2018 at 3:07 answered Dec 8, 2018 at 2:42
AmbretteOrrisey
981 4 12

Really interesting! where can I learn more? – clathratus Dec 8, 2018 at 2:43

1 It's actually called the Borwein integral. I strongly recommend the works of Peter Borwein in
this connection - you'd love it! There's heaps of these crazy integrals in his works, & he's a
specialist in unlimited precision arithmetic. He has an algorithm for finding closed-form
expressions given a decimal expansion, that finds with a certain probability - rapidly
increasing with number of digits - the peak-probability closed-form ... like if you were to say
"hmmm - that looks like the square-root of ζ(3)!", or something - but systematised. And Ising
integrals ... and ... and ... ! – AmbretteOrrisey Dec 8, 2018 at 2:51

1 @Clathratus -- I presume you mean me? I like the sound of the idea! Quite likely ... if it means
I get an endless supply of the "meat that you know not of", to paraphrase a certain prophet
perched on the edge of a well in Samaria! – AmbretteOrrisey Jan 2, 2019 at 6:09

1 Use [email protected] ¶ (It's Koine Greek ... it means to which they had gone.)
– AmbretteOrrisey Jan 2, 2019 at 6:23

1 @Clathratus -- what I'll do for now, I think, is get it sorted just why that Borwein integral has
it's property - afterall, I've quoted the result without any proof! Got sufficient material on it -
and it appears within my measure. It's immediately less mysterious reflecting that the Fourier
transform of sinc is the top-hat function ... so analysing it - if you have the integral of
sinc×cos(a) (a being the radius of the top-hat) it suddenly becomes 0 the instant you have
more than a full cycle of cos inside the central 'lobe' of sinc. And that is indeed what it's
essentially about. – AmbretteOrrisey Jan 3, 2019 at 17:40

Show 6 more comments

I'm partial to the one in this question What is the Centroid of

1
z= i+1
, τ ∈ (−∞, ∞) .
(1−iτ)
4
I found a solution, but it was hardly elegant. A solution that doesn't use
hypergeometric functions in the middle of the solution would be nice.

Share Cite Follow answered Dec 5, 2018 at 22:42

Andy Walls
3,441 2 8 15

Hypergeometric function for not, thanks for the answer. – clathratus Dec 6, 2018 at 0:59

Add a comment

This might not be a difficult integral but it made me come up with a new method to
solve it so I think it's quite exotic.

4 ∞
Let’s do the general integral I(a, b) = ∫
−2 +bx 2 )
e−(ax dx
0

Differentiate with respect to a

∞
∂I
=∫
−2 2
x −2 e−(ax +bx ) dx
∂a 0

∞
∂2 I
=∫
−2 2
Now differentiate with respect to b x −2 x 2 e−(ax +bx ) dx
∂a∂b 0

∞
∂2 I
=∫
−2 2
e−(ax +bx ) dx
∂a∂b 0

∂2 I
=I
∂a∂b

Thus our integral satisfies this PDE.This is a hyperbolic homogenous PDE. It is a

second order PDE but it is first order with respect to each of the variables so we’ll
need two boundary conditions to determine a unique solution.(In this case two
asympotic BCs and one Drichlet boundary condition will be used).Keep this in mind
we’ll need it later.

Let’s complete the square of expression in the exponential.

∞
I(a, b) = ∫
−2 +bx 2 −2√ab+2√ab)
e−(ax dx
0

∞
I(a, b) = ∫
−1 −√bx) 2 −2√ab
e−(√ax dx
0

∞
∫
−2√ab −1 −√bx) 2
I(a, b) = e e−(√ax dx
0

Now let’s explore more of it’s properties.One thing to note is that this integral
diverges(blows up) at b=0 but at a=0 it has a well known value. It is the Gaussian
integral so
∞
1 −−
I(0, b) = ∫ dx = √
−(bx2 ) π
e
0 2 b

The negative exponential was extracted from the integral rather than the positive one
beacause
∞
lim ∫
−2 +bx 2 )
e−(ax dx = 0
a→∞ 0

and

lim e−2√ab = 0
a→∞

So let’s assume that we assume that the solution to our PDE is of the form

I(a, b) = e−2√ab K(b)

where K is a function of b(and diverges at b=0)

Let’s put this in the PDE

−−
∂I
= −√ e−2√ab K(b)
b
∂a a
−− −− −−
∂2 I 1
= −√ e √ √ e
b −2√ab ′ −2√ab b a −2√ab
K (b) − −− e K(b) + K(b)
∂a∂b a √
2 ab a b
−−
∂2 I
(−√ K (b) −
−2√ab b ′ K(b)
=e −− + K(b))
∂a∂b a √
2 ab

∂2 I
As =I
∂a∂b

So
−−
(−√ K (b) −
−2√ab b ′ K(b)
e −− + K(b)) = e−2√ab K(b)
a 2√ab
−−
−√ K (b) −
b ′ K(b)
−− + K(b) = K(b)
a 2√ab
−−
−√ K (a) =
b ′ K(b)
−−
a 2√ab

′ K(b)
K (b) = −
2b

This is a separable ODE.Let’s solve it

1 11
dK = − db
K 2b

Let’s integrate

1 1 1
∫ dK = − ∫ db
K 2 b

1
ln(K) = − ln(b) + C
2
− 12
ln(K) = ln(b )+C
1
K = eC b− 2

Let v = eC

So

1
K(b) = vb− 2
1
Thus the solution is I(a, b) = ve−2√ab b− 2

This expression diverges at b=0 which is exactly what we wanted. Now let’s determine
the constant v. As

1 −−
I(0, b) = √
π
2 b

1 −
−
So √ = vb− 2 e0 v =
π 1 √π
2 b 2

Thus the integral is

1 −
−
I(a, b) = √ e−2√ab (0 ⩽ a, b)
π
2 b

Share Cite Follow answered Dec 24, 2018 at 15:58

user628607

cool stuff! I really don't know anything about PDE's but this is sure exotic! Thanks for the
answer. – clathratus Dec 24, 2018 at 18:49

Add a comment

I like

⎛ ⎞
D2
+r 2

r log⎜ ⎟
2 4
Dr
+1

⎝ −1 ⎠
D 2
+r 2
∞ 4

∫ Dr
dr = π 2
D2
−∞
4
+ r2

where D > 0 (no proof supplied).

If you make the mistake of trying to convert the log term to its series form, to attempt
to integrate term by term, this integral becomes really crazy, an infinite almost fractal
cascade of further self similar integrals with the series for π/2 gradually appearing
out of the fog

1 1 1 13 1 135
( )+ ( )+ ( ) +. . . =
π
1+
3 2 5 24 7 246 2

You miss all this underlying structure sensibly driving via the mathematical
motorway.

Share Cite Follow answered Dec 8, 2018 at 16:39

James Arathoon
3,631 1 12 32

I don't get this. How is this integral any different from

x+1
∞ x log π2
∫
x−1
dx =? ?
−∞ 1 + x2 2

Right! I agree through 'cheating' (evaluating it numerically) that it's so ... but I still say all that
"D" business & putting it in a perversely complex form is a total red-herring! I get how there is
a logarithmic singularity at x=±1 & how the imaginary part is an odd function between them.
– AmbretteOrrisey Dec 15, 2018 at 5:27

You can derive using partial fraction representation the general case

∞ n
(−1)k n
(−1)k ∣
= (−1) ( + ∑ ) = ∣ +∑
dx n π ∣ π
In ≡ ∫ ∣
1 x2n (1 + x2 ) 4 2k − 1 ∣4 2k − 1 ∣
k=1 k=1
∞
(−1)k
=∑
k=0 2(n + k) + 1

whence

1+1/x
∞ x log ∞
In
∫ dx = 2 ∑
1−1/x

1 1 + x2 n=0
2n + 1

=
∞ ∞
1 (−1)k
2∑ ∑
n=0
2n + 1 k=0 2(n + k) + 1

– AmbretteOrrisey Dec 15, 2018 at 6:54

Likewise for the integral from 0 to 1 ... substitute x = 1/y & limits from 1 to ∞ & we get a
similar series that begins at n = 1 ∴ with I1 in the numerator & 2n − 1 in the denominator.
So we get

∞ x log ( x+1 )
∫
x−1

0 1 + x2

=
∞ ∞
π n (−1)k
+ 2∑ ∑
2 n=1 n −
2 1 2(n + k) + 1
4 k=0

π2
,
4
whence the integral over (−∞, ∞) is π 2 /2 . So we could numerically verify that

∞ ∞
n (−1)k π
∑ ∑ = (π − 2).
n=1 n2 − 1 2(n + k) + 1 8
4 k=0

– AmbretteOrrisey Dec 15, 2018 at 9:11

Just one last thing, and then I'm through - as this is only taking delight in seeing explicitly
how the series all pan-out & fit together, really - I'm sure the proper way to do it is something
like Feynmann's trick or a contour integral, or whatever... but the value of the integral is
π²/2 ... did you not put that in the first place & then edit it!? I'm almost sure you did.
– AmbretteOrrisey Dec 15, 2018 at 9:20

@AmbretteOrrisey: The origin of this is an attempt to derive Coulombs law in a different way
that is off-topic here. The physical integral is between 0 and ∞ , so was equal to π 2 /2 . D is
the charge separation. At the heart of my attempt at a physical model I ended up with a final
integral that is independent of D (the charge separation) which you have investigated in your
comments. Physically the integral can be simplified because you can move the origin of the
original volume integral from halfway between the charges to co-locate with one of the
charges. – James Arathoon Dec 15, 2018 at 16:24

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We have

1
∫
2
0 x[2 F1 ( 12 , 1; 2; x)] dx = 12 − 16 ln 2,
0

1
27
∫
3
x[2 F1 ( 13 , 23 ; 32 ; x)] dx = ,
0 32
1
1792
∫
4
x[3 F2 ( 14 , 12 , 34 ; 23 , 43 ; x)] dx = ,
0 2187

and

1 1 1
dtdxdz
∫ ∫ ∫ 1/2(1 − x)1/2 t1/4 (1 − t)5/12 (1 − txz)1/4
0 0 0 x

29/4 ⋅ 11√−
1
π Γ( 3 ) −−–−−−−
=
19/8 1
√√3 − 1,
3 Γ( 4 )

all from here.

Another cool one:

∞
1 π2
∫ {x − log(2 sinh x)} cos (x)dx = [ + π coth π − 1] 2
0 8 3

Share Cite Follow edited Jun 1 at 20:00 answered Dec 8, 2020 at 3:39
clathratus
16.8k 3 24 74

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My favorite is:

∫ (0, 1](−1)⌊1/x ⌋ dx = 1 − 2η(1/t)

t
0

step 1: do u = 1/x t

step 2: drag out constants

step 3: split integral from [1, ∞) to ∑(n = 1 -> inf) (∫[n, n+1])

step 4: (−1)⌊(u)⌋ = (−1)n

xn+1
step 5: the remaining integrals are easy, use ∫ x n dx = n+1

step 6: some tedious series manipulations and transformations

step 7: use that η(s) = ∑ (n = 1 -> inf) ((−1)n−1 )/(ns )

step 8: if you followed instructions closely, you should get 1 − 2η(1/t)

Share Cite Follow edited Jun 1 at 20:06 answered May 4 at 3:29

FD_bfa alphabeta
3,741 4 12 42 21 2

please format your answer using MathJax, it is near impossible to understand in its current
format – clathratus May 4 at 17:58

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