SOLID STATE

1) Amorphous solids have

(a) both rigidity and geometrical shape (b) only geometrical shape
(c)rigidity but no geometrical shape (d) neither rigidity nor geometrical shape
2) Silicon dioxide is
(a) metallic crystal (b) ionic crystal (c) covalent crystal (d) none of these
3) The structure of sodium chloride crystal is
(a) octahedral (b) square planar
(c)face centred cubic lattice (d) body centred cubic lattice
4) The crystal system of a compound with unit cell dimensions, a = 0.387, b = 0.387,
c = 0.504nm and α = β = 90° and γ = 120°, is
(a) cubic (b) rhombohedral (c) hexogonal (d) orthorhombic
5) The unit cell with crystallographic dimensions a = b ≠ c, α = β = γ = 90°, is
(a) cubic (b) tetragonal (c) monoclinic (d) hexagonal
6) The arrangement ABC ABC ……….. is referred to as
(a) octahedral close packing (b) hexagonal close packing
(c) tetrahedral close packing (d) cubic close packing
7) Three elements A, B and C crystallize into a cubic solid lattice. Atoms `A` occupy the
corners, B atoms the cube centres and atoms C the edges. The formula of thecompound is
(a) ABC (b) ABC2 (c) ABC3 (d) ABC4
8) Copper metal crystallizes with a face centered cubic (FCC) lattice. It has a co-ordination
number of
(a) 6 (b) 12 (c) 4 (d) 8
9) Total volume of atoms present in a face centered cubic unit cell of a metal is (r is
atomic radius)
24 3 12 3 16 3 20 3
(a) r (b) r (c) r (d) r
3 3 3 3
10) Number of atoms per unit cell of a simple cube is:
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 4 (d) 3
11) The vacant space in body centered cubic (bcc) lattice unit cell is about
(a) 32% (b) 10% (c) 23% (d) 46%
12) In a close pack array of N spheres, the number of tetrahedral holes is
(a) 4N (b) N/2 (c) 2N (d) N
13) When an ion occupies an interstitial position in the crystal lattice, it is called
(a) Frankel defect (b) Schottky defect (c) Crystal defect (d) None of these
14) The flame colours of metal ions are due to
(a)metal excess defect (b) metal deficiency defect
(c) Schottky defect (d) Frenkel defect
15) Which of the following type of defects in the crystal lowers the density of the crystal?
(a) Interstitial defect (b) Frankel defects (c) Schottky defects (d) Crystal defects
16) Silicon doped with arsenic is an example of
(a) p-type conductor (b) n-type conductor (c) n-p-type conductor (d) none of these
17) The presence of F-centres in a crystal makes it
(a) conducting (b) coloured (c) non-conducting (d) colourless
18) Maximum ferromagnetism is found in
(a) Fe (b) Ni (c) Co (d) none of these
19) Which one is diamagnetic?
(a) Co2+ (b) Cu2+ (c) F– (d) Ni2+
20) Oxygen molecule is paramagnetic because
(a) Bonding electrons are more than antibonding electrons
(b) It contains unpaired electrons
(c) Bonding electrons are less than antibonding electrons
(d) Bonding electrons are equal to antibonding electrons
 SOLUTIONS
1) A beaker contains a solution of substance ‘A’. Precipitation of substance ‘A’takes place
when small amount of ‘A’ is added to the solution. The solution is
(a) saturated (b) supersaturated (c) unsaturated (d) concentrated
2) The temperature independent unit of concentration is
(a) weight volume percentage (b) molarity (c) normality (d) molality
3) What quantity of NaCl is to be added to 100 g of water in order to prepare 0.1 molal sodium
chloride solution?
(a) 5.85 g (b) 0.585 g (c) 0.295 g (d) 2.95 g
4) Value of Henry’s constant KH.
(a)increases with increase in temperature.
(b) decreases with increase in temperature.
(c) remains constant.
(d) first increases then decreases.
5) KH value for Ar(g), CO2(g), HCHO(g) and CH4(g) are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83 x 10–5 and 0.413
respectively. Arrange these gases in the order of their increasing solubility is.
(a) HCHO < CH4< CO2< Ar (b) HCHO < CO2< CH4< Ar
(c) Ar < CO2< CH4< HCHO (d) Ar < CH4< CO2< HCHO
6) Which one of the following conditions is not true for an ideal solution?
(a) Raoult’s law (b) ∆Hmix = 0 (c) ∆Vmix = 0 (d) ∆Smix = 0
7) According to Raoult’s law, relative lowering of vapour pressure of a solution of non-volatile
solute is
(a) equal to mole fraction of solvent (b) directly proportional to mole fraction of solute
(c) equal to molar mass of solute (d) equal to mole fraction of solute
8) Which of the following liquid pairs shows a positive deviation from Raoult`s law
(a) Water-nitric acid (b) benzene-methanol
(c) Water-hydrochloric acid (d) Acetone-chloroform
9) Azeotropic mixtures are
(a) mixture of two liquids with almost same boiling points
(b) mixture of two liquids having different boiling points
(c)constant boiling mixtures
(d) ideal solutions in all respects
10) Which of the following is independent of temperature?
(a) lowering of vapour pressure (b) vapour pressure
(c) relative lowering of vapour pressure (d) osmotic pressure
11) The relative lowering of vapour pressure caused by dissolving 1 mole of glucose in 99 mole
of water is
(a) 0.99 (b) 0.01 (c) 0.1 (d) 0.06
12) The mass of glucose that should be dissolved in 50 g of water in order to produce the same
lowering of vapour pressure is produced by dissolving 1 g of urea in the same quantity of
water is
(a) 3 g (b) 1 g (c) 18 g (d) 6 g
13) The vapour pressure of a solution of 5 g of non electrolyte in 100 g of water at a particular
temperature is 2985 Nm–2. The vapour pressure of pure water at that temperature is 3000
Nm–2. The molecular weight of the solute is
(a) 180 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 200
14) The ebullioscopic constant is the elevation in boiling point produced by
(a) 1 Molar solution (b) 1 Molal solution
(c) 1N solution (d) 10% solution
15) At higher altitudes the boiling point of water decreases because
(a) the atmosphere pressure is high (b) the temperature is low
 (c)the atmosphere pressure is low (d) the temperature is high
16) Which solution has highest boiling point?
(a) 0.1 M NaCl (b) 0.1M FeCl3 (c) 0.2 M urea (d) 0.1MNa2SO4
17) The boiling points of liquids A, B, C and D are 80°C, 65°C, 184°C and 212°C respectively.
The order of their vapour pressure at room temperature is
(a) D > C > A > B (b) B > A >C > D(c) A > B > C > D (d) D > C > B > A
18) Which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solutions will have the lowest freezing point?
(a) K2SO4 (b) NaCl (c) urea (d) glucose
19) Ethylene glycol is used an anti-freeze, since
(a)it lowers the freezing point of water (b) it elevates the boiling point of water
(c) improves fuel efficiency (d) to prevent corrosion
20) Osmotic pressure of the solution can be increased by
(a)increasing temperature of the solution (b) decreasing temperature of the solution
(c) increasing the volume of the vessel (d) diluting the solution
21) Which one of the following pair of solutions are isotonic?
(a) 0.1 M urea and 0.1 M NaCl (b) 0.1 M urea and 0.2 M MgCl2
(c) 0.1 M NaCl and 0.1 M Na2SO4 (d) 0.1 M Ca (NO3)2 and 0.1 M Na2SO4
22) When a mango fruit is kept in a very dilute solution of HCl, the fruit size
(a)increase (b) decrease
(c) remains same (d) first decrease and then increases
23) Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) osmotic pressure is directly proportional to molar concentration
(b)hypertonic solutions have lower concentrations with respect to reference solution
(c) isotonic solutions have same molar concentrations
(d) osmotic pressure depends upon temperature
24) Osmotic pressure observed when benzoic acid is dissolved in benzene is less than that
expected from theoretical consideration. That is because
(a) benzoic acid has higher molar mass than benzene
(b) benzoic acid an organic solute
(c) benzoic acid gets dissociated in benzene
(d) benzoic acid gets associated in benzene
25) van’t Hoff factor (i) for aqueous solutions of electrolytes is
(a) zero (b) greater than 1
(c) less than one (d) depends on nature of electrolyte
ELECTROCHEMISTRY

1) When same electric current is passed through the solution of different electrolytes in
series, the amounts of the element deposited on the electrode are in the ratio of their:
(a) Atomic number (b) Atomic weight
(c) specific gravity (d) equivalent weight
2) The number of Faradays required to reduce one mol of Cu2+ to metallic copper is
(a) one (b)two (c) three (d) four
3) Which of the solution of NaCl will have the highest value of conductivity?
(a) 0.01N (b) 0.001N (c) 0.1N (d) 1N
4) Molar conductivity of a solution is 1.26 x 10 ohm cm mol . Its molarity is 0.01, its
2 –1 2 –1

specific conductivity will be

(a) 1.26 x 10–5 (b) 1.26 x 10–3 (c) 1.26 x 10–4 (d) 0.0063
5) The equivalent conductance of an infinitely diluted solution is
(a) equal to the difference of ionic conductances
(b) independent of the ionic conductances
(c) equal to the product of ionic conductances
(d) equal to the sum of ionic conductances
6) The highest electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solution is of:
(a) 0.1M acetic acid (b) 0.1M chloroacetic acid
(c) 0.1M fluoroacetic acid (d) 0.1M difluoroacetic acid
7) Which one of the following is wrong?
(a) Specific conductance decreases on dilution
(b) Equivalent conductance increases on dilution
(c) Molar conductance increases on dilution
(d) Specific conductance increases on dilution
8) Cell constant has the unit:
(a) cm (b) cm–1 (c) cm2 (d) cmsec–1
9) At infinite dilution, each ion as an electrolyte contributes a characteristic ionic
conductance towards equivalent conductance of electrolyte which is independent of the
nature of other ion present in solution. This statement was given by:
(a) Kohlrausch (b) Debye-Huckel (c) Arrhenius (d) Ostwald
10) For which of the following electrolytic solution λm and λeq are equal:
(a) BaCl2 (b) KCl (c) Al2(SO42–)3 (d) CaCl2
11) The fraction of the total current carried by an ion is known as:
(a) Transport number of that ion (b) conductance of that ion
(c) both (a)and (b) (d) none of the above
12) The sequence of ionic mobility in the aqueous solution is
(a) K +> Na+> Rb+> Cs+ (b) Cs+> Rb+> K+> Na+
(c) Rb+> K+> Cs+> Na+ (d) Na+> K+> Rb+> Cs+
13) Variation of equivalent conductivity with concentration of strong electrolyte is given by
Huckel-Onsager equation expressed as:
(a) M =  − b c (b)  = M − b c (c) M = b c −  (d) none of these
14) In a galvanic cell
(a) chemical energy is converted into heat
(b) electrical energy is converted into heat
(c) chemical energy is converted into electrical energy
(d) electrical energy is converted into chemical energy
15) If a salt bridge is removed from the two half cells, the voltage:
(a) drops to zero (b) does not change
(c) increases gradually (d) increases rapidly
16) An electrochemical cell consists of:
(a) cadmium cell (b) lead accumulator
(c) two half cells (d) none of these
17) On electrolysing a solution of dilute H 2SO4 between platinum electrodes, the gas evolved
at the anode is?
(a) SO2 (b) SO3 (c)O2 (d) H2
18) The electrochemical cell stops working after sometimes because
(a) electrode potential of both the electrodes become zero
(b) electrode potential of both the electrodes becomes equal
(c) one of the electrode is eaten away
(d) the cell reaction get reversed
19) Which of the following statement is not correct about an inert electrode in acell?
(a) It does not participate in the cell reaction.
(b) It provides surface either for oxidation or for reduction reaction.
(c) It provides surface for conduction of electrons.
(d) It provides surface for redox reaction.
20) The metal which cannot liberate hydrogen from hydrochloric acid is:
 (a) Zn (b) Cu (c) Mg (d) Al
21) The name of equation showing relation between electrode potential (E) standard electrode
potential (E) and concentration of ions in solution is
(a) Kohlrausch's equation (b) Nernst's equation
(c) Ohm's equation (d) Faraday's equation
22) If the electrode potential of A, B, C and D are –2.46, –3.06 0.0 and 1.24volts respectively.
The maximum reactivity is of
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
23) If the E cell for a given reaction has a negative value, then which of the following gives the


correct relationships for the values of ΔG° and Keq?

(a) ΔG°>0 ; Keq<1 (b) ΔG°> 0 ; Keq>1 (c) ΔG°< 0 ; Keq>1 (d) ΔG°< 0 ; Keq<1
24) While charging the lead storage battery.
(a) PbSO4 anode is reduced to Pb (b) PbSO4 cathode is reduced to Pb
(c) PbSO4 cathode is oxidised to Pb (d) PbSO4 anode is oxidised to PbO2
25) A device that converts energy of combustion of fuels like hydrogen and methane directly
into electrical energy is known as:
(a)electrolytic cell (b)dynamo (c) Ni – Cd cell (d) fuel cell
26) In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, combustion of hydrogen occurs to
(a) generate heat
(b) create potential difference between the two electrodes
(c) produce high purity water
(d) remove adsorbed oxygen from electrode surfaces.
27) A standard hydrogen electrode has zero electrode potential because
(a) hydrogen is easiest to oxidize
(b) the electrode potential is assumed to be zero
(c) hydrogen has only one electron
(d) hydrogen is the lightest element
28) Rusting of iron is a / an
(a) reduction (b) oxidation (c) hydrolysis (d) precipitation

CHEMICAL KINETICS
1) In many reactions, the reaction proceeds in sequences of steps, so the overall rate is
determined by?
(a) fastest steps (b) slowest step
(c) molecularity of the steps (d) order of different steps
2) The rate constant of a reaction A+B → products, it is observed that doubling the
concentration of B causes the reaction rate to increase four times, but doubling the
concentration of A has no effect on the rate of reaction. The rate of equation is
therefore?
(a) rate = K[A]2 (b) rate = k [B]2 (c) rate = k[A] [B] (d) rate = k[A]
3) For a single step reaction A + 2B → products, the molecularity is
(a) zero (b)1 (c) 2 (d) 3
4) Order of the reaction is
(a) equal to sum of the concentration terms in the stoichiometric equation
(b) equal to the sum of concentration terms in the rate equation
(c) always equal to the molecularity of the reaction
(d) equal to the sum of the powers of the concentration terms in the rate equation
5) Units of specific reaction rate for second order reaction is:
(a) sec–1 (b) mol L–1 sec–1 (c) L2 mol2 sec–1 (d) L mol–1 sec–1
6) Decomposition of NH3 on the surface of tungsten is a reaction of
(a) zero order (b) first order (c) second order (d) fractional order
7) Inversion of cane-sugar in dilute acid is?
 (a) bimolecular reaction (b) unimolecular reaction
(c) pseudo first reaction (d) none of these
8) The half life of a first order reaction is
(a) inversely proportional to the initial concentration of the reactant
(b) independent of the initial concentration of the reactant
(c) directly proportional to the square of the initial concentration of the reactant
(d) directly proportional to the initial concentration of the reactant
9) For a first order reaction, time taken for 50% and 75% completion are in the ratio
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 1 :2 (d) 2 : 5
10) The half time of first order is t½.The half life period will?
(a) increase with increase in temperature (b) decrease with increase in temperature
(c) remains unaffected (d) none
11) For a slow reaction, the ratio of rate constant at 35⁰C and 25⁰C is generally?
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 1 (d) 4
12) Which of the following is not true according to collision theory of reaction rates?
(a) Only activated collisions results in the reaction
(b) Molecules which have acquired the energy of activation can collide effectively
(c) Collisions of the molecules must occur before the reaction can occur
(d) All collisions are capable of forming the products
13) The minimum energy a molecule should possess in order to enter into a fruitful
collision is known as:
(a) collision energy (b) activation energy
(c) threshold energy (d) reaction energy
14) The ionic reactions are usually very fast because
(a) interaction energy between charged ions is greater than between neutral molecules
(b) it does not involve bond breaking
(c) the number of collisions between ions per unit volume per second are very large
(d) these reactions are highly exothermic
15) In an endothermic reaction, activation energy for forward reaction is:
(a) less than that for backward reaction (b) more than that for backward reaction
(c) equal to that for backward reaction (d) none of these
16) For producing the effective collisions the colliding molecules must have
(a) a certain minimum amount of energy
(b) energy equal to or greater than threshold energy
(c) proper orientation
(d) threshold energy and proper orientation both
17) The activation energy of a reaction is zero. The rate constant of the reaction
(a) increases with increase of temperature
(b) decreases with increase of temperature
(c) decreases with decrease of temperature
(d) is nearly independent of temperature
18) Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) The catalyst does not affect the equilibrium of a reaction
(b) Reaction with higher activation energy has high rate constant
(c) In an exothermic reaction, the activation energy of the reverse reaction is higher than that
of the forward reaction
(d) Half-life period of a first order reaction is independent of initial concentration
19) Which one of the following represents Arrhenius equation?
E
(a) log e k = log e A − a (b) k = Ae−Ea /RT
RT
Ea
(c) log10 k = log10 A −
2.303RT (d) All of these
SURFACE CHEMISTRY
1) For adsorption
 (a) ∆H=–ve, ∆S=–ve (b) ∆H= +ve, ∆S=+ve (c) ∆H= –ve, ∆S=+ve (d) ∆H= +ve, ∆S=–ve
2) Physical adsorption of a gaseous species may change to chemical adsorption with …………….
(a)decrease in temperature (b)increase in
temperature
(c) increase in surface area of adsorbent (d)decrease in surface area of adsorbent
3) In Freundlich adsorption isotherm x/m =kp1/n, the value of n at low pressure is
(a) more than one (b)less than one
(c)equal to one (d) from zero to one
4) According to Langmuir adsorption isotherm, the amount of gas adsorbed per unit mass of the solid
adsorbent varies directly with pressure when the value of `n` is
(a)0 (b) 3 (c)2 (d)1
5) A catalyst is more efficient in the finely divided state because:
(a) it helps to dissociate the molecules
(b) it mixes with the reactants intimately
(c)it provides more surface area and hence more active centre
(d) none of these
6) Regarding criteria of catalysis which one of the following statements is not true?
(a) the catalyst is unchanged chemically at the end of the reaction
(b) a small quantity of catalyst is often sufficient to bring the reaction.
(c)in a reversible reaction the catalyst alters the equilibrium position
(d) the catalyst accelerates the reaction
7) Shape-selective catalysis is a reaction catalysed by
(a)zeolites (b) enzymes (c) platinum (d) Zeigler-Natta catalyst
8) In the colloidal system a continuous phase in which particles get dispersed is called
(a) solute phase (b) solvent phase (c) dispersion medium (d) dispersed phase
9) Which of the following forms a colloidal solution in water?
(a) glucose (b) Starch (c) Sugar (d) Urea
10) Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols because
(a) the colloidal particles have positive charge
(b) the colloidal particles have negative charge
(c)the colloidal particles are solvated
(d) There is strong electrostatic repulsion between the negatively charged particles
11) Which of the following represents an associated colloid?
(a) gold sol (b) starch (c) proteins (d) soaps
12) Washing with soap involves one of the following
(a)emulsification of grease and dirt with soap
(b) grease and dirt are dissolved in soap
(c) grease and dirt react with soap with the formation of colourless substance
(d) grease is a semisolid
13) Detergent action of soap is due to
(a)emulsification properties (b) hydrolysis
(c) ionization (d) high molecular mass
14) Milk is a colloidal system in which
(a) water is dispersed in fat (b) fat is dispersed in water
(c) fat and water are dispersed in each other (d) fat is dissolved
15) When light is passed in colloidal solution, it
(a) reflects (b) refracts (c) scatters (d) transmits
16) Bredig’s arc method of preparing colloidal sol is a
(a) condensation method (b) disintegration method
(c)dispersion method (d) none of these
17) The Brownian motion is due to
 (a) temperature fluctuation within the liquid phase
(b) attraction and repulsion between charges on the colloidal particles
(c)impact of the molecules of dispersion medium on the colloidal particles
(d) convective currents
18) Movement of colloidal particles under the influence of electrostatic field is
(a) dialysis (b) electrodialysis (c) electrophoresis (d) none of these
19) Bleeding is stopped by the application of ferric chloride. This is because
(a) the blood starts flowing in the opposite direction
(b)the blood is coagulated and the blood vessel is sealed
(c) the blood reacts and a solid is formed which seals, the blood vessel
(d) the ferric chloride seals the blood vessel
20) Colloidal medicines are more effective because
(a) the germs move towards them (b) they are cheap
(c) they are easy to prepare (d) they are easily assimilated and adsorbed
21) Tanning of leather is:
(a) colouring of leather by chemicals
(b) drying process to make the leather hard
(c) polishing of leather to make it look attractive
(d)coagulative hardening of the leather by chemicals
22) Which of the following has minimum flocculation value?
(a) Pb2+ (b) Pb4+ (c) Sr2+ (d) Na+

GENERAL PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSES OF ISOLATION OF ELEMENTS

1) Which of the following is not an ore?
(a) Bauxite (b) Malachite (c) Zinc blende (d) Pig iron
2) Cassiterite is an ore of
(a) Mn (b) Ni (c) Sb (d)Sn
3) Difference in density is the basis of
(a) Ultrafiltration (b) Molecular sieving
(c) Gravity separation (d) Molecular attraction
4) In the froth floatation process for the purification of ores, the ore particles float because
(a) They are light
(b) Their surface is not easily wetted by water
(c) They bear electrostatic charge
(d) They are insoluble
5) Which of the following metals cannot be extracted by carbon reduction process?
(a) Pb (b) Al (c) Hg (d) Zn
6) Which technique is used in the manufacture of aluminium from bauxite?
(a) Reduction with magnesium (b) Reduction with coke
(c) Electrolytic reduction (d) Reduction with iron
7) Purpose of smelting of an ore is
(a) To oxidise it (b) To reduce it
(c) To remove vaporisable impurities (d) To obtain an alloy
8) In the metallurgy of zinc, flux is not used because
(a) Zinc ore has no impurities (b) Zinc is volatile hence easily separated
(c) Zinc reacts with flux (d) Flux is volatile
9) Which of the following ore is best concentrated by froth-flotation method
(a) Galena (b) Cassiterite (c) Magnetite (d) Malachite
10) For the construction of Ellingham diagram, ΔG is calculated during oxidation of metals
when
(a) 1 mole of oxygen is consumed (b) 2 moles of oxygen are consumed
11) G Vs T plot in the Ellingham’s diagram slopes downwards for the reaction
°

1 1
(a) 2Ag + O2 → Ag2O (b) Mg + O2 → MgO
2 2
1 1
(c) CO + O2 → CO2 (d) C + O2 → CO
2 2
12) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the slag obtained during the
extraction of a metal like copper or iron?
(a) Slag is lighter and has higher melting point than metal
(b) Slag is lighter and has lower melting point than metal
(c) Slag is heavier and has higher melting point than metal
(d) Slag is heavier and has lower melting point than metal
13) The chemical composition of slag formed during the smelting process in the extraction of
copper is
(a)Cu2O + FeS (b) FeSiO3 (c) CuFeS2 (d) Cu2S + FeO
14) Which of the following combination is wrongly matched?
(a) Sulphide ore-froth flotation (b) Copper pyrites-magnetic separation
(c) Cryolite-aluminium (d) Magnesium-sea water
15) Froth floatation process for the purification of ores is based on the principle of
(a) coagulation (b) absorption (c) adsorption (d) sorption
16) Heating mixture of Cu2O and Cu2S will give
(a) Cu + SO2 (b) Cu + SO3 (c) CuO + CuS (d) Cu2SO3
17) Aluminium is extracted from alumina (Al 2O3) by electrolysis of a molten mixture of
(a) Al2O3 + HF +NaAlF4 (b) Al2O3 + CaF2 + NaAlF4
(c) Al2O3 + Na3AlF6 + CaF2 (d) Al2O3 + KF + Na3AlF6
18) Extraction of zinc from zinc blende is achieved by
(a) electrolytic reduction
(b) roasting followed by reduction with carbon
(c) roasting followed by reduction with other metals
(d) roasting followed by self-reduction
19) Which of the following pairs of metals is purified by van Arkel method?
(a) Ni and Fe (b) Ga and In (c) Zr and Ti (d) Ag and Au
20) Zone refining is a method to obtain
(a) Very high temperature (b) ultrapure metal oxide
(c) ultrapure metals (d) ultrapure aluminium
21) In zone refining method, the molten zone
(a)contains impurity
(b)contains purified metals only
(c) contains more impurity than the original metal
(d) moves to either side
22) If the gangue associated with an ore is silica, then the flux required is
(a) CaO (b) sand (c) CaCl2 (d) all of a, b, c
23) Liquation is based on differences in
(a) density (b) melting point (c) solubility (d) vapour density
24) Native silver metal forms a water soluble complex with a dilute aqueous solution of NaCN
in presence of:
(a) nitrogen (b) oxygen (c)CO2 (d)Ar
25) Gold is leached out from the native ore by treating with a solution of
(a) Sodium thiosulphate (b) sodium hydroxide
(c) Sodium cyanide (d) sodium chloride
26) In the extraction of Au, the solvent used and the complex formed respectively are
(a) NaCN solution and Na2 [Au (CN)4] (b) KCN solution and K [Au (CN)2]
(c) KCN solution and K3 [Au (CN)4] (d) NaCN solution and Na3 [Au (CN)6]
27) Van Arkel method of purification of metals involves converting the metal to a
(a) Volatile stable compound (b) Volatile unstable compound
(c) Non volatile stable compound (d) None of the above
28) Mond's process is used for purifying
(a) Ni (b) H2SO4 (c) NH3 (d) HNO3

p-BLOCK ELEMENTS

1) The basic strengths of the hydrides of group 15 elements decreases in the order
(a) SbH3> PH3> AsH3> NH3 (b) NH3> SbH3> PH3> As
(c) NH3> PH3> AsH3> SbH3 (d) SbH3> AsH3> PH3> NH3
2) The correct order of the acidic nature of oxides is in the order:
(a) NO < N2O < N2O3< NO2 < N2O5 (b) N2O < NO < N2O3< NO2 < N2O5
(c) N2O5< NO2< N2O3< NO < N2O (d) N2O5< N2O3< NO2 < NO < N2O
3) The nitrogen oxide (s) that does not contain N–N bond(s) is
(a) N2O (b) N2O3 (c) N2O4 (d) N2O5
4) Which of the following halide of nitrogen is stable?
(a)NF3 (b) NCl3 (c) NBr3 (d) NI3
5) When excess of Cl2 reacts with ammonia, products formed are
(a) NH3 and N2 (b) NCl3 and HCl
(c) NCl3 and N2 (d) NH4Cl and N2
6) Which ordering of compounds is according to decreasing order of the oxidation state of
nitrogen?
(a) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 (b) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl
(c) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2 (d) NO, HNO3, NH4Cl, , N2
7) Royal water (Aqua-regia) is
(a) HCl + HNO3 in the ratio 1 : 1 (b) HCl + HNO3 in the ratio 2 : 1
(c) HCl + HNO3 in the ratio 1 : 3 (d) HCl + HNO3 in the ratio 3 : 1
8) The brown ring test for nitrates depends upon:
(a) The reduction of nitrate to nitric oxide
(b) oxidation of nitric oxide to nitrogen dioxide
(c) reduction of ferrous sulphate to iron
(d) oxidising action of sulphuric acid.
9) Which compound is used in the pickling of stainless steel?
(a) Sulphuric acid (b)Nitric acid
(c) Phosphine gas (d) phosphorous acid
10) When copper is heated with conc. HNO3, it produces?
 (a)Cu(NO3)2 and NO2 (b) Cu(NO3)2 and NO
(c) Cu(NO3)2, NO and NO2 (d) Cu(NO3)2 and N2O
11) Reaction of HNO3 with I, S, P and C gives respectively
(a) HIO3, H2SO4, H3PO4 and CO2 (b) HIO3, H2SO4, H3PO3 and CO2
(c) I2O5, H2SO4, H3PO4 and CO (d) I2O5, SO2, P2O5 and CO2
12) Oxidation states of P in H4P2O5, H4P2O6, H4P2O7 are respectively:
(a)+3, +4, +5 (b) +3, +5, +4 (c) +5, +3, +4 (d)+5, +4, +3
13) White phophorous on reaction with NaOH gives PH 3 as one of the products. This is a:
(a) dimerization reaction (b) disproportionation reaction
(c) condensation reaction (d) precipitation reaction
14) Which of the following property is not related with PH3?
(a) It is a colourless gas having rotten fish smell (b) It is non poisonous
(c) It is slightly soluble in water (d) It is a weak Lweis base
15) From H3PO3 and H3PO4, the correct choice is
(a) H3PO3 is dibasic and reducing (b) H3PO3 is dibasic and non-reducing
(c) H3PO4 is tribasic and reducing (d) H3PO3 is tribasic and non-reducing
16) Which oxy acid of phosphorous has two P – H bond?
A. Phosphonic acid B. Phosphinic acid
C. Pyrophosphorous acid D. Polymetaphosphoric acid
(a) A, D (b)B, C (c) A, C D (d) A, C
17) Nitrogenous fertilizers are
(a) Ammonium nitrate (b) Urea
(c) Ammonium phosphate (d)All of the above
18) Which of the following has the largest size?
(a) S2– (b) Se2– (c) O2– (d) Te2–
19) Bond angle is minimum for
(a) H2O (b) H2S (c) H2Se (d) H2Te
20) A gas that cannot be collected over water is
(a) N2 (b) O2 (c) SO2 (d) PH3
21) Concentrated H2SO4 can be dehydrated to SO3 by
(a)PCl5 (b) P2O5 (c) anhydrousZnCl2 (d) none of these
22) Sulphuric acid has great affinity for water because
(a) it hydrolyses the acid (b) it decomposes the acid
(c) it forms hydrates with water (d) it decomposes water
23) Excess of PCl5 reacts with conc. H2SO4 giving
(a) chlorosulphonic acid (b) thionyl chloride
(c) sulphuryl chloride (d) sulphurous acid
24) Which of the following chemical reactions predicts the oxidizing behaviour of H 2SO4?
(a)Ca(OH)2 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2H2O (b)NaCl + H2SO4 → NaHSO4 + HCl
(c) 2PCl5 + H2SO4→ 2POCl3 + 2HCl + SO2Cl2 (d) 2HI + H2SO4 → I2 + SO2 + 2H2O
25) Which of the following does possess peroxy linkage ?
(a) H2S2O3 (b) H2SO4 (c) H2S4O6 (d) H2S2O8
26) Identify the incorrect statement from the following:
(a) oxides of nitrogen in the atmosphere can cause the depletion of ozone layer
(b) ozone absorbs the intense ultraviolet radiation of the sun
(c) depletion of ozone layer is because of its chemical reactions with chlorofluoroalkanes
 (d) ozone absorbs infrared radiation
27) Which statement is true?
(a)Halogens have maximum negative ΔHeg in corresponding period.
(b) Order of bond dissociation enthalpy F 2> Br2.
(c) Fluorine has the highest electron affinity in periodic table.
(d) Halogens have the smallest radii in a period due to their diatomic nature.
28) Deacon`s process is used for manufacturing of
(a) Cl2 (b) F2 (c) HCl (d) NaCl
29) Chlorous acid and its salts (chlorides) are:
(a) good oxidizing agent (b) good reducing agent
(c) good bleaching agent (d) good oxidizing and bleaching agent
30) An interhalogen compound is:
(a) IF5 (b) I3– (c) CN – (d) (CN)2
31) Atom that requires high energy of excitation is:
(a) F (b) Cl (c) Br (d) I
32) Bleaching action of chlorine occurs
(a) in anhydrous conditions (b) in the presence of moisture
(c) in the presence of sunlight (d)on heating
33) Thermal stability of hydrogen halide follows the order:
(a) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (b) HI > HF > HBr > HCl
(c) HI > HBr > HF > HCl (d) HF > HCl > HBr > HI
34) The correct order of electron gain enthalpy with negative sign of F, Cl, Br and I having
atomic number 9, 17, 35 and 53 respectively is
(a) I > Br > Cl > F (b) F > Cl > Br > I (c) Cl > F > Br > I (d) Br > Cl > I > F
35) The correct order of acid strength is
(a) HClO4< HClO3< HClO2< HClO (b) HClO2< HClO3< HClO4< HClO
(c) HClO4< HClO < HClO3< HClO2 (d) HClO < HClO2< HClO3< HClO4
36) The number of O – O bond in perchloric acid will be
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) Zero
37) In the interhalogen compound XYn,
(a) n can have any positive integral value (b) X and Y are arbitrary
(c) X can exist only in –1 oxidation state (d) Y can exist only in –1 oxidation state
38) Phosgene is the name of:
(a) a phosphorus compound (b)a phosphonium compound
(c) carbonyl chloride (d) phophorus halide
39) Which of the following has highest first ionization energy?
(a) Xe (b) Ne (c) Ar (d) Kr
40) The reason for helium to have lower boiling point is
(a) completely filled octet (b) extremely small size
(c) weakest van der Waal’s forces of attraction (d) gaseous nature
41) Noble gases possess:
(a) high ionization potential (b) zero electron affinity
(c) high electrical conductance (d) all of the above
42) Solubility of noble gases in water is due to
(a) dipole-dipole interaction (b)hydrogen bonding
(c) dipole-induced dipole interaction (d) induced dipole-induced dipole interactions
 d- and f-BLOCK ELEMENTS
1) The electron configuration of element with Z = 24 is
(a) 3d44s2 (b) 3d54s1 (c) 3d64s1 (d) none
2) The element showing oxidation state +7 is
(a) Cr (b) Mn (c) Co (d) V
3) The pair of elements which show + 1 oxidation state
(a) Cr & Zn (b) Fe & Zn (c) Cr & Cu (d) Cu & Zn
4) d-block elements form coloured ions because
(a) They absorb some energy for d- s transition
(b) They absorb some energy for p-d transition
(c) They absorb some energy for d-d transition
(d) They do not absorb any energy
5) Cuprous ion is colourless while cupric ion is coloured because
(a) cuprous ion has incomplete d-orbital and cupric ion has a complete d-orbital
(b) both have half filled p and d-orbitals
(c) cuprous ion has a complete d-orbital and cupric ion has an incomplete d- orbital
(d) both have unpaired electrons in the d-orbitals
6) A transition metal ion has one electron in d-orbital. Its solution
(a) is colourless (b) has a characteristic colour
(c) appearance of colour is temporary (d) changes colour with time
7) Which of the following ions are coloured?
(a)Cu+ (b) Zn2+ (c) Ti4+ (d) V3+
8) Which of the following d-block element would be paramagnetic?
(a) Aluminium (b) Magnesium (c) Copper (d) Sodium
9) Titanium shows magnetic moment of 1.73 BM in its compound. What is the oxidation
number of Ti in the compound?
(a) + 1 (b) + 4 (c) + 3 (d) + 2
10) Paramagnetism is a property of
(a) Completely filled electronic sub-shells (b) unpaired electrons
(c) non-transition elements (d) elements and not of compounds
11) A metal ion has a spin magnetic moment of 3.87 B.M. The number of unpaired electrons
present is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
12) The expression used to calculate the magnetic moment is
(a)  = n(n + 2) (b)  = (n + 2) (c)  = n(n + 1) (d)  = n(n − 2)
13) Which one of the following is diamagnetic?
(a) Cu2+ (b) Zn2+ (c) Ni2+ (d) Co2+
14) The highest magnetic moment is shown by the transition metal ion with the configuration
(a) 3d5 (b) 3d2 (c) 3d9 (d) Cu+
15) Which of the following ion has least magnetic moment?
(a) Cu2+ (b) Ni2+ (c) Co3+ (d) Fe2+
16) Transition elements form a large number of complexes compound because they have
(a) small atomic size (b) small atomic size and high positive charge
(c) high positive charge (d) large atomic size and high negative charge
17) The ability of transition metals to form complexes is mainly due to
(a) they are metals (b) ns orbitals are vacant
 (c) availability of d- orbitals (d) presence of active centres
18) Transition elements are generally used as catalysts because
(a) they form different intermediate compounds (b) they are heavy metals
(c) they are paramagnetic (d) they possess high melting points
19) Transition elements form alloys readily because they have
(a) similar properties (b) same outer electronic configurations
(c) similar crystal structure (d) same incompletely filled d-orbitals
20) In dichromate dianion
(a) 4 Cr–O bonds are equivalent (b) 6 Cr–O bonds are equivalent
(c) all Cr–O bonds are equivalent (d) all Cr–O bonds are non-equivalent
21) In chromite ore, the oxidation number of iron and chromium are respectively:
(a) +3, +2 (b) +3, +6 (c) +2, +6 (d) +2, +3
22) Identify the product and its colour when MnO2 is fused with solid KOH in the presence of
oxygen:
(a) KMnO4, purple (b) K2MnO4, dark green
(c) MnO colour less, (d) MnO2, black
23) Lanthanoid contraction is caused due to
(a) the appreciable shielding on outer electrons by 4f-electrons from the nuclear charge
(b) the appreciable shielding on outer electrons by 5d-electrons from the nuclear charge
(c) the same effective nuclear charge from Ce to Lu
(d)the imperfect shielding on outer electrons by 4f-electrons from the nuclear charge
24) The lanthanoid contraction is responsible for the fact that
(a) Zr and Zn have the same oxidation state
(b) Zr and Hf have about the same radius
(c) Zr and Nb have similar oxidation state
(d) Zr and Y have the same radius
25) The actinoids exhibit more number of oxidation states in general than the lanthanoids. This
is because
(a) the 5f-orbitals are more buried than the 4f-orbitals
(b) there is a similarity between 4f and 5f-orbitals in their angular part of the wave function
(c) the actinoids are more reactive than the lanthanoids
(d)the 5f-orbitals extent farther from the nucleus than the 4f-orbitals

CO-ORDINATION COMPOUNDS
1) Which of the following statements is correct about complex compounds?
(a) Primary valency is non-ionizable and secondary valency is ionizable
(b) Both primary valency and secondary valencies are ionizable
(c) Primary valency is ionizable while secondary valency is non ionizable
(d) Both primary and secondary valencies are non-ionizable
2) Which of the following complexes is homoleptic?
(a) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (b) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+
(c) [Co(H2O)5CO] 3+ (d) [Co(NH3)5(NO2)]2+
3) Which of the following complexes is outer orbital complex?
(a) [Co (NH3)6]3+ (b) [Mn (CN)6]–4 (c) [Fe (CN)6]–4 (d) [Ni (NH3)6]2+
4) Which of the following is a neutral complex?
(a) [CoCl3 (NH3)3] (b) [Cu (NH3)4] SO4 (c) [Co (NH3)4] SO4 (d) All the above
5) Chelating effect is
(a) Chelating ligands form rings
(b) Chelating ligands form stable complexes than monodenate ligands
 (c) Chelating ligands are attracted to center metal ion through coordinate bonds
(d) None of these
6) In co-ordination compounds, a ligand
(a) has a lone pair of electrons
(b) is attached to the central metal ion through a co-ordinate bond
(c) satisfies the secondary valency
(d) all of these
7) Which one of the following ligands forms a chelate ring?
(a) acetate (b) oxalate (c) cyanide (d) ammonia
8) The number of Cl2 atoms acting as ligands in the complex [Co (H 2O) Cl (en) 2] Cl2 is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) none of these
9) The co-ordination number of a complex compound is equal to
(a) Number of monodentate ligands attached to the central metal ion
(b) The primary valency of the central metal ion
(c) Effective atomic number of central metal ion
(d) The oxidation number of the central metal ion
10) Which of the following does not give the precipitate of AgCl with an excess of AgNO3solution?
(a) [Co (NH3)6] Cl3 (b) [Co (NH3)5Cl] Cl2
(c) [Co (NH3)4Cl2] Cl (d) [Co (NH3)3Cl3]
11) A strong ligand gives a complex which is generally called
(a) Low spin (b) High spin (c) High energy (d) Low energy
12) The complex ions [Co (NH3) 5(NO2)] 2+ and [Co (NH3) 5(ONO)] 2+ are called
(a) Ionization isomers (b) Linkage isomers
(c) Co-ordination isomers (d) Geometrical isomers
13) The compounds [Cr (H2O)6]Cl3,[Cr(H2O) 5Cl]Cl2.H2Oand[Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl.2H2O represent
(a) Linkage isomers (b) Ionization isomers
(c) Hydrate isomers (d) Co-ordination isomers
14) The number of geometrical isomers for [Pt (NH3)2Cl2] is
(a)two (b) one (c) three (d) four
15) Which of the following hybridizations has planar geometry?
(a) sp3d (b) dsp3 (c) dsp2 (d) sp3
16) Which of the following complexes has sp d hybridization?
3 2

(a)[Cr (NH3)6]3+ (b) [Fe(CN)6]3 – (c) [Fe(CN)6]4– (d) [CoF6]3–

17) The IUPAC name of K3 [Co (NO2)6] is?
(a) potassium(I)hexanitrocobaltate(II) (b) potassium(III)hexanitrocobaltate(III)
(c) potassiumhexanitrocobalt(0) (d) potassiumhexanitrocobaltate(III)
18) Which of the following has magnesium?
(a)chlorophyll (b) haemoglobin
(c) carbonic anhydrase (d)Vitamin B12
19) The hardness of water is measured by
(a) Conductivity method (b) Distillation method
(c) EDTA method (d) All the above
20) Which one of the following complex is expected to be paramagnetic?
(a) [Ni(CO)4] (b) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(c) [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2 (d) [Zn(NH3)4]SO4

HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES

1) The reason for the insoluble nature of alkyl halides in water is
(a) their covalent nature
(b) their low polarity
(c) their non-ability to form hydrogen bonding with water
(d)their high reactivity
2) Which of the following does possess the highest boiling point?
(a) CH3Cl (b) CH3CH2Cl (c) CH3Br (d) CH3I
3) Which among the following isomeric alkyl halides have least boiling point?
 (a ) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − Br (b) CH3 − C H − CH2 − Br
|
CH3

CH3
(c ) CH3 − CH2 − C H − CH3 |
| (d) CH3− C− CH3
Br |
Br
4) The number of possible isomers for the compound C2H3Cl2Br is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
5) Alkylhalides are converted into alcohols by
(a) addition (b) substitution
(c) dehydrohalogenation (d) reduction
6) The reaction, R − CH2 − Cl + NaI ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→ R − CH2 − I + NaCl is called
Acetone/Heat

(a) Hunsdicker reaction (b) Kolbe-Schmidt reaction

(c) Finkelstein reaction (d) Gattermann reaction
7) Monohalogen derivatives of alkanes may be prepared by treating alcohols with
(a) thionyl chloride
(b) phosphorus halides
(c) hydrohaloacids in the presence of anhydrous ZnCl2
(d) any one of the above reagents
8) Catalyst used during anti-Markownikoff`s addition of HBr to alkene is
(a) Ni (b) benzoyl peroxide(c) Pt (d) AlCl3
9) Haloalkane in the presence of alcoholic KOH undergoes
(a) Polymerisation (b) elimination
(c) substitution (d) dimerization
10) A mixture of 1-chloropropane and 2-chloropropane when treated with alc. KOH gave
(a) 1-propene (b) 2-propene
(c) isobutene (d) 1- butene
11) Grignard reagent is not prepared in aqueous medium but prepared in ether medium
because
(a) it is insoluble in water (b) the reagent is highly reactive in ether
(c) the reagent reacts with water (d) the reagent becomes inactive in water
12) Which of the following factors does not favour SN1mechanism?
(a) Strong nucleophile (b) Polar solvent
(c) Low concentration of nucleophile (d) Tertiary alkyl halide
13) During the course of an SN1reaction, the intermediate species formed is a
(a) carbocation (b) carbanion
(c) free radical (d) transition state
14) isopropyl chloride undergoes hydrolysis by
(a) SN1mechanism (b) SN2mechanism
(c) SN1and SN2mechanism (d) neither SN1and SN2mechanism
15) 3° alkyl halides are practically inert to substitution by SN2mechanism because of
(a) insolubility (b) instability
(c) inductive effect (d) steric hindrance
16) When bromoethane reacts with dry silver oxide
(a) ethanol is formal (b) ethane is liberated
(c) ethoxy ethane is formed (d) ethylene is liberated
17) Ethyl bromide can be converted in to ethyl alcohol by
(a) heating it with dry silver oxide
(b) boiling with an alcoholic solution of potassium hydroxide
(c) the action of moist silver oxide
(d) refluxing with methyl alcohol
18) Which of the following compounds is used as refrigerant?
(a) CF4 (b) CCl4 (c) CHCl3 (d) CCl2F2
19) Gem dihalides on hydrolysis gives
(a) only aldehydes (b) only ketones
(c) aldehydes or ketones (d) acids
20) Which of the following reactions is most suitable for the preparation of n-
propylbenzene
(a) Friedel-Craft`s reaction (b) Wurtz reaction
(c) Wurtz-Fittig reaction (d) Grignard reaction
21) Decomposition of benzene diazonium chloride by using Cu2Cl2 and HCl form
chlorobenzene is
(aReimer-tiemann reaction (b) Sandmeyer`s reaction
(c) Kolbe`s reaction (d) Cannizaro`s reaction
22) DDT can be obtained by heating chlorobenzene in presence of conc. H2SO4 with
(a) acetaldehyde (b) trichloroacetaldehyde
(c) acetone (d) trichloroacetone
23) What is DDT among the following?
(a) a fertilizer (b) biodegradable pollutant
(c) non-biodegradable pollutant (d) greenhouse gas

ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS

1) Which one of the following is a trihydric phenol?
(a) p-Cresol (b) Quinol (c) Pyrogallol (d) None of the above
2) Phenol is more acidic than alcohol because
(a) Phenoxide ion is stabilized by resonance
(b) Phenols are more soluble in polar solvents
(c) Phenoxide ion does not exhibit resonance
(d) alcohols do not lose hydrogen atoms at all
3) p-nitrophenol is stronger acid than phenol because nitro group is
(a) electron withdrawing (b) electron donating (c) basic (d) acidic
4) 2-Phenylpropane is also known as
(a) Cumene (b) Cresol (c) Pyrogallol (d) Picric acid
Heat above 50C
5) X + H2O ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ Phenol as one of the product. X canbe
(a)Chlorobenzene (b) Bromobenzene
(c) Aniline (d) Benzene diazonium chloride
6) Sodium benzene sulphonate when fused with caustic soda forms
(a) sodium benzoate (b) benzene
(c) benzene sulphonic acid (d) phenol
7) When phenol is treated with sodium
(a) oxygen is liberated (b) benzene is formed
(c) hydrogen is liberated (d) there was no reaction
8) When treated with bromine water, phenol gives a white precipitate of
(a) p-promophenol (b) phenyl bromide
(c) o-bromophenol (d) 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol
9) Reaction of phenol with dilute HNO 3 gives
(a) ortho and meta nitrophenol (b) trinitrophenol
(c) ortho and para nitrophenol (d) meta and para nitrophenol
10) Picric acid is
(a) trinitro toluene (b) trinitrobenzene
(c) 2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol (d) 1, 3, 4-trinitrophenol
11) Salicylic acid is obtained when phenol is heated with carbon tetrachloride and potassium
hydroxide. The reaction is called
(a) Kolbe’s reaction (b) Perkin’s reaction
(c) Claisen reaction (d) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
12) When phenol is heated with chloroform in sodium hydroxide, the product is
(a) chlorobenzene (b) benzyl chloride
(c) salicylaldehyde (d) salicylic acid
13) One of the following statements regarding Reimer-Tiemann reaction is false
(a) reaction of phenol with CHCl3 and KOH
(b) CCl2 acts as a nucleophile
 (c) reaction of phenol with CCl4 and NaOH
(d) reaction of phenol with HCHO to form bakelite
14) The end product in this reaction, phenol ⎯⎯⎯⎯
NaOH
→ x ⎯⎯⎯⎯
CO2
140o C
→ y ⎯⎯⎯
HCl
→ z is
(a) benzoic acid (b) salicylaldehyde
(c) salicylic acid (d) none
CCl4 /NaOH
15) C6H5OH ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ X ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ Zn dust/Heat
→ Y ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
Na/Soda lime
→ Z . In the above sequence Z is
(a)Toluene (b) Cresol (c) Benzene (d)Benzol
16) Which of the following when dissolved in water, gives a solution with pH less than seven at 298K?
(a) CH3COCH3 (b) C6H5OH (c) C6H5NH2 (d) C2H5OH
17) Phenol when heated with phthalic anhydride in presence of conc. H2SO4 gives
(a) picric acid (b) phenolphthalein
(c) methyl orange (d) none of the above
18) During dehydration of alcohols to alkenes by heating with conc. H2SO4, the initiation step is
(a) protonation of alcohol molecule (b) formation of carbocation
(c) elimination of water (d) formation of an ester
19) The alcohol that produces turbidity immediately with anhy.zinc chloride and conc.hydrochloric
acid at room temperature
(a) 1-hydroxybutane (b)2-hydroxybutane
(c) 2-hydroxy-2-methylpropane (d) 1-hydroxy-2-methylpropane
20) What is the correct order of reactivity of alcohols in the following reaction?
R – OH + HCl ⎯⎯⎯ ZnCl2
→ R – Cl + H2O
(a) 1°>2°>3° (b) 1°<2°>3° (c) 3°>2°>1° (d) 3°>1°>2°
21) Which of the following alcohols was given the name wood spirit?
(a) Ethanol (b) Glycerol (c) Benzyl alcohol (d) Methanol
22) Invertase enzyme brings about the conversion of
(a) starch to glucose (b) sucrose to glucose and fructose
(c) maltose to glucose (d) glucose to ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide
23) A neutral compound gives red colour with ceric ammonium nitrate. It suggests that the compound
has
(a) alcohol group (b) aldehyde group
(c) ether (d) ketone group
24) The IUPAC name of CH3COOC2H5 is
(a) ethyl ethanoate (b) methyl ethanoate
(c) ethyl acetic acid (d) ethyl acetate
25) In the esterification reaction of alcohols
(a) OH is replaced by CH3COO group (b) OH is replaced by chlorine
(c) H is replaced by chlorine (d) OH is replaced by C6H5OH
26) Williamson’s reaction is a good method to synthesize
(a) alkyl halides (b) mixed ethers
(c) mixed ketones (d)aliphatic aldehydes
27) The product Z in the following sequence of reaction
C2H5Br
C2H5I ⎯⎯⎯→
Aq.KOH
X ⎯⎯ Na
→ Y ⎯⎯⎯ → Z
(a) butane (b) ethane (c) diethyl ether (d) propane
28) The hybrid state of central oxygen atom in ether and alcohol is
(a) sp2 (b) sp3 (c) sp (d)none
29) Williamson`s synthesis of ethers is an example of
(a) nucleophilic substitution reaction (b) nucleophilic addition
(c) electrophilic addition (d) none of the above
30) The action of halogen acids on ether has the following order of reactivity:
(a) HCl > HBr > HI (b) HI > HCl > HBr (c) HI > HBr > HCl (d) HCl > HI > HBr
 ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
1) Aldehydes are oxidation product of
(a) ketones (b) tertiary alcohols (c) secondary alcohols (d) primary alcohols
2) Which of the following is used as a preservative for biological specimens?
(a) Formic acid (b) Acetic acid (c) Acetaldehyde (d) Formaldehyde
3) In aldehydes and ketones, carbon of carbonyl group is
(a) sp3 hybridized (b) sp2 hybridized (c) sp hybridized (d) unhybridised
H O+
4) RCN + SnCl2 + HCl ⎯⎯
→ RCH = NH ⎯⎯⎯
3
→ RCHO
Imine Aldehyde
Nitrile .
The above reaction is called
(a) Stephen reaction (b) Rosenmund reaction
(c) Cannizzaro reaction (d) Etard reaction
5) When acetylene (ethyne) is passed through H2SO4 containing HgSO4 it gives
(a) acetone (b) methanol (c) ethanol (d)Ethanal
6) Tollen’s reagent is
(a)Alkaline solution containing containing copper nitrate
(b) Ammoniacal silver nitrate
(c) Ammoniacal copper nitrate
(d) None of these
7) Though aldehydes and ketones contain carbonyl group, aldehydes alone reduce Tollen’s regent.
This is due to
(a) Tollen’s reagent dissolves ketones
(b) the carbonyl carbon is primary in aldehydes
(c) aldehydes give nascent oxygen very easily
(d) none of the above
8) Addition of NaHSO3 to formaldehyde is an example of
(a) nucleophilic addition (b) electrophilic addition
(c) eletrophilic substitution (d) nucleophilic substitution
9) Aldehydes & ketones udergo addition reaction with sodium bisulphite. An exception is
(a) C6H5COCH3 (b)CH3COCH3 (c) CH3CHO (d) C6H5CHO
10) Hydrogen cyanide adds on to aldehydes and ketones to form corresponding
(a) cyanohydrins (b) oximes (c) cyanides (d) none of these
11) Aldehydes react with
(a) hydroxylamine to give aldoxime
(b) semicarbazide to form aldehyde semicarbazone
(c) phenyl hydrazine to form phenyl hydrazone
(d) all are correct
12) Aldehydes having no -hydrogen atoms undergo
(a) Aldol condensation (b) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(c) Cannizzaro’s reaction (d) none of the above
13) When an aldehyde was heated with alkali, part of it was converted into an alcohol and part of it into
an acid. The aldehyde is
(a) an aromatic aldehyde or formaldehyde
(b) an aromatic aldehyde other than salicylaldehyde
(c) an aliphatic aldehyde or salicylaldehyde
(d) an aliphatic aldehyde other than formaldehyde
14) Ethanal reacts with alkali to give 3-hydroxy butanal. The reaction is
(a) Claisen condensation (b) Polymerisation
(c) Aldol condensation (d) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
15) Reduction of aldehydes and ketones in presence of amalgamated zinc and conc. HCl is known as
(a) Resenmund’s reduction (b) Clemmensen’s reduction
(c) Wolff-Kishner reduction (d) none of the above
16) Which of the following reactions is a method for the conversion of a ketone into a hydrocarbon
(a) Aldol condensation (b) Reimer-tiemann reaction
(c) Cannizzaro reaction (d) Wolf-Kishner reduction
17) Which of the following would not respond to aldol condensation?
(a) CH3CHO (b) CH3COCH3 (c) C6H5CHO (d) C6H5CH=CH–CO–CH3
18) A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with aqueous NaOH solution gives
(a)benzyl alcohol and sodium formate (b) sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol
(c) sodium benzoate and sodium formate (d) benzyl alcohol and methyl alcohol
19) CH3COOH + NH3 → X → Y. In this reaction the product ‘Y’ is
(a) ammonium acetate (b) acetamide (c) methylamine (d) none of the above
20) When acetic acid is heated with P2O5. The product formed will be
(a) acetic anhydride (b) CH3CHO (c) HCOOH (d) none
21) RCOONa + X → RH + Na2CO3.In this reaction ‘X’ is
(a) Lime stone (b) soda lime (c) quick lime (d) none of the above
22) Which is strongest acid?
(a) CF3COOH (b) CH3COOH (c) CBr3COOH (d) CCl3COOH
23) Which is strongest acid?
(a) CH3COOH (b) ClCH2COOH (c) Cl2CHCOOH (d)Cl3CCOOH
24) Which represents the correct order of relative acidic strengths?
(a) HCOOH > CH3COOH > ClCH2COOH > C2H5COOH
(b) ClCH2COOH > HCOOH > CH3COOH > C2H5COOH
(c) CH3COOH > HCOOH > ClCH2COOH > C2H5COOH
(d) C2H5COOH > CH3COOH > HCOOH > ClCH2COOH
25) CH3CONH2 is dehydrated by P2O5 to give
(a) CH3NH2 (b) CH3CN (c) CH3CHO (d) CH3–CH3+CO+NH3
26) A carboxyl group directly attached to benzene ring
(a) activates the ring (b) deactivates the ring
(c) exhibits o- and p-directive influence (d) destabilizes the ring

ORGANIC COMPOUNDS CONTAINING NITROGEN

1) Amines are obtained from
(a) amides (b) nitrocompounds (c) alkyl halides (d) all
2) Acid amides can be converted into primary amines using
(a) Claisen reaction (b) Hoffmann’s reaction
(c) Perkin’s reaction (d) Rosenmund’s reaction
3) Preparation of amines by ammonolysis of alkyl halides is an example of
(a) electrophilic substitution reaction (b) nucleophilic substitutionreaction
(c) electrophilic addition reaction (d) nucleophilic addition reaction
4) Compound formed when benzamide is warmed with bromine and alkali
(a) Benzene diazonium chloride (b) Bromobenzene
(c) Benzene (d) Aniline
5) Gabriel’s phthalimide reaction gives
(a)a primary amine (b) a secondary amine
(c) a tertiary amine (d) none of the above
6) IUPAC name of (CH3)2CHNH2 is
(a) Isopropyl amine (b) Propan-2-amine
(c) N- methylethanamine (d) 2- Aminopropane
7) The hybridized state of nitrogen in methylamine is
(a) sp2 (b) sp3 (c) sp (d) sp3d2
8) A secondary amine is
(a) a compound with two NH2 groups
(b) a compound with two carbon atoms and an NH2 group
(c) a compound with an NH2 group on the carbon atom in number 2 position
(d)a compound in which two H2atoms of NH3 have been replaced by organic groups
9) Aliphatic amines are soluble in water because
(a)of formation of hydrogen bonds with water (b) they are basic
(c) they are lighter than water (d) None of the above
10) The basic character of amines is due to
(a) high electronegativity of oxygen (b) presence of nitrogen atom
(c)lone pair of electrons on nitrogen atom (d) none of the above
11) A solution of methylamine
(a) turns blue litmus into red (b) turns red litmus into blue
(c) a tertiary amine (d) None of the above
12) Methylamine is a stronger base than ammonia. This is due to the reason that
(a)methyl group is electron releasing
(b) methyl group is electron withdrawing
(c) methyl group is neutral
(d) none of the above
13) Aniline is _______ basic than methylamine
(a) more (b) less (c) equally (d) none
14) Among the following compounds NH3, CH3NH2, C6H5NH2 and C2H5NH2 the least basic compound is
(a) NH3 (b) CH3NH2 (c) C2H5NH2 (d) C6H5NH2
15) Aminomethane reacts with excess alkyl halide to give
(a) amino compound (b) tertiary alkyl halide
(c) azomethane (d) quaternary ammonium compound
16) The maximum number of molecules of methyl iodide that can react with a molecule of primary
amine is
(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four
17) Carbylamine test is used in the detection of
(a) Both aliphatic and aromatic primary amine (b) aromatic primary amine
(c) Aliphatic primary amine (d) aliphatic secondary amine
18) Acetanilide is obtained by the reaction of aniline with acetyl chloride or acetic anhydride. This
reaction is called
(a) benzoylation (b) acetylation (c) oxidation (d) reduction
19) Methylamine on benzoylation gives
(a) N, N-dimethylbenzamide (b)N-phenylmethanamide
(c)N-methylbenzamide (d) N-phenylethanamide
20) Aniline + HNO2 [NaNO3 + HCl] → __________. The reaction is called
(a)diazotization (b) nitration (c) reduction (d) ammonolysis
21) The product formed by the addition of NaNO2 and dil. HCl to aniline at O˚C is
(a) nitroaniline (b) nitrobenzene
(c)benzene diazonium chloride (d) aniline hydrochloride
22) Hinsberg reagent is
(a) N-phenyl benzene sulphonamide (b) N, N-Diphenylbenzenesulphonamide
(c)sulphanilic acid (d)Benzene sulphonylchloride
23) N-ethyl benzene sulphonamide is soluble in alkali because
(a) Hydrogen attached to nitrogen in sulphonamide is strongly acidic
(b) Hydrogen attached to nitrogen in sulphonamide is strongly basic
(c)sulphonyl group attached to nitrogen atom is strong electron withdrawing group
(d)sulphonyl group attached to nitrogen atom is strong electron donating group
24) During nitration of aniline, amino group is protected by
(a) Acetylation (b) hydrolysis (c) saponification (d) sulphonation

BIOMOLECULES
1) The conversion of maltose to glucose is possible by the enzyme
 (a) Zymase (b) Lactase (c) Maltase (d) Diastase
2) Glucose and galactose differ in the position of – H and –OH group on which carbon atom?
(a) Second (b) Third (c) Fourth (d) Fifth
3) Glycosidic linkage is present between two glucose units at positions______ in maltose.
(a) 1, 2 (b) 1, 3 (c) 1, 4 (d) 1, 1
4) Sucrose is a non reducing sugar due to
(a) 1-2 linkage (b) 1-4 linkage (c)1-5 linkage (d) 1-6 linkage
5) Starch is made of
(a) amylose and glycogen (b) amylose and amylopectin
(c) glucose and glycogen (d) none of these
6) Which of the following is a liner polymer of starch?
(a) Amylose (b) Amylopectin (c) Glycogen (d) Oxytocin
7) In amylopectin, the branching occurs through
(a) 1, 4 linkage (b) 1, 2 linkage (c) 1, 6 linkage (d) 1, 1 linkage
8) Glycogen is stored in
(a) pancreas (b) liver
(c) bile duct (d) small intestine
9) The structure of glycogen is very much similar to that of
(a) cellulose (b) amylase (c) amylopectin (d) proteins
10) The polysaccharide used in the manufacture of paper is
(a) cellulose (b) starch (c) glucose (d) sucrose
11) Artificial sweetener used in soft drinks is:
(a) glucose (b) fructose (c) cellulose (d) aspartame
12) Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) all amino acids are optically active
(b) all amino acids except glycine are optically active
(c) all amino acids except glutamic acid are optically active
(d) all amino acids except lysine are optically active
13) Which of the following is a non-essential amino acid?
(a) Leucine (b) Lysine (c) Phenylalanine (d) Proline
14) Which of the following is a heterocyclic amino acid?
(a) glycine (b) alanine (c) phenylalanine (d) tryptophan
15) Which of the following set consists only of essential amino acids?
(a) alanine, tyrosine, cystine (b) leucine, lysine, tryptophan
(c) alanine, glutamine, lycine (d) leucine, proline, glycine
16) The number of – CONH– bonds presents in a tripeptide is
(a) one (b) three (c) two (d) four
17) Three amino acids can condense to form a
(a)tripeptide (b) polypeptide
(c)tetrapeptide (d) none of the above
18) Enzymes are made up of
(a) Edible proteins (b) proteins with specific structure
(c) Nitrogen containing carbohydrates (d) carbohydrates
19) Proteins on heating lose their biological activity. The process is called
(a) hydrolysis (b) denaturation
(c) decarboxylation (d) none
20) The denaturation of a protein involves a change in
(a)the primary structure (b)the secondary structure
(c)the tertiary structure (d) both primary and secondary structures
21) The hormone that helps in the conversion of glucose into glycogen is
(a) cortisone (b) bile acids (c) adrenaline (d) insulin
22) Deficiency of vitamin B1 causes the disease
(a) convulsions (b)beri-beri (c) cheilosis (d) sterility
23) Which one of the following vitamins deficiency causes rickets?
 (a) Vitamin A (b) VitaminB (c) VitaminC (d) Vitamin D
24) Which is fat soluble vitamin?
(a) Vitamin A (b) pyridoxin (c) riboflavin (d) thiamine
25) Which one of the following statements is incorrect about enzyme catalysis?
(a) enzymes are mostly proteinous in nature
(b) enzyme action is specific
(c) enzymes are denatured by ultraviolet rays and at high temperature
(d) enzymes are most reactive at optimum temperature
26) The sugar part of DNA is
(a) Glucose (b) sorbose (c) ribose (d) deoxyribose
27) Bases common to DNA and RNA are:
(a) adenine, cytosine, uracil (b)guanine, adenine, cytosine
(c) guanine, uracil, thymine (d) adenine, thymine, guanine
28) The base present only in RNA is:
(a) cytosine (b)guanine (c) uracil (d) thymine
29) A nucleoside on hydrolysis gives
(a) a heterocyclic base and orthophosphoric acid
(b) an aldopentose, a heterocyclic base and orthophosphoric acid
(c) an aldopentose and heterocyclic base
(d) an aldopentose and orthophosphoric acid
30) In both DNA and RNA, heterocyclic base and phosphate ester are at
(a) C5` and C2` respectively of the sugar molecule
(b) C2` and C5` respectively of the sugar molecule
(c) C1` and C5` respectively of the sugar molecule
(d) C5` and C1` respectively of the sugar molecule

POLYMERS
1) Which of the following is true about polymers?
(a) They are formed by the union of a very large number of simple molecules.
(b) They are called as macro molecules
(c) They are high molecular weight complex molecules
(d) All the above
2) HDPE is prepared by polymerization of ethane
(a) Using a peroxide catalyst
(b) Using a catalyst containing a mixture of triethyl aluminium and titanium tetrachloride
(c) At a temperature of 150 – 250oC in the presence of oxygen
(d) Using a high pressure
3) Polymers which contain one kind of fundamental repeating unit are called
(a) Homopolymers (b) copolymers
(c) natural polymers (d) synthetic polymers
4) A polymer formed by direct addition of repeated monomers without elimination of any
simple molecules is called
(a) Addition polymer (b) condensation polymer
(c) Mixed polymer (d) none
5) A polymer formed by the condensation of two or more than two monomers with the
elimination of simple molecules is called
(a) Addition polymer (b) natural polymer
(c) Condensation polymer (d) none
6) Which of the following is an example for homopolymer?
 (a) PVC (b) Nylon (c) Terylene (d) Protein
7) Which of the following is a copolymer?
(a) Terylene (b) PVC (c) Polythene (d) Polypropylene
8) Nylon 6, 6 is a
(a) Condensation polymer (b) synthetic polymer
(c) Copolymer (d) all the above
9) Nylon 6, 6 is formed when a dicarboxylic acid is reacted with a
(a) Dihydric alcohol (b) diamine (c) diester (d) none
10) Raw material used for Nylon 6 is
(a) Adipic acid (b) acetic acid (c) caprolactum (d) none of the above
11) The polymer of caprolactum is
(a) Nylon 6 (b) nylon 6, 6 (c) terylene (d) Dacron
12) Terylene is also called a
(a) Dacron (b) nylon (c) polyamide (d) none of the above
13) Dacron, a synthetic polyester fibre is made from
(a) Dimethyl terephthalate and ethyleneglycol (b) caprolactum
(c) adipic acid and hexamethylene diamine (d) isoprene
14) An example for polyester is
(a) Nylon (b) PVC (c) polythene (d) Terylene
15) Which of the following is polyamide?
(a) PVC (b) Terylene (c) Nylon (d) None
16) Thermoplastics are those
(a) Which harden on cooling (b) Which soften on heating
(c) Which can be remoulded (d) All the above
17) The building block of natural rubber obtained by trees is
(a) Acetylene (b) Isoprene (c) Vinyl chloride (d) None of the above
18) Cis form of the polyisoprene is
(a) Natural rubber (b) Gutta-Purcha (c) Buna-S (d) none of the above
19) The process in which natural rubber gains required amount of tensile strength and
elasticity is known as
(a) Condensation (b) rolling
(c) vulcanization (d) none of the above
20) Valcanization involves the introduction ___________ into natural rubber
(a) Sulphur compound (b) Non-metal
(c) A metal (d) Elemental sulphur
21) The monomers of Buna-S rubber are
(a) Vinyl chloride and sulphur (b) styrene and butadiene
(c) Butadiene (d) isoprene and butadiene
22) Natural rubber is obtained from rubber latex which is a
(a) Solution of rubber in water (b) colloidal dispersion of rubber in water
(c) Mixture of rubber and gum (d) paste of rubber and water
23) Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?
(a) starch (b) nucleic acid
(c) poly styrene (d) protein
24) Which of the following is a hydrocarbon polymer?
(a)natural rubber (b) neoprene
(c) starch (d) Buna-S
25) Which one is a chain-growth polymer?
(a)teflon (b) nylon-6 (c) nylon-6, 6 (d) bakelite
26) The polymer which is used in non-sticky kitchenware is
(a) PVC (b)teflon (c) rayon (d) isoprene
27) The plastic household crockery is prepared by using
(a) melamine and tetrafluoroethane (b) malonic acid and hexamethyleneamine
(c) melamine and vinyl acetate (d) melamine and formaldehyde
CHEMISTRY IN EVERY DAY LIFE
1) Which of the following is employed as antihistamine?
(a) chloramphenicol (b)diphehydramine
(c) norothindrone (d) omeprazole
2) Analgesics are substances
(a)which help in relieving pain (b) which kill other harmful organisms
(c) which control malaria (d) which reduce anxietyl
3) Which one of the following is an antibiotic?
(a) Ampicillin (b) Aspirin (c) Chloroquin (d) Paracetamol
4) Aspirin (acetyl salicylic acid) is used as an
(a) analgesic (b) antiseptic (c) both (a) & (b) (d) none
5) Antipyretics are chemical substances which
(a) reduce body temperature (b) relieve pain
(c) control malaria (d) kill other harmful organisms
6) Dettol (antiseptic) consists mainly of
(a) sulphanilamide (b) dilute solution of phenol
(c) 4-chloro-3, 5-dimethylphenol (d) 3-chloro-2, 6-dimethyl phenol
7) Tincture of iodine is used as a chloroquine is a drug for controlling
(a) analgesic (b) pain killer (c) antiseptic (d) antibiotic
8) A substance which retards the growth of microorganisms without affecting the host tissues
is called
(a) antibiotic (b) analgesics (c) antiseptic (d) tranquiliser
9) The chemical substances which are produced by microorganisms and can inhibit the
growth or even destroy other micro organisms are called
(a)antibiotics (b)tranquilizers (c) antimalarials (d) none
10) The chemical substances used for the treatment of malaria are called
(a)an antibiotics (b) a tranquilizers (c) an antipyretics (d)antimalarials
11) Barbituric acid is used
(a) antibiotics (b) tranquilizers (c) antimalarials (d)antipyretics
12) Penicillin finds its use as an
(a) analgesics (b) antibiotic (c) antimalarials (d) all the above
13) Sulpha drugs are derivatives of
(a) benzenesulphonic acid (b)sulphanilic acid
(c)sulphanilamide (d) p-aminobenzoic acid
14) The safest and the most common alternative of sugar is
(a) glucose (b) aspartame (c) saccharine (d) cyclodextrin
14) The artificial sweetener containing chlorine that has the appearance and taste as that of
sugar and is stable at cooking temperature is
(a)sucralose (b)saccharin (c) aspartame (d)alitame
15) Bithional is added to soap as an additive to function as a/an
(a) softener (b)hardener (c) dryer (d)antiseptic
16) Which of the following represents soap?
(a)C17H35COOK (b) C17H35COOH (c) C15H31COOH (d)(C17H35COO)2 Ca
17) Which of the following forms cationic micelles above certain concentration?
(a) sodium ethyl sulphate (b)sodium acetate
(c) urea (d)cetylmethylammonium bromide
18) Which of the following is an anionic detergent?
(a)CH3(CH2)16CH2OSO3Na (b)CH3(CH2)16N+(CH2)3Cl–
(c) CH3(CH2)16 COO (CH2CH2O)nCH2CH2OH (d)C6H5SO3Na
19) Glycerol is added to soap. It functions ……………..
(a)as a filler (b)to increase lathering
(c)to prevent rapid drying (d)to make soap granules
20) Which of the following is biodegradable?
(a)C17H35COONa (b)CH3–(CH2)11–OSO3–Na+
(c) CH3(CH2)10CH2(OCH2CH2)8OSO3–Na+ (d)all are biodegradable
21) Polyethyleneglycols are used in the preparation of which type of detergents?
(a)cationic detergents (b)anionic detergents
(c)non-ionic detergents (d)soaps
22) Which of the following is a double base propellant?
(a) methyl nitrate and nitromethane (b) nitroglycerin and nitrocellulose
(c) kerosene and alcohol (d) acrylic rubber and liquid N2O4
23) Salts of sorbic acid, propionic acid are used as
(a) food preservatives (b) flavouring agents
(c) antioxidants (d) nutritional supplements
24) The preservative which is ultimately excreted in urine as hippuric acid is
(a) sodium benzoate (b) sodium metabisulphite
(c) sodium propionate (d) sodium sorbate
25) Which of the following will not enhance nutritional value of food?
(a) minerals (b) artificial sweeteners
(c) vitamins (d) amino acids
ANSWERS

SOLID STATE

(1) (c) (2) (c) (3) (c) (4) (c) (5) (b) (6) (d) (7) (c) (8) (b) (9) (c) (10) (b)

(11) (a) (12) (c) (13) (a) (14) (a) (15) (c) (16) (b) (17) (b) (18) (a) (19) (c) (20) (b)

SOLUTIONS

(1) (b) (2) (d) (3) (b) (4) (a) (5) (c) (6) (d) (7) (d) (8) (b) (9) (c) (10) (c)

(11) (b) (12) (a) (13) (a) (14) (b) (15) (c) (16) (b) (17) (b) (18) (a) (19) (a) (20) (a)

(21) (d) (22) (a) (23) (b) (24) (d) (25) (b)

ELECTROCHEMISTRY

(1) (d) (2) (b) (3) (d) (4) (b) (5) (d) (6) (d) (7) (d) (8) (b) (9) (a) (10) (b)
(11) (a) (12) (b) (13) (a) (14) (c) (15) (a) (16) (c) (17) (c) (18) (b) (19) (d) (20) (b)

(21) (b) (22) (b) (23) (a) (24) (a) (25) (d) (26) (b) (27) (b) (28) (b)

CHEMICAL KINETICS

(1) (b) (2) (b) (3) (d) (4) (d) (5) (d) (6) (a) (7) (c) (8) (b) (9) (c) (10) (b)

(11) (a) (12) (d) (13) (c) (14) (b) (15) (b) (16) (d) (17) (d) (18) (b) (19) (d)

SURFACE CHEMISTRY

(1) (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d) (5) (c) (6) (c) (7) (a) (8) (c) (9) (b) (10) (c)

(11) (d) (12) (a) (13) (a) (14) (b) (15) (c) (16) (c) (17) (c) (18) (c) (19) (b) (20) (d)

(21) (d) (22) (b)

GENERAL PRINCIPLES AND PROCESSESS OF ISOLATION OF ELEMENTS

(1) (d) (2) (d) (3) (c) (4) (b) (5) (b) (6) (c) (7) (b) (8) (b) (9) (a) (10) (a)

(11) (d) (12) (b) (13) (b) (14) (b) (15) (c) (16) (a) (17) (c) (18) (b) (19) (c) (20) (c)

(21) (c) (22) (a) (23) (b) (24) (b) (25) (c) (26) (b) (27) (a) (28) (a)

p-BLOCK ELEMENTS

(1) (c) (2) (b) (3) (d) (4) (a) (5) (b) (6) (b) (7) (d) (8) (a) (9) (b) (10) (a)

(11) (a) (12) (a) (13) (b) (14) (b) (15) (a) (16) (b) (17) (d) (18) (d) (19) (d) (20) (c)

(21) (b) (22) (c) (23) (c) (24) (d) (25) (d) (26) (d) (27) (a) (28) (a) (29) (d) (30) (a)

(31) (a) (32) (b) (33) (d) (34) (c) (35) (d) (36) (d) (37) (d) (38) (c) (39) (b) (40) (c)

(41) (d) (42) (c)

d AND f-BLOCK ELEMENTS

(1) (b) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (c) (5) (c) (6) (b) (7) (d) (8) (c) (9) (c) (10) (b)

(11) (c) (12) (a) (13) (b) (14) (a) (15) (a) (16) (b) (17) (c) (18) (a) (19) (c) (20) (b)

(21) (d) (22) (b) (23) (d) (24) (b) (25) (d)

COORDINATION CHEMISTRY

(1) (c) (2) (a) (3) (d) (4) (a) (5) (b) (6) (d) (7) (b) (8) (a) (9) (a) (10) (d)

(11) (a) (12) (b) (13) (c) (14) (a) (15) (c) (16) (d) (17) (d) (18) (a) (19) (c) (20) (c)

HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES

(1) (c) (2) (d) (3) (d) (4) (b) (5) (b) (6) (c) (7) (d) (8) (b) (9) (b) (10) (a)

(11) (c) (12) (a) (13) (a) (14) (c) (15) (d) (16) (c) (17) (c) (18) (d) (19) (c) (20) (c)

(21) (b) (22) (b) (23) (c)

 ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS AND ETHERS
(1) (c) (2) (a) (3) (a) (4) (a) (5) (d) (6) (d) (7) (c) (8) (d) (9) (c) (10) (c)

(11) (d) (12) (c) (13) (d) (14) (c) (15) (c) (16) (b) (17) (b) (18) (a) (19) (c) (20) (c)

(21) (d) (22) (b) (23) (a) (24) (a) (25) (a) (26) (b) (27) (c) (28) (b) (29) (a) (30) (c)

ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS

(1) (d) (2) (d) (3) (b) (4) (a) (5) (d) (6) (b) (7) (b) (8) (a) (9) (a) (10) (a)

(11) (d) (12) (c) (13) (a) (14) (c) (15) (b) (16) (d) (17) (c) (18) (a) (19) (b) (20) (a)

(21) (b) (22) (a) (23) (d) (24) (b) (25) (b) (26) (b)

AMINES

(1) (d) (2) (b) (3) (b) (4) (b) (5) (b) (6) (b) (7) (b) (8) (d) (9) (a) (10) (c)

(11) (b) (12) (a) (13) (b) (14) (d) (15) (d) (16) (c) (17) (a) (18) (b) (19) (c) (20) (a)

(21) (c) (22) (d) (23) (d) (24) (a)

BIOMOLECULES

(1) (c) (2) (c) (3) (c) (4) (a) (5) (b) (6) (a) (7) (c) (8) (b) (9) (c) (10) (a)

(11) (a) (12) (b) (13) (d) (14) (d) (15) (b) (16) (c) (17) (a) (18) (b) (19) (b) (20) (d)

(21) (d) (22) (b) (23) (d) (24) (a) (25) (d) (26) (d) (27) (b) (28) (c) (29) (c) (30) (c)