HW 4
HW 4
1
Likewise, there is an exact sequence
0 → H2 (X) → H2 (X, B) → H1 (B) → H1 (X) → H1 (X, B) → 0.
In this case, one can choose identifications H1 (B) ' Z and H1 (X) '
Z2g so that the map H1 (B) → H1 (X) sends2 1 7→ (1, 0, . . . , 0). It
then follows from the exact sequence that H1 (X, B) ' Z2g−1 and
H2 (X, B) ' Z.
3. Hatcher 2.1.18. To compute H1 (R, Q), we use the long exact sequence
∗ i
0 = H1 (R) −→ H1 (R, Q) −→ H0 (Q) −→ H0 (R)
where i : Q → R is the inclusion map. It follows from this exact
sequence that H1 (R, Q) = Ker(i∗ ). Now H0 (Q) = ⊕Q Z. Moreover if
σq denotes the 0-simplex mapping to q ∈ Q, then
i∗ σq = 1 ∈ Z = H0 (R).
So the kernel of i∗ consists of finite integer linear combinations of σq ’s
with total coefficient zero. A basis for this is given by
{σ0 − σq | q ∈ Q \ {0}}.
4. Hatcher 2.1.27.
(a) This follows by applying the five-lemma to the diagram
Hn (A) −−−→ Hn (X) −−−→ Hn (X, A) −−−→ Hn−1 (A) −−−→ Hn−1 (X)
' ' ' '
y y y y y
Hn (B) −−−→ Hn (Y ) −−−→ Hn (Y, B) −−−→ Hn−1 (B) −−−→ Hn−1 (Y ).
2
5. Hatcher 2.2.2. Let f : S 2n → S 2n . If f (x) 6= x for all x, then f is
homotopic to the antipodal map, so deg(f ) = (−1)2n+1 . If f (x) 6= −x
for all x, then f is homotopic to the identity, so deg(f ) = 1. Since
(−1)2n+1 6= 1, these possibilities are mutually exclusive, so there must
exist x ∈ S 2n with f (x) = x or f (x) = −x.
Next let f : RP2n → RP2n . Since S 2n is the universal covering space
of RP2n , it follows from the Lifting Criterion that f lifts to a map
RP2n → S 2n . We can then pull this back to a map fe : S 2n → S 2n , so
that the diagram
fe
S 2n −−−→ S 2n
y y
f
RP2n −−−→ RP2n
commutes, i.e. f ([x]) = [fe(x)] ∈ RP2n for all x ∈ S 2n . By the previous
paragraph, there exists x ∈ S 2n such that fe(x) = ±x, which means
that f ([x]) = [x].
0 −1
Taking the direct sum of n copies of the 2 × 2 matrix gives
1 0
a linear map R2n → R2n with no real eigenvalue, and hence a map
RP2n−1 → RP2n−1 with no fixed point.
6. Extra problem.
Kσ := σ# KIn ,
3
and equation (1) will hold.
We solve equation (2) by induction on n. Since Hn+1 (∆n ) = 0,
a solution KIn to equation (2) exists iff the right hand side is a
cycle. To check this, we compute