ONLINE EXAMINATION - RECRUITMENT OF:

TECHNICAL OPERATIONS: ASSISTANT MANAGER (PRINTING),

ASSISTANT MANAGER (ELECTRICAL),
ASSISTANT MANAGER (ELECTRONICS),
ASSISTANT MANAGER (MECHANICAL) &
ASSISTANT MANAGER (METALLURGY)

TECHNICAL CONTROL: ASSISTANT MANAGER (QUALITY ASSURANCE - PAPER)

ASSISTANT MANAGER (QUALITY ASSURANCE)
ASSISTANT MANAGER (ASSAY)
ASSISTANT MANAGER (TECHNICAL CONTROL)

TECHNICAL SUPPORT: ASSISTANT MANAGER (ARTIST / DESIGNER)

ASSISTANT MANAGER (MATERIALS MANAGEMENT)

INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY: ASSISTANT MANAGER (INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY)

INFORMATION HANDOUT

This handout contains details pertaining to various aspects of the online exam you are going to undertake and
important instructions about related matters. You are advised to study the handout carefully as it will help you in
preparing for the examination.
The online examination will comprise the following objective type test as stated below :
Structure of the test
Sr. Name of the Test Number of Maximum Version Duration
No. Questions Marks
1 Professional Knowledge 60 90
2 General Awareness 15 15 Hindi & English
3 English Language 15 15 language except 120 Minutes
4 Logical Reasoning 15 15 English
5 Quantitative Aptitude 15 15 Language test
TOTAL 120 150 120 Minutes

The total time for the test is 120 minutes; however you may have to be at the venue for approximately
180 minutes including the time required for logging in, collection of the call letters, going through the instructions etc.
All questions will be provided in Hindi and English except for English Language test. The tests are compositely timed.
Candidates can attempt any question during the allotted time of 120 minutes. All the questions will have multiple
choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be the correct answer. You have to select the most
appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’ that alternative which you feel is appropriate/ correct. The alternative/
option that you have clicked on will be treated as your answer to that question. There will be penalty for
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wrong answers marked by you. For every wrong answer marked by you, 1/4 of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
The Scores of Online Examination will be obtained by adopting the following procedure :
(i) Number of questions answered correctly by a candidate in the objective test is considered for arriving at the
Corrected Score after applying penalty for wrong answers.
(ii) The Corrected Scores so obtained by a candidate are made equivalent to take care of the minor difference in
difficulty level, if any, in each of the objective tests held in different sessions to arrive at the Equated Scores*

*Scores obtained by candidates on test are equated to the base form by considering the distribution of scores of all
the forms.
(iii) Test scores on total is reported with decimal points upto two digits.
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Selection process for the posts will comprise of an online test (75% weightage) and Interview (25% weightage). The
candidates will be shortlisted in the order of merit in the respective category in the ratio of 1:4.
Please note that the types of questions in this handout are only illustrative and not exhaustive. In the actual
examination you will find questions of a higher difficulty level on some or all of these types and also
questions on the types not mentioned here.
Some sample questions are given below.

PROFESSIONAL KNOWLEDGE

Questions in this test will be based on the area of Specialization.

GENERAL AWARENESS
Q.1. To combat the menace of money laundering, which of the following financial institutions has introduced the
‘Know Your Customer’ Scheme ?
(1) IDBI (2) RBI (3) NABARD (4) SIDBI (5) Other than those given as options
Q.2. OSCAR awards are given for best performance in which of the following field ?
(1) Films (2) Literature (3) Sports (4) Science (5) Social Service
Q.3. Which of the following stands for I in RBI ?
(1) India (2) International (3) Insurance (4) Income (5) Institute
Q.4. ‘Mandi House’ is ________
(1) Prime Ministers’ Residence
(2) a prize winning film directed by Shyam Benegal
(3) the office of the Director General of Doordarshan
(4) the head office of the Ministry of Commerce
(5) the place where the Central Production Centre of Doordarshan is located.
Q.5. Vishwanathan Anand is associated with which of the following games ?
(1) Badminton (2) Golf (3) Chess (4) Billiards (5) Basket Ball
Q.6. The famous Gomateshwar idol is in which of the following states ?
(1) Maharashtra (2) Madhya Pradesh (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Orissa (5) Karnataka
Q.7. The famous Ayodhya temple is located on the bank of the river ________
(1) Ganga (2) Godavari (3) Sarayu (4) Ban Ganga (5) Narmada
Q.8. ‘Dashdwar se Sopan Tak’ is written by ________
(1) Mohan Rakesh (2) Harivansharai Bachchan (3) Jagdish Chandra Mathur
(4) Dharmaveer Bharati (5) None of these
Q.9. ‘OSCAR AWARDS’ are given for best performance in which of the following fields ?
(1) Literature (2) Science &Technology (3) Motion picture
(4) Sports (5) Social Service
Q.10. The Unit for measuring intensity of ‘Noise’ is called ________
(1) Knot (2) Calorie (3) Ohm (4) Joule (5) Decibel

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Q.1. Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be
in one part of the sentence. That part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. (Ignore the
errors of punctuation, if any).
The regaining of freedom / as we well know has given rise for / many dormant issues /
(1) (2) (3)
and conflicts in our society. No error
(4) (5)
Q.2-3. Directions : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five alternatives, the word most
opposite in meaning of the word given in capitals.
Q.2. LIVELY
(1) simple (2) weak (3) dull (4) angry (5) moron
Q.3. INADVERTENT
(1) adequate (2) available (3) sluggish (4) negligent (5) intentional

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Q.4. Pick out from the words given below this sentence the word which would complete the sentence correctly and
meaningfully.
He wants me to look _______ his garden during his absence.
(1) at (2) over (3) after (4) into (5) from
Direction : In each of the following questions, select from amongst the five alternatives, the word nearest in
meaning to the word given in capitals.
Q.5. LETHAL (1) light (2) dangerous (3) deadly
(4) cruel (5) thoughtless
Q.6. CENTENARY (1) a guard (2) a hundred years (3) a very old man
(4) a hundred runs (5) a hundredth anniversary

LOGICAL REASONING
This is a test to see how well you can think and also to judge your aptitude/ knowledge for working with computer. It
contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample questions.
Q.1-2. In the following questions a group of numbers and symbols is to be coded by the letter code as per the given
scheme and conditions. You have to find out the sr.no. of the letter code group which correctly represents the
number symbol combination. The sr. no. of that letter code group is your answer. If none of the letter code
groups is correct then mark (5) i.e. Other than those given as options.
Number/Symbol : 2 $ @ 7 6 # 8
Letter Code : Q B H L F M T
Condition:
1. If the first as well as the last element is a symbol both are to be coded as ‘A’.
2. If the first element is even digit and last element is a symbol their codes are to be inter changed.
Q.1. 67@2#
(1) FLHQM (2) MLHQF (3) MLQHE (4) FLQHM (5) Other than those given as options
Q.2. $687#
(1) AFTLA (2) AFTLM (3) BFTLA (4) BFTLM (5) Other than those given as options
Directions : In each of the following questions, there are five letter groups or words in each question. Four of these
letter groups or words are alike in some way, while one is different. Find the one which is different.
Q.3. (1) black (2) red (3) green (4) paint (5) yellow
Q.4. (1) BC (2) MN (3) PQ (4) XZ (5) ST
Q.5. (1) Mango (2) Apple (3) Orange (4) Guava (5) Rose
Directions : In each of the following questions, there is a question mark in which only one of the five alternatives given
under the question satisfies the same relationship as is found between the two terms to the left of the sign :: given in
the question. Find the correct answer.
Q.6. Foot : man : : hoof : ?
(1) leg (2) dog (3) horse (4) boy (5) shoe
Q.7. Day : Night : : Kind : ?
(1) Dark (2) Bright (3) Cruel (4) Generous (5) Gratitude
Q.8. Hut : Mansion : : Rabbit : ?
(1) Hole (2) Carrot (3) Elephant (4) Small (5) Rat
Q.9. If ‘A ” B’ means ‘add B to A’, ‘A ’ B’ means ‘subtract B from A’, ‘A # B’ means ‘divide A by B’ and ‘A  B’ means
‘multiply A by B; which of the following gives the average sales of two days where S1 and S2 are the sales of the
first and the second day respectively ?
(1) (S1 ’ S2) # 2 (2) 2 # (S1 ” S2) (3) (S1 ” S2 # 2)
(4) (S1  S2) # (S1 ” S2) (5) Other than those given as options
Q.10. Every person above eighteen years of age who is registered as a voter, can vote. To find out whether Madhu,
who was born twenty years ago, can vote, which of the following further information is needed ?
(I) Madhu’s date of birth (II) Whether Madhu is registered as a voter
(1) Only I (2) Only II (3) Either I or II (4) Neither I nor II (5) Both I and II

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 QUANTITATIVEAPTITUDE
This test is designed to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers, viz. computation,
quantitative reasoning, interpretation of tables and graphs etc.
Q.1-3. Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below _____
Distribution of 1000 candidates as regards their marks in written examination
out of 300 and interview out of 100 in a selection examination

Written INTERVIEW MARKS

Examination
Marks Below 30 30-39 40-49 50-59 60-69 70 & above

260 & above 8 18 26 18 26 4

210 to 259 5 4 30 22 10 9
160 to 209 16 10 45 56 18 9
110 to 159 28 42 100 190 15 5
60 to 109 35 115 20 8 7 5
Below 60 32 32 20 4 6 2

Q.1. How many candidates did obtain more than 69 percent marks and above in both written examination and
interview ?
(1) 22 (2) 49 (3) 13 (4) 9 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.2. I f approximately 325 candidates were to be qualified in the written examination, what should be the percentage
of the qualifying marks ?
(1) above 20 (2) above 70 (3) above 36
(4) above 63 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.3. About 42 percent of the candidates fall in which of the following ranges of the interview marks ?
(1) 110-159 (2) 110 & below (3) 50 to 70
(4) 50 & above (5) Other than those given as options
Q.4. Which of the following can be exact multiple of 4 ?
(1) 27114 (2) 58204 (3) 48402 (4) 32286 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.5. If the profit made by selling a pen for Rs. 10 is as much as its cost, what is the cost price of the pen ?
(1) Rs. 3/- (2) Rs. 5/- (3) Rs. 10/- (4) Rs. 20/- (5) Other than those given as options
Q.6. If 3 workers collect 48 Kg. Cotton in 4 days, how many kg. Cotton will 9 workers collect in 2 days ?
(1) 216 (2) 32 (3) 108 (4) 72 (5) None of these

(A) Details of the On-line Examination Pattern:

(1) The examination would be conducted Online i.e. on a computer.
(2) All questions will be provided in Hindi and English except for English Language test.
(3) All the questions will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be the correct
answer. The candidate has to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’ that alternative
which he/ she feels is appropriate/ correct. The alternative/ option that is clicked on will be treated as
the answer to that question. Answer to any question will be considered for final evaluation, only when
candidates have submitted the answers by clicking on “Save & Next” or “Mark for Review & Next”.
(4) The clock has been set at the server and the countdown timer at the top right corner of your screen will display
the time remaining for you to complete the exam. When the clock runs out the exam ends by default - you are
not required to end or submit your exam.

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(5) The question palette at the right of screen shows one of the following statuses of each of the questions
numbered:

The Marked for Review status simply acts as a reminder that you have set to look at the question again. If an
answer is selected for a question that is Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final
evaluation.
(6) To select a question to answer, you can do one of the following :
(a) Click on the question number on the question palette at the right of your screen to go to that numbered
question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the current question.
(b) Click on ‘Save & Next’ to save answer to current question and to go to the next question in sequence.
(c) Click on ‘Mark for Review and Next’ to save answer to current question, mark it for review, and to go to
the next question in sequence.

(7) To select your answer, click on one of the option buttons.

(8) To change your answer, click another desired option button.

(9) To save your answer, you MUST click on Save & Next.

(10) To deselect a chosen answer, click on the chosen option again or click on the Clear Response button.

(11) To mark a question for review click on Mark for Review & Next. If an answer is selected for a question that is
Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final evaluation.

(12) To change an answer to a question, first select the question and then click on the new answer option followed
by a click on the Save & Next button.

(13) ONLY Questions that are saved or marked for review after answering will be considered for evaluation.

(14) Sections will be displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a section can be viewed by clicking on the
section name. The section you will view will be highlighted.

(15) After clicking the Save & Next button on the last question for a section, you will automatically be taken to the
first question of the next section.

(16) You can move the mouse cursor over the section names to view the status of the questions for that section.

(17) The tests are compositely timed. Candidates can attempt any question during the allotted time of 120 minutes.

(18) The candidates are requested to follow the instructions of the “Test Administrator” carefully. If any candidate
does not follow the instructions / rules, it would be treated as a case of misconduct/ adoption of unfair means
and such a candidate would be liable for debarment from appearing for examinations for a period as decided by
SPMCIL.

(19) The candidates may ask the Test Administrator about their doubts or questions only before the commencement
of the test. No query shall be entertained after the commencement of the examination.

(20) After the expiry of 120 minutes, the candidates will not be able to attempt any question or check their answers.

(21) Please note:

(a) Candidates will not be allowed to “finally submit” unless they have exhausted the actual test time.
(b) Under no circumstances should a candidate click on any of the ‘keyboard keys’ once the exam
starts as this will lock the exam.

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[B] General Instructions:

(1) Please note date, Reporting time and venue address of the examination given in the call letter.
(2) You may visit the venue one day before the Online Examination to confirm the location so that you are able to
report on time (as printed on the call letter) on the day of the examination. Latecomers will not be allowed.
(3) The call letter should be brought with you to the examination venue along with your recent passport size
photograph duly pasted on it. (Preferably the same photograph as was as uploaded).
(4) You must scrupulously follow the instructions of the Test Administrator and SPMCIL Representative at the
examination venue. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified and will be asked to leave the
examination venue.
(5) No use of calculators (separate or with watch), books, note books or written notes, cell phones (with or without
camera facility) or any other electronic device will be allowed during the examination.
(6) Please bring the call letter with your photograph affixed thereon, currently valid Photo identity proof in original
and a photocopy of the same ID proof which you bring in original - THIS IS ESSENTIAL. The call-letter along
with photocopy of photo identity proof duly stapled together are to be submitted to the invigilator at the
end of exam. Currently valid photo identity proof may be PAN Card/Passport/Driving License/Voter’s Card with
photograph/ Bank Passbook with photograph/Photo Identity proof issued by a Gazetted Officer on official
letterhead /Photo Identity proof issued by a People’s Representative on official letterhead/Valid recent Identity
Card issued by a recognised College/ University/Aadhaar Card/E-Aadhaar Card with a photograph/Employee
ID/Bar Council Identity card with photograph. Please Note - Ration Card and Learner’s Driving License will
NOT be accepted as valid ID proof for this exam. Please note that your name as appearing on the call letter
(provided by you during the process of registration) should exactly match the name as appearing on the photo
identity proof. Female candidates who have changed first/last/middle name post marriage must take special
note of this. If there is any mismatch between the name indicated in the Call Letter and Photo Identity Proof you
will not be allowed to appear for the exam. In case of candidates who have changed their name will be allowed
only if they produce Gazette notification/their marriage certificate/affidavit.
(7) Your responses (answers) will be analysed with other candidates to detect patterns of similarity of right and
wrong answers. If in the analytical procedure adopted in this regard, it is inferred/concluded that the responses
have been shared and scores obtained are not genuine/valid, your candidature may be cancelled. Any
candidate who is found copying or receiving or giving assistance or engaging in any behaviour unbecoming of a
candidate will not be considered for assessment. SPMCIL may take further action against such candidates as
deemed fit by it.
(8) You should bring with you a ball-point pen. A sheet of paper will be provided which can be used for rough work
or taking down the question number you would like to review at the end of the test before submitting your
answers. After the test is over you MUST handover this sheet of paper along with the Call Letter and photocopy
of photo identity proof to the invigilator.
(9) The possibility of occurrence of some problem in the administration of the examination cannot be ruled out
completely which may impact test delivery and/or result from being generated. In that event, every effort will be
made to rectify such problems, which may include movement of candidates, delay in test. The conduct of a re-
exam is at the absolute discretion of the test conducting body. Candidates will not have any claim for a re-test.
Candidates not willing to move or not willing to participate in the delayed process of test delivery shall be
summarily rejected from the process.
(10) If the examination is held in more than one session, the scores across various sessions will be equated to
adjust for slight differences in difficulty level of different test batteries used across sessions. More than one
session is required if the nodes capacity is less or some technical disruption takes place at any centre or for any
candidate.
(11) Anyone found to be disclosing, publishing, reproducing, transmitting, storing or facilitating transmission and
storage of test contents in any form or any information therein in whole or part thereof or by any means verbal
or written, electronic or mechanical or taking away the papers supplied in the examination hall or found to be in
unauthorised possession of test content is likely to be prosecuted.
(12) Instances for providing incorrect information and/or process violation by a candidate detected at any stage of
the selection process will lead to disqualification of the candidate from the selection process and he/she will not
be allowed to appear in any recruitment process of the SPMCIL in the future. If such instances go undetected
during the current selection process but are detected subsequently, such disqualification will take place with
retrospective effect.
(13) Please read instructions related to Social Distancing given on the next page.
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 INSTRUCTIONS WITH REGARD TO SOCIAL DISTANCING

1. Candidate is required to report at the exam venue strictly as per the time slot mentioned in the Call Letter.
Latecomers will not be allowed to take the test.
2. Mapping of ‘Candidate Roll Number and the Lab Number’ will NOT be displayed outside the exam venue, but the
same will be intimated to the candidates individually at the time of entry of the candidate to the exam venue.

3. Items permitted into the venue for Candidates

Candidates will be permitted to carry only following items with them into the venue:
a. Mask
b. Personal hand sanitizer (50 ml)
c. A simple pen and ink stamp pad (blue/black)

d. Exam related documents (Call Letter and Photocopy of the ID card stapled with it, ID Card in Original)
e. In the case of Scribe Candidates - Scribe form duly filled and signed with Photograph affixed.

No other Items are permitted inside the venue.

4. Candidate should not share any of their personal belonging/material with anyone.

5. Candidate should maintain safe social distance with one another.

6. Candidate should stand in the row as per the instructions provided at venue.

7. If a candidate is availing services of a scribe, then scribe also should bring their own Mask.

8. On completion of examination, the candidates should move out in an orderly manner without crowding as
instructed by the venue staff.

WISH YOU GOOD LUCK!