𝑂 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑗𝑢𝑛𝑡𝑜 𝑑𝑜𝑠 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑠 𝑛ã𝑜 𝑛𝑒𝑔𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑜𝑠 é 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑑𝑜 𝑒𝑚 𝑛 ≥ 1 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑔𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑠õ𝑒𝑠 𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑡𝑚é𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑠

𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑚 𝑟𝑎𝑧õ𝑒𝑠 𝑟 , 𝑟 , 𝑟 , … , 𝑟 𝑒 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑖𝑠 𝑎 , 𝑎 , 𝑎 , … , 𝑎 . 𝑃𝑟𝑜𝑣𝑒 𝑞𝑢𝑒 ∶

𝑎 𝑎 𝑎 𝑎 𝑛−1
+ + + ⋯+ = .
𝑟 𝑟 𝑟 𝑟 2
𝑆𝑜𝑙𝑢çã𝑜:
𝑃𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑖𝑟𝑜, 𝑣𝑒𝑗𝑎 𝑞𝑢𝑒 𝑠𝑒 𝑛 = 1, (𝑛ã𝑜 𝑡𝑒𝑚 𝑛𝑒𝑛ℎ𝑢𝑚𝑎 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖çã𝑜) 𝑜𝑠 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑠 𝑛ã𝑜 𝑛𝑒𝑔𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑜𝑠 𝑠ã𝑜
𝑒𝑠𝑐𝑟𝑖𝑡𝑜𝑠 𝑑𝑒 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑎 ú𝑛𝑖𝑐𝑎 (0, 1, 2, 3, … ) 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑜 𝑢𝑚𝑎 𝑃. 𝐴. 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑎 𝑐𝑜𝑚 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑖𝑟𝑜 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚𝑜 0 𝑒 𝑟𝑎𝑧ã𝑜
0 1−1
1. 𝐸, 𝑝𝑜𝑟𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑜 𝑎 𝑓ó𝑟𝑚𝑢𝑙𝑎 é 𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑎𝑙𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑒 𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑑𝑎: = = 0.
1 2

𝑃𝑎𝑟𝑎 𝑛 = 2, 𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑎 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑖𝑟𝑎 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖çã𝑜 𝑑𝑜𝑠 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑠 𝑛ã𝑜 𝑛𝑒𝑔𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑜𝑠:

(0, 2, 4, 6, 8, … ) 𝑒 (1, 3, 5, 7, 9, … ) 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑜 𝑑𝑢𝑎𝑠 𝑃𝐴𝑠 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑠, 𝑐𝑎𝑑𝑎 𝑢𝑚𝑎 𝑐𝑜𝑚 𝑟𝑎𝑧ã𝑜 2. 𝑁𝑜𝑡𝑒 𝑞𝑢𝑒
𝑐𝑜𝑚 𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑙𝑞𝑢𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑟𝑎 𝑟𝑎𝑧ã𝑜 𝑒𝑥𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑚 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑠 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑎 𝑑𝑒 𝑢𝑚𝑎 𝑜𝑢 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑟𝑎 𝑃. 𝐴.
𝑃𝑎𝑟𝑎 𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑎𝑟𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑎 𝑓ó𝑟𝑚𝑢𝑙𝑎, 𝑛𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑞𝑢𝑒 𝑜𝑠 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑖𝑠 𝑠ã𝑜 0 𝑒 1, 𝑚𝑎𝑠 𝑎𝑠 𝑟𝑎𝑧õ𝑒𝑠 𝑟 𝑒 𝑟
0 1 2−1 1
𝑠ã𝑜 𝑎𝑚𝑏𝑎𝑠 𝑖𝑔𝑢𝑎𝑖𝑠 𝑎 2, 𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑖𝑚 𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑠: + = = .
2 2 2 2

𝐴 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑟 𝑑𝑒 𝑛 = 3, 𝑝𝑜𝑑𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑡𝑒𝑟 𝑎𝑠 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑠 𝑃𝐴𝑠 𝑡𝑜𝑑𝑎𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑚 𝑎 𝑚𝑒𝑠𝑚𝑎 𝑟𝑎𝑧ã𝑜 𝑜𝑢 𝑛ã𝑜.
𝑆𝑒 𝑡𝑜𝑑𝑎𝑠 𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑚 𝑎 𝑚𝑒𝑠𝑚𝑎 𝑟𝑎𝑧ã𝑜, 𝑒𝑛𝑡ã𝑜 𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑎 𝑟𝑎𝑧ã𝑜 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑢𝑚 𝑠𝑒𝑟á 𝑛 𝑒 𝑎𝑠 𝑃𝐴𝑠 𝑒𝑠𝑡ã𝑜 𝑑𝑎𝑑𝑎𝑠
𝑎𝑏𝑎𝑖𝑥𝑜:
𝐴 = (0, 𝑛 + 0, 2𝑛 + 0, 3𝑛 + 0, 4𝑛 + 0, … )
𝐴 = (1, 𝑛 + 1, 2𝑛 + 1, 3𝑛 + 1, 4𝑛 + 1, … )
𝐴 = (2, 𝑛 + 2, 2𝑛 + 2, 3𝑛 + 2, 4𝑛 + 2, … )
.....................................................................
𝐴 = (𝑛 − 1, 2𝑛 − 1, 3𝑛 − 1, 4𝑛 − 1, 5𝑛 − 1, … )
𝑁𝑎𝑠 𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑖𝑠 𝑜𝑠 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑖𝑟𝑜𝑠 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑠ã𝑜: 0, 1, 2, 3, … , 𝑛 − 1 𝑒 𝑎𝑠 𝑟𝑎𝑧õ𝑒𝑠 (𝑡𝑜𝑑𝑎𝑠 𝑖𝑔𝑢𝑎𝑖𝑠) 𝑠ã𝑜 𝑛.
𝐴𝑠𝑠𝑖𝑚, 𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑠:
𝑛−1
0 1 2 𝑛 − 1 1 + 2 + 3 + ⋯ + 𝑛 − 1 𝑛. 2 𝑛−1
+ + + ⋯+ = = =
𝑛 𝑛 𝑛 𝑛 𝑛 𝑛 2
𝑆𝑒 𝑛 = 3 𝑒 𝑎𝑠 𝑟𝑎𝑧õ𝑒𝑠 𝑛ã𝑜 𝑠ã𝑜 𝑡𝑜𝑑𝑎𝑠 𝑖𝑔𝑢𝑎𝑖𝑠, 𝑒𝑛𝑡ã𝑜 𝑝𝑜𝑑𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑡𝑒𝑟:
0 𝑎
𝐴 = (0, 2, 4, 8, 10, … ) 𝑞𝑢𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑎 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑟 𝑝𝑜𝑟 ( )
2 𝑟
1
𝐴 = (1, 5, 9, 13, 17, … ) →
4
3
𝐴 = (3, 7, 11, 15, 19, … ) →
4
𝑂𝑢 𝑎𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑎:
0
𝐴 = (0, 4, 8, 12, 16, … ) →
4
2
𝐴 = (2, 6, 10, 14, 18, … ) →
4
1
𝐴 = (1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, … ) →
2
𝑁𝑜𝑡𝑒 𝑞𝑢𝑒 𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑒𝑠 𝑑𝑜𝑖𝑠 𝑔𝑟𝑢𝑝𝑜𝑠 𝑑𝑒 𝑃𝐴𝑠 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑠 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑎𝑚 𝑜𝑏𝑡𝑖𝑑𝑜𝑠 𝑑𝑜𝑠 𝑔𝑟𝑢𝑝𝑜𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑟𝑒𝑠 𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑜
0 1 0 1 3 0 2 1
𝑡í𝑛ℎ𝑎𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑛 = 2, 𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑜 é, 𝑜 𝑔𝑟𝑢𝑝𝑜 , 𝑑𝑒𝑢 𝑜𝑟𝑖𝑔𝑒𝑚 𝑎𝑜𝑠 𝑔𝑟𝑢𝑝𝑜𝑠 , , 𝑒 , , , 𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑜
2 2 2 4 4 4 4 2
1 1 3 0
𝑜 𝑝𝑟𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑖𝑟𝑜, 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑜 𝑎 𝑃𝐴 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑎 𝑒𝑚 𝑒 𝑒 𝑜 𝑠𝑒𝑔𝑢𝑛𝑑𝑜, 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑜 𝑎 𝑃𝐴 𝑒𝑚
2 4 4 2
0 1
𝑒 .
4 4

𝐸𝑠𝑡𝑎 𝑛𝑜𝑡𝑎çã𝑜, 𝑓𝑎𝑐𝑖𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑎 𝑜 𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑜, 𝑝𝑜𝑖𝑠 𝑐𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑧𝑎 𝑐𝑎𝑑𝑎 𝑃𝐴 𝑒 𝑗á 𝑠𝑒𝑟𝑣𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎 𝑎 𝑣𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑓𝑖𝑐𝑎çã𝑜,
𝑒 𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑒 𝑎 𝑑𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑟çã𝑜 𝑑𝑎 𝑞𝑢𝑒𝑠𝑡ã𝑜. 𝑆𝑒𝑛ã𝑜 𝑣𝑒𝑗𝑎𝑚𝑜𝑠:
𝑃𝑎𝑟𝑎 𝑛 = 3 (𝑐𝑜𝑚 𝑟𝑎𝑧õ𝑒𝑠 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑎𝑠), 𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑑𝑜𝑖𝑠 𝑐𝑎𝑠𝑜𝑠 𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑠í𝑣𝑒𝑖𝑠:
0 1 3 4 3−1
𝐶𝑎𝑠𝑜 1: + + = =1=
2 4 4 4 2
0 2 1 4 3−1
𝐶𝑎𝑠𝑜 2: + + = =1= .
4 4 2 4 2

0 1 2
𝑃𝑎𝑟𝑎 𝑛 = 4, 𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑚𝑢𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑠 𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑠𝑖𝑏𝑖𝑙𝑖𝑑𝑎𝑑𝑒𝑠, 𝑝𝑜𝑖𝑠 𝑐𝑎𝑑𝑎 𝑢𝑚 𝑑𝑜𝑠 𝑡𝑟ê𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑖𝑜𝑟𝑒𝑠 , , ,
3 3 3
0 1 3 0 2 1
, , 𝑒 , , , 𝑝𝑜𝑑𝑒𝑚 𝑔𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑟 3 𝑛𝑜𝑣𝑜𝑠 𝑔𝑟𝑢𝑝𝑜𝑠 𝑑𝑒 𝑃𝐴𝑠 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑠, 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑜 𝑒𝑚
2 4 4 4 4 2
0 1 2 3
𝑑𝑢𝑎𝑠, 𝑐𝑎𝑑𝑎 𝑢𝑚𝑎 𝑃𝐴 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑎 𝑝𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑒 𝑒𝑚 𝑐𝑎𝑑𝑎 𝑢𝑚, 𝑎𝑙é𝑚 𝑑𝑒 , , , 𝑞𝑢𝑒 𝑛ã𝑜 𝑣𝑒𝑚 𝑑𝑎
4 4 4 4
𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖çã𝑜 𝑑𝑒 𝑛𝑒𝑛ℎ𝑢𝑚 𝑑𝑜𝑠 𝑔𝑟𝑢𝑝𝑜𝑠 𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑒 𝑛 = 3. 𝐼𝑠𝑡𝑜 𝑛𝑜𝑠 𝑑á 𝑢𝑚 𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑑𝑒 10 𝑔𝑟𝑢𝑝𝑜𝑠.
𝑁ã𝑜 𝑜𝑏𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑒, 𝑝𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑎 𝑑𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑎çã𝑜 𝑛𝑜 𝑐𝑎𝑠𝑜 𝑔𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑙, 𝑝𝑜𝑟 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑢çã𝑜 𝑠𝑜𝑏𝑟𝑒 𝑛.
0
𝑃𝑎𝑟𝑎 𝑛 = 1, 𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑎𝑝𝑒𝑛𝑎𝑠 𝑢𝑚𝑎 ú𝑛𝑖𝑐𝑎 𝑃𝐴 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑎 𝑞𝑢𝑒 𝑗á 𝑓𝑜𝑖 𝑒𝑥𝑖𝑏𝑖𝑑𝑎 𝑒 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑝𝑜𝑟 .
1
0 1−1
𝐴𝑠𝑠𝑖𝑚, = 0 = . Ó𝑏𝑣𝑖𝑜.
1 2

𝐴𝑑𝑚𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑞𝑢𝑒 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎 𝑢𝑚 𝑐𝑒𝑟𝑡𝑜 𝑛 𝑎 𝑓ó𝑚𝑢𝑙𝑎 𝑑𝑜 𝑒𝑛𝑢𝑛𝑐𝑖𝑎𝑑𝑜 𝑠𝑒𝑗𝑎 𝑣á𝑙𝑖𝑑𝑎 𝑒 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑣𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑞𝑢𝑒 𝑣𝑎𝑙𝑒
𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎 𝑛 + 1. 𝐼𝑠𝑡𝑜 é:
𝑎 𝑎 𝑎 𝑎 𝑛−1
+ + + ⋯+ = .
𝑟 𝑟 𝑟 𝑟 2

𝑃𝑎𝑟𝑎 𝑝𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑎𝑟𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑑𝑒𝑠𝑡𝑒 𝑐𝑎𝑠𝑜, 𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑒 𝑡𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑛 𝑃𝐴𝑠 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑠 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎 𝑜 𝑐𝑎𝑠𝑜 𝑠𝑒𝑔𝑢𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒 𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑒 𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑠
𝑛 + 1 𝑃𝐴𝑠, 𝑛𝑒𝑐𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑎𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑒 𝑢𝑚𝑎 𝑑𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑎𝑠 𝑃𝐴𝑠 𝑠𝑒𝑟á 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑑𝑎 𝑒𝑚 𝑑𝑢𝑎𝑠 𝑛𝑜𝑣𝑎𝑠 𝑃𝐴𝑠 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑖 −
𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑠.
𝑎
𝑆𝑒𝑚 𝑝𝑒𝑟𝑑𝑎 𝑑𝑒 𝑔𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑎𝑙𝑖𝑑𝑎𝑑𝑒, 𝑑𝑖𝑔𝑎𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑞𝑢𝑒 𝑎 𝑃𝐴 𝑑𝑒 𝑜𝑟𝑑𝑒𝑚 𝑘 (1 ≤ 𝑘 ≤ 𝑛) 𝑓𝑜𝑖 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖𝑐𝑖𝑜 −
𝑟
𝑎 𝑎 +𝑟
𝑛𝑎𝑑𝑎 𝑛𝑎𝑠 𝑃𝐴𝑠 𝑒 . 𝑃𝑎𝑟𝑎 𝑢𝑚𝑎 𝑚𝑒𝑙ℎ𝑜𝑟 𝑣𝑖𝑠𝑢𝑎𝑙𝑖𝑧𝑎çã𝑜, 𝑒𝑥𝑖𝑏𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑒𝑠𝑠𝑎𝑠 𝑃𝐴𝑠.
2𝑟 2𝑟
𝑎
→ (𝑎 , 𝑎 + 𝑟 , 𝑎 + 2𝑟 , 𝑎 + 3𝑟 , 𝑎 + 4𝑟 , … ) 𝑒 𝑠𝑢𝑎𝑠 𝑑𝑢𝑎𝑠 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡𝑖çõ𝑒𝑠 𝑠ã𝑜:
𝑟
𝑎 𝑎 +𝑟
→ (𝑎 , 𝑎 + 2𝑟 , 𝑎 + 4𝑟 , … ) 𝑒 → (𝑎 + 𝑟 , 𝑎 + 3𝑟 , 𝑎 + 5𝑟 , … )
2𝑟 2𝑟
𝐸𝑛𝑡ã𝑜, 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎 (𝑛 + 1) 𝑃𝐴𝑠 𝑖𝑛𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑎𝑠, 𝑣𝑎𝑚𝑜𝑠 𝑡𝑒𝑟:
𝑎 𝑎 𝑎 𝒂𝒌 𝒂𝒌 + 𝒓𝒌 𝑎 𝑎 𝑎 𝑎 𝒂𝒌 + 𝒂𝒌 + 𝒓𝒌 𝑎
+ + + ⋯+ + + ⋯+ = + + +⋯+ + ⋯+ =
𝑟 𝑟 𝑟 𝟐𝒓𝒌 𝟐𝒓𝒌 𝑟 𝑟 𝑟 𝑟 𝟐𝒓𝒌 𝑟
𝑎 𝑎 𝑎 𝟐𝒂𝒌 𝑎 𝒓𝒌 𝑛 − 1 𝒓𝒌
+ + + ⋯+ + ⋯+ + = + (ℎ𝑖𝑝ó𝑡𝑒𝑠𝑒 𝑑𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑑𝑢çã𝑜)
𝑟 𝑟 𝑟 𝟐𝒓𝒌 𝑟 𝟐𝒓𝒌 2 𝟐𝒓𝒌
𝑛−1 𝑟 𝑛 − 1 1 (𝑛 + 1) − 1
𝑀𝑎𝑠 + = + = .
2 2𝑟 2 2 2
𝐸 𝑝𝑜𝑟𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑡𝑜 𝑎 𝑓ó𝑟𝑚𝑢𝑙𝑎 é 𝑣á𝑙𝑖𝑑𝑎 𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑙𝑞𝑢𝑒𝑟 𝑞𝑢𝑒 𝑠𝑒𝑗𝑎𝑚 𝑜 𝑛 𝑛𝑎𝑡𝑢𝑟𝑎𝑙.

C.Q.D. Ricardo Normando, 10/12/2023