0% found this document useful (0 votes)
300 views9 pages

X SST Question Paper - Common Examination

The document is the question paper for the Class X Social Science examination. It provides general instructions for the paper including: - The paper has 37 compulsory questions across 6 sections (A-F). - Section A contains 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) of 1 mark each. - Section B contains 4 very short answer questions of 2 marks each to be answered in 40 words or less. - Section C contains 5 short answer questions of 3 marks each to be answered in 60 words or less. - Section D contains 4 long answer questions of 5 marks each to be answered in 120 words or less. - Section E contains 3 case-based questions with sub-questions
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
300 views9 pages

X SST Question Paper - Common Examination

The document is the question paper for the Class X Social Science examination. It provides general instructions for the paper including: - The paper has 37 compulsory questions across 6 sections (A-F). - Section A contains 20 multiple choice questions (MCQs) of 1 mark each. - Section B contains 4 very short answer questions of 2 marks each to be answered in 40 words or less. - Section C contains 5 short answer questions of 3 marks each to be answered in 60 words or less. - Section D contains 4 long answer questions of 5 marks each to be answered in 120 words or less. - Section E contains 3 case-based questions with sub-questions
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 9

COMMON EXAMINATION

CLASS X
SOCIAL SCIENCE (087)

Time Allowed: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 80


Roll No: Date: 25.01.2022
General Instructions
 This question paper contains 9 printed pages.
 There are 37 questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory
 Write down the question number before attempting.
 An additional reading time of 15 minutes.

i. Question paper comprises six sections – A, B, C, D, E and F.


ii. Section A- From 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each
iii. Section B- Questions No 21 to 24 very short answer type questions carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each questions should not exceed 40 words
iv. Section C – contains question 25 to question 29 are short answer type questions carrying 3
marks each, answer to each questions should not exceed 60 words
v. Section D – Question No 30 to 33 are long answer type questions carrying 5 marks each
answer to each questions should not exceed 120 words
vi. Section E – Question No 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of
4 marks each
vii. Section F – Question No 37 is map based carrying 5 marks with two Parts, 37a from history
(2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks)
viii. There is no overall choice in the question paper, However an internal choice has been provided
in few questions, only one of the choice in such questions have to be attempted
ix. In addition to this, separate instructions are given in each section and questions wherever
necessary
SECTION A - MCQs (1X20=20)

1 What did Liberalism stand for the new middle classes in Europe during the 19th century? Identify
the correct statement from the following options.
a. Freedom for individual and equality of all before the law
b. Liberate the people from despotism and help people to form nations
c. To preserve the traditional institutions
d. To restore the monarchies that had been overthrown by Napoleon

2. Match the column A with B


Column A Column B
A. Great Depression i IMF and World Bank
B. Hosay production ii Migrant agricultural worker’s Family
C. Bretton wood institution iii Group of developing countries
D. G-77 iv Riotous carnival

a. A -i, B - iii, C- ii, D- iv


b. A- iii, B – ii, C– iv, D- i
c. A – ii, B – iv, C – i , D – iii
d. A- iv, B – i, c – iii, D – ii
1
3. Study the picture and identify the correct options

a. People were on the move in search of work


b. A shallow underground railway being constructed in Central London
c. The English factory at Surat
d. The first office of the Madras chamber of commerce

Note : The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q.No.3
3. The first symbol of the new era in Britain was ________. Its production boomed in the late
nineteenth century.
a. Cotton
b. Wool
c. Silver
d. Aluminium

4. Arrange the following in the correct sequence


i) Johann Gutenberg developed the first known Printing press
ii) Buddhist missionaries from china introduced hand printing technology into Japan around
768 AD
iii) Catholic priests printed the first Tamil book at Cochin
iv) The religious reformer Martin Luther wrote Ninety five theses
a. i. -iv – iii – ii
b. iii – iv – i – ii
c. ii – i- iv – iii
d. iii – iv – ii – i

5. Land which is left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year is known as
________.
a. Gross cropped area
b. Cultivable waste land
c. Current fallow
d. Grazing land

6. Reserved and protected forests are also referred to as:


a. Unclassed forest
b. Permanent forest estate
c. Open forest
d. Mangrove forest

2
7. Study about which one of the characteristics of minerals is not a concern of Geographers?
a. Minerals as part of earth’s crust for better understanding of landforms
b. Distribution of minerals
c. Economic activities associated with minerals
d. Formation, age, physical and chemical composition of minerals.

8. Correct the following statement and rewrite


When many countries of Europe came together to form the European Union, Netherland was
chosen as its headquarters

9.. Study the following pictures/cartoons and answer the questions that follow:

a. The relations between centre and the state


b. The relations between centre and union territories.
c. The relations between centre and local self government
d. The relations between state and the union territories.

Note : The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q.No. 9
Consider the following statements on the practice of federalism in India. Identify those which hold
true for decentralisation after 1992.
A. Local governments did not have any power or resources of their own.
B. It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government bodies.
C. The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government
bodies.
D. No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other
backward classes.
a. B and C
b. A and C
c. A and D
d. B and D

10. “MNCs keep in mind certain factors before setting up production”. Identify the incorrect option
from the choices given below
a. Availability of cheap skilled and unskilled labour
b. Proximity to markets
c. Presence of a large number of local competitors
d. Favourable government policies

3
11. There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason ( R) mark your answer as per the
codes provided below
Assertion (A) : Democracies do not appear to be very successful in reducing economic inequalities.
Reason (R ) : The majority of Indian Voters are poor
a. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Both Assertion and reason are false

12. Which of the following could lead to a debt trap?


a. The high interest rate for borrowing can mean that the amount to be repaid is greater than the
income of the borrower.
b. Higher cost of borrowing means a larger part of the earnings of the borrowers is used to repay the
loan.
c. The high interest rate for borrowing can mean that the amount to be repaid is lesser than the
income of the borrower.
d. Both a and b

13. Which one among the following pairs is correctly matched?

LIST 1 LIST 2
A. Communist Party of India United Progressive Alliance
B. Mizo National Front Left front
C. Congress Party Regional Party
D. Bharatiya Janata Party National Democratic Alliance

14. Find the incorrect option


a. In the public sector, the government owns most of the assets and provides all the services
b. Governments raise money through taxes and other ways to meet expenses on the services
rendered by it
c. The purpose of the public sector is just to earn profits
d. There are several things needed by the society as a whole but which the private sector will not
provide at a reasonable cost

15. Pick out the correct meaning listed below to define ‘average income’.
a. Average income of the country means the total income of the country.
b. The average income in a country is the income of all unemployed people.
c. The average income is the same as per capita income.
d. The average income includes the value of property held.

16. Choose the appropriate definition for Infant Mortality rate


a. The number of children that die before the age of one year as a proportion of 1000 live children
born in that particular year
b. The number of children that die before the age of one year as a proportion of 100 live children
born in that particular year
c. The number of children that die before the age of five year as a proportion of 1000 live children
born in that five year
d. The number of children that die before the age of 10 months as a proportion of 1000 live children
born in that particular year
4
17. State True or False.
Grameen bank is the success story that met the credit needs of the poor people at reasonable rates in
Bangladesh.

18. Which one of the following is oldest political party of India .


a. Bahujan Samaj Party
b. Indian National Congress
c. The Communist Party
d. Bharatiya Janata Party

19.There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason ( R) mark your answer as per the
codes provided below

Assertion (A):- MNCs can exert a strong influence on product at distant locations
Reason (R):- MNCs set up partnerships with local companies, use local companies for supplies,
compete with local companies or buy them.
a. Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
c. Assertion is true but reason is false.
d. Both Assertion and reason are false

20. Which one of the following is the correct definition of the term Feminist?
a. Having the qualities considered typical of women.
b. A person who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women and men
c. The belief that women and men are equal
d. Men who look like women

SECTION B

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2X4=8)

21. Define the term “Trade Surplus”. How was the income received from trade surplus with India
used by the British during 19th century?

22. What are Placer deposits? Give any two examples of minerals found in such deposits?

23. What are the two aspects of the ideal Federal system?

24. What are Demand Deposits?

SECTION C
SHORT ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (3X5=15)

25. ‘The shift from handwriting to mechanical printing led to the print revolution during the 15th
and 16th Century in Europe.’ Explain.
OR
25. ‘Tremble, therefore, tyrants of the world” Who quoted these words? What did he quote through
this?
26. Write any 3 differences between primitive subsistence farming and intensive subsistence
farming.

5
27. What are the three ways in which the political system in Belgium different and innovative from
Srilanka? Explain

28.What are the steps involved in the estimation of GDP? Who conducts this process?

29. Kerala, with lower per capita income, has a better human development ranking than Punjab. Per
capita income is not the only useful criterion hence it alone should not be used to compare states.
Do you agree? Refer to the table and Discuss.

SECTION D

LONG ANSWER BASED QUESTIONS (5X4=20)

30. Nationalism in Britain was different from the rest of Europe. Elaborate
OR
The Civil Disobedience Movement was different from the Non-Cooperation Movement.’ Support
the statement with examples.

31. How was water conserved in ancient India? What were the different types of hydraulic
structures constructed in Ancient India?
OR
Analyse the physiographic and economic factors that have influenced the distribution pattern of the railway
network in our country.

32. For the given political parties, identify and list the symbols and the states they
exist
1. Shiv Sena
2. Indian Muslim League
3. Pattali Makkal Katchi
4. All India United Democratic Front
5. All India Forward Bloc
OR
Mention different aspects of life in which women are discriminated against or disadvantaged in
India.

33.How has improvement in technology stimulated the globalisation process? Explain with
examples.
OR
State any five differences between public sector and private sector.

6
SECTION-E

CASE BASED QUESTIONS (4x3=12)

34. Read the passage below and answer the following questions
From the late eighteenth century, as you have read in your book last year, the British in India began exporting
opium to China and took tea from China to England. Many Indians became junior players in this trade,
providing finance, procuring supplies, and shipping consignments. Having earned through trade, some of these
businessmen had visions of developing industrial enterprises in India. In Bengal, Dwarkanath Tagore made
his fortune in the China trade before he turned to industrial investment, setting up six joint-stock companies in
the 1830s and 1840s. Tagore’s enterprises sank along with those of others in the wider business crises of the
1840s, but later in the nineteenth century many of the China traders became successful industrialists. In
Bombay, Parsis like Dinshaw Petit and Jamsetjee Nusserwanjee Tata who built huge industrial empires in
India, accumulated their initial wealth partly from exports to China, and partly from raw cotton shipments to
England. Seth Hukumchand, a Marwari businessman who set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta in 1917,
also traded with China. So did the father as well as grandfather of the famous industrialist G.D. Birla.

Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option


i).The first cotton mill came up in India in
a. Bombay in 1854
b. Poona in 1854
c. Ahmedabad in 1854
d. Calcutta in 1854

ii) Which of the following was not a popular destination for the Indian industrialists in 19th Century
a. China
b. Burma
c. Middle East and East Africa
d. Central European countries

iii) Find out the incorrect statement from the following


a. Large part of opium produced in India sent to China not to Europe.
b. Main purpose of Opium trade was to acquire and sell in the European market.
c. Opium trade helped to develop industries in India.
d. Indians were the major players in trade with China as compared to European traders.

iv) Find out the correct statement from the following


a. Colonial government encouraged Indians to sell opium in China and Chinese tea in Europe
b. Colonial government encouraged Indians to sell manufactured goods in Europe
c. Colonial government encouraged Indians to sell raw material and food grains in Europe.
d. Opium was having huge demand in China for medicinal purposes and produced by India.

36. Read the given extract and answer following questions


NTPC is a major power providing corporation in India. It has ISO certification for EMS (Environment
Management System) 14001.The Corporation has a proactive approach for preserving the natural
environment and resources like water, oil and gas and fuels in places where it is setting up power
plants. This has been possible through Optimum utilisation of equipment adopting the latest
techniques and upgrading existing equipment. Minimising waste generation by maximising ash
utilisation. Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance and addressing the question of
special purpose vehicles for afforestation. Reducing environmental pollution through ash pond
management, ash water recycling system and liquid waste management. Ecological monitoring,
reviews and on-line database management for all its power stations.

7
i) NTPC is the abbreviation of______
a. National Textile Production Company
b. National Technology Production Company
c. National Tuberculosis Prevention Corporation
d. National Thermal Power Corporation

ii) The challenge of sustainable development requires integration of economic development with
concerns.
a. social
b. cultural
c. environmental
d. political

iii) Find the odd one out from the following statements regarding the approach of preserving the
natural environment-
a. Providing Greenbelts
b. Upgrading Equipment
c. Deforestation
d. Waste Management

iv) What are the raw materials for thermal power?


a. Coal and Petroleum
b. Boiling water
c. Sun’s heat
d. None of the above

36. Read the passage and answer the following questions


There is something that democracy must provide. In a democracy, we are most concerned with ensuring that
people will have the right to choose their rulers and people will have control over the rulers. Whenever
possible and necessary, citizens should be able to participate in decision making that affects them all.
Therefore, the most basic outcome of democracy should be that it produces a government that is accountable
to the citizen and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens.

i) What are we concerned about in a democracy? (1)


ii) What should be the most basic outcome of democracy? (1)
iii) How is democratic government a transparent government? (2)

SECTION-F
MAP SKILL BASED QUESTION (2+3=5)

37. a) Two features (A) and (B) are marked on the given outline political map of India identify
these places with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines
marked near them.
(A) Place associated with calling off non-cooperation movement
(B) Place where SEP 1920 INC session held
b) On the same outline map of India locate and label any Three of the following with suitable
symbols.
a. Rana Pratap sagar Dam –
b. Major producer state of Coffee –
c. Paradip port -
d. Gandhinagar Software Technology park -

8
Note: The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates
only in lieu of Q. No.37. Attempt any FIVE questions

37.a) Name the Place which is associated with calling off non-cooperation movement

b) Name the Place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in September 1920

c) Name the State where Rana Pratap sagar Dam is located.

d) Name the state which is the major producer of Coffee

e) Name the State where Paradip ‘Sea Port’ is located.

f) Name the State where Gandhinagar Software Technology park.

END OF PAPER
9

You might also like