MCQs

CPR
1. You found a victim who is unresponsive what initial steps would be performed in order to start CPR:
a. Shout for help, check responsiveness, activate EMS, and check breathing & pulse
b. Check responsiveness, activate EMS, and check breathing & pulse
c. Check responsiveness, shout for help, check breathing & pulse and activate EMS
d. Check responsiveness, shout for help & activate EMS, check breathing & pulse

2. What is the recommended compression rate for high-quality CPR?

a. 50 to 60 compressions
compressions per minute
b. 70 to 80 compressions
compressions per minute
c. 90 to 100 compressions per minute
d. 100 to 120 compressions per minute

3. How often should you switch chest compression to avoid fatigue?

a. About every 2 minutes

b. About every 3 minutes

c. About every 4 minutes
d. About every 5 minutes

4. Which action should you take immediately after providing an AED shock?
a. Check the pulse rate
b. Prepare to deliver a second shock
c. Resume chest compressions
d. Start rescue breathing

5. What is the maximum interval for pausing chest compressions?

a. 10 seconds
b. 15 seconds
c. 20 seconds
d. 25 seconds

6. How does complete chest recoil contribution to effective CPR?

a. Allows maximum blood return to the heart
b. Reduces rescuer fatigue
c. Reduces the risk of rib fractures
f ractures
d. Increases the rate of chest compressions
7. A 35 years old lady was shopping in a mall & suddenly became unresponsive and does not have
pulse, AED has arrived,
arrived, what are
are steps of AED that needs
needs to be
be followed:
followed:
a. Power on the AED and then follow the prompts
b. Attach pads, power on, analyze heart rhythm, deliver shock, check pulse & begin CPR
c. Analyze heart rhythm, power on, attach pads, begin CPR &deliver shock as indicated
d. Begin CPR, deliver shock as indicated, attach pads, power on analyze heart rhythm

8. What should be the depth of chest compression of an adult victim:

a. Compress chest at least 4cm or 1.5 inches
b. Compress chest at least 5cm or 2 inches
c. Compress chest at least 6cm or 2.5 inches
d. Compress chest at least 7cm or 3 inches

9. CPR is a series of lifesaving actions that improve the chance of survival after cardiac arrest.
a. True
b. False

10. Early recognition and CPR are crucial for survival from cardiac arrest.
a. True
b. False.

11. A victim probably has a neck injury what is the correct way to open the airway.
a. Head tilt chin lift.
b. Jaw thrust.
c. Open mouth with tongue depressor
d. None of the above

12. How long should a pulse check last?

a. As long as possible.
b. No more than 2 seconds
seconds
c. No more than 5 seconds
seconds
d. No more than 10 seconds

13. Where should you check for a pulse in an adult?

a. Carotid artery
b. Brachial artery
c. Femoral artery
d. Radial artery

14. Where should you check for a pulse in an infant?

a. Carotid artery
b. Brachial artery
c. Femoral artery

d. Radial artery
15. A 50-year-old man who has been eating steak in a restaurant abruptly stands up and grabs his neck.
The rescuer determines that the victim is choking. The best response is to:
a. Use back blows
b. Do nothing; wait until the victim becomes unresponsive, then start CPR
c. Use abdominal thrusts
d. Use upward chest thrusts
16. Chest compressions for an adult are performed:
a. At a rate between 60 and 80 compressions per minute
b. At a rate of at least 80 compressions per minute
c. At a rate between 80 and 100 compressions per minute
d. At a rate between 100 and 120 compressions per minute

17. The ratio of compressions to breaths in adults is:

a. 15:1
b. 10:2
c. 20:2
d. 30:2

18. The effectiveness of CPR can be estimated by:

a. Arterial diastolic blood pressure
b. Quantitative waveform capnography
c. Central venous oxygen saturation
d. All of the above

19. The correct sequence for basic life support is:

a. ABC - Airway, Breathing, Compressions
b. ACB - Airway, Compressions, Breathing
c. BCA - Breathing, Compressions, Airway
d. CAB - Compressions, Airway, Breathing

20. You respond to a patient in distress and find an unresponsive male lying on the floor gasping for air.
What step should you take next?
a. Begin rescue breathing
b. Initiate CPR
c. Check pulse
d. Assume choking and perform abdominal thrusts

21. You respond to a swimming pool where a person is floating face down and is unresponsive. Which
action do you perform first?
a. High-Quality CPR
b. Apply AED
c. Heimlich Maneuver to clear airway
d. Suctioning
22. You are treating a cardiac arrest patient. The AED is having problems analyzing the rhythm. Which
of the following is the correct response?
a. Go find another AED
b. Pause CPR to troubleshoot
c. Read the owner’s manual

d. Continue chest compressions

Respiratory Arrest
23. A 45 year old man is having pulse but not breathing. The rescuers should:
a. Give 1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds .
b. Give 1 breath every 6 to 8 seconds.
c. Give 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds
d. Do nothing and wait for
for response

24. Your patient is not responsive and is not breathing. You can palpate a carotid pulse. Which action do
you take next?
a. Apply an AED
b. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
c. Start an IV
d. Start rescue breathing

25. Which action is likely to cause air to enter the victim’s stomach (gastric inflation) during bag-mask
ventilation?
a. Giving breaths over 1 second
b. Ventilating too quickly
c. Providing a good seal between the face and the mask
d. Providing just enough volume for the chest to rise

26. What action minimize the risk of air entering in to the victim’s stomach during bag-mask
bag-mask ventilation?
a. Ventilating until you see the chest rise
b. Ventilating as quickly as you can
c. Squeezing the bag with both hands
d. Delivering the largest breath you can

27. Respiratory failure includes:

a. It’s a clinical state of inadequate oxygenation, ventilation or both
b. It’s a clinical state of adequate oxygenation, ventilation or both
c. It’s a clinical state of inadequate ventilation
d. It’s a clinical state of inadequate oxygenation

28. If a victim is unconscious who is having agonal gasps, what airway management will be used first:
 a. Perform bag mask ventilation and use oro-pharyngeal airway device
b. Perform bag mask ventilation and use nasopharyngeal airway device
c. Perform bag mask ventilation and use laryngeal mask airway device
d. Perform bag mask ventilation via endotracheal airway device

29. What is the correct technique of measurement for nasopharyngeal airway to be used semiconscious
patient?
a. From tip of the mouth to the earlobe
b. From tip of the nose to the angle of mandible
c. From tip of the mouth to the angle of jaw
d. From tip of the nose to the earlobe

30. LMA stands for:

a. Endotracheal tube
b. Laryngeal mask airway
c. Laderal mask airway
d. Oral airway

31. Advance airway device includes:

a. Endotracheal tube, Laryngeal mask airway, combitube, oral airway
b. Endotracheal tube, Laryngeal mask airway, combitube, esophageal tube
c. Endotracheal tube, Laryngeal mask airway, combitube, nasal airway
d. Endotracheal tube, Laryngeal mask airway, combitube, oral airway, nasal airway

32. An adult patient in respiratory arrest with a pulse is ventilated via bag valve mask:
a. 8 to 10 times per minute
b. 10 to 12 times per minute
c. 12 to 14 times per minute
d. 14 to 16 times per minute

Tachycardia
33. A 57 – year- old women has palpitation chest discomfort, and tachycardia. The monitor shows a
regular wide complex QRS at a rate of 180/min. she becomes diaphoretic and her blood pressure is
80/60 mm Hg. Which action do you take next? Identify Rhythm
a. Establish IV access
b. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
c. Perform electrical cardioversion
d. Seek expert consultation

34. A monitored patient in ICU developed a sudden onset of narrow-complex tachycardia at rate of
220/min. the patient’s blood pressure is 128/58 mm Hg, the PETO2
PET O2 is 38 mm Hg, and the pulse
oximetry reading is 98%. There is vascular access in the left arm, and the patient has not been given
 any vasoactive drugs. A 12-lead ECG confirms a supraventricular tachycardia with no evidence of
ischemia or infraction. The heart rate has not responded to vagal maneuvers. What is your next
action?
a. Administer adenosine 6 mg IV push
b. Administer amiodarone 300 mg IV push
c. Perform synchronized
synchronized cardioversion at 50 J
d. Perform synchronized
synchronized cardioversion at 200 J

35. A Patient with STEMI has ongoing chest discomfort. Heparin 4000 units IV bolus and a heparin
infusion of 1000 units per hour are being administered. The patient did not take aspirin because he
has a history of gastritis, which was treated 5 years ago. What is your action?
a. Give aspirin 160 to 325 mg to chew
b. Give clopidogrel 300 mg orally
c. Give enteric-coated aspirin 75 mg orally
d. Give enteric-coated aspirin 325 mg rectally

36. A 35-year-old woman has palpitation, light-headedness, and a stable tachycardia. The monitor shows
a regular narrow-complex QRS at a rate of 180/min. vagal maneuvers have not been effective in
terminating the rhythm. An IV has been established. Which drug should be administered?
a. Adenosine 6 mg
b. Atropine 0.5 mg
c. Epinephrine 2 to 10 mcg/kg per minute
d. Lidocaine 1 mg/kg

37. A patient has a rapid irregular wide- complex tachycardia. The ventricular rate is 138/min. He is
asymptomatic, with a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg. He has a history of angina. What action is
recommended next?
a. Giving adenosine 6 mg IV bolus
b. Giving lidocaine 1 to 1.5 mg IV bolus
c. Performing synchronized cardioversion
d. Seeking expert consultation

38. Narrow-complex
Narrow-complex supraventricular
supraventricular tachycardia
tachycardia is best ttreated
reated with:
with:
a. Adenosine
b. Amiodarone
c. Atropine
d. Epinephrine

39. 35- Year -old woman patient with a chief complaint of palpitations. She has no chest discomfort,
shortness of breath or light-headedness.
light-headedness. Her blood pressure is 120/78 mm Hg. Which intervent
intervention
ion is
indicated first
a. Adenosine 3 mg IV bolus
 b. Adenosine 12 mg IV slow push (over 1 to 2 minutes)
c. Metoprolol 5 mg IV and repeat if necessary
d. Vagal maneuvers

40. Which of the following is the correct initial dose of adenosine for the treatment of supraventricular
tachycardia?
a. 1 mg IV
b. 6 mg IV
c. 12 mg IV
d. 100 mg IV

41. A 45 year old woman with a history of palpitations develops light headedness and palpitations. She
has received adenosine 6mg IV for the rhythm SVT, without conversion of the rhythm. She is now
extremely apprehensive. Her blood pressure is 128/70 mm Hg what is the next appropriate
intervention?
a) Administer adenosine 12 mg IV
b) Perform unsynchronized cardioversion
cardioversion
c) Perform vagal maneuvers
d) Perform synchronized cardioversion

42. At what heart rate does tachycardia usually become symptomatic?

a. 100 bpm
b. 60 bpm
c. 150 bpm
d. 50 bpm

43. Which of the following are treated with synchronized shocks?

a. Unstable atrial fibrillation
b. Sinus tachycardia
c. VT without a pulse
d. VF

44. Tachycardia may be

a. Pulseless
b. Stable
c. Unstable
d. All of the above

45. Symptoms of Unstable tachycardia include:

a. Hypotension/Shock
b. Acute altered mental status
c. Ischemic chest discomfort
d. All of the above
46. A 35 years old patient came in ER with cold clammy, diaphoretic, mild chest pain. His vitals are BP
80/40, pulse 180/min, respiration 24/min and rhythm shows Ventricular
Ventricular tachycardia. You will
immediately
immediate ly prepare for:
a. Synchronized Shock
b. Unsynchronized Shock
c. Medication
d. None of the above

47. Initial recommended dose for synchronized cardio version for unstable SVT is
a. 50-100j
b. 120-200j
c. 100-120j
d. None of the above

48. Initial recommended dose for synchronized cardio version for unstable VT is
a. 50j
b. 120j
c. 100j
d. None of the above

49. Initial recommended dose for synchronized cardio version for unstable Afib is
a. 50-100j
b. 120-200j biphasic
c. 100-120j
d. None of the above

50. Before synchronized cardio version, following interventions are need to consider:
a. Consent and Sedation
b. Consent only
c. Sedation only
d. None of the above

51. If the patient is unstable but has a pulse with regular uniform wide complex VT ( monomorphic VT),
Patient will treat by
a. Synchronized cardio version and an initial shock of 100j
b. Unsynchronized shock and an initial shock of 100j
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
52. If the patient is unstable but has a pulse with irregular wide complex VT ( polymorphic VT), Patient
will treat by
a. Synchronized cardio version and an initial shock of 200j
b. Unsynchronized shock and an initial shock of 200j
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

53. If the patient is unstable but has a pulse with regular uniform narrow complex SVT, Patient will treat
by
a. Synchronized cardio version and an initial shock of 50-100j
b. Unsynchronized shock and an initial shock of 50-100j
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

54. Synchronized shocks are recommended for patients with

a. Unstable SVT/VT
b. Unstable VT
c. Unstable Afib/flutter
d. All of the above

55. 40 year old male complaining of palpitation, chest pain and found in confused state, which is the
priority action
action nurse should
should take?
take?
a. Sedate and cardiovert.
b. Defibrillate at 50 Joules.
c. Administer adenosine 6 mg IV.
d. Administer Paracetamol 1gm

56. 50 years old female came in ER with complain of palpitation, monitor shows heart rate 180 b/min,
which intervention is appropriate for this patient
a. Cardiovert at 50 J.
b. Administer adenosine 6 mg IV push along with 20 ml NS flush and elevate the extremity
e xtremity.
c. Defibrillate at 200 J along with chest compressions.
d. Administer beta blockers

57. A young male came in ER with complain of chest discomfort and monitor shows Atrial Fibrillation,
which action the nurse consider at priority?
a. Synchronized cardiovert at 150 J.
b. Administer beta blockers or calcium channel blockers.
c. Defibrillate at 200 J along with chest compressions
d. Administer adenosine 6 mg IV push along with 20 ml NS flush and elevate the extremity
58. 55 year old female presented at triage with symptoms of palpitation and drowsiness, monitors show
Monomorphic Ventricular Tachycardia, HR 170 b/min, RR 40, SPO2 87%, GCS 13/15, BP 70/40
mmHg, what is the best action nurse will consider to help this patient?
a. Administer Amiodarone 150 mg IV push.
b. Synchronized cardiovert at 100 J.
c. Administer Midazolam 2.5-3 mg IV push.
d. B & C.

59. Unsynchronized shock or Difib shocks recommended for patients with

a. Pulseless VT/Vfib
b. Polymorphic VT
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

60. Initial recommended dose for synchronized cardio version for unstable Flutter is
a. 50-100j
b. 120-200j
c. 100j
d. None of the above

61. Before cardio version consider the followings:

a. Adenosine
b. Sedation
c. Consent
d. b & c

62. If the patient with regular narrow-complex SVT or a monomorphic wide-complex tachycardia is not
hypotensive, health care provider may administer following while preparing for synchronized cardio-
version:
a. Epinephrine
b. Amioderone
c. Adenosine
d. None of the above
63. Sinus tachycardia is
a. Heart rate greater than 100/m and does not exceed 120-130/min
b. It cause external influence on the heart such as fever, anemia, hypotension, blood loss or
exercise
c. Sinus tachycardia has gradual onset and gradual termination
d. All of the above

64. In sinus tachycardia, the goal is to:

a. Give medicine on time
b. Identify and treat the underlying
underlying systemic cause
c. To calculate the cardiac out put
 d. None of the above

65. If a tachycardia and a pulse are present, perform assessment and management steps guided by :
a. BLS Assessment
b. Primary Assessment
c. Secondary Assessment
d. All of the above

66. Wide complex tachycardia is define as:

a. PQRS of 0.12 second or more
b. QRS of 0.12 second or more
c. PQRS of 0.12 second or less
d. QRS of 0.12 second or less

67. The most common forms of life-threatening wide complex tachycardia likely to deteriorate to VF are
a. Monomorphic VT
b. Polymorphic VT
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

68. In VT or SVT stable, first drug of choice is:

a. Adenosine 3mg
b. Adenosine 6mg
c. Adenosine 12mg
d. Adenosine 16mg

69. The first therapy for stable narrow complex SVT is

a. Attempt vagal maneuvers
b. Give adenosine
c. Deep breathing
d. Brisk walking

70. If vagal maneuvers is ineffective in stable SVT, give

a. Adenosine 3mg
b. Adenosine 6mg
c. Adenosine 12mg
d. Adenosine 16mg

71. If 6mg Adenosine is ineffective in stable SVT, give

a. Adenosine 3mg
b. Adenosine 6mg
c. Adenosine 12mg
d. Adenosine 16mg
72. The initial dose of adenosine ___mg should be given if patient is on dipyridamole or carbamazepine:
a. Adenosine 3mg
b. Adenosine 6mg
c. Adenosine 12mg
d. Adenosine 16mg

73. Adenosine may cause bronchospasm, therefore, Adenosine should not be given to patient with
a. Asthma
b. COPD
c. Bronchoplastic
d. All of the above

Bradycardia
74. In which situation does bradycardia require treatment?
a. 12-lead ECG showing a normal sinus rhythm
b. Hypotension
c. Diastolic blood pressure greater
greater than 90 mm Hg
d. Systolic blood pressure greater than 100 mm Hg

75. A patient has sinus bradycardia with the heart rate of 36/min. Atropine has been administered to a
total dose of 3 mg. A transcutaneous pacemaker has failed to capture. The patient is confused, and her
blood pressure
pressure is 88/56 mm Hg. Which therapy
therapy is now indicated?
a. Atropine 1 mg
b. Epinephrine 2 to 10 mcg/min
c. Adenosine 6 mg
d. Normal saline
saline 250 mL
mL to 500 mL
mL bolus

76. Your patient is a 56-year-old woman with a history of type 2 diabetes who reports feeling dizzy. She
is pale and diaphoretic. Her blood pressure is 80/ 60 mmHg. The cardiac monitor documents the

rhythm shown here. She is receiving oxygen at 4 L/min by nasal cannula, and an IV has been
established. What do you administer next?

a) Atropine 0.5 mg IV
b) Dopamine at 2 to 10 mcg/kg per minute
c) Glucose 50% IV push
d) Morphine sulfate 4 mg IV
77. A patient with sinus bradycardia and a heart rate 42/min has diaphoresis and a blood pressure of
80/60 mm Hg. What is the initial dose of atropine?
a. 1 mg
b. 0.5 mg
c. 2 mg
d. 3 mg

78. Hypotension following cardiac arrest is NOT treated with:

a. IV calcium infusion
b. IV dopamine infusion
c. IV epinephrine infusion
d. IV Ringer’s lactate or IV normal saline

79. True or False: The initial recommended dosage of atropine for symptomatic bradycardia in an adult
victime is 0.5 mg IV.
a. TRUE

b. FALSE

80. Identify the below rhythm and propose the first action?

a. Atropine maximum 3 mg IV stat

b. Transcutaneous pacing
c. Adenosine 6 mg
d. Epinephrine 1mg

81. identify the rhythm

a. Normal sinus
sinus rhythm
b. Sinus bradycardia
c. Sinus tachycardia
 d. None of the above

82. Based upon above rhythm which treatment option you will select?
a. Atropine 0.5 mg
b. Transvenous pacing
c. Dopamine infusion
d. Epinephrine Infusion

83. Patient having bradycardia may present the following symptoms?

a. Decreased LOC
b. SPO2 100%
c. BP 130/90
d. Respiration 20/min

84. In patients with bradycardia atropine is ineffective which treatment option you will consider?
a. Dopamine infusion @ 2 to 20 mcg/kg per min
b. Dopamine Infusion @ 2 to 20 mcg per min
c. Epinephrine infusion @ 2 to 10 mcg/kg per min
d. Lidocaine infusion @ 10 mg/10 ml

85. Atropine can be used cautiously in patients with?

a. Acute coronary ischemia
b. Stroke
c. CKD
d. Headache

86. Indications of transcutaneous pacing include all of the following except?

a. Tachycardia
b. Bradycardia
c. Hypotension
d. Altered mental status

87. To perform TCP following steps need to be followed in sequence?

a. Turn on pacer, place electrodes, set the current & set the rate per min.
b. Place electrodes, turn on pacer, set the demand rate and set the current in mA .
c. Set the rate per min, turn on pacer, place electrodes and set the current in mA.

ACS
88. What is the initial management of acute coronary syndrome (ACS) patient:
a. Oxygen, aspirin, nitroglycerin, opiates, beta blocker and heparin
b. Oxygen, adenosine, nitroglycerin, opiates, fibrinolytic and heparin
c. Oxygen, aspirin, nitroglycerin, opiates, fibrinolytic and ACE inhibitors
d. Oxygen, aspirin, nitroglycerin, opiates, fibrinolytic and heparin
89. A patient 12-lead ECG is transmitted by the paramedics and shows a STEMI. The patient has
resolution of moderate (5/10) chest pain after 3 doses of sublingual nitroglycerin. Blood pressure is
104/ 70 mm Hg. Which intervention is most important in reducing this patient’s in -hospital and 30-
day mortality rate?
a. Application of transcutaneous pacemaker
b. Atropine administration
c. Nitroglycer
Nitroglycerin
in administration
administration
d. Reperfusion therapy

90. What are the types/ Characteristics of 12 lead ECG of Acute Coronary Syndrome patients:
a. STEMI, NSTEMI
b. Low/intermediate-risk ACS
c. High/intermediate-risk ACS
d. All of the above

91. What is the STEMI chain of Survival includes:

a. Rapid recognition, EMS dispatch, assessment and diagnosis
b. Rapid EMS dispatch, assessment and diagnosis & treatment
c. Rapid recognition, EMS dispatch, assessment and diagnosis & treatment
d. Rapid recognition, EMS dispatch & treatment

92. The primary goal of the ACS patient is:

a. Identification, prevention and treatment of life threatening emergencies
b. Identification, relief of chest discomfort and prevention of life threatening emergencies
c. Identification, relief of chest discomfort, prevention and treatment of life threatening
emergencies
d. Relief of chest discomfort, prevention and treatment of life threatening emergencies

93. The average time to start PCI after onset of acute coronary symptoms:
a. Within 60 minutes
b. Within 90 minutes
c. Within 70 minutes
d. Within 80 minutes

94. What is the time frame from onset of symptoms for reperfusion therapy in ACS patients?
a. < 12 hours
b. < 10 hours
c. < 14 hours
d. < 16 hours

95. The recommended dose of aspirin is:

a. 160-325 mg
 b. 180-345 mg
c. 100-250 mg
d. 75-120 mg

96. Nitroglycerine
Nitroglycerine is contraindica
contraindicated
ted in which
which patients;
patients;
a. LV infarction, hypotension and recent use of phosphodiesterase inhibitor
b. RV infarction, hypertension and recent use of phosphodiesterase inhibitor
c. RV infarction, hypotension and old use of phosphodiesterase inhibito
inhibitorr
d. RV infarction, hypotension and recent use of phosphodiesterase inhibitor

97. Aspirin is contraindicated

contraindicated in which of the following conditions for ACS patients:
a. Recent history of aspirin allergy and active bleeding
b. No recent history of aspirin allergy
allergy and active bleeding
bleeding
c. Old history of aspirin allergy and active bleeding
d. Recent history of adenosine allergy and active bleeding

98. Door to needle time is for

f or ACS patients:
a. 30 minutes
b. 40 minutes
c. 50 minutes
d. 60 minutes

99. Recommended ED door to balloon inflation time for a STEMI patient is:
a. No longer than
than 15 minutes
minutes
b. No longer than
than 30 minutes
minutes
c. No longer than
than 60 minutes
minutes
d. No longer than 90 minutes

100. The goal for initiation of fibrinolytic therapy

therapy in appropriate stroke patients is:
a. within 4 hours of arrival to the ED
b. within 6 hours of arrival to the ED

c.
d. within
within 31 hours of arrival
hour of arrivaltotothe
theED
ED

101. A male patient experiences crushing chest pain. You respond and are performing initial care.
What drug should you consider giving in all Acute Coronary Syndrome (ACS) patients?
a. Calpol
b. Aspirin
c. Narcotic
d. High Flow O 2

102. Select the statement which is true about heparin therapy

a. Heparin is thrombolytic agent
b. Heparin is always used as adjunct forf or PCI and fibrinolytic therapy

c. Heparin is always given as SC and can be given 1 hourly for therapy.

d. Heparin is contraindicated for patients with STEMI.
103. Treatment goals for IV nitroglycerin
a. Relief of ischemia and chest discomfort
b. For pulmonary edema associated with MI
c. Hypertension associated with acute myocardial infarction
d. All of the above

104. An EMT discovers STEMI on a 12-lead ECG in the ambulance. The best option is to:
a. Take the patient to a hospital capable of providing open-heart surgery, regardless of fibrinolysis
or PCI capability
b. Take the patient to a hospital capable of providing fibrinolysis only (not PCI), 5 minutes away
c. Provide fibrinolysis in the ambulance then take the patient to a hospital capable of providing PCI,
15 minutes away
d. Take the patient to a hospital capable of providing PCI, 15 minutes away

105. A patient with possible STEMI has ongoing chest discomfort. What is a contraindication to
nitrate administration
administration
a. Anterior wall myocardial infarction
b. Heart rate less the 90/min
c. Systolic blood pressure greater than 180 mmHg

d. Use of a phosphodiesterase inhibitor within the previous 24 hours.

Stroke
106. Which of the following signs is NOT part of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale?
a. Facial droop
b. Arm drift
c. Speech abnormality
d. Confusion or disorientation

107. A 62 year- old man suddenly experienced difficulty speaking and left sided weakness. He meets
initial criteria for fibrinolytic therapy and a CT scan of the brain is ordered. Which best describes the
guidelines for antiplatelet and fibrinolytic therapy?
a. Give aspirin 160 to 325 mg to be chewed immediately
b. Give aspirin 160 mg and clopidogrel 75 mg orally
c. Give heparin if the CT scan is negative for hemorrhage
d. Hold aspirin for at least 24 hours if rtPA is administered

108. The average time to start fibrinolytic therapy after onset of symptoms in stroke is
a. Within 3 to 4.5 hours
b. Within 4 to 5 hours
c. Within 5 to 6 hrs
d. Within 12 hours
109. You are caring for a 66-year-old man with a history of a large intracerebral hemorrhage 2 month
ago. He is being evaluated for another acute stroke. The CT scan is negative for hemorrhage. The
patient is receiving oxygen via
via nasal cannula
cannula at
at 2 L/min,
L/min, and an IV has been
been established.
established. His blood
pressure is 180/100mm Hg. Which
Which drug do you
you anticipate
anticipate giving to this patient?
patient?
a. Aspirin
b. Glucose (D50)
c. Nicardipine
d. rtPA
110. Your co-worker is acting strange. Which of the following suggests the possibility of a stroke?
a. Slurred speech
b. Dizziness
c. Arm weakness
d. All of the above

111. The goal of stroke chain is to:

a. Minimize brain injury
b. Maximize the patient's recovery
c. Minimize brain recovery
d. A and B

112. The 8 D’s of stroke care are:

a. Detection, Dispatch, Delivery, Door, Discussion, Decision, Drug, Disposition
b. Detection, Downgrade, Dispatch, Delivery, Discussion, Decision, Drug, Disposition
c. Detection, Dispatch, Delivery, Door, Data, Decision, Drug, Disposition
d. Detection, Decision, Dispatch, Delivery, Door, Defibrillator, Drug, Disposition

113. Which fibrinolytic therapy is preferred and approved for stroke patients:
a. SK
b. rtPA
c. Heparin
d. Enoxaparin

114. After fibrinolytic therapy; anti-coagulant or anti platelets can be start after:
a. 12 hrs
b. 24 hrs
c. 28 hrs
d. 72 hrs

115. Cincinnati Scale identifies 3 physical findings that are:

a. Facial Drop, thumb drift, confused speech
b. Facial drop, smile drop, eyes drift
c. Facial drop, arm drift, abnormal speech
d. Facial drop, arm drop, foot drop

116. When to establish time of a patient if he wakes up from sleep with symptoms of stroke:
a. As soon patient wakes from sleep that time represents Zero
b. As soon patient identifies that time represent zero
c. As soon patient assessed by EMS
d. The time zero was the last time the patient was seen to be normal.
117. CT Scan should be performed with ___ mins of arrival of patients to ED:
a. 10 mins
b. 25 mins
c. 30 mins
d. 45 mins

118. Contraindications
Contraindications of rtPA:
a. Head trauma and stroke within 3 months
b. Intracranial hemorrhage
c. Systolic BP of >185 mmhg
d. All of the above

119. Which includes in stroke pathway:

a. Treatment of hypo and hyperglycemia
b. Medications for seizures
c. Speech therapy
d. All of the above

Team Work RRT

120. The leader in team resuscitation must:
a. Be able to perform all the skills if needed.
b. Be certified as a leader
c. Be a physician
d. Undergo leadership training

121. The components of Rapid Response Team are,

a. Event detection and response triggering arm
b. Administrative support
c. Quality monitoring
d. All of the above.

122. The Rapid Response system is critically depending on early identification and activation
immediately summon the team to the patient bedside.
a. True
b. False

123. It is essential to the success of the resuscitation attempt that members of a high-performance team
are,
a. Clear about role assignments
b. Well practiced in resuscitation skills
c. Knowledge about the algorithms
d. All of the above.
124. Dose of Labetelol IV push for acute reperfusion therapy:
a. 10-20 mg over 1-2 mins
b. 10-20 mg over 5-10 mins
c. 20-30 mg over 1-2 mins
d. 20-30 mg over 5-10 mins

125. Monitoring
a. Every of Blood pressure
15 mins after
for 1 hrs rtPA
then every 30 mins for 2 hrs then every 1 hrs for 4 hrs.
b. Every 15 mins for 2 hrs then every 30 mins for f or 6 hrs then every 1 hrs for 16 hrs.
c. Every 15 mins for 1 hrs then every 30 mins for 4 hrs then every 1 hrs for 8 hrs.
d. Every 15 mins for 1 hrs then every 30 mins for 4 hrs then every 1 hrs for 12 hrs.

126. The maximum dose of labetelol infusion is

a. 1-2 mg/min
b. 2-4 mg/min
c. 2-6 mg/min
d. 2-8 mg/min

Cardiac Arrest
127. What is the compression and ventilation ratio with an advance airway device for an all ages?
a. Compression rate at an 80-100/min and deliver 1 breath every 5 seconds
b. Compression rate at a 100-120/min and deliver 1 breath every 6 seconds
c. Compression rate at a 100-120/min and deliver 1 breath every 7 seconds
d. Compression rate at a 100-120/min and deliver 1 breath every 8 seconds

128. What is the indication for the use of magnesium in cardiac arrest?
a. Ventricular tachycardia associated with a normal QT interval
b. Shock-refractory monomorphic ventricular tachycardia
c. Pulseless ventricular tachycardia–associated torsades de pointes
d. Shock-refractory ventricular fibrillation

129. A patient is in cardiac arrest.

arrest. Ventricular fibrillation has been refractory to an initial shock. If no
pathway for
for medication
medication is in place, which
which method
method is preferred?
preferred?
a. Central line
b. Endotracheal tube
c. External jugular vein
d. IV or IO

130. Which intervention

intervention is most appropriate for the treatme
treatment
nt of a patient in asystole?
a. Atropine
b. Defibrillation
c. Epinephrine
d. Transcutaneous pacing
131. You arrive on the scene with the code team. High-quality CPR is in progress. An AED has
previously advised” no shock indicated”
indicated” A rhythm check
check now fins asystole.
asystole. After resuming
resuming high
high-
quality compression, which action do you take next?
a. Call for a pulse check
b. Establish IV or IO access
c. Insert a laryngeal airway
d. Perform endotracheal intubation

132. A patient is in refractory ventricular

ventricular fibrillation. High-quality CPR is in progress. One dose of
epinephrine was given after the second shock. An antiarrhythmic drug was given immediately after
the third shock. You are the team leader. Which medication do you order next?
a. Epinephrine 1 mg
b. Epinephrine 3 mg
c. Sodium bicarbonate 50 mEq
d. A second dose of the antiarrhy
antiarrhythmic
thmic drug

133. A patient is in pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Two shocks and 1 dose of epinephrine have been
given. Which drug should be given next?
a. Adenosine 6 mg
b. Amiodarone 300 mg
c. Epinephrine 3 mg
d. Lidocaine 0.5 mg/kg

134. You arrive on the scene to find CPR in progress. Nursing staff report the patient was recovering
from a pulmonary embolism and suddenly collapsed. Two shocks have been delivered, and an IV has
been initiated.
initiated. What
What do you
you administer
administer now?
a. Atropine 0.5 mg IV
b. Epinephrine 1 mg IV
c. Endotracheal intubation
d. Transcutaneous pacing

135. A patient was in refractory ventricular fibrillation. A third shock has just been administered. You
team looks to you for instructions. What is your next action?
a. Check the carotid pulse
b. Give amiodarone 300 mg IV
c. Give atropine 1 mg IV
d. Resume high-quality chest compressions

136. A patient is in refractory ventricular fibrillation and has received multiple appropriate
defibrillation shocks, epinephrine 1 mg IV twice, and an initial dose of amiodarone 300mg IV. The
patient is incubated. Which best
best describes
describes the recommende
recommended d second dose of amiodarone
amiodarone for this
this
patient?
a. 1 mg/kg IV push
b. 1 to 2 mg/min infusion

c. 150 mg
d. 300 mg IV
IV push
push
137. The most reliable method of confirming and monitoring correct ET tube placement is:
a. Wave form capnography
b. CT scan
c. Calorimetric device
d. Airway device

138. What is the correct depth of chest compressions in an adult?

a. As deep as possible.
b. Up to 2 Inches .
c. Between 2 and 4 inches.
d. At least 3 inches.

139. Pulseless electrical activity is treated with _______?

a. Epinephrine
b. Magnesium
c. Atropine
d. Unsynchronized cardio version

140. During cardiopulmonary resuscitation, deliver oxygen at:

a. 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula
b. Titrated to keep oxygen saturation ≥ 85%
c. Titrated to keep oxygen saturation ≥ 94%
d. 100%

141. The most common reversible causes of PEA are called the "H's and T's" and include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. Hypovolemic
b. Hypoxia
c. Hypocalcaemia
d. Tamponade
142. Asystole is a common rhythm and should be treated with all the following EXCEPT:
a. CPR
b. Ventilations
c. Defibrillation
d. Epinephrine

143. Agonal gasps are not normal breathing may be present in the first few minutes after sudden
cardiac arrest.
a. True
b. False

144. If IV access is unable to maintained than drugs can be given through

a. Intraosseous route
b. Oral route
c. Subcutaneous route
d. Central route
145. Core performance measures are
a. Bystander CPR
b. Defibrillation
c. Survival to hospital discharged
d. All of the above

146. In shockable rhythm Inj Epinephrine should be given after

st
a. After 1 ndshock
b. After 2 shock
c. After 3rd shock
d. As soon as CPR starts

147. Dose of 1st amiodrone IV push for

f or pulseless VFib is
a. 150 mg
b. 300 mg
c. 600 mg
d. Both A and B is applicable

148. Advance airway placement can be checked by

a. Auscultation
b. CO2 detector
c. Waveform capnography
d. All of the above

149. Once the advance airway in place, the compression to breathing ratio would change to
a. The compressions will remain continue at 100-120 compressions and breathing will
continue at 1 breath every 6 seconds
b. 30 compressions: 2 breaths
c. 15 compressions: 2 breaths
d. The compressions will remain continue at 100 compressions and breathing will continue at 1
breath every
every 6-8 seconds
seconds

150. High quality CPR includes:

a. Allow chest to recoil
b. Minimizing interruptions during CPR
c. Push hard and fast (100-120 compressions/min)
d. All of the above

151. In a biphasic device for pulseless VT/VFib; the energy dose should be
a. 200 J for first shock and continue the same J for subsequent shocks
b. 360 J for first shock and continue the same J for subsequent shocks
c. 200 J for first shock and 300 J for 2nd shock and 360 J for 3rd shock and continue same for
subsequent shocks
d. 200 J for first shock and 360 J for 2nd shock and continue same J for subsequent shocks
152. Which statement is correct about defibrillation
a. Hold CPR till defibrillator get charged for required energy dosage
b. Wait after analyzing the rhythm and resume CPR after giving the shock
c. Resume CPR while the defibrillator is charging
d. None of the above

153. In arrest, the pulse should be checked after

a. After every cycle
b. After 2 mins
c. You see, any organized rhythm
d. During each hands off

154. Which statement is true about vasopressin in the 2015 guidelines

a. Is a substitute for epinephrine
b. Vasopressin is removed from the cardiac arrest algorithm
c. One 40 unit IV push can be given
d. Can be given after 2 nd or 3rd shock

155. During rescue breaths pulse should be checked after

a. Every 1 min
b. Every 2 mins
c. Every 3 mins
d. No need to check till signs of life is observed
observed

156. Which of the following drug is considered as the treatment

treatment for pulseless VT/VFib
a. Amiodrone
b. Adenosine
c. Magnesium sulfate
d. Both A and B

157. What are reversible causes:

a. Hypovolemia, hypoxia, acidosis, hypo/hyperkalemia, hypothermia, hemothorax, cardiac
temponade, toxins, cardiac thrombosis and pulmonary thrombosis.
b. Hypovolemia, hyperoxia, alkalosis, hypo/hyperkalemia, hypothermia, tension
pneumothorax,
pneumothora x, cardiac
cardiac temponade,
temponade, toxins,
toxins, cardiac
cardiac thrombosis
thrombosis and pulmonary
pulmonary
thrombosis.
c. Hypovolemia, hypoxia, acidosis, hypo/hyperkalemia, hypothermia, tension
pneumothorax, cardiac temponade, toxins, cardiac thrombosis and pulmonary
thrombosis.

158. Unsynchronized shocks are given to treat:

a. Pulseless VT
b. Pulseless VFib
c. PEA
 d. Both A and B

159. Which of these interventions you should consider for patient in cardiac arrest with moderate
hypothermia
a. Start CPR
b. Attempt defibrillation
c. Give medication
d. All of the above

160. PEA may occur as a result of the following causes?

a. Hypovolemia
b. Stroke
c. Hyperthermia
d. Hyponatrimia

161. Patient has an organized rhythm on the monitor but no pulse the condition is known as?
a. Asystole
b. PEA
c. Normal Sinus
Sinus Rhythm
d. Sinus Bradycardia

162. Drug of choice for PEA is?

a. Atropine
b. Epinephrine
c. Adenosine
d. Amiodarone

163. If patient has a palpable pulse and, organized rhythm on the monitor what action you will
perform?
a. CPR continues.
b. Check for breathing and provide rescue breaths.
c. Stop CPR, assess for spontaneous breathing and begin Post cardiac arrest care.

164. If patient has no advanced airway then the compression versus ventilation ratio will be?
a. 15:2
b. 20:2
c. 25:2
d. 30:2

165. Amiodarone can be given in?

a. Pulseless VT
b. VT with pulse
c. VF
d. All of the above
166. Epinephrine can be given in which of the following condition?
a. PEA/Asystole
b. VF
c. pVT
d. All of the above

167. Interruptions of chest compressions to conduct a rhythm check should not exceed?
a. 5 seconds
b. 10 seconds
c. 15 seconds
d. 20 seconds

168. The decision to terminate resuscitative efforts is based on consideration

consideration of many factors?
a. Time from collapse to CPR.
b. Comorbid disease
c. Response to resuscitative measures
d. All of the above.

169. A patient is in cardiac arrest. Ventricular fibrillation has been refractory to a second shock. Which
drug should be administered first?
a. Atropine 1 mg IV/IO
b. Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO
c. Lidocaine 1 mg/kg IV/IO
d. Sodium bicarbonate 50mEq IV/IO

Miscellaneous
170. What are the steps for primary assessment?
a. Check breathing, airway, circulation, disability and exposure
b. Check circulation, airway, breathing, disability and exposure
c. Check airway, breathing, circulation, disability and exposure
d. Check disability, exposure, airway, breathing and circulation

171. In secondary assessment SAMPLE stands for:

a. Sign and symptoms, allergies, medical examination, past history, last meal and events
b. Sign and symptoms, allergies, medications, past medical history, last event and meals
c. Sign and symptoms, medications, past medical history, last meal, events, allergies
d. Sign and symptoms, allergies, medications, past medical history, last meal and events

172. The average respiratory rate for adult is:

a. 12 to 16/ min
b. 14 to 16/min
c. 10 to 12/min
d. 08 to 10/min
173. The H’s and T’s are most common causes and potentially reversible causes
caus es of cardiopulmonary
arrest:
a. True
b. False
c. Not applicable
applicable
d. All of the above

174. The Knowledge and skills are required for successful course completion are:
a. BLS and ECG rhythm interpretation.
b. Knowledge of airway management and adjuncts
c. Basic ACLS drugs and pharmacology knowledge
d. All of the above.

175. The basic cardiac arrest and periarrest algorithms require these ECG rhythm,
Sinus rhythm, Atrial fibrillation and flutter, Bradycardia, Tachycardia, VT, VF and Asystole,
a. True
b. False.

176. Arterial oxygen saturation should be

a. 80% to 85%
b. 86% to 90%
c. 91% to 93%
d. 94% to 99%

177. Hyperventilation cause

a. Increases Blood Pressure
b. Increases Respiration
c. Increases Intrathoracic Pressure
d. Increase Temperature

178. Intrathoracic Pressure decreases

a. Preload and lowers cardiac out put
b. Cerebral blood flow
c. All of the above
d. None of the above

179. Ideal PETCO in ROSC is

a. Less than 10mmHg
b. 10-20mmHg
c. 20-34mmHg
d. 35-40mmHg

180. Ideal Paco₂ in ROSC is

a. 40-45 mmHg
b. 35-40 mmHg
c. 30-35 mmHg
d. 25-30 mmHg
181. Ideal Systolic Blood Pressure is
a. 90 mmHg or greater
b. 90 mmHg or lesser
c. 80 mmHg or lesser
d. 70 mmHg or lesser

182. Waveform capnograpy monitoring is essential in intubated patient because it helps to monitor:
a. CPR quality
b. Need to optimize
optimize chest compressions
compressions
c. Confirm the placement for Intubation
d. All of the above

183. What is the normal PETCO2 value:

a. 10-20 mm Hg
b. 20-30 mm Hg
c. 30-35 mm Hg
d. 35-40 mm Hg

184. If PETCO2 is less than 10 mm Hg which intervention is significant:

a. Improve chest compression

b. Vasopresso
c. Vasopressor
Both r therapy

185. CVO2 can be measure by:

a. ABGs
b. Pulse Oximetry
c. Waveform capnography
d. PT APTT

186. Naloxone can be given

given via?
a. Intravenously
b. Intramuscularly
c. Intranasally
d. All of the above

187. Post cardiac arrest treatment includes which of the following?

a. Acute coronary interventions
interventions
b. Neurologic care
c. Hypothermia
d. All of the above
Rhythms
188. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
h.
i. Sinus Rhythm
Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block

189. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Ventricular Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
h. Sinus Rhythm
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
 l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block

190. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
h. Sinus Rhythm
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block

191. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
h. Sinus Rhythm
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
 l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block

192. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
h. Sinus Rhythm
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block

193. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
h. Sinus Rhythm
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
 l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block

194. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
h. Sinus Rhythm
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block

195. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
h. Sinus Rhythm
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
 l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block

196. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
h. Sinus Rhythm
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block

197. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
h. Sinus Rhythm
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
 l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block

198. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
h. Sinus Rhythm
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block

199. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
h. Sinus Rhythm
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block
200. Identify Rhythm

a.
b. Asystole
Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
h. Sinus Rhythm
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block

201. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter

g.
h. Supraventricular
Sinus Rhythm Tachycardia
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block
202. Identify Rhythm

a.
b. Asystole
Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
h. Sinus Rhythm
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block

203. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter

g.
h. Supraventricular
Sinus Rhythm Tachycardia
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block

204. Identify Rhythm

 a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
h. Sinus Rhythm
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block

205. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
h. Sinus Rhythm
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block

206. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
 h. Sinus Rhythm
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block

207. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter

g.
h. Supraventricular
Sinus Rhythm Tachycardia
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
l. 2nd Degree Type I
m. 2nd Degree Type II
n. 3rd Degree Heart Block

208. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
h. Sinus Rhythm
i. Sinus Bradycardia
j. Sinus Tachycardia
k. 1st Degree Heart Block
l. 2nd Degree Type I
nd
m. 2rd Degree
n. 3 DegreeHeart
Type Block
II
209. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Supraventricular Tachycardia
f. Sinus Rhythm
g. Sinus Bradycardia
h. Sinus Tachycardia
i. 1st Degree Heart Block
j. 2nd Degree Type I
k. 2nd Degree Type II
l. 3rd Degree Heart Block

210. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Arterial Flutter
g. Supraventricular Tachycardia
h. Sinus Rhythm
i. 1st Degree Heart Block
j. 2nd Degree Type I
k. 2nd Degree Type II
l. 3rd Degree Heart Block

211. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation

c. MonomorphicTachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
 e. Supraventricular Tachycardia
f. Sinus Rhythm
g. Sinus Bradycardia
h. Sinus Tachycardia
i. 1st Degree Heart Block
j. 2nd Degree Type I
k. 2nd Degree Type II
rd
l. 3 Degree Heart Block

212. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Polymorphic Tachycardia
c. Arterial Fibrillation
d. Arterial Flutter
e. Supraventricular Tachycardia
f. Sinus Rhythm
g. Sinus Bradycardia
h. Sinus Tachycardia
i. 1st Degree Heart Block
j. 2nd Degree Type I
k. 2nd Degree Type II
l. 3rd Degree Heart Block

213. Identify Rhythm

a. Asystole
b. Ventricular Fibrillation
c. Monomorphic Tachycardia
d. Polymorphic Tachycardia
e. Arterial Fibrillation
f. Sinus Rhythm
g. Sinus Bradycardia
h. Sinus Tachycardia
i. 1st Degree Heart Block
j. 2nd Degree Type I
k. 2nd Degree Type II
l. 3rd Degree Heart Block

Special Acknowledgement to:

Farzana Kabeer/Saira Hudani/Sonam Shaukat Ali/Murk Khowaja