PART I: INTERNATIONAL MARKETING

1) Domestic marketing and international marketing are similar in all except

A. Applicability of marketing principles
B. Tasks of marketing activities
C. Coping with marketing environment
D. Applicability of marketing concepts
2) A market entry strategy through adapting existing products to the tastes and
specific needs in each new country market is called
A. domestic market extension C. global market strategy
strategy D. acquire local brands and
B. multi-domestic market strategy reintroduce
3) One does not characterize an international marketing
A. often diverse and multicultural markets
B. Widespread and sometimes fragmented Market information
C. Highly predictable political situation
D. difficult to obtain and often expensive data
4) ______is a contractual agreement joining together two or more parties for the
purpose of executing a particular business undertaking with shared resource
A. Joint venture C. Turnkey operation
B. Exporting D. Management contract
5) Which one of the following entry mode is characterized with high risk, high
return, and high control?
A. Licensing C. Joint venture
B. Foreign direct investment D. Exporting

6) Which one is incorrect about culture?

A. It is socially shared C. It is enduring
B. It is facilitates communication D. It is static
7) When product have been copied and sold without the permission of the rightful
manufacturer refers to
A. Brand extension C. Local brand
B. Brand piracy D. Private brand
8). One of the following is an international marketing promotional mix that includes
gift, coupon, and games.
A. Advertising C. Personal selling
B. Sale promotion D. Publicity
9)The action taken by the government to safeguard local infant industries refers to___
A. Export control C. Expropriation
B. Import control D. confiscation
10) An action taken by the government to transfer the ownership from the foreign firm to
the host country without compensating the firm is called
A. Export control C. Confiscation
B. Import control D. Expropriation
11) In order to reduce the risk of government intervention in the host country, a firm needs
to do all except
A. Intensive local hiring and training practices,
B. More socially useful investment.
C. home country borrowing
 D. form joint ventures
12) A type of regional integration where all barriers to trade among member
countries are removed but each member country maintains its own trade
barriers vis-à-vis nonmembers refers to
A. Common Market C. Customs Union
B. Free Trade Area D. Economic and Monetary Union
13) One of the following international marketing orientations perceives domestic
strategies, techniques, and personnel as superior
A. Polycentric C. Geocentric
B. Regeo-ocentric D. Ethnocentric

PART II: HUMAN RESOURCE MANAGEMENT

14) which one of the following statement is incorrect about human resource
A. Human resource is the only resource which gains more knowledge and skill
in the long run, where as other factors production goes on depleting
B. Human resource management is a pervasive activity in any type of
organization
C. Human resource is the only factor of production which produces less than its
input
D. Human resources can produce synergic effect2. Which of the following is not
internal environment influencing HRM?
15) Which of the following is not internal environment influencing HRM?
A. Work group
B. C. Nature of task
C. Leadership style and experience
D. Labor union
15) Daniel is an employee at a Skylight Hotel. Some weeks he works with catering
group, and other weeks he assists the reservations clerk or the parking
attendant. This is an example of;
A. Job Description C. Job rotation
B. . Job enlargement D. Job specification
16) All of the following statements are task environment factors that
directly/indirectly affect and are affected by the organization’s operations, except
A. Strategic Partners C. Customers
B. . Suppliers D. . Strategy
17) The procedure in which relevant information relating to a job and its
requirement is systematically discovered and noted is
 A. Job analysis C. Job specification
B. . Job description D. . Job evaluation
18) The requirements relating to the job are termed as
A. Job specification C. Training
B. . Job description D. . Development
19) . Which of the following is a method of collection of information for job analysis?
A. Questionnaire method C. Optimization models
B. . Ratio analysis D. Trend analysis
20). which one of the following is the process of translating over all organizational
objectives, plans, and programs to achieve specific performance into work
force needs
A. Human resource planning
B. Job analysis
C. Human resource management
D. Personnel management
21). ____________refers to a process of helping new employees adapt to their new
organizations and work responsibilities.
A. Recruitment C. Socialization
B. . Selection D. Performance evaluation
22). the socialization stage where individuals confront the possible contradiction
between their organizational expectations and reality is called;
A. Pre-arrival stage C. Metamorphosis stage
B. Encounter stage D. Induction
23). The systematic, periodic and impartial rating of an employee excellence in matters
pertaining to his present job and his potential for a better job.
A. Performance appraisal C. Compensation and motivation
B. Training and Development D. Performance indicator
24). One of the modern method of performance evaluation that process by which
the superior and subordinates of the organization jointly identify common
objectives and define each individual’s major areas of responsibility is _________
A. Assessment Center
B. Psychological appraisal
C. Management by Objective
D. 360 degree feedback

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25). which one of the following is not the aim of induction and orientation?
A. To teach new employees learn the behaviors and attitudes they need to be
successful in the organization
B. To establish quickly a favorable attitude to the company in the mind of
the new employee so that he or she is more likely to stay
C. To obtain effective output from the new employee in the shortest possible
time
D. To increase the likelihood of the employee leaving quickly
PART III: LEADERSHIP & CHANGE MANAGEMENT

26. Leaders not only need to be receptive to negative feedback but also need to
_____.
A. Seek it out
B. Ignore any positive feedback
C. Be very critical about themselves
D. Encourage a culture of negative feedback
27. Which of the below is a definition of 'groupthink'?
A. When people simultaneously accept two contradictory beliefs as correct
B. When an organization’s culture and terminology limit free thought
C. When people lose the ability to think independently due to focusing on
group cohesion
D. When people are able to think independently but also work together in a
group
28. Which of the following statements is true regarding change in an
organization?
A. New managers are usually not expected to create change.
B. Managing change is a lengthy but straightforward task.
C. If employees are resistant to change, the only option left with a manager is
to enforce it forcibly.
D. Managers must face the need for change and the opportunity to create
change.
29. _____________ is the informal and unwritten values, norms, and behavior
patterns that are commonly accepted in a company.
A. Organizational structure
B. Organizational culture
C. Organizational goals
D. Organizational power and politics
30. ___________ is the ability to affect the behavior of someone else in a desired
way based on factors such as: knowledge, authority, information, personality, and
resource control.
A. Authority C. Culture
B. Power D. Influence

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31. _________ is power that comes from one's ability to control and dispense
benefits to others.
A. Reward Power C. Referent Power
B. Coercive Power D. Expert Power
32. Which of these best differentiates how a leader rather than a manager
influences teams?
A. By reacting to change
B. By being an example
C. By exercising formal authority
D. By focusing on control
33. Which of these best differentiates how a manager rather than a leader
influences teams?
A. Directing according to team preferences
B. Providing a vision for the future
C. Controlling through structure and systems
D. Encouraging innovation and problem solving
34. What leadership style should be adopted by a manager who has been
allocated a
team that requires direct supervision?
A. Laissez-faire C. Autocratic
B. Paternalistic D. Democratic
35. Leadership is based on a superior’s
A. Authority. C. Accountability.
B. Responsibility. D. Persuasive communication.
36. A company that decides to decentralize its sales procedures is
managing what change category?
A. technology C. competitors
B. people D. structure
37. In organizations, people who act as catalysts and assume the responsibility
for managing the
change process are called ______________.
A. change masters C. Operations managers
B. Change agents D. Charismatic leaders
38. Managers’ options for change essentially fall into what three categories?
A. environment, technology, and C. mission, structure, and people
mission D. mission, environment, and
B. structure, technology, and process
people
39. The unfreezing step of the change process can be thought of as
______________.
A. Thawing the organization loose from the current status to the new status
B. Making the move to the new organizational condition
C. Loosening the organization from the old condition and moving it to the new
condition
D. Preparing for the needed change

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40. An individual is likely to resist change because of all of the following
reasons except_____________.
A. Uncertainty
B. Increased productivity
C. Concern over personal loss
D. Belief that the change is not in the organization’s best interest
41. ______________ is using direct threats or force on those who resist change.
A. Negotiation C. Cooptation
B. Coercion D. Education and communication
42. Which of the following is an autocratic style of leadership?
A. Directing style of leadership C. Participative style of leadership
B. Consultative style of leadership D. Delegating style of leadership
43. Which of the following is false regarding Participative Style of Leadership?
A. Leader assigns work to the workforce
B. Leader provides guidance during the work process
C. Leader makes decision based on the conclusions made by the workforce
D. Leader doesn’t assign any task to its workforce
44. In which of the following kind of leadership style the individual or team is
given responsibility and authority to complete the task with minimum input
from the leader
A. Directing style of leadership C. Participative style of leadership
B. Consultative style of leadership D. Delegating style of leadership
45. Which of the following is not a kind of leadership skill required for effective
leadership?
A. Vision C. Intuition
B. Empowerment D. Threat
46. _______ occurs when leaders integrate their values into the company’s
system.
A. Intuition C. Value congruence
B. Self – understanding D. Vision
47. Which values does an effective leader focus on?
A. Trust and respect of
individuals
B. Openness
C. Teamwork
D. Disintegration

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 PART IV: ENTREPRENEUSHIP
48. Which of the following is not the roll of entrepreneurs in economic development?
A. Wealth generation
B. General employment
C. Balanced political environment
D. Enhance the number of enterprise
49. XYZ Company is interested in developing, producing, and selling a new product.
Before it does so, the company spends six months conducting marketing research.
What are the primary advantages of this course of action?
A. To delay the production process and increase labor costs
B. To increase costs and determine consumer dislikes
C. To predict trends and provide information to customers
D. To determine customer preferences and minimize losses
50. A legal form of business ownership which has a limited liability and separate legal
entity is:
A. Corporation C. Partnership
B. Proprietorship D. The creditor
51. A neighborhood grocery store has added a bakery. What element of marketing
should the store use to attract customers from surrounding areas?
A. Product C. Place
B. Price D. Promotion
52. Micro and small enterprises contribute to economic development in the following
ways except?
A. Dispersal over wide geographical areas
B. Mobilization of local resources
C. Unbalanced regional development or increasing regional imbalance
D. Large employment opportunities
53. Why is it important to track the performance of a business plan?
A. To establish an operating strategy
B. To find out if products are selling
C. To determine its proposed mission
D. To provide investment information
54. What do business employees often need to do before they are able to write
proposals?
A. Research the problem C. Contact the customer
B. Analyze personal biases D. Evaluate technical skills
55. The distinctive features of service includes one of the following except?
A. Perishability. C. Inseparability
B. Tangibility D. Variability
56. Which one of the following is not the cause of small business failure?
A. Inadequate management.
B. Inadequate finance.
C. The death of the entrepreneur
D. Improper usage of resources

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 PART V: STRATEGIC MANAGEMENT
57. Which of the following is not a major activity of the strategic management
process?
A. Analysis of the internal and external environments
B. Establishment of strategic direction
C. Formulation of strategies
D. Production scheduling
58. All of the following statements are the benefits of strategic management, except
A. Allows an organization to be more reactive than proactive in shaping its own
future
B. Enhanced awareness of external threats
C. Reduced resistance to change,
D. Increased employee productivity
59. Strategic management process activate in the sequence of;
A. Strategy formulation, Environmental scanning, Implementation, Control and
Evaluation
B. Environmental scanning ,Strategy formulation ,Control and Evaluation and
Implementation
C. Environmental scanning ,Strategy formulation , Implementation, Control and
Evaluation
B. Control and Evaluation, Environmental scanning ,Strategy formulation and
Implementation
60 ______________is the development of long-range plans for the effective management
of environment (SWOT).
A. Strategy Implementation
B. . Strategy Formulation
C. Environmental Scanning
D. Evaluation and Control
61. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?
A. Strategies are the means by which long-term objectives will be achieved
B. Opportunities and threats are an organization’s uncontrollable activities
C. Mission statement tries to answer the question who we are and what we do
D. Strengths and weaknesses are largely beyond the control of a single
organization

PART VI: BUSINESS RESEARCH

62. a type of research typically done in the very early phase of a research study
and can provide information to let you know if you should continue further.
A. Exploratory research C. Descriptive research
B. Conclusive research D. Cross sectional research
63. The first step in marketing research process is:
A. Locating and defining problems or issues
B. Designing the research project
C. Collecting data
D. Interpreting research findings

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64. A business activity that discovers information of use in making marketing
decisions is:
A. Market research C. Sales performance
B. Market segmentation D. D. Product distribution
65. A type of research that is used for sharply defined problems, research which
assumes that a particular variable causes specific outcomes and then, by holding
everything else constant, tests whether the variable does indeed affect that outcome,
is known as:
A. Casual research C. Descriptive research
B. Market research D. Exploratory research
66. As a brand manager, you are asked to survey to assess the size of the market for
your brand. This survey based research is an example of :
A. Qualitative research C. Ethnographic research
B. Quantitative research D. Market research
67. Which type of research data is typically fed into software designed specifically for
statistical analysis, such as SPSS or Excel?
A. Qualitative Data C. Market data
B. Quantitative data D. Segmentation data
68. Which step in the market research process allows conclusions to be drawn and
recommendations to be formulated?
A. Data collection
B. Data analysis
C. Qualitative analysis
D. Quantitative analysis
69. Which of the following is non-probability sampling?
A. Snowball C. Cluster
B. Random D. Stratified
70. Stratified sampling is a ________
A. Probability sampling C. Specified sampling
B. Non-Probability sampling D. Research sampling
71. Research conducted to find solution for an immediate problem is ………….
A. Fundamental Research C. Survey
B. Analytical Research D. Action Research
72. ______ is the type of questionnaire which is segmented and designed to elicit
detailed and accurate information under the given titles and subtitles.
A. Unstructured C. Close form
B. Structured D. Open ended
73 In order to pursue the research, which of the following is priory required?
A. Developing a research design
B. Formulating a research question
C. Deciding about the data analysis procedure
D. Formulating a research hypothesis
74. Which technique is generally followed when the population is finite?
A. Systematic Sampling Technique
B. Purposive Sampling Technique
C. Area Sampling Technique
D. Clustered sampling

11
 75. Questions in which only two alternatives are possible is called
A. Multiple choice questions
B. Dichotomous questions
C. Open ended questions
D. Structured questions

PART VII: PROJECT MANAGEMENT

76. Which of the following is NOT true about a project?

A. Projects are constrained by limited resources
B. Projects are planned, executed, and controlled
C. Projects create a unique product or service
D. Projects are ongoing and repetitive
77. The information required for an investment decision of a project is obtained from:
A. Feasibility study
B. Opportunity study
C. Pre-feasibility study
D. A and C
78. Which of the following project management process identifies project’s activities and determines the
resources required with in specified time frame and prepares the project for successful
implementation?
A. Project Execution
B. Project Controlling
C. Project Planning
D. Project Evaluation
79.Plant capacity is affected by all of the following factor except:
A. Non-technical requirement C. Investment cost
B. Input constraint D. Market condition
80 The project’s feasibility study (detailed analysis) is justified by:
A. Appraisal C. Pre-feasibility
B. Project screening D. Evaluation
81. One can differentiate project from non-project activities through:
A. It’s repetitive nature C. It’s unrestricted resource access
B. It’s undefined time frame D. It’s temporary nature
82.An initial review of project ideas and concepts to see if they should be advanced or abandoned
signifies:
A. Appraisal and selection
B. Implementation
C. Pre-feasibility study
D. Feasibility study
83.The application of knowledge, skills, tools and techniques to project activities refers to:
A. Project planning
B. Project execution
C. Project controlling
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 D. Project management
84.Which of the following statement is false about project?
A. Project helps to create capital assets over an extended period of time.
B. Project is an investment activity in which specific resources are committed.
C. A project is a non-repetitive activity which is goal oriented, that has a particular set of constraints.
D. Project involves the investment of scarce resources in expectation of future benefits.
85.The time taken to gain a financial return equal to the initial investment of a project is:
A. Net present value
B. Accounting Rate of Return
C. Payback Period
D. Internal Rate of Return
86. Which of the following statement is true about a Program?
A. A Program is a group of related projects
B. A Program is a group of unrelated projects
C. A Program is a part of a big project
D. None of the above
87. Which of the following project management process involves identifying project’s activities and
determining the resources required with in specified time frame and prepares the project for successful
implementation?
A. Execution
B. Controlling
C. Planning
D. Evaluation
88. Your decision to the project with rate of return less than the required rate should be:
A. Rejecting the project
B. Accepting the project
C. Postponing the project
D. Reformulating the project
89. A level of capacity that is achievable under normal working conditions taking into account factors
such as stoppage, holidays, maintenance and the like is termed as:
A. Nominal maximum capacity
B. Feasibility normal capacity
C. Engineering suplied plant capacity
D. Ideal nominal capacity
90. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
A. Every project starts as a new idea.
B. Project conception is developing ideas to address a problem or take advantage of
opportunities.
C. Project ideas should be identified in response to social, political, economic, commercial,
technical or environmental problems.
D. Project is an investment activity in order to build up capital assets.
91.Preliminary (startup) costs and a capital issue costs do NOT include?
A. Costs of identifying the project

13
 B. Costs of conducting market research
C. Costs of maintenance
D. Expenses incurred to sell stock
92. Social cost benefit analysis focuses on the following objectives except:
A. To contribute effectively to GDP of an economy
B. To aid in economic development
C. To justify the utilization of economy scarce resource
D. Maximization of shareholders profit
93. Which of the following project’s feasibility study evaluates the project from the public point of
view?
A. Financial analysis
B. Technical analysis
C. Economic analysis
D. Environmental analysis
94. Which of the following is not the discounted cash flow criterion for appraising the worth of an
investment?
A. Net Present Value
B. Internal Rate of Return
C. Pay Back Period
D. Profitability index
E. None of the above
95. The first step towards establishing a successful project should be:
A. Screening the project ideas
B. Searching for promising project ideas
C. Conducting pre-feasibility study
D. Analysis of ideas

PART VIII: OPERATION RESEARCH

96. Which one of the following is wrong about Operations Research?

A. It is the application of scientific methods, techniques and tools to problems to find an optimal
solution.
B. It is a scientific approach that provides qualitative data to decision making process.
C. It uses scientific, mathematical and logical means to take decisions.
D. None of the above
97. If an artificial variable with zero value exists in the final simplex tableau, the type of solution is:
A. Unbounded C. Infeasible
B. Optimal D. Degeneracy
98. All the following are the assumptions of assignment model, except:
A. Each man or machine is loaded with more than one job
B. Number of jobs is equal to the number of machines or persons
C. Each man or machine is loaded with one and only one job.
D. Each man or machine is independently capable of handling any of the jobs being
presented.
E. Loading criteria must be clearly specified

14
 99. One can find the initial basic feasible solution for a transportation problem using:
A. Vogel’s Approximation Method (VAM)
B. Modified Distribution method (MODI )
C. Optimality Test Method ( OTM)
D. Stepping Stone Method (SSM)
E. All of the above
100. The set of values the decision variables Xj which simultaneously satisfy part of the constraints of a
LP problem is said to be:
A. Non optimal solution C. Infeasible solution
B. Optimal solution D. Basic feasible solution
101. One of the following problems is created when the numbers of allocations are greater than m+n-1?
A. Loop C. Redundancy
B. Degeneracy D. Infeasibility
102. In solving minimization LP models using simplex algorithm, the iteration is terminated when:

A. C- Z < 0 C. C-Z > 0

B. C-Z = 0 D. Z < 0
103. When we develop a simplex tableau to solve maximization LP model that involve constraints with
algebraic sign of =, the basic variables in the initial table are all:
A. Surplus variables
B. Slack variables
C. Artificial variable
D. Decision variables
104. During Operation Research Modeling, which of the following refers to the restriction on the values of
the decision variables?
A. The Objective function
B. The Constraint
C. Decision variables
D. Parameters
E. None of the above
105. The set of values of the decision variables 𝑥𝑗 which simultaneously satisfy all the constraints and
non- negativity conditions of an LP problems, is said to be.
A. Non optimal solution D. Basic Feasible solution
B. Optimal Solution E. None of the above
C. Infeasible Solution
106. Identify the wrong statement about decision making under conditions of uncertainty.
A. There are multiple state of natures
B. The probabilities of the occurrences of the state of natures are known in advance
C. There is no complete information for decision making.
D. Payoffs associated with each decision alternatives is known in advance.
107. If a redundant constraint is removed from a LP problem, the
A. The feasible region will get larger
B. The feasible region will remain the same
C. The problem would become nonlinear
D. The problem would become infeasible

108. In simplex algorithm a variable whose value is equal to zero is:

A. Non-basic variable C. Basic variable
B. Non-negativity D. Slack variable
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109. When we develop a simplex tableau to solve maximization LP model that involve constraints with
an algebraic sign of ≥, the basic variables in the initial table are all
A. Surplus variables D. Decision variables
B. Slack Variable E. None of the above
C. Artificial Variable
110. In Vogel’s approximation method, we calculated penalty cost for each row and column by taking:
A. Largest and next largest cost
B. Smallest and next smallest cost
C. Smallest and largest cost
D. Largest and smallest

PART IX: STATISTICS FOR MANAGEMENT I & II

111. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The range is a measure of central tendency.
B. The median is a measure of dispersion.
C. For a symmetric distribution, the mean is equal to the median.
D. For a skewed distribution, the variance is a negative number.
112. The range and the smallest of a set of numbers are 60 and 3. If the numbers 8, 21, 34 and 70 are
included, what will be the range of the new set of numbers?
a) 63 b) 67 c) 60 d) Cannot be determine
113. For a positive skewed distribution, which one of the following is correct
a) Majority of the values lie to the right of the mean
b) Longer tail to the right
c) Mean = Mode = Median
d) The graph is symmetric about the mean
114. Shoe size of most of the people in Ethiopia is Number 35. Which measure of central value does it
represent?
a) Mean b) Range c ) Mode d) Median
115. Two events are said to be independent if
a) Each outcome has equal chance of occurrence
b) There is the common point in between them
c) Both events have only one point
d) One does not affect the occurrence of the other
116. Which of the following is not properties of normal probability distribution
a) It is bell shaped and it is symmetrical about its mean
b) It is asymmetric distribution
c) It is a continuous distribution

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 d) Total area under the curve sums to 1
117. Suppose 60% of a large group of animals is infected with a particular disease. Let Y= the number
of non- infected animals in a sample of size 5. The distribution of Y is
a) Binomial with n = 5 and p = 0.4 b) Binomial with n = 5 and p = 0.6
c) Binomial with n = 5 and p = 0.5 d) Poisson with   0.6
118. One of the following is not the reason for using sample in the study is:
a) The destructive nature of certain tests
b) The cost of studying all the items in a population is often prohibitive
c) The physical possibility of checking all items in the population
d) To contact the whole population would often be time consuming
119. Which one of the following is not true about analysis of variance (ANOVA) assumption:-
a) Subjects or data are chosen at random sampling.
b) Within each group/population, the response variable is normally distributed.
c) The population means may be different from one group to the other.
d) The population variance may or may not be different from one group to the other.
120. ________ is the probability of getting a sample evidence that is equally or more unfavorable to the
null hypothesis while the null hypothesis is actually true.
a) Power of test () c) P-value
b) Level of significance () d) Type II error

17