NUMS PHYSICS MOST REPEATED MCQS 2012-2023-SOLVED

Q.1 When a helium atom loses an electron, it becomes:

A) An alpha particle. C) A positive helium ion. B) Proton. D) A negative helium ion.
Q.2 Beta ray emitted by a radioactive substance is:
A) An electron which was existing outside the nucleus. B) An electron which was existing
inside the nucleus. C) An electron emitted by the nucleus as a result of the decay of neutron
inside the nucleus. D) A pulse of electromagnetic wave.
Q.3 An electric charge in uniform motion produces:
A) An electric field. C) Both magnetic and electric fields. B) A magnetic field. D) Neither
magnetic nor electric fields.
Q.4 What is emitted by a hot metal filament in a cathode ray tube?
A) X-ray. C) Electron. B) Proton. D) Photon.
|Q.5 If the mass of the bob of a pendulum is doubled its time period is:
A) Halved. C) Unchanged. B) Doubled. D) Increases four times.
Q.6 The centre of Newton rings is dark due to:
A) Polarization. C) Constructive interference. B) Destructive interference. D) Reflection. A B
C D ID 1 2 3 4 Page 2 of 16
Q.7 Which one is most stable element on the basis of binding energy?
A) Sn. C) Kr. B) Ba. D) Fe.
Q.8 Resistance in RC circuit of time constant 2 seconds is 1000 Ohms. What is value of C in
the circuit?
A) 2 μ farad. C) 200 μ farad. B) 20 μ farad. D) 2000 μ farad
Q.9 The Lenz’s law refers to induced __________
A) emf. C) Shear. B) Resistance. D) Currents.
Q.10 In which of the following, output is similar to NAND gate if input A=0 and input B=1. A)
NOR. C) XOR. B) XNOR. D) Both B and C.
Q.11 For atomic hydrogen spectrum, which of the following series lies in visible region of
electromagnetic spectrum?
A) Lyman series. C) Balmer series. B) Paschen series. D) Bohr series.
Q.12 __________ are the particles that experience strong nuclear force.
A) Electrons. C) Neutrinos. B) Muons. D) Neutrons.
Q.13 The vertical velocity of ball thrown upward __________ with time.
A) Decreases linearly. C) Doubles. B) Remains constant. D) Decreases parabolically.
Q.14 The force required to bend the normally straight path of a particle into a circular path is
called __________ force.
A) Traveling. C) Centrifugal. B) Bending. D) Centripetal.
Q.15 A disc at rest without slipping, rolls down a hill of height (3 x 9.8) m. What is its speed
in m/sec when it reaches at the bottom?
A) 11.4. C) 22.8. B) 19.6. D) 9.8.
Q.16 Tuning of the radio is the best example of electrical __________
A) Resonance. C) Current. B) Resistance. D) None of these.
Q.17 A standing wave pattern is formed when the length of string is an integral multiple of
__________ wavelength.
A) Triple. C) Half. B) Full. D) Double.
Q.18 Which of the following lights travels the fastest in optical fibres?
A) Visible light. C) Ultra-violet. B) Invisible infra-red. D) Ordinary light.
Q.19 The algebraic sum of potential changes in a closed circuit is zero is Kirchhoff’s
__________ rule.
A) First. C) Third. B) Second. D) None of these.
Q.20 In LED when an electron combines with a __________ during forward bias conduction,
a photon of visible light is emitted.
A) High voltage. C) Hole. B) Photon. D) Positron.
Q.21 For photons of energy greater than 1.02 MeV the probability of pair production
occurrence __________ as the energy increases.
A) Increase. C) Reduces to half. B) Completely diminishes. D) Remains unchanged.
Q.22 The neutron is assumed to be made of
A) One up quark and two down quarks. C) Two up quarks and one down quark. B) Two up
quarks and two down quarks. D) One up quark and one down quark.
Q.23 An __________ missile is called a ballistic missile.
A) Un-powered and guided. C) Powered and guided. B) Un-guided and powered. D)
Unpowered and un-guided.
Q.24 Two cylinders of equal mass are made from same material. The one with the larger
diameter accelerates __________ the other under the action of same torque.
A) Faster than. C) Equal to. B) Slower than. D) None of these.
Q.25 The angular frequency of simple pendulum is directly proportional to __________
A) l. C) v l. B) 1/l. D) v1/l.
Q.26 Two waves of slightly different frequencies and traveling in same direction produce
________ A) Interference. C) Stationary waves. B) Polarization. D) Beats.
Q.27 A single mode step index fibre has core of about __________ μm diameter
A) 50 to 1000. C) 30. B) 50. D) 5.
Q.28 A 5 Ohm resistor is indicated by a single __________ color band around its body.
A) Red. C) Blue. B) Green. D) Brown.
Q.29 Practically __________ current flows in a reverse biased p-n junction.
A) No. C) Few milliamperes. B) Very large. D) Both A and C.
Q.30 Cesium coated oxidized silver emits electrons for __________ light.
A) Infrared. C) Visible. B) Ultraviolet. D) Green.
Q.31 The cobalt is absorbed by
A) Bones. C) Liver. B) Skin. D) Thyroid gland.
Q.32 In a step-down transformer the output current __________
A) Is reduced. C) Remains same. B) Is increased. D) None of these.
Q.33 Force in terms of base units is expressed as
A) kg ms-2 . C) kg m2 s-3 . B) kg m2s-2 . D) None of these.
Q.34 100 joules work has been done by an agency in 10 seconds. What is power of agency?
A) 1000 watt. C) 10 watt. B) 100. D) 0.10 watt.
Q.35 The acceleration is proportional to the displacement and is directed towards mean
position in __________ motion.
A) Gravity. C) Uniform. B) Simple harmonic. D) Projectile.
Q.36 In gases, the speed of sound is inversely proportional to __________ of the density
when other factors are same.
A) Square root. C) Third power. B) Square. D) Third root.
Q.37 A watch maker uses __________ to repair the watches.
A) Telescope. C) Convex lens. B) Convex mirror. D) Concave lens.
Q.38 A 2m long pipe is open at both ends. What is its harmonic frequency?
A) 42.5 Hz. C) 220 Hz. B) 85 Hz. D) None of these.
Q.39 A wire has resistance 100 Ohm at 0 oC and 200 Ohm at 100 oC. What is its
temperature coefficient in K-1?
A) -0.01. C) 0.01. B) -1/273. D) 1/273.
Q.40 The net magnetic field created by the electrons within an atom is due to the field
created by their __________ motion.
A) Orbital. C) Orbital & spin. B) Spin. D) Orbital x spin.
Q.41 At high temperature, the proportion of __________ wavelength radiation increase.
A) AM radio. C) Shorter. B) Long radio. D) Both A and C.
Q.42 In photoelectric effect removal of photons is observed at _________ energies.
A) Low. C) Intermediate. B) High. D) Both A and C.
Q.43 Which device is the most efficient?
A) Nuclear reactor. C) Silicon solar cell. B) Storage battery. D) Dry battery cell.
Q.44 The units of E in E=mc2 are
A) kg m s-2 . C) kg m2 s-2. B) N m s-2. D) Both B and C.
Q.45 Work done on a body equals change in its __________ energy.
A) Total. C) Kinetic. B) Potential. D) All of these.
Q.46 A pipe varies uniformly in diameter from 2 m to 4 m. An incompressible fluid enters the
pipe with velocity 16m/sec. What is velocity of fluid when it leaves the pipe?
A) 64 m/sec. C) 8 m/sec. B) 32 m/sec. D) 4 m/sec.
Q.47 Transverse waves cannot be setup in __________
A) Metals. C) Fluids. B) Solids. D) Soil.
Q.48 The ratio of the __________ is called magnification.
A) Image size to object size. C) Eyepiece size to object size. B) Object size to image size. D)
None of these
Q.49 Which of the following has the highest resistivity?
A) Germanium. C) Copper. B) Silver. D) Platinum.
Q.50 An n-type semi-conductor is made by doping silicon crystal with __________
A) Indium. C) Arsenic. B) Aluminium. D) Both B and C.
Q.51 Objects cannot be accelerated to the speed of light in free space is consequence of
A) Mass variation. C) Inertia forces. B) Energy-mass relationship. D) All of these.
Q.52 A certain radioactive mass decays from 64 gm to 2 gm in 20 days. What is its half-life?
A) 5 days. C) 10 days. B) 4 days. D) 6 days.
Q.53 If inductance is denoted by L and resistance by R, which of the following is true for a
choke?
A) R is large, L is very small. C) Both R and L are large. B) R is very small, L is large. D)
Both R and L are very small.
Q.54 A force 2i + j has moved its point of application from (2,3) to (6,5). What is work done?
A) -10. C) -18. B) +10. D) +18.
Q.55 The escape velocity corresponds to __________ energy gained by body, which carries
it to an infinite distance from the surface of earth.
A) Total. C) Initial kinetic. B) Potential. D) None of these.
Q.56 The drag force decreases as the speed of an object moving through fluid __________
A) Increases. C) Remains constant. B) Decreases. D) Both B and C.
Q.57 Light year is a measure of
A) Distance. C) Intensity of light. B) Time. D) Velocity.
Q.58 A yellow light of wavelength 500 mm emitted by a single source passes through two
narrow slits 1 mm apart. How far apart are two adjacent bright fringes when interference is
observed on a screen 10 m away?
A) 5 mm. C) 0.5 mm. B) 1.33 mm. D) 50 mm.
Q.59 The heat produced by a current I in the wire of resistance R during time interval t is
A) I2/Rt. C) I2/R/t. B) I2 Rt. D) IR2t.
Answer.
ID 46 D 1 C 47 C 2 B 48 A 3 C 49 B 4 C 50 C 5 C 51 D 6 B 52 B 7 D 53 B 8 C 54 B 55 C
10 C 56 B 11 C 57 12 D 58 A 13 C 59 B 14 D 60D
Q.2 Radian is a unit of angular displacement which can also be measured in degrees. How
many radians are equal to one degree?
A) 180 π C) 2π 180 B) π 180 D) π 57.3
Q.3 An elevator is moving upwards with constant velocity of ‘v’. What is a weight of a person
of a mass ‘m’ inside the elevator during upward motion?
A) mg + mv C) mg ― mv B) mg D) zero
Q.4 An object having spherical shape of radius ‘r’ experiences a retarding force F from a
fluid of coefficient of viscosity ‘η’ when moving through the fluid with speed ‘v’. What is the
ratio of retarding force to speed?
A) 6πη r2 C) 6πη r B) 6πη/r2 D) 6πη/r
Q.5 When the drag force is equal to the weight of the droplet, the droplet will fall with:
A) High Speed C) Certain acceleration B) Low Speed D) Constant Speed A B C D ID 1 2 3 4
Q.6 A simple pendulum length ‘L’ with bob of mass ‘m’ is slightly displaced from its mean
position so that it string makes an angle ‘θ’ with vertical line as shown in the figure. Then bob
of pendulum released. What will be the expression of torque with which the bob starts to
move towards the mean position? g l θ m
A) mgL C) 0 B) mgL sin θ D) mgL cos θ
Q.7 The density of blood is:
A) Less than water C) Greater than water B) Nearly equal to water D) Three times that of
water
Q.8 A monochromatic light of wavelength ‘λ’ is used to produce the diffraction pattern
through a single slit of width X. Which one of the following represents the intensity
distribution across the screen?
A) C) B) D)
Q.9 For interference of light waves to take place, the required condition is
A) The path difference of the light waves from the two sources must be large B) The
interfering waves must be non-coherent C) The light waves may come from different sources
D) The light waves must come from two coherent sources
Q.10 The property of bending of light around an obstacle and spreading of light waves into
geometric shadow of an obstacle is called:
A) Diffraction of Light C) Quantization of Light B) Polarization of Light D) Interference of Light
Q.11 The normal human eye can focus a sharp image of an object on the eye if the object is
located at certain distance called
A) Least Point C) Far Point B) Near Point D) Distinct Point
Q.12 A source of sound wave emits waves of frequency ‘f’. If ‘v’ is speed of sound waves,
then what will be the wavelength of the waves
A) v f C) v 􀀁 uo f B) vf D) (v − uo)f Page 3 of 19
Q.13 The spectrum of a star’s light is measured and the wavelength of one of the lines as
the sodium’s line is found to be 589 nm. The same line has the wavelength of 497 nm when
observed in the laboratory. This means the star is
A) Moving away from the earth C) Stationary B) Moving towards the north D) Revolving
around the planet
Q.14 What is the period of mass spring system during SHM if the ratio of mass to spring
constant is ¼? A) π C) 1/π B) 2 π D) ½ π Q.15 Waveform of SHM is given in figure. At what
time/times displacement is equal to zero?
A) T/4 only C) 0, T/4, 3T/4 and T B) 3T/4 only D) 0, T/2 and T
Q.16 A wire is stretched by a force which causes an extension. The energy is stored in it
only when:
A) The extension of wire is proportional to force applied B) The cross-section area of the
wire remains constant C) The wire is not stretched beyond its elastic limit D) The weight of
wire is negligible
Q.17 Which statement is correct:
A) Elasticity is that property of body which enables body to regain its original dimension B)
Elasticity is that property of a body that does not allow it to return to its original shape C)
Elasticity is that property of a body that allows it to retain its original shape and dimension
after the stress is removed. D) Elasticity is that property of a body that obeys Hooke’s law.
Q.18 Which of the following is the expression of root mean square speed of a gas having n
number of molecules contained in the container?
A)v1 2+ v2 2+…+ vx 2 N C)v1+ v2+…+ vx N B) v1 2+ v2 2+…+ vx 2 N D) v1+ v2+…+ vx N
Q.19 For a gas of volume V in its equilibrium state, if the pressure does change with time
then total kinetic energy of gas is constant because
A) Collisions between gas molecules occur C) Collisions must be elastic B) Collisions
between gas molecules occur linearly D) Collisions must be inelastic
Q.20 Which of the following is the proper way to study the sinusoidal waveform of the
voltage?
A) Voltage is connected to X input and the time base is switched off B) Voltage is connected
to Y input and the time base is switched on C) Voltage is connected to Y input and the time
base is switched off D) Voltage is connected to X input and the time base is switched on
Q.21 Electron gun in cathode ray oscilloscope contains
A) Filament, cathode, grid, anodes C) Emitter, base, collector B) Cathode, anode, capacitor,
screen D) Resistance, capacitor, inductor B C 3T/4 A T/4 T D Displacement
Q.22 In which of the following, the change in internal energy is more?
A) In system A C) Cannot be predicted B) In system B D) Change is zero in both. (both are
cyclic)
Q.23 Pressure volume graph of two systems 'A' and 'B' are plotted under isothermal and
adiabatic conditions. Which of the following observation of graph represents the two
systems?
A) C) B) D)
Q.24 Which of the following curve is an isotherm?
A) C) B) D)
Q.25 If 2 A current passes through a resistor when connected to a certain battery. If the
resistance is replaced by the double resistance, then the current will become
A) 2 A C) 6 A B) 4 A D) 1 A
Q.26 In Helium-Neon laser, population inversion of _________ atoms is achieved which emit
radiations, when they are stimulated to fall at lower level.
A) Neon C) Helium and Neon B) Helium D) Chromium
Q.27 Three resistors each having value 'R' are connected as shown in figure. What is the
equivalence resistance between 'X' and 'Y'?
A) 3R C) R/3 B) R D) R3
Q.28 If the number of turns of a solenoid circular coil is doubled, but the current in the coil
and radius of the coil remains same, then what will be the magnetic flux density produced by
the coil?
 A) Magnetic flux density will be halved B) Magnetic flux density increases by different
amount at different points C) Magnetic flux density remains unchanged D) Magnetic flux
density will be doubled
Q.29 Two long parallel wires Wire 1 and Wire 2 repel each other as shown in the figure.
What could be the reasons?
A) Both carry current in same direction C) Wire 1 has current, but Wire 2 has no current B)
Both carry current in opposite direction D) Wire 2 has current, Wire 1 has no current
Q.30 The diagram shows a wire, carrying a current 'I', placed the poles of a magnet: In which
direction does the force on the wire act?
A) Upwards C) Towards the 'N' pole of the magnet B) Downwards D) Towards the 'S' pole of
the magnet
Q.31 Wavelength of X-rays is the order of:
A) 10-6 m C) 10-13 m B) 10-10 m D) 100 m
Q.32 Laser beam can be used to generate three-dimensional image of object in a process
called:
A) Computed technology C) Holography B) Computed tomography D) Computerized axial
tomography
Q.33 Which of the following is true for Lasers?
A) Electrons are emitted C) Coherent monochromatic light is emitted B) Stimulated emission
of electrons is needed D) There is a population inversion of photons X R R R Y F Wire 1
Wire 2 F N S I
Q.34 Three resistors of resistance R1, R2 and R3 are connected as shown in figure.
Equivalence resistance is:
A) R1+R2+R3 C) R1R2+ R2R3+ R2R3 R1+ R2 B) R1+ R2+ R3 R1 R2 D) R1 R2 R3 R2 R3
Q.35 What is meant by spontaneous emission of electrons in solids?
A) Electrons being emitted by the solids through photoelectric effect when irradiated with
electromagnetic radiation B) Incident electrons colliding with electrons in solids and releasing
doubling the number of incident electrons C) Electrons in solids are emitted without any
external stimulus through radiation D) Excited electrons going back to lower energy states
immediately by releasing energy.
Q.36 When electrons lose all their kinetic energy in the first collision, the entire kinetic
appears as an X-ray photon of energy:
A) K.E = eV C) K.E = hc λmin B) K.E = hλmin c D) K.E = h λmax
Q.37 The characteristic X-ray spectrum is due to:
A) The absorption of neutrons by target material C) The bombardment of target material by
electrons B) The bombardment of target material by protons D) The bombardment of target
material by alpha particles
Q.38 Ionizing capability of gamma rays is:
A) Equal to alpha and beta particle C) Less than both alpha and beta particles B) Less than
alpha but greater than beta particles D) Less than beta but greater than alpha particles
Q.39 Half-life of a radioactive element is: A) Inversely proportional to square of decay
constant C) Directly proportional to decay constant B) Directly proportional to square of
decay constant D) Inversely proportional to decay constant
Q.40 The transformation of a neutron into proton in the nucleus gives rise to emission of:
A) Beta particles C) Gamma particles B) Alpha particles D) X-rays
Q.41 The ratio of the rate of decay of a parent atom to the number of radioactive nuclei
present at that time is equal to:
A) Half-life of radioactive element C) Decay constant of radioactive element B) Mean life D)
Activity if radioactive element
Q.42 Which one of the following particle is emitted as a result of nuclear reaction? Ra226
Rn222
A) Beta C) Gamma rays B) Alpha D) One alpha and one beta
Q.43 Which of following is used to estimate the circulation of blood in a patient?
A) Carbon-14 C) Phosphorus-32 B) Carbon-12 D) Sodium-24
Q.44 For the radiotherapy of a patient, it is required to double the absorbed dose in gray.
What step must be taken?
A) Energy must be quadrated C) Energy must be raised four times B) Energy must be
halved D) Energy must be doubled
ANSWER 1 B 2 B 3. B 4 B 5 D 6 B 7 B 8 C 9 D 10 A 11 B 12 A 13 A 14 A 15 D 16 A 17 C 18
A 19 C 20 B 21 A 22 D 23 A 24 D 25 D 26 A 27 A 28 D 29 B 30 B 31 B 32 C 33 D 34 C 35 D
36 A 37 C 38 C 39 D 40 A 41 C 42 B 43 D 44 D
Q.1 One method of creating an inverted population is known as _________ and consist of
illuminating the laser material with light.
A) Optical Pumping C) Bremsstrahlung C) Excitation D) Holography
Q.2 In population inversion (Ruby Laser) atoms can reside in the excited state for:
A) 10-11 C) 10-3 C) 10-8 D) 10+3
Q.3 If electrons of charge ‘e’ moving with velocity ‘v’ are accelerated through a potential
difference ‘V’ and strike a metal target, then velocity of electrons is:
A) Ve m C) √Ve 2m B) √Ve m D) √2Ve m
Q.4 In X-ray tube, electrons after being accelerated through velocity ‘v’ strike the target, then
the wavelength of emitted X-rays is:
A) Not greater than hc eV C) Equal to the h mV B) Not less than hc eV D) Equal to hc eV A
B C D ID 1 2 3 4
Q.5 In the reaction, 92Th 234 → Y 91 234 + -1e 0 the electron e -1 0 emits from the
A) 1st Orbit C) Nucleus B) 2nd Orbit D) Valence Shell
Q.6 According to the equation ZX A → Y + 3α particles, what are the atomic and mass
numbers of ‘Y’?
A) Z – 6, A – 12 C) Z + 1, A B) Z – 2, A – 4 D) Z + 3, A
Q.7 A certain radioactive nuclide of mass number ‘x’ decays by βemission and α-emission to
a second nuclide of mass number ‘t’. Which of following correctly relates ‘x’ and ‘t’?
A) x = t + 4 C) x – 3 = t B) x = t – 4 D) x – 1 = t
Q.8 During the decay of radioactive isotopes 90X 232 to a stable isotope, six α-particles and
four βparticles are emitted, what is the atomic number ‘Z’ and mass number ‘A’ of the stable
isotopes.
A) Z = 70, A = 220 C) Z = 82, A = 212 B) Z = 78, A = 212 D) Z = 82, A = 208
Q.9 Cobalt 60 is used in medicine and is an intense source of:
A) α-particles C) γ-rays B) β-particles D) Neutrons
Q.10 In fluid flow, for the equation of continuity A1v1 = A2v2. If velocity of the fluid at one
end is doubled, then what will be the crosssectional area at this end?
A) Double C) (Half)2 B) Half D) (Double)2
Q.11 The value of least distance vision for normal eye is
A) 20 cm C) 25 cm B) 30 cm D) 40 cm
Q.12 The distance between two dark adjacent fringes is mathematically written as:
A) ΔY = λL d C) ΔY = λd L B) ΔY = λ dL D) ΔY = d λL
Q.13 In Young’s Double Slit Experiment, slit separation x = 0.05 cm, distance between
screen and slit D = 200 cm, fringes separation x = 0.13 cm, then the wavelength ‘λ’ of light
is:
A) λ = 1.23 x 10-2 m C) λ = 4.55 x 10-5 m B) λ = 3.25 x 10-7 m D) λ = 5.1 x 10-7 m
Q.14 In normal adjustment of compound microscope, the eye piece is positioned so that the
final image is formed at:
A) Optical Center C) Principle Focus B) Infinity D) Near Point
Q.15 Mathematical formula of maximum velocity (vo) for a body executing simple harmonic
motion is:
A) vo = ωxo C) vo = v √1 − x2 xo 2 B) vo = k m √xo 2 − x2 D) vo = m √xo 2 − x2
Q.16 A body is having weight 20 N, when the elevator is descended with a = 0.1 ms-2, then
the value of tension ‘T’ is:
A) 196 N C) 1.98 N C) 19.8 N D) 2 N
Q.17 Sodium 24 has half-life of 15 hour and it is used in medicine to estimate:
A) Kidney Function C) Iron in Plasma B) Plasma Blood Volume D) Thyroid Function
Q.18 The unit of temperature in base unit is:
A) Celsius C) Kelvin B) Degree D) Fahrenheit
Q.19 The dimensions of pressure is:
A) [M-1L2T-2] C) [M-1L-2T-2] B) [ML-1T] D) [ML-1T-2]
Q.20 In Wilson Cloud Chamber which of the following tracks represented βparticles?
A) C) B) D)
Q.21 Mass flow per second of the fluid is given by:
A) ρAv C) ρv B) Av D)AvP
Q.22 The dimension of coefficient of viscosity is:
A) [M-2L-1T-1] C) [ML-2T1] B) [ML-2T-1] D) [ML-1T-1]
Q.23 What should be the length of simple pendulum whose period is 6.28 second at a place
where g = 10 ms-2.
A) 0.28 m C) 6.28 m B) 10.8 m D) 10 m
Q.24 What should be the ration of kinetic energy to total energy for simple harmonic
oscillator?
A) 1 − x2 xo 2 C) (xo 2 − x2) B) 1 D) 1 2 x2
Q.25 An observer moves with velocity ‘vo’ toward a stationary source, then the number of
waves received in one second is:
A) f' = f ( v v + vo ) C) f' = f ( v + vo v ) B) f' = f ( v v − vo ) D) f' = f ( v − vo v )
Q.26 Strain energy in a deformed energy is stored in the form of:
A) Elastic Energy C) Plastic Energy B) Potential Energy D) Kinetic Energy
Q.27 A wire of area of cross section ‘A’ and original length ‘l’ is subjected to a load ‘L’. A
second wire of same material with an area is ‘2A’ and length ‘2l’ is subjected to the same
load ‘L’. If the extension in first wire is ‘X’ and second wire is ‘Y’, find the ratio ‘X/Y’.
A) 1 4 C) 1 1 B) 1 2 D) 2 1
Q.28 Two sample of gases ‘1’ and ‘2’ are taken at same temperature and pressure but the
ratio of number of their volume is V1:V2 = 2:3. What is the ration of number of moles of the
gas sample?
A) 3:2 C) 4:9 B) √2:√3 D) 2:3
Q.29 Root mean square velocity of a gas having pressure ‘P’ and density ‘ ρ’ is given by:
A) √ 3P ρ C) √3ρ P B) 3P ρ D) 3ρ P
Q.30 When the rate of gas changes without change in temperature, the gas is said to
undergo:
A) Isothermal Process C) Isochoric Process B) Adiabatic Process D) Isobaric Process
Q.31 What is the 273 k on the Celsius scale of temperature?
A) 0.15 oC C) -0.15 oC B) 273.15 oC D) -273.15 oC
Q.32 If heat ‘Q1’ is absorbed at temperature ‘T’ and heat ‘Q2’ is absorbed at temperature of
triple point of water, then unknown temperature of system (in K) is:
A) 273.16 C) 273.16 Q B) 273.16 Q2/Q1 D) 273.16 Q1/Q2
Q.33 If the fundamental logic gates are connected as: A B A B What are the mathematical
notation for this logic gate?
̅̅
A) (̅A̅ ̅+̅ ̅B̅).(A + B) B) (̅A̅ ̅+̅ ̅B̅).(̅A̅ ̅+̅ ̅B̅) C) (A + B ̅̅ )(A ̅+B ̅) D) ̅A̅B̅+ ̅A̅B̅
Q.34 Which combinations of seven identical resistors each of 2 Ω gives rise to the resultant
of 10/11 Ω?
A) 5 Parallel, 2 Series C) 3 Parallel, 4 Series B) 4 Parallel, 3 Series D) 2 Parallel, 5 Series

ANSWER ID B 46 D 92 B 138 C 184 B 1 A 2 B 3 D 4 D 5 C 6 A 7 A 8 D 9 C 10 B 11 C 13 B

14 D 15 A 16 C 17 B 18 C 19 D 20 C 21 A 22 D 23 D 24 A 25 C 26 B 27 C 28 D 29 A 30 A
31 C 32 D 33 B 34 D 35 C