National Testing Agency

Vision
The right candidates joining best institutions will give India her demographic
dividend.

Mission
To improve equity and quality in education by administering research based valid,
reliable, efficient, transparent, fair and international level assessments. The best
Subject matter experts, psychometricians and IT delivery and security professionals
will ensure that the current gap in existing aSsessment systems are properly identified
and bridged.

Core Values
NTA Will create a system which will promote teaching (by teachers), learning (by
students) and assessment (by parents and institutions). NTA Strongly believes in
quality, efficiency, effectiveness, equity and security of assessments. To practice these
values, NTA Will constantly engage with its stakeholders, Viz. students, parents,
teachers, eXperts and partner institutions.
 S. No. Description Page No.
- Important Information and Dates at A Glance 2
- Introduction 5
1 About National Testing Agency (NTA) 5
2 About University Grants Commission (UGC) 5
3 University Grants Commission – National Eligibility Test (UGC-NET) 5
UGC-NET December 2023 5
4.1 Mode of Examination 5
4.2 Pattern of Examination 5
4
4.3 Subject and Syllabus of Test 5
4.4 Medium of Question Paper 6
4.5 Marking Scheme 6
Eligibility Criteria for UGC-NET December 2023 6
5.1. Qualifying Examination 6
5 5.2. Instructions 7
5.3. Exemption (Eligibility for Assistant Professor) 7
5.4. Age Limit and Relaxation 7
6 Reservations 8
Provisions Relating to Persons with Disability (PwD) 8
7.1. (A) Guidelines For Conducting Written Examination for Persons with Benchmark
Disabilities Above 40% Vide Letter Dated 29 August 2018 from Ministry of Social Justice and 8
Empowerment
7
7.1 (B) Guidelines for Conducting Written Examination for Persons with Specified
Disabilities Covered Under the Definition of Section 2(S) Of the Rpwd Act, 2016 But Not
9
Covered Under the Definition of Section 2(R) of the Said Act, I.E. Persons Having Less
Than 40% Disability and Having Difficulty in Writing
8 Registration And Application Process 10
9 Admit Card for UGC NET December 2023 12
10 Computer Based Test (CBT) Guidelines 14
11 Unfair Means Practices and Breach of Examination Rules 14
12 Display of Provisional Answer Key for Challenges 14
13 Display of Recorded Responses 14
14 Procedure and Criteria for Declaration of Result 15
15 Normalization Procedure (Appendix – XI) 15
16 Re-Evaluation/Re-Checking of Result 16
Query Redressal System 16
17
a. Correspondence With NTA 16
18 NTA Weeding Out Rules 16
19 Legal Jurisdiction 16
Certificate For Persons with A Disability Under Rpwd Act, 2016 Having Less Than 40%
Annexure - I 17
Disability
Annexure – II Letter of Undertaking for Using Own Scribe 18
Appendix – I Procedure For Online Payment of Fee and Helpline for Payment Related Queries 19
Appendix – II List of Subjects and their Codes 21
Appendix – III List of Exam Cities for Centres of UGC - NET December 2023 23
Appendix – IV List of Subject at Post Graduation Level and their Codes 28
Appendix – V List of Post - Graduation Courses and their Codes 29
Appendix – VI List of States/ Union Territories and their Codes 30
Appendix – VII Procedure For Appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT) 31
Procedure to be Adopted for Compilation of NTA Scores for Multi Session Papers
Appendix – VIII 33
(Normalization Procedure Based on Percentile Score)
Appendix – IX Replica 35

~1~
 IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE
(Please refer to Information Bulletin for details)
Dates, Fee Details and Application Procedure:
EVENTS DATES
Online registration and submission of Application Form (complete in all 30 September 2023 to 28 October 2023
respect) through NTA Website: https://ugcnet.nta.ac.in/ (upto 05:00 P.M.)
Last date for successful transaction of Examination fee (through Credit
29 October 2023 (upto 11:50 P.M.)
Card/ Debit Card/Net Banking/UPI Payment Modes
Fee Payable for UGC – NET December 2023
(Pay fee using the Payment Gateway(s) integrated to the Online Application through NetBanking Debit Card /
Credit Card / UPI)
General/Unreserved Rs. 1150/-
Gen-EWS*/ OBC-NCL** Rs. 600/-
Scheduled Caste (SC) / Scheduled Tribes (ST) / Person with Disability
(PwD) Rs. 325/-
Third gender
Applicable service/processing charges & GST over and above the Examination Fee, are to be Paid by the candidate to the
concerned Bank/ Payment Gateway Integrator. For details,Appendix -I may be referred to.

Correction in the Particulars of Application Form online only 30 – 31 October 2023 (upto 11:50 P.M)

Intimation of Cities of exam centres To be Intimated Later

Downloading of Admit Card by the Candidate from NTA Website To be Intimated Later

Dates of Examination 06 December 2023 to 22 December 2023

180 minutes (03 hours)

Duration of Examination
No break between Paper 1 & Paper 2
First Shift: 09.00 am to 12.00 pm
Timing of Examination
Second Shift: 03.00 pm to 06.00 pm
Exam Centre, Date and Shift As indicated on the Admit Card
Display of Recorded Responses and Provisional AnswerKeys on the
To be announced later on website
Website for inviting challenge(s) from Interested candidates.
Declaration of Result on NTA website 10 January 2024
www.nta.ac.in , https://ugcnet.nta.ac.in/;
Website(s)
https://ugcnet.ntaonline.in
*As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-2/2019- dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019,
04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education regarding implementation of reservation for
Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) for admission in CentralEducational Institutions.
**OBC (Other Backward Classes)-NCL (Non-Creamy Layer) as per the central list of Other Backward Classes available on
National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC- Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in).
The candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column.
State list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General.
1. Candidate must read carefully the Instructions (including how to fill up Application Form online) given in the
Information Bulletin available on the NTA Website. Candidates not complying with the Instructions shall be
summarily disqualified.
2. Candidate can apply for UGC NET December 2023 through “Online” mode only. The Application Form in
any other mode will not be accepted.
3. Instructions for filling Online Application Form:
❖ Download Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form. Read these carefully to ensure your
eligibility.
❖ Follow the steps given below to Apply Online:
Step-1: Apply for Online Registration using own Email Id and Mobile No.
Step-2: Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated Application Number.
Upload scanned images of: (i) a recent photograph (file size 10Kb – 200Kb) either in colour or
black & white with 80% face (without mask) visible including ears against white background;
(ii) candidate’s signature (file size: 4kb - 30kb)
Step-3: Pay fee using SBI/CANARA/ICICI/HDFC Bank/ Debit Card/Credit Card/UPI and keep proof of
fee paid.
❖ Download, save and print a copy of Confirmation Page of the Application Form (which would be
downloadable only after successful remittance of fee) for future reference.

~2~
 ❖ All the 3 Steps can be done together or at separate timings. The submission of Application of a candidate
could be considered as successful and his/her candidature would be confirmed only on the successful
transaction/receipt of the prescribed application fee from him/her.
4. The Confirmation Page of the online Application Form will be generated only after successful payment by the
Candidate.
• In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of fee, then the candidate should approach
the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway (in the helpline no. and email given in Appendix- I of the
Information Bulletin) for ensuring the successful payment or for obtaining the refund of duplicate /
multiple payments.
• However, if inspite of above action payment has not been successfully made it means that the transaction
has not been completed and the amount not reflected in the NTA account. Such amount will be refunded
to concerned Credit/Debit Card/UPI within a reasonable time. Therefore, such candidates have to pay
the fee once again and ensure the OK fee status.
5. Candidates shall ensure that the information entered by them in their respective online Application Form is
correct.
6. Information provided by the candidates in their respective online Application Forms, like, name of candidate,
contact/ address details, category, PwD status, educational qualification details, date of birth, choice of exam
cities, etc. will be treated as final. Any request for change in such particulars after the closure of correction
period will not be considered by NTA under any circumstances.
7. NTA does not edit /modify/alter any information entered by the candidates under any circumstances. Any
request for change in information after submission of Application Form will not be entertained. Therefore,
candidates are advised to exercise utmost caution for filling up correct details in the Application Form.
8. NTA disclaims any liability that may arise to a candidate(s) due to incorrect information provided by him/her
in his/her online Application Form.
9. Candidates must ensure that their email address and mobile number to be registered in their online
Application Form are their own, as relevant/important information/ communication will be sent by NTA
through e-mail on the registered e-mail address and / or through SMS on registered mobile number only.
NTA shall not be responsible for any non-communication / mis-communication with a candidate in the email
address or mobile number given by him/her other than his/her own.
Candidates are advised to visit the NTA Website and check their e-mails regularly for latest updates.
10. Candidates are also requested to download and install the SANDES application as a secondary channel to
receive time-to-time notifications from NTA.
SANDES APP can be downloaded and installed on Mobile Device by following the below-listed steps:
• Visit the Google Play Store on your Mobile Device.
• Search for the “Sandes App” in the search bar.
• It then displays the app in the play store.
• Click on Install, and then the app gets downloaded to your mobile device.
• Now, mobile users can enjoy the services of the Sandes Mobile App.
11. Candidates shall appear at their own cost at the Examination Centre on the Date, Shift and time indicated on
their Admit Cards issued by the NTA in due course through its Website.
Notes:
i. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step-2 and step-3 are not completed.
Such forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be entertained.
ii. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA under any circumstances.
iii. NTA is facilitating to all candidates with an additional platform of UMANG and DigiLocker to download their
documents like Confirmation Page, Admit Card, Score Cards, etc. Instruction will be provided in subsequent
phases. Candidates are advised to visit the NTA Website and check their e-mails regularly for the latest updates.
iv. The entire application process for UGC NET December 2023 is online, including uploading of scanned images,
payment of fees, and printing of confirmation page, admit card, etc. Therefore, candidates are not required to
send/submit any document(s) including confirmation page to NTA through Post/ Fax/WhatsApp/Email/by
Hand.
v. Usage of Data and Information: NTA/Government of India can use the data provided by the End Users (test taker
in this case) for internal purpose(s) including training, research and development, analysis and other permissible
purpose(s). However, this information is not for use by any third party or private agency for any other use.

Brief Advisory:
Candidates are advised to carry only the following with them into the Examination venue:
a) Admit Card along with Self Declaration (Undertaking) downloaded from the NTA Website (a clear printout on A4
size paper) duly filled in.
b) A simple transparent Ball Point Pen.
c) Additional photograph, to be pasted on Attendance Sheet
d) Personal hand sanitizer (50 ml).
e) Personal transparent water bottle.
f) ID Proof
g) Sugar tablets/fruits (like banana/apple/orange) in case the candidate is diabetic.

~3~
Notes:
1. Candidate shall ensure that the information (like, his/her name. mother’s name, father’s name, gender, date of birth,
category, PwD status, mobile number, email address, photograph and signature, choice of cities for exam centre, etc.)
provided by them in their online Application Form are correct and of their own. Candidates are advised to exercise
utmost care for filling up correct details in the Application Form. Any request for change in the particulars after the
closure of correction period will not be considered by NTA under any circumstances. Corrections sent by the
candidate through Post/ Fax/WhatsApp/Email/by Hand will not be entertained by NTA.
2. In case it is found at any time in future that the Candidate has used / uploaded the photograph and signature of
someone else in his/ her Application Form / Admit Card or he/she has tampered his/her Admit Card / result, these
acts of the candidate shall be treated as Unfair Means (UFM) Practices on his/her part and he/she shall be proceeded
with the actions as contemplated under the provisions of the Information Bulletin relating to Unfair Means Practices.
Candidates are NOT allowed to carry Instruments, Geometry or Pencil box, Handbag, Purse, any kind of Paper/
Stationery/ Textual material (printed or written material), Eatables (loose or packed), Mobile Phone/ Earphone/
Microphone/ Pager, Calculator, Docu Pen, Slide Rules, Log Tables, Camera, Tape Recorder, Electronic Watches with
facilities of calculator, any metallic item or electronic gadgets/ devices in the Examination Hall/Room. Smoking,
chewing gutka, spitting etc. in the Examination Room/Hall is strictly prohibited.
If any candidate is in possession of any of the above item, his/ her candidature will be treated as unfair means and
lead to cancellation of the current Examination & also debar the candidate for future examination(s) & the material
will be seized.

~4~
 University Grants Commission-National Eligibility Test
December 2023
Introduction
1. About National Testing Agency (NTA)
The Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), which is now known as Ministry of Education
(MoE), Government of India (GOI) has established the National Testing Agency (NTA) as an independent,
autonomous, and self-sustained premier testing organization under the Societies Registration Act (1860) for
conducting efficient, transparent and international standards tests in order to assess the competency of
candidates for admissions to premier higher education institutions.
The NTA has been entrusted by the University Grants Commission (UGC) with the task of conducting UGC-
NET, which is a test to determine the eligibility of Indian nationals for ‘Assistant Professor’ and ‘Junior
Research Fellowship and Assistant Professor’ in Indian universities and colleges.

2. About University Grants Commission (UGC)

The University Grant Commission (UGC) is a Statuary Body of Government of India, Ministry of Education,
Department of Higher Education, constituted under the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 (3 of 1956),
vested with two responsibilities: that of providing funds and that of coordination, determination and
maintenance of standards in institutions of higher education. The UGC`s mandate includes:

• Promoting and coordinating university education.

• Determining and maintaining standards of teaching, examination and research in universities.
• Framing regulations on minimum standards of education.
• Monitoring developments in the field of collegiate and university education; disbursing grants to the
universities and colleges.
• Serving as a vital link between the Union and state governments and institutions of higher learning.
• Advising the Central and State governments on the measures necessary for improvement of university
education.

3. University Grants Commission – National Eligibility Test (UGC – NET)

3.1 UGC-NET is a test to determine the eligibility of Indian nationals for ‘Assistant Professor’ and ‘Junior
Research Fellowship and Assistant Professor’ in Indian universities and colleges.
3.2 The selection of candidates for the following Fellowships will be made through the Ministry of Social
Justice and Empowerment and the Ministry of Minorities Affairs:
• National Fellowship for Scheduled Caste Students (NFSC)
• National Fellowship for Other Backward Classes (NFOBC)
• National Fellowship for Persons with Disabilities (NFPwD)
3.3 Candidates aspiring for the Fellowships listed above, shall also have to apply for the Test.

4. UGC – NET December 2023

The UGC NET December 2023 will be conducted in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode in multi shifts as per
the time schedule specified in the Information at a glance, in the Subjects given at Appendix -III in selected
Cities spread across the Country (Appendix -IV).
4.1 Mode of Examination
The Examination shall be conducted in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode only.
4.2 Pattern of Examination
The Test will consist of two papers. Both the papers will consist of objective type, multiple choice
questions. There will be no break between papers.
Number of
Paper Marks MCQ Total duration
Questions
The questions in Paper I intends to assess the teaching/
research aptitude of the candidate. It will primarily be 03 hours (180 minutes)
I 100 50
designed to test reasoning ability, reading comprehension, without any break.
divergent thinkingand general awareness of the Candidate. All the questions are
This is based on the subject selected by the candidate and will compulsory.
II 200 100
assess domain knowledge.

4.3 Subject and Syllabus of Test

The List of Subjects and their Codes for UGC - NET December 2023 are given at Appendix -III.
Syllabus for all NET Subjects can be downloaded from the UGC website:
https://www.ugcnetonline.in/syllabus-new.php.The National Testing Agency will not provide the
copy of syllabus to any candidate.

~5~
 4.4 Medium of Question Paper
(i) The medium of Question Paper shall be in English & Hindi only except language papers.
(ii) Option of medium of Question Paper should be carefully chosen by the Candidate, while filling
the Application Form online. The option once exercised cannot be changed.
(iii) Candidates are required to answer in the medium as per option exercised in the Application Form.
(iv) In case of any ambiguity in translation/construction of a question in the exam, its English version
shall be treated as final and the decision of NTA shall be final in this regard.
4.5 Marking Scheme
(a) Each question carries 02 (two) marks.
(b) For each correct response, candidate will get 02 (two) marks.
(c) There is no negative marking for incorrect response.
(d) No marks will be given for questions un-answered/un-attempted/marked for Review.
(e) To answer a question, the candidate needs to choose one option as correct option.
(f) If a question is found to be incorrect/ambiguous or has multiple correct answers, only those
candidates who have attempted the question and chosen one of the correct answers would be
given the credit.
(g) If a question is found to be incorrect and the Question is dropped, then two marks (+2) will be
awarded to only to those candidates who have attempted the question. The reason could be due
to human error or technical error. Since, there is no negative marking, candidate needs to
choose one most nearest option as correct answer.

5. Eligibility Criteria for UGC – NET December 2023

5.1 Qualifying Examination:
(a) General/Unreserved/General-EWS candidates who have secured at least 55% marks (without
rounding off) in Master’s Degree or equivalent examination from universities/institutions
recognized by UGC (available on the website: www.ugc.ac.in in Humanities and Social Science
(including languages), Computer Science and Applications, Electronic Science etc. are eligible for
this Test. List of subjects at Post Graduation level is attached as Appendix -V. The Other Backward
Classes (OBC) belonging to Non-Creamy Layer/Scheduled Caste (SC)/Scheduled Tribe
(ST)/Persons with Disability (PwD)/Third gender category candidates who have secured at least
50% marks (without rounding off) in Master’s degree or equivalent examination are eligible for
this Test.
(b) Candidates who are pursuing their Master’s degree or equivalent course or candidates who have
appeared for their qualifying Master’s degree (final year) examination and whose result is still
awaited or candidates whose qualifying examinations have been delayed may also apply for this
test. However, such candidates will be admitted provisionally and shall be considered eligible for
award of JRF/eligibility for Assistant Professor only after they have passed their Master’s Degree
or equivalent examination with at least 55% marks (50% marks in case of OBC-NCL/ SC / ST /
PwD / Third gender category candidates). Such candidates must complete their Master’s degree
or equivalent examination within two years from the date of NET result with required percentage
of marks, failing which they shall be treated as disqualified.
(c) Candidates belonging to the Third gender category are eligible to draw the same relaxation in fee,
age and Eligibility Criteria for NET (i.e. JRF and Assistant Professor) as are available to
SC/ST/PwD categories. The subject-wise qualifying cut-offs for this category would be the lowest
among those for SC / ST / PwD / OBC–NCL / General-EWS categories in the corresponding
subject.
(d) The Ph.D. degree holders whose Master’s level examination have been completed by 19 September
1991 (irrespective of date of declaration of result) shall be eligible for a relaxation of 5% in aggregate
marks (i.e. from 55% to 50%) for appearing in NET. The list of Post – Graduation courses and their
codes is given at Appendix -VI.
(e) Candidates are advised to appear in the subject of their Post – Graduation only. The candidates,
whose Post Graduation subject is not covered in the list of NET subjects attached as Appendix -V,
may appear in a related subject.
(f) Candidates are neither required to send any certificates/documents in support of their eligibility
nor printout of their Application Form or Confirmation Page to NTA. However, the candidates, in
their own interest, must ensure themselves about their eligibility for the test. In the event of any
ineligibility being detected by the UGC/NTA at any stage, their candidature will be cancelled and
they shall be liable for legal action. NTA does not verify the information provided by the
candidates during online registration and hence candidature will be purely provisional subject to
the fulfillment of eligibility criteria.
(g) Candidates with post-graduate diploma/certificate awarded by Indian University/ Institute or
foreign degree/diploma/certificate awarded by the foreign University/ institute should in their
own interest, ascertain the equivalence of their diploma/degree/ certificate with Master’s degree

~6~
 of recognized Indian universities from Association of Indian Universities (AIU), New Delhi
(www.aiu.ac.in).
5.2 Instructions
(i) The eligibility for ‘Assistant Professor’ or for ‘Junior Research Fellowship and Assistant Professor’
will depend on the performance of the candidate in both the papers of UGC-NET in aggregate.
However, the candidates qualifying exclusively for Assistant Professor will not be considered for
the award of JRF. Candidates appearing in UGC-NET should thoughtfully select in the Application
Form whether they are applying for ‘Assistant Professor’ or ‘Junior Research Fellowship (JRF) and
Assistant Professor’. Candidates who qualify the Test for eligibility for Assistant Professor will be
governed by the rules and regulations for recruitment of Assistant Professor of the concerned
Universities / Colleges/ State governments, as the case may be.
(ii) The candidates who qualify for the award of JRF are eligible to pursue research in the subject of
their post-graduation or in a related subject and are also eligible for Assistant Professor. The
universities, institutions, IITs and other national organizations may select the JRF awardees for full
time research work in accordance with the procedure prescribed by them.
(iii) Junior Research Fellowship: Candidates qualifying for the award of JRF will be eligible to receive
fellowship of UGC under various schemes, subject to their finding placement in
universities/IITs/Institutions. The validity period of the offer will be three years w.e.f. the date of
issue of JRF Award Letter. However, for those candidates who have already joined M. Phil. / Ph.D.,
the date of commencement of Fellowship shall be from the date of declaration of NET result or
date of their joining, whichever is later.
(iv) The National Fellowship for Scheduled Caste Students (NFSC) and National Fellowship for Other
Backward Classes (NFOBC) shall be governed by the guidelines available on the official websites
of the concerned Ministries and/or the UGC.
5.3 Exemption (Eligibility for Assistant Professor)
(i) NET/SET/SLET shall remain the minimum eligibility condition for recruitment and appointment
of Assistant Professors in Universities/Colleges/ Institutions. In this regard, exemption from
NET/SET/SLET will be governed by UGC regulations and amendments notified in the Gazette of
India from time to time.
(ii) The candidates who have passed the UGC/CSIR/ JRF examination prior to 1989 are also exempted
from appearing in NET.
(iii) For SET Candidates: The candidates who have cleared the States Eligibility Test (SET) accredited
by UGC for Assistant Professor held prior to 1st June 2002, are exempted from appearing in NET,
and are eligible to apply for Assistant Professor anywhere in India. For SET held from 1st June
2002 onwards, the qualified candidates are eligible to apply for the post of Assistant Professor only
in the universities/colleges situated in the State from where they have cleared their SET.
5.4 Age Limit and Relaxation
(i) JRF: Not more than 30 years as on 1st day of the month in which the examination is concluded
i.e. 01.12.2023.
A relaxation of upto 5 years is provided to the candidates belonging to OBC-NCL (as per the
Central list of OBC available on website: www.ncbc.nic.in) /SC/ST/PwD/Third gender
categories and to women applicants. Relaxation will also be provided to the candidates with
research experience, limited to the period spent on research in the relevant / related subject of
post-graduation degree, subject to a maximum of 5 years, on production of a certificate from
appropriate authority, which should be a recognized Indian university / Institute of National
Importance / foreign university which is duly approved / recognized / accredited in its own
Country / Public Sector Undertaking of Government of India / State Government in India. The
research should not have been carried out towards completion of graduation or post-graduation
degree(s). Three years relaxation in age will be permissible to the candidates with L.L.M. degree.
A relaxation of upto 5 years is provided to the candidates who have served in the armed forces
subject to the length of service in the armed forces upto the first day of the month in which the
concerned UGC-NET is, conducted, i.e., 01.12.2023. Total age relaxation on the above ground(s)
shall not exceed five years under any circumstances.
(i) Assistant Professor: There is no upper age limit in applying for UGC-NET for Assistant Professor.

~7~
6. Reservations
6.1 Reservation Policy of the Government of India is applicable to UGC-NET According to this, in the
Central Universities and Institutions which are deemed to be Universities, the reservation of seats shall
be as follows:
i. 15% of the seats for Scheduled Caste (SC) candidates.
ii. 7.5% of seats Scheduled Tribe (ST) candidates.
iii. 27% of the seats for Other Backward Classes (OBC) Non-Creamy Layer (NCL) candidates as per
the Central List*
iv. 10% of the seats for General-Economically Weaker Sections (General- EWS) candidates.
v. 05% of the seats in the above mentioned categories for Persons with Disabilities (PwD) with 40%
or more disability.
Notes:
1. The benefit of reservation for admission to Central Educational Institutions (CEIs) shall
be given only to those classes/castes/tribes which are in the respective Central List
published by the Government of India from time to time.
2. Other Backward Classes - Non-Creamy Layer (OBC–NCL) are as per the Central listof
Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC),
Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in Thus, the candidates falling in this list may
mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-NCL
(Central List) must not choose OBC-NCL.
3. Economically Weaker Section (EWS) - This provision would be regulated as per theOM
No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of SocialJustice
and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the
Letters No 35-2/2019-T.S.I dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019, 04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of
MHRD Department of Higher Education regarding implementation of reservation for
Economically Weaker Section (EWS) for admission in Central Educational Institutions
(CEIs).

7. Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD)

7.1 (a) Guidelines for conducting written examination for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities above
40% vide letter dated 29 August 2018 from Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD):
As per Section 2(t) of the RPwD Act, “Persons with Disability (PwD)” means a person with long-term
physical, mental, intellectual, or sensory impairment which, in interaction with barriers, hinders his
full and effective participation in society equally with others.
According to Section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016, “persons with benchmark disabilities” means a
person with not less than forty percent (40%) of a specified disability where specified disability has not
been defined in measurable terms and includes a person with disability where specified disability has
been defined in measurable terms, as certified by the certifying authority.
Facilities for PwD candidates to appear in the exam
As per the guidelines issued by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities
(Divyangjan) under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment issued from time to time on the
subject: “Written Examination for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities”, for the candidate with one of
the benchmark disabilities [as defined in Section 2(r) of RPwD Act, 2016], holding a Disability
Certificate in the prescribed format in the Rights of Person with Disabilities Rules , 2017
(https://upload.indiacode.nic.in/showfile?actid=AC_CEN_25_54_00002_201649_1517807328299&ty
pe=rule&filename=Rules_notified_15.06.pdf ).
a. The facility of Scribe, in case he/she has a physical limitation, and a scribe is essential to write
the examination on his/her behalf, being so certified in the aforesaid format by a CMO / Civil
Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of a Government Health Care Institution.
b. Compensatory time of one hour for examination of three hours duration, whether such candidate
uses the facility of Scribe or not.
c. Since the examination is being conducted in CBT (online) mode, there will not be separate
Question Paper and not in a separate script for Visually Impaired candidates.

~8~
 Services of a Scribe
As per the office memorandum of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (Reference: F. No.
34-02/2015-DD-III dated August 29, 2018), the PwD candidates who are visually OR dyslexic (severe)
impaired OR have a disability in the upper limbs OR have lost fingers/hands thereby preventing them
from properly operating the Computer Based Test platform may avail the services of a scribe
(amanuensis).
The scribe will help the Candidate in reading the questions and/or keying in the answers as per the
directions of the Candidate. A scribe will NEITHER explain the questions NOR suggest any solutions.
PwD candidates who desire to avail the services of a scribe need to opt for this during the online
registration of UGC NET December 2023.
It is to be noted that the Scribe may be provided by the National Testing Agency (NTA), if requested
in the Application Form. Candidate may also avail his own scribe- Annexure II.
If it is found at any stage that a candidate has availed the services of a scribe and/or availed the
compensatory time but does not possess the extent of disability that warrants the use of a scribe and/or
grant of compensatory time, the candidate will be excluded from the process of evaluation. In case
such a candidate has already been issued certificate or award letter, the candidature of the candidate
will be cancelled.
The NTA does not guarantee any change in the category or sub-category (PwD status) after the submission
of the Online Application Form, and in any case, no change will be entertained by NTA after the declaration
of NTA Score for UGC NET December 2023. The category/sub-category (PwD status) entered in the UGC
NET December 2023 will be considered final. Therefore, the candidates are advised to fill in the category/sub-
category column very carefully.
Note:
a. The minimum degree of disability should be 40% (Benchmark Disability) in order to be eligible
for availing reservation for persons with specified disability.
b. The extent of “specified disability” in a person shall be assessed in accordance with the
“Guidelines for the purpose of assessing the extent of specified disability in a person included
under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (49 of 2016)” notified in the Gazette of
India by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment [Department of Empowerment of
Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan)] on 4 January 2018.
c. No change in the category will be entertained after the last date specified by NTA for UGC NET
December 2023 Registration.

Candidates must note that the benefit of reservation will be given to them subject to verification of documents. If
it is discovered at any stage that a candidate has used a false/fake/incorrect document, or has furnished false,
incorrect, or incomplete information, in order to avail the benefit of reservation, then, Such a Candidates shall be
excluded from all admission processes. In can such a candidates has already been given admission, the admission
shall stand cancelled.
7.2 (b) Guidelines for conducting written examination for persons with specified disabilities covered
under the definition of Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of
Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in
writing
I. These guidelines may be called as Guidelines for conducting written examination for persons
with specified disabilities covered under the definition of Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act, 2016
but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act, i.e. persons having less than
40% disability and having difficulty in writing.
II. The facility of scribe and/or compensatory time shall be granted solely to those having difficulty
in writing subject to production of a certificate to the effect that person concerned has limitation
to write and that scribe is essential to write examination on his/her behalf from the competent
medical authority of a Government healthcare institution as per proforma at Annexure-I.
III. The medical authority for the purpose of certification as mentioned in point (II) above should
be a multi-member authority comprising the following:-
(a) Chief Medical officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical Officer ..... Chairperson
(b) Orthopaedic/PMR specialist
(c) Neurologist, if available*
(d) Clinical Psychologist/Rehabilitation Psychologiste/ Psychiatrist/Special Educator
(e) Occupational therapist, if available*
(f) Any other expert based on the condition of the candidate as may be nominated by the Chairperson. (*
the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical Officer may make full efforts for
inclusion of neurologists, occupational therapist from the nearest District or the Medical
College/Institute, if the same is not available in the District)"
(g) Compensatory time not less than 20 minutes per hour of the examination should be allowed for
persons who are eligible for getting scribe. In case the duration of the examination is less than an hour,
then the duration of the compensatory time should be allowed on pro-rata basis. Compensatory time
should not be less than 5 minutes and should be in the multiple of 5.

~9~
8. Registration and Application Process
Instructions for filling Online Application Form
8.1 Candidates have to apply for UGC NET December 2023 “Online” ONLY by accessing the website:
https://ugcnet.nta.ac.in/; https://ugcnet.ntaonline.in. The Application Form other than online mode
would not be accepted in any case. Only one application is to be submitted by a candidate. More than
one application i.e. multiple Application Forms submitted by a candidate will be rejected.
8.2 It is suggested that the candidate should keep the following ready before starting the filling of the
Application Form:
Before beginning the process of filling the Online Application Form, read InformationBulletin carefully, keep
ready required documents and follow the following instructions:
❖ Copy of Board/ University Certificate for Candidate’s Name, Mother’s Name,Father’s Name and
Date of Birth.
❖ Type of Identification – Bank A/c passbook with photograph/ Passport Number/Ration Card/ Aadhaar
Card Number/Voter ID Card Number/ Other Govt ID
❖ Qualifying Degree Certificate or last semester marks sheet
❖ Your Mailing Address as well as Permanent Address with Pin Code (ReferAppendix- VI for State Code)
❖ Four cities for Centres of your choice (Refer Appendix-III for Codes)
❖ Code of NET Subject (Refer Appendix-II for Code)
❖ Code of subject at Post Graduation level (Refer Appendix-IV for Code)
❖ Code of Post-Graduation Course (Refer Appendix-V for Code)
❖ Category Certificate, if applicable
❖ Economically Weaker Section (EWS) Certificate, if applicable
❖ Person with Disability (PwD) Certificate, if applicable
❖ e-mail address and Mobile Number of candidate
❖ Scanned images in JPG/JPEG format only:

8.3 Information Bulletin should be downloaded and read carefully by the candidate to be sure about
his/her eligibility and acquaint themselves with requirements for submission of Online Application
Form.
8.4 In order to avoid correction in the particulars in later stage, the candidate should exercise utmost
caution while filling up correct details.
8.5 Following Steps may be followed to Apply Online:
Step-1: Apply for Online Registration using own Email Id and Mobile No.
Step-2: Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated Application Number.
Upload scanned images of: (i) the recent photograph (file size 10Kb – 200Kb) either in colour or black
& white with 80% face (without mask) visible including ears against white background; (ii) candidate’s
signature (file size: 4kb - 30kb)
Step-3: Pay fee using SBI/ CANARA/ ICICI/ HDFC Bank/Debit Card/Credit Card/UPI and keep proof
of fee paid.
All the 3 Steps can be done together or at separate timings. The submission of Application of a candidate
could be considered as successful and his/her candidature would be confirmed only on the successful
transaction/receipt of the prescribed application fee from him/her.
Note:
(i) The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step - 2 and Step-3 are not
completed, such Application Forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be
entertained.
(ii) No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained.
(iii) The entire application process of UGC – NET December 2023 is online, including uploading of scanned
images, Payment of Fees and Printing of Confirmation page. Therefore, candidates are not required to
send/submit any document(s) including Confirmation page to NTA through Post/Fax/By Hand/E-mail.
(iv) Candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA’s website regularly for latest updates and to check their e-
mails.
(v) The NTA can make use of the data generated for the purpose of research and analysis.
(vi) All the candidates who have submitted the online application and paid the Examination fee till last date will
be allowed to appear in UGC – NET December 2023 and their Admit Cards will be uploaded on the website
as per schedule.
(vii) NTA does not verify the information filled by the candidates in the Application Form nor verifies any
certificate of category/educational qualification for deciding the eligibility of candidates.
(viii) The certificates of educational qualification and category (if applied under reserved category) will be
verified by the concerned institution. The candidates are, therefore, advised to ensure their eligibility and
the category (if applying under reserved category).
(ix) The NTA will, in no way, be responsible for any wrong/incorrect information furnished by the candidate(s)
in his/her Online Application Form. The letter/emails/WhatsApp Message/Public Grievance in this regard
will not be entertained by the NTA.

~ 10 ~
8.6 Procedure for Filling Application Form
Part I: Registration Page
Fill in the basic information and note down the system generated Application No.
(i) Candidate’s Name/ Mother’s Name/ Father’s Name as given in the Senior Secondary School
Examination or equivalent Board/ University Certificate in capital letters
(ii) Date of Birth in DD/MM/YYYY format as recorded in Secondary School
Examination or equivalent Board/ University certificate.
(iii) Mobile Number and e-mail Address - Candidates must provide own MobileNumber and
e-mail address.
Note: Only one registered e-mail address and one Mobile Number are valid for
correspondence.
Part II: Fill in the complete Application Form
Fill in the complete Application.
Note:
(i) Other Backward Classes (OBC) - Non-Creamy Layer as per the Central List of Other Backward
Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC), Government of India
website (www.ncbc.nic.in). Thus, the candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the
Category Column. State list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must
choose General.
(ii) Economically Weaker Section (EWS) - As per the OM No. 20013/01/2019-BC-II dated January
17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-
U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-2/2019-T.S.I dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019,
04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education (which is now known as
Ministry of Education) regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker
Section (EWS) for admission in Central Educational Institutions.
(iii) iii. Provide a complete postal address with PIN Code (Correspondence Address as well as
Permanent Address) for further correspondence. PIN code of Correspondence Address should
be given in the space provided for this purpose.
Note: The NTA shall not be responsible for any delay/loss in postal transit or for an incorrect
Correspondence address given by the Applicant in the Application Form.
Choice of Cities for Examination Centres: The City of Examination Centres where the test shall be
conducted are given at Appendix-III. It is mandatory for candidates to select four cities of their
choice while filling Online Application Form of UGC NET December 2023. Effort will be made to
allot Centre of Examination to the candidates in order of the City choice opted by them in their
Application Form. However, due to administrative reasons, a different city of nearby area may be
allotted.
Uploading of Scanned Images
(i) Candidate’s Photograph: to be uploaded.
• Photography should not be done with a cap or goggles. The photograph should cover
80% of the face (without mask) visible including ears against white background.
• Spectacles are allowed if being used regularly.
• Polaroid and Computer-generated photos are not acceptable.
• Applications not complying with these instructions or with unclear photographs are liable
to be rejected.
• Candidates may please note that if it is found that photograph uploaded is fabricated i.e.
de- shaped or seems to be hand-made or computer made, the form of the candidate will
be rejected and the same would be considered as using unfairmeans and the candidate
would be dealt with accordingly.
• Application without photograph shall be rejected. The photograph need not be attested.
Candidates are advised to take 6 to 8 passport size-colored photographs with a white
background.
• Note: Passport size photograph is to be used for uploading on Online Application Form
and also for pasting on Attendance Sheet at the Examination centre.
The candidate should scan his/her passport size photograph for uploading. File size
must be between 10 kb to 200 kb.
(ii) Candidate’s Signature: to be uploaded.
The candidates are required to upload the full signature in running handwriting in the
appropriate box given in the Online Application Form. Writing full name in the Box in Capital
letters would not be accepted as signature and the Application Form would be rejected.
Further, unsigned Online Application Forms will also be rejected.
The candidate should put his full signature on white paper with Blue/Black Ink pen and scan
for uploading.
File size must be between 04 kb to 30 kb.
Note: Candidate must ensure that the uploaded images are clear and proper.

~ 11 ~
 8.7 Check List for filling the Online Application Form:
The candidates are advised to ensure the following points before filling the Online Application Forms:
(i) Whether they fulfill the eligibility conditions for the Test as prescribed under the heading
‘Conditions of Eligibility’.
(ii) That they have filled their gender and category viz General/OBC (Non-Creamy Layer)/SC/
ST/Gen-EWS/ Male/Female/Third gender, in the relevant column correctly.
(iii) That they have filled their Subject and City of Examination in the relevant column correctly.
(iv) That the Person with Disability (PwD) candidate has filled the relevant column in the Online
Application Form. Only PwD candidates have to fill this column and the others have to leave it
blank.
(v) Whether they have kept a Printout of Application Form (confirmation page) for their own record.
8.8 Important Points to Note:
i. The Candidates should fill their complete postal address with PIN Code for further
correspondence.
ii. The Candidate must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number provided in the Online
Application Form are their own (which cannot be changed later) as communication may be sent
by NTA through e-mail or SMS.
iii. The Candidate should not give the postal address, Mobile Number or e-mail ID of Coaching
Centre in the Online Application Form.
iv. In order to appear in UGC-NET December 2023, the candidates are required to apply ‘online’.
The Application Form other than online mode shall not be accepted. No change will be
accepted through offline mode i.e. through fax/application including e-mail etc.
v. Online submission of application may be done by accessing the NTA official website:
ugcnet.nta.nic.in.
vi. Online Application Form cannot be withdrawn once it is submitted successfully.
vii. Application Form of candidates who do not fulfill the eligibility criteria shall be rejected.
viii. A candidate is allowed to submit only one Application Form. If a candidate submits more than
one Application Form, the candidature is likely to be cancelled.
ix. Request for change in any particular in the Application Form shall not be entertained after
closing of the correction window.
Note: However, a chance will be given to the candidates to correct/modify/edit some of the
particular(s) of the Application Form online only, after submission of Application Form.
Candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA website regularly for any updates.
x. The City of Examination Centres where the test shall be conducted are given in the Information
Bulletin. The Cities indicated for the entrance Examination should be carefully chosen by the
candidate, as no change will be allowed once application is submitted.
xi. Selection of a candidate in the test is provisional, subject to being found otherwise eligible for
admission.
xii. In case a candidate is found providing incorrect information or the identity is proved to be false
at any time in the future, the candidate shall face penal action as per the law.
xiii. The Candidates are not required to send/ submit the confirmation page of Online Application
Form to the NTA. However, he/she is advised to retain the following documents with them as
reference for future correspondence:
❖ At least four printouts of the Confirmation Page of Online Application Form.
❖ Proof of fee paid.
❖ Photographs (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) –6 to 8 passport size
photographs need to be kept aside.
❖ The name on the photo identification must match with the name as shown on the Admit Card.
If the name has been changed due to events such as marriage, candidate must show the
relevant document at the time of exam. Marriage Certificate / Divorce / Decree / Legal Name
Change Document.
8.9 Provision of Aadhaar:
The Aadhaar number is only one of the types of identification and is not mandatory. Candidates may also
enter Passport number, Ration Card number, Election Card (EPIC No.), Bank Account number or
any other valid Government identity number.

9. Admit Card for UGC NET December 2023

9.1 The Admit Card would be issued provisionally to the candidates of UGC NET December 2023, subject
to fulfilment of eligibility criteria.
9.2 The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website and appear for the Examination
at the given Centre on date, shift, time and discipline as indicated in his/her Admit Card.
9.3 No candidate will be allowed to appear at the examination centre, on Date and Timings other than that
allotted to them in their Admit card.

~ 12 ~
9.4 In case a candidate is unable to download Admit Card from the website, he/she may approach the
Help Line of NTA between 09:30 am to 5:30 pm or write to NTA at: https://ugcnet.nta.ac.in/;
https://ugcnet.ntaonline.in.
9.5 The candidates are advised to read the Instructions given in the Admit Card carefully in advance of the
exam day and follow them during the conduct of the examination.
9.6 In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or his/her photograph and signatures
shown in the Admit Card and Confirmation Page, the candidate may immediately approach the Help
Line between 09:30 am to 5:30 pm. In such cases, candidates would appear in the Examination with the
already downloaded Admit Card. However, NTA will take necessary action to make correction in the
record later.
Note:
a. Candidate may please note that Admit Cards will not be sent by post.
b. In no case, the duplicate Admit Card for UGC-NET December 2023 wouldbe issued at the Examination
Centre(s).
c. Candidate must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made therein.
d. Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Cards in good condition for future reference.
e. No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose Applications are found to be incompletefor any
reasons (including indistinct/ doubtful photographs/unsigned Applications) or who do not fulfil the
eligibility criteria for the examination.
f. Issue of Admit Cards, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility which shallbe further
scrutinized at subsequent stages of admission process.

9.7 Conduct of Exam

Candidates are advised to go through the instructions given in the Admit Cardcarefully before going
for the Examination.
9.7.1 Documents to be brought to the Examination Centre
▪ Candidates must bring the following documents to the Test Centre
▪ Printed copy of Admit Card downloaded from NTA website.
▪ One passport size photograph (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) for
pasting on the specific space in the Attendance Sheet at Centre during the Examination.
Any one of the authorized photo IDs (must be original, valid andnon- expired) – PAN
card/ Driving License/Passport/ Aadhaar Card (With photograph)/ Aadhaar). The
name on the photo identification must match with the name as shown on the Admit Card.
If the name has been changed due to events such as marriage, candidate must show the
relevant document at the time of exam. Marriage Certificate/ Divorce/ Decree/ Legal Name
Change Document.
▪ PwD certificate issued by the Competent Authority, if claiming the relaxation under PwD
category.
9.7.2 Reporting Time and other Important Instructions
(i) The candidates shall report at the Examination Centre two hours before the
commencement of the examination so as to complete the frisking and registration
formalities well before time. Registration desk will be closed 30 minutes prior to the
examination.
(ii) Candidates shall not be permitted to enter in the Examination Centre after 8.30 am in First
Shift and after 2.30 pm in Second Shift.
(iii) Candidates are also advised to report at the Examination Hall/Room in the Examination
Centre by 8.45 am in the First Shift and by 2.45 pm in the Second Shift.
(iv) The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully and
follow them during the conduct of the examination.
(v) Candidates should take their seat immediately after opening of the Examination Hall. If
the candidates do not report in time due to any reason i.e. traffic jam, train/bus delay etc,
they are likely to miss some of the general instructions to be announced in the
Examination Rooms/Halls. The NTA shall not be responsible for any delay.
(vi) The candidate must show, on demand, the Admit Card downloaded/printed from the
NTA website for admission in the examination room/hall. The Test Centre Staff on duty
is authorized to verify the identity of candidates and may take steps to verify and confirm
the identify credentials. Candidates are requested to extend their full cooperation. A
candidate who does not possess the valid Admit Card shall not be permitted for the
examination under any circumstances by the Centre Superintendent.
(vii) A seat indicating Roll Number will be allotted to each candidate. Candidates should find
and sit on their allocated seat only. In case of a candidate who changes room/hall or the
seat on his/her own other than the one allotted, candidature shall be cancelled and no
plea would be accepted for it.
(viii)The candidate should ensure that the question paper available on the computer is as per
his/her opted subject indicated in the Admit Card. In case, the subject of question paper

~ 13 ~
 is other than his/her opted subject, the same may be brought to the notice of the
Invigilator concerned.
(ix) Candidate may approach the Centre Superintendent/Invigilator in the room for any
technical assistance, first aid emergency or any other information during the course of
examination.
For any queries or issues regarding Computer Based Test, the candidates may contact on
Helpline Numbers available on UGC NET website.
(x) For those who are unable to appear on the scheduled date of test for any reason, re-test
shall not be held by the NTA under any circumstances.

10. Computer Based Test (CBT) Guidelines

The CBT Guidelines are provided at Appendix-VII. Please read them carefully andpractice the same with
Mock Test through: https://www.nta.ac.in/Quiz.

11. Unfair Means Practices and Breach of Examination Rules

Definition: Unfair Means Practice is an activity that allows a candidate to gain an unfair advantage over other
candidates. It includes, but is not limited to:
a) Being in possession of any item or article which has been prohibited or can be used for Unfair Practices
including any stationery item, communication device, accessories, eatable items, ornaments or any other
material or information relevant or not relevant to the Examination in the paper concerned;
b) Using someone to write Examination (impersonation) or preparing material for copying;
c) Breaching Examination rules or any direction issued by NTA in connection with UGC NET Examination.
d) Assisting other candidate to engage in malpractices, giving or receiving assistance directly or indirectly
of any kind or attempting to do so.
e) Writing questions or answers on any material given by the Centre Superintendent for writing answers.
f) Contacting or communicating or trying to do so with any person, other than the Examination Staff,
during the Examination time in the Examination Centre.
g) Threatening any of the officials connected with the conduct of the Examination or threatening any of the
candidates.
h) Using or attempting to use any other undesirable method or means in connection with the examination.
i) Manipulation and fabrication of online documents viz. Admit Card, Self-Declaration, etc.
j) Forceful entry in /exit from Examination Centre/Hall.
k) Use or attempted use of any electronic device after entering the Examination Centre.
l) Affixing/uploading of wrong/morphed photographs/signatures on the Application Form/Admit
Card/Performa.
m) Creating obstacles in smooth and fair conduct of examination.
n) Any other malpractices declared as Unfair Means by the NTA.
Disclaimer- The decision of NTA shall be final and binding for declaration of any person / candidate guilty
of foregoing or such offence as shall be classified as Unfair Means Case (UMC).

12. Display of Provisional Answer Key(s) for Challenges

12.1. NTA will display Provisional Answer Key(s) & Question Paper attempted by the candidate on the
NTA's website https://ugcnet.nta.ac.in/; https://ugcnet.ntaonline.in. Exact date shall be displayed on the
NTA’s website for the same after the commencement of the examination. The Provisional Answer Key(s) are
likely to be displayed for two to three days.
12.2 The Candidates will be required to pay online an amount of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred Only)
per answer key challenged, as processing fee. Non-Refundable.
12.3. Only paid challenges made during the stipulated time through the key challenge link will be considered.
Challenges without justification/evidence/after stipulated time period and those filed on any other medium
other than the prescribed link will not be considered.
12.4. The NTA decision on the challenges shall be final and no further communication will be entertained.
NTA will not inform the Candidates individually about the outcome of the challenges made.
12.5. The subject experts will examine all the challenges received and then a final answer key will be displayed
and declared.
12.6. The result will be compiled based on the final answer key declared. No grievance with regard to
answer key(s) after the declaration of result/NTA Score of UGC NET December 2023 will be entertained.

13. Display of Recorded Responses

The NTA will display the Question Paper and attempted recorded responses by the candidates on the NTA
website ugcnet.nta.nic.in prior to declaration of result. The Question paper attempted and recorded responses
are likely to be displayed for two to three days. Candidates are advised to download the response sheet for
future. No copy of response sheet will be provided by NTA after the declaration of result under RTI Act.

~ 14 ~
14. Procedure and Criteria for declaration of result
14.1 The following steps will be followed:
Step I: The number of candidates to be qualified (total slots or Eligibility for Assistant Professor) shall
be equal to 6% of the candidates appearedin both the papers of NET.
Step II: The total slots shall be allocated to different categories as per the reservation policy of
Government of India.
Step III: In order to be considered for ‘JRF and Eligibility for Assistant Professor’ and for ‘Assistant
Professor’, the candidate must have appeared in both the papers and secured at least 40% aggregate
marks in both the papers taken together for General (Unreserved) / General-EWS category candidates
and at least 35% aggregate marks in both the papers taken together for all candidates belonging to the
reserved categories (viz., SC, ST, OBC (belonging to Non- Creamy Layer), PwD and Third gender).
Step IV: The number of candidates to be declared qualified in any subject for a particular category is
derived as per the methodology illustrated below:
Example: Number of candidates belonging to SC category who
Number of candidates to be declared qualified for secure at least 35% aggregate marks in both the papers
Eligibility for Assistant Professor in the subject taken together for SC category for‘Economics’ (x) Total
‘Economics’ for the Scheduled Caste (SC)category slots derived for SC category as per Step II (÷) Total
number of candidates belonging to SC category over all
subjects who secure atleast 35% aggregate marks in
both the Papers taken together.

The aggregate percentage of the two papers corresponding to the number of slots arrived at, shall
determine the qualifying cut-off for Eligibility for Assistant Professor ‘in ‘Economics’ for the SC
category.
Similar yardstick shall be employed for deriving the subject-wise qualifying cut-offs for all categories.
Step V: All candidates who had applied for ‘Eligibility for JRF & Eligibility for Assistant Professor both’
out of the total number of qualified candidates derived as per Step IV, shall constitute the consideration
zone for JRF.
Step VI: The total number of slots available for awarding JRF is allocated among different categories
as per the reservation policy of Government of India. The procedure for subject wise cum category-wise
allocation of JRF slots is illustrated below:
Number of candidates belonging to ST category who have
Example: opted for JRF and have qualified for Eligibility for Assistant
Number of candidates to be declared qualified for Professor in the subject ‘Economics’ (x) Total JRF slots
JRF & Eligibility for Assistant Professorboth in the available for ST category (÷) Total number of candidates
subject ‘Economics’ forthe Scheduled Tribe (ST) belonging to ST category over all subjects who have opted
category for JRF and have Qualified for Eligibility for Assistant
Professor.
The aggregate percentage of the two paper scores corresponding to the number of JRF slots arrived at,
shall determine the qualifying cut-off for JRF in ‘Economics’ for the ST category.
Similar procedure is used for all subjects and categories.
It may be noted that the above qualifying criteria decided by UGC is final and binding. Result of the
examination shall be hosted on NTA website https://ugcnet.nta.ac.in/; https://ugcnet.ntaonline.in.
The candidates will not be individually intimated about their result.

15. Normalization procedure (Appendix – XI):

a) For multi-shift papers, raw marks obtained by the candidates in different shifts/sessions will be
converted to NTA Score (percentile).
b) The detailed procedure on NTA Score being adopted is available on NTA website under Normalization
procedure based on Percentile Score.
c) In case a subject test is conducted in multi-shifts, NTA Score will be calculated corresponding to the
raw marks obtained by a candidate. The calculated NTA Score for the Raw Marks for all the
shifts/sessions will be merged for further processing for deciding the allocation.
d) In the events of the percentiles for the multi-shifts being dissimilar / unequal, the lowest will be the
eligibility cut-off for that category for all candidates (i.e. all shifts).
For Example: In the examination held in two shifts, if the 40% marks correspond to a Percentile score of
78 in Shift 1 and 79 in Shift 2, then all those equal to or above 78 percentiles (Percentile score of 100 to 78)
in both shifts will become eligible in General Category. Similar method will be adopted for the other
categories to determine eligibility cut-offs. In case the examination is held in a greater number of shifts
the same principle shall apply.

~ 15 ~
16. Re-Evaluation/Re-Checking of result
There shall be no re-evaluation/re-checking of result. No correspondence in this regard shall be entertained.

17. Query Redressal System

National Testing Agency (NTA) has established a Query Redressal System (QRS), an online web-enabled
system developed by NTA. QRS is the platform based on web technology which primarily aims to enable
submission of queries/grievances by the Registered Candidate(s) of UGC NET December 2023 Examination
with (24x7) facility for speedy redressal of the queries/grievances. A Unique Registration Number will be
generated for tracking the status of the queries/grievances.
The Registered Candidate(s) are advised to use the online facility for speedy response before mailing their
queries on the official email id of UGC – NET December 2023. i.e. [email protected].
a. Correspondence with NTA
All the correspondence should be addressed by e-mail to NTA on [email protected]. The email query shall
be addressed only if it is not anonymous and contains the name, Registration/Application No, postal
address and contact number of the sender. An email containing vague or general queries and other
queries as contained in the Information Bulletin shall not be entertained. Queries shall not be entertained
from person claiming to be representatives, associates or officiates of the applicant candidate. The
following information shall not be revealed by phone or email:
i. Internal documentation/status.
ii. Internal decision making process of NTA. Any claim/counter claim thereof.
iii. Dates & venue of internal meetings or name of the staff/officers dealing with it.
iv. Any information which in the opinion of NTA cannot be revealed.

18. NTA Weeding Out Rules

The record of UGC NET December 2023 will be preserved upto 90 days from the date of declaration of result.

19. Legal Jurisdiction

All disputes pertaining to the conduct of UGC NET December 2023. Examinations including Results shall fall
within the jurisdiction of Delhi/New Delhi only. Further, any legal question arising out of the Examination
shall be entertained only when raised within 30 days from the declaration of result.
The Director (Administration) of the NTA shall be the official by whose designation the NTA may sue or be
sued.

~ 16 ~
 Annexure – I

Certificate for persons with a disability under RPwD Act, 2016 having less than 40% Disability

This is to certify that, we have examined Mr./Ms./Mrs. …………. (name of the candidate), S/o /D/o
……………………, a resident of………………(Vill/PO/PS/District/State), aged …………….. yrs, a
person with ……………………. (Nature of Disability/Condition), and to state that he/she has
limitation which hampers his/her writing capability owing to his/her above condition. He/she
requires support of scribe for writing the examination.

The above candidate uses aids and assistive device such as prosthetics & orthotics, hearing aid (name
to be specified) which is /are essential for the candidate to appear at the examination with the assistance
of scribe.

This certificate is issued only for the purpose of appearing in written examinations conducted by
recruitment agencies as well as academic institutions and is valid upto __________ (it is valid for
maximum period of six months or less as may be certified by the medical authority)

Signature of medical authority

(Signature & (Signature & (Signature &

(Signature & Name) (Signature & Name)
Name) Name) Name)
Other
Expert, as
Clinical Psyc hologist/
Orthopaedic / Neurologist Occupational therapist nominated
Rehabilitation Psychologist /
PMR specialist (If available) (If available) by the
Psychiatrist / Special Educator
Chairperson
(If any)
(Signature & Name)
Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical Officer………Chairperson

Name of Government Hospital/Health Care Centre with Seal

Place:
Date:

~ 17 ~
 Annexure – II

Letter of Undertaking for Using Own Scribe

I __________________________, a candidate with_______________________(name of the disability)

appearing for the ___________________________(name of the examination) bearing Application No.
__________________at_____________________ (name of the centre) in the District __________,
______________________________ (name of the State). My qualification is
___________________________.

I do hereby state that_________________________________ (name of the scribe) will provide the service
of scribe/reader/lab assistant for the undersigned for taking the aforesaid examination.

I do hereby undertake that his qualification is _________________________________. In case,

subsequently, it is found that his qualification is not as declared by the undersigned and is beyond
my qualification, I shall forfeit my right to the admission and claims relating thereto.

(Signature of the candidate with disability)

Place:
Date:

Photograph of Scribe

(Self-Attested Photograph)

Name of Scribe ID of the Scribe ID Number

~ 18 ~
 Appendix – I

Procedure for Online Payment of Fee and Helpline for Payment related Queries

1. Processing Charges and Goods and Service Taxes (GST) and Procedure for Payment of Fee Mode of
Payment of Fee/ Service Provider and Service/Processing charges & GST
Mode of
S. No ICICI BANK HDFC BANK CANARA BANK STATE BANK OF INDIA
Payment
Other Banks
Rs.13 +
ICICI NIL Charge HDFC NIL Charge (Including SBI
Net GST Rs
1 Canara Bank)
Banking 5.00+GST
Other Other HDFC, ICICI, Rs.17 +
4.00 + GST 4.00 + GST Other Banks
Banks Banks SBI, AXIS GST
Transaction
Transacti Transactio up to
on upto 0% n upto 0% Visa/Master Rs.2000/-
ICICI Rs 2000/- Rs 2000/- 0.40% +
HDFC or
Debit or GST
2 Other Nil
Cards Other Transaction
Banks
Banks Transacti Transactio above
0.5 % +
on above n above 0% Rupay Rs.2000/-
GST
Rs 2000/- Rs 2000/- 0.85% +
GST
Domest 0.40%of 1.10% + 0.80% +
Domestic 0.40% + GST Domestic Domestic
ic Transaction value GST GST
Credit
3 3.50% of
Cards
Interna 2.35%of Internation 1.10% + International Fee+ GST
Nil Charge International
tional Transaction value al GST (Minimum
Rs 11/-)
Transacti
Unified ICICI on upto 0%
Payment or Rs 2000/-
4 Nil Charge NIL Charge NIL Charge
Interface other Transacti
0%
(UPI) banks on above
+ GST
Rs 2000/-
Prescribed Examination Fee (please see the Information at a Glance) can be paid through any
Bank/Payment Gateway in any Payment Mode [service/processing charges per transaction & GST
applicable @ 18 % are to be paid by the candidate, except for payment made through debit card
(Visa/Master):
2. Helplines:
(a) If Paying through State Bank of India (SBI):
Level Name Email ID Contact Number
1 Helpdesk [email protected] 18004253800
2 Helpdesk3 [email protected] 08026599990
3 Customer Care [email protected] 1800112211
4 Through SMS UNHAPPY (add text) 8008202020

(b) If Paying through Canara Bank:

Level Name Email ID Contact No.
[email protected]
/[email protected] (022)61060524/ 8700098336/
1 Help Desk
/[email protected]/ 7428206788/ 9535293631
[email protected]
[email protected]
Complaint Management /[email protected] (022)61060524/ 8700098336 /
2
Services /[email protected] 7428206788/ 9535293631
[email protected]
[email protected]
/[email protected] (022)61060524/ 8700098336 /
3 Customer Care
/[email protected] 7428206788/ 9535293631
[email protected]
(022)61060524/ 8700098336/
4 Through SMS ---
7428206788/ 9535293631
(c) If Paying through HDFC Bank:
Level Name Email ID Contact Number
1 Shri Vikram Singh [email protected] 9799810080
2 Amit Singh [email protected] 7428869770
3 Shri Ripon Bhattacharjee [email protected] 9625031697

~ 19 ~
 (d) If Paying through ICICI Bank:
Level Name Email ID Contact Number
1 Javed Chaudhary [email protected] 9760134455
2 Surya Tiwari [email protected] 7565846789
3 Deepak Kumar [email protected] 8882892218
4 Vijay Koli [email protected] 9372203826
5 Rakesh Bhatnagar [email protected] 9953972004

(e) NTA Helpdesk Contact details (incase the payment related issues are not resolved through the above-
mentioned Helplines of the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator)
Email: [email protected].
Phone No.: 011-40759000
3. Procedure to raise payment related Grievance:
After (successful completion of all the Steps, Confirmation Page of the Application Form, should be
downloaded and a printout of the same may be retained for future reference. The Confirmation Page of the
online Application Form could be generated only after successful payment by the Candidate.
In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of prescribed Fee, then the candidate should
approach the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway integrator (in the helpline number and email given in
APPENDIX- I of the Information Bulletin), for ensuring the successful payment.
Inspite of above, if successful transaction is not reflected on the Portal, the candidate may contact NTA
Helpline. If the payment issue is still not resolved, the candidate may pay second time.
However, any duplicate payment received from the candidate by NTA in course of said transactions will be
refunded through the same payment mode through which the duplicate payment is received, after fee
reconciliation by NTA.
4. Information to be provided by the Candidate while raising any payment related query/grievance
through QRS/email/Helplines: -
a. Name of the Bank and /or payment Gateway.
b. Date and time of the transaction
c. Transaction Number
d. Bank Reference Number
e. Proof of transaction
f. Screenshot from the payment portal (in case of payment failure)

~ 20 ~
 Appendix – II
List of Subjects and their Codes
Note: Syllabi for all NET Subjects can be downloaded from the UGC website:
https://www.ugcnetonline.in/syllabus-new.php National Testing Agency will not send the syllabus to individual
candidates.
Subject
S. No. Subject
Code
1 Adult Education/ Continuing Education/ Andragogy/ Non-Formal Education. 46
2 Anthropology 07
3 Arab Culture and Islamic Studies 49
4 Arabic 29
5 Archaeology 67
6 Assamese 36
7 Bengali 19
8 Bodo 94
9 Buddhist, Jaina, Gandhian and Peace Studies 60
10 Chinese 32
11 Commerce 08
12 Comparative Literature 72
13 Comparative Study of Religions 62
14 Computer Science and Applications 87
15 Criminology 68
16 Defence and Strategic Studies 11
17 Dogri 33
Economics / Rural Economics /Co-operation / Demography / Development
Planning/Development Studies / Econometrics/ Applied Economics / Development
18 01
Economics /Business Economics
19 Education 09
20 Electronic Science 88
21 English 30
22 Environmental Sciences 89
23 Folk Literature 71
24 Forensic Science 82
25 French (French Version) 39
26 Geography 80
27 German 44
28 Gujarati 37
29 Hindi 20
30 Hindu Studies 102
31 History 06
32 Home Science 12
33 Human Rights and Duties 92
34 Indian Culture 50
35 Indian Knowledge System 103
36 Japanese 45
37 Kannada 21
38 Kashmiri 84
39 Konkani 85
Labour Welfare / Personnel Management / Industrial Relations/ Labour and Social
40 55
Welfare / Human Resource Management
41 Law 58
42 Library and Information Science 59
43 Linguistics 31
Maithili 18
44
45 Malayalam 22
Management (including Business Admn. Mgt./Marketing / Marketing Mgt. / Industrial
46 Relations and Personnel Mgt. / Personnel Mgt. / Financial Mgt. /Co-operative
17
Management)
47 Manipuri 35
48 Marathi 38
49 Mass Communication and Journalism 63

~ 21 ~
 Subject
S. No. Subject
Code
50 Museology & Conservation 66
51 Music 16
52 Nepali 34
53 Oriya 23
54 Pali 83
55 Performing Art - Dance/Drama/Theatre 65
56 Persian 42
57 Philosophy 03
Physical Education 47
58
59 Political Science 02
Politics including International Relations/International Studies including Defence /
60 Strategic Studies, West Asian Studies, Southeast Asian Studies, African Studies, SouthAsian
90
Studies, Soviet Studies, American Studies.
61 Population Studies 15
62 Prakrit 91
63 Psychology 04
64 Public Administration 14
65 Punjabi 24
66 Rajasthani 43
Russian 41
67
68 Sanskrit 25
Sanskrit traditional subjects (including Jyotisha/Sidhanta Jyotish/ Navya Vyakarna/
69 Vyakarna/ Mimansa/ Navya Nyaya/ Sankhya Yoga/ Tulanatmaka Darsan/ Shukla
73
Yajurveda/ Madhav Vedant/ Dharmasasta/ Sahitya/ Puranotihasa /Agama).
70 Santali 95
71 Sindhi 101
72 Social Medicine & Community Health 81
73 Social Work 10
74 Sociology 05
75 Spanish 40
76 Tamil 26
77 Telugu 27
78 Tourism Administration and Management. 93
79 Tribal and Regional Language/Literature 70
80 Urdu 28
81 Visual Art (including Drawing & Painting/Sculpture Graphics/Applied Art/History of Art) 79
82 Women Studies 74
83 Yoga 100
The candidates with Master’s Degree in Geography (with specialization in Population Studies) or Mathematics/
Statistics are also eligible to appear in the subject “Population Studies” (Code 015).
‘**’The candidates with Master’s Degree in Humanities (including languages) and Social Sciences are eligible to
appear in subject “Women Studies” (Code 074).
Note: General Paper on Teaching and Research Aptitude (Paper-I) is compulsory for all.

~ 22 ~
 Appendix – III
LIST OF EXAM CITIES for Centres of UGC - NET December 2023

Examination will be held at the following cities, provided there are sufficient numbers of candidates in the city.
S. No. State Exam City City Code
1 Andaman and Nicobar Island Port Blair AN01
2 Andhra Pradesh Amalapuram AP35
3 Andhra Pradesh Anantapur AP01
4 Andhra Pradesh Bobbili AP36
5 Andhra Pradesh Chirala AP04
6 Andhra Pradesh Chittoor AP05
7 Andhra Pradesh Eluru AP06
8 Andhra Pradesh Gooty AP37
9 Andhra Pradesh Gudlavalleru AP38
10 Andhra Pradesh Guntur AP07
11 Andhra Pradesh Kadapa AP08
12 Andhra Pradesh Kakinada AP09
13 Andhra Pradesh Kurnool AP10
14 Andhra Pradesh Madanapalle AP39
15 Andhra Pradesh Markapur AP40
16 Andhra Pradesh Nandyal AP29
17 Andhra Pradesh Nellore AP11
18 Andhra Pradesh Ongole AP12
19 Andhra Pradesh Proddatur AP21
20 Andhra Pradesh Puttaparthi AP41
21 Andhra Pradesh Puttur Ap AP42
22 Andhra Pradesh Rajahmundry AP13
23 Andhra Pradesh Srikakulam AP14
24 Andhra Pradesh Tadpatri AP43
25 Andhra Pradesh Tirupathi AP16
26 Andhra Pradesh Tiruvuru AP44
27 Andhra Pradesh Vijayawada AP17
28 Andhra Pradesh Visakhapatnam AP18
29 Andhra Pradesh Vizianagaram AP19
30 Arunachal Pradesh Itanagar/Naharlagun AL01
31 Arunachal Pradesh Papum Pare AL02
32 Assam Dibrugarh AM06
33 Assam Guwahati AM02
34 Assam Jorhat AM03
35 Assam Lakhimpur As AM07
36 Assam Silchar AM04
37 Assam Tezpur AM05
38 Bihar Arrah BR09
39 Bihar Aurangabad Bihar BR01
40 Bihar Bhagalpur BR02
41 Bihar Darbhanga BR04
42 Bihar Gaya BR05
43 Bihar Muzaffarpur BR06
44 Bihar Patna BR07
45 Bihar Purnea BR08
46 Bihar Rohtas BR41
47 Bihar Samastipur BR12
48 Chandigarh Chandigarh CH01
49 Chhattisgarh Bhilai Nagar/Durg CG01
50 Chhattisgarh Bilaspur(Chhattisgarh) CG02
51 Chhattisgarh Raipur CG03
52 Dadra and Nagar Haveli Silvassa DN01
53 Delhi Delhi/New Delhi DL01
54 Goa Panaji GO03
55 Gujarat Ahmedabad/Gandhinagar GJ01
56 Gujarat Anand GJ02
57 Gujarat Himatnagar GJ14

~ 23 ~
S. No. State Exam City City Code
58 Gujarat Jamnagar GJ06
59 Gujarat Mehsana GJ31
60 Gujarat Rajkot GJ10
61 Gujarat Surat GJ11
62 Gujarat Vadodara GJ12
63 Gujarat Valsad/Vapi GJ13
64 Haryana Ambala HR01
65 Haryana Faridabad HR03
66 Haryana Hisar HR10
67 Himachal Pradesh Bilaspur Hp HP15
68 Himachal Pradesh Hamirpur(Himachal Pradesh) HP03
69 Himachal Pradesh Kangra HP16
70 Himachal Pradesh Kullu HP10
71 Himachal Pradesh Mandi HP08
72 Himachal Pradesh Shimla HP06
73 Himachal Pradesh Solan HP17
74 Himachal Pradesh Una HP09
75 Jammu and Kashmir Anantnag JK05
76 Jammu and Kashmir Baramulla JK01
77 Jammu and Kashmir Budgam JK11
78 Jammu and Kashmir Jammu JK02
79 Jammu and Kashmir Pulwama JK06
80 Jammu and Kashmir Samba JK12
81 Jammu and Kashmir Srinagar(J & K) JK04
82 Jharkhand Bokaro JH01
83 Jharkhand Dhanbad JH02
84 Jharkhand Hazaribagh JH05
85 Jharkhand Jamshedpur JH03
86 Jharkhand Ranchi JH04
87 Karnataka Bagalkot KK19
88 Karnataka Ballari KK03
89 Karnataka Belagavi(Belgaum) KK02
90 Karnataka Bengaluru KK04
91 Karnataka Bengaluru- Urban KK20
92 Karnataka Chikaballapur KK22
93 Karnataka Chikmagalur KK23
94 Karnataka Davangere KK06
95 Karnataka Dharwad KK10
96 Karnataka Gulbarga/Kalaburgi KK08
97 Karnataka Hassan KK09
98 Karnataka Hubli KK27
99 Karnataka Kolar KK30
100 Karnataka Mandya KK18
101 Karnataka Mangaluru(Mangalore) KK12
102 Karnataka Mysuru(Mysore) KK14
103 Karnataka Shivamoga(Shimoga) KK15
104 Karnataka Tumakuru KK16
105 Karnataka Udupi/Manipal KK17
106 Kerala Alappuzha/Chengannur KL01
107 Kerala Angamaly KL20
108 Kerala Ernakulam/Moovattupuzha KL04
109 Kerala Idukki KL05
110 Kerala Kannur KL07
111 Kerala Kasaragod KL08
112 Kerala Kollam KL09
113 Kerala Kottayam KL11
114 Kerala Kozhikode/Calicut KL12
115 Kerala Malappuram KL13
116 Kerala Palakkad KL15
117 Kerala Pathanamthitta KL16
118 Kerala Thiruvananthapuram KL17

~ 24 ~
S. No. State Exam City City Code
119 Kerala Thrissur KL18
120 Kerala Wayanad KL19
121 Ladakh Leh LL01
122 Ladakh Kargil LL02
123 Lakshadweep Kavaratti LD01
124 Madhya Pradesh Balaghat MP01
125 Madhya Pradesh Bhopal MP03
126 Madhya Pradesh Gwalior MP06
127 Madhya Pradesh Indore MP07
128 Madhya Pradesh Jabalpur MP08
129 Madhya Pradesh Khandwa MP29
130 Madhya Pradesh Sagar MP12
131 Madhya Pradesh Satna MP13
132 Madhya Pradesh Ujjain MP15
133 Maharashtra Ahmednagar MR01
134 Maharashtra Akola MR02
135 Maharashtra Amravati MR03
136 Maharashtra Aurangabad(Maharashtra) MR04
137 Maharashtra Beed MR30
138 Maharashtra Bhandara MR31
139 Maharashtra Buldhana MR32
140 Maharashtra Chandrapur MR09
141 Maharashtra Dhule MR10
142 Maharashtra Gondia MR35
143 Maharashtra Jalgaon MR13
144 Maharashtra Kolhapur MR14
145 Maharashtra Latur MR15
146 Maharashtra Mumbai/Navi Mumbai MR16
147 Maharashtra Nagpur MR17
148 Maharashtra Nanded MR18
149 Maharashtra Nandurbar MR36
150 Maharashtra Nashik MR19
151 Maharashtra Parbhani MR38
152 Maharashtra Pune MR22
153 Maharashtra Raigad MR23
154 Maharashtra Ratnagiri MR24
155 Maharashtra Sangli MR25
156 Maharashtra Satara MR26
157 Maharashtra Sindhudurg MR39
158 Maharashtra Solapur MR27
159 Maharashtra Thane MR28
160 Maharashtra Wardha MR29
161 Maharashtra Yavatmal MR34
162 Manipur Imphal MN01
163 Meghalaya Shillong MG01
164 Mizoram Aizawl MZ01
165 Nagaland Dimapur NL01
166 Nagaland Kohima NL02
167 Odisha Angul OR10
168 Odisha Balangir OR20
169 Odisha Balasore (Baleswar) OR02
170 Odisha Baragarh OR21
171 Odisha Baripada/Mayurbanj OR12
172 Odisha Berhampur / Ganjam OR03
173 Odisha Bhadrak OR11
174 Odisha Bhubaneswar OR04
175 Odisha Bhawanipatna OR30
176 Odisha Cuttack OR05
177 Odisha Dhenkanal OR06
178 Odisha Jagatsinghpur OR17
179 Odisha Jajpur OR13

~ 25 ~
S. No. State Exam City City Code
180 Odisha Jeypore(Odisha) OR19
181 Odisha Jharsuguda OR22
182 Odisha Kendrapara OR14
183 Odisha Nuapada OR31
184 Odisha Paralakhemundi (Gajapati) OR24
185 Odisha Phulbani (Kandhamal) OR25
186 Odisha Puri OR16
187 Odisha Rayagada OR26
188 Odisha Rourkela OR08
189 Odisha Sambalpur OR09
190 Puducherry Puducherry PO01
191 Punjab Amritsar PB01
192 Punjab Bhatinda PB02
193 Punjab Moga PB20
194 Punjab Jalandhar PB04
195 Punjab Ludhiana PB05
196 Punjab Pathankot PB07
197 Punjab Patiala/Fatehgarh Sahib PB08
198 Punjab Sahibzada Ajit Singh Nagar PB12
199 Rajasthan Ajmer RJ01
200 Rajasthan Alwar RJ02
201 Rajasthan Bhilwara RJ12
202 Rajasthan Bikaner RJ05
203 Rajasthan Hanumangarh RJ23
204 Rajasthan Jaipur RJ06
205 Rajasthan Jodhpur RJ07
206 Rajasthan Kota RJ08
207 Rajasthan Sikar RJ09
208 Rajasthan Sriganganagar RJ10
209 Rajasthan Udaipur RJ11
210 Sikkim Gangtok SM01
211 Tamil Nadu Chennai TN01
212 Tamil Nadu Coimbatore TN02
213 Tamil Nadu Cuddalore TN03
214 Tamil Nadu Dharmapuri TN26
215 Tamil Nadu Dindigul TN27
216 Tamil Nadu Erode TN28
217 Tamil Nadu Kanchipuram TN05
218 Tamil Nadu Kanyakumari/Nagercoil TN06
219 Tamil Nadu Karur TN29
220 Tamil Nadu Krishnagiri TN21
221 Tamil Nadu Madurai TN08
222 Tamil Nadu Nagapattinam TN30
223 Tamil Nadu Namakkal TN10
224 Tamil Nadu Pudukkottai TN31
225 Tamil Nadu Ramanathapuram TN32
226 Tamil Nadu Salem TN11
227 Tamil Nadu Sivaganga TN33
228 Tamil Nadu Thanjavur TN12
229 Tamil Nadu Thoothukudi TN13
230 Tamil Nadu Tiruchirappalli TN14
231 Tamil Nadu Tirunelveli TN15
232 Tamil Nadu Tiruppur TN22
233 Tamil Nadu Tiruvannamalai TN35
234 Tamil Nadu Vellore TN18
235 Tamil Nadu Viluppuram TN23
236 Tamil Nadu Virudhunagar TN20
237 Telangana Hyderabad/Secunderabad TL01
238 Telangana Karimnagar TL02
239 Telangana Khammam TL03
240 Telangana Kothagudem TL17

~ 26 ~
S. No. State Exam City City Code
241 Telangana Mahbubnagar TL04
242 Telangana Nalgonda TL05
243 Telangana Nizamabad TL08
244 Telangana Siddipet TL11
245 Telangana Suryapet TL09
246 Telangana Warangal TL07
247 Tripura Agartala TA01
248 Uttar Pradesh Agra UP01
249 Uttar Pradesh Aligarh UP02
250 Uttar Pradesh Allahabad/Prayagraj UP03
251 Uttar Pradesh Ambedkar Nagar UP25
252 Uttar Pradesh Azamgarh UP19
253 Uttar Pradesh Ballia UP20
254 Uttar Pradesh Bareilly UP04
255 Uttar Pradesh Bijnor UP21
256 Uttar Pradesh Bulandshahr UP29
257 Uttar Pradesh Chandauli UP41
258 Uttar Pradesh Faizabad UP06
259 Uttar Pradesh Firozabad UP22
260 Uttar Pradesh Ghaziabad UP07
261 Uttar Pradesh Ghazipur UP23
262 Uttar Pradesh Gorakhpur UP08
263 Uttar Pradesh Jhansi UP10
264 Uttar Pradesh Kanpur UP11
265 Uttar Pradesh Lucknow UP12
266 Uttar Pradesh Mathura UP13
267 Uttar Pradesh Mau UP35
268 Uttar Pradesh Meerut UP14
269 Uttar Pradesh Moradabad UP15
270 Uttar Pradesh Muzaffarnagar UP16
271 Uttar Pradesh Noida/Greater Noida UP09
272 Uttar Pradesh Pratapgarh UP43
273 Uttar Pradesh Rampur UP58
274 Uttar Pradesh Saharanpur UP38
275 Uttar Pradesh Sitapur UP17
276 Uttar Pradesh Sultanpur UP40
277 Uttar Pradesh Varanasi UP18
278 Uttarakhand Almora UK09
279 Uttarakhand Dehradun UK01
280 Uttarakhand Haldwani UK02
281 Uttarakhand Pauri Garhwal UK08
282 Uttarakhand Roorkee UK06
283 West Bengal Asansol WB01
284 West Bengal Bankura WB16
285 West Bengal Burdwan (Bardhaman) WB02
286 West Bengal Durgapur WB04
287 West Bengal Hooghly WB06
288 West Bengal Howrah WB07
289 West Bengal Kalyani WB08
290 West Bengal Kolkata WB10
291 West Bengal Siliguri WB11
292 West Bengal Suri WB22

(Disclaimer: NTA can change the centre and city at any time subject to availability.)

~ 27 ~
 Appendix - IV
List of Subject at Post Graduation Level and their Codes

~ 28 ~
 APPENDIX – V
List of Post-Graduation Courses and their Codes

Post Graduation Courses Code

Master of Ayurvedacharya (Ayurvedacharya) 01
Master of Acharya (Acharya) 02
Master of Law (LLM) 03
Master of Architecture (M. Arch.) 04
Master of Commerce (M.Com) 05
Master of Dance (M. Dance) 06
Master of Education (M.Ed.) 07
Master of Library Science (M. Lib. Sc.) 08
Master of Literature (M.Litt.) 09
Master of Music (M.Mus) 10
Master of Pharmacy (M.Pharm.) 11
Master of Business Administration (MBA) 12
Master of Computer Applications (MCA) 13
Master of Financial Management (M.F.M.) 14
Master of Human Resource Development (M.H.R.D.) 15
Master of International Business (M.LB) 16
Master of Marketing Management (M. Mkt. M.) 17
Master of Optometry (M. Optom.) 18
Master of Hospital Administration (MHA) 19
Master of Journalism and Mass Communication (MJMC) 20
Master of Mass Communication (MMC) 21
Master of Occupational Therapy (MOT) 22
Master of Public Health (MPH) 23
Master of Social Work (MSW) 24
Master of Planning (M. Plan) 25
Master of Science (M.Sc.) 26
Master of Statistics (M. Stat.) 27
Master of Technology (M.Tech.) 28
Master of Veterinary Science (M.V.Sc.) 29
Master of Arts (MA) 30
Master of Foreign Trade (M.E.T.) 31
Master of Physical Education (M.P.Ed.) 32
Master of Tourism Management (MTM) 33
Master of Physical Education and Sports Sciences (MPES) 34
CA/CS/ ICWA 35
Other 36

~ 29 ~
 Appendix - VI
List of States/ Union Territories and their Codes

~ 30 ~
 Appendix - VII
Procedure for Appearing in Computer Based Test (CBT)
(a) A computer terminal (node) indicating Roll Number will be allocated to each candidate. Candidates should
find and sit on their allocated computers only. Any candidate found to have changed room/hall or the
computer on their own rather than the one allotted would be liable to cancellation of candidature and no plea
in this regard would be entertained.
(b) The computer terminal allotted to the candidate will display Welcome login screen, Candidate’s photograph
and subject opted by the candidate. For login, the candidate will have to enter login-ID and password.
(c) After logging in, the candidate shall be able to see the detailed instructions for the examination. Candidates
are advised to go through the instructions carefully regarding the type of questions and Marking Scheme. At
the designated time of start of the examination, the candidates will be able to proceed and see the questions
on the computer screen.
The keyboard attached to the computer, if any, will be disabled during the entire duration of the examination.
Depending on the type of question, the answers to questions can either be entered by clicking on the virtual
on-screen keyboard (numeric or otherwise) using the computer mouse or by clicking the chosen option(s)
using the computer mouse.
Candidates will have the option to change/modify answers already entered anytime during the entire
duration of the examination.
In case the computer/mouse allotted to any candidate malfunctions anytime during the test, the candidate
will be immediately allotted another computer system and the time lost due to this will be adjusted in the
server so as to give the candidate the full allotted time.
(d) The on-screen computer clock counter of every candidate will be set at the server. The countdown timer in
the top right side of computer screen will display the time remaining (in minutes) available for the candidate
to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. Candidate will
not be required to end or submit the examination.
(e) The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of
the following text/color codes/symbols.

You have not visited the question yet.

You have not answered the question.

You have answered the question.

You have NOT answered the question but have marked the question for review.

The question(s) “answered and marked for Review” will be considered for evaluation.

The question(s) “Answered and Marked for Review” status for a question indicates that candidate would
like to have a relook at that question again. A candidate has the option of answering a question and
simultaneously placing it under “Marked for Review”, these answers will be considered for evaluation.
However, if a candidate has simply put “Marked for Review” for a question without answering it, the
corresponding question ‘Marked for Review’ without an answer will not be considered for evaluation. It may
be noted that a candidate can return to any “Marked for Review” question any time during the examination
by clicking on the corresponding question number icon displayed on the Question Palette of the
corresponding section.
(f) Candidate can click on an arrow/symbol which appears to the left of question palette to collapse the question
palette thereby maximizing the question viewing window. To view the question palette again, candidate can
click on arrow/symbol which appears on the right side of question window.
(g) Candidate can click to navigate to the bottom and to navigate to the top of the question area, without
scrolling. Using the computer mouse the candidate can scroll up and down the question viewing area for
viewing the entire question.
(h) The full paper can be viewed by clicking the “Question Paper” icon on the top right corner of the screen.
(i) Blank Sheets for doing rough work/calculations shall be provided to the candidates. The Blanks Sheets
would have a Header page for the candidates to write down his/her Name and Roll Number. All
calculations/writing work are to be done only in the Blank Sheets provided at the Centre in the Examination
Room/Hall and on completion of the test, candidates must hand over the rough sheets to the invigilator on
duty in the Room/Hall.

~ 31 ~
(j) Navigating to a Question
To navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs to do the following:
(i) Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of the screen to go to that numbered
question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save the answer to the currently displayed
question.
(ii) Click on “Save & Next” to save the answer of any question. Clicking on “Save & Next” will save the
answer for the current question and the next question will be displayed on the candidate’s computer
screen.
(iii) Click on “Mark for Review & Next” to mark a question for review (without answering it) and proceed
to the next question.
(k) Answering a Question
To navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs to do the following:
(i) Procedure for answering a multiple choice type question:
a. To select the option(s), click on the corresponding button(s) of the option(s).
b. To deselect the chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on the “Clear
Response” button.
c. To save the answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next” button.
d. To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review & Next”
button.
(ii) Navigating through sections:
a. Sections in the question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a section can
be viewed by clicking on the section name. The section in which candidate is currently viewing
will be highlighted.
b. After clicking the “Save & Next” button on the last question for a section, candidate will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next section.
c. Candidate can shuffle between sections and questions within sections any time during the
examination as per the convenience only during the time stipulated.
d. Candidate can view the corresponding section summary as part of the legend that appears in every
section above the question palette.
(iii) Procedure for answering questions that require inputs from on-screen virtual keyboard (numeric or
otherwise):
a. Candidate will have to use the on-screen virtual keyboard (that would be displayed just below the
question statement of these type of questions) and the attached computer mouse to enter his/her
answer in the space provided for answer.
b. The answer can be changed, if required, anytime during the test. To save the answer, the candidate
MUST click on the “Save & Next “button.
c. To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review & Next”
button.
Candidate will have the option to change previously saved answer of any question, anytime
during the entire duration of the test. To change the answer to a question that has already been
answered, first select the corresponding question from the Question Palette, then click on
“Clear Response” to clear the previously entered answer and subsequently follow the procedure
for answering that type of question.
(iv) Rough Work:
All calculations/writing work is to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the Centre in the
examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must hand over the rough sheets to
the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.

~ 32 ~
 Appendix - VIII
National Testing Agency (NTA)
Procedure to be adopted for compilation of NTA scores for Multi Session Papers
(Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score)

NTA may conduct examinations on multiple dates, generally in two sessions per day. The candidates will be given
different sets of questions per session and it is quite possible that in spite of all efforts of maintaining equivalence
among various question papers, the difficulty level of these question papers administered in different sessions
may not be exactly the same. Some of the candidates may end up attempting a relatively tougher set of questions
when compared to other sets. The candidates who attempt the comparatively tougher Examination are likely to
get lower marks as compared to those who attempt the easier one. In order to overcome such a situation,
“Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score” will be used for ensuring that candidates are neither
benefitted nor disadvantaged due to the difficulty level of the examination. With the objective of ensuring that a
candidate’s true merit is identified, and that a level playing field is created in the above context, the Normalization
Procedure, set out below shall be adopted, for compiling the NTA scores for multi session papers.
The process of Normalization is an established practice for comparing candidate scores across multi session
papers and is similar to those being adopted in other large educational selection tests conducted in India. For
normalization across sections, NTA shall use the percentile equivalence.
Percentile Scores: Percentile scores are scores based on the relative performance of all those who appear for the
examination. Basically the marks obtained are transformed into a scale ranging from 100 to 0 for each session of
examinees.
The Percentile Score indicates the percentage of candidates that have scored EQUAL TO OR BELOW (same or
lower raw scores) that particular Percentile in that examination. Therefore the topper (highest score) of each
session will get the same Percentile of 100 which is desirable. The marks obtained in between the highest and
lowest scores are also converted to appropriate Percentiles.
The Percentile score will be the Normalized Score for the Examination (instead of the raw marks of the
candidate) and shall be used for preparation of the merit lists.
The Percentile Scores will be calculated up to 7 decimal places to avoid bunching effect and reduce ties.
The Percentile score of a Candidate is calculated as follows:
100 X Number of candidates appeared in the ‘Session’ with raw score EQUAL TO OR LESS than the
candidate.
Total number of the candidates appeared in the ‘Session’
Note: The Percentile of the Total shall NOT be an aggregate or average of the Percentile of individual subject.
Percentile score is not the same as percentage of marks obtained.
Example: Suppose a test was held in 4 sessions of examinees as per details given below: -
(Allocation of Days and shifts were done randomly)
(a) Distribution of candidates were as follows:
Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2, Session-3: Day-2 Shift-1 and Session-4: Day-2 Shift-2
No of Candidates Marks
Session Day/Shift
Absent Appeared Total Highest Lowest
Session-1 Day-1 Shift-1 3974 28012 31986 335 -39
Session-2 Day-1 Shift-2 6189 32541 38730 346 -38
Session-3 Day-2 Shift-1 6036 41326 47362 331 -49
Session-4 Day-2 Shift-2 9074 40603 49677 332 -44
Total (Session-1 to Session-4) 25273 142482 167755 346 -49
In this method of scoring the HIGHEST RAW SCORE in each paper (irrespective of the raw scores) will be the
100 Percentile indicating that 100% of candidates have scores equal to or lesser than the highest scorer/ topper
for that session.
Highest Raw Score and Percentile Score: All the highest raw scores will have normalized Percentile Score of
100 for their respective session.
Candidates who
Total
Highest scored EQUAL OR
Session Candidates Percentile Score Remarks
Raw Score LESS THAN Highest
Appeared
Raw Score
100.0000000
Session-1 28012 335 28012
[(28012/28012)*100]
i.e. all the highest raw
100.0000000
Session -2 32541 346 32541 scores would be
[(32541/32541)*100]
normalized to 100
100.0000000
Session -3 41326 331 41326 Percentile Score for their
[(41326/41326)*100]
respective session.
100.0000000
Session -4 40603 332 40603
[(40603/40603)*100]

Lowest Raw Score and Percentile Score: Percentile Score of all the lowest raw scores will depend on the total
number of candidates who have taken the Examination for their respective session.

~ 33 ~
 Total Candidates who scored
Lowest
Session Candidates EQUAL OR LESS THAN Percentile Score Remarks
Raw Score
Appeared Lowest Raw Score
0.0035699
Session -1 28012 -39 1
[(1/28012)*100] i.e. Percentile Score of all the
0.0030730 lowest raw scores are different
Session -2 32541 -38 1
[(1/32541)*100] i.e. Percentile Score depend on
0.0024198 the total number of candidates
Session -3 41326 -49 1
[(1/41326)*100] who have taken the Examination
0.0024629 for their respective session.
Session -4 40603 -44 1
[(1/40603)*100]

The following is a further explanation of the interpretation of the raw scores and Percentile Score in
Session-3 (Day-2 and Shift-1) with 41326 candidates who have taken the examination.
No of Raw
Candidate Percentile Score Remark
Candidates Score
Indicates that amongst those appeared, 100% have scored either
100.0000000 EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate A (331 raw score).
A 1 331
[(41326/41326)*100] It also indicates that no candidate has scored more than the candidate
A (331 raw score).
Indicates that amongst those appeared, 90.1224411% have scored
90.1224411 either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate B (121 raw score).
B 77 121
[(37244/41326)*100] It also indicates that remaining candidates have scored more than
candidate B (121 raw score).
Indicates that amongst those appeared, 50.4549194% have scored
50.4549194 either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate C (41 raw score).
C 381 41
[(20851/41326)*100] It also indicates that remaining those appeared have scored more than
candidate C (41 raw score).
Indicates that amongst those appeared, 31.7040120% have scored
31.7040120 either EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate D (25 raw score)
D 789 25
[(13102/41326)*100] It also indicates that remaining candidates have scored more than
candidate D (25 raw score).
Indicates that amongst those appeared, 1.1034216% have scored either
1.1034216 EQUAL TO OR LESS THAN the candidate E (-15 raw score)
E 100 -15
[(456/41326)*100] It also indicates that remaining candidates have scored more than
candidate E (-15 raw score)

STEP-BY-STEP PROCEDURE FOR NORMALIZATION AND PREPARATION OF RESULT:

Step-1: Distribution of Examinees in two shifts:
Candidates have to be distributed into two sessions randomly so that each session has approximately equal
number of candidates. These two sessions would be as follows:
Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2
In the event of more number of days or less number of shifts, the candidates will be divided accordingly.
This will ensure that there is no bias in the distribution of candidates who shall take the examination. Further,
with a large population of examinees spread over the entire country the possibility of such bias becomes
remote.
Step-2: Preparation of Results for each Session:
The Examination results for each session would be prepared in the form of
➢ Raw Scores
➢ Percentiles Scores of Total raw scores.
The Percentiles would be calculated for each candidate in the Session as follows:
Let TP1 be the Percentile Scores of Total Raw Score of that candidate.
No. of candidates appeared from the session with raw score EQUAL TO OR LESS
Total Percentile than T1 score
100 X
(TP1): Total No. of candidates appeared in the session

Step-3: Compilation of NTA score and Preparation of Result:

The Percentile scores for the Total Raw Score for all the sessions (Session-1: Day – 1 Shift – 1, Session-2: Day
– 1 Shift – 2) as calculated in Step-2 above would be merged and shall be called the NTA scores which will
then be used for compilation of result and further processing for deciding the allocation.
In the events of the percentiles for the multi-shifts being dissimilar / unequal, the lowest will be the eligibility
cut-off for that category for all candidates (i.e. all shifts).
For Example: In the Examination held in two shifts, if the 40% marks correspond to a Percentile score of 78 in
Shift 1 and 79 in Shift 2, then all those equal to or above 78 percentiles (Percentile score of 100 to 78) in both
shifts will become eligible in General Category. Similar method will be adopted for the other categories to
determine eligibility cut-offs. In case the Examination is held in more number of shifts the same principle shall
apply.

~ 34 ~
 APPENDIX - IX
REPLICA

~ 35 ~
~ 36 ~
~ 37 ~
~ 38 ~
~ 39 ~
~ 40 ~
~ 41 ~
~ 42 ~
~ 43 ~
~ 44 ~
~ 45 ~
~ 46 ~
~ 47 ~
~ 48 ~
~ 49 ~
~ 50 ~
~ 51 ~
~ 52 ~
~ 53 ~
INFORMAION BULLETION
011-69227700
011-40759000

Address for Correspondence First Floor, NSIC-MDBP

Building, Okhla Industrial Estate, New Delhi – 110020
Help Line: For Technical support, contact following
during working days between 10.00 a.m. to 5.00 p.m.

www.nta.ac.in
ugcnet.nta.nic.in