CH 4 BUS 555 Display
CH 4 BUS 555 Display
(Chapter 4)
Overview
The phrase “time value of money” refers to the fact that a dollar in hand today is worth
more than a dollar to be received at some time in the future. Why is that the case?
Dollars that we have today (“present dollars”) can be invested and start earning a return
immediately. Dollars that we will not receive until some future date (“future dollars”) will
not start earning a return until we receive them. Therefore, present dollars and future
dollars are not equal in value because of the opportunity cost associated with the delay
in earning a return.
Many of the financial management decisions that we make involve evaluating cash flows
where there is a mix of present dollars and future dollars. This type of analysis is Time
Value of Money (“TVM”) or Discounted Cash Flow (“DCF”) analysis.
TVM/DCF provides a set of tools to allow us to convert future dollars to present dollars
(and vice versa) so that we can make a fair comparison of alternative courses of action.
The basic tools at our disposal are:
o Future value: Converting present dollars into future dollars through the use of
compounding.
o Present value: Converting future dollars into present dollars through the use of
discounting.
The first step in analyzing a TVM problem is to set up a cash flow time line:
0 1 2 3
The time line allows us to organize the cash flows logically so that we can
input them into our calculator (Texas Instruments BA II Plus) properly and
get the correct answer.
CF (“cash flow”) keys: for NPV of a series
of unequal cash flows and for IRR
calculations.
-$1000 FV= ?
Formula:
FV =PV ¿ (formulae are provided in the text but once you are familiar with your
N
FV=?
Payment at beginning of year 1: 1,000 x1.10 x 1.10 x 1.10 = 1,331=FV at end of year 3
Payment at beginning of year 2: 1,000 x1.10 x 1.10 = 1,210=FV at end of year 3
Payment at beginning of year 3: 1,000 x 1.10 = 1,100=FV at end of year 3
Total = 3,641
When the periodic payments are shifted to the beginning of each period, we have
an annuity due.
Calculator key strokes:
2nd BGN 2nd SET 2ND QUIT CPT FV = 3,641
Notice that FV of annuity is equal to FV of ordinary annuity x (1+discount rate): 3,310 x
1.10=3,641
Present Value
Present value represents the value in present dollars of future cash flows
discounted at an appropriate rate of return (the “discount rate”). The appropriate
discount rate is the rate of return that the future cash flows could earn if they
could be invested today.
Example 4:
What is the present value of $1,000 to be received three years from now if the
discount rate is 10%?
0 1 2 3
PV=? $1000
Basic formula: PV =
FV N
(1+ I )
N
PV=1,000/(1.10)3 = 751.31
PV=?
Calculator key strokes: 2nd BGN 2nd SET 2nd QUIT CPT PV= -2,735.54
Example 7:
Sometimes, as with a bond, we will have an annuity plus an additional final
payment. What is the present value of $100 to be received at the end of each
year for five years plus a final payment of $1,000, discounted at 8%?
0 1 2 3 4 5
PV=1,000/0.10 = 10,000
Example 9
Assume that the perpetual cash flows in the previous example do not start until
the end of year three (i.e. a delayed perpetuity).
0 1 2 3 4 5
∞
PV=? $0 $0 $1000 $1000 $1000
PV2=?
Formula:
PMT N 1
PV = ×
I ( 1+ I )N −1
First calculate the PV of the perpetuity. The first perpetual payment is at the end
of year 3 so the PV at the end of year two is: PV2= (1,000/0.10) =10,000. The
Formula:
PMT 1
PV =
I−g
PV= 1,000/(0.10-0.03) = 14,285.71
Note in this example we are assuming that the first cash flow is $1,000 and that
the 3% growth starts in year two.
This concept of a “growing perpetuity” is important in the valuation of dividend
paying stocks.
Example 11:
Determine the present value of the following end of year cash inflows if the discount rate is
10%:
Year 1 $500
Year 2 $700
Year 3: $900
Year 4 $1,100
The pattern is called an “irregular” stream of cash flows.
0 1 2 3 4
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
∞
PV0=12,833 $500 $700 $900 $1,100 $1,133 $1,167
PV3=15,714.29
16,185.71
PV3=1,100/(0.10-0.03) = 15,714.29 This amount is the PV of the growing perpetuity at the
end of year 3.
Calculator key strokes:
CF CFo=0 C01=500 C02=700
C03=900+15,714.29=16,614.29 NPV I=10
CPT NPV=13,515.62
0 1 2 3 4 5
Finding the Interest Rate, the Payment and the Number of Periods
All time value of money calculations use at least three of the five following variables: PV,
FV, I, N and PMT. If we have enough information we can solve for any of the missing
variables.
Example 14:
You just invested $3,000 in a security that will yield 8% per year. Assuming that your
annual returns are reinvested, how long will it take to double your investment?
PV=-3,000 FV=6,000 I=8 CPT N=9
Using logs: 1.08N = 2 N ln 1.08=ln 2 N=9.0065
Example 15:
You just sold a stock investment for $50 per share. You paid $35 per share for this
investment four years ago and did not receive any dividends during the period that you held
the stock. What was your compound annual rate of return on this investment?
PV=-35 FV=50 N=4 CPT I=9.32%
Example 16:
You need to borrow $10,000 and want to repay it in equal annual payments over five years.
The bank will charge an interest rate of 6%. What are the annual payments?
N=5 I=6 PV= 10,000 FV= 0 CPT PMT = -2,373.96
EAR= 1 +
I NOM
−1
M
Where :
m=The number of compounding periods per year .
The EAR adjusts the APR for the number of compounding periods per year and
expresses the interest rate as if it were compounded once per year. Another way
to think about the EAR is that it is the rate that converts a present value into a future
value over a one year period.
If there is only one compounding period per year, the APR and the EAR are the same.
As the number of compounding periods increase however, the EAR starts to rise
relative to the nominal rate. For example, here are the EARs at different compounding
intervals for a quoted rate of 8%:
Loan Amortization
Loans that are repaid in fixed payments are called amortized loans. The payments are
usually blended: they contain both interest and principal. The early payments contain
mostly interest and a small amount of principal. As the principal is repaid, the interest
portion of the payment decreases and the amount of the payment applied to the loan
principal increases.
The Texas Instruments BA II Plus (and many other financial calculators) contain a loan
amortization function that allows us to compute the loan payment as well as the
following:
o The balance of the loan after any payment.
o The interest and principal amounts of any payment.
o The amount of principal and interest paid over a range of payments.
If the interest compounding interval corresponds to the payment interval (e.g. monthly
compounding and monthly payments), the calculations are fairly straightforward.
Adjustments must be made to the calculation if the compounding intervals are different
than the payment intervals. We will not cover those adjustments in this course.
Example 18:
(a) Determine the monthly payment for a $200,000 loan with quoted annual rate of 6%
and a 25-year amortization term.
PV=200,000 FV=0 N=25 x 12 =300 I/Y=6.00/12=0.50 CPT PMT=-1,288.60
(b) What will the balance of this loan be after the first year of payments?
2nd AMORTP1=1 ENTER P2=12 ENTER ARROW DOWN BAL=196,439.92
(c) How much of the 15th payment will be applied to the principal of the loan?
ARROW UP TWICE P1=15 ENTER P2=15 ENTER ARROW DOWN TWICE
PRN=-309.47
(d) What amounts of principal and interest will be paid during the third year of payments?
ARROW UP THREE TIMES P1=25 ENTER P2=36 ENTER ARROW DOWN TWICE
PRN=-4,012.78 ARROW DOWN INT=-11,450.46