ANAESTHESIOLOGY

Certainly! Here are some multiple-choice questions related to the topic of pain:

1. What is the definition of pain according to the International Association for the Study of Pain?

a) A physical sensation caused by tissue damage

b) An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage

c) A psychological response to stress

d) An adaptive mechanism to protect the body

2. Which type of pain is primarily due to nociception and lasts for a shorter duration?

a) Chronic pain

b) Neuropathic pain

c) Acute pain

d) Inflammatory pain

3. Which type of pain is characterized by a dull, aching quality and is less well-localized?

a) Somatic pain

b) Visceral pain

c) Referred pain

d) Nociceptive pain

4. True or False: Chronic pain is defined as pain that persists beyond the usual course of an acute disease
or after a reasonable time for healing to occur.

a) True

b) False
5. Which neurotransmitters are most important for afferent neurons involved in pain sensation?

a) Serotonin and dopamine

b) Endorphins and enkephalins

c) Substance P and calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP)

d) Glutamate and gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

6. What is the term used to describe pain that is experienced from a stimulus that would normally go
unnoticed?

a) Hyperalgesia

b) Allodynia

c) Hyperpathia

d) Neuralgia

7. Which of the following is not a common response to acute pain?

a) Hypotension

b) Tachycardia

c) Increased work of breathing

d) Increased platelet adhesiveness

8. Which pain measurement scale uses a 10-cm horizontal line with "no pain" at one end and "worst
pain imaginable" at the other end?

a) Numerical rating scale

b) Faces rating scale

c) Visual analog scale

d) McGill Pain Questionnaire

9. Which of the following is a non-pharmacological method for managing acute pain?

a) Intravenous patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)

b) Epidural steroid injection

c) Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)

d) Intrathecal drug delivery

10. Which technique involves the insertion of fine needles into specific points on the body to alleviate
pain?

a) TENS

b) Acupuncture

c) Spinal cord stimulation

d) Neurolytic block

Answers:

1. b) An unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage

2. c) Acute pain

3. a) Somatic pain

4. a) True

5. c) Substance P and calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP)

6. b) Allodynia

7. a) Hypotension

8. c) Visual analog scale

9. c) Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)

10. b) Acupuncture

Here are some multiple-choice questions based on the anaesthesia overview:

1. What is the definition of anaesthesia?

a) A state of temporary loss of sensation or awareness induced for medical purposes

b) Insensitivity to pain caused by surgical operations

c) The use of gases or drugs to induce artificial pain

d) Unconsciousness induced by medical professionals during surgery

2. Which of the following is NOT an objective of anaesthesia?

a) Hypnosis

b) Analgesia

c) Autonomic regulation

d) Amnesia

3. What is the concept of balanced anaesthesia?

a) Using a single drug to achieve all the objectives of anaesthesia

b) Utilizing a combination of drugs to minimize side effects and toxicity

c) Administering high doses of a single drug to ensure complete anaesthesia

d) Using only inhaled anaesthetics for all procedures

4. Who is credited with the first successful public demonstration of anaesthesia?

a) Fanny Burney

b) Horace Wells

c) WTG Morton

d) James Young Simpson

5. What was the first inhalational anaesthetic to be widely used?

 a) Chloroform

b) Nitrous oxide

c) Ether

d) Cyclopropane

6. Which of the following is a commonly used intravenous anaesthetic?

a) Isoflurane

b) Sevoflurane

c) Propofol

d) Halothane

7. When was pulse oximetry, a vital monitoring technique, introduced?

a) 1941

b) 1956

c) 1964

d) 1990

8. Which type of anaesthesia involves injecting local anaesthetic around a specific nerve or nerve group?

a) General anaesthesia

b) Intravenous regional anaesthesia

c) Spinal anaesthesia

d) Peripheral nerve block

9. Who first discovered the injectable use of cocaine for local anaesthesia?

a) William Halsted
 b) Leonard Corning

c) James Young Simpson

d) Alexander Wood

10. What is the future focus of anaesthesia research?

a) Developing new surgical techniques

b) Improving patient communication during surgery

c) Discovering new drug delivery systems and routes

d) Enhancing postoperative pain control

Answers:

1. a) A state of temporary loss of sensation or awareness induced for medical purposes

2. d) Amnesia

3. b) Utilizing a combination of drugs to minimize side effects and toxicity

4. c) WTG Morton

5. c) Ether

6. c) Propofol

7. d) 1990

8. d) Peripheral nerve block

9. a) William Halsted

10. c) Discovering new drug delivery systems and routes

Here are some multiple-choice questions based on the central neuraxial blockade:

1. Neuraxial anaesthesia involves the injection of anaesthetic medication in which areas?

a) Muscles surrounding the nerves

 b) Subcutaneous tissue near the spine

c) Cerebrospinal fluid surrounding the spinal cord

d) Blood vessels supplying the spinal nerves

2. Who is credited with the first planned spinal anaesthesia for surgery?

a) J Leonard Corning

b) August Bier

c) Fidel Pages

d) Robert Andrew Hingson

3. Which technique of central neuraxial blockade is popular in pediatric patients?

a) Epidural anaesthesia

b) Caudal anaesthesia

c) Spinal anaesthesia

d) Combined spinal-epidural (CSE) anaesthesia

4. What is the purpose of the epidural blood patch?

a) To treat postdural puncture headache

b) To enhance the effect of epidural anaesthesia

c) To prevent infection in the epidural space

d) To stop bleeding from the epidural blood vessels

5. Which of the following is a relative contraindication for central neuraxial blockade?

a) Patient refusal

b) Coagulopathy and other bleeding disorders

 c) Increased intracranial pressure

d) Severe aortic stenosis

6. What is the most accurate assessment of overall sensory block in epidural anaesthesia?

a) Alcohol swab

b) Pin prick

c) Temperature sensation

d) Loss of resistance technique

7. Which of the following complications is NOT associated with central neuraxial blockade?

a) Hypotension

b) Bradycardia

c) Cardiac arrest

d) Urinary retention

8. What is the key difference between spinal and epidural anaesthesia?

a) The level of injection in the vertebral column

b) The density of the block achieved

c) The onset of action of the anaesthetic

d) The drugs used for the anaesthesia

9. Which novel technique can be used to facilitate the identification of the epidural space?

a) Ultrasound imaging

b) Novel LOR methods

c) Needle-shaped ultrasound probe

 d) Smart pumps CI-PCEA

10. What is the purpose of a combined spinal-epidural (CSE) technique?

a) To provide rapid and reliable analgesia/anaesthesia

b) To treat postdural puncture headache

c) To enhance the effect of epidural anaesthesia

d) To prevent complications in patients with difficult backs

Answers:

1. c) Cerebrospinal fluid surrounding the spinal cord

2. b) August Bier

3. b) Caudal anaesthesia

4. a) To treat postdural puncture headache

5. c) Increased intracranial pressure

6. b) Pin prick

7. c) Cardiac arrest

8. a) The level of injection in the vertebral column

9. b) Novel LOR methods

10. a) To provide rapid and reliable analgesia/anaesthesia

Sure! Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to the intensive care unit (ICU) and
invasive monitoring:

1. Which of the following is NOT a commonly monitored parameter in arterial blood gases (ABG)?

a) PaO2

b) PaCO2

c) pH
d) Serum electrolytes

2. In the ICU, invasive monitoring of arterial blood pressure is typically achieved through:

a) Placement of a central venous catheter

b) Measurement of peripheral oxygen saturation

c) Arterial cannulation

d) Non-invasive blood pressure monitoring

3. What is the normal range for arterial oxygen saturation (SaO2) in ABG analysis?

a) 70-80%

b) 80-90%

c) 90-100%

d) 100-110%

4. Which of the following conditions may cause hypoxemia in a critically ill patient?

a) Chronic bronchitis

b) Asthma

c) Pulmonary edema

d) All of the above

5. Invasive monitoring of central venous pressure (CVP) is commonly used to assess:

a) Pulmonary artery pressure

b) Left atrial pressure

c) Fluid status and cardiac function

d) Arterial oxygenation
6. The criteria for brain death include all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Coma

b) Absent brain stem reflexes

c) Normal electroencephalogram (EEG)

d) Absence of cerebral perfusion

7. Inadequate spontaneous ventilation in the ICU may be caused by:

a) Upper airway obstruction

b) Myasthenia gravis

c) Pulmonary fibrosis

d) All of the above

8. Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of invasive monitoring in the ICU?

a) Infection

b) Hemorrhage

c) Electrolyte imbalance

d) Thrombosis

9. What is the purpose of measuring pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (PCWP) in invasive
monitoring?

a) Assess cardiac output

b) Evaluate left ventricular function

c) Monitor respiratory function

d) Measure arterial oxygen saturation

10. The primary goal of invasive monitoring in the ICU is to:

a) Provide real-time information on patient vital signs

b) Guide and optimize patient management and treatment

c) Minimize the need for non-invasive monitoring techniques

d) Reduce healthcare costs by avoiding unnecessary interventions

Answers:

1. d) Serum electrolytes

2. c) Arterial cannulation

3. c) 90-100%

4. d) All of the above

5. c) Fluid status and cardiac function

6. c) Normal electroencephalogram (EEG)

7. d) All of the above

8. c) Electrolyte imbalance

9. b) Evaluate left ventricular function

10. b) Guide and optimize patient management and treatment

Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to the practical conduct of anesthesia:

1. Before starting anesthesia, what should be considered in terms of equipment and monitoring?

a) Availability and function of all anesthetic equipment

b) Correct operation and patient identification

c) Consent from the patient

d) All of the above

2. Which of the following is NOT a recommended equipment for tracheal intubation?

a) Laryngoscope

b) Tracheal tube of correct size

c) Wire stilette

d) ECG machine

3. Which technique of anesthesia induction is most appropriate for rapid induction?

a) Inhalational induction

b) Intravenous induction

c) Regional anesthesia

d) Topical anesthesia

4. What is the purpose of maintaining anesthesia during surgery?

a) To provide pain relief to the patient

b) To keep the patient unconscious

c) To ensure stable vital signs and muscle relaxation

d) To minimize the need for postoperative analgesia

5. Which stage of anesthesia is characterized by rhythmic respiration and suppression of respiratory

reflexes?

a) Stage 1: Analgesia

b) Stage 2: Excitement

c) Stage 3: Surgical anesthesia

d) Stage 4: Impending respiratory failure

6. What is the main complication of airway obstruction during inhalational anesthesia?

a) Laryngeal spasm

b) Bronchospasm

c) Malignant hyperthermia

d) Hypotension

7. What is the purpose of tracheal intubation during anesthesia?

a) To protect the airway from blood or gastric contents

b) To facilitate suctioning of the respiratory tract

c) To provide mechanical ventilation

d) All of the above

8. Which of the following is a potential late complication of tracheal intubation?

a) Trauma to the lips and teeth

b) Nasal bleeding

c) Tracheal stenosis

d) Laryngeal spasm

9. When is relaxant anesthesia indicated?

a) Major abdominal surgery

b) Intracranial surgery

c) Abnormal positions during surgery

d) All of the above

10. What is the recommended reversal agent for neuromuscular blockade?

a) Neostigmine
b) Atropine

c) Glycopyrrolate

d) All of the above

Answers:

1. d) All of the above

2. d) ECG machine

3. b) Intravenous induction

4. c) To ensure stable vital signs and muscle relaxation

5. c) Stage 3: Surgical anesthesia

6. a) Laryngeal spasm

7. d) All of the above

8. c) Tracheal stenosis

9. d) All of the above

10. d) All of the above

Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to post-operative care, complications in the
post-anesthetic unit, and post-operative pain management:

1. What is the role of adequately trained and experienced personnel in the post-operative recovery
period?

a) To monitor vital signs

b) To detect and manage complications

c) To ensure patient safety and comfort

d) All of the above

2. Which of the following may be impaired during the early recovery period after anesthesia?
a) Consciousness

b) Respiratory function

c) Cardiovascular function

d) All of the above

3. What is the purpose of maintaining a patent airway in the recovery room/ward?

a) To prevent aspiration

b) To facilitate oxygenation

c) To ensure adequate ventilation

d) All of the above

4. Which monitoring equipment should be available in the recovery area?

a) Sphygmomanometer

b) ECG monitor

c) Defibrillator

d) All of the above

5. What factors may contribute to delayed recovery of consciousness after anesthesia?

a) Use of volatile anesthetics with high blood/gas solubility coefficient

b) Large doses of opioids or sedatives

c) Timing of drug administration

d) All of the above

6. What is a common cause of hypoventilation in the post-operative period?

a) Upper airway obstruction

b) Bronchospasm

c) Residual effects of anesthetic drugs

d) All of the above

7. Which factor may contribute to post-operative hypertension?

a) Pain

b) Hypoxemia

c) Hypercapnia

d) All of the above

8. What is the main complication of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) after surgery?

a) Hematoma formation

b) Nausea and vomiting

c) Local vascular complications

d) Venous thromboembolism

9. Which of the following may be used for post-operative pain management?

a) Morphine

b) Pethidine

c) Buprenorphine

d) All of the above

10. What is the purpose of patient-controlled analgesia (PCA)?

a) To provide continuous pain relief

b) To allow patients to self-administer analgesic medication

c) To minimize opioid side effects

d) All of the above

Answers:

1. d) All of the above

2. d) All of the above

3. d) All of the above

4. d) All of the above

5. d) All of the above

6. d) All of the above

7. d) All of the above

8. d) Venous thromboembolism

9. d) All of the above

10. d) All of the above

1. Which inhalational anesthetic agent has the lowest blood/gas solubility coefficient?

a) Nitrous oxide

b) Ether

c) Halothane

d) Desflurane

2. Which inhalational anesthetic agent is associated with a higher incidence of arrhythmias?

a) Nitrous oxide

b) Enflurane

c) Isoflurane

d) Halothane
3. Which inhalational anesthetic agent requires specialized vaporizers due to its low boiling point?

a) Nitrous oxide

b) Ether

c) Desflurane

d) Sevoflurane

4. Which inhalational anesthetic agent is known for its minimal metabolism in the body?

a) Halothane

b) Enflurane

c) Isoflurane

d) Desflurane

5. Which inhalational anesthetic agent is commonly used for gaseous induction of anesthesia in
children?

a) Halothane

b) Enflurane

c) Isoflurane

d) Sevoflurane

6. Which inhalational anesthetic agent is flammable and forms explosive mixtures in air or oxygen-
enriched environments?

a) Nitrous oxide

b) Ether

c) Halothane

d) Desflurane
7. Which inhalational anesthetic agent is associated with the phenomenon of diffusion hypoxia?

a) Nitrous oxide

b) Enflurane

c) Isoflurane

d) Sevoflurane

8. Which inhalational anesthetic agent has the highest minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)?

a) Nitrous oxide

b) Ether

c) Halothane

d) Desflurane

9. Which inhalational anesthetic agent is known for its rapid induction and recovery?

a) Halothane

b) Enflurane

c) Isoflurane

d) Sevoflurane

10. Which inhalational anesthetic agent has the least pungent odor?

a) Halothane

b) Enflurane

c) Isoflurane

d) Desflurane
1. Which of the following is the main determinant of patient safety during anesthesia?

a) Monitoring equipment

b) Surgical procedure

c) Anesthetic agent

d) Presence of an experienced anaesthetist

2. What does monitoring in anesthesia involve?

a) Checking the patient's vital signs at the beginning and end of anesthesia

b) Continuously measuring important variables using both senses and electronic devices

c) Observing the patient's behavior during anesthesia

d) Administering sedatives to ensure patient comfort

3. Which of the following is NOT considered a minimum monitoring requirement during anesthesia?

a) Pulse oximeter

b) Noninvasive blood pressure monitoring

c) Electrocardiogram (ECG)

d) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

4. Why is the use of an oxygen analyser with an audible alarm essential during anesthesia?

a) To detect leaks in the breathing system

b) To measure the patient's oxygen saturation

c) To monitor the concentration of inspired and expired oxygen

d) To ensure the proper functioning of the anesthesia machine

5. What is the purpose of a vapour analyser during anesthesia?

a) To measure the concentration of volatile anesthetic agents and nitrous oxide

b) To monitor the patient's respiratory rate

c) To assess the depth of anesthesia

d) To analyze the patient's expired gases for any toxic substances

6. Which monitoring device is used to measure end-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) during anesthesia?

a) Pulse oximeter

b) Noninvasive blood pressure monitor

c) Capnography

d) Electrocardiogram (ECG)

7. What additional monitoring may be required depending on patient and surgical factors?

a) Intravascular pressures

b) Blood glucose levels

c) Lung compliance

d) Hearing threshold

8. Which monitoring technique is recommended to reduce the risk of accidental awareness during
general anesthesia?

a) Electroencephalography (EEG)

b) Blood gas analysis

c) Urine output measurement

d) Peripheral nerve stimulation

9. Invasive arterial blood pressure monitoring is indicated in all of the following situations except:

a) Hypotension
b) Anticipation of wide blood pressure swings

c) Need for multiple arterial blood gas analyses

d) Routine monitoring in all patients undergoing anesthesia

10. Which artery is commonly cannulated for invasive arterial blood pressure monitoring?

a) Radial artery

b) Ulnar artery

c) Femoral artery

d) Dorsalis pedis artery

1. Which of the following is NOT a clinical sequelae of catabolism combined with malnutrition in critically
ill patients?

a) Impaired wound healing

b) Impaired immune response

c) Increased muscle mass

d) Impaired gut function

2. What is the overall goal of feeding ICU patients?

a) To provide nutrition support to all patients regardless of their medical condition

b) To provide nutrition support consistent with their nutritional status and metabolic capability

c) To provide nutrition support only to patients with severe malnutrition

d) To provide nutrition support only through total parenteral nutrition

3. How can nutritional status be assessed in critically ill patients?

a) Evaluation of dietary habits and weight loss history

b) Measurement of albumin and prealbumin levels

c) Use of anthropometric measurements and laboratory determinations

d) All of the above

4. When should nutrition support be initiated in ICU patients?

a) Within 24 to 48 hours of ICU admission

b) As soon as the patient is hemodynamically stable

c) Only if the patient is severely malnourished

d) Only if the patient is expected to stay in the ICU for more than 3 days

5. Which markers accurately represent nutritional status in the ICU setting?

a) Albumin and prealbumin levels

b) Transferrin and retinol binding protein levels

c) Total lymphocyte count and BMI

d) Acute phase reactants such as C-reactive protein

6. What is refeeding syndrome?

a) A condition that results from over-rapid or unbalanced nutrition support provision

b) A condition characterized by excessive weight gain during refeeding

c) A condition caused by inadequate nutrition support in critically ill patients

d) A condition characterized by low serum albumin levels

7. Which patients are at high risk of developing refeeding syndrome?

a) Those with a BMI less than 16 kg/m2

b) Those with unintentional weight loss greater than 10% within the last 3-6 months

c) Those with low levels of potassium, phosphate, or magnesium prior to feeding

d) All of the above

8. What is the preferred route of feeding for ICU patients?

a) Total parenteral nutrition

b) Enteral nutrition

c) Peripheral parenteral nutrition

d) Parenteral nutrition via central venous catheter

9. What is the maximum caloric intake by peripheral parenteral nutrition?

a) 800-1200 kcal/d

b) 1500-2000 kcal/d

c) 2500-3000 kcal/d

d) There is no maximum limit

10. What are some complications of total parenteral nutrition?

a) Catheter-related complications such as pneumothorax and catheter sepsis

b) Metabolic complications such as hyperglycemia and hypokalemia

c) Nutrient deficiencies such as vitamin D and vitamin K deficiency

d) All of the above

1. What is respiratory failure?

a) A condition in which the respiratory system fails to deliver enough oxygen to the tissues

b) A condition in which the respiratory system fails to eliminate carbon dioxide from the body

c) A condition in which the respiratory system fails in both oxygenation and carbon dioxide elimination

d) A condition in which the respiratory system fails to maintain normal arterial blood gases
2. What are the two types of respiratory failure?

a) Type 1 and Type 2

b) Hypoxemic and hypercapnic

c) Acute and chronic

d) Ventilation-perfusion abnormalities and diffusion abnormalities

3. What is the characteristic feature of Type 1 respiratory failure?

a) Elevated arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2)

b) Low arterial oxygen tension (PaO2) with normal or low PaCO2

c) High arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) with normal or low PaO2

d) Low arterial oxygen tension (PaO2) with high PaCO2

4. What are some causes of Type 2 respiratory failure?

a) Pulmonary fibrosis and pulmonary thromboembolism

b) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and asthma

c) Drug overdose and neuromuscular disorders

d) Pulmonary edema and acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

5. What is the goal of oxygen therapy in respiratory failure?

a) To maintain arterial oxygen tension (PaO2) above 80 mmHg

b) To completely saturate hemoglobin in arterial blood

c) To relieve hypoxemia and maintain PaO2 above 60 mmHg

d) To reduce the work of breathing and decrease the work of the myocardium
6. Which oxygen delivery system is most suitable in an emergency where CO2 retention is less relevant?

a) Nasal catheter

b) Simple face mask

c) Venturi mask

d) Reservoir (non-rebreathing) mask

7. When should oxygen therapy be stopped?

a) When the patient becomes comfortable and clinical parameters are within normal range

b) When arterial blood gases are consistently normal

c) When the underlying disease is stabilized

d) When the patient's SpO2 is consistently above 95%

8. What are the risks associated with oxygen therapy?

a) Physical risks such as fire hazard and injury from catheters and masks

b) Functional risks such as hypoventilation and hypercapnia

c) Cytotoxic damage from high FiO2 and release of reactive species

d) All of the above

9. What is the recommended oxygen flow rate for patients on long-term oxygen therapy for COPD?

a) 1-2 L/min

b) 3-4 L/min

c) 5-6 L/min

d) 7-8 L/min

10. Which patients are candidates for home oxygen therapy?

a) Patients with COPD and resting hypoxemia (PaO2 below 55 mmHg)

b) Patients with cor pulmonale or secondary polycythemia (PaO2 between 55-59 mmHg)

c) Ambulatory patients who need oxygen outside their home

d) All of the above

Certainly! Here are some multiple-choice questions related to pediatric anesthesia:

1. Which of the following age groups is considered neonatal?

a) 1-12 months

b) 1-5 years

c) 13-16 years

d) First 28 days of life

2. What is the most appropriate airway management technique for infants with upper airway
obstruction?

a) Nasopharyngeal airway

b) Orotracheal intubation

c) Laryngeal mask airway

d) Endotracheal intubation with a straight blade

3. Which of the following statements regarding pediatric cardiovascular system is true?

a) Neonates have highly contractile myocardium

b) Sinus arrhythmia is abnormal in children

c) Closure of the foramen ovale occurs after birth and remains closed

d) Neonatal pulmonary vasculature does not respond to changes in oxygen and pH levels

4. What is the primary method of ventilation in neonates and infants?

 a) Rib movement similar to adults

b) Intercostal muscle contraction

c) Diaphragmatic movement

d) Abdominal muscle contraction

5. When is it appropriate to use uncuffed endotracheal tubes in pediatric patients?

a) Any age group

b) Neonates only

c) Up to 1 year of age

d) Older than 8-10 years of age

6. Which of the following statements regarding pediatric temperature control is false?

a) Infants have a larger surface area to weight ratio

b) Shivering is a common response to hypothermia in children

c) Brown fat metabolism contributes to non-shivering thermogenesis

d) Low body temperature can lead to respiratory depression and cardiac changes

7. What is the recommended fluid choice for pediatric patients during anesthesia?

a) Hypotonic fluids

b) 5% dextrose solution

c) Ringers' lactate or Hartmann's solution

d) Isotonic saline solution

8. At what age is regional anesthesia not recommended as a sole technique in pediatric patients?

a) Less than 1 month

 b) 1-5 years

c) 5-12 years

d) More than 12 years

9. Which of the following is a potential complication of caudal block in pediatric patients?

a) Increased risk of infection

b) Urinary retention

c) Respiratory depression

d) Delayed wound healing

10. What is the preferred method for postoperative pain management in pediatric patients?

a) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

b) Intravenous opioids

c) Regional anesthesia techniques

d) Acetaminophen (paracetamol)

Answers:

1. d) First 28 days of life

2. c) Laryngeal mask airway

3. b) Sinus arrhythmia is abnormal in children

4. c) Diaphragmatic movement

5. b) Neonates only

6. b) Shivering is a common response to hypothermia in children

7. c) Ringers' lactate or Hartmann's solution

8. d) More than 12 years

9. c) Respiratory depression

10. c) Regional anesthesia techniques

Please note that these questions are for educational purposes and should not replace professional
medical advice.

Certainly! Here are some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on the topic of Pharmacology of Local
Anaesthetic Agents:

1. Which of the following is true regarding the classification of local anaesthetic agents?

a) Esters have an amide linkage group.

b) Amides are relatively unstable in solution.

c) Esters are metabolized by hepatic amidases.

d) Amides are rapidly hydrolyzed by plasma cholinesterases.

2. The mode of action of local anaesthetic agents involves:

a) Activation of sodium channels in nerve membranes.

b) Inhibition of potassium channels in nerve membranes.

c) Blockade of calcium channels in nerve membranes.

d) Impairment of sodium ion flux across nerve membranes.

3. Which of the following factors is responsible for the duration of action of local anaesthetic agents?

a) Protein binding.

b) Lipid solubility.

c) Degree of hydrolysis.

d) Onset of action.
4. Which local anaesthetic agent is known for its longer duration of action and slow onset?

a) Lidocaine

b) Bupivacaine

c) Ropivacaine

d) Chloroprocaine

5. The metabolism of ester local anaesthetics primarily occurs in:

a) The liver

b) Plasma cholinesterases

c) Kidneys

d) Hepatic amidases

6. Local anaesthetics can cross the placenta and enter the bloodstream of the developing fetus.
(True/False)

7. Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics may occur due to:

a) Accidental intravascular injection

b) Gross overdose

c) Injection into highly vascular tissue

d) All of the above

8. Symptoms of central nervous system (CNS) toxicity of local anaesthetics include:

a) Hypertension and tachycardia

b) Cyanosis and respiratory depression

c) Shivering and muscular twitching

d) Bradycardia and hypotension

9. Which drug can be used to treat convulsions caused by local anaesthetic toxicity?

a) Atropine

b) Adrenaline

c) Diazepam

d) Thiopentone

10. What is the recommended treatment for ventricular fibrillation due to bupivacaine toxicity?

a) Intravenous atropine

b) Crystalloid infusions

c) Propofol administration

d) Intralipid infusion

Please note that these questions are for educational purposes only and should not be used for formal
evaluation or assessment.

Certainly! Here are some multiple-choice questions based on the information provided:

1. The neuromuscular junction is the site for the transmission of action potential from the __________
to the __________.

a) Muscle; motor endplate

b) Nerve; muscle

c) Synaptic cleft; motor neurone

d) Motor endplate; synaptic cleft

2. Which of the following statements about motor neurones is correct?

a) Motor neurones control smooth muscle activity.

b) Motor neurones originate in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord.

c) Motor neurones have their cell bodies at the distal end.

d) Motor neurones are surrounded by myelin sheath produced by Schwann cells.

3. How do axons facilitate rapid conduction of the nerve impulse?

a) By releasing neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft

b) By interrupting the myelin sheath with nodes of Ranvier

c) By binding to receptors on the motor endplate

d) By dividing into telodendria

4. How many neuromuscular junctions does each skeletal muscle fibre have?

a) None

b) One

c) Several

d) It varies depending on the muscle size

5. Which of the following is true regarding acetylcholine receptors at the motor endplate?

a) They are post-junctional receptors.

b) They consist of two alpha subunits and one gamma subunit.

c) They are located in the synaptic cleft.

d) They allow the movement of chloride ions predominantly.

6. Which of the following neuromuscular blocking drugs acts as an agonist at nicotinic acetylcholine
receptors?

a) Pancuronium

b) Rocuronium
c) Vecuronium

d) Succinylcholine

7. Which neuromuscular blocking drug is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase?

a) Atracurium

b) Mivacurium

c) Pancuronium

d) Rocuronium

8. Which of the following neuromuscular blocking drugs is associated with the risk of hyperkalemia?

a) Mivacurium

b) Vecuronium

c) Rocuronium

d) Pancuronium

9. Phase II block can occur after the administration of which neuromuscular blocking drug?

a) Succinylcholine

b) Rocuronium

c) Vecuronium

d) Pancuronium

10. Sugammadex is a drug specifically designed to rapidly and completely reverse the neuromuscular
blockade caused by which drug?

a) Pancuronium

b) Succinylcholine

c) Rocuronium
d) Mivacurium

These questions cover various aspects of neuromuscular transmission and neuromuscular blocking
drugs. Let me know if you need more questions or if there's anything else I can assist you with!

Certainly! Here are some additional multiple-choice questions for you:

1. Which component of the neuromuscular junction contains acetylcholinesterase?

a) Motor neurone

b) Motor endplate

c) Synaptic cleft

d) Junctional gap

2. Which enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of acetylcholine in the motor neurone?

a) Acetylcholinesterase

b) Choline acetyltransferase

c) Pyruvate decarboxylase

d) Succinate dehydrogenase

3. Which type of receptors are located on the crests of the folds in the motor endplate?

a) GABA receptors

b) Dopamine receptors

c) Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

d) Serotonin receptors

4. What is the main mechanism by which non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocking drugs exert their
effect?
a) Binding to prejunctional receptors

b) Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

c) Activation of sodium-potassium ATPase pump

d) Competitive antagonism at nicotinic receptors

5. Which neuromuscular blocking drug is commonly used for rapid sequence intubation?

a) Atracurium

b) Mivacurium

c) Rocuronium

d) Pancuronium

6. Which neuromuscular blocking drug is associated with a risk of malignant hyperthermia?

a) Vecuronium

b) Rocuronium

c) Pancuronium

d) Suxamethonium

7. Which neuromuscular blocking drug has the shortest duration of action?

a) Atracurium

b) Mivacurium

c) Rocuronium

d) Vecuronium

8. What is the main route of elimination for vecuronium?

a) Renal excretion
b) Biliary excretion

c) Metabolism by plasma cholinesterase

d) Pulmonary excretion

9. Sugammadex is a reversal agent specifically designed for which neuromuscular blocking drug?

a) Pancuronium

b) Rocuronium

c) Vecuronium

d) Atracurium

10. What is the primary advantage of selective relaxant binding agents (SRBAs) over traditional
neuromuscular blocking drugs?

a) Faster onset of action

b) Longer duration of action

c) Greater selectivity for specific receptors

d) Lower risk of side effects

Feel free to use these questions for your study or assessment purposes. If you need further assistance,
please let me know!