HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI KHU VỰC

KHU VỰC DH VÀ ĐB BẮC BỘ

DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐB BẮC BỘ NĂM 2022
MÔN THI: ANH - LỚP: 11
ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT (Thời gian làm bài 180 phút không kể thời gian giao đề)
THPT Chu Văn An – Hà Nội

I. LISTENING (50 points)

PART 1. (10 points)
You will hear Alice Brown interviewing Professor Robert Atkins about health scares.
For questions 1-5, choose the answer (A, B, C, D) which fits best according to what
you hear.

1. How does Professor Atkins feel about the frequency of health scares in the media?
A. irritated that the media print nonsense
B. reconciled to health scares being a necessary evil
C. resigned to the media misunderstanding science
D. worried that the health scares might be real
2. What is Alice’s attitude to the threat of the lethal diseases?
A. She worries that new ones will occur.
B. She is doubtful that they can be contained.
C. She is concerned that they are spread more easily today.
C. She believes they pose less of danger today.
3. Professor Atkins believes that the concerns people have today arise from _______.
A. a lack of spiritual belief
B. being misled by scientists and doctors
C. bewilderment when their assumptions are challenged
D. worry about how diseases are communicated
4. What do Alice and Professor Atkins agree about when it comes to health scares?
A. some businesses have a vested interest in promoting them
B. some manufacturers see them as the best form of publicity
C. some doctors are at fault for not criticizing them sufficiently
D. some researchers are looking for publicity
5. What worries Professor Atkins about health scares?
A. They could lead to people taking too many pills.

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B. They are more damaging than real diseases.
C. They might make people disregard potential risks.
D. They are difficult to disprove.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
PART 2. (10 points)

Listen to the conversation between Sasha and Jim, then complete the True/False exercise
below.

1. Sasha is currently unemployed.

2. Jim understands now why Sasha had problems in her previous apartment.
3. The problem with the television is that Sasha has sometimes forgotten to turn the TV
off.
4. Sasha didn‟t know that Jim used the lights in the apartment as an anti-crime measure.
5. Sasha never realized the different cleaner was causing a problem in the shower.
Your answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
PART 3. (10 points)
Listen to a talk about how to prevent a food crisis and answer the questions. Write
NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. What stimulates Africa‟s economic boom?
2. What will become heavily dependent on AI in Europe?
3. What have fossil fuels been considered in the Middle East?
4. What will substitute for oil disputes in the future?
5. What will come to the throne by 2039?
Your answers

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
PART 4. (20 points)
Listen to a radio discussion about the pros and cons of opening a new fast food
restaurant in a small town called Manley and complete the following sentences. Write

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NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.

- The proposed opening of the new Burger World has provoked (1) _______ in the local
community.
- Mr. Brownlea thinks it will harm the young people and the (2) _______.
- He would prefer a new restaurant offering (3) _______.
- He admits that Burger World prices are (4) _______
- He believes that fast food chains are causing the disappearance of (5) _______ around the
world.
- Mrs. Masters argues that preventing the new outlet‟s opening in Manley will not (6)
_______ of changing food habit worldwide.
- Mr. Brownlea is worried that the new fast food will increase the problem of (7) _______.
- This will make older residents feel (8) _______.
- Mrs. Masters feels that it will be beneficial for young people to use Burger World as a (9)
_______.
- She believes the new restaurant will boost (10) _______ of the town.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6 7 8 9 10
II. GRAMMAR AND LEXICOLOGY (30 points)
1. Choose the best answer. (20 points)
1. The athlete was _______ in defeat and praised his opponent's skill, for which he received
a lot of praise.
A. abrasive B. valiant C. chivalrous D. magnanimous
2. I wish you‟d stop _________ with that watch. It needs to be repaired by a professional
A. dabbling B. striving C. tinkering D. preserving
3. His driving is so bad that I always turn _______ when I am sitting with him in the car.
A. around the bend B. in a fog
C. off his trolley D. green around the gills
4. He _____ denied the accusations, saying they were totally false
A. excessively B. superficially C. strenuously D. unstintingly
5. The runner was far ahead for most of the race, but at the end she won only _______.
A. larger than life B. on the dot C. by a whisker D. a notch above

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6. She‟s raising two kids, holding down a full-time job, and trying to maintain some
_______ of a personal life.
A. semblance B. vestige C. inkling D. portent
7. Negotiations went _______, but we did manage to reach an agreement on the contract by
the deadline.
A. down to the short strokes B. down for the count
C. down to the ground D. down to the wire
8. Given the competitiveness of the National Contest, I have to knock it out of the _______
or I won‟t be able to win any prizes.
A. park B. nail C. roof D. ring
9. She was extremely elegant and obviously very _________
A. entitled B. upheld C. upstanding D. well-heeled
10. I know it‟s hard at first when you start a new job, but you‟ll soon ______.
A. show your teeth B. find your feet C. follow your nose D. try your hand
11. The preparations ____________ by the time the guests ____________.
A. bad been finished/ arrived B. have finished I arrived
C. had finished/ were arriving D. have been finished/ were arrived
12. ____________, playing music is an effective way for them to open their heart to the
outside world.
A. Being visually impaired people B. Such were their visual impairments
C. Having been visually impaired D. For those with visual impairments
13. One day, ____________, she announced that she was leaving.
A. in the red B. in the pink C. over the moon D. out of the blue
14. John was out of his ______________ in the advanced class, so he moved to the
intermediate class.
A. class B. depth C. league D. head
15. One of the most important things you have to remember when you join this game is that
you should ____________.
A. go to your head B. keep your wits about you
C. keep your head in the clouds D. gather your wits
16. Sailing is not ____________ an art.

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 A. more science than B. so much a science as C. as scientific as
D. worth science for
17. ____________ you cut down your carbohydrate intake, you ___ weight by now.
A. Had I would have lost B. Were/ would have lost C. If/ will Jose
D. Did/ would
18. It's very important that we ____________ as soon as there‟s any change in the
patient‟s condition.
A. be notified B. being notified C. are notified · D. were notified
19.There are ____________ words in English having more than one meaning. Pay close
attention to this fact.
A. a large many B. quite many C. a great many D. quite a lot
20. ____________ motivate learning is well documented.
A. That is computers B. Computers that C. That computers D. It is those
computers
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

2. Complete these sentences, using the suitable form of the given words in brackets.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 points)
1. Unfortunately the game was cancelled because of a __________ pitch. (WATER)
2. People in coastal areas live mainly on the _________________, which allows them to
earn a great deal of money from the sea products. (CULTURE)
3. She made a _________________ return to the stage after several years working in
television. (TRIUMPH)
4. Antiseptics and __________ are widely used in hospital to kill the bacteria. (INFECT)
5. Thanks to the _________________ policy, more and more forests have been formed on
locations that used to be treeless. (FOREST)

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6. Both are _______, extravagant in character, highly lyrical and immediately establish the
soloist as a romantic protagonist. (CLAIM)
7. We might have to employ someone temporarily as a _______ measure until we can hire
someone permanently. (STOP)
8. Upholders of the scientific faith shudder at the implications of having to mix it with such
_______ subjective and impure elements. (REDEEM)
9. _______ should summarize the main facts about their performance based on the staff
evaluation criteria of the company. (APPRAISE)
10. It encouraged experimenters to propose ________ or novel approaches to problems.
(BEAT)
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

III. READING (60 points)

Part 1: In the passage below, seven paragraphs have been removed. Choose from
paragraphs (A-H) the one which fits each gap (1-7). There is one extra paragraph you
do not need to use. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes
provided. (7 points)
The white and silver buildings of the VLT or Very Large Telescope at the ESO (European
Organisation for Astronomical research in the Southern Hemisphere) stand tall and
imposing on top of a mountain shining brightly under the desert sun. At night they come
alive, the outer walls open up and silently slide through 360 degrees, allowing an
uninterrupted view of the Southern Hemisphere sky. Inside, a giant eye looks deep into the
stars and beyond, looking for life, mysteries and making sense out of the darkness.
1.
Getting to the place is a journey of discovery in itself. After leaving the Pacific Ocean, you
head south and hook up with the Panamericana Highway and into the desert, the driest on
Earth. It's a two-hour drive to the observatory, but it feels longer as the harsh light, the
rocky, dusty desert, the complete absence of any form of life, except for the giant trucks
plying their trade along the highway, is unsettling.
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2.
The reason, we are told, is simple. Astronomers need a clear view of the sky at night.
Optimal conditions are to be found in deserts; there are fewer of the negative factors like
light pollution that can make the four telescopes which form VLT work less effectively.
Here no lights are allowed after dark, all windows are screened, and even the main
residence where 108 people sleep, leaks no more than 40W when the lights are turned on.
3.
These monsters and their smaller auxiliaries bring to mind the set of Star Wars. But at
sunset, they take on another look. This could be Stonehenge, another magic circle where
our forefathers tried to make sense of the stars. Soon after arriving, we are taken to see the
inside of one of the telescopes. They have all been named in the indigenous Mapuche
language following a competition among Chilean schoolchildren.
4.
Once these have been completed, the telescope is handed over to the team who will operate
one or more of the telescopes from a control room. All night long these giants will be
moving and pointing to the sky helping the scientists unravel new problems. Fourteen
countries contribute around 160 million euros to their joint astronomical cause, and Paranal
is allocated 20% of that figure. Standing in the shadow of the VLT, one wonders what all
this taxpayers' money buys.
5.
They all answered with the usual 'finding out where we came from, where we are going, are
we alone in the universe...?' And, as the ESO has no commercial use and is a not-for-profit
organization, it's easy to imagine these scientists indulging in their research and being cut
off from reality.
6.
One of Paranal's great achievements was the discovery of a planet outside our solar system.
It is huge: five times bigger than Jupiter, and the work being done now is aimed at
understanding the physical and chemical composition of this, and other, giant Earth-like
planets. Truly a quest for life in outer space.
7.

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'We needed even sharper images to settle the issue of whether any other configuration is
possible and we counted on the ESO VLT to provide those,‟ says Reinhard Genzel, director
at the Max-Planck Institute for Extraterrestrial Physics. 'Now the era of observational
physics has truly begun.'

Missing paragraphs
A But talking further revealed a simple truth: that having pretty much discovered all there
is to know about our world on the Earth, astronomy looks at the vast Terra Incognita
which surrounds us. These scientists see themselves very much as a mixture of
Renaissance men and women: all questing for further knowledge.
B Every evening an engineer is assigned to one of these telescopes and his or her job is to
get it ready so that it can then be taken over at night by a three-person team. The
engineer runs through a series of tests in preparation for the work which will be done
later that night.
C The central unit inside weighs 450 tonnes and houses the main 8.5 m mirror. A second,
smaller mirror is made from beryllium, a rare metal. The external walls can all slide
open to allow the telescope to point in any direction as it rotates soundlessly on its base.
D As we drive further into the desert, the road starts to rise gradually, with hills and steep
valleys all around us. The environment is harsh in the extreme and it's hard to imagine
that a community of European scientists have chosen this place to establish a world-
leading laboratory.
E It is a question that many in Paranal find a little difficult to answer. Maybe because
scientists, due to the nature of their research and also, maybe, their mindsets, tend to
focus on very specific areas of competence and therefore are not required to have a
broader 'strategic' view.
F The other big consideration in the desert is the absence of cloud cover and, higher up,
the lack of atmospheric dust and all the other interference caused by humans or nature
which contributes to partially hiding the secrets of the universe. 'Twinkle, twinkle little
star' is just what astronomers do not want to hear, as this means there is debris between
the eye, the telescopes and the stars.
G We are in Paranal, in Chile's Atacama Desert, where at 2,600 m above sea level, Europe

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 has its most advanced astronomical observatory. It's a leading site, a joint undertaking
by fourteen European countries focused on developing the most advanced scientific
tools for observing the universe and enhancing the knowledge base for industry,
H education and culture.
Astronomers have also used the data from VLT for another purpose - to attempt to find
out how old the universe is. It seems that the oldest star is 13.2 billion years old, which
means the universe must be even older. They also use VLT to look into galaxies beyond
ours, and where they continue to find evidence of supermassive black holes, where all
kinds of violent activity occur.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Part 2. Complete the following passage by filling each blank with ONE suitable word.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15 points)
Since the World Health Organization (WHO) declared the COVID-19 outbreak a
pandemic back in March 2020, the virus has claimed more than 2.5 million lives globally
with upwards of 113 million cases being (1) by laboratory tests (March 2021).
The pandemic has impacted almost every corner of life, causing global economies to
stall, changing the way we work and interact (2) our loved ones, and stretching healthcare
(3) to the limit. Governments around the world have been forced to implement harsh
restrictions (4) human activity to curb the spread of the virus.
COVID-19 vaccination is now offering a way to transition out of this phase of the
pandemic. Without them, many scientists believe that natural herd (5) would not have been
sufficient to restore society to its normal (6) quo and that it would have resulted in extreme
fatality. This is something that has been echoed by many health (7) including the WHO. In
a scenario (8) access to vaccines, strict behavioral measures may have had to remain for the
foreseeable future.
Fortunately, the beginning of 2021 saw numerous vaccines given emergency (9) and begin
their roll out in countries across the world. As of March 2021, just shy of 300 million
vaccine doses had been administered worldwide. The figures give (10) of a return to

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„normal‟. However, global COVID-19 vaccination faces several challenges which may
impact its success.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. Read the passage below and answers the questions (10 points)
The presence or absence of water has a direct bearing on the possibility of life on other
planets. In the nineteenth century, it was commonly accepted that life, perhaps even
intelligent life, was widespread in the solar system, and Mars was an obvious target in the
search for life. New photographic technology offered a way for astronomers to learn more
about the red planet. In 1888, Italian astronomer Giovanni Schiaparelli produced images
that showed a network of long, thin, dark lines crossing the surface of Mars. He called these
features canali in Italian, which became “canals” or “channels” in English. The strange
appearance of the canals suggested to some scientists that they had been formed artificially
rather than naturally. The mystery deepened when Schiaparelli observed that many of the
canals in the photographs were actually double.
Other photographic images of Mars revealed its seasonally changing polar ice caps
and features that appeared to be ancient islands located in what was now a dry streambed.
When the islands were first discovered, some scientists speculated that a thick water-laden
atmosphere capable of generating heavy rains and had once existed on Mars. However,
others remained unconvinced of the presence of water. Then, in 1963, a team of
astronomers obtained a good photographic plate of the near-infrared spectrum of Mars. The
photograph showed that, faintly but definitely, water vapor lines could be seen. This
photograph established that there really was water on Mars, though the amount was very
small. Today, the presence of water vapor in the Martian atmosphere is generally accepted,
as is the belief that the atmosphere was once much denser than it is now, with a much
greater abundance of water vapor.
The surface of Mars is dry today, but it does contain significant amounts of ice and
signs that liquid water once flowed over the planet. All of the locations where evidence of
water has been found are ancient, probably formed every early in Martian history. Data

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transmitted from spacecraft on Mars in 2004 have revealed that water was once common
across a vast region of the planet, possibly as shallow lakes or seas that dried out and then
filled up again. There are signs that the wind blew debris around during dry stages. These
seas and lakes extended across hundreds of thousands of square miles, creating habitable
conditions during long stretches of time billions of years ago.
Evidence of water includes the presence of various minerals known as evaporates,
deposits left behind when liquid water turns to vapor. Small areas of mineral deposits have
been found in Valles Marineris, a huge hole on Mars that is larger than the Grand Canyon
on Earth. The minerals there contain water, so they had to be formed in the presence of
water. Geologic research has also turned up clay and gypsum deposits that were formed by
water in the soil. Rocks that clearly formed in water extend throughout 300 meters of
layered materials in several locations across the Martian plains. The layers were built up
over time, which means water was present, at least temporarily, for extended periods on
ancient Mars.
Besides the ice packs at Mars‟s poles, astronomers have discovered a frozen sea near
its equator. This frozen sea is the size of the North Sea on Earth and appears similar to the
ice packs on Antarctica. Scientists have also detected evidence of lava flows 20 million
years ago as well as signs that some volcanoes may still be active. Several recently formed
volcanic cones near Mars‟s North Pole indicate that the planet‟s core may interact with the
surface, meaning there was both warmth and moisture in the recent past – circumstances
that might have supported life.
Liquid water is the key ingredient for life as we know it. Of all the other planets in the
solar system, Mars is most like Earth. In 20111 a team of researchers used computer
modeling to compare data on temperature and pressure conditions on Earth with those on
Mars to estimate how much of Mars could support Earth- like organisms. Their results
showed that three percent of Mars could sustain life, although most of these regions are
underground. Below the planet‟s surface, conditions are right for water to exist as a liquid.
Additional evidence of water on the planet‟s surface came in 2012, when a robot landed on
Mars and transmitted hig-resolution images showing a streambed with coarse gravel that
had likely been deposited by flowing water. All of this evidence of water does not

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necessarily mean life ever emerged there; however, it does suggest that Mars meets all the
requirements that are needed for life to exist.

1. The word „target’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.

A. watery planet B. symbol of strength C. missing link D. object of
interest
2. According to the passage, what has been a major focus of research about Mars?
A. How Mars compares to other planets in the solar system
B. Who built the network of canals on the surface of Mars
C. Whether signs of water indicate that life has existed on Mars
D. How soon astronauts from Earth will be able to go to Mars
3. Astronomers of the 19th and 20th centuries studied Mars mainly through ______.
A. ancient writings B. photographic images
C. Martian soil samples D. data sent by spacecraft
4. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that Schiaparelli‟s observation of canals on Mars
led to ______.
A. direct proof that life has existed on Mars
B. the rejection of Schiaparelli‟s ideas by other scientists
C. the search for canals on other planets in the solar system
D. new questions about intelligent life on Mars
5. What discovery led some scientists to think that the Martian atmosphere had
produced heavy rains in the past?
A. A network of canals on the surface
B. Ancient islands in a dry streambed
C. Water vapor lines on a photographic plate
D. Volcanic cones near the planet‟s North Pole
6. Which sentence below best expresses the essential information in the highlighted
sentence in paragraph 2?
A. Most scientists believe there is water vapor in the Martian atmosphere, which is
now less dense than it was in the past.

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 B. The amount of water vapor in the Martian atmosphere has changed many times in
the past, and scientists generally accept this.
C. The atmosphere of Mars used to contain only water vapor, but now scientists
know that several other gases are also present.
D. Scientists used to believe that Mars had no atmosphere, but now most think it has
a very dense atmosphere of water vapor.
7. Layers of rock in several places on the Martian plains are evidence that ______.
A. Mars was formed at the same time as Earth
B. both wind and water erosion occurred there
C. water was present there for a long time
D. liquid water is no longer present on Mars
8. All of the following indicate the presence of water on Mars EXCEPT ______.
A. images of polar ice caps B. a 1963 photograph
C. clay and gypsum deposits D. evidence of lava flows
9. Write the correct letter [A], [B], [C] or [D] that indicates where the following
sentence could be added to the passage?
Astronomers already knew that Mars had some kind of atmosphere because of the
occasional presence of bright features that looked like clouds.
The presence or absence of water has a direct bearing on the possibility of life on
other planets. [A] In the nineteenth century, it was commonly accepted that life, perhaps
even intelligent life, was widespread in the solar system, and Mars was an obvious target
in the search for life. [B] New photographic technology offered a way for astronomers
to learn more about the red planet. In 1888, Italian astronomer Giovanni Schiaparelli
produced images that showed a network of long, thin, dark lines crossing the surface of
Mars. [C] He called these features canali in Italian, which became “canals” or
“channels” in English. The strange appearance of the canals suggested to some scientists
that they had been formed artificially rather than naturally. [D] The mystery deepened
when Schiaparelli observed that many of the canals in the photographs were actually
double.

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 10.An introductory sentence for a brief summary of the passage is provided below.
Complete the summary by selecting the THREE answer choices that express the
most important ideas in the passage.
Scientists have long searched for evidence of water on Mars
-
-
-

A. Early photographs of Mars showed what appeared to be canals, polar ice caps,
and ancient islands.
B. Dry streambed, lakes, and seas suggest that Mars does not have enough water to
support life.
C. There is water vapor in the Martian atmosphere and evidence that liquid water
once flowed on the surface.
D. Mars contains many types of evaporates, minerals left behind when liquid water
becomes vapor.
E. Geologic research, photography and computer modeling provide evidence of
water – and possibly life – on Mars.
F. Because Mars is so similar to Earth, scientists believe that humans will be able to
live on Mars in the future.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4. Read the passage and do the tasks below (13 points)
Section A
• The human community can be regarded as a system, holistic in nature, seeking survival.
Throughout the ages, observers of human behaviour have repeatedly identified four
major patterns or configurations of behaviour. Such holistic sorting of behaviour
patterns has been recorded for at least twenty-five centuries.

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• In 450 B.C., Hippocrates described four such dispositions he called temperaments - a
choleric temperament with an ease of emotional arousal and sensitivity, a phlegmatic
temperament with cool detachment and impassivity, a melancholic temperament with a
very serious, dour, and downcast nature, and a sanguine temperament full of
impulsivity, excitability, and quick reactivity. During the Middle Ages, Philippus
Paracelsus described four natures whose behaviours were said to be influenced by four
kinds of spirits: nymphs, sylphs, gnomes, and salamanders.
• Most twentieth-century psychologists abandoned holistic observation of human
behaviour for a microscopic examination of parts, fragments, traits, and so on. To them,
all human beings were basically alike, and individual differences were due to chance or
conditioning.
• Two German psychologists, Ernst Kretschmer and Eduard Spranger, were among the
few to continue to view individuals holistically in terms of patterns. Inspired by their
work, a modern psychologist, David Keirsey, noted common themes in the various
observations and the consistent tendency of human behavious to sort itself into four
similar patterns. Linda Berens continues to expand our understanding of the four
temperaments through the unique contributions, including the core needs, values,
talents, and behaviours of the four temperament patterns – as illustrated by The
Temperament Targets.
• These four major patterns are referred to as temperaments. They describe the ways
human personality interacts with the environment to satisfy its needs. Each of the four
types of humours corresponded to a different personality type.
Section B
• The Sanguine temperament personality is fairly extroverted. People of a sanguine
temperament tend to enjoy social gatherings and making new friends. They tend to be
creative and often day dream. However, some alone time is crucial for those of this
temperament. Sanguine can also mean very sensitive, compassionate and thoughtful.
Sanguine personalities generally struggle with the following tasks all the way through.
They are chronically late, and tend to be forgetful and sometimes a little sarcastic.
Often, when pursuing a new hobby, interest is lost quickly when it ceases to be
engaging or fun. A sanguine person is happy, friendly, warm, eager and has an ability to

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 sympathize with others. He has lots of friends and everyone thinks he is a fun company.
But he is often very self-centred and he lacks self-control. He has a tendency to
exaggerate and he is emotionally unstable.
Section C
• A person who is choleric is a doer. They have a lot of ambition, energy and passion, and
try to instill it in others. They can dominate people of other temperaments, especially
phlegmatic types. Many great charismatic military and political figures were cholerics.
They have a strong will. They are independent, practical, efficient and productive.
When they get something in their mind, nothing can stop them. Unfortunately, choleric
people have to spend a lot of their time alone, as their social side is so poorly-
developed. They scare people away with their coldness and their angry and cruel words.
They are insensitive and overly dominating.
Section D
• A person who is a thoughtful ponder has a melancholic disposition. Often very kind and
considerate, melancholies can be highly creative – as in poetry and art – and can
become occupied with the tragedy and cruelty in the world. A melancholic is also often
a perfectionist. They are often self-reliant and independent. A melancholic person is
often extremely talented. He can analyse things very deeply. He has an eye for beauty.
He is disciplined and diligent. But he has a whole load of dark sides. He is often
pessimistic and is depressed easily. He is too critical of himself and of others. He is
revengeful and easily offended.
Section E
• Phlegmatics tend to be self-content and kind. They can be very accepting and
affectionate. They may be very receptive and shy and often prefer stability to
uncertainty and change. They are very consistent, relaxed, rational, curious, and
observant, making them good administrators and diplomats. Unlike the Sanguine
personality, they may be more dependable.
• It‟s easiest to get along with a phlegmatic person. He is calm and easygoing. His
carefree attitude and good sense of humour attract people. He is stable and reliable and
very diplomatic. But he is not perfect, either. He is often irritatingly slow and unable to
make up his mind. He is selfish and stingy. Sometimes he is totally indifferent to

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 everything around him. All he‟s interested in is his daydreams.
Section F
• The concept of temperament can generally be defined as a behavioural or emotional
trait that differs across individuals, appears early in life, is relatively stable over the life-
span, and is, at least to some degree, influenced by biology. One common defining
characteristic of temperament is that it appears quite early in development and is
relatively stable over the life-span. It is for this reason that the study of temperament has
often focused on infancy and early-childhood. The assumption has been that
temperament is not an acquired characteristic; one doesn‟t learn one‟s temperament,
rather one is simply born with a given temperament profile. Further, these “in-born”
traits persist throughout the life span, though they may change form. For example, an
infant may have a withdrawal oriented temperament, but lacking the physical capacity
to move independently may cry when presented with novel situations or toys or people,
etc. The infant‟s crying then elicits a caregiver to either remove the infant from the
stimulus or the stimulus from the infant. In either case it effectively increases the
distance between the infant and that which makes him or her uncomfortable. As the
child ages through early childhood, middle childhood, and adolescence and so on, he or
she no longer needs to rely exclusively on others to control their environment. They can
themselves retreat from situations that make them uncomfortable and/or they may
actively seek out environments that are of low stimulus intensity. In adolescence they
may begin to use depressant drugs such as alcohol, narcotics, or nicotine to effectively
withdraw from situations that make them uncomfortable, but for which there is strong
social pressure to pursue (parties, school functions, etc.) These behaviours are quite
different in form, but yield the same functional effect.
Questions 1-6: The reading passage has six sections, A-F. Choose the correct heading
for each section from the list of headings below. Write the correct number, i-ix, in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.
List of Headings
I Cautious and caring people
Ii Connection between characteristics and body
Iii In-depth thinking and intelligent people

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 Iv Changing behaviours
V Active and optimistic people
Vi Theories from ancient philosophers
Vii Four personalities on the basis of body fluid
viii Demanding and unsympathetic people
Ix The in-born and permanent temperament

1. Section A
2. Section B
3. Section C
4. Section D
5. Section E
6. Section F
Questions 7-13: Do the following statements agree with the information given in the
reading passage? In the corresponding numbered boxes provided, write:
TRUE if the statement reflects the claims of the writer
FALSE if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
7. The four temperaments can be traced back reliably to philosophy, notably in the work of
Hippocrates.
8. To all twentieth-century psychologists, the personal characteristics came from different
situations.
9. People of a sanguine temperament are imaginative and creative, and are often the ones
who enthusiastically promote new ideas on the job.
10. If someone has a strong will, he or she must be a great charismatic military or political
person.
11. Most melancholies can be poets or artists because they are highly creative.
12. Phlegmatic people are usually indifferent to everything.
13. Temperament is an “in-born” characteristic which is stable throughout one‟s life.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

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 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11 12 13

Part 5. (15 points)

You are going to read an extract from an article about paintings. For questions 1–10,
choose from the sections (A–E). The sections may be chosen more than once. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
A. Luisa Sutton
A Bar at the Folies-Bergère, by Edouard Manet
Manet was inviting some kind of response in the way in which he presented women in his
work and he succeeded in bridging the gap between classical traditions and painting
modern life. Above all, I have tremendous respect for the fact that he was a breakthrough
artist: a champion of realist modernism who was censured for breaking the mould. Through
the medium of painting, Manet constantly reassessed the prevailing attitudes of the world
he was living in. Today we are used to multiple perspective - seeing the same image from
different angles. This was not so in Manet‟s time and in this painting we see him crossing
boundaries as he switches reality by employing a mirror to reflect his subjects.
B. Paul Harris
Henry VII, 29 October 1505, by unknown artist
Visually, this is a stunning portrait; Henry moves towards the viewer from the parapet
wearing the red robes of Lancaster, his hands on the ledge. It is immediately exciting and
emotive. Henry VII was on the lookout for a new bride and this was painted to be sent to
the court of Maximilian, much as we would send a photo today. So the provenance is clear.
Portraits of other English monarchs, Richard III in particular, are, in comparison, stiff and
remote. Henry VII‟s portrait speaks in a very particular way. His eyes look at one. He is
Renaissance man but, at the same time one sees a shrewd, wise and wily man who,
throughout his reign, managed to amass the fortune of the Tudor dynasty.
C. Tom Newman
James VI and I, 1618, by Paul Van Somer
I used to work for an art handling company in New York, and I came to realise how
wonderful paintings are as entities. Old paintings last for so long because of the materials

19
used – the oil is so robust, it expands or contracts depending on the heat. They can be rolled
up and taken around the world, they‟ll never die. This portrait, in particular, made a huge
impression on me. Works of art often lose their power as soon as they‟re placed in a
museum. This painting is where it belongs – in a palace. Subject to who you speak to,
James is either a buffoon or a tactical genius, but in this work he looks so stately. The
painting was clearly commissioned to convey regality – and it worked on me, 400 years
later.
D. Paula Smith
Mr and Mrs Andrews, by Gainsborough
I chose this painting as it has personal relevance for me. I grew up in my grandmother‟s
house in London. She was an excellent copyist of Gainsborough. We had copies of all of
his paintings, except for this one, which my grandmother didn‟t approve of. I‟ve always
found it incredibly beautiful though. The two figures in this wonderful painting have very
enigmatic expressions. What are they up to? What are they thinking? And then what are we
to make of the landscape? It‟s an agricultural scene, in the middle of the day, but there are
no agricultural workers anywhere to be seen. Where on earth is everybody? What a strange
atmosphere the place has, a long ago era that will never be recaptured.
E. Lynn D’Anton
An Old Woman Cooking Eggs, 1618, by Velàzquez
What is most striking about this painting is surely its veracity. One gets the feeling that one
is looking into a room in which there are no obstacles to understanding. Nothing comes
between the subject and the observer. The artist here is the perfect observer. When I saw it
a few years ago in the National Gallery of Scotland, set alongside many other works from
Velazquez‟s youth, there was no doubt in my mind that it was a masterpiece. I think that it
is easy for many people to empathise with this painting in one way or another.
In which section are the following mentioned?
1. the inscrutable nature of the subjects
2. the artist‟s ability to give an insight into temperament
3. the integrity of the image portrayed
4. the view that the artist was an innovator
5. delight in a painting‟s ability to endure

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6. the background to a painting being well documented
7. the view that a painting‟s impact depends on its surroundings
8. a painting which gives an image of a lost world
9. admiration for an artist who dared to challenge conventional ideas
10.conflicting opinions about the subject of a painting
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

IV. WRITING (60 points)

Part 1. (15 points)
Read the following articles and summarize the measures recommended in both
articles in order to improve health and performance. You should write a paragraph of
between 80 and 100 words.
Article 1: Discover the healing power of positive thinking
We all know that strong emotions have powerful physical effect. Feeling nervous
before an important interview can send you rushing to the bathroom, while a sudden attack
of anxiety can send your heart racing and leave you feeling faint and dizzy. But new
research has revealed the incredible healing power of the brain and how learning to relax
and think positively can have dramatic health benefits. And there is now overwhelming
evidence that your mental and emotional state can also have a direct impact on your body‟s
ability to fight disease and cope with pain.
Bob Lewin, Professor of Rehabilitation at York University, took a group of heart
patients through an eight-week angina management, relaxation techniques, goal-setting,
yoga and exercise. The results were staggering. Fifty per cent of the patients who had been
on waiting list for bypass surgery were taken off by their cardiologists who decided that
they no longer needed it.
So how do you make it work for yourself? Well, it‟s far more complex than just
learning to look on the bright side. The key variable in patients getting well is the extent to
which they feel in control of their own emotions. Reorganizing your life and learning self-
help techniques can help put you back in control of these.

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 Article 2: How to stay cool even when you’re quaking
We all carry round a baggage of attitudes and beliefs that colours our response to new
situations. If you‟re lucky, these will be “can-do” messages, but many of us are
programmed for failure. Perhaps every time you stepped out of the door when you were
little, your parents cried “Be careful!”, as if doom and disaster lurked at every turn, or
friends say, “I wouldn‟t attempt that if I were you!”, if you hear negative statements often
enough, you learn to expect the worst. The immediate reaction to a new or daunting
situation is “I can‟t handle it”.
“Most people‟s confidence is a level or two below their competency.” Says clinical
psychologist Averil Leimon, director of a company which helps personnel transform their
behaviour. “People need to understand that they really are better than they believe.”
Everybody feels fearful in unfamiliar situations that doesn‟t mean we should avoid
them. Taking risks, even tiny ones like picking up a telephone to make a complaint, is a
necessary part of accepting adult responsibility. The best strategy you can adopt is to
understand why you feel so fearful and learn how to deal with it, then, when you succeed in
a difficult situation, you‟ll feel more confident about approaching it next time around.
The people you admire for their apparent confidence and ability to cope with any
situation are probably feeling just as daunted as you would be, but they don‟t let it stand in
their way.
Your summary:
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................

Part 2. (15 points)

The line graph below shows changes in the amount of coffee exported from three
countries between 2002 and 2012. Summarize the information by selecting and
reporting the main features and make comparisons where relevant.

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..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................

Part 3. (30 points)

In many countries today insufficient respect is shown to older people. What do you
think may be the reasons for this? What problems might this cause in society?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge or experience.
Write no more than 350 words.

..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................
..................................................................................................................................................

THE END
Người ra đề

Phương Nhân (0936868540)

23
 HỘI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LẦN THỨ XIII
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI, ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH – KHỐI 11
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN BIÊN HOÀ, T. HÀ NAM Ngày thi 14/07/2021
Thời gian làm bài 180 phút
(Đề thi gồm 15 trang)

ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT

SECTION A. LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1. You will hear an interview with Dr Lafford, a leading expert in the field of forensic science.
For questions 1-5, decide whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F) according to what
you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 points)
1. According to Dr Lafford, detailed observations made Sherlock Holmes a good forensic scientist.
2. Evidence of mutual contact prove important to forensic scientists.
3. Dr Lafford mentions the broken headlight to show that forensic science nowadays is not as time-
consuming as it once was.
4. According to Dr Lafford, a chemical analysis can be achieved with electron microscopes
5. Dr Lafford feels that the value of forensic science lies in reducing the number of possible suspects.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. Listen to a lecture about water and answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS taken from the recording for each answer. (10 points)
1. What are characteristics of water which concern people everywhere?
......................................................................
2. What do we utilise the most water for?
......................................................................
3. Where, besides rivers, do we discover the purest water ?
......................................................................
4. What do we need to remove from water before using it?
......................................................................
5. What is one of the most important uses of water in the home?
......................................................................

Part 3. You will hear part of a radio phone-in programme about consumer competitions that appear
in magazines or are run by shops, in which advice is given to people who regularly enter them. For
questions 1-5, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 points)
1. Diana has phoned because she
A. feels that she is the victim of an injustice.
B. is reluctant to consult a lawyer yet.
C. fears she misunderstood an agreement she made.
D. wants to avoid falling out with her best friend.
2. Kathy tells Diana that
A. her problem is a rather unusual one.
B. she should have been more careful when dealing with her friend.
C. it is unfortunate that her friend has the attitude that she has.

1
 D. she would regret taking legal action.
3. What does Kathy tell Ron about using different names when entering competitions?
A. People who do so are regularly caught out.
B. It may affect the quality of a competitor’s entries.
C. There are rarely occasions when it might be justified.
D. It is unusual for competitors to decide to do so.
4. What has led Stan to phone in?
A. an inadequate response to a complaint he has made
B. a feeling of confusion as to the rules of a competition
C. a belief that he has been sent inaccurate information
D. a desire for more openness about the results of competitions
5. What does Kathy tell Stan about the competition he entered?
A. Some of the phrasing of the instructions is ambiguous.
B. The rules allow for results that may appear unfair.
C. A deliberate attempt has been made to mislead competitors.
D. It is the sort of competition that it is best not to enter.

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 4. Listen to a news about dogs trained to detect Covid Infection at Miami Airport. Complete the
following summary with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording for each gap.
Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (20 points)
Cobra is one of the four dogs trained to detect Covid-19 in a pilot program at Miami international
airport. She reacts by sitting after smelling (1)..............................................virus in inside a mask, but keeps
walking when she smells the mask of someone who's not infected. The accuracy rate is quite high, 97
percent, which equate to (2)..............................
These dogs are seen as another (3)................................used to fight this pandemic. Cobra is belgian
melanois. Another dog, the same age as Cobra, is Betta, a dutch (4)......................................, whose accuracy
ratet is (5)...................................percent a little bit lower than belgian melanois Cobra.
Dogs with ability to sniff for hidden drugs, (6)...................................or large amounts of paper currency
are common in a custom setting. Before becoming Covid experts they were agriculture detective dogs their
specialty in customs. They were trained at florida international university. When a person get Covid 19, he
produces volatile organic compounds called VOC which the dog detects. In the research carried out at FIU,
(7)................................ from Covid patients are used to train the dogs to detect Covid 19. Ultraviolet light is
applied to kill the virus and the odor is still there. These dogs are so good at sniffing out Covid 19 infections
sniffing out the volatile organic compounds produced by someone who's infected.
To train these dogs which possess sensitive noses on one (8)............................. of the virus, it is
advisable to train them specifically to only sit down if they sniffed the (9)................................ variant of the
virus or the move variant of the virus or whatever they can be that sensitive we may have an
(10)................................... mess on our hands in every other possible way but as a civilization we have now
successfully retrained the avocado tree laurel wilt agricultural pest dog detectives into dogs who instead can
tell you if you need to get a rapid Covid test before you come into work

Your answers
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

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 SECTION B. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (30 points)
Part 1: Choose the answer A, B, C, or D that best completes each of the following sentences. Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. Blake may seem bossy, but it's Lisa that really ________ in that relationship.
A. fills their boots B. puts a sock C. gets their knickers D. wears the trousers
2. It is no surprise that this story has ________ in our office after Daisy was told about it.
A given a buzz B ridden high C done the rounds D rung the bell
3. The immigrants from this country will not be given the right of ________ in Britain when the new
legislation comes into force.
A abode B abbess C baptism D lodging
4. After winning the lottery, they moved into a more ___________ house in a high-class residential area
and had a more comfortable life.
A. well-attended B. well-built C. well-appointed D. well-disposed
5. The President has gotten used to being _________ by his political opponents whenever a new policy is
proposed.
A blasted off B ripped off C zonked out D sniped at
6. I can’t see why the teacher compliments Harry so much, his performance is basically nothing to _______
home about!
A write B call C go D tell
7. We are required to _________ empirical data and evidence from reliable sources to support our
argument.
A. adduce B. attest C. elicit D. accost
8. Since John is the bee’s _______in terms of English, it is no wonder so many friends ask him for support
in this subject.
A. wings B. knees C. antenna D. spiracle
9. Fingerprints are the most ______ types of evidence used in criminal cases because it’s one of the
most reliable forms of identification.
A. culpable B. incriminating C. liable D.offending
10. There is no need to ___________ over the cracks, I know you are having problems, just tell me and I
will help you.
A. carpet B. paper C. lay D. curtain
11. I was scared ____________ when I looked down from the top of the cliff.
A. tight B. stiff C. hard D. solid
12. Since he is not polite, he often makes ______ remarks.
A. immaterial B. impertinent C. impervious D. implausible
13. In a culture where knockoffs are normal, from sportswear to DVDs, it will not be easy to
_________ deep-rooted academic habits.
A. exude B. exclude C. expunge D. extricate
14. I tried to ______myself from the situation but it was impossible.
A. exude B. exclude C. expunge D. extricate
15. Last week’s violence was _______ condemned by foreign governments.
A. grimly B. roundly C. roughly D. bitingly
16. There are _________ words in English having more than one meaning. Pay close attention to this fact.
A. a large many B. quite many C. quite a lot D. a great many
17. In fact, the criminals _________ in because the front door was wide open, and so they just walked in.
A. needn’t have broken B. shouldn’t have break
C. didn’t need to break D. couldn’t have broken
18. Although usually unflappable even in front of a crowd,_________ during the recital.
A. her anxiety overwhelmed Carla completely B. Carla being overwhelmed by anxiety
C. Carla’s anxiety overwhelmed her D. Carla was overwhelmed by anxiety.
19. On the island _________ the only representative of the Indian's handicraft.
A. does it remain B. did it remain C. remains it D. remains
20. Of the Len beauty spots my brother visited _________ left a lasting impression on him.
A. none of which B. not one of them C. and none of them D. which none

3
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

11. 12. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part 2: Give the correct form of each bracketed words. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes. (10 points)
1. Looking at the number of typos in this article, I am sure you have skipped the………………………stage
again. (READ)
2. A(n) ………………………is the one who turns into wolf during full moon. (WOLF)
3. Andy was ……………………..from the volunteer group due to his poor attitude.
(COMMUNICATE)
4. People in coastal area live mainy on the ……………………….., which allows them to earn a great deal
of money from the sea products (CULTURE)
5. The dog seems rather ……………………….. ; it must not have been fed for days. (SEE)
6. He was …………………… by the darkness and got lost in the forest. (NIGHT)
7. The aridity in that area ………………………… a poor crop. (TOKEN)
8. In the field of ………………………… , standards of practice have been developed for
practitioners in the field. (DIET)
9. The new regulations will be ………………………… for small businesses. (BURDEN)
10. When Emma was widowed in 1879, she decided to leave her home in Koblenz, Germany, to
start ………………………… in Glasgow, and settled in the city by 1881. (NEW)

Your answers
6. 6.
7. 7.
8. 8.
9. 9.
10. 10.

SECTION C. READING (60 points)

Part 1: Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in
each space. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
Jean Piaget, the pioneering Swiss philosopher and psychologist, became famous for his theories on child
development. A child prodigy, he became interested in the scientific study of nature at an early age. He
(1)__________________ a special fascination for biology, having some of his work published before
graduating from high school. When, aged 10, his observations (2)________________ to questions that could
be answered only by access to the university library, Piaget wrote and published some notes on the sighting
of an albino sparrow in the hope that this would persuade the librarian to stop (3)________________ him
like a child. It worked. Piaget was launched on a path that led to his doctorate in zoology and a lifelong
conviction that the way to understand anything is to know how it evolves.
Piaget went on to spend much of his professional life listening to and watching children, and poring over
reports of researchers who were doing the same. He found, to (4)________________ it succinctly, that
children don’t think like adults. After thousands of interactions with young people often barely old enough to
talk, Piaget began to suspect that (5)________________ their cute and seemingly illogical utterances were
thought processes that had their own kind of order and their own special logic. Albert Einstein, the renowned
physicist, deemed (6)________________ a discovery ‘so simple that only a genius could have thought of it’.
Piaget’s insight opened a new window (7)________________ the inner workings of the mind. Several
new fields of science, among them developmental psychology and cognitive theory, came into being as a
result of his research. Although (8)________________ an educational reformer, he championed a way of
thinking about children that provided the foundation for today’s education reform movements. One might

4
say that Piaget was the first to take children’s thinking seriously. Others who shared this respect for children
may have fought harder for immediate change in schools, but Piaget’s influence on education
(9)________________ deeper and more pervasive.
Piaget has been revered by generations of teachers inspired by the belief that children are not empty
vessels to be filled with knowledge, as traditional academic thinking had it, (10)________________ active
builders of knowledge - little scientists who are constantly creating and testing their own theories of the
world. And while he may not be as famous as Sigmund Freud, Piaget’s contribution to psychology may be
longer lasting. As computers and the Internet give children greater autonomy to explore ever larger digital
worlds, the ideas he pioneered become ever more relevant.

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 2. Read the following passage and choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to
the text. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
The Vanishing Tourist
One day, there will be no more tourists. There will be adventurers, fieldwork assistants, volunteers
and, of course, travellers. There might still be those who quietly slip away to foreign lands for nothing
more than pure pleasure, but it will be a secretive and frowned upon pursuit. No one will want to own up
to being on of those. It might even be illegal .
Already tourists are discouraged from entering certain areas, and new names are being added to the
list of territories where we should fear to tread. The charitable organisation Tourism Concern identifies
seven countries as having areas that have been adversely affected by tourism. Tourists only wreak havoc.
Tourists only destroy the natural environment. Tourists only emasculate local cultures. Tourists bring
nothing with them but their money. They must be stopped at any price.
Yet less than 40 years ago, tourism was encouraged as an unquestionable good. With the arrival of the
package holiday and charter flights, tourism could at last be enjoyed by the masses. By the 1980s, tourism
was the largest and fastest-growing industry in the world and, by the end of the decade, 20 million Britons
a year went abroad on holiday.
It won’t be easy to wipe out this massive, ever growing tribe. Today there are more than 700m ‘tourist
arrivals’ each year. The World Tourism Organisation forecasts that, by 2020, there will be 1.56 billion
tourists travelling at any one time. The challenge to forcibly curtail more than a billion tourists from going
where they want to go is so immense as to be impossible. You cannot make so many economically
empowered people stop doing something they want to do unless you argue that it is of such extreme
damage to the welfare of the world that only the truly malicious, utterly selfish and totally irresponsible
would ever consider doing it. This is clearly absurd; whatever benefits or otherwise may accrue from
tourism, it is not, despite what a tiny minority say, evil. It can cause harm. It can be morally neutral. And
it can, occasionally, be a force for great good.
So the tourist is being attacked by more subtle methods: by being re-branded in the hope we won’t
recognise it as the unattractive entity it once was. The word ‘tourist’ is being removed from anything that
was once called a holiday in the pamphlet that was once called a holiday brochure. Of course, adventurers,
fieldwork assistants, volunteers and travellers don’t go on holidays. Un-tourists (as I will call them) go on
things called ‘cultural experiences’, ‘expeditions’, ‘projects’, ‘mini-ventures’ and, most tellingly,
‘missions’. A Coral Cay Conservation Expedition flyer says: ‘The mission of any Coral Cay Conservation
Volunteer is to help sustain livelihoods and alleviate poverty.’
The word mission is apposite. While this re-branding is supposed to present a progressive,
modernistic approach to travel, in fact it is firmly rooted in the Victorian experience. Like Victorian
travellers, the modern day un-tourist insists that the main motive behind their adventure is to help others.
Whereas the mass tourist and the area they visit are condemned as anti-ethical and at loggerheads, the
ethos of the un-tourist and the needs of the area they wander into are presumed to be in tune with each
other. Environmental charity Earthwatch, which organises holidays for ‘volunteers’, assures that they will
provide ‘life-changing’ opportunities for you and the environment ... See the world and give it a future.’

5
 Un-tourists are very concerned about holding the moral high ground. Afraid of being tainted by
association, they avoid identifiably tourist structures, such as hotels. They prefer to stay in a tent, a cabin,
local-style houses such as yurts, thatched huts or, a typical example, ‘a traditional Malay wooden stilt
house’.These, they believe, are somehow more in keeping with something they call local culture. Local
culture is very important to the un-tourist, whereas the mass tourist is believed to both shun and obliterate
it.
Un-tourism relies upon exclusivity; it is all about preventing other people travelling in order that you
might legitimise your own travels. Pretending you are not doing something that you actually are – going
on holiday – is at the heart of the un-tourist endeavour. Every aspect of the experience has to be disguised.
Gone are the glossy brochures. Instead, the expeditions, projects and adventures are advertised in
publications more likely to resemble magazines with a concern in ecological or cultural issues. The price
is usually well hidden, as if there is a reluctance to admit that this is, in essence, a commercial transaction.
There is something unedifying about having to pay to do good.

1. What does the passage suggest about tourists in the future?

A. They will try to minimize risks of being recognized as tourists.
B. They will assume various responsibilities and fulfill them.
C. They will travel stealthily and follow fixed modes of behaviour.
D. They will eschew tourism as a way of entertaining themselves.
2. In the second paragraph, what said about tourism is closest to a method of
A. self-correcting B. fault-finding C. castigating D. acclaiming
3. The second paragraph is most probably to disprove
A. tourists’ disregard for local cultures. B. tourism’s benefits to indigenous people.
C. the value of tourism. D. the toll tourists leave on visited areas.
4. The word “emasculate” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to
A. fortify B. vitiate C. homogenize D. reverberate
5. A reason cited by the author for the hardships in stopping tourism is that
A. tourists are not awakened to the lack of morality in their pursuits.
B. financial freedom gives people the right to do things at their pleasure.
C. advocates of stopping tourism are less affluent than mass tourists.
D. arguments against it are unanswerable.
6. What does the writer suggest about tourism?
A. Up to the moment of writing, tourism had always been promoted.
B. It involves nefarious people travelling to quench their insatiable thirst for knowledge.
C. Its benefits have intrigued adventurers and laypersons alike.
D. Tourists may have recourse to so-called purposes to disguise their true motives.
7. Which phrase in the sixth paragraph best reflects the nature of the relationship between un-tourists and
local areas?
A. at loggerheads
B. presumed to be in tune
C. rooted in the Victorian experience
D. supposed to present a progressive, modernistic approach
8. The writer demonstrates a point that un-tourists:
A. are aesthetically attracted by environmentally-friendly types of accommodation while travelling.
B. attach adequate importance to the development and preservation of local cultures.
C. have an inclination to believe that what they do when travelling has beneficial effects.
D. represent a positive trend which correlates with the new approach to halting tourism.
9. It can be implied that efforts made by un-tourists are fundamentally aimed at
A. masking their primary purposes for travelling.
B. demotivizing other people with regard to travelling.
C. masquerading as well-meaning travellers.
D. promoting local cultures in places they visit.
10. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a method used by un-tourists to achieve their goals?
A. associating travel with purposes different from pure pleasure.
B. publicizing their missions in magazines.
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 C. concealing the prices involved in their travels.
D. shunning places recognizable as accommodation for tourists.

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. Read the passage and do the tasks that follow. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes. (13points)
Giving The Brain A Workout
Mental agility does not have to decline with age, as long as you keep exercising your mind,
says Anna van Praagh.
A. Use your brain and it will grow – it really will. This is the message from neuropsychologist Ian
Robertson, professor of psychology at Trinity College, Dublin and founding director of the
university’s Institute of Neuroscience. His book, Puzzler Brain Trainer 90-Day Workout, contains
puzzles which he devised to stretch, sharpen and stimulate the brain. The puzzles, from 'memory
jogs' to Sudoku to crosswords to number games are all-encompassing, and have been specially
formulated to improve each and every part of the brain, from visual-spatial ability to perception,
attention, memory, numerical ability, problem-solving and language.

B. Professor Robertson has been studying the brain for 57 years, in a career dedicated to changing and
improving the way it works. During this time there has been a remarkable paradigm shift in the way
scientists view the brain, he says. 'When I first started teaching and researching, a very pessimistic
view prevailed that, from the age of three or four, we were continually losing brain cells and that the
stocks couldn't be replenished. That has turned out to be factually wrong. Now that we know that the
brain is "plastic" – it changes, adapts and is physically sharpened according to the experiences it has.'

C. Robertson likens our minds to trees in a park with branches spreading out, connecting and
intertwining, with connections increasing in direct correlation to usage. He says that the “eureka”
moment in his career – and the reason he devised his ‘brain trainer’ puzzles – was the realisation that
the connections multiply with use and so it is possible to boost and improve our mental functions at
any age. 'Now we know that it’s not just children whose brains are "plastic",' he says. 'No matter how
old we are, our brains are physically changed by what we do and what we think.'

D. Robertson illustrates his point by referring to Dr Eleanor McGuire’s seminal 2000 study of the brains
of London taxi drivers. That showed that their grey matter enlarges and adapts to help them build up
a detailed mental map of the city. Brain scans revealed that the drivers had a much larger
hippocampus (the part of the brain associated with navigation in birds and animals) compared with
other people. Crucially, it grew larger the longer they spent doing their job. Similarly, there is strong
statistical evidence that, by stretching the mind with games and puzzles, brainpower is increased.
Conversely, if we do not stimulate our minds and keep the connections robust and intact, these
connections will weaken and physically diminish. A more recent survey suggested that a 20-minute
problem-solving session on the Nintendo DS game called 'Dr Kawashima's Brain Training' at the
beginning of each day dramatically improved pupils’ test results, class attendance and behaviour.
Astonishingly, pupils who used the Nintendo trainer saw their test scores rise by 50 per cent more
than those who did not.

E. Robertson's puzzles have been designed to have the same effect on the brain, the only difference
being that, for his, you need only a pencil to get started. The idea is to shake the brain out of lazy
habits and train it to start functioning at its optimum level. It is Robertson’s belief that people who
tackle the puzzles will see a dramatic improvement in their daily lives as the brain increases its
ability across a broad spectrum. They should see an improvement in everything, from remembering
people’s names at parties to increased attention span, mental agility, creativity and energy.

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 F. 'Many of us are terrified of numbers,' he says, 'or under-confident with words. With practice, and by
gently increasing the difficulty of the exercises, these puzzles will help people improve capacity
across a whole range of mental domains.' The wonderful thing is that the puzzles take just five
minutes, but are the mental equivalent of doing a jog or going to the gym. 'In the same way that
physical exercise is good for you, so is keeping your brain stimulated,' Robertson says. 'Quite simply,
those who keep themselves mentally challenged function significantly better mentally than those who
do not.'

G. The puzzles are aimed at all ages. Robertson says that some old people are so stimulated that they
hardly need to exercise their brains further, while some young people hardly use theirs at all and are
therefore in dire need of a workout. He does concede, however, that whereas most young people are
constantly forced to learn, there is a tendency in later life to retreat into a comfort zone where it is
easier to avoid doing things that are mentally challenging. He compares this with becoming
physically inactive, and warns of comparable repercussions. ‘As the population ages, people are
going to have to stay mentally active longer,’ he counsels. ‘We must learn to exercise our brains just
as much as our bodies. People need to be aware that they have the most complex entity known to
man between their ears,’ he continues, ‘and the key to allow it to grow and be healthy is simply to
keep it stimulated.’

Questions 1 and 2. Choose TWO letters, A-E. Write the correct letters in the boxes below.
Which TWO of the following are claims that Robertson makes about the puzzles in his book?
A. They will improve every mental skill.
B. They are better than other kinds of mental exercise.
C. They will have a major effect on people’s mental abilities.
D. They are more useful than physical exercise.
E. They are certain to be more useful for older people than for the young.
Your answers
1. 2.

Questions 3 – 8. Complete the summary below. Choose NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS from the
passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 3-8 below.
Evidence supporting Robertson’s theory
Research was carried out using (3)_____________________ in London as subjects. It showed that their
brains change, enabling them to create a (4)_____________________ of London. Tests showed that
their (5)_____________________ increased in size as they continued in their job. There is also evidence of
a (6)_____________________ kind. People playing a certain game involving (7)_____________________
for a period of time every day achieved significantly better (8)_____________________
Your answers
3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8.

Questions 9 – 13. The reading passage has seven paragraphs A-G. Which paragraph contains the
following information? Write the correct letter, A-G in boxes 9-13 below.
9. An example of a situation in which people will benefit from doing the puzzles in the book
10. A reason why some people don’t exercise their minds
11. A discovery that had an enormous effect on Robertson

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 12. Examples of things that people commonly feel they are not very good at
13. A reference to a change in beliefs about what happens to the brain over time
Your answers
9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

Part 4. You are going to read an extract from an article. Seven paragraphs have been removed from
the extract. Choose from the paragraphs A - H the one which fits each gap (1-7). There is one extra
paragraph which you do not need to use. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes.
(7 points)
Can a disguise fool sunveillance technology?
Just how good is surveillonce technology today? Francesco Holt reports.

When John McAfee took flight from Belize after his neighbour died from a fatal gunshot wound, he
disguised himself to avoid detection. Border guards failed to recognise who he was and for a while he
evaded capture. But could surveillance technology have picked him out of the people crossing the border
into Guatemala?
(1)______________
As a fugitive, McAfee coloured his hair and beard grey, put shoe polish on his face to darken his skin,
made his cheeks bigger by padding them our with bubble gum and stuffed his right nostril to make it appear,
as he put it, 'awkward, lopsided and with a disgusting appearance.’ It might seem rather theatrical, but it
worked and enabled him to escape.
(2)______________
However, McAfee would probably still have not been caught using today's technology, as facial
recognition technology is still not good enough to do the job. Some people have faces that are too 'normal' or
common and would not need to disguise themselves at all. Jean- Luc Dugelay, a video surveillance expert in
the French research institution, Eurecom, says, 'Certain people have faces that just seem to be hard'for
computers to recognise. It's difficult to know why and the faces that are hard to recognise vary from one
recognition system to another. But if you have something that is close to the average face, then it will be
harder for a computer system to recognise you.'
(3)______________
Face detection often entails distinguishing significant 'intensity signatures of light and dark spots on a
representation that is typical of a human face. When people look to recognise each other, they go by an oval
for a face, two eyes, and a nose between the eyes and the mouth. Computers, though, do not work the same
way, as they are not looking for physical features. Instead they look for a configuration of dark, light and
dark in a horizontal line that matches to a line between the eyes.
(4)______________
This feature vector is basically a guideline for a face that tan be com pa red With oth e r similar feature
vectors. The problem is that some human faces have comparable feature vectors and so 'average' faces are
hard to separate and tell apart. The Eigenfaces system has to use the complete face to recognise someone.
This flaw in the system means it is possible to conceal your true features from a recognition system by just
pulling a face, frowning or smiling. This would not deceive a person, but it would technology.
(5)______________
It will not be possible to identify a fully covered face, but it is feasible to differentiate one face from
another with between a third and half of the face covered. There has even been some success with just using
a mouth for recognition, something that a human would be unable to do.
(6)______________
Surprisingly, research into the effects of rhinoplasty - or nose surgery - on facial recognition systems
revealed that it has no significant effect on detection rates. That is on 2D systems. Experimental 3D facial
recognition systems can be conned by rhinoplasty, as it changes the shape of the nose in three dimensions
rather than two.
(7)______________
In spite of all the advances in technology, however, the vulnerability of current systems is the simple act
of looking down at your feet, rather than at the camera. Humans can identify someone they know from

9
almost any angle, but facial recognition systems cannot unless the face can be clearly seen. Most
surveillance cameras are usually mounted at least at eye level, if not higher, so looking down will beat more
or less any recognition system.

A. Not only would changing your facial expression hoodwink machines, but also draping a scarf over
the mouth and nose, or even wearing dark glasses would work just as well. It will not work for much
longer though, as new techniques are being developed that can take information from the nose or
mouth alone if the eyes are covered,or from the eyes if the mouth and nose are concealed.

B. Then, once a face has been distinguished, there are varying ways in which to recognise it. One way is
to generate what is called a 'feature vector'- a mathematical representation of the face. This is built up
from pieces of hundreds of'standard faces' in numerous proportions. These are known as 'Eigenfaces'
and created by scrutinising thousands of real faces, using a procedure named 'principal component
analysis'.

C. It would also seem to make no difference if a fugitive wore a wig or glasses, as neither of these can
fool a computer. Being discrete and trying to blend in with the crowds will also be futile, as facial
recognition systems can scan hundreds of faces a minute.

D. All it seems to require in films is to wear a pair of glasses, cut and/or dye your hair and attach a fake
moustache. Maybe a hat, too. This low-tech disguise never seems to fail in the movies. John McAfee
adopted some of these techniques and met with success. When he was eventually apprehended it was
not because his disguise had failed to convince but because he had allowed a reporter to print a
photograph of him and the authorities realised where he was.

E. So how would John McAfee's disguise succeed today? Despite darkening his skin, which would
soften the intensity signature of his face, the light hitting contours of the face would still register an
intensity signature that would enable face detection. Likewise, the alteration to the shape of his
cheeks and nose would meet little success.

F. To appreciate the reasons for this, it is worth looking at how the majority of face recognition
technology works. First, it has to realise that it is actually being presented with a face - a process
called face detection - and then work on recognition and matching it with a face that is already in the
system.

G. Equally, dying the beard and hair would be counterproductive these days, as computer systems look
at a face from above the eyebrows down to the chin, so hairstyles and colour are irrelevant. Even if
your beard was a metre long, it would make no difference.

H. However, it might not be so simple in the future. The FBI has unveiled its Biometric Identification
Tools Program, with aspirations for the future to develop mobile facial recognition software, which
would enable them to access records at any time, from anywhere around the globe. In the real world
this means using the technology that is currently available from CCTV cameras in streets, sports
stadiums, motorways, shopping centres, car parks and so on, anywhere on the planet, because it will
be held on one database.

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Part 5. You are going to read an article on travel adventures. For questions 1-10, select the travel
writer (A-E) using the separate answer sheet. Each travel writer may be selected more than once.
(15 points)
Which travel writer:
1. says their luck initially changed for the worse?

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2. had some rather stereotypical opinions?
3. got to experience a different kind of life?
4. learned not to jump to conclusions?
5. has had a lot of travel problems in the past?
6. caused a fuss about something?
7. felt like they were the odd one out?
8. was reliant on another person?
9. was in awe of their surroundings?
10. thought they were ready for anything?

Far-flung Adventures
Isla Perkins speaks to five travel writers to discover their most memorable travel experience

A. Ethan Simmons
I’ve been on a fair few trips, not all of them easy, but when I think back to one trip that really stands
out for me, it has to be my overnight adventure in the depths of the jungle, It was probably a
memorable experience for numerous reasons, hot least because it tested my courage! Fortunately, and
crucially, a guide was at our disposal to deal with any eventualities that might occur or, at least, keep
us alive! I felt completely at his mercy and, undoubtedly, we’d have been toast if it hadn’t been for
him. Of those memorable 36 hours, the highlights included being bitten by fire ants and chased by a
monkey, and to top it off, we slept amongst it all, albeit with one eye open! My overwhelming
recollection, though, is what a feast for my senses the jungle was - at night it is like an orchestra of
the natural world.

B. Ruth Gonzalez
My most memorable experience occurred when I was a fearless teen on a long-distance bus,
travelling solo with a little cash in my bag and my bank card in my sock for safekeeping. However,
during the journey I had the paralysing realisation that my sock felt suspiciously light, and a panicked
fumble through my belongings confirmed what I’d dreaded-my card was nowhere to be seen. The
fear spread through me, and before I knew it I’d burst into tears, making quite a scene that all the
passengers witnessed! It was at this point I became aware of a suspicious-looking womau, stealing
hidden glances at me and whispering to someone on her mobile in a language I didn’t understand.
The horror continued when I alighted, and she grabbed my mist and started dragging me towards a
strange man! However, contrary to my rather dark suspicions, the man told me his mother was
worried about me but spoke no English, and they proceeded to go out of their way to make sure I was
safe and calm, even taking me to the Embassy! Perhaps I should be more trusting in the future.

C. Matt Cooper
I’ve been at the mercy of a whole host of airline hassles when travelling, but none was more
memorable than the flight complications I had over my 21st birthday. I was returning from Australia
to the UK, but blizzards had caused havoc in the UK leading to a standstill for most flights bound
that way. I truly felt I’d won the lottery when they announced that we could take off, but little did I
know we’d be stuck on the tarmac at our refuelling point in Bangkok, the city that indirectly played
host to my birthday. I passed the time with four strangers on the plane, all of whom were travelling
solo like me, and it was one of the most rewarding moments of my life as we came together from
four different comers of the world to communicate in the little shared English that we had, and to
form friendships that are still lasting to this day. And the most priceless part of all? I married one of
them!

D. Taisa Vasilyev
I used to treat people who took two weeks to go and lay on a beach with contempt, considering them
to be unadventurous and uncultured, but my recent trek across the Grand Canyon, world-famous for
its jaw- dropping landscape, has made me think twice. I’d decided to go it alone, and while on a
deserted path, teetering on a rock trying to get some shots of an eagle circling in the sky, I slipped
and ended up with my foot jammed between two rocks. After some wriggling around I realised that it
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 was stuck fast. Of course, as a seasoned adventurer I was prepared for such eventualities and so
grabbed my mobile to call for help, only to see I had no reception. That will teach me for going off
the beaten track! I had no choice but to spend the night out there on the rocks, waiting for help and
imagining the worst, until a couple came past early next morning. In the future, I think I’ll stick to an
all- inclusive hotel!

E. Teresa Small
I was inter-railing around Europe, and it was great, if nothing out of the ordinary, at least until I got
to Greece. From the moment I alighted from the train in Athens I noticed a different air around me. I
wondered if it was paranoia, but I got the sense that people were giving me furtive glances, and I
noticed hushed whispers that I suspected were made in my direction. I couldn’t put my finger on it
exactly, but I had a hunch that something wasn’t right, and that I was at the centre of it, I spent a
good half day feeling like that until I got on a boat to Naxos and someone asked me for an autograph.
They say everyone has a double and it turns out mine is a famous Greek soap opera star! Once I
realised this, I revelled in the attention, causing a stir wherever I went and even signing the odd
autograph, even though I wasn’t the real deal! After all, who doesn’t want to feel special once in a
while?

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION D. WRITING (60 points)

Part 1. Read the following text and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary should be
about 100-120 words long. You MUST NOT copy the original. (15 points)
The child who is too aggressive is usually revealing two difficulties. Firstly, far from being too
confident, he is actually not confident enough of himself. Secondly, he has not learnt, or is afraid to trust, the
acceptable ways of getting what he wants and defending his rights.
Why the child lacks confidence may not be apparent. In a young child, a lack of confidence can be
readily understood. He has not yet had enough experience to know what he can do. An older child may be
bullying and aggressive because he is too strictly held down at home, or equally because he is too laxly
handled and has not been helped to self-control. Too much and too little parental authority often have similar
troubling effects on children of different temperaments.
The same may be said of the second difficulty the child reveals by his aggressive behavior. A young
child does not yet know that here are better ways than fighting. An older child may not have been given
much guidance, or through circumstances he may not have had much experience in getting along with other
children. When parents or other adults have not been on hand to teach and show children by their example,
or have been too protective of their children in the pre-school years, it may take both time and experience for
the children to learn to get along with others, once they are in school and on their own.
The child who is too aggressive needs his confidence build up in good and wholesome ways. His
boldness, his energy, his desire to lead and manage others can be directed into useful channels. At home and
in school, the aggressive child can be given more responsibility and more praise for his real achievements.

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Part 2. Report writing (15points)

The charts below show the percentage of male and female workers in country A and country B.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make comparisons
where relevant. You should write about 150 words.

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Part 3. Write an essay (30points)

Globalisation has been taking place for hundreds of years, but has sped up enormously over the last
half-century. Opponents of globalisation, however, hold that it leads to countries becoming culturally
assimilated.
Present your argumentation to highlight your opinion on this matter. Give reasons and specific examples to
support your opinion(s).
Write an essay (about 350 words) to express your opinion.

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- The end -

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15
 SỞ GIÁO DỤC & DÀO TẠO TỈNH BÌNH KỲ KIỂM TRA CHẤT LƯỢNG CÁC ĐỘI
DƯƠNG TUYỂN HSG
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HÙNG NĂM HỌC 2021-2022
VƯƠNG MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – KHỐI 11
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT (không kể thời gian giao đề)
(Đề thi gồm 15 trang)

_________________________________________

HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU

• Bài nghe gồm 4 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 30 giây, mở đầu và kết
thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
• Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước tín
hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

I. LISTENING (5 points)
Part 1: Listen and decide whether the following sentences are true (T) or false (F)
1. The speaker compares a computer virus to a biological organism.
2. Core Wars was designed as a model virus.
3. The speaker says that computer viruses are picked up because they can be sold with commercial
software.
4. The worst aspect of a Trojan horse virus is its capacity to perform operations in your name.
5. The speaker feels that computer viruses can be avoided.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2: Listen and write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER taken
from the recording.
1. What should Sandra do to attract readers to the main points besides numbering them?
__________________________________________________________
2. What two areas should Sandra do research on?
__________________________________________________________
3. How many hectares does the tribal park cover?
__________________________________________________________
4. What should they share for transport?
__________________________________________________________
5. What could they explore in Navajo Tribal Park?
__________________________________________________________

Part 3: Listen and choose the correct answer (A, B, or C).

1. When are the girl and teacher talking?
A. at the end of class
B. during the lesson
C. before class
2. What is the main problem the girl is having with her assignment?
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 A. the subject matter is too broad
B. she doesn't know how to do the type of project
C. she doesn’t understand the question
3. What does the teacher suggest about jobs in tourism?
A. They provide stable employment for the population.
B. They offer a solution for unemployment issues.
C. They aren’t always remunerated well.
4. What issue does the girl need to pay particular attention to?
A. The changes native people have made to tourism.
B. How tourism affects native people.
C. The way tourists mix with native cultures.
5. What does the teacher say about using graphs?
A. They can make a presentation look untidy.
B. They make a presentation more attractive.
C. They make facts and figures easier to understand.

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 4: Listen and complete the summary by writing NO MORE THAN THREE words
and/or a number in each gap.
- Dr Larry Smarr is quickly being recognized as the father of personalized medicine, a title that
reflects his (1) __________ and innovative way of thinking, as evidenced by how he directed his
own surgery after examining his anatomy in (2) __________.
- Dr. Larry, who likened his approach to bringing video games into (3) __________, realized the
potential of combining breakthroughs in (4) __________ and computer graphics to produce
transparent versions of people.
- Dr. Larry found out that he had a type of (5) __________ with health data from “Transparent
Larry” - his own (6) __________ created using (7) __________ along with three-dimensional
visualizations gathered over nearly 10 years.
- With (8) __________, both Larry and the team operating on him gained more confidence.
- Dr. Larry is optimistic about a future in which (9) __________ will replace the current (10)
__________ and turn it into a true “healthcare” one.

II. LEXICO - GRAMMAR (3 points)

Part 1. Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences. (Source: CPE Use
of English 1 by Virginia Evans)
1. “Is Nigel still here?”
“Yes, but hurry, he is just ______.”
A. about to leave B. about leaving C. to be leaving D. to leave
2. Speaking about his long battle with illness struck a ______ with the audience.
A. wire B. rope C. string D. chord
3. I prefer to practice the violin alone in my bedroom as having other members of the family listen
really ______ my style.
A. restricts B. impedes C. obstructs D. cramps

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4. “Are you coming to the wedding?”
“Yes, but I would prefer not ______ to the reception afterwards.”
A. going B. to go C. having gone D. to have gone
5. Breaking his leg dealt a ______ to his chances of becoming a professional footballer.
A. thump B. strike C. hit D. blow
6. The Oscar winning actress simply ______ charm and professionalism in her acceptance speech.
A. exuded B. excluded C. expunged D. extricated
7. Harry blew a ______ when his holiday was cancelled.
A. switch B. plug C. fuse D. socket
8. I was thrilled to meet Paul Mc Cartney in the ______ when I sat next to him at the theatre.
A. meat B. blood C. flesh D. vein
9. Many forest – ______ animals were killed in the fire.
A. dwelling B. residing C. inhabiting D. settling
10. “How did Gina react when she arrived at her surprise birthday party?”
“She exclaimed ______ a wonderful surprise.”
A. to be B. that it was C. being D. to being
11. Attendance has ______ severely during the Christmas period.
A. fallen back B. fallen off C. fallen in D. fallen through
12. She is in two minds ______ marrying him.
A. on B. of C. about D. for
13. The teacher was adamant and stuck to his ______ about the date of the final exam.
A. weapons B. guns C. thumbs D. necks
14. ______ other runner is as fast as him.
A. No B. Any C. Not D. Some
15. What are you getting ______? I can’t understand what you are trying to say.
A. off B. on C. at D. through
16. Maggie is so moody and unpredictable. She’s apt to fly off the ______ without any real cause.
A. handle B. strap C. catch D. belt
17. Once at the skating rink, Ivan was allowed to skate to his heart’s ______.
A. happiness B. content C. contentment D. delight
18. The heavy rain lashed down ______ throughout the night without letting up.
A. continually B. perpetually C. eternally D. continuously
19. Lots of fans were waiting at the airport, ______ to see Ricky Martin arrive.
A. to hope B. hoped C. for hoping D. hoping
20. The exercise routine works in ______ with the diet.
A. tandem B. league C. hand D. cooperation
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part 2. Write the correct form of word in each blank. (Source: Upstream Proficiency by
Virginia Evans & Jenny Dooley)
1. The _______________ have a speech which made the delegates trust him again. (GOVERN)
2. _______________ in the office will be punished with a fine. (CIVIL)
3. There is still a lot of _______________ in the team despite my assurances. (SCEPTIC)
4. Ashamed to admit it, illiterate adults often become accustomed to concealing their ignorance,
and _______________ many do so with remarkably success. (SEEM)
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5. The worst thing about air travel is that even if you are bent and determined on contentedly
snoozing the flight away, there are always a million and one _______________ which will not
allow you to do so. (DETER)
6. Any censorship that takes place is on purely ethical grounds and we have not allowed ourselves
to be intimidated by _______________ pressure groups. (EXTREME)
7. We are entering a new age of medicine, where the doctor and patient come together in a
therapeutic _______________. (ALLY)
8. Left-handers now dominate the game to an extent that _______________ their numbers.
(WEIGH)
9. Workers, ignoring the terms of their terms of their contracts, struck to protest speed-ups on the
_______________ line, the firing of a fellow worker, and slow resolution of grievances and
contract negotiations. (ASSEMBLE)
10. By combining environmentalism with dedication to his company’s success, Anderson has
_______________ proven that being green can also bring in the green for big business. (RELENT)

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

III. READING (6 points)

Part 1. Fill in each blank with ONE word
GARDEN WILDLIFE
The age of a garden (0) has a great effect on the abundance of its wildlife. Since most animals
depend ultimately on plants for their food, animal life cannot easily establish (1) ______ in the
absence of plant life. A plot of land behind a newly-built house, even though covered with a layer
of good soil, will support very few resident species other (2) ______ microscopic organisms. (3)
______ from the odd worm or spider, not many creatures will be able to make a living in the
garden (4) ______ this stage.
Colonisation takes place gradually. Humans may introduce plants, and weed seeds will arrive on
the breeze or be dropped by passing birds. Insects and other animals visit the garden and, given
suitable conditions, they take (5) ______ residence there. (6) ______ all this activity, however, it
takes years for a garden to become fully populated, and it cannot really be regarded as mature until
it is (7) ______ of supporting fully-grown shrubs and trees. On (8) ______ basis, a large number of
British gardens are immature, (9) ______ as much as they do not support (10) ______ a variety of
wildlife as an older garden.
(Extracted from USE OF ENGLISH -TEST 2; CPE 1)

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 2: Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each question.
The Creators of Grammar
No student of a foreign language needs to be told that grammar is complex. By changing word
sequences and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we are able to communicate tiny
variations in meaning. We can turn a statement into a question, state whether an action has taken
place or is soon to take place, and perform many other word tricks to convey subtle differences in
meaning. Nor is this complexity inherent to the English language. All languages, even those of so-
called 'primitive' tribes have clever grammatical components. The Cherokee pronoun system, for
4
example, can distinguish between 'you and I', 'several other people and I' and 'you, another person
and I'. In English, all these meanings are summed up in the one, crude pronoun 'we'. Grammar is
universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is. So the question which
has baffled many linguists is - who created grammar?

At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer. To find out how grammar is
created, someone needs to be present at the time of a language's creation, documenting its
emergence. Many historical linguists are able to trace modern complex languages back to earlier
languages, but in order to answer the question of how complex languages are actually formed, the
researcher needs to observe how languages are started from scratch. Amazingly, however, this is
possible.

Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade. At that time, slaves
from a number of different ethnicities were forced to work together under colonizer's rule. Since
they had no opportunity to learn each other's languages, they developed a make-shift language
called a pidgin. Pidgins are strings of words copied from the language of the landowner. They have
little in the way of grammar, and in many cases it is difficult for a listener to deduce when an event
happened, and who did what to whom. [A] Speakers need to use circumlocution in order to make
their meaning understood. [B] Interestingly, however, all it takes for a pidgin to become a complex
language is for a group of children to be exposed to it at the time when they learn their mother
tongue. [C] Slave children did not simply copy the strings of words uttered by their elders, they
adapted their words to create a new, expressive language. [D] Complex grammar systems which
emerge from pidgins are termed creoles, and they are invented by children.

Further evidence of this can be seen in studying sign languages for the deaf. Sign languages are not
simply a series of gestures; they utilise the same grammatical machinery that is found in spoken
languages. Moreover, there are many different languages used worldwide. The creation of one such
language was documented quite recently in Nicaragua. Previously, all deaf people were isolated
from each other, but in 1979 a new government introduced schools for the deaf. Although children
were taught speech and lip reading in the classroom, in the playgrounds they began to invent their
own sign system, using the gestures that they used at home. It was basically a pidgin. Each child
used the signs differently, and there was no consistent grammar. However, children who joined the
school later, when this inventive sign system was already around, developed a quite different sign
language. Although it was based on the signs of the older children, the younger children's language
was more fluid and compact, and it utilised a large range of grammatical devices to clarify
meaning. What is more, all the children used the signs in the same way. A new creole was born.

Some linguists believe that many of the world's most established languages were creoles at first.
The English past tense –ed ending may have evolved from the verb 'do'. 'It ended' may once have
been 'It end-did'. Therefore it would appear that even the most widespread languages were partly
created by children. Children appear to have innate grammatical machinery in their brains, which
springs to life when they are first trying to make sense of the world around them. Their minds can
serve to create logical, complex structures, even when there is no grammar present for them to
copy.
(extracted from https://www.examenglish.com/TOEFL/TOEFL_reading1.htm)

1. In paragraph 1, why does the writer include information about the Cherokee language?
A. To show how simple, traditional cultures can have complicated grammar structures
B. To show how English grammar differs from Cherokee grammar
C. To prove that complex grammar structures were invented by the Cherokees.
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 D. To demonstrate how difficult it is to learn the Cherokee language
2. What can be inferred about the slaves' pidgin language?
A. It contained complex grammar.
B. It was based on many different languages.
C. It was difficult to understand, even among slaves.
D. It was created by the land-owners.
3. All the following sentences about Nicaraguan sign language are true EXCEPT
A. The language has been created since 1979.
B. The language is based on speech and lip reading.
C. The language incorporates signs which children used at home.
D. The language was perfected by younger children.
4. In paragraph 3, where can the following sentence be placed?
It included standardised word orders and grammatical markers that existed in neither the pidgin
language, nor the language of the colonizers.
[A] [B] [C] [D]
5. 'From scratch' in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to:
A. from the very beginning B. in simple cultures
C. by copying something else D. by using written information
6. 'Make-shift' in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to:
A complicated and expressive B simple and temporary
C extensive and diverse D private and personal
7. Which sentence is closest in meaning to the highlighted sentence?
Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how widespread it is.
A. All languages, whether they are spoken by a few people or a lot of people, contain grammar.
B. Some languages include a lot of grammar, whereas other languages contain a little.
C. Languages which contain a lot of grammar are more common that languages that contain a
little.
D. The grammar of all languages is the same, no matter where the languages evolved.
8. All of the following are features of the new Nicaraguan sign language EXCEPT:
A. All children used the same gestures to show meaning.
B. The meaning was clearer than the previous sign language.
C. The hand movements were smoother and smaller.
D. New gestures were created for everyday objects and activities.
9. Which idea is presented in the final paragraph?
A. English was probably once a creole.
B. The English past tense system is inaccurate.
C. Linguists have proven that English was created by children.
D. Children say English past tenses differently from adults.
10. Look at the word 'consistent' in paragraph 4. This word could best be replaced by which of the
following?
A. natural B. predictable C. imaginable D. uniform
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3: For questions 1-13, read the following passage and do the tasks that follow.
Questions 1-7: Reading Passage has seven sections, A-G.
Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below. Write the correct
6
number, i-x, in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.
List of Headings
i Getting the finance for production
ii An unexpected benefit
iii From initial inspiration to new product
iv The range of potential customers for the device
v What makes the device different from alternatives
vi Cleaning water from a range of sources
vii Overcoming production difficulties
viii Profit not the primary goal
ix A warm welcome for the device
x The number of people affected by water shortages
1. Section A
2. Section B
3. Section C
4. Section D
5. Section E
6. Section F
7. Section G
The Desolenator: producing clean water
A. Travelling around Thailand in the 1990s, William Janssen was impressed with the basic rooftop
solar heating systems that were on many homes, where energy from the sun was absorbed by a
plate and then used to heat water for domestic use. Two decades later Janssen developed that basic
idea he saw in Southeast Asia into a portable device that uses the power from the sun to purify
water.
B. The Desolenator operates as a mobile desalination unit that can take water from different
places, such as the sea, rivers, boreholes and rain, and purify it for human consumption. It is
particularly valuable in regions where natural groundwater reserves have been polluted, or where
seawater is the only water source available.
Janssen saw that there was a need for a sustainable way to clean water in both the developing and
the developed countries when he moved to the United Arab Emirates and saw large-scale water
processing. ‘1 was confronted with the enormous carbon footprint that the Gulf nations have
because of all of the desalination that they do,’ he says.
C. The Desolenator can produce 15 litres of drinking water per day, enough to sustain a family for
cooking and drinking. Its main selling point is that unlike standard desalination techniques, it
doesn’t require a generated power supply: just sunlight. It measures 120 cm by 90 cm, and is easy
to transport, thanks to its two wheels. Water enters through a pipe, and flows as a thin film between
a sheet of double glazing and the surface of a solar panel, where it is heated by the sun. The warm
water flows into a small boiler (heated by a solar-powered battery) where it is converted to steam.
When the steam cools, it becomes distilled water. The device has a very simple filter to trap
particles, and this can easily be shaken to remove them. There are two tubes for liquid coming out:
one for the waste - salt from seawater, fluoride, etc. - and another for the distilled water. The
performance of the unit is shown on an LCD screen and transmitted to the company which provides
servicing when necessary.
D. A recent analysis found that at least two-thirds of the world’s population lives with severe
water scarcity for at least a month every year. Janssen says that by 2030 half of the world’s
population will be living with water stress - where the demand exceeds the supply over a certain
period of time. Tt is really important that a sustainable solution is brought to the market that is able
to help these people,’ he says. Many countries ‘don’t have the money for desalination plants, which
7
are very expensive to build. They don’t have the money to operate them, they are very maintenance
intensive, and they don’t have the money to buy the diesel to run the desalination plants, so it is a
really bad situation.’
E. The device is aimed at a wide variety of users - from homeowners in the developing world who
do not have a constant supply of water to people living off the grid in rural parts of the US. The
first commercial versions of the Desolenator are expected to be in operation in India early next
year, after field tests are carried out. The market for the self-sufficient devices in developing
countries is twofold - those who cannot afford the money for the device outright and pay through
microfinance, and middleincome homes that can lease their own equipment. ‘People in India don’t
pay for a fridge outright; they pay for it over six months. They would put the Desolenator on their
roof and hook it up to their municipal supply and they would get very reliable drinking water on a
daily basis,’ Janssen says. In the developed world, it is aimed at niche markets where tap water is
unavailable - for camping, on boats, or for the military, for instance.
F. Prices will vary according to where it is bought. In the developing world, the price will depend
on what deal aid organisations can negotiate. In developed countries, it is likely to come in at
$1,000 (£685) a unit, said Janssen. ‘We are a venture with a social mission. We are aware that the
product we have envisioned is mainly finding application in the developing world and
humanitarian sector and that this is the way we will proceed. We do realise, though, that to be a
viable company there is a bottom line to keep in mind,’ he says.
G. The company itself is based at Imperial College London, although Janssen, its chief executive,
still lives in the UAE. It has raised £340,000 in funding so far. Within two years, he says, the
company aims to be selling 1,000 units a month, mainly in the humanitarian field. They are
expected to be sold in areas such as Australia, northern Chile, Peru, Texas and California.
Questions 8-13: Complete the summary below.
Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet.

How the Desolenator works

The energy required to operate the Desolenator comes from sunlight. The device can be used in
different locations, as it has (8)…………. Water is fed into a pipe, and a (9)…………of water
flows over a solar panel. The water then enters a boiler, where it turns into steam. Any particles in
the water are caught in a (10)…….. . The purified water comes out through one tube, and all types
of (11)……….come out through another. A screen displays the (12)……….of the device, and
transmits the information to the company so that they know when the Desolenator requires
(13)……….. .
(Extracted from TEST 3; IELTS 15)

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13.

Part 4: Read the text and the missing paragraphs (A-H). Choose from paragraphs A-H the
one which fits each gap (1-7). There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to use.

8
In those days the council houses stretched all over the western side of the city: row after row of
huddled, dingy dwellings in orange half-brick or pale white stucco. In summer the chemicals from
the May and Baker factory two miles away came and hung round the doors and gardens with an
indescribable smell of sulphur, and the most common sight in that part of Norwich early in the
morning was a paperboy wrinkling his nose in disgust as he negotiated somebody’s front path.
1. _____________
That my mother should intrude into these early memories is no surprise. I remember her as a small,
precise and nearly always angry woman, the source of whose anger I never quite understood, and
consequently couldn’t do anything to appease. Even as a child, though, accompanying her to the
small shops in Bunnett Square or on longer excursions into the city, I’m sure that I had some notion
of the oddity of her personality.
2. _____________
As a moral code this was completely beyond my comprehension: even now I’m not sure that I
understand it. To particularise, it meant not straying into neighbours' gardens or jeopardising their
rose bushes as you walked down the street; it meant sitting for long half-hours in a silent dining
room, with your hands folded across your chest, listening to radio programmes that my mother
liked; it meant - oh, a hundred proscriptions and prohibitions.
2. _____________
It was only later that I comprehended what poor company this trio was; they formed a depressed
and depressing sisterhood, a little dribble of inconsequent talk about bad legs, the cold weather and
the perils of ingrate children, a category in which I nearly always felt myself included.
3. _____________
This was easier said than done. Growing up in West Earlham at this time followed a well-regulated
pattern. Until you were five you simply sat at home and got under your parents’ feet (I can
remember awful aimless days, when I must have been about four, playing on a rug in the front
room while my mother sat frostily in an armchair). Then, the September after your fifth birthday,
you were packed off to Avenue Road infants’ school half a mile away in the direction of the city.
4. _____________
If I remember anything about these early years it’s the summer holidays; those days when you
caught occasional glimpses of the world that existed outside West Earlham: a vague old man who
lived next door to Mrs Buddery and told stories about his time in the Merchant Navy; a charity fete,
once, held at a house far away in Christchurch Road, where a motherly woman doled out lemonade
and tried to get me interested in something called the League of Pity - a kind of junior charity, I
think - only for my mother, to whom subsequent application was made, to dismiss the scheme on
the grounds that its organisers were ‘only after your money’.
5. _____________
No doubt I exaggerate. No doubt I ignore her virtues and magnify her frailties. But there was
precious little milk of human kindness in my mother; it had all been sucked out of her, sucked out
and thrown away.
6. _____________
My mother wasn’t, it must be known, altogether averse to this recreation, and eventually almost got
to have opinions on the various subjects presented for her edification. I can remember her stopping
once in front of a fine study of a Roman soldier in full battle gear to remark, ‘Well, I wouldn’t like
to meet him on a dark night!’ I recall this as a solitary instance of my mother attempting to make a
joke.
(Extracted from READING -TEST 1; CPE 1)

9
A. To do my mother justice she wasn’t unconscious of her role as the guardian of my education. On
Sundays occasionally, she would take me - in my ‘good clothes’ - on the 85 bus to the Norwich
Castle Museum. Here, hand-in-hand, suspicious, but mindful of the free admission, we would
parade through roomfuls of paintings by the Norwich School of Artists.
B. The lucky few had a mother with a rickety bike and a child seat - these were extraordinary
contraptions in cast-iron with improvised safetystraps. As far as I recall, my mother consigned me
to the care of other children in the street for this journey.
C. Of explanation - who we were, where we came from, what we were supposed to be doing - there
was none. And yet it seemed to me that my early life, lived out in the confines of the West Earlham
estate, in a dark little house in a fatally misnamed terrace called Bright Road, was crammed with
mysteries that demanded explanation. There was, to take the most obvious, the question of my
father.
D. She was, for instance, quite the most solitary person I have ever known, as alone in a room full
of people as on a moor. To this solitariness was added a fanatic adhesion to a kind of propriety
uncommon on the West Earlham estate, which occasionally broke out in furious spring-cleanings
or handwashings and instructions to ‘behave proper’.
E. Mercenary motives were a familiar theme of my mother’s conversation, and politicians my
mother held in the deepest contempt of all. If she thought of the House of Commons - and I am not
sure if her mind was capable of such an unprecedented leap of the imagination - it was as a kind of
opulent post office where plutocrats ripped open letters stuffed with five pound notes sent in by a
credulous public.
F. Most of this early life I’ve forgotten. But there is a memory of sitting, or perhaps balancing, at
any rate precariously, on some vantage point near an upstairs window, and looking at the houses as
they faded away into the distance. Later on there are other phantoms - faces that I can’t put names
to, my mother, ironing towels in the back room of a house that I don’t think was ours, snow falling
over the turrets of the great mansion at Earlham.
G. In time other figures emerged onto these stern early scenes. For all her solitariness, my mother
wasn't without her cronies. There was Mrs Buddery, who was fixated on the Royal Family; Mrs
Winall, who said exactly nothing, except for grunts supporting the main speaker; and Mrs Laband -
livelier than the others, and of whom they vaguely disapproved.
H. Looking back, it was as if a giant paperweight, composed of the West Earlham houses, my
mother and her cronies, the obligation to ‘behave proper’, lay across my shoulders, and that it was
my duty immediately to grow up and start the work of prising it free.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7.

Part 5: The passage below consists of five sections marked A-E. Read the passage and do the
task that follows. Write your answers (A-E) in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.

A. The career of citizen Tristan Smith, set in the fictional republic of Efica, is an extraordinary
parable of human power, history and humour. In a feat of considerable literary skill, the author has
created a world with its own history, traditions and customs.

The book is notable also for its humour, and for the author’s unique vision, which is here combined
with his penetrating psychological insight in a novel which is difficult but rewarding.

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B. Harriet is poised and middle-class, with an architect husband and her own business. Ordinarily,
she would never have met Sheila, a traditional working-class woman who looks after her ageing
father and has brought up her grandson, Leo, since he was three.
Their lives are shattered when the teenage Leo viciously attacks Harriet’s son, Joe, in the street.
After the court case both boys refuse to talk about what happened. Leo, who had been a model
pupil and had never been involved in a fight before, will not explain what came over him, while Joe
recovers physically but becomes withdrawn. Harriet is tortured by the effect on her son and
ministering to him takes over her life. Sheila is so wracked with guilt that she requests a meeting -
from which their unusual friendship grows.
The great strength of the author has always been in depicting how people react to upheaval in their
lives. He also captures the mother’s sense that, no matter how hard she tries, she can never do
enough.

C. Shortlisted for the Booker prize, this book follows the fortunes of one of the most isolated of the
Scottish Orkney islands and its inhabitants over a long and uneventful rural history.
The book sets this narrative against pertinent moments in Scottish history, as vividly imagined in
the daydreams of the young protagonist, Throfinn Ragnarson, who disappears abruptly at one point
in the book, only to return after the Second World War, having now learnt to appreciate the
simplicity of his worthy ancestors’ lives.

D. Following his recent blockbuster success, the author has produced a sequel resonant with the
same gentle irony and acid observations of family life which made its predecessor so appealing.
Fifteen years after her daughter’s death, Aurora Greenway approaches her seventies with her
spirited companion, Rosie Sunlap. Aurora’s approach to life remains the same winning
combination of vanity, charm and reluctant kindness, and Rosie provides an ally in her continuing
and highly enjoyable manipulation of both suitors and friends. By the end of the book, Aurora is
forced to acknowledge the passage of time that brings a new generation to centre stage.
The author is skillful at exposing the haunting sadness that hovers beneath the seeming ordinariness
of life. He is attuned more to the shadows than the bright lights of human activity and identifies the
randomness of events.

E. Six disparate people are brought together by millionaire Logan Urquhart to sail around the
islands of the South Pacific in his yacht, the Ardent Spirit. With her awe-inspiring mastery of
descriptive language, the author charts the personal voyages of self-discovery with which each of
these mariners prepares to return home, their own spirits quickened and made ardent by the
experience of life adrift on ‘the desert cities of waves’.
The author uses startling images to convey her themes of memory and awareness. Those images are
both alienating and illuminating.
(Extracted from TEST 1; CAE 5)
Which section mentions the following?

1. describes the results of one person’s uncharacteristic behaviour

2. has a main character who is reluctant to accept a diminishing role
3. reveals the unhappiness hidden in people’s lives
4. looks at the relationships between two people from different backgrounds
5. explores the unchanging nature of life in the country
6. deals with the characters’ attempts to reach a deeper understanding of themselves
7. conveys a character’s feelings of inadequacy
8. features a main character whose views on traditional ways of life undergo a change
9. deals with the activities of someone living in an invented world
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10. focuses on how people cope with disruption in their lives
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

IV. WRITING (6 points)

Part 1: Read the following extract and use your own words to summarise it. Your summary
should be 120 words long.
It is believed that traditional approaches to writing assessment are not complete due to some
reasons. First, they are not wise enough to assess learners’ writing ability based on only one draft
which is written under timed conditions and about an unfamiliar topic. Second, it is assumed that a
single piece of writing cannot be a good indicator of the learners’ overall writing ability. On the
other hand, the teachers are not in a position to make appropriate judgments about their students’
writing assignment. Thus, writing should be taught as a process rather than a product.
According to Pourverdi Yangili, Jafarpour, and Mohammadi (2016), in traditional methods
of assessing writing the teachers act like a reader and an editor, first they read the paper and then
edit it for grammatical and mechanical mistakes while it contrasts with Brown (2004) who believed
in incorporating both formal and informal assessment techniques for monitoring learners’ progress
in writing.
Because of the indispensable and undeniable role that writing as a language skill plays in
foreign/second language learning and teaching, the way it is taught or assessed is of utmost
importance. According to Muslimi (20l5), portfolios have gained popularity among the educators
and language teachers as an alternative approach both in EFL and in ESL contexts as an
instructional tool for preparation of students for examinations due to the paradigm shift in writing
theory from a focus on writing products to that of writing processes. Moreover, along with the
emergence of technology it is necessary to integrate both computers and Internet in the process of
language learning and teaching.
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Part 2. The bar chart shows the relative electricity consumption and cost per year of various
household devices. Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features
and make comparisons where relevant.

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Part 3: Write an essay of about 300 words to express your opinion on the following issue.
Since the outbreak of COVID-19, high school students in Vietnam have been reporting that their
academic workloads have increased dramatically. What in your opinion are the primary causes
of this? What are the main effects?
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- THE END –

TỔ NN THPT CHUYÊN HÙNG VƯƠNG

Sdt TT: 0919180089

15
 SỞ GD&ĐT HƯNG YÊN KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN HƯNG YÊN KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI & ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
LẦN THỨ XIII
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - LỚP 11
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

PART 1: LISTENING (50 points)

Part 1. For question 1-5, you will hear a piece of news on gun violence in the USA. Listen
to the recording and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). Write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 points)
1. Some people were shot at a church in Wisconsin during a funeral service.
2. Georgia republicans urge for tightening gun restrictions in the state law.
3. President Joe Biden’s proposals call for a ban on assault rifles and large-capacity
magazines.
4. Representative John Monroe maintains that the law should focus on the people, not the
gun.
5. The president needs a total of 10 votes from the senates for the proposals to be passed.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. For questions 6-10, listen to a recording about the TIME’s Person of the Year and
answer the questions. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording
for each answer. Write your answer in the given spaces. (10 points)

6. What is TIME’s Person of the Year besides an award and a reflection of impact?
_________________________________________________________________
7. Beside athletes and entertainers, who are the prime subjects of the TIME’s Person of the
Year?
_________________________________________________________________
8. What words are used by the speaker to describe the current situation of the society?
_________________________________________________________________
9. According to the speaker, what did we get the first glimpse of in the year 2021?
_________________________________________________________________
10. According to the speaker, our fight against what will continue to make progress?
_________________________________________________________________

Part 3. For questions 11–15, you will hear two sports commentators called Heidi Stokes and
Rob Aslett taking part in a discussion on the subject of gyms. Choose the answer (A, B, C or
D) which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided. (10 points)
11. What do Rob and Heidi think about government proposals regarding the problem of
obesity?
A. They over-emphasize the role of dietary factors.
B. They represent a radical solution that must be worth trying.
C. They over-estimate the extent to which the fitness industry can help.
D. They are attempting to accommodate too many varied perspectives.
12. Heidi agrees with the suggestion that regular gym attendance
A. can discourage people from keeping fit in other ways.
B. may lead to obsessive behavior in some cases.
C. generally forms the basis of a healthy lifestyle.
D. could be harder to keep up in rural areas.
13. When asked about motivation, Rob suggests that many gym clients lose interest
A. if they don’t get good value for money.
B. if they don’t find it enjoyable on a social level.
C. if they don’t make it part of a wider fitness regime.
D. if they don’t perceive real gains in personal fitness.
14. What does Heidi suggest about membership levels in gyms?
A. The best ones restrict access at peak times.
B. Most recruit more people than they can cope with.
C. It is impossible to predict demand with any accuracy.
 D. Over-recruitment can be counter-productive in the long run.
15. Rob thinks the key to successful gym marketing lies in
A. remaining true to the core values of fitness and strength.
B. appealing to a wide cross-section of the population.
C. joining forces with providers of related activities.
D. specializing in the needs of certain key groups.
Your answers:
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For question 16-25, listen to a talk about some innovations in education during
Covid-19 pandemic and complete the following sentences. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR
WORDS taken from the recording for each blank. (20 points)
16. Priya saw a problem in education, firstly, school are still delivering a very
__________________________, which make it hard to cater for every single student.
17. Secondly, teachers spent more than a huge amount of time _______________,
_______________, doing the admin rather than really teaching.
18. Against the worry about increased use of technology in class, the teacher said what
they implement it into their learning in __________________________.
19. While Julia moved to full-time remote-learning during the pandemic, Colin was a
__________________________, switching to e-education in 2019.
20. Colin said he enjoyed the environment of __________________________ because he
had more contacts with teachers.
21. It can also involve parents in the process and, in case of Dad Mike, it allows him to
__________________________ his kids’ progress.
22. On the flip side, due to the discrepancy facilities needed to study online, remote-
learning risks __________________________.
23. In order for edtech to be successful there needs to be investment in the schools that
__________________________.
 24. Priya Lakhani said in order to attract investment, we need to create a model that
investors __________________________.
25. As more technology is applied in aiding education, teachers are embracing the benefits
of having a __________________________.
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 POINTS)
Part 1. For questions 1-20, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D to each of the following
questions and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (20 points)
1. It was only when I saw Manhattan………………into the distance beneath and behind me
that I finally began to relax.
A. abating B. withdrawing C. receding D. reversing
2. They spent their time fishing or……………… through the woods.
A. ambling B. striding C. roaming D. treading
3. Good instructors will……………… early signs of failure in their students.
A. get through with B. come up with C. think back on D. look out for
4. Many collectors are willing to pay ………………the odds for early examples of his work.
A. over B. above C. up D. beyond
5. Security at the event has been tightened since last year; ………….., about 1000 managed
to get in without tickets.
A. Nonetheless B. Notwithstanding
C. At any rate D. Any way you slice it
6. ……………… Jim’s support, I wouldn’t have got the job.
A. As for B. But for C. Except for D. Just for
7. Choose whatever you like from the menu. It’s your birthday so money is no ______.
A. brain B. barrier C. factor D. object
8. ________, helped shape the history of American industry.
A. Joseph Wharton, along with his many successful business ventures, has
B. Joseph Wharton, including his many successful business ventures, have
C. Joseph Wharton, along with his many successful business ventures, have
D. Joseph Wharton and his many successful business ventures has
9. He has been dating her for 3 years now, so he plans on buying a diamond ring and ______
the question over Christmas break.
A. begs B. fires C. shoots D. pops
10. After several injuries and failures, things have eventually ________ for Todd when he
reached the final round of the tournament.
A. taken up B. turned on C. gone on D. looked up
11. Ironically, many courses offered in schools these days do not ______ changes in the job
market.
A. catch B. make C. reflect D. show
12. The ocean can be easily distinguished from a lake by two things: the presence of kelp and
_____.
A. its distinctive smell B. their smell
C. smelling distinct D. a distinctive smell
13. The defendants are accused of attempting to ________ the course of justice.
A. convert B. divert C. pervert D. invert
14. Despite the group’s many musical successes, _________ to afford new instruments and gas
money for the van.
A. they are struggling B. they struggle C. it is struggling D. it is struggled
15. I forgot my glasses so I'm as blind as a(n)_______.
A. bat B. owl C. racoon D. beaver
16. We used to share a room at college, but we ______ apart over the years.
A. ran B. broke C. drifted D. distanced
17. The team turned ______ trumps in the final game and won the championship.
A. up B. out C. above D. over
18. I’d say let’s meet on Saturday but I’m none _____ sure what’s happening at the weekend.
A. so B. very C. that D. too
19. I'm seeing the boss this afternoon. I'll put in a ______ word about you. It might help you
with your request for promotion.
A. special B. pleasant C. good D. nice
20. This trend has only been strengthened with the enfranchisement of spending ________ in
modern industrial societies.
A. force B. strength C. weight D. power
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part 2. For questions 1-10, write the correct form of each bracketed word in the numbered
space provided. (10 points)
1. It’s particularly important that we reach out to everybody in our countries - those who feel
________, those who feel left behind by globalization - and address their concerns in
constructive ways. (AFFECT)
2. The zoo has a schedule of feedings and talks, an area where children can feed and _______
Shetland ponies and Tamworth pigs. (FRIEND)
3. It is such a _________ story that the mom lost her child when her family immigrated from
Africa into Europe. (LUCK)
4. The mayor was determined that he would do everything in his power to _________ the
murder case. (MYSTERY)
5. The story broadens the horizon of the children about their _______. (BEAR)
6. I met my old friend at the supermarket this morning, which was quite ________.
(FORTUNE)
7. Then Alvin endured a long, ___________wait for a flight back to New York late that night.
(SPIRIT)
8. In the past, the majority of women were consigned to a lifetime of ___________ and poverty.
(SERVE)
9. A(n) ___________ ensued at the lab, and Angeli was convicted this week of disorderly
conduct and malicious destruction of property. (ALTER)
10. This is a(n) ________ thriller that promises to deliver. (PAGE)
Your answers
1. 6.
2. 7.
3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

III. READING (60 POINTS)

Part 1. In the passage below, seven paragraphs have been removed. For questions 69-75,
read the passage and choose from the paragraphs A-H the one which fits each gap. There is
ONE extra paragraph which you do not need to use. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered box provided. (7 points)
THE POWER OF VACCINES
For the world’s population, access to an injection-program and general good health shouldn’t
be a matter of the luck of the draw. Scientific advances have concentrated on diseases more
prevalent in richer countries and appear to have neglected the plight of the poor - especially in
third world countries - suffering from diseases that are routinely classified as easily
preventable.

1.

The good news is that we can save these lives. Measles, polio, whooping cough, yellow fever
– diseases that debilitate, disfigure and kill millions of children can be prevented with existing
vaccines. Parents in developing countries often walk miles, or pay high prices to get the
precious shots. They know that their children need some vaccines that parents in developed
countries take for granted.

2.
When we first turned our attention to philanthropy, it seemed natural to extend technology to
classrooms and libraries. Technology clearly can transform and empower its users. But our
thinking crystallized as we learned of an even greater need - impoverished children stricken
with preventable diseases. One man has already made a great difference in the world.

3.

The power of vaccines – the most cost-effective medical intervention ever invented - lies in
their ability to prevent rather than treat disease. It’s often the case that it is not until we become
parents that we fully appreciate the virtues of having a form of medical intervention that
protects before limbs go limp or hearts stop beating. Today vaccines save the lives of some 3
million children each year - children who are fortunate enough to have been born in countries
with effective health systems, adequate vaccination supplies and trained health personnel.

4.

Access to safe, effective vaccines to such diseases should not be dictated by circumstance. That
is why a commitment was made by the Global Fund for Children’s Vaccines a year ago. The
goal of the Global Fund, and the partners of the Global Alliance for Vaccines and
immunisation, is to ensure that every child has access to lifesaving vaccines. An estimated 6
billion pounds over the next five years will cover the cost of fully immunising children in
developing countries.

5.

In the 1970s only 5% of the world’s children could expect to be fully immunised. Today thanks
to these “rich” nations, alongside the work of countless dedicated health professionals
worldwide, we can envision a time when 70, 80, and finally 100 percent of children are
protected. And at a cost of 10 to 15 pounds per child, vaccines are a small investment for a very
big return.

6.
The dedication of resources to speed the discovery of new vaccines must also be a priority.
Scientists and organisations like the International AIDs Vaccination Initiative are currently
working to develop vaccines for the top three killer diseases - AIDs, malaria, and tuberculosis.
If they find them, perhaps the more daunting challenge will be to distribute them to those who
need them most.

7.

Gandhi once said that for him the Golden Rule meant that he could not enjoy things denied to
other people. We should strive to ensure that health and freedom from these terrible diseases is
something that no parent is denied.

MISSING PARAGRAPHS:
A
But even the greatest of parental effort can't help if the vaccines aren’t available. In the past it
has
taken up to 15 years for newly developed vaccines - including the relatively recent hepatitis В
vaccine - to become available in poor countries. Those delays are measured in childhood
fatalities.
Our challenge is to provide every child, regardless of where they live or their family’s economic
status with access to lifesaving vaccines.
В
There has also been a concerted effort by governments and other organizations to raise
sufficient
funds to save children’s lives through immunization. Some governments should be applauded
for
their active support and substantial donations to the cause.
C
The new philanthropy blends 1960s social consciousness with the present financial model. So
far
donations have topped eight and a half million pounds to help inoculate children in India
against the three major killer childhood diseases.
D
Dr. Jonas Salk changed the world when he announced the discovery of the polio vaccine. His
work started a vaccine revolution, and, as a result, millions of children have escaped the
disease’s crippling and often fatal effects. The last reported case of wild polio in the Western
Hemisphere was in 1991. Who would have dreamt back in 1953 that within a generation - our
generation - we would see polio almost eradicated from the face of the earth?
E
Vaccines cannot work their magic without a global effort. Parents, world leaders, and
foundations can and should work together because we all want the same thing for our children,
and this is something that great humanitarian leaders have been aware of for a very long time.
F
Whether they live in Bangladesh, Botswana or Seattle, all parents want the best for their
children. Providing a healthy start in life and through childhood is a priority for every family.
Yet for all the amazing advances we have made so far in medicine, there are still far too many
children who don’t have access to even the most basic healthcare. More than 2 million die each
year from vaccine-preventable diseases. This is a staggering statistic - a tragic reality we have
ignored for too long. It is global news when an airline crashes, but rarely newsworthy that 228
children die from preventable illnesses every hour of every day. It’s time to move this issue of
immunisation to the top of our global agenda.
G
But there is more to do. First we need to redouble our efforts to introduce newer vaccines more
quickly. It is heart-wrenching and unacceptable that children in the developing world may have
to wait a decade or more to receive vaccines that are already saving lives in richer countries.
H
Yet tens of millions of people do not share in these benefits because of what they can afford or
where they live. World-wide, more than 1 billion people live on less than 50 p a day. Lack of
safe water, poor sanitation and meagre food supplies are part of the grim reality of their daily
lives. Their children weakened by malnutrition, and parasitic infections, are susceptible to
childhood killers - whopping cough, measles and meningitis.

Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7.

Part 2. For questions 1-10, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable
word and write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (15 points)
THE CHANGING FACE OF WORKING LIFE
The accepted concept of a career 1._______ followed a similar pattern for decades. After
completing their education, people would enter the adult world of work, 2.___________ down
on to a job which they would likely remain from that point 3.____________. Not only would
this occupation provide their income for their entire working life, it would also allow them a
healthy pension when they retired and moved into 4.___________ age. Over the past twenty
years, 5.________, the relationship between a wage earner and their chosen profession has
changed enormously. Today, the idea of a ‘job-for-life’ has all 6._________ disappeared, to be
replaced by an unforgiving world of unstable employment. Some observers even argue that
current society to pit old 7._________ young in a constant battle to find work of some
description, all against a 8.__________ of increasing debt and economic difficulties.
At the same time, the government regularly releases figures that suggest the economy is
prospering, evidencing this claim with the fact that the unemployment rate continues to fall
annually. There are indeed more jobs available. However, a huge number of these are casual,
temporary or short-term positions, all of 9.__________ are low-paid and create little in the way
of tax income for the government. This has a number of debilitating long-term effects, not
10.___________ because this assurance of a growing economy is based more in myth than fact.
Your answers
1. 6.
2. 7.
 3. 8.
4. 9.
5. 10.

Part 3. For questions 01-10, read an extract from an article on the design of green building
and choose the answer A, B, C or D that fits best according to the text. Write your answers
in the corrresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 points)
There has, in recent years, been an outpouring of information about the impact of
buildings on the natural environment; Information which explains and promotes green and
sustainable construction design, strives to convince others of its efficacy and warns of the
dangers of ignoring the issue. Seldom do these documents offer any advice to practitioners,
such as those designing mechanical and electrical systems for a building, on how to utilise this
knowledge on a practical level.
While the terms green and sustainable are often considered synonymous, in that they
both symbolise nature, green does not encompass all that is meant by sustainability, which can
be defined as minimizing the negative impacts of human activities on the natural environment,
in particular those which have long-term and irreversible effects. Some elements of green
design may be sustainable too, for example those which reduce energy usage and pollution,
while others, such as ensuring internal air quality, may be considered green despite having no
influence on the ecological balance.
Although there are a good many advocates of ‘green’ construction in the architectural
industry, able to cite ample reasons why buildings should be designed in a sustainable way, not
to mention a plethora of architectural firms with experience in green design, this is not enough
to make green construction come into being. The driving force behind whether a building is
constructed with minimal environmental impact lies with the owner of the building; that is, the
person financing the project. If the owner considers green design unimportant, or of secondary
importance, then more than likely, it will not be factored into the design.
The commissioning process plays a key role in ensuring the owner gets the building he
wants, in terms of design, costs and risk. At the predesign stage, the owner’s objectives, criteria
and the type of design envisaged are discussed and documented. This gives a design team a
solid foundation on which they can build their ideas, and also provides a specific benchmark
against which individual elements, such as costs, design and environmental impact can be
judged.
Owners who skip the commissioning process, or fail to take ‘green’ issues into account
when doing so, often come a cropper once their building is up and running. Materials and
equipment are installed as planned, and, at first glance, appear to fulfil their purpose adequately.
However, in time, the owner realises that operational and maintenance costs are higher than
necessary, and that the occupants are dissatisfied with the results. These factors in turn lead to
higher ownership costs as well as increased environmental impact.
In some cases, an owner may be aware of the latest trends in sustainable building design.
He may have done research into it himself, or he may have been informed of the merits of green
design through early discussion with professionals. However, firms should not take it as read
that someone commissioning a building already has a preconceived idea of how green he
intends the structure to be. Indeed, this initial interaction between owner and firm is the ideal
time for a designer to outline and promote the ways that green design can meet the client’s
objectives, thus turning a project originally not destined for green design into a potential
candidate.
Typically, when considering whether or not to adopt a green approach, an owner will
ask about additional costs, return for investment and to what extent green design should be the
limiting factor governing decisions in the design process. (1) Many of these costs are incurred
by the increased cooperation between the various stakeholders, such as the owner, the design
professionals, contractors and end-users. (2) However, in green design, they must be involved
from the outset, since green design demands interaction between these disciplines. (3) This
increased coordination clearly requires additional expenditure. (4) A client may initially balk
at these added fees, and may require further convincing of the benefits if he is to proceed. It is
up to the project team to gauge the extent to which a client wants to get involved in a green
design project and provide a commensurate service.
 Of course, there may be financial advantage for the client in choosing a greener design.
Case studies cite examples of green/sustainable designs which have demonstrated lower costs
for long-term operation, ownership and even construction. Tax credits and rebates are usually
available on a regional basis for projects with sustainable design or low emissions, among
others.

1. The writer’s main purpose is to:

A. explain to professionals how they can influence clients to choose greener designs.
B. explain the importance of green building design in reducing long-term damage to the
environment
C. explain to owners commissioning a building why ignoring green issues is costly and
dangerous.
D. explain to professionals why it is important to follow the correct procedures when a building
is commissioned.
2. The examples of green and sustainable designs given in paragraph 2 show that:
A. designs must be sustainable in order for them to be described as green.
B. for the purposes of this paper, the terms green and sustainable have the same meaning.
C. some sustainable designs are green, while others are not.
D. some designs are termed green, even though they are not sustainable.
3. According to paragraph 3, the reason for the lack of green buildings being designed is that:
A. few firms have any experience in design and constructing buildings to a green design.
B. construction companies are unaware of the benefits of green and sustainable designs.
C. firms do not get to decide whether a building is to be constructed sustainably.
D. firms tend to convince clients that other factors are more important than sustainability.
4. In paragraph 4, what does the word ‘benchmark’ mean?
A. standard B. target C. process D. comparision
5. Which of the following is NOT true about the commissioning process?
A. It is conducted before the building is designed.
B. It is a stage that all clients go through when constructing a building.
C. It is a step in the design procedure in which the client’s goals are identified.
D. It provides the firm with a measure of how well they did their job.
6. In paragraph 5, what does the phrase ‘come a cropper’ mean?
A. experience misfortune B. change one’s mind
C. notice the benefits D. make a selection
7. In paragraph 6, the writer implies that:
A. most clients enter the commissioning process with a clear idea of whether or not they want
a green building.
B. designers are usually less concerned about green design than the clients are.
C. the commissioning process offers a perfect opportunity to bring up the subject of green
design.
D. firms should avoid working with clients who reject green designs in their buildings.
8. Where in paragraph 7 does this sentence belong?
In a typical project, landscape architects and mechanical, electrical and plumbing engineers do
not become involved until a much later stage.
A. (1) B. (2) C. (3) D. (4)
9. In paragraph 7, what does ‘balk at’ mean?
A. display shock towards B. agree to pay
C. question the reason for D. understand the need for
10. Green buildings are most likely to incur more expense than conventional buildings due to:
A. higher taxes incurred on sustainable buildings.
B. higher long-term operational costs.
C. the higher cost of green construction materials.
D. increased coordination between construction teams.
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
Part 4. For questions 1-13, read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. (13
points)
Keep taking the tablets
The history of aspirin is a product of a rollercoaster ride through time, of accidental
discoveries, intuitive reasoning and intense corporate rivalry.
A. In the opening pages of Aspirin: The Remarkable Story of a Wonder
Drug, Diarmuid Jeffreys describes this little white pill as ‘one of the most amazing
creations in medical history, a drug so astonishingly versatile that it can relieve headache,
ease your aching limbs, lower your temperature and treat some of the deadliest human
diseases’.
B. Its properties have been known for thousands of years. Ancient Egyptian physicians used
extracts from the willow tree as an analgesic, or pain killer. Centuries later the Greek
physician Hippocrates recommended the bark of the willow tree as a remedy for the
pains of childbirth and as a fever reducer. But it wasn't until the eighteenth and nineteenth
centuries that salicylates the chemical found in the willow tree became the subject of
serious scientific investigation. The race was on to identify the active ingredient and to
replicate it synthetically. At the end of the nineteenth century a German company,
Friedrich Bayer & Co. succeeded in creating a relatively safe and very effective chemical
compound, acetylsalicylic acid, which was renamed aspirin.
C. The late nineteenth century was a fertile period for experimentation, partly because of
the hunger among scientists to answer some of the great scientific questions, but also
because those questions were within their means to answer. One scientist in a laboratory
with some chemicals and a test tube could make significant breakthroughs whereas
today, in order to map the human genome for instance, one needs ‘an army of
researchers, a bank of computers and millions and millions of dollars’.
D. But an understanding of the nature of science and scientific inquiry is not enough on its
own to explain how society innovates. In the nineteenth century, scientific advance was
closely linked to the industrial revolution. This was a period when people frequently had
 the means, motive and determination to take an idea and turn it into reality. In the case
of aspirin that happened piecemeal - a series of minor, often unrelated advances,
fertilised by the century’s broader economic, medical and scientific developments, that
led to one big final breakthrough.
E. The link between big money and pharmaceutical innovation is also a significant one.
Aspirin’s continued shelf life was ensured because for the first 70 years of its life, huge
amounts of money were put into promoting it as an ordinary everyday analgesic. In the
1970s other analgesics, such as ibuprofen and paracetamol, were entering the market,
and the pharmaceutical companies then focused on publicising these new drugs. But just
at the same time, discoveries were made regarding the beneficial role of aspirin in
preventing heart attacks, strokes and other afflictions. Had it not been for these findings,
this pharmaceutical marvel may well have disappeared.
F. So the relationship between big money and drugs is an odd one. Commercial markets
are necessary for developing new products and ensuring that they remain around long
enough for scientists to carry out research on them. But the commercial markets are just
as likely to kill off' certain products when something more attractive comes along. In the
case of aspirin, a potential ‘wonder drug* was around for over 70 years without anybody
investigating the way in which it achieved its effects, because they were making more
than enough money out of it as it was. If ibuprofen or paracetamol had entered the market
just a decade earlier, aspirin might then not be here today. It would be just another
forgotten drug that people hadn't bothered to explore.
G. None of the recent discoveries of aspirin's benefits were made by the big pharmaceutical
companies; they were made by scientists working in the public sector. 'The reason for
that is very simple and straightforward,' Jeffreys says in his book. 'Drug companies will
only pursue research that is going to deliver financial benefits. There's no profit in aspirin
any more. It is incredibly inexpensive with tiny profit margins and it has no patent any
more, so anyone can produce it.' In fact, there's almost a disincentive for drug companies
to further boost the drug, he argues, as it could possibly put them out of business by
stopping them from selling their more expensive brands.
 H. So what is the solution to a lack of commercial interest in further exploring the
therapeutic benefits of aspirin? More public money going into clinical trials,
says Jeffreys. ‘If I were the Department of Health. I would say “this is a very inexpensive
drug. There may be a lot of other things we could do with it." We should put a lot more
money into trying to find out.'
I. Jeffreys' book which not only tells the tale of a 'wonder drug' but also explores the nature
of innovation and the role of big business, public money and regulation reminds us why
such research is so important.
Questions 1-6
The Reading Passage has nine paragraphs A-I.
Choose the correct heading for each paragraph (A-F) from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number (i-x) in boxes 1-6.
List of headings:
i. The most powerful analgesic
ii. The profit potential of aspirin
iii. Saved from oblivion by drug companies
iv. Recognition of an important medicinal property
v. A double-edged sword
vi. An unstructured pattern of development
vii. Major pharmaceutical companies
viii. A wonder drug
ix. Roots of the scientific advancements in the 19th century
x. The discovery of new medical applications

1. Paragraph A
2. Paragraph B
3. Paragraph C
4. Paragraph D
5. Paragraph E
 6. Paragraph F
Your answers
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6.

Questions 7-13
Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading Passage?
In boxes 7-13 write
YES if the statement agrees with the views of the writer
NO if the statement contradicts the views of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
7. The discovery of aspirin’s full medicinal properties was a very unusual one.
8. The 19th century saw significant changes in the way in which scientific experiments were
carried out.
9. For nineteenth-century scientists, small-scale research was far from enough to make
important discoveries.
10. The creation of a market for aspirin as a painkiller was achieved through commercial
advertising campaigns.
11. In the 1970s sales of new analgesic drugs overtook sales of aspirin.
12. Between 1900 and 1970, there was little research into aspirin because commercial
companies thought it had been adequately exploited.
13. Jeffrey suggests that there should be state support for further research into the possible
applications of aspirin.
Your answers
7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. 13.

Part 5. The passage below consists of five paragraphs marked A-E. For questions 01-10,
read the passage and do the task that follows. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered boxes provided. (15 points)
 LIFTING HIGHER EDUCATION TO LOFTIER HEIGHTS?
Academic John Brennan asks whether universities should leave on-the-job training to
employers.
A There is a lot of emphasis nowadays placed on the need for universities and business groups
to get graduates “work ready” through vocational workplace training. This is to be welcomed
but it is also to be questioned – about what it should mean in practice and how it should be
applied. The concept is nothing new. I remember some years back being at a meeting about
higher education and employment, attended by a number of employer representatives. I recall
one employer remarking that of the many thousands of graduates that he had hired what he
really wanted and expected was for each of them to have changed the nature of the job by the
time they had left the role.
B Rather than being concerned with how recruits would fit into existing organisational
arrangements and master existing ways of doing things, here was an employer who expected
graduates to change existing arrangements and ways of working. Who, rather than focusing on
whether graduates had the right kinds of skills and competencies, acknowledged that he didn’t
know what skills and competencies his workers would need in a few years’ time. The very
point of hiring graduates was that he hoped to get people who would themselves be able to
work out what was required and be capable of delivering it and a bold new future.
C Of course, starting any job requires some work-specific knowledge and capability and when
recruiting staff, graduate or non-graduate, employers have a responsibility to provide suitable
induction and training. The responsibilities of higher education are different. They are about
preparing for work in the long term, in different jobs and, quite possibly, in different sectors.
This is preparation for work in a different world, for work that is going to require learning over
a lifetime, not just the first few weeks of that first job after graduation. Current initiatives set
out a perfectly reasonable set of objectives for the ways in which higher education can help
prepare students for their working lives. But much will depend on the interpretation and on
recognising who – higher education or employer – is best equipped to contribute what.
D In the rush to focus on “vocational training to improve graduate employability” academics
need to remember that all higher education is vocational in the sense that it can help shape a
graduate’s capacity to succeed in the workplace. In this way higher education is about life
skills, not just job skills. Many years ago, Harold Silver and I wrote a book entitled A Liberal
Vocationalism. It was based on a project we had just completed on the aims of degree courses
in vocational areas such as accountancy, business and engineering. The book’s title
intentionally conveyed the message that even vocational degree courses were about more than
training for a job. There were assumptions about criticality, transferability of skills, creating
and adapting to change and, above all, an academic credibility.
E Degree courses in subjects such as history and sociology are preparations for employment as
much as vocational degrees such as business and engineering. But the job details will not be
known at the time of study. Indeed, they may not be known until several years later. Thus, the
relevance of higher education to later working life for many graduates will lie in the realm of
generic and transferable skills rather than specific competencies needed for a first job after
graduation. The latter competences are not unimportant but the graduate’s employer is
generally much better equipped than a university to ensure that the graduate acquires them.
Work experience alongside or as part of study can also help a lot. Higher education is for the
long term. Universities, employers and students should realise that.
In which paragraph is it stated that Your
answers:
new proposals require an appropriate level of scrutiny? 1.
academic subjects have benefits beyond their syllabuses? 2.
business is investing in an unknown quantity in the pursuit of an uncertain 3.
goal?
responsibility for service provision needs to be correctly allocated? 4.
educators need to make sure that they don’t lose sight of an important
5.
point?
the issues discussed are a recurring theme that is yet to be agreed upon? 6.
beliefs about the key topics of a study were alluded to in the heading of a 7.
publication?
industry is better suited to cover some issues than educational institutions? 8.
 original thinking is key in finding solutions to future challenges? 9.
while obligations vary, they are still present for both parties? 10.

IV. WRITING (60 POINTS)

Part 1. Read the following extract and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary
should be about 100 - 120 words long. (15 points)
Cloning refers to processes used to create copies of DNA fragments, be it molecular cloning or
cell cloning or organisms. There are three types of cloning: DNA cloning, reproductive cloning
and therapeutic cloning.
Recombinant DNA technology or DNA cloning involves the transfer of a DNA fragment from
one organism to a self-replicating genetic element. Scientists studying a particular gene often
use bacterial plasmids to generate multiple copies of the same gene. Plasmids are self-
replicating extra-chromosomal circular DNA molecules. When the fragment of the
chromosomal DNA is joined with its cloning vector in the lab, it is called a recombinant DNA
molecule.
Reproductive cloning is a technology used to generate an animal that has the same nuclear
DNA as another currently or previously existing animal. In the process, scientists transfer
genetic material from the nucleus of a donor adult cell to an egg whose genetic material has
been removed. The reconstructed egg containing the DNA from a donor cell must be treated
with chemicals or 'electric current to stimulate cell division. Once the cloned embryo reaches
a suitable stage, it is transferred to the uterus of a female host where it continues to develop
until birth.
Therapeutic cloning is also called ‘embryo cloning’. It is the production of human embryos for
use in research. The goal of this process is not to create cloned human beings but rather to
harvest stem cells that can be used to treat disease. Stem cells are important to biomedical
researchers because they can be used to generate virtually any type of specialised cell in the
human body. It is hoped that one day, stem cells can be used to serve as replacement cells to
treat heart disease, Alzheimer's, cancer and other diseases.
Recombinant DNA technology is useful for learning about other related technologies such as
gene therapy and genetic engineering of organisms.
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Part 2. Chart description (15 points)
The charts below compare five different countries, showing the electricity used (measured in
megawatts or mw) in a typical hospital during one week, and also the number of emergency
medical calls made by local residents during the same week.
Write a report summarizing the information. Select and describe the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant. Write at least 150 words.

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Part 3. Essay writing (30 points)
The negative consequences of Covid-19 pandemic have made us realize how important nature
is to people. What are the benefits green environment bringing to people during pandemic
times? In which way can we better the relationship with nature? Write your essay to express
your view points in approximately 350 words.
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.-------- HẾT --------
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.

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 KỲ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN
KHU VỰC DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
LẦN THỨ XI, NĂM 2022

TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÊ KHIẾT – QUẢNG NGÃI

ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT MÔN: TIẾNG ANH – KHỐI 11
Thời gian: 180 phút (Không kể thời gian giao đề)
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT Ngày thi:14/7/2022
(Đề thi gồm 13 trang)
Điểm của bài thi: Họ, tên và chữ kí của 2 giám khảo: Số phách
Ghi bằng số: Giám khảo 1:
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Ghi bằng chữ: Giám khảo 2:
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Lưu ý: - Thí sinh làm bài vào đề thi này.

- Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu gì, kể cả từ điển
A. LISTENING (5.0 pts)
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
• Bài nghe gồm 4 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây, mở đầu và
kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
• Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước
tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
HƯỚNG DẪN PHẦN THI NGHE HIỂU
• Bài nghe gồm 4 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mỗi lần cách nhau 15 giây, mở đầu và
kết thúc mỗi phần nghe có tín hiệu.
• Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc. Thí sinh có 3 phút để hoàn chỉnh bài trước
tín hiệu nhạc kết thúc bài nghe.
• Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.
I. Listen and decide whether the following sentences are true (T) or false (F).
1. In a previous lecture, Dr North talked about the humankind’s relationship with sailing.
2. The focus of today’s talk will be on European fishing problems.
3. During the last century, the world population has grown very fast.
4. As well as over-fishing, the fact that oceans are more polluted is a reason for fishing stock
being on the point of collapse in the Pacific.
5. In the UK, fish used to be seen as a luxury.
II. Listen and complete the sentences below with NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each
answer.
(ROAD TO IELTS – LISTENING TEST 2 – SECTION 3 )
6. Students must follow ______ to prevent accidents in the lab.
7. The students have not been using ______ while in the lab.
8. Students cannot eat or drink until ______ is finished and they have washed their hands.
9. Tessa should tie her hair back to avoid danger when she is woking with a ______or
chemicals.
10. Students must wear long sleeves and shoes made of ______ in the lab.

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III. You will hear a discussion in which two marine biologists. Gina Kelso and Thomas
Ludman, talk about an award-winning television film they made about wildlife in
Antarctica. Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to what you hear.
(CPE, Specifications and Sample Papers for Examinations from March 2013)
11.Gina’s interest in marine biology dates from ______.
A. her earliest recollections of life in Africa
B. one memorable experience in childhood
C. the years she spent studying in England
D. a postgraduate research project she led
12.The first wildlife TV series they both worked on ______.
A. made use of a previously untried format
B. was not filmed in a natural environment
C. was not intended to be taken too seriously
D. required them to do background research
13.How did Thomas feel when he was asked to produce the programs about Antarctica?
A. disappointed not to be presenting the series
B. surprised that people thought he was suitable
C. uncertain how well he would get on with the team
D. worried about having to spend the winter there
14.When they were in Antarctica, they would have appreciated ______.
A. a less demanding work schedule
B. more time to study certain animals
C. a close friend to share their feelings with
D. a chance to share their work with colleagues
15.What was most impressive about the whales they filmed?
A. The unusual sounds the whales made.
B. The number of whales feeding in a small bay.
C. How long the whales stayed feeding in one area.
D. how well the whales co-operated with each other.
IV. Listen to a piece of BBC news about the World War One centenary and fill in the
missing information. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS taken from the recording
for each answer in the spaces provided.
People have criticised Germany's government for not doing enough to (1) ______ the World
War One centenary.
Germany hasn’t spent as much on events as some other (2) ______ countries. And the events
which have taken place have been seen as (3) ______by critics.
Traditionally in Germany the First World War is (4) ______the Second World War.
History teaching in German schools tends to focus on (5) ______ of the Nazis rather than what
happened (6) ______ earlier.
And since 1945 there's been a strong (7) ______ in Germany to anything that might be seen as
(8) ______ . So many people here are uncomfortable with any anniversary of a war or a battle.
There's still (9) ______ among historians about who was responsible for World War One. But
having spent the last 70 years atoning for Nazi guilt, many Germans have (10) ______to now
take on the blame for the First World War, too.
B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Choose the word/ phrase that best completes each of the following sentences.
1. Jack has egg ______ because he couldn't remember how to spell "Batman"!
A. on his teeth B. on his face C. on his shirt D. on his fingers
2. As the maestro lifted his baton the theater was so still you could hear ______.
A. his heartbeat B. a pin drop C. bird wings D. the drum beating
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3. I don't agree with you, but your idea certainly gives me food _____.
A. for fun B. for consider C. for thought D. for thinking
4. I think I understand the nuts and ______ of the operation.
A. screws B. hammer C. nails D. bolts
5. I'll be back in the twinkling of ______ .
A. an eye B. a lighting bolt C. a smile D. a laugh
6. Look, I will pay you back. Would you please call the ______?!
A. hunters off B. tigers off C. dogs off D. apes off
7. Ever since he married Jane, he's had a new ______ on life.
A. rent B. lease C. title D. loan
8. Oh, I'm sorry. I shouldn't have said that. I guess I really put my ______ in my mouth.
A. foot B. hand C. elbow D. knee
9. You need to keep a stiff ______ no matter what! Don't get nervous!
A. nose B. right arm C. eyebrow D. upperlip
10. I think you can take what he says at ______ value.
A. real B. face C. true D. straight
11. I’m afraid I’ve completely lost the ………… of the argument.
A. stream B. thread C. trace D. idea
12. When the teacher asked Mary what the chemical formula was, her mind was a total ______
A. void B. empty C. blank D. nothing
13. If you can win his attention ______for you.
A. the so much better B. the better so much
C. so much the better D. so the much better
14. No one can function properly if he or she is ______adequate sleep.
A. took away B. deprived of C. derived from D. got rid of
15. I was so exhausted that I went out like ______
A. a baby B. a candle C. a light D. a log
16. Most of ______ archaeologists know about prehistoric cultures is based on studies of
material remains.
A. what B. these C. which D. the
17. She ______ fainted when she heard that her child died.
A. rather than B. nothing but C. all but D. near
18. She had no chance to defend herself : the dog ______ for me as soon as I opened the door.
A. ran B. went C. fell D. stood
19. John ______ from social activity because he felt embarrassed with people.
A. held on B. held off C. held back D. held out
20. I’m afraid Tim doesn’t take much care over his homework. He usually does it ______
A. any how B. any old how C. how on earth D. how come
II. Provide the correct word form for each of the spaces below.
Complete each sentence, using the correct form of the word in parentheses
1. Hunger and a________meal did not sit happily side by side. (SLAP)
2. Britain’s nuclear power program began with a lie: it was a________ for the nuclear
weapons program. (SCREEN)
3. The_____vigor of man-made things, as suggested by these metaphors, is at the same time
ungainly and unnatural. (HUMAN)
4. The______woman did not utter a single word when her husband abused her. (SUBMIT)
5. Blinking to________herself to the darkness, Lexa already had her hands over her ears when
the deafening blast of thunder reached her. (CUSTOM)
6. In my heart of hearts, I think________laws such as these am abominations that bring the
entire legal system into disrepute.
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7. He gained ______ for being difficult to work with as an actor. (NOTORIOUS)
8. Her latest novel is a _________ thriller, set some time in the late 21 sty century. (FUTURE)
9. The new policy only serves to _________ the inadequacy of help for the homeless.
(ACCENT)
10. Zombies are archetypal monsters from the bottom of the uncanny valley, with their dead
eyes and _______ faces. (EXPRESS)
C. READING
I. Read and fill in one suitable word.
(Mark Lester- Child Star CPE Reading & Use of English (2013)- Grivas p. 282)
Should you be over a certain age, my friend Mark Lester will need (1)___________
introduction, being probably the finest and most talented child actor the UK has ever
produced. His list of co-stars is proof of his standing and ability- Kirk Douglas, Shelley
Winters, Charlton Heston, Gordon Jackson, Oliver Reed and Britt Ekland are just a
(2)__________ of the major star with (3)__________ Mark acted. Although most people
remember Mark for his stunning performance in Sir Carol Reed’s Oscar-winning musical of
Lionel Bart’s Oliver he (4)____________, of course, star in many other world-class movies
such as Run Wild, Run Free, Eyewitness, Who slew Aunty Roo to name (5)____________ a
few. One of his most stunning performances was with Dirk Bogarde in Our Mother’s House
made when Mark was only six years old. In (6)_________, he had to play an autistic child. He
won a top acting award for this effort, which brought him to the notice of Sir Carol Reed, who
cast him perfectly as Oliver. I consider myself privileged to count him as a close friend. He
was a lovely unaffected boy (7)___________ being the world’s top child actor for nearly ten
years and he is just as wonderful (8)___________ adult. He has long since left the screen and
now (9)___________ his own highly successful osteopathy and acupuncture
(10)___________.
II. Read and choose the best answer.
(Succeed in CPE p.105)
Livestrong – but will the legacy?
In the early- to mid-1990s, Lance Armstrong was on the up-and-up. Success seemed to be
written in his stars; he notched up a stage win at the '93 Tour de France, then another in '95.
This cyclist was clearly coming of age in the sport, and he was, at 24 on registering his second
tour win, still a relative baby in cycling terms - most of his career lay ahead of him. Then, just
when it looked like he would conquer all before him, his '96 tour was cut disappointingly short
due to illness. And, as it would soon emerge, this was no ordinary illness; Armstrong had
testicular cancer. Fans were aghast and there was an out-pouring of sympathy for him.
But Armstrong would need more than goodwill to get through this. The cancer had
metastasized to the lungs and the brain. The prognosis was not at all good. Months of spirit-
and body-breaking chemotherapy followed and a delicate surgical procedure to remove the
malignancies on his brain was performed. Cycling mourned the surely permanent loss to the
sport of one of its most promising young disciples. But Armstrong wasn't finished yet.
In 1998, he made a remarkable, defiant and inspirational return to cycling and competed in the
Tour de France again the following year. But surely his would now only be a cameo role; after
all, what could one expect from a cancer survivor with a compromised liver and the other
familiar scars of cancer therapy? Except Armstrong had other ideas.
Four stage wins later, the legend of Armstrong was born; he had claimed the Tour and defied
the odds in the most emphatic of manners. His victory represented not just his announcement
as a force in cycling, but as a force for hope for millions of cancer sufferers the world over.
Indeed, Armstrong threw himself into campaigning for his newly-established cancer
foundation, Livestrong - so much so that he metamorphosed into a sort of human-embodiment
of the cause — he became the cause, and his annual battle with the French Alps came to
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represent the struggle against the deadly disease. So long as Lance could succeed, there was
hope.
And succeed he did, beyond the wildest expectations of even the most optimistic of his
supporters, amassing a further six titles — so seven in consecution —before he retired in 2005.
His achievements were simply remarkable; his story absorbing; his book a must-read for all
cancer sufferers — their ray of hope; proof that hopefulness should never fade and that
sanguinity can and does make light of the odds - the tunnel, though long and at times
excruciating to pass through, has an end, and it is a happy one —the light is in sight.
After his seventh victory, he retired and the sporting world entered congratulatory mode,
writing his eulogies. But Armstrong had one more surprise for us; he wasn't finished yet.
There were whispers of a comeback, confirmed in 2009, and so it was that the legend would
ride again.
But the renewed focus on him wasn't all good; there were whispers of another kind, too;
sources, some credible, were claiming he had had an illicit ally all through his exploits; he
was, they claimed, in bed with the syringe. Our champion laughed off and dismissed these
claims but the rumours persisted and a cloud began to form over his legacy. Surely Armstrong
could not have earned his victories clean, some said.
We may never know for sure. Fast-forward to 2012 and despite an abandoned federal case,
those sharpening their knives for Armstrong seem to have finally nabbed him; ASADA, the
U.S. body tasked with cracking down on drug offenders charged Armstrong with doping and
the trafficking of drugs - and some say his failure to contest is indicative of his guilt. At any
rate, because he pleaded no-contest, he will now be stripped of all his titles; his legacy has
been pulled from under him.
And yet he has not, and now may never be tried, so we have not seen the evidence against him.
We do not know if he is guilty or innocent, and it still remains fact that he never failed an
official drugs test. Did he cheat? Does it matter? Does anyone care? Time may tell, but for
now, though his legacy is tainted, his legend, in the eyes of many of his loyal supporters, lives
on.
11. What does the writer mean when he says in the first paragraph that Lance Amstrong was
‘coming of age in the sport’
A. he was of the right age to be a competitive cyclist
B. he was nearly at the age at which it is expected that a cyclist should win
C. he was of a mature age for a cyclist and had few years left in the sport
D. he was beginning to figure as a real contender in his sport
12. What does “it” in paragraph 1 refer to?
A. Armstrong’s illness
B. the ’96 Tour de France
C. Amstrong’s career
D. none of the above
13. Which of the following statements is true about the cancer Armstrong had?
A. he recovered remarkably quickly from it, suffering little
B. it started in the lungs and spread to the brain
C. doctors were optimistic about his chances of survival
D. the generally held view was that it would prevent him from cycling professionally ever
again
14. What was implied when the writer said ‘but surely his would now only be a cameo role’ in
the third paragraph?
A. the author did not believe Armstrong would come back to the Tour de France at the time
B. the certainty about Armstrong’s desire to play a cameo role in the Tour de France
C. the general lack of confidence in Armstrong’s competitiveness
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D. the popular demand for Armstrong to be back
15. Why does the writer say, 'Except Armstrong had other ideas', at the end of the third
paragraph?
A. Armstrong was determined to play some role in the Tour de France again
B. Armstrong's idea of victory had changed since he'd had cancer.
C. Armstrong was determined to defy the odds and become a real contender in the Tour de
France.
D. Armstrong didn't want to race for victory, he just wanted to represent cancer victims.
16. What does the writer compare Armstrong's Tour de France campaign struggle each year
after his return to the sport with?
A. the general fight against cancer
B. a cancer organisation
C. his fundraising for cancer
D. Armstrong's own personal cancer experience
17. What is one of the ways in which his story became about more than just cycling?
A. his published biography became a source of inspiration for cancer sufferers
B. cycling through a tunnel was like fighting cancer
C. he gave people hope that they could one day be professional athletes, too
D. he gave people the belief to fight the disease that is drug-taking in sport
18. What does Lance Armstrong’s ‘illicit ally’ represent?
A. the person who helped him win illegally
B. the drugs he used
C. the person with whom he cheated
D. the person who sold him drugs
19. What can be inferred about the rumours of Armstrong's drug-taking?
A. they were disproved in a state court case
B. they have not caused Armstrong's reputation and record any harm
C. they were eventually proved true beyond doubt
D. he had, but passed up, an opportunity to disprove them
20. What is the author’s purpose in the last paragraph?
A. informing readers of his legacy
B. denying his scandals
C. approving of his exploits
D. confirming his guilt
III. Read and complete the tasks required.
(Road to IELTS 4 Reading)
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A–H from the list of headings below. Write the
correct number, i–xi, in boxes 21-27
List of Headings
i Gender bias in televised sport
ii More money-making opportunities
iii Mixed views on TV’s role in sports
iv Tickets to top matches too expensive
v A common misperception
vi Personal stories become the focus
vii Sports people become stars
viii Rules changed to please viewers
ix Lower-level teams lose out
x Skill levels improve
xi TV appeal influences sports’ success
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Example: Paragraph A v
21 Paragraph B
22 Paragraph C
23 Paragraph D
24 Paragraph E
25 Paragraph F
26 Paragraph G
27 Paragraph H
Television and Sport
when the medium becomes the stadium
A The relationship between television and sports is not widely thought of as
problematic. For many people, television is a simple medium through which sports can be
played, replayed, slowed down, and of course conveniently transmitted live to homes across
the planet. What is often overlooked, however, is how television networks have reshaped the
very foundations of an industry that they claim only to document. Major television stations
immediately seized the revenue-generating prospects of televising sports and this has
changed everything, from how they are played to who has a chance to watch them.

B Before television, for example, live matches could only be viewed in person. For the
majority of fans, who were unable to afford tickets to the top-flight matches, or to travel the
long distances required to see them, the only option was to attend a local game instead,
where the stakes were much lower. As a result, thriving social networks and sporting
communities formed around the efforts of teams in the third and fourth divisions and below.
With the advent of live TV, however, premier matches suddenly became affordable and
accessible to hundreds of millions of new viewers. This shift in viewing patterns vacuumed
out the support base of local clubs, many of which ultimately folded.

C For those on the more prosperous side of this shift in viewing behaviour, however,
the financial rewards are substantial. Television assisted in derailing long-held concerns in
many sports about whether athletes should remain amateurs or ‘go pro’, and replaced this
system with a new paradigm where nearly all athletes are free to pursue stardom and to
make money from their sporting prowess. For the last few decades, top-level sports men and
women have signed lucrative endorsement deals and sponsorship contracts, turning many
into multi-millionaires and also allowing them to focus full-time on what really drives them.
That they can do all this without harming their prospects at the Olympic Games and other
major competitions is a significant benefit for these athletes.

D The effects of television extend further, however, and in many instances have led to
changes in sporting codes themselves. Prior to televised coverage of the Winter Olympics,
for example, figure skating involved a component in which skaters drew ‘figures’ in the ice,
which were later evaluated for the precision of their shapes. This component translated
poorly to the small screen, as viewers found the whole procedure, including the judging of
minute scratches on ice, to be monotonous and dull. Ultimately, figures were scrapped in
favour of a short programme featuring more telegenic twists and jumps. Other sports are
awash with similar regulatory shifts – passing the ball back to the goalkeeper was banned in
football after gameplay at the 1990 World Cup was deemed overly defensive by television
viewers.

E In addition to insinuating changes into sporting regulation, television also tends to

favour some individual sports over others. Some events, such as the Tour de France,
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appear to benefit: on television it can be viewed in its entirety, whereas on-site enthusiasts
will only witness a tiny part of the spectacle. Wrestling, perhaps due to an image problem
that repelled younger (and highly prized) television viewers, was scheduled for removal from
the 2020 Olympic Games despite being a founding sport and a fixture of the Olympics since
708 BC. Only after a fervent outcry from supporters was that decision overturned.

F Another change in the sporting landscape that television has triggered is the framing
of sports not merely in terms of the level of skill and athleticism involved, but as personal
narratives of triumph, shame and redemption on the part of individual competitors. This is
made easier and more convincing through the power of close-up camera shots, profiles and
commentary shown during extended build-ups to live events. It also attracts television
audiences – particularly women – who may be less interested in the intricacies of the sport
than they are in broader ‘human interest’ stories. As a result, many viewers are now more
familiar with the private agonies of famous athletes than with their record scores or match-
day tactics.
G And what about the effects of male television viewership? Certainly, men have
always been willing to watch male athletes at the top of their game, but female athletes
participating in the same sports have typically attracted far less interest and, as a result,
have suffered greatly reduced exposure on television. Those sports where women can draw
the crowds – beach volleyball, for example – are often those where female participants are
encouraged to dress and behave in ways oriented specifically toward a male demographic.
H Does all this suggest the influence of television on sports has been overwhelmingly
negative? The answer will almost certainly depend on who among the various stakeholders
is asked. For all those who have lost out – lower-league teams, athletes whose sports lack a
certain visual appeal – there are numerous others who have benefitted enormously from the
partnership between television and sports, and whose livelihoods now depend on it.

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer? In boxes 28–32, write YES
if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer NO if the statement contradicts the claims
of the writer NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this
28 Television networks were slow to recognise opportunities to make money from televised
sport.
29 The average sports fan travelled a long way to watch matches before live television
broadcasts.
30 Television has reduced the significance of an athlete’s amateur status.
31 The best athletes are now more interested in financial success rather than sporting
achievement.
Complete the notes below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for
each answer. Write your answers in.
Effect of television on individual sports
• Ice skating – viewers find ‘figures’ boring so they are replaced with a 32 ______
• Back-passing banned in football.
• Tour de France great for TV, but wrestling initially dropped from Olympic Games due to 33
______

IV. Gapped text

(P 184 CPE Reading & Use of English (2013)- Grivas)
The Deepest Scar
I knew the mountains by name, by shape, by size; I felt I could even close my eyes and know
them through their presence. Observation Post One was near the peak of the highest of them
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all and from it they spread out to all horizons; massive, craggy, their tops bare of snow in this
fierce midsummer heat, the dark rock gradually giving way to thicker and thicker pine down to
the valley floor, which was as perfect as a green carpet, fitted carefully around the foot of each
mountain.
34 ______
Inside me was a scar that mirrored it exactly, that I had come up here to allow to heal. I had
always come into the mountains to heal; the wilderness, the solitude, soothed me, calmed a
heart torn by my parents’ break-up, the disappointments of youth and adulthood. I just wasn’t
sure they were working their magic this time.
35______
I was starting to think that was the problem. The sadness was still laced with bitterness, and a
need to blame. And what else was there to blame but those huge silent giants, who did not
mourn or shed tears, did not sing funeral songs, but sat, eternal, stone-hearted. For them a
human death was nothing. A mountain took thousands of years to be born and thousands more
to die, and in that time would witness thousands of deaths both great and small.
36______
This was when the fire crews were summoned, the planes and helicopters dispatched. I, too,
had seen many of them, fought in the smoky thick of them to stop their spread, emerged
exhausted and hoarse from the heat but triumphant, as the flames subsided and the fire planes
doused the last of the smouldering embers.
37______
We’d been called up while on standby in Larch, my hometown. Twenty of us veterans and
some new bloods; five college kids, my little brother Steve one of them. He’d always wanted
to fight fires and was finally old enough to - he’d signed up for when it term at college ended,
and come to join me.
38______
What we hadn’t reckoned on was the wind change, and the strength of the westerly that caused
it. The moment we felt it, we veterans froze; it came roaring through the trees with another
deeper roaring adding to its voice. This last was our old enemy’s war cry; the fire sprang up
fifty feet into the air and raced towards us like a viking possessed, with a bloodlust to be sated.
39______
I was his elder brother by seven years – he had followed me for as long as I could remember.
It was often nice, sometimes annoying, but it was a fact. Why I had not realised it would
happen then is something I will never fathom and never forgive myself for.
40______
But physical scars, though painful and unsightly, do not hurt for long, and they show the world
at least that you have risked yourself, have fought. It was the scar inside that never seemed to
stop bothering me, the dark scar so much like the one down on the forest floor, so like the bare
earthen grave in which we laid him, my divorced and distant parents and the last and desolate
son.

A. I had wanted to fight fires for as long E. The other two were fine - had gone off
as I could remember; I waited for my a slant but reached the river safely,
schooling to end with impatience, itching plunged into its cool sanctuary. I was fine
to become part of what was, for me, the too, though I had to spend some weeks in
real world of nature and its forces, hospital, and the burns I received trying to
creative and destructive. Steve was pull Steve out from under the burning tree
different, studious and quiet, but I always will never properly heal, and will always
felt that my burning ambition had put a make people look twice.
spark in his heart that, like a forest fire,
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had smouldered a long time before
bursting into life.
B. It was a big fire but the winds weren’t F. Likewise we fled, fear our demon, as
high and the position was good; we the trees popped into flame all around as
concentrated on cutting a firebreak from easily as candles on a birthday cake, and
Cawdor’s Ridge to the river, cutting it off smoke made our eyes sting. We headed
on two sides. This done, we looped around for the river and I, missing two men,
and started doing much the same on the turned back to make sure they were safe.
other side, from the river up to the ridge. I It was what I always did, trusting my luck,
remember being unconcerned, grinning at my instinct, my knowledge. My brother,
Steve’s ash-blackened face and flashing trusting only me, turned back too.
white teeth and eyes.
C. Except for that dark slash that I G. Tony Morgan had been doubtful when
couldn’t keep my eyes off, as hard as I I volunteered. He said it was too early to
tried. From the open side of Cawdor’s be alone. He was one of the new breed of
Ridge it cut a swathe of black burnt wood forest rangers, who’d learnt the skills in
and ash-thick earth down into the heart of college, knew countless facts and theories
the forest, stopped only by the river, that I lacked. But I insisted, knowing that I
glinting here and there in the sunshine as too had something he did not; a sense of
it wended its slow way to the sea. being part of it all, a feeling of kinship
with the mountain.
D. I had loved it, loved the danger, loved H. And as many fires. There were fires
the satisfaction of doing a hard and every summer, when the dead wood and
dangerous job well. They had called me grass were bone dry and summer storms
‘The Charm’ because I put myself at such snaked lightning into the peaks and
risk and always emerged unscathed. It had valleys. That was my job here at
seemed like a good thing, being lucky, but Observation Post One; any smoke was to
it didn’t anymore. The scars, one inside be logged, its position noted and observed
me and one down in the valley, catching for days after. Most fires went out alone,
my eyes; all that remained of the last fire I some gently smouldered and then sprang
had fought. up, sudden monsters, armed with swords
of flame and intent on destruction.

V. You are going to read an article about the Royal Society, a British scientific institution.
For questions 41-50, choose from the sections of the article (A—E). The sections may be
chosen more than once.
(CAE Practice Test Plus 2 p.106)
In the exam, mark your answers on the separate answer sheet.
In which section of the article are the following mentioned?

41 a belief that a certain development has been of particular use to scientists

42 the variety of ways in which the Royal Society encourages people who are not scientists to
consider scientific issues
43 a rapid reaction to research being made public
44 a particular development that requires urgent action to improve it
45 a resource for information on past scientific discoveries
46 a lack of understanding of scientific matters among people in general
47 a system that the Royal Society introduced
48 the fact that scientists do not always reach firm conclusions
49 a problem that is not limited to the world of science
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50 the belief that certain things that are possible are not desirable

The unstoppable spirit of inquiry

The president of the Royal Society, Martin Rees, celebrates the long history of one of
Britain's greatest institutions.

A The Royal Society began in 1660. From the beginning, the wide dissemination of
scientific ideas was deemed important. The Society started to publish Philosophical
Transaction, the first scientific journal, which continues to this day. The Society's journals
pioneered what is still the accepted procedure whereby scientific ideas are subject to peer
review — criticised, refined and codified into 'public knowledge'. Over the centuries, they
published Isaac Newton's researches on light, Benjamin Franklin's experiments on lightning,
Volta's first battery and many of the triumphs of twentieth-century science. Those who want to
celebrate this glorious history should visit the Royal Society's archives via our Trailblazing
website.
B The founders of the Society enjoyed speculation, but they were also intensely engaged
with the problems of their era, such as improvements to timekeeping and navigation. After 350
years, our horizons have expanded, but the same engagement is imperative in the 21' century.
Knowledge has advanced hugely, but it must be deployed for the benefit of the ever-growing
population of our planet, all empowered by ever more powerful technology. The silicon chip
was perhaps the most transformative single invention of the past century; it has allowed
miniaturisation and spawned the worldwide reach of mobile phones and the internet. It was
physicists who developed the World Wide Web and, though it impacts us all, scientists have
benefited especially.
C Traditional journals survive as guarantors of quality, but they are supplemented by a
blogosphere of widely varying quality. The latter cries out for an informal system of quality
control. The internet levels the playing fields between researchers in major centres and those
in relative isolation. It has transformed the way science is communicated and debated. In 2002,
three young Indian mathematicians invented a faster scheme for factoring large numbers —
something that would be crucial for code-breaking. They posted their results on the web.
Within a day, 20,000 people had downloaded the work, which was the topic of hastily
convened discussions in many centres of mathematical research around the world. The internet
also allows new styles of research. For example, in the old days, astronomical research was
stored on delicate photographic plates; these were not easily accessible and tiresome to
analyse. Now such data (and large datasets in genetics and particle physics) can be accessed
and downloaded anywhere. Experiments and natural events can be followed in real time.
D We recently asked our members what they saw as the most important questions facing
us in the years ahead and we are holding discussion meetings on the 'Top Ten'. Whatever
breakthroughs are in store, we can be sure of one thing: the widening gulf between what
science enables us to do and what it's prudent or ethical actually to do. In respect of certain
developments, regulation will be called for, on ethical as well as prudential grounds. The way
science is applied is a matter not just for scientists. All citizens need to address these
questions. Public decisions should be made, after the widest possible discussion, in the light of
the best scientific evidence available. That is one of the key roles of the Society. Whether it is
the work of our Science Policy Centre, our journals, our discussion meetings, our work in
education or our public events, we must be at the heart of helping policy makers and citizens
make informed decisions.
E But science isn't dogma. Its assertions are sometimes tentative, sometimes compelling;
noisy controversy doesn't always connote balanced arguments; risks are never absolutely zero,
even if they are hugely outweighed by potential benefits. In promoting an informed debate, the
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media are crucial. When reporting a scientific controversy, the aim should be neither to
exaggerate risks and uncertainties, nor to gloss over them. This is indeed a challenge,
particularly when institutional, political or commercial pressures distort the debate. Scientists
often bemoan the public's weak grasp of science — without some 'feel' for the issues, public
debate can't get beyond sloganising. But they protest too much: there are other issues where
public debate is, to an equally disquieting degree, inhibited by ignorance. The Royal Society
aims to sustain Britain's traditional strength in science, but also to ensure that wherever science
impacts on people's lives, it is openly debated.
D. WRITING
I. Read the following extract and use your own words to summarise it. Your summary
should be between 100 and 120 words long.
Have you ever wondered why soldiers are always clad in green? This is to enable them to
camouflage themselves during wartime. Hiding in the jungles, their green attire blend into the
surrounding trees and shrubs, making it difficult for the enemies to spot them.
Long before man make use of camouflaging, insects have already adopted the tactic of
disguise to escape from the clutches of their predators. By having body colors close to those of
the rocks and dried leaves, they catch less attention from the predators and hence escape from
being pursued. However, this kind of disguise works only if the insects remain still in the
presence of their predators.
Butterflies and moths have developed a variety of camouflage strategies since they are quite
defenceless and their predators - birds are abundant in supply. Many moth caterpillars
resemble dead twigs while the young of certain species of butterflies appear like bird
droppings. Adult butterflies and moths camouflage themselves too, in attempts to escape from
their hunters -- birds who are superior gliders. Possessing wings which resemble dried leaves
help certain butterflies and moths to hide among heaps of dried leaves when predators are
around.
Fortunately, not all insects choose the art of disguise to escape from their predators; otherwise,
the world would be so dull and colorless. There are insects which assimilate the bright body
colors of bees and wasps to escape from being pursued by their predators. The concept of
mimicry was derived, owing to the bees and wasps. Long ago, birds have already learnt to
avoid brilliantly colored wasps and bees in fear of their painful stings. Hence, over millions of
years, many harmless insects have assimilated the bees and wasps by imitating their bright
body colors and shapes. In this way, they appear dangerous to their predators and hence ward
them off.
Mimics of the wasps and bees are most commonly found in the gardens. The furry, plump bee-
fly not only appears like the bumble bee in terms of body colors, even its hums sound similar
too. The only difference is that the bee-fly does not have a sting and is hence harmless. The
hoverfly is another insect which imitates the body colors of the wasps. Their bodies are striped
yellow and black. The only deviations are that hoverflies do not have stings and they have only
one pair of wings each while wasps have two pairs each. These variations are hardly noticed
by the predators and hence help them to escape.

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II. The charts below show reasons for travel and the main issues for the travelling public in
the US in 2009. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features,
and make comparisons where relevant. You should write about 150 words.

III. Write an essay of 350 words on the following topic:

“Some educational systems emphasize the development of student's capacity for
reasoning and logical thinking, but students would benefit more from an education that
also taught them to explore their own emotions."
Present your perspective on this issue, using relevant reasons and examples to support your views.

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SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO BÌNH ĐỊNH ĐỀ THI ĐỀ XUẤT KỲ THI HSG
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN LẦN THỨ XIII
MÔN: TIẾNG ANH - KHỐI 11
Thời gian: 180 phút
Đề thi gồm: 14 trang

SECTION A. LISTENING (50 POINTS)

Part 1.You will hear a discussion in which two marine biologists. Gina Kelso and Thomas Ludman, talk
about an award-winning television film they made about wildlife in Antarctica. Choose the answer (A, B,
C or D) which fits best according to what you hear. (10 points)
1. Gina’s interest in marine biology dates from ______.
A. her earliest recollections of life in Africa
B. one memorable experience in childhood
C. the years she spent studying in England
D. a postgraduate research project she led
2. The first wildlife TV series they both worked on ______.
A. made use of a previously untried format
B. was not filmed in a natural environment
C. was not intended to be taken too seriously
D. required them to do background research
3. How did Thomas feel when he was asked to produce the programs about Antarctica?
A. disappointed not to be presenting the series
B. surprised that people thought he was suitable
C. uncertain how well he would get on with the team
D. worried about having to spend the winter there
4. When they were in Antarctica, they would have appreciated ______.
A. a less demanding work schedule
B. more time to study certain animals
C. a close friend to share their feelings with
D. a chance to share their work with colleagues
5. What was most impressive about the whales theyfilmed?
A. The unusual sounds the whales made.
B. The number of whales feeding in a small bay.
C. How long the whales stayed feeding in one area.
D. how well the whales co-operated with each other.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 2. You will hear the historian, George Davies, talking about society and the theatre in England in the
time of William Shakespeare. Decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F).Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
1. According to Professor Davies, the level of literacy in sixteen-century England matched his expectations.
2. In Professor Davies' opinion, the advantage of the usual method of communication in the sixteenth century
was that people absorbed more of what they heard.
3. Professor Davies believes that Shakespeare's company developed their basic acting skills by attending
special voice classes.
4. In Professor Davies' view, the advantage of sixteen-century theatres was that the performances were
complemented by everyday life.
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5. Professor Davies thinks that sixteen-century plays were expected to deal with personal confessions.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Part 3. You will hear a student called Tina asking Professor Van Diezen for advice on choosing courses.
Listen and answer the following questions, using NO MORE THAN FIVE WORDS for each answer. (10
points)
1. What is the defining characteristic of a specialised course?
……………………………………………………………………………………………
2. For whom the Microbiology courses are available?
……………………………………………………………………………………………
3. Who are interested in Microbiology courses?
……………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Why will a Medical Science course be opened next year?
……………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Which is the quickest increasing subject in enrolment?
……………………………………………………………………………………………
Part 4. You will hear a radio report about Erik Weihenmayer, an adventurer. Complete the summary,
using the word or phrases you hear. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each blank. (20 points)
An American named Erik Weihenmayer standing out as an adventurer without the
(1)………………… explains how he faces those challenges in today’s “Great Big Story”. He said the most
exciting part for him is in fact the movement, not the (2)………………… .
At 4 or 5, he was diagnosed with an (3)………………… disease and he went blind, which he thought
was a (4)………………… as the worst thing had happened, so there’s nothing else to lose. Then there was a
(5)………………… taking blind kids rock climbing, which he thought he wouldn’t have as a blind person.
When he got on to a rock face, he learned to do with his hands the things that (6)…………………
learn to do with their eyes. When clipping a bolt to a carabineer, he felt it to make sure it was correctly
clipped or that carabineer was going to hold him. Unable to look up the rock to see the holds and plan a
route, he could only see as far as his hands, which he thought was (7)………………… exciting. He loved the
sound of emptiness, which was meditative, very much like an (8)………………… .
Being a blind climber is really hard and you just have to embrace that suffering. Blindness is just like
all (9)………………… which you got to use as a catalyst to push you in new directions. It’s the idea of
(10)………………… into good things, and it’s something he thinks we all could use.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 pts)

Part 1. Choose the word or phrase (A, B, C or D) which best completes each sentence(20 pts)
1.I hardly think Mary has got a bicycle herself, …………….?
A. hasn’t she B. doesn’t she C. has she D. does she
2. The hospital owes …………… for the construction of the new wing.
A. the government twenty million dollars B. for the government twenty million dollars
C. to the government twenty million dollars D. twenty millions of dollars to the government
3. The chairman had a recommendation that ……………….
A. each member studied more carefully the problem
B. the problem was more carefully studied
C. with more carefulness the problem could be studied
D. each member study the problem more carefully
4. Those campers are really ………….. They have no idea how to set up a tent.
Page | 2
A. white B. blue C. green D. black
5. I'd like to do something to change the world but whatever I do seems like a drop in the …………...
A. bucket B. garbage C. rubbish D. river
6. How did you know that he was lying?” – “It was just a ________ feeling.”
A. faint B. gut C. slight D. vain
7.Mrs. Jackson was on the point of going out of her apartment when she was _______ short by a phone call
from her husband.
A. caught B. halted C. brought D. stopped
8. People turned out in __________ to watch the parade on the Independence Day.
A. volume B. mass C. force D. bulk
9. It took him a long time to come to __________ with his redundancy
A. rules B. words C. terms D. steps
10. No decision has been taken about the building of the new airport. The authorities are still ______.
A. beating about the bush B. comparing apples and oranges
C. sitting on the fence D. holding all the aces
11. The president was eventually _______ by a military coup.
A. disposed B. despised C. deposed D. dispersed
12. The collapse of the silver market left him financially _______.
A. desolate B. dejected C. destitute D. derelict
13. He _______ so much harm on the nation during his regime that it has never fully recovered.
A. indicted B. inferred C. induced D. inflicted
14. Union leaders called for_______ between themselves and the government.
A. speeches B. elections C. debates D. consultations
15. It was clear from the beginning of the meeting that Jack was _______ on causing trouble.
A. inclined B. predisposed C. bent D. obsessed
16. The Internet has led to the faster and more effective _______ of information.
A. expansion B. coverage C. spread D. dissemination
17. This is the kind of crime that all decent people in society _______.
A. appall B. frown C. deplore D. disallow
18. For many young people, driving cars at high speed seems to _______ a rather fatal fascination.
A. contain B. comprise C. weave D. hold
19. On the news there was some dramatic _______ of the earthquake that had been captured by an amateur
cameraman.
A. shooting B. scenery C. clipping D. footage
20. I did not mean to offend her but she took my comments _______ and now will not talk to me.
A. amiss B. awry C. apart D. aside

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part 2. Fill in the gaps in the following sentences with the correct form of words (10 pts)
1. Alternative medicine can be ______ (LEAD), even off-putting for some people.
2. Few ______ (PRACTICE) of homeopathy, acupuncture and the like regard therapies as complete
substitutes for modern medicine.
3.Juvenile delinquency refers to ____________(SOCIETY) or illegal behavior by children or adolescents
and is considered a serious problem all over the world.
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4. This juvenile _______________(CRIME)is apparent in marginal sectors of urban areas where children
are exposed to violence in their immediate social environment, either as observers or as victims.
5. Because delinquent basic education, if they have any, is poor they have been
______________(MARGIN) from society and destitute of any dignity or self - esteem.
6. These preventive policies should be prioritized over any ____________ (COERCE) measures.
7. Focus on the importance of family should become a priority because it is the primary institution of
_______________(SOCIAL) of youth
8. Scientists have wondered whether the secrets of our thoughts, ________(PERCEIVE) and even
consciousness itself might be hidden in the patterns of our brain waves.
9. A _______ (CLASS) lawsuit was filed Wednesday on behalf of applicants who were denied admission to
several universities affected by the scandal
10. Court documents allege the man at the _______ (CENTER) of the scandal,
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION C. READING (60 PTS)

Part 1. Fill in each blank in the following passage with ONE suitable sentences. Write your answers in the
spaces below. (7 pts)

Travel journalist Richard Madden reports on his first trip with a camera crew.
It was books that first captured my imagination about faraway places. TV travelogues always seemed
the poor relation to the classic written accounts, although of course the pictures were rather better. And then
there was the issue of authenticity. (1)………………These days programme-makers know that the audience
is more sophisticated and the presence of the camera is acknowledged. But can a journey with filming
equipment ever be anything other than a cleverly constructed fiction?
I recently got the chance to find out, when I was asked to present two one-hour programmes for an
adventure travel series. (2)……………..My sole qualification was as a journalist specialising in 'adventure'
travel. However, I was thought to have 'on-screen' potential
The first programme was filmed in Costa Rica. Within 24 hours of my arrival, I realised that this was
going to be very different from my usual 'one man and his laptop' expeditions. For a start, there were five of
us - director, cameraman, sound recordist, producer and presenter. And then there was the small matter of
£100,000 worth of equipment. (3)…………….. In his case, the term 'adventure' meant precisely that 'Made a
film with X,' he would say (normally a famous mountaineer or skier), before describing a death-defying
sequence at the top of a glacier in Alaska or hang-gliding off the Angel Falls in Venezuela. Invariably, these
reminiscences would end with the words: 'Had a great deal of respect for X. Dead now, sadly...'
Part of the brief for the series was to put the presenter in unusual situations and see how he or she
coped. (4)………..I don't have a head for heights and would make a poor rock-climber, so my distress is real
enough as the camera catches me dangling on a rope some 30 metres up, well short of the canopy platform.
Ironically, it was the presence of the camera, looking down on me from above, that gave me the
impetus for the final push to the top. By this time, I'd learnt how 'sequences' were cut together and realised
that one last effort was required. I had to struggle to stay coherent while the camera swooped within a few
millimetres of my face for my reaction. (5)……………..
Learning how to establish a rapport with the camera is vital and it took me a while to think of it as a
friend rather than a judge and jury. (6)………… The brief was simple. It needed to be 30 seconds long, sum
up my feelings, be informative, well-structured and, most important of all, riveting to watch. 'Ready to go in
about five minutes?' he would say breezily.
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 I soon discovered that the effect of the camera on what was going on around us was far less intrusive
than I had imagined. After a first flurry of curiosity, people usually lost interest and let us get on with our
job. (7)…………..Our trip coincided with an 80 per cent solar eclipse, a rare event anywhere in the world.
We were in a village called Santa Elena and captured the whole event on camera. The carnival atmosphere
was infectious and made a welcome addition to our shooting schedule.
( Extracted from “ Succeed in Cambridge English, CAE”)

A. One such sequence was the night we spent in the rainforest canopy near the Rincón de la Vieja National
Park in Guanacaste province.
B. The most intimidating moments were when Peter strolled up to me, saying that the light would only be
right for another 10 minutes, and that he needed a 'link' from one sequence to another.
C. We were also flexible enough to be spontaneous.
D. The project was the brainchild of the production company Trans-Atlantic Films, which wanted the series
presented by writers and adventurers, as well as TV professionals.
E. In the end, it was a magical experience, heightened all the more by the sounds of the forest - a family of
howler monkeys in a nearby tree, amplified through the sound recordist's headphones.
F. The project was the by products of so many efforts made by a staff of qualified leading experts.
G. I soon realised that the director, Peter Macpherson, was a vastly experienced adventure film-maker.
H. All those pretentious theatrical types dying of thirst in the desert, as if we didn't realise there was a
camera crew on hand to cater for their every need.
I. I soon realised I could make use of what the project was aimed at achieving.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Part 2. Fill in each blank in the following passage with ONE suitable word. Number 0 has been done as
an example. Write your answers in the spaces below. (15 pts)
A new study conducted for the World Bank by Murdoch University's Institute for Science and
Technology Policy (ISTP) (0)………… demonstrated that public transport is more efficient than cars. The
study compared the proportion of wealth poured into transport by thirty-seven cities around the world. This
included both the public and (1) …………. costs of building, maintaining and using a transport system.
The study found that the Western Australian city of Perth is a good example of a city with minimal
public transport. As a (2) …………, 17% of its wealth went into transport costs. Some European and Asian
cities, on the other hand, spent as (3) ………. as 5%. Professor Peter Newman, ISTP Director, pointed out
that these more efficient cities were able to put the difference into attracting industry and jobs or creating a
better place to live.
According to Professor Newman, the larger (4) ……… city of Melbourne is a rather unusual city in
this sort of comparison. He describes it (5) …….… two cities: ‘A European city surrounded by a car-
dependent one’. Melbourne's large tram network has made car use in the inner city much lower, but the outer
suburbs have the same car-based structure as most (6) ………. Australian cities. The explosion in demand
for accommodation in the inner suburbs of Melbourne suggests a recent change in many people's preferences
as to (7) ………. they live.
Newman says this is a new, broader way of considering public transport issues. In the past, the case
for public transport has (8) ………….. made on the basis of environmental and social justice considerations

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rather than economics. Newman, however, believes the study demonstrates that ‘the auto-dependent city
model is inefficient and inadequate in economic as (9) ………. .. as environmental terms’.
Bicycle use was not included in the study but Newman noted that the two most ‘bicycle friendly’
cities considered - Amsterdam and Copenhagen - were very efficient, even though their public transport (10)
………….. were ‘reasonable but not special’.
( Extracted from “ Succeed in Cambridge English, CAE”)
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3.Read the following passages and answer the questions ( 10 pts)

You are going to read reviews of four science fiction films. For questions 1 – 10, choose from the reviews
(A – D). The reviews may be chosen more than once.

About which of the films is the following stated?

1. The storyline is largely irrelevant.
2. One of the leading actors gives an outstanding performance.
3. The true nature of a leading character is disputed.
4. Its characters have unremarkable lifestyles.
5. There is fierce debate about what it means.
6. It’s often voted one of the best science fiction movies in history.
7. Key features of the film are scientifically unconvincing.
8. It poses questions that humans have always asked themselves.
9. One scene still shocks viewers today.
10. Some of the dialogue makes little sense.
Great science fiction films
Terry Stevens reviews four great science fiction films.
A. Blade Runner (1982)
Whether you prefer the original, rather theatrical release or the director’s cut of a few years later, Blade
Runner is perennially placed in opinion polls among the top five movies ever made in the genre. Directed by
Ridley Scott, the film revolves around Harrison Ford’s policeman, Rick Deckard, and his hunt for four
cloned humans, known as replicants, in an authoritarian city state sometime in the future. Replicants have
been declared illegal and Deckard is a ‘blade runner’, a specialist in exterminating them. Adding to the
interest is the issue of whether Deckard himself is a replicant. This is never clearly resolved in the film, and
fans continue to disagree over this point. When it first came out, the reception was muted, but it has grown in
popularity and critics now lavish praise on it. ‘It was groundbreaking in some ways,’ says one prominent
American writer on film, ‘but what it’s really about is something we’ve been interested in since the
beginning of history: What is it to be human? That’s what makes it truly great.’
B. 001: A Space Odyssey (1968)
One of the most controversial films of any genre, 2001: A Space Odyssey came from a collaboration
between the director, Stanley Kubrick, and the science fiction writer, Arthur C Clarke. It’s not an easy film to
sum up. The plot is mostly beside the point. It involves a government cover-up of something called the
Monolith, and a malfunctioning computer’s efforts to preserve the integrity of a space mission. Almost
independently of this are separate strands dealing with human evolution from prehistoric times to the space
age. Many have attempted to try and pin down this work with explanations about its deeper significance and
purpose, and to this day there are heated exchanges about this. What stays in the mind, though, is the impact
the film has on the senses. It has a soundtrack of often dissonant classical music played so loud that it often
interferes with what characters say. It is its astonishing visual style, however, that has probably had more
lasting influence than anything else about it.
C. Star Wars (1977)
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It is almost impossible to argue against the inclusion of Star Wars or its rather darker sequel Empire Strikes
Back, in any list of top science fiction movies. Essentially westerns set in space, they cover the universal
themes of good versus evil, while making the leading actors Harrison Ford, Mark Hamill and Carrie Fisher
deliver lines of mind-boggling absurdity on a regular basis. The epic saga revolves around a battle between
an authoritarian Empire led by the Emperor and his part-human, partmachine henchman Darth Vader on one
side, and a small group of rebels on the other. The emphasis, however, is not on exploring deeper problems
of the human condition. Nor, unlike some film-makers, do the creators of Star Wars trouble themselves with
rooting their creations in the normal laws of physics; the force-wielding Jedi fight with theoretically
impossible light sabers and light-speed travel takes place in an implausible ‘hyperspace’. But the first two
Star Wars films have been the supreme blockbusters and paved the way in creating franchises for toys,
games and replicas that no major science fiction film can do without nowadays.
D. Alien (1979)
Alien is often remembered for the moment when an alien creature bursts out through the chest of one of the
crew members on the spaceship. This iconic moment has the power to unnerve even the most cynical of
contemporary audiences. The film has a lot more to it than that however. It is essentially an expertly made
horror story set on board a spaceship. The alien life form which invades the spaceship is very sinister but it is
made all the more so by the contrast with the portrayal of the ship’s crew. They are a bunch of very average
people who sit around eating pizza, playing cards and getting bored. This contrast between the crew’s very
mundane existence and the sheer awfulness of the alien is a very powerful one. Very striking too is
Sigourney Weaver’s portrayal of the reluctant hero Ellen Ripley. She is a compelling screen presence in this
movie and it established her as one of the top film actresses of her time.
(Extracted from “Cambridge English, CPE”)
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4. Choose the correct heading for each paragraph (1-5) from the list of headings below (i-x). There
are more headings than paragraphs so you will not use all of them.
Paragraphs B and G have been done for you as examples. ( 10 pts)

List of Headings
i. Disobeying FAA regulations
ii. Aviation disaster prompts action
iii. Two coincidental developments
iv. Setting altitude zones
v. An oversimplified view
vi. Controlling pilots’ licences
vii. Defining airspace categories
viii. Setting rules to weather conditions
ix. Taking off safely
x. First steps towards ATC
Example 1: Answer
Paragraph B x
1. Paragraph A
2. Paragraph C
3. Paragraph D
4. Paragraph E
5. Paragraph F
Example 2: Answer
Paragraph G vii

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 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL IN THE USA
A. An accident that occurred in the skies over the Grand Canyon in 1956 resulted in the establishment of the
Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) to regulate and oversee the operation of aircraft in the skies over the
United States, which were becoming quite congested. The resulting structure of air traffic control has greatly
increased the safety of flight in the United States, and similar air traffic control procedures are also in place
over much of the rest of the world.
B. Rudimentary air traffic control (ATC) existed well before the Grand Canyon disaster. As early as the
1920s, the earliest air traffic controllers manually guided aircraft in the vicinity of the airports, using lights
and flags, white beacons and flashing lights were placed along cross-country routes to establish the earliest
airways. However, this purely visual system was useless in bad weather, and, by the 1930s, radio
communication was coming into use for ATC. The first region to have something approximating today’s
ATC was New York City, with other major metropolitan areas following soon after.
C. In the 1940s, ATC centres could and did take advantage of the newly developed radar and improved radio
communication brought about by the Second World War, but the system remained rudimentary. It was only
after the creation of the FAA that full-scale regulation of America’s airspace took place, and this was
fortuitous, for the advent of the jet engine suddenly resulted in a large number of very fast planes, reducing
pilots’ margin of error and practically demanding some set of rules to keep everyone well separated and
operating safely in the air.
D. Many people think that ATC consists of a row of controllers sitting in front of their radar screens at the
nation’s airports, telling arriving and departing traffic what to do. This is a very incomplete part of the
picture. The FAA realised that the airspace over the United States would at any time have many different
kinds of planes, flying for many different purposes, in a variety of weather conditions, and the same kind of
structure was needed to accommodate all of them.
E. To meet this challenge, the following elements were put into effect. First, ATC extends over virtually the
entire United States. In general, from 365m above the ground and higher, the entire country is blanketed by
controlled airspace. In certain areas, mainly near airports, controlled airspace extends down to 215m around
the ground, and, in the immediate vicinity of an airport, all the way down to the surface. Controlled airspace
is that airspace in which FAA regulations apply. Elsewhere, in uncontrolled airspace, pilots are bound by
fewer regulations. In this way, the recreational pilot who simply wishes to go flying for a while without all
the restrictions imposed by the FAA has only to stay in uncontrolled airspace, below 365m, while the pilot
who does want the protection afforded by ATC can easily enter the controlled airspace.
F. The FAA then recognized two types of operating environments. In good meteorological conditions, flying
would be permitted under Visual Flight Rules (VFR), which suggests a strong reliance on visual cues to
maintain an acceptable level of safety. Poor visibility necessitated a set of Instrumental Flight Rules (IFR),
under which the pilot relied on altitude and navigational information provided by the plane’s instrument
panel to fly safely. On a clear day, a pilot in controlled airspace can choose a VFR or IFR flight plan, and the
FAA regulations were devised in a way which accommodates both VFR and IFR operations in the same
airspace. However, a pilot can only choose to fly IFR if they possess an instrument rating which is above and
beyond the basic pilot’s license that must also be held.
G. Controlled airspace is divided into several different types, designated by letters of the alphabet.
Uncontrolled airspace is designated Class F, while controlled airspace below 5,490m is designated Class A.
The reason for the division of Class E and Class A airspace is where one finds general aviation aircraft (few
of which can climb above 5,490m anyway), and commercial turboprop aircraft. Above 5,490m is the realm
of the heavy jets, since jet engines operate more efficiently at higher altitudes. The difference between Class
E and A airspace is that in Class A, all operations are IFR, and pilots must be instrument-rated, that is,
skilled and licensed in aircraft instrumentation. This is because ATC control of the entire space is essential.
Three other types of airspace, Classes D, C and B, govern the vicinity of airports. These correspond roughly
to small municipal, medium-sized metropolitan and major metropolitan airports respectively, and encompass
an increasingly rigorous set of regulations. For example, all a VFR pilot has to do to enter Class C airspace is
establish two-way radio contact with ATC. No explicit permission from ATC to enter is needed, although the
pilot must continue to obey all regulations governing VFR flight. To enter Class B airspace, such as on
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approach to a major metropolitan airport, an explicit ATC clearance is required. The private pilot who
cruises without permission into this airspace risks losing their license.
(Extracted from “Expert on Cambridge IELTS 3”)
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

Task 2. Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in the reading passage?
Write in the corresponding numbered boxes (3 pts)
YES (Y) if the statement agrees with the information given in the passage
NO (N) if the statement contradicts the information given in the passage
NO INFORMATION (NI) if there is no information on this in the passage
1. The FAA was created as a result of the introduction of the jet engine.
2. Beacons and flashing lights are still used by ATC today.
3. Some improvements were made in radio communication during World War II.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3.

Part 5: Read the following text and then choose from the list A - K the best phrase given below to fill each
of the spaces. Write one letter (A - K) in the spaces below. Each correct phrase may only be used once.
(1,0 m )
It is not easy to be systematic and objective about language study. Popular linguistic debate regularly
deteriorates into invective and polemic. Language belongs to everyone, so most people feel they have a right
to hold an opinion about it. And when opinions differ, emotions can run high. Arguments (1)_____ over
major policies of linguistic education.
Language, moreover, is a very public behavior, so it is easy for different usages to be noted and
criticized. No part of society or social behavior is exempt: linguistic factors (2)_____ personality,
intelligence, social status, educational standards, job attitude, and many other areas of identity and social
survival. As a result, it is easy to hurt, and to be hurt, when language use is unfeelingly attacked.
In its most general sense, prescriptivism is the view that one variety of language has an inherently higher
value than others, and that this (3)_____. The variety which is favoured, in this account, is usually a version
of the ‘standard’ written language, especially as encountered in literature, or in the formal spoken language
which most closely reflects this style. The view is pronounced especially in relation to grammar and
vocabulary, and frequently with reference to pronunciation. Adherents to this variety (4)_____; deviations
from it are said to be ‘incorrect’.
All the main languages (5)_____, especially in the 18th century approach to the writing of grammar and
dictionaries. The aims of these early grammarians were three fold: (i) they wanted to codify the principles of
their languages, to show that there was a system beneath the apparent chaos of usage, (ii) they wanted a
means of settling disputes over usage, and (iii) they wanted to point out what they felt to be common errors,
in order to ‘improve’ the language. The authoritarian nature of the approach (6)_____. Some usages are
‘prescribed’, to be learnt and followed accurately; others are ‘proscribed’, to be avoided. In this early period,
there were no half-measures: usage was either right or wrong, and it was the task of the grammarian not
simply to record alternatives, but to pronounce judgement upon them.
These attitudes are still with us, and they motivate a widespread concern that linguistic standards should be
maintained. Nevertheless, there is an alternative point of view that (7)_____ the facts of linguistic usage. This
approach is summarized in the statement that it is the task of the grammarian to describe, not prescribe_ to
record the facts of linguistic diversity, and not to attempt the impossible tasks of evaluating language variation
or halting language change. In the second half of the 18th century, we already find advocates of this view, such
as Joseph Priesley, whose Rudiments of English Grammar (1976) insists that ‘the custom of speaking is the

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original and only just standard of any language’. Linguistic issues, it is argued, (8)_____. And this view has
become the tenet of the modern linguistic approach to grammatical analysis.
In our own time, the opposition between ‘descriptivists’ and ‘prescriptivists’ has often become extreme,
with both sides painting unreal pictures of the other. Descriptive grammarians (9)_____ care about standards,
because of the way they see all forms of usage as equally valid. Prescriptive grammarians have been
presented as bind adherents to a historical tradition. The opposition (10)_____ in quasi-political terms of
radical liberalism vs elitist conservatism.
( Extracted from “15 Days’ Practice for IELTS Reading”)

A. cannot be solved by logic and legislation

B. is best characterized by its reliance on ‘rules’ on grammar
C. is concerned less with standards than with
D. has even been presented
E. have been studied prescriptively
F. can start as easily over minor points of usage as
G. have been presented as people who do not
H. ought to be imposed on the whole of the speech community
I. are said to speak or write ‘correctly’
K. influence how we judge
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION D. WRITING (60 points)

Part 1. Read the following passage and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary should be
about 120 words long. (15 points)
Excessive demands on young people
Being able to multitask is hailed by most people as a welcome skill, but not according to a recent
study which claims that young people between the ages of eight and eighteen of the so-called “Generation
M” are spending a considerable amount of their time in fruitless efforts as they multitask. It argues that, in
fact, these young people are frittering away as much as half of their time again as they would if they
performed the very same tasks one after the other.
Some young people are juggling an ever larger number of electronic devices as they study. At the
same time that they are working, young adults are also surfing on the Internet, or sending out emails to their
friends, and/or answering the telephone and listening to music on their iPods or on another computer. As
some new device comes along it too is added to the list rather than replacing one of the existing devices.
Other research has indicated that this multitasking is even affecting the way families themselves
function as young people are too wrapped up in their own isolated worlds to interact with the other people
around them. They can no longer greet family members when they enter the house nor can they eat at the
family table.
All this electronic wizardry is supposedly also seriously affecting young people’s performance at
university and in the workplace. When asked about their perception of the impact of modern gadgets on their
performance of tasks, the overwhelming majority of young people gave a favorable response.

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 The response from the academic and business worlds was not quite as positive. The former feel that
multitasking with electronic gadgets by children affects later development of study skills, resulting in a
decline in the quality of writing, for example, because of the lack of concentration on task completion. They
feel that many undergraduates now urgently need remedial help with study skills. Similarly, employers feel
that young people entering the workforce need to be taught all over again, as they have become deskilled.
While all this may be true, it must be borne in mind that more and more is expected of young people
nowadays; in fact, too much. Praise rather than criticism is due in respect of the way today’s youth are able
to cope despite what the older generation throw at them.
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Part 2. The pie chart below shows the main reasons why agricultural land becomes less productive. The
table shows how these causes affected three regions of the world during the 1990s. (15 points)

Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons
where relevant.

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Part 3.Write an essay of about 350 words to express your opinion on the following issue (30 points)
Schools are no longer necessary because children can get so much information available through the
Internet, and they can study just as well at home.
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What is your own opinion?
Give reasons for your answer, and include any relevant examples from your knowledge or experience. You
may continue your writing on the back page if you need more space.
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THE END

Gv ra đề: Chế Thị Hồng Thoa (0935002124) +Tống Mỹ Linh( 0987261135)

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 SỞ GIÁO DỤC & ĐÀO TẠO QUẢNG TRỊ ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT KỲ THI DHBB
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN LÊ QUÝ ĐÔN NĂM HỌC 2021-2022
TIẾNG ANH 11

LISTENING (50pts)
Part I: You will hear a discussion in which two historians, Matt Thomas and Sue Wilkins, talk
about a book they have written. For questions 1 - 5, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which
fits best according to what you hear.
1. What does Sue say about digging on the Thames foreshore?
A Until recently amateur archaeologists weren't allowed to do it.
B Official authorisation is required to do it.
C You must have a member of a certain society with you to do it.
D The 'Thames Mudlarks' can give you a permit to do it.
2. Matt says that, in the past, poverty-stricken children ______________.
A might live on the Thames foreshore.
B used to try and sell things to people in boats on the river.
C would hunt certain types of bird near the river banks.
D looked for things in the mud at certain times of day.
3. How did Sue feel about the Thames when she visited it as a girl?
A curious about why her parents took her there
B excited about the chance to search for treasure
C repulsed by its appearance
D fascinated by the idea that she might work there one day.
4. Matt is intrigued by __________________.
A what can be learnt from the objects they find.
B the transport people used in the Middle Ages.
C how London's inhabitants used to dispose of their rubbish.
D how much the Thames has changed over the centuries.
5. What makes the discovery of certain small items very important?
A They made Matt rethink his views of life in the past.
B. They reveal something about family relationships.
C They can teach us how mud can be used to preserve things.
D They confirm a widely held theory.
Part II: Listen to a lecture and decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false
(F)
6. There are very few facts known about how language is learnt.
7. Subliminal language learning can only take place overnight.
8. You do not need to listen closely to the words on the tape.
9. Reading a foreign newspaper is never a waste of time.
10 The author thinks that learning a new language in six weeks is possible.
Part III: You will hear two teachers talking about the work experience program for their
students answer the following questions with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each
question.
11. What are the students in the program studying?
______________________________________________
12. What is the companies now worried about?
______________________________
13. What do these companies demand in case of accidents?
________________________________________
1
14. Besides paying for the program, what will the university also continue to do?
_________________________________________
15. How was the university’s strategy of a completion bonus last year?
_________________________________________

Part IV: Listen to a piece of news and complete the sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS taken from the recording for each answer in the space provided.
8 million metric tons of plastic trash enters the sea from land every year, the equivalent of five
plastic bags filled with trash for every 16___________________________ in the world. Across our
ocean, plastic trash flows into circulation, and concentrates in 17________________________ in
the midst of global currents.
Anyone can make plastic and sell it anywhere in the world; there's no
18_______________________ there's no barriers.
We need to effectively rethink the entire system to find solution to the 19_____________________.
That means, plastic can be recovered and fed back into the economy as a
20_____________________ .
The 21______________________ of the new plastics economy is to design an economy without
plastic waste.
However, marine pollution comes in many forms. Industrial, agricultural and urban waste also
sweep into the sea, fueling 22__________________ that robbed marine ecosystems of the oxygen
they need to survive.
Nutrient pollution can be managed through change in major contributing systems like agriculture.
So all of us have to work together to solve. Soil health is critical for water quality.
We have to try to improve organic matter. The more organic matter you have in the soil, the better
the soil
can hold on to 23_________________________ and nitrogen. Organic matter keeps it from
24_________________________ of the soil.
What all farmers want is to learn different 25_____________________ that allow you to do it
effectively that becomes a key.

II. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (30pts)

Part I. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 pts)
1. _________ caused certain diseases such as malaria was not known until the early 20th century.
A. That mosquitoes B. Mosquitoes
C. What mosquitoes D. Mosquitoes which
2. _______________that we had seen her before she died.
A. Should B. Would C. Will D. May
3. _______________empty, we decided to put the new freezer in there.
A. Being the spare room C. The spare room being
B. The spare room is D. The spare room was
4. I know that he has tried hard; _______________, his work is just not good enough.
A. be that as it may C. therefore
B. otherwise D. come what may
5. The Opposition moved that ____________to the Bill.
A. an amendment was made C. an amendment be made
B. they made an amendment D. an amendment is made
6. By an unfortunate ___________, the tour company had omitted John’s name from their list.
A. neglect B. disregard C. insult D. oversight
7. It is not fair the way my sister is always ____________ for special treatments.
A. singled out B. picked off C. taken on D. laid aside
2
8. When I started to study archaeology, I knew _______ no Latin, but within a year I could read it
rather well.
A. barely B. entirely C. scarcely D. virtually
9. Our teacher is wonderful- she can __________ the most difficult subject really clearly.
A. put out B. put over C. put on D. put forward
10. In spite of working their fingers to the __________, all the staff staff were made redundant.
A. nail B. edge C. flesh D. bone
11. The country around here is so ____________ that you can only get around in a jeep.
A. jagged B. weathered C. severe D. rugged
12. She refuses to resign, intending to weather the ___________.
A. flood B. drought C. storm D. typhoon
13. The bridge-building project had problems with funding right from the word _________.
A. go B. move C. begin D. start
14. He tried to ____________ himself from the more extreme members of the party.
A. distance B. refrain C. detract D. extract
15. They have not been able to ___________ the facts, so no one knows what really happened.
A. settle B. abscond C. attain D. ascertain
16. His self-confidence has been seriously ___________ by the bad reviews of his book.
A. annihilated B. fractured C. dented D. destroyed
17. He ____________ insanity to avoid being punished for the crime.
A. fabricated B. pretended C. surmised D. pleaded
18. There has been a(n) __________ of thefts in the town recently.
A. rate B. spate C. influx D. tide
19. I’m very tired, what ____________ travelling all day yesterday and having a disturbed night.
A. with B. of C. beyond D. about
20. His estate continues to keep lawyers ___________ employed even seven years after his death.
A. fruitfully B. gainfully C. productively D. advantageously

Part II. Use the word given in capitals to form a word that fits in the space. Write your answers in
the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10pts)
1. The (INVEST) ______________ of the new president will take place this evening.
2. The insulating material should be (PERMEATE) ______________ to water vapour.
3. The actors struggled (MAN) ____________ with some of the worst lines of dialogue ever
written.
4. It would have been (HONOUR) _____________ of her not to keep her promise.
5. I think I must have known (CONSCIOUS) ___________ that something was going on between
them.
6. The government is reported to be concerned about the (SURGE) __________ in the South.
7. Both parties are unhappy about the (ADROIT) __________ handling of the whole affair.
8. There is no (SAY) ___________ the technical brilliance of his performance.
9. What I need is a book that will (MYSTERY) ____________ the workings of a car engine for
me.
10. Her dress was tightly belted, (ACCENT) ___________ the slimness of her waist.

READING (60pts)
Part I: In the passage below, seven paragraphs have been removed. Read the passage and choose
from paragraphs A-H the one which fits each gap. There is ONE extra paragraph which you do
not need to use. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (7pts)
The man who proved that everyone is good at maths
By travelling all the way to Madagascar, the French academic Marc Chemillier has shown that
humans have remarkable innate skills with numbers.
3
 Alex Duval Smith reports.

Maths is simple. But to discover this requires travelling to the ends of the earth where an illiterate,
chain-smoking fortune teller lives in a room with a double bed and a beehive.
As the sun rises over the hut belonging to Raoke, a 70-year-old witch doctor, a highly pitched din
heralds bee rush hour. The insects he keeps shuttle madly in and out through the window.
1. __________
In his book, Les Mathématiques Naturelles, the director of studies at EHESS (School for Advanced
Studies in Social Sciences) argues that mathematics is not only simple, it is "rooted in human,
sensorial intuition". And he believes that Madagascar's population, which remains relatively
untouched by outside influences, can help him to prove this.
2. ___________
To make his point, Mr Chemillier chose to charge up his laptop computer, leave Paris and do the
rounds of fortune tellers on the Indian Ocean island because its uninfluenced natural biodiversity also
extends to its human population. Divinatory geomancy – reading random patterns, or sikidy to use
the local word – is what Raoke does, when not smoking cigarettes rolled with paper from a school
exercise book.
3. ___________
Raoke pours a random number of seeds on to his mat, then picks them up singly or in twos and lays
them in a grid from right to left. Each horizontal gridline has a name – son, livestock, woman or
enemy – and each vertical one has a name, too: chief, zebu (cattle), brother and earth. Whether one
or two seeds lie at the intersection of two gridlines determines the subject's fortune and informs Raoke
as to the cure required, and its price. From the selection of wood pieces on his table, Raoke can mix
concoctions to cure ailments, banish evil spirits and restore friendships.
4. ___________
Given the thousands of plant species in Madagascar that are still undiscovered by mainstream
medicine, it is entirely possible that Raoke holds the key to several miracle cures. But Mr Chemillier
is not interested in the pharmacopaeic aspect of the fortune teller's work.
5. ___________
The way in which he poses questions over the seeds requires the same faculties for mental speculation
as might be displayed by a winner of the Fields Medal, which is the top award any mathematician can
aspire to, said Mr Chemillier.
6. ___________
Raoke says God shows him how to position the seeds. He does not understand why "Monsieur Marc",
and now this other visiting white person, keeps asking him why he lays the seeds in a certain way.
Yet it is clear from a stack of grimy copybooks he keeps under his bed that if indeed God is a
mathematician dictating to Raoke, then the Almighty keeps him busy. When not consulting clients,
the diminutive fortune teller spends hours with his seeds, laying them in different formations and
copying the dots down in pencil. Those grids have value and Raoke sells them to other fortune tellers.
7. ___________
Raoke cannot read but he recognises the word "danger", written in red at the start of the government
health warning. He drops the packet to the floor in shock and disgust

A. Indeed, I can see it is the lack of memory and computer aids that helps keep Raoke’s mind sharp.
In the developed world people are over-reliant on calculators, dictionaries and documents. And
also the developed world is wrong to ignore the basic human connection with numbers that goes
back to using the fingers on your hands and relating them to the environment around you.
B. This bizarre setting, near nowhere in the harsh cactus savannah of southern Madagascar, is where
a leading French academic, Marc Chemillier, has achieved an extraordinary pairing of modern
science and illiterate intuition.

4
 C. A basic session with the seeds costs 10,000 ariary (£3), then a price is discussed for the cure. It
seems there is nothing Raoke cannot achieve for the top price of one or two zebus – Malagasy
beef cattle that cost about £300 each – though some remedies are available for the price of a
sheep. "A white man came from Réunion with a stomach ailment that the hospitals in France
could not cure. I gave him a powder to drink in a liquid. He vomited and then he was cured,"
said Raoke.
D. "Raoke is an expert in a reflexive view of maths of which we have lost sight in the West," says
Mr Chemillier. "Even armed with my computer program, I do not fully comprehend Raoke's
capacities for mental arithmetic. He can produce 65,536 grids with his seeds – I have them all in
my computer now – but we still need to do more work to understand his mental capacity for
obtaining the combinations of single seeds and pairs."
E. Mr Chemillier argues that children should be encouraged to do maths before they learn to read
and write. "There is a strong link between counting and the number of fingers on our hands.
Maths becomes complicated only when you abandon basic measures in nature, like the foot or
the inch, or even the acre, which is the area that two bulls can plough in a day."
F. Seeing that pages of the copybooks are being sacrificed to his roll-ups, I offer Raoke a packet of
cigarette papers which he accepts with delight, having never seen them before. He buys his
tobacco leaf in long plaits from the market. So I offer him a green plastic pouch of Golden
Virginia.
G. With a low table covered in pieces of wood – each of which has a particular medicinal virtue –
Raoke sits on his straw mat and chants as he runs his fingers through a bag of shiny, dark brown
tree seeds. "There were about 600 seeds in the bag to begin with but I have lost a few," he says.
"They come from the fane tree and were selected for me many years ago. The fane from the
valley of Tsivoanino produces some seeds that lie and others that tell the truth so it is very
important to test each seed. I paid a specialist to do that," said the father of six.
H. Over the years, Mr Chemillier has earned respect from Raoke and other Malagasy fortune tellers.
"Initially they thought France had sent me to steal their work in an attempt to become the world's
most powerful fortune teller. But once I was able to share grids with them that had been through
my computer program, we established a relationship of trust," says Mr Chemillier.
(Adapted from: https://www.independent.co.uk/news/world/africa)

Part II: Read the passage and fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable
word. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10 pts)
The bubonic plague, also known as the Black Death, swept through Europe between 1347 and 1351,
and remained endemic in England until 1666. Carried by the fleas (1) _________ lived on the black
rat, the plague reached Western Europe from the Crimea, possibly on Genoese merchant ships, and
spread north from the Mediterranean during 1348. Everywhere the death rate was high and, (2)
_________ still, the plague recurred regularly. The English (3) _________ fell from nearly four
million in 1348 to just over two million in 1400.
Every feature of decline in the late Middle Ages, from deserted villages to a slump in monastic
vocation, has since been attributed (4) ________ the Black Death. But this decline was, in (5)
__________, more the consequence of growing malnutrition, which became more and more
widespread as the uncontrolled population growth of the 13th century pushed thousands of cultivators
into marginal (6) __________. The Black Death was the crisis. It grimly restored the balance between
men and their food (7) _________; and, short of an agrarian revolution, there was nothing else that
could.
The Black Death was ultimately the catalyst in another process- the commutation of labor service.
The movement to change the labour system (8) ___________ a feudal one (wherein labourers were
required to work in return for goods and protection) to a monetary one was already in progress. (9)
___________, landowners obviously opposed the monetary system, because they had to pay for
labour. But the attempts by employers to withhold wages and to restore labour service everywhere
5
were bound to fail, since the situation now favoured the employees. Ultimately, the employers had to
(10) __________ way, and the commutation movement rapidly accelerated.
(Adapted from: ECPE- Tests for the Michigan Proficiency)

Part III: Read the text and choose the answer A, B, C or D which you think fits best according
to the text. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10pts)
GALAXIES
Astronomers classify galaxies into three major categories.
Spiral Galaxies
Like the Milky Way, other spiral galaxies also have a thin disk extending outward from a
central bulge. The bulge itself merges smoothly into a halo that can extend to a radius of over 100,000
light-years. Together, the bulge and halo of a spiral galaxy make up its spheroidal component, so
named because of its rounded shape. Although no clear boundary divides the pieces of the spheroidal
component, astronomers usually consider stars within 10,000 light-years of the center to be members
of the bulge and those outside this radius to be members of the halo.
The disk component of a spiral galaxy slices directly through the halo and bulge. The disk of
a large spiral galaxy like the Milky Way can extend 50,000 light-years or more from the center. The
disks of all spiral galaxies contain an interstellar medium of gas and dust, but the amounts and
proportions of the interstellar medium in molecular, atomic, and ionized forms differ from one spiral
galaxy to the next. Spiral galaxies with large bulges generally have less interstella gas and dust
than those with small bulges.
Not all galaxies with disks are standard spiral galaxies. Some spiral galaxies appear to have a
straight bar of stars cutting across the center, with spiral arms curling away from the ends of the bar.
Such galaxies are known as barred spiral galaxies.
Other galaxies have disks but do not appear to have spiral arms. These are called lenticular
galaxies because they look lens-shaped when seen edge-on (lenticular means “lens-shaped”).
Although they look like spiral galaxies without arms, lenticular galaxies might more appropriately be
considered an intermediate class between spirals and ellipticals because they tend to have less cool
gas than normal spirals, but more than ellipticals.
Among large galaxies in the universe, most (75% to 85%) are spiral or lenticular. (Spiral and
lenticular galaxies are much rarer among small galaxies.) Spiral galaxies are often found in loose
collections of several galaxies, called groups, that extend over a few million light-years. Our Local
Group is one example, with two large spirals: the Milky Way and the Great Galaxy in Andromeda,
Lenticular galaxies are particularly common in clusters of galaxies, which can contain hundreds and
sometimes thousands of galaxies, extending over more than 10 million light-years.
Elliptical Galaxies
The major difference between elliptical and spiral galaxies is that ellipticals lack a significant
disk component. Thus, an elliptical galaxy has only a spheroidal component and looks much like the
bulge and halo of a spiral galaxy. (In fact, elliptical galaxies are sometimes called spheroidal
galaxies). Most of the interstellar medium in large elliptical galaxies consists of low-density, hot x-
ray, emitting gas like the gas in bubbles and superbubbles in the Milky Way. Elliptical galaxies
usually contain very little dust or cool gas, although they are not completely devoid of either. Some
have relatively small and cold gaseous disks rotating at their centers; these disks might be the
remnants of a collision with a spiral galaxy.
Elliptical galaxies appear to be more social than spiral galaxies: They are much more common
in clusters of galaxies than outside clusters. [A] Elliptical galaxies make up about half the large
galaxies in the central regions of clusters, while they represent only a small minority (about 15%) of
the large galaxies found outside clusters. [B] However, ellipticals are more common among small
galaxies. [C] Particularly small elliptical galaxies with less than a billion stars, called dwarf elliptical
galaxies, are often found near larger spiral galaxies. At least 10 dwarf elliptical galaxies belong to the
Local Group. [D]
6
Irregular Galaxies
A small percentage of the large galaxies we see nearby fall into neither of the two major
categories. This irregular class of galaxies is a miscellaneous class, encompassing small galaxies such
as the Magellanic Clouds and “peculiar” galaxies that appear to be in disarray. These blobby star
systems are usually white and dusty, like the disks of spirals. Telescopic observations probing deep
into the universe show that distant galaxies are more likely to be irregular in shape than those nearby.
Because the light of more distant galaxies was emitted longer ago in the past. these observations tell
us that irregular galaxies were more common when the universe was younger.
(Adapted from: TOEFL by i20fever Yathapu Consulting Pvt Ltd- Issuu)
1. What does this passage mainly discuss?
A. The major components of spiral galaxies
B. The most important types of galaxies
C. The Milky Way and the Andromeda galaxies
D. Measuring galaxies in light-years
2. What distinguishes a spiral galaxy from an elliptical galaxy?
A. Elliptical galaxies have a much larger halo.
B. Elliptical galaxies have more dust and cool gas.
C. Spiral galaxies are more irregularly shaped.
D. Spiral galaxies have a more prominent disk.
3. The word devoid in the passage is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. hidden B. empty C. dense D. bright
4. The word remmants in the passage is closest in meaning to____________.
A. remains B. origin C. damage D. evidence
5. The word either in the passage refers to ____________.
A. bubbles or superbubbles C. dust or cool gas
B. elliptical or spheroidal galaxies D. small or cold disks
6. According to paragraph 5, lenticular galaxies _____________.
A. look like spiral galaxies without arms
B. consist of a bulge and a halo ina spiral galaxy
C. appear to have a bar of stars across the center
D. are in the shape of a white spiral disk
7. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the highlighted statement in the
passage? The other choices change the meaning or leave out important information.
A. Spiral galaxies with small bulges have more gas and dust.
B. Spiral galaxies have more gas and dust in their bulges.
C. There is less gas and dust in a spiral galaxy with a small bulge.
D. Gas and dust collect in the bulges of the large spiral galaxies.
8. Irregular galaxies are described as all of the following EXCEPT ___________.
A. very white and dusty like the Magellanic Clouds
B. older than most of the other types of galaxies
C. similar to the disks of a spiral galaxy
D. an intermediate class between spirals and ellipticals
9. It can be inferred from the passage that ____________.
A. astronomers do not agree on the classifications of gaxalies
B. galaxies always collect together in clusters
C. the Milky Way is a typical spiral galaxy
D. most halos extend to about 100,000 light-years
10. Which of the options ([A] – [D]) indicates where the following sentence can be added to the
passage?
“A good example of a dwarf elliptical galaxy is Leo I in the Local Group.”
A. [A] B. [B] C. [C] D. [D]
7
Part IV: Read the following passage and do the tasks that follow. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided. (13pts)
Party Labels in Mid-Eighteenth Century England
A. Until the late 1950s the Whig interpretation of English history in the eighteenth century prevailed.
This was successfully challenged by Lewis Namier, who proposed, based on an analysis of the voting
records of MPs from the 1760 intake following the accession to the throne of George III, that the
accepted Whig/Tory division of politics did not hold. He believed that the political life of the period
could be explained without these party labels, and that it was more accurate to characterise political
division in terms of the Court versus Country.
B. An attempt was then made to use the same methodology to determine whether the same held for
early eighteenth century politics. To Namier's chagrin this proved that at the end of Queen Anne's
reign in 1714 voting in parliament was certainly based on party interest, and that Toryism and
Whiggism were distinct and opposed political philosophies. Clearly, something momentous had
occurred between 1714 and 1760 to apparently wipe out party ideology. The Namierite explanation
is that the end of the Stuart dynasty on the death of Queen Anne and the beginning of the Hanoverian
with the accession of George I radically altered the political climate.
C. The accession of George I to the throne in 1715 was not universally popular. He was German,
spoke little English, and was only accepted because he promised to maintain the Anglican religion.
Furthermore, for those Tory members of government under Anne, he was nemesis, for his
enthronement finally broke the hereditary principle central to Tory philosophy, confirming the right
of parliament to depose or select a monarch. Moreover, he was aware that leading Tories had been in
constant communication with the Stuart court in exile, hoping to return the banished King James II.
As a result, all Tories were expelled from government, some being forced to escape to France to avoid
execution for treason.
D. The failure of the subsequent Jacobite rebellion of 1715, where certain Tory magnates tried to
replace George with his cousin James, a Stuart, albeit a Catholic, was used by the Whig administration
to identify the word "Tory" with treason. This was compounded by the Septennial Act of 1716,
limiting elections to once every seven years, which further entrenched the Whig's power base at the
heart of government focussed around the crown. With the eradication of one of the fundamental tenets
of their philosophy, alongside the systematic replacement of all Tory positions by Whig counterparts,
Tory opposition was effectively annihilated. There was, however, a grouping of Whigs in parliament
who were not part of the government.
E. The MPs now generally referred to as the "Independent Whigs" inherently distrusted the power of
the administration, dominated as it was by those called "Court Whigs". The Independent Whig was
almost invariably a country gentleman, and thus resisted the growth in power of those whose wealth
was being made on the embryonic stock market. For them the permanency of land meant patriotism,
a direct interest in one's nation, whilst shares, easily transferable, could not be trusted. They saw their
role as a check on the administration, a permanent guard against political corruption, the last line of
defence of the mixed constitution of monarchy, aristocracy, and democracy. The reaction against the
growing mercantile class was shared by the Tories, also generally landed country gentlemen. It is thus
Namier's contention, and that of those who follow his work, that by the 1730s the Tories and the
Independent Whigs had refused to form a Country opposition to the Court administration, thus
explaining why voting records in 1760 do not follow standard party lines.
F. It must be recognised that this view is not universally espoused. Revisionist historians such as
Linda Colley dispute that the Tory party was destroyed during this period, and assert the continuation
of the Tories as a discrete and persistent group in opposition, allied to the Independent Whigs but
separate. Colley's thesis is persuasive, as it is clear that some, at least, regarded themselves as Tories
rather than Whigs. She is not so successful in proving the persistence either of party organisation
beyond family connection, or of ideology, beyond tradition. Furthermore, while the terms "Tory" and
"Whig" were used frequently in the political press, it was a device of the administration rather than
8
the opposition. As Harris notes in his analysis of the "Patriot" press of the 1740s, there is hardly any
discernible difference between Tory and Whig opposition pamphlets, both preferring to describe
themselves as the "Country Interest", and attacking "the Court".
(Adapted from: IELTS Reading Tests)
Questions 1-6
Choose the most suitable heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below. Write the
appropriate numbers (i-x) in boxes 1-6.
There are more headings than paragraphs, so you will not use all of them.
1. Paragraph A ________
2. Paragraph B ________
3. Paragraph C ________
4. Paragraph D ________
5. Paragraph E ________
6. Paragraph F ________

List of headings
i. The Whig/Tory division discounted
ii. Maintaining the Anglican religion
iii. The fusion theory challenged and supported
iv. The consequences of George I's accession
v. The Tory landowners
vi. Political divisions in the early 1700s
vii. The failure of the Jacobean rebellion
viii. The Tory opposition effectively destroyed
ix. The fusion of the Independent Whigs and the Tory landowners
x. The Whig interpretation of history
Questions 7-13
Do the statements below agree with the information in Reading Passage 2?
In boxes 7-13, write:
Yes if the statement agrees with the information in the passage
No if the statement contradicts the information in the passage
Not Given if there is no information about the statement in the passage
7. According to Namier, political divisions in the mid 18th century were related to party labels.
8. According to Namier, something happened between 1714 and 1760 to affect party ideology.
9. George I was not liked by everyone.
10. The Independent Whigs were all landowners with large estates.
11. Neither the Independent Whigs, nor the Tories trusted the mercantile classes.
12. Namier's views are supported by Colley.
13. Harris's analysis of the press of the 1740s is used by Namier to support his own views.

Part V: You are going to read an article about an art exhibition that focuses on the subject of
whether paintings are authentic or fake. Answer the questions by choosing from the sections
of the article (A - F). The sections may be chosen more than once. Write your answers in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided. (10pts)
Seeing Through The Fakes
A
Close Examination at the National Gallery looks at 40 problematic works from the Gallery's collection
- including outright forgeries, misattributions, and copies, altered or over-restored paintings, and works
whose authenticity has wrongly been doubted. The curators have taken on
a huge subject - the range of possibilities museum professionals take into consideration when they
investigate a picture's status and the variety of technical procedures conservation scientists use to
9
establish authorship and date. The case histories they discuss have a single common denominator.
Whatever conclusion the combined disciplines of connoisseurship, science and art history may lead,
the study of any work of art begins with a question: is the work by the artist to whom it is attributed?
B
A good example is an Italian painting on panel that the National Gallery acquired in 1923, as the
work of an artist in the circle of the Italian 15th century painter Melozzo da Forlì. Today, we find it
incredible that anyone was ever fooled by a picture that looks like it was painted by a Surrealist follower
of Salvador Dali. But this is to forget how little was known about Melozzo, and how little could be
done in the conservation lab to determine the date of pigments or wood panel. Even so, from the
moment the picture was acquired, sceptics called its status into question. Nothing could be proved until
1960 when an art historian pointed out the many anachronisms in the clothing. When technological
advances enabled the gallery to test the pigments, they were found to be from the 19th century.
C
Scientific evidence can be invaluable but it has to be used with caution and in tandem with historical
research. For example, Corot's ravishing sketch The Roman Campagna, with the Claudian Aqueduct
has always been dated to about 1826, soon after the artist's arrival in Rome.
However, the green pigment that Corot used throughout the picture only became available to artists in
the 1830s. The landscape wasn't a fake and for stylistic reasons couldn't have been painted later than
the mid-1820s. All became clear when historians did further research and discovered that the firm that
sold artists' supplies to Corot in Paris started making the newly developed colour available to selected
customers in the mid-1820s, long before it came into widespread use.
D
The flipside of a fake, but capable of doing equal violence to an artist's reputation, occurs when an
authentic work is mistakenly labelled a forgery. Back in 1996, I well remember how distressing it was
to read an article in which the former director of the Metropolitan Museum of Art, Thomas Hoving,
declared that Uccello's lovely little canvas of St. George and the Dragon was forged. The gallery
therefore X-rayed the picture and tested paint samples, before concluding that it was a rare survival of
a work by Uccello dating from the early 1470s. Hoving was irresponsible not because he questioned
the attribution of a much-loved work, but because he went public without first asking the gallery to
carry out a thorough scientific analysis.
E
Anyone can label a picture a fake or a copy, but their opinions are worthless unless they can support
them with tangible proof. One picture that's been smeared in this way is Raphael's Madonna of the
Pinks. In this exhibition we are shown infrared photographs that reveal the presence both of major
corrections which a copyist would not need to make, and also of under drawing in a hand comparable
to Raphael's when he sketched on paper. The pigments and paper technique exactly match those that
the artist used in other works of about the same date.
F
For all its pleasure, the show also has an unspoken agenda. It is a reply to the mistaken belief that
museums have anything to gain by hiding the true status of the art they own. As the downgrading in
this show of Courbet's Self-Portrait to the status of a posthumous copy of a picture in the Louvre shows,
the opposite is the case: museums and galleries constantly question, reattribute and re-date the works
in their care. If they make a mistake, they acknowledge it.
(Adapted from Cambridge English Advanced – Practice Tests Plus 2)

In which section of the article are the following mentioned?

1. information that solved a mystery about a painting known to be authentic 1
2. an incorrect idea about the attitude of people responsible for exhibiting paintings 1
3. the fundamental issue surrounding research into a picture 2
4. similarities in an artist's style in more than one place 4
5. reasons why it is understandable that a certain mistake was made
10
 6. investigative work that showed that a picture was an unusual example of an artist's work 7
7. the willingness of experts to accept that their beliefs are wrong
8. the different categories of people involved in examining pictures
9. evidence from an expert outside the world of art 9
10. an accusation that upset the writer personally 10

WRITING (6.0 points)

Part I: Read the following extract and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary
should be about 100-120 words long. (15 pts)
For many years, stress was considered an imaginary complaint that lazy employees would use as an
excuse for skipping work. Now, stress has finally made its way into medical books and into company
accounts too. More and more firms are realizing the effect that stress-related illnesses are having on
their bottom line.
The causes of stress are manifold. Just getting to work on time may be a major cause. At the
workplace, stress can be caused by not having enough to do, not facing sufficient challenges or simply
being in a job that does not suit the person. At the other end of the scale is overwork and job insecurity.
There may also be ergonomic reasons for stress such as cramped working conditions, a faulty chair,
a desk at the wrong height, a smoky office or defective air-conditioning.
Stress manifests itself in many ways. The most common symptoms are headaches, backaches,
shortness of breath, skin disorders, heart palpitations, gastric problems and sleeping disorders. There
is also poor concentration, poor memory and loss of self-confidence. Other major health problems
such as depression, repetitive strain injury and heart problems may follow these symptoms.
All these symptoms give rise to inefficient work practices, increased medical leave and consequently
loss of productivity. Companies are finally beginning to take notice and are starting to invest in their
employees' health as a natural cost of doing business.
Companies are taking the necessary measures to overcome stress-related problems with the hope that
there will be heightened efficiency at the workplace and lower absenteeism. But at the end of the day
it is up to the individual.
The art of stress management is not something that can be picked up overnight. It is something that
an individual has to perfect and improve on throughout his lifetime. The key is 'healthy body, healthy
mind'.
Diet should be kept in check with smoking and drinking under control. Consider investing in a home
gym, which can be set up at a reasonable cost consisting of basic equipment such as an exercise bench,
a pair of dumb-bells and an exercise bike.
Massage is another tried and tested form of physical relaxation, guaranteed to reduce both mental and
physical stress levels. The two most popular forms of massages are the Japanese and Swedish
massages. A Japanese Shiatsu massage focuses on specific points of the body where energy is
blocked, while the Swedish massage involves stroking with oils to stimulate blood circulation. A
massage does not take long and it is not expensive. The different types of massages and aromatherapy
techniques have different effects with some for relaxation and some for stimulation; all guaranteed to
make you feel invigorated or enlivened after a hard day.
Another way of reducing stress is the century-old and hugely popular practice of yoga. A beginner
taking up yoga may find the posture and breathing exercises beneficial. But yoga goes way beyond
that as it deals with the inner organism (the mind, the respiratory and digestive organs) - inner
harmony first - and when the inner organism is working properly, then physical fitness can be
achieved.
In stress management, the most important thing is to recognize the symptoms of stress early and to
act before they become something serious.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
11
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Part II: Graph description (15 pts)

The pie chart shows the percentage of carbon dioxide (CO2) emitted by the 6 biggest polluters
in 2015 while the bar graph shows the top 6 emitters per capita in the same year.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons
where relevant. Write at least 150 words.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Part III: Write an essay of about 350 words to express your opinion on the following topic (30
pts)
Some people say free time activities for children should be organized by their parents. Others say
that children should be free to choose what they do in their free time.
Discuss both views and give your own opinion.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………

THE END

GV: Võ Thị Linh Hà

Chuyên Lê Quý Đôn Quảng Trị

ĐT: 0982 237 249

12
 SỞ GD&ĐT HẢI DƯƠNG ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI VÙNG
TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN DUYÊN HẢI - ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
NGUYỄN TRÃI NĂM HỌC 2021-2022
Môn: Tiếng Anh – Lớp 11
(Đề thi đề xuất) (Thời gian: 180 phút – không kể thời gian giao đề)

SECTION A. LISTENING (50 points)

PART 1: You will hear two nutritionists, Fay Wells and George Fisher, discussing
methods od food production. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which
fits best according to what you hear.
1. Looking at reports on the subject of GM foods, Fay feels ____________.
A. pleased to read that the problem of food shortages is being addressed
B. surprised that the fears of the public are not allayed by them
C. frustrated by contradictory conclusions
D. critical of the scientists' methodology
2. What does George suggest about organic foods?
A. Consumers remain surprisingly poorly informed about them.
B. People need to check out the claims made about them.
C. They need to be made more attractive to meat-eaters.
D. They may become more widely affordable in future.
3. What is George's opinion of 'vertical farming'?
A. It could provide a realistic alternative to existing methods.
B. It's a highly impractical scheme dreamt up by architects.
C. It's unlikely to go much beyond the experimental stage.
D. It has the potential to reduce consumption of energy.
4. George and Fay agree that the use of nanotechnology in food production will
____________.
A. reduce the need for dietary supplements
B. simplify the process of food-labelling
C. complicate things for the consumer
D. introduce potential health risks
5. In Fay's view, returning to self-sufficiency is only an option for people who
____________.
A. have no need to get a return on their investment
B. are willing to accept a high level of regulation
C. reject the values of a consumer society
D. already have sufficient set-up funds
 Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

PART 2: Read the statements, listen and decide whether they are true (T) or false (F).
1. Emily interprets the statistical information she quotes as reflecting the particular appeal of
travelling exhibitions.
2. Scott points out that an impressive museum building can distract attention from the
exhibits.
3. When asked about tour groups, Emily suggests that people should feel prejudiced against
them.
4. How most people had few expectations before arriving surprised Scott when he was doing
research into why people visited a museum.
5. Emily and Scott agree that virtual museums can’t replicate the real-life experience.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

PART 3. Answer the questions (no more than 3 words).

21. What did Klara originally want to do her project on?
22. Where can Klara read about housing prices every day?
23. What did Klara’s friend suggest including information on?
24. What does Klara need to use in the middle part?
25. How long does Klara have to finish the project?
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

PART 4. For questions 1 – 10, listen to a piece of news about Australia lifts one of last
COVID-19 Public Health Mandates and complete the summary using NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS OR NUMBER for each gap. Write your answers in the
corresponding boxes provided.
Face masks are one of the most 1._________________ of the pandemic in Australia,
where some of the world’s toughest 2. _________________ were imposed like
3._________________ and vaccination orders for key workers.
A number of the restrictions have been lifted in the states of New South Wales and
Queensland, along with the 4. _________________ on Friday and in Western Australia on
Saturday. However, they haven’t lifted the 5. _________________ in South Australia or
Victoria.
Catherine Bennett, the chair in 6. _________________ at Deakin University, wanted
the mask mandates to end. She said wherever people are, whether it is at local shops, your
workplace or the airport, they have to be conscious of their exposure.
 Adrian Esterman, the chair in 7. ________________ and epidemiology at the
University of South Australia, thought that forcing people to wear masks on flights in
Australia was a bad move and territory governments are lying to everyone that life can go
8._________________.
Some statistics: Australia has had 9. _________________ coronavirus infections
with 9,000 deaths. 95% of the population over 16 years of age have received two doses of
a COVID-19 vaccine. About 70% have had a 10._________________ .
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

SECTION B. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (30 points)

Part 1. Choose the best option A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences and write
your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes. (20 points)
1. The opposition party won the election on a _____ of economic reform.
A. lectern B. podium C. platform D. dogma
2. I’m a ______ at this game-I only learned to play it a few weeks ago.
A. novelty B. novice C. learner D. newcomer
3. The accountant _____ the company out of millions of dollars before he was caught.
A. swindled B. spun C. dwindled D. saddled
4. The judge’s sentence is _____ and can not be changed.
A. incongruous B. invariable C. irrevocable D. irreconcilable
5. It usually takes me 40 minutes to get into town, but today ______ because there was a lot
of traffic.
A. Took twice that B. I took twice more
C. it took twice that D. it had taken twice than that
6. _____ we will lose clients due to the current financial climate, the company is still
expected to reach its target for the quarter.
A. Even though it appears likely that
B. Though it likely appears that
C. In spite of the likelihood
D. Nevertheless likely it appears that
7. Customers are tempted to break _____ with so many alluring products available online.
A. the ice B. the mold C. the cycle D. the bank
8. the smell of freshly baked bread ____ fond memories of her childhood days.
A. evicted B. evoked C. evolved D. evaded
9. One of the defendants _____ and was on the run until his arrest.
A. jumped bail B. made bail C. stood bail D. posted bail
10. The business started off small, but now has become a large media and entertainment
_______.
A. Metropolis B. conglomerate C. coalition D. alliance
11. I spent the whole night in curlers ____ get my new hairdo wet in the rain the net day.
A. only to B. to only C. only as to D. for only to
12. the college is planning to launch an online learning program, but the date of
implementation is uncertain.
A. since then B. by then C. beyond that D. after a while
13. “What did the thief look like?” “He was ____ his chin.”
A. young with a scar in
B. quite youngly with a scar on
C. quite young with a scar at
D. quite young with a scar on
14. The political candidate always tries to ____ any difficult questions when talking to the
press.
A. butter up B. fend off C. fawn over D. drive back
15. Violation of the school’s code of conduct could result in a weeklong ____ for students.
A. expulsion B. discharge C. eviction D. suspension
16. Sandra had _____ to snakes and spiders.
A. a conversion B. a distortion C. an aversion D. an aggression
17. A great diplomat and a firm political leader is able to speak _____ about government
legislation.
A. over the hump B. out of breath
C. out of fire D. off the cuff
18. Although some banking institutions allow their customers to ____ payment, it is not
advised.
A. defer B. deter C. deflect D. diverge
19. After an official investigation the defendant was _____ and set free.
A. validated B. authenticated C. exonerated D. rehabilitated
20. That country’s diplomatic _______ was the largest group at the conference.
A. contingent B. battalion C. franchise D. chapter

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part 2. Write the correct form of the words given in the brackets.( 10 points)
1. The resultant disruptions in trade and agriculture, and the _______ of the countryside, left
long-term scars. (POPULATE)
2. Put otherwise, in a context in which there are unequal power relations, a _______
homogenisation seems likely, if not inevitable. (DELETE)
3. The intense magenta color indicates intense positive staining in this _______ aggregate.
(CELL)
4. Today the press is free and _______ by censorship, and the private electronic media
flourish. (CUMBERSOME)
5. Coffee beans and tea leaves are _______ with this solvent. (CAFFEINE)
6. This is a procedure which should become standard in future work by _______
organizations. (GOVERN)
7. When it was over, she began life _______ in France. (NEW)
8. All these former offenses were swiftly ______. ( CRIME)
9. I stand not upon the _______ words of a challenge. (DEFINE)
10. Economists and some psychologists _______ employ such tasks in their studies.
(EXCLUDE)

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

C. READING (60 points)

Part 1: In the passage below, seven paragraphs have been removed. Read the passage
and choose from the paragraphs A-H the one which fits each gap. There is ONE extra
paragraph which you do not need to use. ( 7 points)
Is There A Limit To Our Intelligence?
Increasing IQ scores suggests that future generations will make us seem like dimwits by
Tom Govern
Almost thirty years ago James R. Flynn, a researcher at the University of Otago in New
Zealand, discovered a phenomenon that social scientists still struggle to explain: IQ scores
have been increasing steadily since the beginning of the 20th century. Nearly 30 years of
follow-up studies have confirmed the statistical reality of the global uptick, now known as
the Flynn effect. And scores are still climbing.
1.
The Flynn effect means that children will, on average, score just under 10 points higher on
IQ tests than their parents did. By the end of this century our descendants will have nearly
a 30-point advantage over us if the Flynn effect continues. But can it continue or is there
some natural limit to the Flynn effect and to human intelligence?
 2.
Most of the IQ gains come from just two subtests devoted to abstract reasoning. One deals
with “similarities” and poses questions such as “How are an apple and an orange alike?” A
low-scoring answer would be “They’re both edible.” A higher-scoring response would be
“They’re both fruit,” an answer that transcends simple physical qualities. The other subtest
consists of a series of geometric patterns that are related in some abstract way, and the test
taker must correctly identify the relation among the patterns.
3.
“If you don’t classify abstractions, if you’re not used to using logic, you can’t really
master the modern world,” Flynn says. “Alexander Luria, a Soviet psychologist, did some
wonderful interviews with peasants in rural Russia in the 1920s. He would say to them,
‘Where there is always snow, bears are always white. There is always snow at the North
Pole. What colour are the bears there?’ They would say they had never seen anything but
brown bears. They didn’t think of a hypothetical question as meaningful.”
4.
A naive interpretation of the Flynn effect quickly leads to some strange conclusions.
Extrapolating the effect back in time, for example, would suggest that the average person
in Great Britain in 1900 would have had an IQ of around 70 by 1990 standards. “That
would mean that the average Brit was borderline mentally retarded and wouldn’t have
been able to follow the rules of cricket,” says David Hambrick, a cognitive psychologist at
Michigan State University. “And of course, that’s absurd.”
5.
So, what will the future bring? Will IQ scores keep going up? One thing we can be sure of
is that the world around us will continue to change, largely because of our own actions.
6.
Therefore, our minds and culture are locked in a similar feedback loop. We are creating a
world where information takes forms and moves with speeds unimaginable just a few
decades ago. Every gain in technology demands minds capable of accommodating the
change, and the changed mind reshapes the world even more. The Flynn effect is unlikely
to end during this century, presaging a future world where you and I would be considered
woefully premodern and literal.
7.
Perhaps we should not be so surprised by the existence of something like the Flynn effect.
Its absence would be more startling; it would mean we were no longer responding to the
world we are creating. If we are lucky, perhaps we will keep building a world that will
make us smarter and smarter—one where our descendants will contemplate our simplicity.
A The villagers were not stupid. Their world just required different skills. “I think the
most fascinating aspect of this isn’t that we do so much better on IQ tests,” Flynn says.
“It’s the new light it sheds on what I call the history of the mind in the 20th century.”

B Of course, our minds are changing in ways other than those which can be measured by
IQ tests. “People are getting faster.” Hambrick says. “Previously, it had been thought that
200 milliseconds is about the fastest that people can respond. But if you ask people who
have done this sort of research, they’re having to discard more trials. We text, we play
video games, we do a lot more things that require really fast responses.

C Almost as soon as researchers recognized the Flynn effect, they saw that the ascending
IQ scores were the result almost entirely of improved performances on specific parts of
the most widely used intelligence tests. It would seem more natural to expect
improvements in crystallized intelligence—the kind of knowledge picked up in school.
This is not happening, though. The scores in the sections that measure skills in arithmetic
and vocabulary levels have remained largely constant over time.

D A paradox of the Flynn effect is that these tools were designed to be completely
nonverbal and culture-free measurements of what psychologists call fluid intelligence—an
innate capacity to solve unfamiliar problems. Yet the Flynn effect clearly shows that
something in the environment is having a marked influence on the supposedly culture-free
components of intelligence in populations worldwide. Detailed studies of generational
differences in performance on intelligence tests suspect that our enhanced ability to think
abstractly may be linked to a new flexibility in the way we perceive objects in the world.

E Flynn likes to use a technological analogy to describe the long-term interaction between
mind and culture. “The speeds of automobiles in 1900 were absurdly slow because the
roads were so lousy,” he says. “You would have shaken yourself to pieces.” But roads and
cars co-evolved. When roads improved, cars did, too, and improved roads prompted
engineers to design even faster cars.

F “To my amazement, in the 21st century the increase is still continuing,” says Flynn,
whose most recent book on the subject—Are We Getting Smarter?— was published in
2012. “The latest data show the gains in America holding at the old rate of three-tenths of
a point a year.”

G Consequently, we may not be more intelligent than our forebears, but there is no doubt
our minds have changed. Flynn believes the change began with the industrial revolution,
which engendered mass education, smaller families, and a society in which technical and
managerial jobs replaced agricultural ones. Education, in turn, became the driver for still
more innovation and social change, setting up an ongoing positive feedback loop between
our minds and a technology-based culture that does not seem likely to end any time soon.

H Formal education, though, cannot entirely explain what is going on. Some researchers
had assumed that most of the IQ increases seen over the 20th century might have been
driven by gains at the left end of the intelligence bell curve among those with the lowest
scores, an outcome that would likely be a consequence of better educational opportunities.
However, a close examination of 20 years of data revealed that the scores of the top 5 per
cent of students were going up in perfect lockstep with the Flynn effect.

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.

Part 2. Read the following text and fill in the blank with ONE suitable word. Write your
answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (15 points)
Writing is a medium of (1) ______ that most people use daily, and perhaps even take for
granted. Yet, without a shadow of a (2) ______, it has been one of the key elements in the
development of society. Writing systems and the invention of books have meant that
knowledge can be passed (3) ______ reality through the generations.
Much evidence suggests that (4) ______ was in the Middle East that systems of writing
were initially developed, and these were born out of practical necessity. As individuals
grouped together in cities, this (5) ______ rise to more frequent trading of goods, but
keeping a running order of these goods was an (6) ______ battle, especially since they were
often communally stored.
(7) ______ the face of these difficulties, a better method of controlling and accounting (8)
______ stock was developed, and this was the very first system of writing. It initially took
the form of pictures drawn in clay tablets to represent a particular commodity, with lines
corresponding to the number of items a person had. In time, these drawings gave (9) ______
to symbols, which were more efficient for the writer, and then to more detailed forms of
written record. This is when writing evolved to more than just lists of nouns, and started to
(10) ______ the shape of the fully formed sentences we see today.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the following
questions. Write your answers in corresponding numbered boxes. (10 points)
While he spoke my very conscience and reason turned traitors against me, and charged me
with crime in resisting him. They spoke almost as loud as Feeling: and that clamored wildly.
“Oh, comply!” it said. “Think of his misery; think of his danger—look at his state when left
alone; remember his headlong nature; consider the recklessness following on despair—
soothe him; save him; love him; tell him you love him and will be his. Who in the world
cares for you or who will be injured by what you do?” L6
Still indomitable was the reply—“I care for myself. The more solitary, the more friendless,
the more unsustained I am, the more I will respect myself. I will keep the law given by God;
sanctioned by man. I will hold to the principles received by me when I was sane, and not
mad—as I am now. Laws and principles are not for the times when there is no temptation:
they are for such moments as this, when body and soul rise in mutiny against their rigor;
stringent are they; inviolate they shall be. If at my individual convenience I might break
them, what would be their worth? They have a worth—so I have always believed; and if I
cannot believe it now, it is because I am insane—quite insane: with my veins running fire,
and my heart beating faster than I can count its throbs. Preconceived opinions, foregone
determinations, are all I have at this hour to stand by: there I plant my foot.” L16
I did. Mr. Rochester, reading my countenance, saw I had done so. His fury was wrought to
the highest: he must yield to it for a moment, whatever followed; he crossed the floor and
seized my arm and grasped my waist. He seemed to devour me with his flaming glance:
physically, I felt, at the moment, powerless as stubble exposed to the draught and glow of a
furnace: mentally, I still possessed my soul, and with it the certainty of ultimate safety. The
soul, fortunately, has an interpreter—often an unconscious, but still a truthful interpreter—
in the eye. My eye rose to his; and while I looked in his fierce face I gave an involuntary
sigh; his gripe was painful, and my over-taxed strength almost exhausted. L24
“Never,” said he, as he ground his teeth, “never was anything at once so frail and so
indomitable. A mere reed she feels in my hand!” And he shook me with the force of his
hold. “I could bend her with my finger and thumb: and what good would it do if I bent, if I
uptore, if I crushed her? Consider that eye: consider the resolute, wild, free thing looking
out of it, defying me, with more than courage—with a stern triumph. Whatever I do with its
cage, I cannot get at it—the savage, beautiful creature! If I tear, if I rend the slight prison,
my outrage will only let the captive loose. Conqueror I might be of the house; but the inmate
would escape to heaven before I could call myself possessor of its clay dwelling-place. And
it is you, spirit—with will and energy, and virtue and purity— that I want: not alone your
brittle frame. Of yourself you could come with soft flight and nestle against my heart, if you
would: seized against your will, you will elude the grasp like an essence—you will vanish
ere I inhale your fragrance. Oh! Come, Jane, come!” L36
As he said this, he released me from his clutch, and only looked at me. The look was far
worse to resist than the frantic strain: only an idiot, however, would have succumbed now.
I had dared and baffled his fury; I must elude his sorrow: I retired to the door.
“You are going, Jane?”
“I am going, sir.”
“You are leaving me?”
“Yes.”
“You will not come? You will not be my comforter, my rescuer? My deep love, my wild
woe, my frantic prayer, are all nothing to you?”
What unutterable pathos was in his voice! How hard it was to reiterate firmly, “I am going.”

1.Jane’s attitude toward Mr. Rochester is best characterized as

A. sympathetic. B. uncaring. C. despising. D. reckless.
2.Based on the information in the passage, it can be inferred that Jane refuses Rochester’s
advances because
A. she does not love him as much as he loves her.
B. it would violate her personal ideals.
C. he thinks that she is weak and frail.
D. she wishes to cause him injury.
3. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 1-2 (“While . . . him”)
B. Lines 8-10 (“I will . . . now”)
C. Lines 21-23 (“The soul . . . eye”)
D. Lines 29-30 (“Whatever . . . creature”)
4. In context, the phrase “I am insane—quite insane” in line 14 refers chiefly to
A. a severe mental illness that Jane suffers from.
B. a mental state brought on by God’s law.
C. a feeling that currently urges Jane to reject Rochester.
D. a reduction of judgment due to emotion.
5.As used in line 17, “wrought” most nearly means
A. hammered. B. made. C. excited. D. wrung.
6. The fourth paragraph (lines 25-36) provides a contrast between
A. Jane’s body and her will.
B. Rochester’s love and anger toward Jane.
C. a bird and its cage.
D. Jane’s purity and impurity
7. The inmate Rochester mentions in line 31 refers to
A. a criminal locked away in jail.
B. Rochester trapped in his emotions.
C. Jane stuck in the traditions of her time.
D. the possible behavior of Jane’s spirit.
8. Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer to the previous question?
A. Lines 23-24 (“My eye . . . exhausted”)
B. Lines 27-28 (“I could . . . her”)
C. Lines 32-34 (“And it . . . frame”)
D. Lines 37-38 (“The look . . . now”)
9. As used in line 38, “worse” most nearly means
A. less desirable. B. more difficult.
C. of lower quality. D. unskillful.
10. Based on the information in the final paragraph, it can be reasonably inferred that Jane
values
A. her emotions over her reason.
B. freedom over social convention.
C. her principles over her feelings.
D. true love above all else.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 4: Read the passage and do the tasks below.

Sleepy Students Perform Worse
A. Staying up an hour or two past bedtime makes it far harder for kids to learn, say
scientists who deprived youngsters of sleep and tested whether their teachers could tell the
difference. They could. If parents want their children to thrive academically, “Getting
them to sleep on time is as important as getting them to school on time," said psychologist
Gahan Fallone, who conducted the research at Brown Medical School.
B. The study, unveiled Thursday at an American Medical Association (AMA) science
writers meeting, was conducted on healthy children who had no evidence of sleep- or
learning-related disorders. Difficulty paying attention was among the problems the sleepy
youngsters faced - raising the question of whether sleep deprivation could prove even
worse for people with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, or ADHD. Fallone now is
studying that question, and suspects that sleep problems “could hit children with ADHD
as a double whammy”.
C. Sleep experts have long warned that Americans of all ages do not get enough shuteye.
Sleep is important for health, bringing a range of benefits that, as Shakespeare put it,
“knits up the ravelled sleave of care”. Not getting enough is linked to a host of problems,
from car crashes as drivers doze off to crippled memory and inhibited creativity. Exactly
how much sleep correlates with school performance is hard to prove. So, Brown
researchers set out to test whether teachers could detect problems with attention and
learning when children stayed up late - even if the teachers had no idea how much sleep
their students actually got.
D. They recruited seventy-four 6- to 12-year-olds from Rhode Island and southern
Massachusetts for the three-week study. For one week, the youngsters went to bed and
woke up at their usual times. They already were fairly good sleepers, getting nine to 9.5
hours of sleep a night. Another week, they were assigned to spend no fewer than ten hours
in bed a night. The other week, they were kept up later than usual: First -and second-
graders were in bed no more than eight hours and the older children no more than 6.5
hours. In addition to parents’ reports, the youngsters wore motiondetecting wrist monitors
to ensure compliance.
E. Teachers were not told how much the children slept or which week they stayed up late,
but rated the students on a variety of performance measures each week. The teachers
reported significantly more academic problems during the week of sleep deprivation, the
study, which will be published in the journal Sleep in December, concluded. Students who
got eight hours of sleep or less a night were more forgetful, had the most trouble learning
new lessons, and had the most problems paying attention, reported Fallone, now at the
Forest Institute of Professional Psychology.
F. Sleep has long been a concern of educators. Potter-Burns Elementary School sends
notes to parents reminding them to make sure students get enough sleep prior to the
school’s yearly achievement testing. Another school considers it important enough to
include in the school’s monthly newsletters. Definitely, there is an impact on students’
performance if they come to school tired. However, the findings may change physician
practice, said Dr. Regina Benjamin, a family physician in Bayou La Batre, who reviewed
the data at the Thursday’s AMA meeting. “I don't ask about sleep” when evaluating
academically struggling students, she noted. “I’m going to start.”
G. So how much sleep do kids need? Recommended amounts range from about ten to
eleven hours a night for young elementary students to 8.5 hours for teens. Fallone insists
that his own second-grader get ten hours a night, even when it meant dropping soccer -
season that practice did not start until 7:30 — too late for her to fit in dinner and time to
wind down before she needed to be snoozing. “It’s tough,” he acknowledged, but “parents
must believe in the importance of sleep."
Questions 1-4
The text has 7 paragraphs (A - G).
Which paragraph contains each of the following pieces of information?
1 Traffic accidents are sometimes caused by lack of sleep.
2 The number of children included in the study
3 How two schools are trying to deal with the problem
4 How the effect of having less sleep was measured
Questions 5-8
Complete the following sentences using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the
text for each gap.
5.Fallone is now studying the sleep patterns of children with _______________
6.The researchers used _______________that show movement to check that children went
to bed at the right time.
7.Students with less sleep had problems with memory, remembering new material, and
_______________
8.Fallone admitted that it was _______________ for children to get enough sleep.
Questions 9-13
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage . In
boxes 9 - 13 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this
9. The results of the study were first distributed to principals of American schools,
10. Some of the children in the study had previously shown signs of sleeping problems.
11.The study could influence how doctors deal with children’s health problems.
12.Fallone does not let his daughter play soccer.
13.Staying up later is acceptable if the child is doing
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
11. 12. 13.

Part 5. You are going to read extracts from an article about snowflakes. For questions 1-
10, choose from the sections (A-E). The extracts may be chosen more than once.
In which extract ...
... is a point of contention amongst scientists over the 1……………………………
effects of something highlighted?
... does the writer give an insight into their personal 2……………………………
outlook on life?
... is the difficulty in proving something likened to 3…………………………….
searching for an everyday object?
... does the writer examine the different ways likeness can 4……………………………
be interpreted?
... does the writer hint at the inconveniences snowflakes 5……………………………
can cause in everyday life?
 ... is the composition of young snow crystals differentiated 6……………………………
in some detail?
... are the range of possible forms flakes can take defined 7……………………………
as almost never-ending?
... does the writer first explain that two developed 8…………………………..
snowflakes can rarely be the same?
... does the writer suggest the closer something is 9…………………….…..
inspected, the less likely an outcome is?
... does the writer suggest that simplification can have a 10…………………………
positive impact on the world?

A
It is often claimed that no two snowflakes are alike, but what exactly is the veracity of this
statement?
Well, although you wouldn’t think it to glance at them, snow crystals are rather intricate.
For that reason, the answer is by no means clear-cut. For instance, scientists remain unsure
as to how temperature and humidity affect growth. Indeed, moving somewhat tangentially
for a moment, nor are they yet certain of the wider climactic effect flakes have. For
example, they know that clouds of snow crystals reflect sunlight during the day, producing
a cooling affect; although at night they sort of blanket the planet, absorbing the heat it
gives off, doing the reverse. So whether such clouds contribute to global warming or not is
up for debate on account of these competing effects.

B
As for snow crystals themselves, they undergo various stages of formation before they
become fully developed snowflakes. In the developmental stages, they are more simple
structures, then they later branch out and become complex. To start with, they resemble
fairly plain and uniform six-sided prisms that are hard to distinguish from one another.
Such underdeveloped crystals do often fall to the ground prematurely as precipitation. In
this case, the probability of close likeness amongst different ones is quite high in relative
terms. So, hypothetically, it’s quite possible to find two more or less the same, but,
in practice, this would be like looking for a needle in a haystack – two, actually, so good
luck trying to prove it.

C
However, snowfall is typically comprised of crystals at a more advanced stage of
development – true snowflakes, if you will – and here the odds change considerably with
the likelihood of very close resemblance dramatically reduced. This is because the ways in
which fully developed crystals can arrange themselves are almost infinite. Once crystals
have branched out to form large flakes, then, the chances of finding identical twins are,
therefore, extremely remote.

D
Another problem with this question is how you define ‘alike’. After all, to the naked eye,
most flakes look more or less indistinguishable, irrespective of size or shape. Indeed, even
under a microscope, more simple crystal formations are strikingly similar to one another,
though the unique characteristics of fully formed snowflakes will be revealed. However,
an understanding of the science of physics confirms the extreme rarity of identical twins
even amongst superficially similar flakes. In other words, at a molecular level, likeness is
a near impossibility, so the more closely we examine a flake and the more strictly we
define the notion of likeness, the less probable it becomes to ever identify two crystals
which are truly alike.

E
It is, in a way, somewhat reassuring, though, that something as seemingly simple as a
snowflake which is in actuality incredibly complex, can still be uniformly beautiful in
another purer, more innocent sense. For, once the flakes have made landfall and begun to
amass, snow is, to a degree, just snow, and it takes on that kind of magical, fairy-tale
quality that only it can evoke in so many people, but particularly the young, who have less
need to worry about the logistical implications of it amassing in ever greater quantities,
and, indeed, who usually welcome the closure of facilities, particularly academic ones,
that is normally commensurate with such accumulations. For it is the way of the universe
as a whole, is it not? Order springs from chaos, beauty is born from the most unlikely,
disordered and chance set of circumstances. Indeed, as a self-proclaimed glass-half-full
person, I like to think that we, human beings, are not all that dissimilar to snowflakes,
actually. After all, each one of us is, on some level, utterly unique, and yet, remove all the
complexities of life and the over-analysis, and, on another, we are all precisely the same;
hopeful, flawed, loving, caring, jealous and imperfect; perfectly so. The sooner we
understand that, the better for both our species and the wider world we inhabit, snow-
covered or otherwise.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

IV. WRITING (60 points)

Part 1. Read the following extract and use your own words to summarise it. Your
summary should be between 100 and 120 words long.
Across cultures, wisdom has been considered one of the most revered human qualities.
Although the truly wise may seem few and far between, empirical research examining
wisdom suggests that it isn’t an exceptional trait possessed by a small handful of bearded
philosophers after all – in fact, the latest studies suggest that most of us have the ability to
make wise decisions, given the right context.
‘It appears that experiential, situational, and cultural factors are even more powerful
in shaping wisdom than previously imagined,’ says Associate Professor Igor Grossmann of
the University of Waterloo in Ontario, Canada. ‘Recent empirical findings from cognitive,
developmental, social, and personality psychology cumulatively suggest that people’s
ability to reason wisely varies dramatically across experiential and situational contexts.
Understanding the role of such contextual factors offers unique insights into understanding
wisdom in daily life, as well as how it can be enhanced and taught.’
Coming up with a definition of wisdom is challenging, but Grossmann and his
colleagues have identified four key characteristics as part of a framework of wise reasoning.
One is intellectual humility or recognition of the limits of our own knowledge, and another
is appreciation of perspectives wider than the issue at hand. Sensitivity to the possibility of
change in social relations is also key, along with compromise or integration of different
attitudes and beliefs.
Grossmann and his colleagues have also found that one of the most reliable ways to
support wisdom in our own day-to-day decisions is to look at scenarios from a third-party
perspective, as though giving advice to a friend. Research suggests that when adopting a
first-person view point, we focus on ‘the focal features of the environment’ and when we
adopt a third-person, ‘observer’ viewpoint we reason more broadly and focus more on
interpersonal and moral ideals such as justice and impartiality. Looking at problems from
this more expansive viewpoint appears to foster cognitive processes related to wise
decisions.

Part 2: The graph below provides information on the average cost of three kinds of
cereals in England and Wales over an eight-month period in 2014, while the table
shows the quantities of cereals sold during the same period.
Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make
comparisons where relevant.
Write at least 150 words
AVERAGE PRICE PER TONNE IN ENGLAND AND WALES
AVERAGE QUANTITIES OF CEREALS SOLD (TONNES) IN ENGLAND AND
WALES

January February March April May June July August

WHEAT 76,800 85,500 163,500 56,300 30,800 50,700 66,300 131,700
BARLEY 21,500 18,900 32,400 15,700 11,300 11,500 38,100 45,100
OATS 2350 1820 3580 1700 960 600 945 2310
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Part 3: Write an essay of about 350 words to express your opinion on the following
issue (30 points)
“In modern society, some people argue that schools become unnecessary as children
can study at home via the Internet. Do you agree or disagree?”
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own
knowledge or experience. Write at least 350 words.
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THE END
Người ra đề

Nguyễn Thị Bích Vân (0904114546)

 TRƯỜNG THPT KỲ THI HSG CÁC TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN KHU VỰC
CHUYÊN SƠN LA DUYÊN HẢI VÀ ĐỒNG BẰNG BẮC BỘ
NĂM HỌC 2021 - 2022
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Ngày thi: 14/07/2022
(Đề thi có 18 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút không kể thời gian phát đề

I. LISTENING (50 points)

PART 1: For questions 1-5, you will hear an explorer called Richard Livingstone talking about a
trip he made in the rainforest of South America. Listen and decide whether the statements are True
(T) or False (F). Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. They went all the way by boat.
2. Richard said that during the walk, they were always both cold and wet.
3. In a deserted camp, they found some soup made from unusual meat and vegetables.
4. After the meal, they began to feel worried about what they have done.
5. Before leaving the camp, they left the sum of 50 dollars to thank the host.
Your answers:

1. 2. 3. 4. 5.
PART 2: For questions 6-10, listen to a piece of news and answer each question with NO MORE
THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER. Write your answers in the corresponding
numbered spaces provided.
6. How are temperatures compared to pre-industrial levels in the second scenario?
________________________________________________________________
7. What is one way in which 10 feedback loops keep the earth cool?
________________________________________________________________
8. What would happen if all the world’s permafrost were melt?
________________________________________________________________
9. What is Amazon rainforest being quickly converted into?
________________________________________________________________
10. What has none of the feedback systems done?
________________________________________________________________
Your answers:

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

Part 3. For questions 11-15, listen to a discussion in which two people, Derek Grant and Lucy
Wadham, talk about the current state of mass tourism and choose the answer (A, B, C or D)
which fits best according to what you hear. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered
boxes provided.

11. From the figures quoted by Lucy, it can be concluded that ______.
A. most of the revenue generated from safari packages goes to the airline.
B. mass tourism inevitably leads to poverty.
C. hotels in developing countries do not have high standards.
D. there aren't sufficient local products to cater for tourists.

Page 1 of 18
12. What does Derek say about governments whose countries are tourist destinations? A. They are
constantly trying to increase their profit margins.
B. They ignore the negative impacts of mass tourism.
C. They have very limited bargaining power.
D They are unfamiliar with aspects of modern business methods.

13. Derek's example of excessive water consumption caused by mass tourism shows how _____
A. ineffective the laws are in developing countries.
B. local food production can be adversely affected by it.
C. difficult it is to find sources of pure water.
D. valuable a resource water has become in recent years.

14. Lucy says that when a resort loses its appeal, _____
A. the locals are left to fend for themselves.
B. money has to be spent on a new infrastructure.
C. the cost of package holidays falls considerably.
D. it becomes vulnerable to natural disasters.

15. According to Derek, tourism ______

A. does more harm than good in the long run.
B. is too big an industry to be tampered with.
C. is largely responsible for global inequality.
D. promotes cultural sensitivity most of the time.
Your answers:

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

Part 4. For questions 16-25, listen to a talk about pandemic diseases and supply the blanks with
the missing information. Write NO MORE THAN FOUR WORDS taken from the recording for
each answer in the space provided.
TOP 5 DEADLIEST PANDEMIC DISEASES

1. Smallpox
• first emerged around 400BC
• caused 16.______________________ all over the body
• the only disease declared to be 17.______________________
2. Bubonic Plague
• also known as the 18.______________________
• caused by a bacterium spread by 19.______________________
• 20.______________________, called buboes, occurred in the body
3. The Spanish Flu
• began and ended in a 21.______________________
• filled the lungs of patients with 22.______________________
4. Malaria
• categorized as a blood disease
• caused by 23.______________________

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• Anopheles mosquitoes would 24.______________________ infected blood and pass it on to the
next person they bite
5. HIV/AIDS
• often sexually transmitted
• HIV 25.______________________ the immune system
Your answers:
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

II. LEXICAL AND GRAMMAR (20 points)

Part 1. Choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to each of the following questions. Write your
answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
1. Stephen really lost his ________ when his dental disappointment was cancelled yet again.
A. head B. voice C. calm D. rag
2. It only took me a few minutes to get the printer up and ________ after taking it out of
the box.
A. walking B. proceeding C. running D. going
3. It was a hot summer day and ice cream salesmen were doing a ________ trade.
A. busy B. lucrative C. bustling D. roaring
4. Bob is so short-tempered; he should try to ________ his anger.
A. curb B. control C. temper D. stunt
5. If you ________ your demands, they may be accepted bu others.
A. control B. temper C. stunt D. curb
6. As far as I can ________, she wasn't there on that occasion.
A. memorise B. reminisce C. recollect D. remind
7. I'm sure it won't rain, but I'll take an umbrella (just) to be on the ________ side.
A. sunny B. straight C. safe D. secure
8. I was in ________ at that comedy show. I could barely breathe it was so funny.
A. stitches B. pleats C. shreds D. tears
9. She tried to ________ Tom’s importance to the company in order to gain a promotion for herself.
A. diminish B. swindle C. reduce D. shrink
10. I hate the way Tony ________ around looking so self – important.
A. struts B. scampers C. slithers D. slinks
11. Most frequently, the earthquake lasts 30 to 60 seconds, so usually there is no time to avert the
mortal ________ once the shaking starts.
A. upkeep B. upturn C. upshot D. upswing
12. They live under a constant pressure of being ________ and subsequently replaced by someone
who is younger, faster and more accomplished.
A. outcast B. outshone C. outstayed D. outgrown
13. My brother loves watching horror movies but I find them too ________ myself.
A. gruesome B. untimely C.ghostly D. sterile
14. There was a lot of _______ as throngs of people tried to see the famous actor walking through
the mall

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 A. stamina B. discipline C. counsel D. commotion
15. Luckily my wallet was handed in to the police with all its contents _______.
A. preserved B. unscathed C. contained D. intact
16. Serena is still _______ ignorant of the fact that she is about to be made redundant.
A. blissfully B. decorously C. jubilantly D. ecstatically
17. No decision has been taken about the building of the new airport. The authorities are still
_______.
A. beating about the bush B. comparing apples and oranges
C. sitting on the fence D. holding all the aces
18. Oil spills will _______ even the healthiest of marine ecosystem.
A. play havoc on B. break ground with
C. pay the consequences for D. take their toll on
19. Don’t look so worried! You should take the boss’s remarks with a ________of salt.
A. teaspoon B. pinch C. grain D. dose
20. Rachel has an amazing ________ of jokes that she uses to good effect at parties.
A. body B. repertoire C. variation D. store

Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5.

6. 7. 8. 9. 10.

11. 12. 13. 14. 15.

16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

Part 2. For questions 21-30, write the correct form of each bracketed word in each sentence in the
corresponding numbered boxes provided.

21. A portion of the proceeds will be ________ for providing school fees for poor children for the
coming academic year. (mark)

22. The administration ropes in all educational institutions, government offices, public sector
________ and universities for the purpose of mobilising funds. (take)

23. Contraception is less ________ or affordable in South America. (cure)

24. While learning has changed for students in this new century, we are ________ by the boundless
opportunity presented in our lifetime. (bold)

25. It does not become an economic ________ but it does become a ‘newly industrialized country’,
like Malaysia, Taiwan and South Korea. (power)

26. We believe that the most effective enforcement tool is self-policing and ________ (strain).

27. It is possible to humanely raise and slaughter a variety of food animals, including ________
poultry and beef cattle. (range)

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28. Most of this feature includes behind-the-scenes video ________ of the crew working and
goofing off. (foot)

29. Together they forged a(n) ________ intellectual climate that has profoundly shaped my career.
(vigor)

30. We will investigate the tradeoffs among data ________, data hiding capacity, and probabilities
of extraction errors in different applications. (perceive)

Your answers:

21. 22. 23. 24. 25.

26. 27. 28. 29. 30.

III. READING (60 points)

Part 1. For questions 1-7, you are going to read a magazine article. Seven paragraphs have been
removed from the extract. Choose from paragraphs A-H the one which fits each gap. There is one
extra paragraph you do not need to use. (7 points)
The Inuit
The way of life of aboriginal peoples the world over has been in decline for decades now, if not
centuries. Slowly but surely, all of it, from its spiritual underpinnings to its actual geographical
homeland, is being whittled away by the developed world. Even now that it is very nearly too late,
the demise of these cultures is seen as just one of many problems needing our generous attention.
Once again, we in positions of power have cast ourselves in the role of teacher with plenty to pass
on to our needy pupils when, in reality, we are the ones who have much to learn.
1
Their spiritual views, for example, provide the basis for all other activities, lending them in turn a
coherence and meaning that ensure that nothing is taken for granted. They believe that everything
possesses its own spirit – not only people and animals, but also inanimate objects and phenomena
such as the wind. These “inua”, as they are called, have independent existences of their own, and
those that are hosted by particularly strong animals or men can take on a physical presence
whenever they wish.
2
This belief, in turn, influenced other areas, such as art. Weapons like knives and harpoons were
intricately crafted, as this was believed to reflect the hunter’s esteem for the “inua”. Materials
selected for weapons were chosen because they were familiar and comforting to the prey; so, sea
mammals were commonly hunted with weapons made from walrus tusks, showing a concern for
the hunted which bordered on sympathy. Given that a single animal could provide food, oil,
clothing, and even boats – often made out of skins – it is easy to see how it warranted the proffered
reverence.
3
Rather than revealing the folly of peoples we consider more primitive than us, such practices and
tales show a deep awareness of and respect for the true relationship between people and their
environment. As also revealed in Inuit carvings of two-faced creatures, one face human and the
other animal, the relationship is one of mutual interdependence; nature preys on us as we prey on
it, and both factors in the equation need the other.

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 4
In the mid-nineteenth century, European whalers began to actually live in the Arctic, where they
felt they could better control the whaling industry. Whales were hunted for oil and fuel, as well as
for whalebone, which among other things, was used for making women’s corsets. Inuit men and
women were hired to work on the whalers’ bases and also on the ships, and slowly abandoned their
traditional way of life.
5
Nowadays, our role in the erosion of Inuit tradition has changed, but it continues undebated, if in a
more modern way. To help solve the problems rampant in Inuit society, such as poverty and
unemployment, governments have encouraged the promotion of tourism in Inuit lands, unlikely
though this may seem. Dog-sledding adventures and whaling expeditions are now advertised
online. You, too, can experience life in the frozen north, learn the seventeen words for snow and live in
an igloo.
6
Our influence has altered Inuit art, as well. Thanks to collectors’ relentless appetite for ivory, a ban
on the hunting of animals for their tusks has been necessary to preserve these creatures from
extinction, thus depriving the Inuit of materials for their weapons and crafts. Soapstone has taken
its place, as its softness makes it easy to carve. As such, it is especially suitable for mass production,
and today, soapstone carvings are being churned out at breakneck speed, often not even by Inuit
carvers, to meet the demand from collectors.
7
Certainly, it is too late to turn back the clock, but is it too late to learn from the past? The
industrialized nations are often depressingly slow learners, despite all their laudable technological
achievements. But our own irreverent age would undoubtedly benefit from the meaning and
guidance afforded by the traditional Inuit view of nature and the planet.
Missing paragraphs:
A. The practice of engaging the help of Shamans for hunting purposes testifies to the respect and
fear with which the natural world was viewed. A shaman was thought to have a special spirit,
one which was stronger and in closer contact with others. He was often called upon the intervene
in the hunt and persuade the prey to give itself to the hunters. Inuit legends also illustrate feelings
of awe for the natural world. Sedna, for example, was a drowning girl whose severed fingers
are transformed in the water into whales and seals.
B. Wood was scarce, so Inuit art was generally carved out of ivory, caribou antlers or local stone,
which had to be mined during the warmer months, sometimes at great distances from the hunting
base. The carvings had simple shapes and smooth lines which were reminiscent of the flowing
snowy landscape.
C. Needless to say, these spirits were respected by the Inuit, because they affected their daily lives
in so many ways. The sea, for example, could be bountiful, or it could withhold its gifts. Animals
could be hunted or they could evade the hunters. A whale’s spirit, if offended, could direct its
host well away from the whalers, or, having been shown the proper respect, it could allow itself
to be caught.
D. This attitude is something which could inform our own worldview and form the basis of a more
rational approach to our planet. Unfortunately, we appear to have too much confidence in our
supposed superiority to listen. Feelings like this are nothing new; indeed, we have been
contributing to the decline of the Inuit for quite some time.
E. There are those who will argue that these efforts have benefited the ailing Inuit culture, and
perhaps they are right to some extent. Tourism brings in money, helps raise awareness of Inuit
culture and the problems surrounding its survival, and selling art, however cheapened and

Page 6 of 18
 removed from tradition, does the same. We cannot change history, the argument goes, and at
least these are ways to help revive and maintain those few crafts and skills which survive among
the Inuit.
F. Soon, fashions changed and fur was in demand, so the Inuit became trappers. They had
previously hunted big game, which required the combined efforts of the extended family unit,
but trapping foxes was a solitary pursuit, and involvement in this field further eroded their
traditional way of life. By the time the fur trade collapsed in the mid-twentieth century, the Inuit
lifestyle and economy had changed so drastically that it was impossible to revert to the old way
of life.
G. This is particularly true in the case of the native people of the northern polar regions of the
world, who could instruct us mightily if we let them. The Inuit, whose name means ‘living
people’, are believed to have migrated westward from Greenland about a thousand years ago,
merging with or possibly assimilating other, older peoples. Many aspects of their culture reveal
a noble and cohesive world view which shows a deep respect for all living creatures as well as
the natural environment, and acknowledges their interconnectedness.
H. Fortunately, the prohibitive cost and the arduous trek to the far north, which involves several
flights in single-engine aircraft and several hours on a snowmobile, have deterred all but the
most determined travellers from such northern fantasy trips. But it is only a matter of time before
insatiable adventure-seekers look to these regions as the last frontier to visit and impress their
friends with.
Your answers:
1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7.
Part 2. There are four passages marked A, B, C, and D. For questions 8-17, read the passages and
do the task that follows. Write your answers in the corresponding numbered boxes provided.
Dorothy Who?
The only British woman scientist to win the Nobel prize should be a household name in her own
country, says Georgina Ferry, but she is little known.
A. For the past four years, I have been subjecting friends and acquaintances to the Dorothy
Hodgkin test. It's very simple: when asked what I am working on, I tell them I am writing the
first biography of Dorothy Hodgkin. If their eyes light up, and they say things like 'Surely
there's one already!' they have passed.
Why should people in Britain know about Dorothy Hodgkin? The fact that she is the only
British woman scientist to have won a Nobel prize ought to be enough. Anyone who held the
same distinction in literature would be a household name. But Hodgkin, who died in 1994,
was a remarkable individual by any standards, as many-faceted as the crystals she studied. Her
life reflects some of the greatest upheavals of the 20th century: among them, the advancement
of women's education and the globalisation of science.
When I began my research, I set out to read some scientific biographies. One of Hodgkin's
friends recommended a new biography of Linus Pauling. Pauling was a close friend and
contemporary of Hodgkin, worked in the same branch of science and shared a commitment to
campaigning against nuclear weapons. I hurried to the main bookshop in the university town
where I live, only to discover that not a single biography of Pauling was on the shelves. I now
realise I was naive to be surprised that Pauling was not deemed sufficiently interesting to
British readers, even though he was the most influential chemist of the 20th century and a
winner of Nobel prizes for both chemistry and peace.
B. Even scientists themselves have doubted the value of the scientific biography. 'The lives of
scientists, considered as Lives, almost always make dull reading', wrote the late Peter
Medawar, another Nobel laureate, who laid most of the scientific groundwork that now makes
organ transplants possible.

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 If scientists propagate this negative view, it is hardly surprising if publishers and booksellers
share it. Treating scientists differently from everybody else as biographical subjects is one of
the outstanding symptoms of the 'two cultures' mentality, the belief that there is an
unbridgeable divide of understanding between the arts and sciences, still prevalent in the
literary world. Few but the towering giants of science make it into the biography sections of
bookshops.
Of course it is nonsense to say scientists, as a group, lead less interesting lives than artists and
writers, or actors, or politicians. For some, the fastidiousness involved in maintaining scientific
credibility extends to any kind of media appearance. A leading geneticist once told me he was
happy to be interviewed about his work, but did not want to be quoted directly or
photographed, because he did not want to be perceived as ‘self-promoting’.
C. The avoidance of the personal conveys a false impression of the enterprise of science that
discourages young people from joining in, and fosters more public suspicion than it dispels.
Fortunately, gaps are appearing in the smokescreen. Contemporary scientists now regularly
appear in the public eye in contexts other than the straightforward scientific interview. For
instance, Professor Richard Dawkins presents prizes to winners of a TV quiz, and geneticist
Steve Jones advertises cars on television. No doubt these activities have raised eyebrows in
laboratories but they have done more to make scientists recognisable as people than any
number of academic papers.
The publishing world is also undergoing a transformation. Scientific biographies and
autobiographies, if they appeared at all, used to be rather scholarly but dull and overreverent.
The life which the scientist in question led outside work marriage, children, things most people
regard as fairly central to their existence - was often dismissed in a couple of paragraphs. That
changed with Richard Feynman's Surely You're Joking, Mr Feynman?, the hilarious and
affecting memoir of a man who also happened to be one of the century's greatest theoretical
physicists. More recently, even the greatest names in science, such as Isaac Newton, Charles
Darwin, Albert Einstein and Marie Curie have been allowed to appear with all their flaws
clearly visible. To the reader, it does not matter that Einstein's relationship with his family is
'irrelevant' to his General Theory of Relativity. The question of how creative genius copes with
emotional ups and downs, trivial practicalities, the social demands of ordinary life, is
absorbing in its own right.
D. Dorothy Hodgkin was devoted to her scientific work. Her most important successes were
solving the structure of penicillin and vitamin B12, which won her the Nobel prize for
chemistry in 1964, and of insulin, which her group solved in 1969. In each case she pushed
the technique into realms of complexity others deemed unreachable at the time.
But she also had three children to whom she was devoted and was married to a frequently
absent husband with a career as a historian. Her personal life is not strictly relevant to her work
as a scientist, but surely we can all learn from her capacity to unite the disparate threads of her
life into a coherent whole. There is much in her life of universal interest, but it would be
disloyal of me to imply that this does not include the science itself. Scientific inquiry was the
passion of Hodgkin's life, as it has to be for any successful scientist. How to communicate the
nature of this passion is the hardest task for the scientific biographer. Most readers are not
equipped with enough fundamental scientific concepts to grasp more complex ideas without a
lot of explanation. Understanding scientific ideas is not really any more difficult than reading
Shakespeare or learning a foreign language it just takes application. It is sad to think that
educated people, who would be embarrassed if they failed to recognise the name of some
distinguished literary or artistic figure, continue to live in happy ignorance of the rich heritage
represented by scientists such as Dorothy Hodgkin.

Which section mentions the following? Your answers:

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 • the continuing general scarcity of biographies of scientists 8. ________
• certain parallels between the lives of two people 9. ________
• an attitude which is common to scientists and people working in the book trade 10. ________
• the lack of trust people sometimes have in scientists 11. ________
• someone whose scientific research went much further than others had 12. ________
believed possible
• biographies which include the less positive aspects of a scientist's life 13. ________
• the lessons to be taken from someone else's life 14. ________
• growing public interest in the everyday lives of brilliant people 15. ________
• the greatest difficulty in writing the biography of a scientist 16. ________
• someone who was modest about the interest of their own life to others 17. ________

Part 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) according to the
text. Write your answers (A, B, C or D) in the corresponding numbered boxes.
Language diversity has always been part of the national demographic landscape of the United
States. At the time of the first census in 1790, about 25% of the population spoke languages other
than English (Lepore, 2002). Thus, there was a diverse pool of native speakers of other languages at
the time of the founding of the republic. Today, nationwide, school districts have reported more than
400 languages spoken by language-minority students classified as limited English proficient (LEP)
students (Kindler, 2002). Between 1991 and 2002, total K-12 student enrollment rose only 12%,
whereas LEP student enrollment increased 95% during this same time period (National Clearinghouse
for English Language Acquisition, 2002b). This rapid increase and changing demographics has
intensified the long debate over the best way to educate language-minority students.
Historically, many groups attempted to maintain their native languages even as they learned
English, and for a time, some were able to do so with relatively little resistance until a wave of
xenophobia swept the country during World War 1 (Kloss, 1977/1998). Other groups, Africans, and
Native Americans encountered repressive politics much earlier. During the 1960s, a more tolerant
policy climate emerged. However, for the past two decades there has been a steady undertow of
resistance to bilingualism and bilingual education. This article provides historical background and
analyzes contemporary trends in language-minority education within the context of the recent
national push for accountability, which typically takes the form of high-stakes testing.
The origins of persistent themes regarding the popular antagonisms toward bilingual education
and the prescribed panaceas of "English immersion" and high-stakes testing in English need to be
scrutinized. As background to the contemporary context, we briefly discuss the history of language
politics in the United States and the ideological underpinnings of the dominant monolingual English
ideology. We analyze the recent attacks on bilingual education for what this attack represents for
educational policy within a multilingual society such as the United States. We emphasize
multilingualism because most discussions of language policy are framed as if monolingualism were
part of our heritage from which we are now drifting. Framing the language policy issues in this way
masks both the historical and contemporary reality and positions non-English language diversity as
an abnormality that must be cured. Contrary to the steady flow of disinformation, we begin with the
premise that even as English has historically been the dominant language in the United States since
the colonial era, language diversity has always been a fact of life. Thus, efforts to deny that reality
represent a "malady of mind" (Blaut, 1993) that has resulted in either restrictionist or repressive
language policies for minorities.
As more states ponder imposing restrictions on languages of instruction other than English-as
California, Arizona, and Massachusetts have recently done-it is useful to highlight several questions
related to the history of language politics and language planning in the United States. Educational

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language planning is frequently portrayed as an attempt to solve the language problems of the
minority. Nevertheless, the historical record indicates that schools have generally failed to meet the
needs of language-minority students (Deschenes, Cuban, & Tyack, 2001) and that the endeavor to
plan language behavior by forcing a rapid shift to English has often been a source of language
problems that has resulted in the denial of language rights and hindered linguistic access to
educational, social, economic, and political benefits even as the promoters of English immersion
claim the opposite.
The dominance of English was established under the British during the colonial period, not by
official decree but through language status achievement, that is, through "the legitimization of a
government's decisions regarding acceptable language for those who are to carry out the political,
economic, and social affairs of the political process" (Heath, 1976, p.51). English achieved
dominance as a result of the political and socioeconomic trade between England and colonial
administrators, colonists, and traders. Other languages coexisted with English in the colonies with
notable exceptions. Enslaved Africans were prohibited from using their native tongues for fear that it
would facilitate resistance or rebellion. From the 1740s forward, southern colonies simultaneously
institutionalized "compulsory ignorance" laws that prohibited those enslaved from acquiring
English literacy for similar reasons. These restrictive slave codes were carried forward as the former
southern colonies became states of the newly United States and remained in force until the end of the
Civil War in 1865 (Weinberg, 1977/1995). Thus, the very first formal language policies were
restrictive with the explicit purpose of promoting social control.
18. What is the primary purpose of including the statistic from the 1790 census in the introductory
paragraph?
A. To explain how colonizing the US eradicated language diversity.
B. To show concrete evidence that language diversity in the US is not a new phenomenon.
C. To note that before that time, there was no measure of language diversity in the US.
D. To demonstrate that census data can be inaccurate.
19. The article compares two sets of statistics from the years 1991-2002, increases in K-12 enrollment
and increases in LEP students, to highlight______.
A. that the two numbers, while often cited in research, are insignificant
B. that while many people with school-age children immigrated to the US during this time, an
equal amount left the country as well
C. that language diversity had no impact on US student enrollment during this time
D. that while the total amount of students enrolled in US schools may have grown slowly, the
amount of those students who were LEP increased dramatically
20. According to the second paragraph, many groups maintained their native languages without
resistance into the 20th century EXCEPT__________.
A. Native Americans and African Americans B. Irish Americans and African Americans
C. Mexican Americans and Native Americas D. Native Americans and Dutch Americans
21. Why is the word "undertow" emphasized in the second paragraph?
A. To explain how certain groups continued to carry their native languages with them despite the
opposition from those against language diversity.
B. To show the secretive and sneaky nature of those opposed to language diversity.
C. To call attention to the ebb and flow of language resistance during the 20th century,
experiencing periods of both rest and extremism.
D. To explain that, while many groups tried to maintain their native languages, many gave in to
social and political pressure to use only English.
22. What is the best way to describe the function of the third paragraph in this excerpt?
A. The paragraph provides its primary thesis as well an outline of the article's main points.
B. The paragraph is an unnecessary and irrelevant inclusion.
C. The paragraph serves to reveal the conclusions of the article before detailing the data.
D. The paragraph firmly establishes the article's stance against language diversity.

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23. What is the best summary of why the phrase "multilingualism" is emphasized in the third
paragraph?
A. Language repression stems from the US's unwillingness to recognize the languages of its
foreign allies.
B. Because language is constantly changing and often goes through multiple phases over time.
C. The authors firmly believe that speaking more than one language gives students a substantial
benefit in higher education.
D. Language policy discussions often assumes that the US has a monolinguistic history, which is
untrue and poses language diversity as threatening.
24. Phrases such as "prescribed panaceas" and "malady of the mind" are used in the third paragraph
to______.
A. defend the point that the US must standardize its language education or there will be severe
results
B. point out that language is as much a physical process as an intellectual one
C. illustrate how certain opponents of language diversity equate multilingual education with a kind
of national disease
D. demonstrate how the stress of learning multiple languages can make students ill
25. According to the fourth paragraph, all of the following are potential negatives of rapid English
immersion EXCEPT__________.
A. it can lead to a denial of language rights for particular groups
B. students become more familiar with conversational expressions and dialect
C. it can prevent access to certain benefits that are always available to fluent speakers
D. it can promote feelings of alienation among groups that are already in a minority status
26. The best alternate definition of "language status achievement" is __________.
A. when enough scholarly work has been produced in a language, it is officially recognized
B. those who are in power socially and economically determine the status of a language
C. languages fall into a hierarchy depending upon the numbers of populations that speak them
D. the position of a language in which no others may coexist with it
27. From the context of the final paragraph, what does "compulsory ignorance" mean?
A. Populations at the time were required only to obtain a certain low level of education.
B. Slave populations were compelled to only speak in their native languages and not learn English.
C. That slaves were forcibly prevented from developing their native language skills out of fear
that they would gain power.
D. Slave owners would not punish slaves who did not wish to learn and speak only English.
Your answer:
18. 19. 20. 21. 22.
23. 24. 25. 26. 27.
Part 4. For questions 28 - 37, fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word
and write your answers in the correspondent numbered boxes provided. (10 pts)
WHERE HAVE ALL THE GOOD CARTOONS GONE?
Childhood will never be the same again. Remember Saturday mornings spent lounging on the
sofa, hour (28)________ hour, watching your favourite cartoons? (29)________ there have been a
better reward for the long school week that had had to be endured? Bugs Bunny, Donald Duck,
Mickey Mouse brought virtually live into (30)________ living rooms. Back then, they were in black
and white, and back then, they were meant to amuse, to entertain.
It seems this has changed – and definitely (31)________ the worse. Now when you turn on
the television on a Saturday or Sunday morning, you do (32)________ at your own risk! Be prepared
to confront violence in all its animated glory: exploding bombs, falling buildings, blazing weapons,
and bad guy after bad guy. I don’t see (33)________ is funny about this warped vision of our times
and our society. Nor do I see what’s worth watching on these programmes with (34)________
gruesome caricatures of good and evil. Who is responsible for children’s programming these days?

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 It cannot be good for today’s youth to be exposed (35)________ this type of entertainment.
(36)________ best, they are missing out on the humour, sensitivity and moral lessons that were to be
had from the cartoons of old. At worst, their childish brains are (37)________ filled with scenes of
non-stop violence and ideas that are morally corrupt. Childhood should be a time of innocence, short-
lived as it may be in these turbulent times in which we live. Perhaps we should bear this in mind the
next time we see our child glued to the TV on a Saturday morning.
Your answer:
Your answers:
28. 29. 30. 31. 32.
33. 34. 35. 36. 37.

Part 5. Read the text and do the tasks that follow.

The Farmers! Parade of history

A
History of Fanner trading company: In 1909 Robert Laidlaw establishes mail-order company
Laidlaw Leeds in Fort Street, Auckland. Then, Branch expansion: purchase of Green and Colebrook
chain store; further provincial stores in Auckland and Waikato to follow. Opening of first furniture
and boot factory. In 1920, Company now has 29 branches; Whangarei store purchased. Doors open
at Hobson Street for direct selling to public. The firm establishes London and New York buying
offices. With permission from the Harbour Board, the large FARMERS electric sign on the
Wyndham Street frontage is erected.
B
In 1935, if the merchandise has changed, the language of the catalogues hasn’t Robert Laidlaw, the
Scottish immigrant who established die century-old business, might have been scripting a modern-
day television commercial when he told his earliest customers: Satisfaction, or your money back. “It
was the first money back guarantee ever offered in New Zealand by any firm,” says Ian Hunter,
business historian. “And his mission statement was, potentially, only the second one ever found in
the world.” Laidlaw’s stated aims were simple to build the greatest business in New Zealand, to
simplify every transaction, to eliminate all delays, to only sell goods it would pay the customer to
buy.
C
This year, the company that began as a mail-order business and now employs 3500 staff across 58
stores turns 100. Its centenary will be celebrated with the release of a book and major community
fundraising projects, to be announced next week. Hunter, who is writing the centenary history, says
“coming to a Fanners store once a week was a part of the New Zealand way of life”. By 1960, one
in every 10 people had an account with die company. It was the place where teenage girls shopped
for their first bra, where newlyweds purchased their first dinner sets, where first pay cheques were
used to pay off hire purchase furniture, where Santa paraded every Christmas.
D
Gary Blumenthal’s mother shopped there, and so does he. The fondest memory for the Rotorua
resident? “We were on holiday in Auckland… I decided that upon the lookout tower on top of the
Farmers building would be a unique place to fit the ring on my new fiancee’s finger.” The
lovebirds, who had to wait for “an annoying youth” to leave the tower before they could enjoy their
engagement kiss, celebrate their 50th wedding anniversary in June.

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E
Farmers, says Hunter, has always had a heart. This, from a 1993 North & South interview with a
former board chairman, Rawdon Busfield: “One day I was in the Hobson Street shop and I saw a
woman with two small children. They were clean and tidily dressed, but poor, you could tell. That
week we had a special on a big bar of chocolate for one shilling. I heard the woman say to her boy,
‘no, your penny won’t buy that’. He wasn’t wearing shoes. So I went up to the boy said,’ Son, have
you got your penny? ‘He handed it to me. It was hot he’d had it in his hand for hours. I took the
penny and gave him the chocolate.”
F
Farmers was once the home of genteel tearooms, children’s playgrounds and an annual sale of
celebration for birthday of Hector the Parrot (the store mascot died, aged 131, in the 1970s his
stuffed remains still occupy pride of place at the company’s head office). You could buy houses
from Farmers. Its saddle factory supplied the armed forces, and its upright grand overstrung pianos
offered “the acme of value” according to those early catalogues hand-drawn by Robert Laidlaw
himself. Walk through a Farmers store today and get hit by bright lights and big brands. Its Albany
branch houses 16 international cosmetics companies. It buys from approximately 500 suppliers, and
about 30% of those are locally owned.
G
“Eight, 10 years ago,” says current chief executive Rod McDermott, “lots of brands wouldn’t
partner with us. The stores were quite distressed. We were first price point focused, we weren’t
fashion focused. “Remove the rose-tinted nostalgia, and Farmers is, quite simply, a business, doing
business in hard times. Dancing with the Stars presenter Candy Lane launches a clothing line? “We
put a trial on, and we thought it was really lovely, but the uptake wasn’t what we thought it would
be. It’s got to be what the customer wants,” says McDermott.
H
He acknowledges retailers suffer in a recession: “We’re celebrating 100 years because we can and
because we should.” Farmers almost didn’t pull through one economic crisis. By the mid 1980s, it
had stores across the country. It had acquired the South Island’s Calder Mackay chain of stores and
bought out Haywrights. Then, with sales topping $375 million, it was taken over by Chase
Corporation. Lincoln Laidlaw, now aged 88, and the son of the company’s founder, remembers the
dark days following the stock market crash and the collapse of Chase. “I think, once, Farmers was
like a big family and all of the people who worked for it felt they were building something which
would ultimately be to their benefit and to the benefit of New Zealand… then the business was
being divided up and so that kind of family situation was dispelled and it hasn’t been recovered.”
For a turbulent few years, the stores were controlled, first by a consortium of Australian banks and
later Deka, the Maori Development Corporation and Foodland Associated Ltd. In 2003, it went
back to “family” ownership, with the purchase by the James Pascoe Group, owned by David and
Anne Norman the latter being the great-granddaughter of James Pascoe, whose first business
interest was jewellery.
I
“Sheer power of the brand,” says McDermott, “pulled Farmers through and now we’re becoming
the brand it used to be again.” Farmers was the company that, during World War n, topped up the
wages of any staff member disadvantaged by overseas service. Robert Laidlaw a committed
Christian who came to his faith at a 1902 evangelistic service in Dunedin concluded his original
mission statement with the words, “all at it, always at it, wins success”. Next week, 58 Farmers
stores across the country will announce the local charities they will raise funds for in their centenary
celebration everything from guide dog services to hospices to volunteer fire brigades will benefit.

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Every dollar raised by the community will be matched by the company. “It’s like the rebirth of an
icon,” says McDermott.
Questions 38-42
The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-I
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter A-I, in boxes provided.
38. Generosity offered in an occasion.
39. Innovation of offer made by the head of company.
40. Fashion was not its strong point.
41. A romantic event on the roof of farmers.
42. Farmers were sold to a private owned company.
Your answer
38. 39. 40. 41. 42.
Questions 43-47
Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage
Using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the Reading Passage for each answer.

6. Farmers was first founded as a 43 ______in Auckland by Mr Laidlaw.

7. Farmers developed fast and bought one 44 ______then.
8. During oversea expansion, Farmers set up 45 ______in cities such as London.
9. Farmers held a 46 ______once a year for the well-known parrot.
10. In the opinion of Lincoln Laidlaw, Farmers is like a 47 ______for employees, not just for
themselves but for the whole country.
Your answer
43. 44. 45. 46. 47.

Questions 48-50
Use the information in the passage to match the people (listed A-C) with opinions or deeds below.
Write the appropriate letters A-C in boxes provided.
NB You may use any letter more than once.
A Lincoln Laidlaw
B Rod McDermott
C Ian Hunter
48. Product became worse as wrong aspect focused.
49. An unprecedented statement made by Farmers in New Zealand.

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50. Character of the company was changed.
Your answer
48. 49. 50.

IV. WRITING (60 points)

Part 1. Read the following extract and use your own words to summarize it. Your summary should
be between 100 and 120 words.
In his nearly 30 years studying vaccines, Paul Goepfert, M.D., director of the Alabama
Vaccine Research Clinic at the University of Alabama at Birmingham, has never seen any vaccine as
effective as the three COVID vaccines — from Pfizer, Moderna, and Johnson & Johnson — currently
available in the United States. “A 90 percent decrease in risk of infections, and 94 percent
effectiveness against hospitalization for the Pfizer and Moderna vaccines is fantastic,” he said. But
what makes vaccine experts such as Goepfert confident that COVID vaccines are safe in the long term?
There are several reasons, actually. Vaccines, given in one- or two-shot doses, are very
different from medicines that people take every day, potentially for years. And decades of vaccine
history — plus data from more than a billion people who have received COVID vaccines starting last
December — provide powerful proof that there is little chance that any new dangers will emerge from
COVID vaccines. Goepfert says we already know enough to be confident the COVID vaccines are
safe, starting with the way vaccines work and continuing through strong evidence from vaccine
history and the even stronger evidence from the responses of people who have received COVID-19
vaccines worldwide over the past six months. “Many people worry that these vaccines were ‘rushed’
into use and still do not have full FDA approval — they are currently being distributed under
Emergency Use Authorizations,” Goepfert said. “But because we have had so many people
vaccinated, we actually have far more safety data than we have had for any other vaccine, and these
COVID vaccines have an incredible safety track record. There should be confidence in that.”
https://www.uab.edu/news/health/item
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Part 2. Describing a graph
The graph below shows the gold medals team Great Britain has won in 4 sports during 6 Olympics.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons
where relevant. You should write about 150 words.

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Part 3. Write an essay of 350 words on the following topic:
History should be a core subject in high school like Maths, Literature, and English.
Do you agree or disagree with the statement? Discuss this statement and give your opinion.
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TRƯỜNG THPT CHUYÊN VĨNH THI GIAO LƯU DHBB
PHÚC NĂM HỌC 2021 – 2022
---------------- MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH 11
(Đề thi có 13 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (Không kể giao đề)
I. LISTENING
Section 1: You will hear an interview with Steve, who talks about the love of his life,
Abby. For questions 1-5, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which fits best according to
what you hear.
1. How did Abby feel about Steve five years ago?
A. She felt the same way as Steve did about her.
B. She was uncertain about starting any relationship.
C. She thought he was fun to be with occasionally.
D. She looked up to Steve, but didn't love him.
2. How did Steve explain Abby's change of heart initially?
A. He saw it as an aberration, brought on by boredom.
B. He thought she was having a laugh at his expense.
C. He put it down to her being lonely and unattached.
D. He decided something at work must have upset her.
3. What did Steve's work colleagues suddenly notice about him?
A. He was putting in longer hours than he had done.
B. He was showing more commitment to his work.
C. He seemed preoccupied by a personal problem.
D. He spent less time chatting with them in the office.
4. On hearing Steve's declaration,the first thing Samantha did was to
A. get some flowers for Abby.
B. tell Steve's office he was sick.
C. burst into tears at his news.
D. rush round to Abby's place.
5. At the family wedding, Steve
A. announced his plan to get married to Abby.
B. showed an American how to drive a British car.
C. was given advice by someone he didn't know well.
D. was attacked by his mother for ditching Samantha.

Section 2: You are going to hear a writer called Peter Watkins being interviewed bythe
programme presenter, Sue Manchester. He is talking about his book, which discusses
the behaviour of animals and birds in relation to the weather.
For questions 6-10 decide whether these statements are true or false.
6. Sue has little faith in the accuracy of sayings about the weather.
7. Peter says that low-flying birds suffer badly in storms.
8. According to Peter, insects have difficulty in sensing changes in the atmosphere.
9. Peter says that weather sayings used to be confined to the farming community.
10. Sue agrees with Peter about the contradictory nature of some of the sayings.

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Section 3: You will hear a conversation. Based on what you hear, answer the questions
11-15. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each
answer.
11. What job was Sam expecting to do?
12. Which city did he fly to?
13. What document, other than his visa, did Sam show the immigration officials?
14. What did the immigration officials buy for Sam?
15. When is the “Welcome Back” party?

Section 4: You will hear a piece of news. Based on what you hear, complete the
sentences with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the
listening for each blank.
• The 43-year-old family-run foodstall on a quiet residential street in the suburban area
of Tokyo has been (16)_____________________ for housewives for decades.
• The price of the corn snack, for example, has increased by
(17)_____________________ for the first time for more than 40 years.
• In a society which believes in sharing social burdens, it's almost a
(18)_____________________ to raise prices while wages remain unchanged.
• Hence, (19)_____________________ had to be launched to explain for the rise.
• The inflation is allegedly necessary for Japan to have a (20)_____________________
for the economy.
• This can make a difference, leading the price to go up moderately, not
(21)_____________________.
• As a result, Japan will get out of (22)_____________________ that it has been in for
30 years.
• According to takeshi Ninami, the chief executive of Japan's
(23)_____________________ Santori, Japanese businesses face with
(24)_____________________.
• Japan has been (25)_____________________ the issue of increasing prices for
decades, but in the current situation, actions will soon be taken.

II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Section 1: Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the following questions.
1. We are not known _______ at all; and as we grow, we feel a progress lack of individual
personality.
A. gruelingly B. severally C. expensively D. brusquely
2. The blue sundress set _______ her long blonde hair.
A. up B. off C. forth D. in
3. His poor handling of the business _______ on negligence.
A. neared B. edged C. approached D. bordered

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4. Brain cancer requires _______ treatment such as surgery.
A. aggressive B. confrontation C. malignant D. rigorous
5. If we _______ over the details, we’ll never finish filming this episode by today.
A. niggle B. discuss C. huddle D. mob
6. Last weekend, _______ nothing to watch on television, we sang karaoke together.
A. there being B. there having C. having had D. being
7. I didn’t really want to go to the party, but I thought I’d better put _______ an appearance.
A. away B. in C. off D. on
8. The upper branches of the tallest trees produce more leaves _______ other branches.
A. than do B. than have C. than they do D. than it does
9. Given that Mary is an _______ liar, you must take what she says with a small grain of
salt.
A. incorrigible B. incurable C. irredeemable D. irremediable
10. In geometry, an ellipse may be defined as the locus of all points _______ distances from
two fixed points is constant.
A. the sum of whose B. of which the sum C. whose sum of D. which the sum of
11. _______ her job, her sons and the housework, she doesn’t have a minute for herself.
A. What with B. If it weren’t for C. Barring D. Given
12. In such a plight _______ that we had no choice but to radio for help.
A. we found ourselves B. we ourselves found
C. did we find ourselves D. did we ourselves find
13. I knew my mother would _______ a face the minute she saw my new haircut.
A. drag B. lift C. pull D. raise
14. ‘Do you think Dennis took the money?’ – ‘I wouldn’t _______ him.’
A. put it past B. think it through C. pass it over D. rub it up
15. Rather than take his time to think about the questions, the interviewee _______ out the
first answer that came into his head.
A. blundered B. blurted C. bungled D. botched
16. The luxurious office accentuated the manager’s position _______. It enhanced his power
and his sense of his own worth. And it made other people feel small.
A. on the pecking pole B. in the nibbling line
C. at the ripping post D. in the pecking order
17. I realized _______ that he was a thief.
A. sooner or later B. all a long C. at the beginning D. eventually
18. His flat looks so _______ that it is difficult to believe he just had a party last night.
A. spick and span B. by and large C. safe and sound D. sick and tired
19. He will not _________ his allegiance to his family
A. aberration B. abogate C. abject D. abjure
20. He intended to ___________ the decree issued by his predecessor.

A. abrogate B. adamant C. abject D. annex

Section 2: Supply the correct forms of the words given.

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21. The project was subject to the usual ________ of exploratory research. (VICIOUS)

22. The cargo was ________ for safe and efficient shipping. (CONTENT)
23. She ________ questions about whether she plans to run, saying she’s focused on her
voter registration and campaign finance initiatives. (STEP)
24. ‘Villa’ was something of a ________ the place was no more than an old farmhouse.
(NAME)
25. She stood there completely ________ so I had no idea at all what she was thinking.
(EXPRESS)
26. Any actor who becomes known for one role is in danger of becoming ________.
(TYPE)
27. This school was once ________ as a military hospital during the war. (REQUIRE)
28. The rocks appear to be stationary but in the high winds that whip across this desert
landscape, they are in reality moving ________.
29. The boats surrounded the whales, drove them into nets, where they became ________
and were rendered helpless by harpoon thrusts. (MESH)
30. Perhaps ________, recent computer modeling studies predict fewer tropical cyclones if
the ocean heats up further as a result of global warming. (INTUITION)

III. READING
Section 1: You are going to read an extract from a book on human rights. Seven
paragraphs have been removed from the extract. Choose from the paragraphs A-H the
one which fits each gap (1-7). There is one extra paragraph which you do not need to
use.
VALUES FOR A GODLESS AGE
When the Berlin Wall came tumbling down in 1989 so did the plaster cast which had kept
the idea of human rights in limbo. It was now free to evolve in response to the changing
conditions of the late twentieth century.
(1)__________________________
Of course, in one sense, the quest for universal human rights standards after the Second
World War was an early attempt to communicate across national boundaries, albeit a rather
faltering endeavour, with its claims to universality challenged both in terms of authorship
and content. More recently, a loosening of the reins of the human rights dialogue has ushered
in wider debate.
(2)__________________________
Perhaps the best known of these is Amnesty International, established in 1961. Before
Amnesty, there were very few organizations like it, yet now there are thousands operating
all over the world. Whether campaigning for the protection of the environment or third-
world debt relief, any such organization is engaged in the debate about fundamental human
rights. And it is no longer just a soft sideshow.
(3)__________________________
The fact that strangers from different countries can communicate with each other through
the worldwide web is having a similar effect in dealing a blow to misinformation. During

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one recent major human rights trial over sixty websites sprang up to cover the proceedings,
while sales of the government-controlled new paper in that country plummeted.
(4)__________________________
The effect of increased responsibility at this highest level has been to continually extend the
consideration of who is legally liable, directly or indirectly, under international human rights
law. In part, this is an acknowledgement that even individuals need to be held responsible
for flagrant breaches of others' rights, whether these are preventing protesters from
peacefully demonstrating or abusing the rights of children.
(5)__________________________
It has been noted that paradoxically, in such circumstances, it may be in the interests of
human rights organizations to seek to reinforce the legitimacy and authority of the state,
within a regulated global framework.
(6)__________________________
Part of the new trend in human rights thinking is therefore to include powerful private bodies
within its remit. The International Commission of Jurists has recently explored ways in
which international human rights standards could be directly applied to transnational
corporations.
(7)__________________________
Whatever the way ahead, the lessons of the past must be learnt. Any world view or set of
values which is presented as self-evident is ultimately doomed to failure. The case for human
rights always needs to be made and remade. In a world where globalization too often seems
like a modernized version of old-fashioned cultural imperialism, it is important to query the
claim that human rights are universally accepted.
A. The problem is that the growth of globalization makes the protection of nation states a
pointless goal in certain circumstances. Transnational corporations with multiple
subsidiaries operating in a number of countries simultaneously wield significant economic
and political power and it is often extremely difficult for the state - both home and host
governments - to exercise effective legal control over them.
B. If the proliferation of pressure groups has raised the profile of the human rights debate,
satellite television has reinforced much of the content of their campaigns. The fact that from
our armchairs we can all see live what is happening to others around the world has had an
enormous impact on the way the struggle for human rights is viewed. It would not be
remotely believable to plead ignorance nowadays, for 24-hour news coverage from the
world's hotspots reaches us all.
C. This is, after all, a uniquely propitious time, as the values and language of human rights
are becoming familiar to more and more people, who judge the merits or otherwise of
political and economic decisions increasingly in human rights terms. Arguments seem fresh
and appealing in many quarters where once they sounded weak and stale.
D. On a global scale, it is not strong states that are the problem here but weak ones, as they
fail to protect their citizens from private power - whether it is paramilitaries committing
murder and torture or transnational corporations spreading contamination and pollution.
E. One of the most significant of these is what has come to be called 'globalization', the
collapsing of national boundaries in economic, political and cultural life. From the

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expanding role of the world's financial markets and the spread of transnational corporations
to the revolution in communications and information technology, more and more areas of
people's lives are affected by regional, international or transnational developments, whether
they are aware of this or not.
F. Not only must states not infringe rights, and enforce those rights which fall within their
direct sphere (like providing a criminal justice system or holding fair elections), but they
also have 'positive obligations' to uphold rights enshrined in human rights treaties, even
when it is private parties which have violated them.
G. The results of its investigations were published in 1 999 in a unique pamphlet on
Globalization, Human Rights and the Rule ofLaw. The issue to be faced is whether to treat
these and other corporations as 'large para-state entities to be held accountable under the
same sort of regime as states', or whether to look for different approaches to accountability
'that are promulgated by consumer groups and the corporations themselves'.
H. No longer the preserve of representatives of nation states meeting under the auspices of
the United Nations, a developing conversation is taking place on a global scale and involving
a growing cast of people - for an increasing range of pressure groups now frame their
aspirations in human rights terms.

Section 2: Fill in each numbered blank with ONE suitable word.

A new threat to our health seems to have arisen in our midst, confusion and stress
brought (1)____ by technology. All you need to do or prove this to (2)____ is to telephone
a large company; a recorded voice will (3)____ you with a bewildering list of choices, and
when you have finished answering its questions, you will probably be subjected to several
minutes of piped music before you eventually make contact with a human being. But the
stress you undergo as a result is negligible compared to the (4)____ the telegraph made on
people 150 years ago. Until (5)____, messages could only travel as fast as a messenger could
carry them. But now they could be sent great (6)____ in seconds. Before long, (7)____
cables were laid across the oceans, and thirty years later, the network reached 20,000 towns
around the world.
Information arrived so quickly, often contradicting what had previously been
transmitted, (8)____ businessmen had to work much harder to (9)____ abreast of
developments. If we find difficulty with the Internet, which is technological evolution,
(10)____ revolution, our ancestors had afar harder task in getting used to the invention in
the first place.

Section 3: Read the following passage and answer questions.

BRINGING UP CHILDREN
Where one stage of child development has been left out, or not sufficiently
experienced, the child may have to go back and capture the experience of it. A good home
makes this possible - for example, by providing the opportunity for the child to play with a
clockwork car or toy railway train up to any age if he still needs to do so. This principle, in
fact, underlies all psychological treatment of children in difficulties with their development,
and is the basic of work in child clinics.

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 The beginnings of discipline are in the nursery. Even the youngest baby is taught by
gradual stages to wait for food, to sleep and wake at regular intervals and so on. If the child
feels the world around him is a warm and friendly one, he slowly accepts its rhythm and
accustoms himself to conforming to its demands. Learning to wait for things, particularly
for food, is a very important element in upbringing, and is achieved successfully only if too
great demands are not made before the child can understand them. Every parent watches
eagerly the child’s acquisition of each new skill: the first spoken words, the first independent
steps, or the beginning of reading and writing. It is often tempting to hurry the child beyond
his natural learning rate, but this can set up dangerous feelings of failure and states of anxiety
in the child. This might happen at any stage. A baby might be forced to use a toilet too early,
a young child might be encouraged to learn to read before he knows the meaning of the
words he reads. On the other hand, though, if a child is left alone too much, or without any
learning opportunities, he loses his natural zest for life and his desire to find out new things
for himself.
Learning together is a fruitful source of relationship between children and parents.
By playing together, parents learn more about their children and children learn more from
their parents. Toys and games which both parents and children can share are an important
means of achieving this co-operation. Building-block toys, jigsaw puzzles and crosswords
are good examples.
Parents vary greatly in their degree of strictness or indulgence towards their children.
Some may be especially strict in money matters; others are severe over times of coming
home at night, punctuality for meals or personal cleanliness. In general, the
controls imposed represent the needs of the parents and the values of the community as
much as the child's own happiness and well-being.
With regard to the development of moral standards in the growing child, consistency
is very important in parental teaching. To forbid a thing one day and excuse it the next is no
foundation for morality. Also, parents should realize that “Example is better than precept”. If
they are hypocritical and do not practise what they preach, their children may grow confused
and emotionally insecure when they grow old enough to think for themselves, and realize
they have been, to some extent, deceived. A sudden awareness of a marked difference
between their parents' ethics and their morals can be a dangerous disillusion.
1. The principle underlying all treatment of developmental difficulties in children _______.
A. is in the provision of clockwork toys and trains
B. is to send them to clinics
C. is to capture them before they are sufficiently experienced
D. offers recapture of earlier experiences
2. Learning to wait for things is unsuccessful taught _______.
A. in spite of excessive demands being made
B. only if excessive demands are avoided
C. because excessive demands are not advisable
D. is achieved successfully by all children
3. The encouragement of children to achieve new skills _______.
A. should be focused on only at school B. can never be taken too far

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 C. will always assist their development D. should be balanced and moderate
4. Parental controls and discipline _______.
A. serve a dual purpose
B. are designed to promote the child’s happiness
C. reflect only the values of the community
D. should be avoided as far as possible
5. The practice of the rule “Example is better than precept” _______.
A. only works when the children grow old enough to think for themselves
B. would help avoid the necessity for ethnics and morals
C. will free a child from disillusion when he grows up
D. is too difficult for all parents to exercise
6. In the first paragraph, the author lays some emphasis on the role of the _______ in helping
the child in trouble.
A. psychiatrists B. community C. family D. nursery
7. The phrase “conforming to” in the second paragraph means _______.
A. adapting to B. accepting C. agreeing with D. following
8. The word “zest” in the second paragraph means _______.
A. appetite B. excitement C. enthusiasm D. enjoyment
9. The word “imposed” in the fourth paragraph is closest in meaning to _______.
A. excepted B. introduced C. made D. constrained
10. Hypocrisy on the part of the parents may _______.
A. result in their children’s wrong behavior
B. make their children lose faith in them
C. disqualify their teachings altogether
D. impair their children’s mind

Section 4: Read the text and do the tasks that follow.

AIR RAGE
(A) The first recorded case of an airline passenger turning seriously violent during a flight,
a phenomenon now widely known as “air rage”, happened in 1947 on a flight from Havana
to Miami. A drunk man assaulted another passenger and bit a flight attendant. However, the
man escaped punishment because it was not then clear under whose legal control a crime
committed on plane was, the country where the plane was registered or the country where
the crime was committed. In 1963, at the Tokyo convention, it was decided that the laws of
the country where the plane is registered take precedence.
(B) The frequency of air rage has expanded out of proportion to the growth of air travel.
Until recently few statistic were gathered about air rage, but those that have been indicate
that passengers are increasingly likely to cause trouble or engage in violent acts. For
example, in 1998 there were 266 air rage incidents out of approximately four million
passengers, a 400% increase from 1995. In the same period American Airlines showed a
200% rise. Air travel is predicted to rise by 5% internationally by 2010 leading to increased
airport congestion. This, coupled with the flying public’s increased aggression, means that
air rage may become a major issue in coming years.

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(C) Aside from discomfort and disruption, air rage poses some very real dangers to flying.
The most extreme of these is when out of control passengers enter the cockpit. This has
actually happened on a number of occasions, the worst of which have resulted in the death
and injury of pilots or the intruder taking control of the plane, almost resulting in crashes. In
addition, berserk passengers sometimes attempt to open the emergency doors while in flight,
putting the whole aircraft in danger. These are extreme examples and cases of air rage more
commonly result in physical assaults on fellow passengers and crew such as throwing
objects, punching, stabbing or scalding with hot coffee.

(D) The causes of air rage are not known for certain, but it is generally thought that factors
include: passenger behavior and personality, the physical environment and changes in
society. A recent study has identified the issues that start the incidents to be as follows.
Alcohol 25%
Seating 16%
Smoking 10%
Carry on luggage 9%
Flight attendants 8%
Food 5%
(E) One of the major causes seems to be the passenger’s behavior or their personality. Fear
of flying and the feeling of powerlessness associated with flying can lead to irritable or
aggressive passengers. Also, alcohol consumed on a plane pressurized to 8000ft affects the
drinker more quickly and the effects are stronger. Many people do not take account of this
and drinking may increase any negative reaction to the flying environment they have, which,
combined with the lowering of their inhibitions, may cause air rage. Smoking withdrawal,
which some liken in severity to opiate withdrawal, is another major cause of air rage
incidents. Passengers caught smoking in the toilets occasionally assault flight attendants and
have been known to start fires. When conflicts occur in these conditions, they can escalate
into major incidents if the passenger has a violent personality or a fear of flying and because
of the enclosed nature of a plane offers no option of retreat as would be natural in a “fight
or flight” reaction.

(F) Some people feel that the physical environment of a plane can lead to air rage. Seats on
most airlines have become smaller in recent years as airlines try to increase profits. This
leads to uncomfortable and irritated passengers. Also, space for carry-on luggage is often
very small. Because up to 8% of checked in luggage is lost, misdirected or stolen, passengers
have been trying to fit larger carry-on items into these small storage areas and this can lead
to disputes that can escalate into air rage. Airlines could also be to blame by raising
passengers’ expectations too high with their marketing and advertising. Many air rage
incidents start when disappointed passengers demand to be reseated. Finally, there is some
evidence to show that low oxygen levels can raise aggression level and make people feel
more desperate. Airlines have lowered oxygen levels to save money. Now the level of
oxygen in the air that the pilots breathe is ten times higher than in cabin class.

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(G) Another reason that has been suggested is that society is getting ruder and less patient.
The increased congestion at airports, longer queues and increased delays have only added to
this. In addition, some air rage incidents have been linked to the demanding nature of high
achieving business people, who do not like people telling them what to do and resent the
power that the cabin staff have over them. For them, a flight attendant is a waiter or waitress
who should do what the passenger wants.

(H) The strongest calls for action to control air rage have come from pilots and aircrew. The
International Transport Workers’ Federation argues that there are too many loopholes that
let people escape punishment and that the penalties are too light. They want to notify all
passengers of the penalties for air rage before taking off, rather than after the passenger
begins to cause serious problems, when it may be too late. The Civil Aviation Organization
has been organizing international cooperation and penalties have increased in recent years.
The most severe punishment so far has been a 51-month jail sentence, a fine to pay for the
jet fuel used and 200 hours community service for a man who attempted to enter the cockpit
and to open the emergency door of a domestic US flight.

(I) Various other measures are being used to control air rage. Air crews are getting training
on how to calm passengers and how to predict where incidents might result in air rage and
take action to prevent this. Other measures include, strengthening doors to stop people
entering the cockpit, training crew in the use of plastic restraints to tie down unruly
passengers and having pilots divert their planes if passengers cause problems. Banning
passengers who are guilty of air rage from flying has also been tried to a lesser extent.

Questions 1 – 8
The reading passage has nine paragraphs A – I. From the list below choose the most
suitable headings for B – I. Write the appropriate number (i – xiv) beside in boxes 1 – 8 on
your answer sheet.
NB There are more headings than paragraphs, so you do not have to use them all.

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List of headings
i The traveler’s character.
ii Disproportionate growth.
iii Pilots and aircrew.
iv Additional action.
v Smaller seats.
vi Uncomfortable aeroplanes
vii Origins.
viii A major threat.
ix Demands for change.
x Business people.
xi The roots of the problem.
xii The pace of life.
xiii Links to the surroundings.
xiv Personal experience.
Example:
Paragraph A Answer: vii
1. Paragraph B __________
2. Paragraph C __________
3. Paragraph D __________
4. Paragraph E __________
5. Paragraph F __________
6. Paragraph G __________
7. Paragraph H __________
8. Paragraph I __________

Questions 9 – 13
Do the following statements agree with the information in the above reading sample text?
Mark them as follows:
T if the statement agrees with the information in the text.
F if the statement does not agree with the information in the text.
NG if there is no information on this in the text.
9. In the first case of air rage, the man was not punished because the plane was not
registered.
10. The statistics on air rage were collected by private monitoring groups.
11. The environment in a plane makes disagreements more likely to become serious
problems.
12. Airlines have been encouraging passengers to bring more items onboard as carry-on
luggage.
13. It has been impossible to ban passengers with histories of air-rage.

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Section 5: You are going to read a magazine article about health and fitness. For
questions 1-10, choose from the sections (A-D). The sections may be chosen more than
once.
Which person
1. mentions being disconcerted by their lack of ability when faced with a completely new
activity?
2. was grateful for having been spurred on in their efforts?
3. suggests that prior experience of the exercise method can be advantageous?
4. suggests that they have overreached themselves during their first session?
5. is sceptical about whether a way of exercising would really appeal to them?
6. suggests that their chosen exercise programme seemed to be based on a slightly eccentric
premise?
7. rejects the idea that they are following an exercise programme to improve fitness?
8. comments on the relentless nature of the trainer?
9. contrasts the amount of pleasure to be gained from different types of exercise?
10. suggests that the outcome oftheir exercise programme was not wholly positive?
A. Cloe: New Pilates
I’ll be honest, I have never felt the natural high which scientists claim follows a bout of
intense exercise. The empirical evidence of my own body tells me that the only thing
exercise releases in my brain is loathing. So I scoffwhen the people at the gym tell me I'll be
hooked on a new type of Pilates in two sessions. My first session is an hour's one-on-one
with Daniel, my trainer; a good idea for any beginner. Although I, disappointingly, don't
actually lose any weight.over my six sessions - personally, I find it rather ups my appetite -
I can attest to its toning abilities. The classes themselves - which take a maximum of six
people - are entertaining, and as agreeable as enforced muscle fatigue can ever be. It
definitely helps ifyou'd already got to grips with some basic Pilates techniques before you
start, but, once you've got the hang of commands such as 'squeeze that imaginary grape
under your armpit; it provides a great variety of exercise.
B. Mark: Personal training
A month of sessions with a personal trainer three times a week seems like the perfect
springboard to a better future. My personal trainer,Tony, asks me what I hope to achieve. I
mutter something about losing a few pounds and toning up a bit, but the truth is I want to
get back into my tailormade suits. It's the gap between my expectations and reality that is
hardest to contend with. I know that no matter how healthy I become at the age of 36, I will
still be less fit than I was as a lazy 1 8-year-old who did no exercise at all. But if I'm honest,
I secretly believed I wouldn't actually be all that bad at this. The problem is weights. I've
never bothered with them before. I take it slowly for the first few sessions but it's hard going
and I eventually pull a muscle in my right arm. It's time for a few days off. I greet a four-
day respite with enthusiasm, but actually find myself in the gym, running faster and longer
than before and lifting weights well.
C. Ben: Sport Active
I go along to my nearest fitness centre and decide to try out the DVD of Sport Active, which
has more than 70 different exercises on it. The programme can measure and display your

12
heart rate, thanks to a monitor that straps to your forearm which sends information to the
console. I start with tennis and get an enormous kick out of hitting balls into an onscreen
net. I quickly move on to mountain biking, or, as I now call it, 'total physical punishment'.
However, even though I am an old hand at cycling, by halfway round, I have clearly lost all
ability to show off. On screen, my heart rate has rocketed up to 1 78. 'You're definitely
getting a good cardio workout here; encourages Robert, the fitness centre trainer. Could
these games damage people by suggesting the wrong positions? Robert is dismissive: 'It's
unlikely you're going to hurt yourself: I decide to carry on and after a few weeks begin to
see the benefits.
D. Tasha: Wild fitness
Wild Fitness is more than a form of exercise, Matt, my trainer, told me that it was a whole
philosophy of life: to transform yourself by learning to move and eat in the way of our
hunter-gatherer ancestors and to become strong, fast and agile. It all sounded a bit bizarre
but I was more than happy to give it a go. The first session began at Sam on a Monday
morning in Regent's Park, London, with some introductory exercises. The hardest session
came the next week when Matt told us we would sprint around the 400-metre running track
four times, with a short rest in-between - no excuses allowed. I did my best and then
discovered that the so-called rest was going to involve squat thrusts; 20 of them. Matt didn't
stop there. It was thanks to him that I did far more than I would ever have done exercising
alone and I looked thinner and was far more toned as a result, especially around my thighs
and stomach.

IV. WRITING
Section 1: Write a summary of 100-120 words on the following passage.
The reach of the media, in the present times of 24-hour channels, is to almost every nook
and corner of the world. Further, large number of people believe as correct that which
appears in media, print or electronic. It is also necessary to always bear in mind that the
judiciary is the last resort of redressal for resolution of disputes between State and the
subject, and high and low.
The confidence of the people in the institution of judiciary is necessary to be preserved at
any cost. That is its main asset. Loss of confidence in institution of judiciary would be end
of rule of law. Therefore, any act which has such tendency deserves to be firmly curbed. For
rule of law and orderly society, a free responsible press and independent judiciary are both
indispensable. Both have to be, therefore, protected.
The judgments of courts are public documents and can be commented upon, analysed and
criticized, but it has to be in dignified manner without attributing motives. Before placing
before public, whether on print or electronic media, all concerned have to see whether any
such criticism has crossed the limits as aforesaid and if it has, then resist every temptation
to make it public.
In every case, it would be no answer to plead that publication, publisher, editor or other
concerned did not know or it was done in haste. Some mechanism may have to be devised
to check the publication which has the tendency to undermine the institution of judiciary.

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Section 2: Write a report of at least 150 words on the following graphs.
The following graphs give information about sports activity in a college last year.
Summarize the information by selecting and reporting the main features and make
comparisons where relevant.

Section 3: Write an essay of at least 150 words on the following topic.

Some people say advertising has positive economic effects. Others think it has negative
social effects because it will make people dissatisfied with who they are and what they have.
Discuss both views and give your own opinion.

_____________________THE END_____________________

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