Yield Curve Analysis
Yield Curve Analysis
Yield Curve
Curve Analysis
Analysis
DF2 = (1 + z2 ) 2 = 0.8556
which leads to
z 2 = 1 / 0.8556 − 1 = 8.1125%
► From any discount factor you can derive the corresponding zero-
coupon rate, and from any zero-coupon rate you can derive the
corresponding discount factor
► In general 1
DFN =
(1+ zN )N
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Non-par cases
► Now we write
and then solve for DF3, since we know already DF1 and DF2.
1
► So since DF3 = 0.7566 =
(1 + z3 )3
► Now assume we have already calculated DF1, DF2, etc all the way
to DFN-1, and now wish to calculate DFN from the note maturing in
N years and carrying an annual coupon of CN, we would write
► What if shortest securities mature in less than one year, and/or coupons
on notes are paid more frequently than annually?
► Note that instrument in the third row has only 3 cash flows remaining
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More complex curves (2)
8.11%
0 1 YR 2 YRS
5.26% f1,2?
► So could speak of 1-year forward 1-year rate, and denote this as f1,2 and would
mean the 1-year zero-coupon rate for the time period starting one year from now.
(1 + z 2 ) 2 (1 + 8 .11 %) 2
which gives us f 1, 2 = −1 = − 1 = 11 .04 %
(1 + z1 ) (1 + 5 .26 %)
► But a faster solution is simply to rearrange the equation above into
1 1
(1 + f1, 2 ) × = , so (1 + f1, 2 ) × DF 2 = DF1 ,
(1 + z 2 ) 2
(1 + z1 )
which leads to DF
f 1, 2 = 1
− 1 = 11 . 04 %
DF 2
► Can also speak of forward rate for a longer period: e.g. f3,7 refers to
the zero-coupon interest rate for the 4-year period starting 3 years
from today (and therefore ending 7 years from today)
0 a YRS b YRS
fa,b?
Za%
► Can also speak of forward rate for a longer period: e.g. f3,7 refers to the
zero-coupon interest rate for the 4-year period starting 3 years from today
(and therefore ending 7 years from today)
► Most generally the zero-coupon rate for the period starting in a years from
today and finishing in b years from today is fa,b
(b−a )
So we can write (1 + z b ) = (1 + z a ) × (1 + f a ,b )
b a
►
(1 + f a ,b ) ( b − a ) 1
so =
(1 + z b ) b (1 + z a ) a
DF a 1 /( b − a )
which leads to f a ,b =( ) −1
DF b
16.00%
14.00% Par
12.00%
Zero-
coupon
10.00%
8.00% Forward
6.00%
4.00%
2.00%
0.00%
0 2 4 6 8 10
16.00%
14.00% Par
12.00%
Zero-
coupon
10.00%
1-yr
8.00% forward
6.00% 2-yrs
forward
4.00%
2.00%
0.00%
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Par
Zero-
4.00% coupon
Forward
2.00%
0.00%
0 2 4 6 8 10
Tenor Coupon/Yield
1 9.0%
2 8.5%
3 8.0%
4 7.5%
5 7.0%
6 6.5%
7 6.0%
8 5.5%
9 5.0%
10 4.5%
► Problem arose with choice of par curve in the first place, and specifically with the
last two entries at the bottom
► 9-year bond with an annual coupon of 5% and a 10-year bond with an annual
coupon of 4.5%, and both trading at par, are inconsistent with one another; you
would always earn a higher all-in return over 10 years with the 9-year bond given its
higher coupon, irrespective of what the 1-year interest rate in 9 years turns out to
be
► Additional 50 bps you have earned annually, again assuming in a worst case it is
reinvested at zero, would have aggregated by the end of year 9 a total of 4.5%, so
already your wealth under the 9-year note would be greater than what it would
become under the 10-year note in one year
► Conclusion: not all par curves are “possible”: given the coupon on any given note,
the coupon on the note one-year longer cannot be smaller by more than a certain
amount; if it is, the longer instrument becomes inferior to the shorter one under all
possible interest rate scenarios and would presumably find no buyers
► Strategy 2’s return over the 1-year holding period will depend
on what is the 1-year discounting rate in one year’s time, when
we come to selling the investment
► More generally, if the yield changes implied by the forward rates are
subsequently realized, all zero-coupon bonds, regardless of maturity, earn
the same return over any holding period
► Corollary: if a bank funds itself and invests at different points of the same
zero-coupon curve, and if forward rates are subsequently realized, then the
bank will break even, irrespective of which two points of the curve it
chooses for its gapping strategy
► But there may well be sustained periods of time in which the returns from
this strategy are in fact negative
► This result is consistent with basic investment theory, especially when you
remember that 2-year zero has higher duration than one-year zero, and
hence higher price volatility
► 2-year instrument compensates for its higher duration and hence higher
price volatility by offering potential holders a higher expected return over a
1-year holding period than its shorter competitor with the lower price
volatility
► Upward sloping curve reflects expectations of rising rates, flat curve reflect
neutral expectations, and inverted curve reflects expectations of falling
rates
► States that the longer the tenor of the instrument the greater should be its
expected return, all other things being equal
► Under this theory, even when interest rate expectations are neutral, we
should expect the curve to be upward sloping to some degree, otherwise no
incentive would exist for extending maturity and thus assuming greater
price risk and lower asset liquidity
► Over the last 50 years, say, US short-term interest rates have moved within
a range, so expectations have been cumulatively neutral, despite extended
periods in which rates were expected to be rising or falling steadily
► Yet curve has been upward sloping some 90% of the time during this half
century, suggesting some evidence of a term premium in bond yields – i.e.
a higher yield on account solely of maturity extension
► Note that the two factors we have analyzed so far can sometimes neutralize
one another: in a market in which short-term rates are generally expected to
fall, yet preference for low duration assets is high, the first factor would
cause the curve to invert, while the second factor would cause the curve to
slope upward
► For example pension funds may be severely penalized by the law if they
find themselves “underfunded”, which causes them to purchase very long-
dated bonds to match fund to the greatest degree possible their very long-
dated liabilities
► They do this even when the yields on long-dated bonds are substantially
lower than they are on medium-term bonds of comparable credit quality
► These investors often tend to keep their cash invested in t-bills of very
shortest maturity, even when slight lengthening of maturity even when slight
lengthening of maturity can result in a yield pick-up of 25 or 50 bps annually
or more
► This causes shortest end of curve to slope upward significantly, even when
interest rate expectations are neutral or even are inclining towards lower
rates