Radios MCQ
Radios MCQ
Question Number. 2. Which category are hand mikes considered essential?.
Option A. Aerial work aircraft.
Option B. Light aircraft.
Option C. Heavy passenger aircraft.
Correct Answer is. Light aircraft.
Explanation. ANO Schedule 4 Scale N and Article 47, prohibit them on Transport Category aircraft. However, no direct
reference to them being 'essential' on light aircraft is found.
Question Number. 6. On a fibreglass aerial, what paint should be used?.
Option A. Cellulose only.
Option B. Not cellulose.
Option C. Polyurethane.
Correct Answer is. Not cellulose.
Explanation. CAIPs RL/2-2 8.1.2.
Question Number. 7. When painting a neoprene coated radio antenna.
Option A. use any paint.
Option B. use cellulose paint.
Option C. do not use cellulose paint.
Correct Answer is. do not use cellulose paint.
Explanation. CAIPs RL/2-2 8.1.2.
Question Number. 8. How many axis does the aircraft autopilot control?.
Option A. Four.
Option B. Three.
Option C. Two.
Correct Answer is. Three.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 2nd Edition Page 81. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page
12-36.
Question Number. 13. A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to.
Option A. 100 ft.
Option B. 2500 ft.
Option C. 2000 ft.
Correct Answer is. 2500 ft.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics. Eismin Page 323 - 324.
Question Number. 16. Which of the following has an hyperbolic curve?.
Option A. VOR.
Option B. DME.
Option C. Loran C.
Correct Answer is. Loran C.
Explanation. Loran C is a type of LF Navigation. Jeppesen Avionic Fundamentals Page 153. Also Aircraft Radio Systems
by James Powell Page 101.
Question Number. 17. A GPS satellite will come into view.
Option A. 20° above the horizon with respect to the viewer.
Option B. 15° above the horizon with respect to the viewer.
Option C. 10° above the horizon with respect to the viewer.
Correct Answer is. 15° above the horizon with respect to the viewer.
Explanation. Elevation mask' is 15 degrees.
Question Number. 18. Restrictions to the use of hand held microphones apply to.
Option A. transport category aircraft only.
Option B. private aircraft.
Option C. aerial work and transport category aircraft.
Correct Answer is. transport category aircraft only.
Explanation. ANO Schedule 4 Scale N.
Question Number. 19. The purpose of the clutch in an autothrottle servo is.
Option A. to allow the pilot to override.
Option B. to limit the range of control movement.
Option C. to protect the servo motor in the event of inadvertent runaway.
Correct Answer is. to allow the pilot to override.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control Pg 289.
Question Number. 21. How many aerials are there in a TCAS system?.
Option A. 1.
Option B. 3.
Option C. 2.
Correct Answer is. 2.
Explanation. Avionic Systems: Operation and Maintenance page 160.
Question Number. 24. HF aerials have weak points designed at.
Option A. both ends.
Option B. the front end.
Option C. the back end.
Correct Answer is. the back end.
Explanation. CAIPs RL/2-2 para 2.2.4.
Question Number. 25. What is the reply frequency of an aircraft transponder?.
Option A. 1000 MHz.
Option B. 1030 MHz.
Option C. 1090 MHz.
Correct Answer is. 1090 MHz.
Explanation. Avionic Fundamentals page 211.
Question Number. 27. With autopilot engaged, which control surface is inhibited?.
Option A. THS.
Option B. Elevators.
Option C. Ailerons.
Correct Answer is. THS.
Explanation. A&P Airframe Technician Textbook Pg 12-35.
Question Number. 28. When flaps are lowered, the automatic trim system will.
Option A. angle of incidence remains the same.
Option B. increase the angle of incidence of the THS.
Option C. decrease the angle of incidence of the THS.
Correct Answer is. decrease the angle of incidence of the THS.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 32. In aircraft with an autopilot and an auto trim, a pitch command input will cause.
Option A. column will not move and trim system will move.
Option B. column to move but trim system not to move.
Option C. column to move and trim system to move.
Correct Answer is. column to move and trim system to move.
Explanation. A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 12-47 - This is assuming it is a non-fly-by-wire aircraft.
Question Number. 33. In regard to the aircraft transponder, what is the pulse frequency?.
Option A. Number of pulses per signal.
Option B. Amount of times interrogating signal is sent per second.
Option C. Amount of times reply signal is sent per second.
Correct Answer is. Amount of times reply signal is sent per second.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 34. CAT 2 RVR limit is.
Option A. 400 m.
Option B. 200 m.
Option C. 800 m.
Correct Answer is. 400 m.
Explanation. CAT II ILS Runway Visual Range (RVR) is 'not less than 1200ft'. 1200 ft = 400m Ref: Avionic Fundamentals
page 199.
Question Number. 35. How many programs can a FMC store?.
Option A. One current.
Option B. Two. Both active.
Option C. Two. One active and one standby.
Correct Answer is. Two. One active and one standby.
Explanation. Pallett Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 399 on. Boeing 757 chapter 34-61-00 page 201.
Question Number. 36. EPR and speed for autothrottle is activated at.
Option A. take off.
Option B. approach.
Option C. cruise.
Correct Answer is. take off.
Explanation. Pallett Automatic Flight Control 4th Edition Page 286.
Question Number. 40. Static dischargers help eliminate radio interference by dissipating static electricity into the
atmosphere at.
Option A. all voltage levels.
Option B. low current levels.
Option C. high voltage levels.
Correct Answer is. low current levels.
Explanation. Reference found in an older version of A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 700 (Not in latest
edition). Quote 'If the aircraft is equipped with static dischargers, the static discharge occurs at lower current and
more frequently'.
Question Number. 42. An Automatic Flight Control System receives inputs from the following ground based
transmitters.
Option A. DME, ILS, ADF.
Option B. VOR, ILS.
Option C. RA, ADF, ILS.
Correct Answer is. VOR, ILS.
Explanation. An AFCS uses VOR and ILS (RA is not ground based).
Question Number. 49. What is the colour of the middle marker beacon?.
Option A. Amber.
Option B. Blue.
Option C. White.
Correct Answer is. Amber.
Explanation. Jeppesen - Avionics Fundamentals, Page 219 fig 14-2.
Question Number. 51. For aircraft with dual CMCs, when only one CMC is available, it.
Option A. can be connected to either side.
Option B. must be connected to the left side.
Option C. must be connected to the right side.
Correct Answer is. must be connected to the left side.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Fifth Edition Eismin Chap 13 page 271.
Question Number. 55. Aileron signal is fed to the rudder channel.
Option A. for yaw damping compensation.
Option B. for turn command back-up.
Option C. for turn coordination.
Correct Answer is. for turn coordination.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control. Pallett. 4th Edition Page 121/122.
Question Number. 57. What frequency are VOR and ILS?.
Option A. UHF.
Option B. VHF.
Option C. HF.
Correct Answer is. VHF.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Page 426.
Question Number. 58. A radio frequency of 16 MHz would be used for.
Option A. weather radar.
Option B. marker beacons.
Option C. HF communications.
Correct Answer is. HF communications.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 59. An aircraft lands in autoland. After touch down and thrust reversers are deployed. What
happens toautothrottle?.
Option A. Automatically switches off.
Option B. Advances throttles.
Option C. Stays armed for go around in an emergency.
Correct Answer is. Automatically switches off.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett and Coyle Page 286.
Question Number. 60. Pilot's instinctive cut-out buttons are positioned.
Option A. on right side of control wheel.
Option B. on side of control wheel furthest from throttles.
Option C. on left side of control wheel.
Correct Answer is. on side of control wheel furthest from throttles.
Explanation. JAR 25.1329 (d).
Question Number. 61. ILS and VOR operate in which range.
Option A. HF.
Option B. VHF.
Option C. UHF.
Correct Answer is. VHF.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook 12-1.
Question Number. 63. GPWS operating in mode 1 and 2 when close to ground will give.
Option A. amber warning.
Option B. red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'.
Option C. red caption and aural 'pull up, undercarriage, flaps, throttle'.
Correct Answer is. red caption and aural 'whoop whoop pull up'.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 67. Autopilot will operate above what altitude?.
Option A. 750 ft.
Option B. 1000 ft.
Option C. 500 ft.
Correct Answer is. 500 ft.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 69. EPR and thrust modes in autothrottle are the only modes that can be selected in.
Option A. cruise.
Option B. approach.
Option C. take off.
Correct Answer is. take off.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 70. An inertial navigation unit uses pin programming for.
Option A. magnetic orientation.
Option B. location.
Option C. aircraft type.
Correct Answer is. location.
Explanation. Pin programming for IRU`s and INU`s are carried out on the aircraft rack mounted side. The purpose
being to tell the installed unit which position it is serving within the aircraft i.e left, ctr or right side! The unit is
universal for all.
Question Number. 71. How can it be verified if FMC update is correct?.
Option A. Dataplate on the FMC.
Option B. BITE.
Option C. FMC via CDU.
Correct Answer is. FMC via CDU.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 72. GPWS will show a fault if the following fails:.
Option A. Radio altimeter.
Option B. Air speed indicator.
Option C. Pressure altimeter.
Correct Answer is. Radio altimeter.
Explanation. Of the three, GPWS has only connection to the RA. It does use barometric vertical speed however.
Question Number. 75. What modulation is used for the beams of a localiser in an ILS?.
Option A. 150 Hz right of runway centerline, 90 Hz left of runway centreline.
Option B. 90 Hz below the glide path, 150 Hz above the glide path.
Option C. 150 Hz left of runway centerline, 90 Hz right of runway centreline.
Correct Answer is. 150 Hz right of runway centerline, 90 Hz left of runway centreline.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 70.
Question Number. 76. In what frequency range does the automatic direction finding (ADF) system operate?.
Option A. 108.00 - 117.95 MHz.
Option B. 1025 - 1150 KHz.
Option C. 190 - 1759 KHz.
Correct Answer is. 190 - 1759 KHz.
Explanation. Jeppesen A&P Technician Airframe Textbook Page 12-13.
Question Number. 77. How does an aircraft distinguish its own Distance Measuring Equipment reply from those for
other aircraft?.
Option A. By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal.
Option B. By modulation of an audio tone.
Option C. By using an alternate frequency.
Correct Answer is. By changing at random the time delay between the pulse pairs of the interrogation signal.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 106.
Question Number. 78. From where is bearing information received for display on the digital-distance radio-
magnetic indicator (DDRMI)?.
Option A. From VOR and ADF systems.
Option B. From ADF only.
Option C. From VOR only.
Correct Answer is. From VOR and ADF systems.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett Page 197.
Question Number. 79. Which frequency is used to achieve line of sight radio communication?.
Option A. HF.
Option B. VHF.
Option C. VHF and UHF.
Correct Answer is. VHF and UHF.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.tpub.com/content/aviation/14014/css/14014_166.htm
Question Number. 80. Why is an aerial tuning unit used in a high frequency (HF) communication system?.
Option A. To extend or retract the aerial and so vary its physical length.
Option B. To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance.
Option C. To select the transmission/reception frequency in the HF band.
Correct Answer is. To electrically lengthen or shorten the aerial for optimum matching of impedance.
Explanation. NIL. http://dspace.dial.pipex.com/town/pipexdsl/r/arar93/mds975/Content/aerials2.html
Question Number. 81. What would be the purpose of an input from an inertial reference system being connected to
a weather radar?.
Option A. To place the weather radar target in azimuth and distance for the display.
Option B. To ensure that there is no radar transmission with aircraft on ground.
Option C. To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna.
Correct Answer is. To provide stabilisation for the radar antenna.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.artietheairplane.com/radar.htm
Question Number. 82. Which systems provide envelope modulation information for a Ground Proximity Warning
System (GPWS).
Option A. Rudder/ailerons.
Option B. Autothrottle.
Option C. Flaps/undercarriage.
Correct Answer is. Flaps/undercarriage.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 83. The Time Reference Scanning Beam (TRSB) corresponds to ILS localiser and glidepath. How
does it operate?.
Option A. It operates in the same manner as ILS but utilises higher frequencies.
Option B. Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO or UP and
DOWN.
Option C. It operates in conjunction with DME at lower frequencies than ILS.
Correct Answer is. Azimuth and elevation transmitters produce a narrow beam which is rapidly scanned TO and FRO
or UP and DOWN.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems Powell Page 224.
Question Number. 85. In an IRS system you would expect to find.
Option A. ring laser gyros.
Option B. three strap down accelerometers.
Option C. an azimuth gyro system.
Correct Answer is. ring laser gyros.
Explanation. Assuming they mean a strapdown system. (Note: in b, it is the system which is strapdown, not the
accelerometers, in c, azimuth gyro is not the only type of gyro involved).
Question Number. 87. In a modern aircraft the ACARS system is used primarily for.
Option A. reporting defects on the aircraft automatically.
Option B. communications between the aircraft and base.
Option C. as part of the passenger telephone system.
Correct Answer is. communications between the aircraft and base.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 88. What are the main areas of the autopilot?.
Option A. Error, correction , demand, resolved.
Option B. Error, correction, follow up, demand.
Option C. Error, correction, follow up, command.
Correct Answer is. Error, correction, follow up, command.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 89. VHF frequency is.
Option A. 108 - 136 MHz.
Option B. 108 - 112 MHz.
Option C. 108 - 118 MHz.
Correct Answer is. 108 - 136 MHz.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Page 295.
Question Number. 90. The call system for the captain will have the audio signal of a.
Option A. horn.
Option B. hi tone chime.
Option C. two tone chime.
Correct Answer is. hi tone chime.
Explanation. B737.
Question Number. 95. How is the next database on the FMC activated?.
Option A. Manually in the air.
Option B. Manually, on the ground.
Option C. Automatically by due date.
Correct Answer is. Manually in the air.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 96. What GPWS mode gives a 'Whoop Whoop, Pull-up' command?.
Option A. Mode 6.
Option B. Mode 3.
Option C. Mode 2.
Correct Answer is. Mode 2.
Explanation. Transport Category Aircraft Systems Page 9.19.
Question Number. 97. A transponder that is compatible for use with a TCAS system would be.
Option A. Mode A.
Option B. Mode S.
Option C. Mode C.
Correct Answer is. Mode S.
Explanation. Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 17 (Target Surveillance).
Question Number. 99. Random precession of the inner gimbal ring is detected by placing mercury switches.
Option A. on both gimbal rings.
Option B. on outer gimbal ring.
Option C. on inner gimbal ring.
Correct Answer is. on inner gimbal ring.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 101. What manoeuvre does TCAS II advise the pilot to make?.
Option A. RA.
Option B. TA.
Option C. either RA or TA.
Correct Answer is. RA.
Explanation. Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection).
Question Number. 102. What are the shapes of traffic shown on a TCAS display ?.
Option A. White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
Option B. White squares, red diamonds and amber circles.
Option C. White circles, red diamonds and amber squares.
Correct Answer is. White diamonds, red squares and amber circles.
Explanation. Introduction to TCAS version 7 US Department of Transport FAA Page 27 (Threat Detection).
Question Number. 106. How can a pilot over-ride the auto-throttle?.
Option A. By deselecting auto-throttle first.
Option B. It is not possible.
Option C. Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers.
Correct Answer is. Manually through a clutch on the throttle levers.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 109. There are two FMS installed on the aircraft. If one FMS fails during flight.
Option A. the whole FMS system is unserviceable until the pilot switches over to standby.
Option B. it has no effect, because the second FMS was in the stand-by mode, now it is active.
Option C. the failed FMS has a blank screen.
Correct Answer is. the failed FMS has a blank screen.
Explanation. Aircraft Instruments and Integrated Systems Pallett page 406.
Question Number. 110. Which of the following has priority over TCAS warnings?.
Option A. Gear position warning.
Option B. Stall warning.
Option C. Resolution Advisories.
Correct Answer is. Stall warning.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 111. The ILS marker beacon operates at a frequency of.
Option A. 75 MHz.
Option B. 50 MHz.
Option C. 100 MHz.
Correct Answer is. 75 MHz.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin page 311.
Question Number. 112. The manual input for the VOR course corrector is related to.
Option A. the CDI offset bar.
Option B. the ILS system.
Option C. the RMI.
Correct Answer is. the CDI offset bar.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 115. Which of the following systems is inhibited when a test is performed of the rad. alt.
system?.
Option A. altitude alert.
Option B. TCAS.
Option C. GPWS.
Correct Answer is. GPWS.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 116. The GPS satellite system consists of.
Option A. 20 satellites and 5 standby satellite.
Option B. 21 satellites and 3 standby satellites.
Option C. 24 satellites and 1 standby satellites.
Correct Answer is. 21 satellites and 3 standby satellites.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 318 and 319.
Question Number. 117. A Mode C transponder gives the following info:.
Option A. Altitude.
Option B. Interrogation.
Option C. Altitude and interrogation.
Correct Answer is. Altitude.
Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals Page 211.
Question Number. 119. When will the decision height aural warning sound?.
Option A. At decision height.
Option B. Before decision height.
Option C. After decision height.
Correct Answer is. At decision height.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 121. Before the aeroplane is moved from the loading pier, the pilot must.
Option A. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS.
Option B. insert the latitude and longitude of the first waypoint into the INS.
Option C. set the altitude to be fed into the INS.
Correct Answer is. insert the latitude and longitude of the pier into the INS.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 82.
Question Number. 122. A 'strap-down' inertial navigation system has.
Option A. accelerometers on a stable platform and gyros fixed to the airframe.
Option B. accelerometers and gyros fixed to the airframe.
Option C. accelerometers fixed to the airframe and gyros on a stable platform.
Correct Answer is. accelerometers and gyros fixed to the airframe.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 90.
Question Number. 123. A force re-balance accelerometer in an IN system has the acceleration force balanced by
a.
Option A. constant force.
Option B. linear force.
Option C. non-linear force.
Correct Answer is. linear force.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 33.
Question Number. 124. An accelerometer in an IN system must be able to detect accelerations down to.
Option A. 10-6 g.
Option B. 10-2 g.
Option C. 10-3 g.
Correct Answer is. 10-6 g.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 126. In an IN system, Coriolis effect is the result of.
Option A. the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable platform.
Option B. gyro wander.
Option C. platform misalignment.
Correct Answer is. the effect of the earth's rotation on a stable platform.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 85.
Question Number. 127. The Inertial Navigation System computes distance from acceleration by.
Option A. two successive integrations.
Option B. a differential followed by an integration.
Option C. a single integration.
Correct Answer is. two successive integrations.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 81.
Question Number. 129. In an IN system, the output of the accelerometer is linear because of a.
Option A. pendulous suspension.
Option B. linear spring.
Option C. force balance system.
Correct Answer is. force balance system.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 76.
Question Number. 130. The three accelerometers on a stable platform are mounted.
Option A. parallel to each other.
Option B. orthogonally.
Option C. 120 degrees apart.
Correct Answer is. orthogonally.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 131. In an IN system, the purpose of the stable platform is to.
Option A. provide attitude reference.
Option B. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.
Option C. stop the gyros from toppling.
Correct Answer is. prevent unwanted acceleration affecting the accelerometers.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 77.
Question Number. 132. The type of gyro generally used in an IN system is a.
Option A. rate gyro.
Option B. rate integrating gyro.
Option C. displacement gyro.
Correct Answer is. rate integrating gyro.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 77.
Question Number. 134. In a gimbal system, the stable platform is the.
Option A. azimuth gimbal.
Option B. roll gimbal.
Option C. pitch gimbal.
Correct Answer is. azimuth gimbal.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 77/78.
Question Number. 135. To prevent gimbal lock on the stable platform it is normal to use.
Option A. a pitch gimbal.
Option B. four gimbals.
Option C. three gimbals.
Correct Answer is. four gimbals.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 136. When the inertial platform is torqued to perform like a Schuler pendulum.
Option A. the platform rotates with respect to the aircraft.
Option B. the platform remains fixed with respect to the local vertical.
Option C. the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical.
Correct Answer is. the platform oscillates with respect to the local vertical.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 86.
Question Number. 137. A Schuler pendulum has a period of oscillation of.
Option A. 8.4 minutes.
Option B. 84.4 seconds.
Option C. 84.4 minutes.
Correct Answer is. 84.4 minutes.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 86.
Question Number. 139. When in manual mode, the C.D.U. alert lamp of the IN system will flash.
Option A. when an error is detected.
Option B. thirty seconds before a track change is required.
Option C. two minutes before the next waypoint.
Correct Answer is. two minutes before the next waypoint.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 89.
Question Number. 141. The output of an INS can be fed to.
Option A. attitude indicators.
Option B. vertical speed indicators.
Option C. altimeters.
Correct Answer is. attitude indicators.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 85.
Question Number. 142. The three accelerometers on a strapdown platform are mounted.
Option A. 90º to each other.
Option B. 120º apart.
Option C. parallel to each other.
Correct Answer is. 90º to each other.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 145. What must be entered in to the I.N.S. before the aircraft moves?.
Option A. Present position.
Option B. E.T.A.
Option C. Waypoints.
Correct Answer is. Present position.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 146. Selection of the INS Mode Selector Unit (MSU) to ATT REF is made.
Option A. to feed information to the Captain and 1st Officers ADI displays.
Option B. when attitude information is lost.
Option C. when navigation information is lost.
Correct Answer is. when navigation information is lost.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 85.
Question Number. 147. For the INS, the Battery Unit provides.
Option A. standby power only when on the ground, to maintain the alignment phase.
Option B. both when airborne and on the ground.
Option C. standby power when airborne, switched by weight-off switches in the undercarriage.
Correct Answer is. both when airborne and on the ground.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 85.
Question Number. 148. Control Display Unit (CDU) selection of TKE displays.
Option A. difference in degrees from True North in a clockwise direction from the desired track.
Option B. distance perpendicular from the selected track.
Option C. difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track.
Correct Answer is. difference in degrees that the aircraft track is to the right or left of the desired track.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control, David Harris Page 88.
Question Number. 149. The Earth Rate Compensation is computed from.
Option A. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the longitude.
Option B. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the cosine of the latitude.
Option C. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the latitude.
Correct Answer is. the earth's rotational rate (15°/hour) times the sine of the latitude.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 153. If the battery fails on the ground (INS System).
Option A. a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds.
Option B. an amber light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds.
Option C. a red light appears on the CDU and a horn sounds.
Correct Answer is. a red warning light appears on the MSU and a horn sounds.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 85.
Question Number. 155. For an IRS system to pass the 'Alignment System Performance Test' the.
Option A. latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU.
Option B. the No. 1 and No.2 must both have the same latitude and longitude present position entered.
Option C. entered present latitude and longitude must agree with the latitude and longitude at the last power
down.
Correct Answer is. latitude entered must be within given limits of the latitude computed by IRU.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 156. A laser gyro dither mechanism ensures that.
Option A. that the two contra-rotating beams each operate at different frequencies.
Option B. the contra-rotating beams are synchronised together.
Option C. optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating beams to lock together.
Correct Answer is. optical 'backscatter' does not cause the contra-rotating beams to lock together.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 47.
Question Number. 157. The localiser deviation signal for the flight director comes from the.
Option A. flight director computer.
Option B. VHF comm system.
Option C. VHF nav system.
Correct Answer is. VHF nav system.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 158. The heading error signal used in the heading select mode.
Option A. is the difference between the desired course and the actual course.
Option B. is the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading.
Option C. comes direct from the compass system.
Correct Answer is. is the difference between the desired heading and the actual heading.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 159. The crab angle of the aircraft during VOR or LOC modes is displayed by the.
Option A. difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading.
Option B. difference between the selected heading and aircraft heading.
Option C. selected course counter.
Correct Answer is. difference between the course arrow and aircraft heading.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 160. VOR left-right deviation signals come from the.
Option A. DME system.
Option B. VLF nav system.
Option C. VHF nav set.
Correct Answer is. VHF nav set.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 161. Above the glideslope, the ILS glideslope signal modulation is.
Option A. 90 Hz.
Option B. 90 KHZ.
Option C. 150 Hz.
Correct Answer is. 90 Hz.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control, Pallett, page 181, Fig.6.6 and Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell, Page 72, top of
L/H column.
Question Number. 162. The localiser modulation signal to the left of the localiser centre line, as seen from the
localiser transmitter, is.
Option A. 150 Hz.
Option B. 90 Hz.
Option C. 90 KHz.
Correct Answer is. 150 Hz.
Explanation. It says 'as seen from the localiser transmitter'.
Question Number. 163. The correct sense demand generated for a selected heading 180°, when the aircraft
heading is 150° is.
Option A. straight ahead.
Option B. turn right.
Option C. turn left.
Correct Answer is. turn right.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 164. When an aircraft is flying along the extended centre line of the runway it is in the.
Option A. equi-signal sector.
Option B. 90 Hz modulation sector.
Option C. 150 Hz modulation sector.
Correct Answer is. equi-signal sector.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 165. The localiser system offers approach guidance to the runway in terms of.
Option A. the vertical plane.
Option B. distance to touch down.
Option C. the horizontal plane.
Correct Answer is. the horizontal plane.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 168. The glideslope system offers approach guidance to runways in terms of.
Option A. the horizontal plane.
Option B. the vertical plane.
Option C. distance to touchdown.
Correct Answer is. the vertical plane.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 181.
Question Number. 171. The aircraft equipment determines the bearing of a ground station by comparing.
Option A. the phase of one 30 Hz modulation with that of a 9960 Hz modulation.
Option B. the amplitude of two 30 Hz modulations.
Option C. the phase of two 30 Hz modulations.
Correct Answer is. the phase of two 30 Hz modulations.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 59 and 60 and Radio Aids, R.B.Underdown and David Cockburn
Page 72.
Question Number. 172. The number of different radials provided by a ground station is.
Option A. infinite.
Option B. 360.
Option C. 180 per quadrant, i.e. 720 in 360°.
Correct Answer is. infinite.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 173. Which of the following frequencies is allocated to VOR?.
Option A. 103.9 MHz.
Option B. 127.2 MHz.
Option C. 114.3 MHz.
Correct Answer is. 114.3 MHz.
Explanation. Aircraft Radio Systems, Powell Pages 58 All frequencies between 112.00 and 117.95 MHz (High Power
VORs) and all odd frequencies between 108.00 and 111.95 MHz (Terminal VORs).
Question Number. 176. When an aircraft is heading due north (magnetic) towards a VOR station the reference and
variable signals will be.
Option A. 270° out of phase.
Option B. 180° out of phase.
Option C. in phase.
Correct Answer is. 180° out of phase.
Explanation. Aircraft is due South of the station.
Question Number. 177. The middle marker modulation is keyed with.
Option A. dots.
Option B. dashes.
Option C. alternate dots and dashes.
Correct Answer is. alternate dots and dashes.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 178. The modulation of the outer marker is.
Option A. 400 Hz.
Option B. 1300 Hz.
Option C. 3000 Hz.
Correct Answer is. 400 Hz.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 311-312.
Question Number. 179. The approximate distance of the middle marker from the runway threshold is.
Option A. 7 miles.
Option B. 3 miles.
Option C. 3500 ft.
Correct Answer is. 3500 ft.
Explanation. NIL. http://www.avionicswest.com/marker_beacon_receiver.htm
Question Number. 180. Marker information is usually provided to the pilot.
Option A. visually.
Option B. aurally.
Option C. both visually and aurally.
Correct Answer is. both visually and aurally.
Explanation. Aircraft Electricity and Electronics Eismin Pages 311.
Question Number. 184. The most sensitive system between ILS and VOR is.
Option A. they both have the same sensitivity.
Option B. ILS.
Option C. VOR.
Correct Answer is. ILS.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 185. If an aircraft is flying on a heading of 000 away from a VOR station, the TO/FROM indicator
would show.
Option A. no indication.
Option B. from.
Option C. to.
Correct Answer is. from.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 186. How does the flight director computer differentiate between VOR and ILS frequencies?.
Option A. Discriminator on control panel.
Option B. Frequency discriminator in receiver.
Option C. Trigger pulse from ground station.
Correct Answer is. Frequency discriminator in receiver.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 188. The pilots instinctive autopilot disengage button is on the.
Option A. left of the control column.
Option B. side of the controls away from the throttles.
Option C. right of the control column.
Correct Answer is. side of the controls away from the throttles.
Explanation. Flight Instruments and Automatic Flight Control Systems, David Harris Page 133.
Question Number. 189. If the autopilot automatically disconnects in the autoland mode, the audible warning.
Option A. can only be switched off by re-engaging the autopilot.
Option B. is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button.
Option C. switches off after a time interval.
Correct Answer is. is switched off by the instinctive cut-out button.
Explanation. JAR AWO Para 153.
Question Number. 190. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing equipment will have.
Option A. a decision height depending on RVR.
Option B. no decision height.
Option C. a decision height of 50ft.
Correct Answer is. a decision height of 50ft.
Explanation. Automatic Flight Control Pallett Page 279.
Question Number. 191. For an aircraft to be certified for automatic landing, an autothrottle system is.
Option A. a matter of choice for the operator.
Option B. mandatory.
Option C. dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds.
Correct Answer is. dependent on the operation of the aircraft at slow speeds.
Explanation. JAR AWO Para 306 b.
Question Number. 192. With autothrottle engaged, the application of reverse thrust will.
Option A. disconnect the autothrottle.
Option B. drive the throttles to the minimum thrust position.
Option C. drive the throttles to the reverse thrust position.
Correct Answer is. disconnect the autothrottle.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 193. During ATC transponder operation, side lobe suppression acts to.
Option A. mute the DME operation during transmit phase.
Option B. supply altitude readout.
Option C. mute coms transmission during transponder operation.
Correct Answer is. mute the DME operation during transmit phase.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 194. During operation of a twin HF radio system transceiver.
Option A. #1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation.
Option B. #1 HF system can transmit but not receive.
Option C. both systems can be operated simultaneously.
Correct Answer is. #1 HF system operation is inhibited during #2 operation.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 195. L band DME transmits on a frequency of.
Option A. 2210 MHz.
Option B. 4133 MHz.
Option C. 1090 MHz.
Correct Answer is. 1090 MHz.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 196. Function of ADF & VOR and DME in navigation system with reference to aircraft and beacon
is;.
Option A. the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between aircraft and
beacon.
Option B. the first provides distance between aircraft and beacon and latter provides bearing line from aircraft to
beacon.
Option C. None of above.
Correct Answer is. the first provides bearing line from aircraft to beacon and latter provides distance between
aircraft and beacon.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 198. Localizer beam width is the angle where the two edges of beam are apart at the runway
threshold by.
Option A. 700 ft.
Option B. 7 ft.
Option C. 70 ft.
Correct Answer is. 700 ft.
Explanation. Avionics Fundamentals Page 200.
Question Number. 199. What happens if frequency decreases without altering the physical length of aerial?.
Option A. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive.
Option B. The aerial becomes inductively reactive.
Option C. The aerial becomes inductively capacitive.
Correct Answer is. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 200. What happens if frequency increases without altering the physical length of aerial?.
Option A. The aerial becomes inductively reactive.
Option B. The aerial becomes inductively capacitive.
Option C. The aerial becomes capacitively reactive.
Correct Answer is. The aerial becomes inductively reactive.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 201. Aerials provide optimum output at one particular frequency, when its load is purely.
Option A. resistive.
Option B. inductive.
Option C. capacitive.
Correct Answer is. resistive.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 202. The torque pre-set in an autopilot system is.
Option A. to stop the motor overheating.
Option B. to allow it to be overridden at a certain force.
Option C. to give control surface feel.
Correct Answer is. to allow it to be overridden at a certain force.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 204. The Middle Marker beacon is what colour?.
Option A. White.
Option B. Blue.
Option C. Amber.
Correct Answer is. Amber.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 208. Flight management control system (FMCS) utilises.
Option A. VOR, ADF, DME.
Option B. ILS, VOR, ADF.
Option C. ILS, DME, ADC.
Correct Answer is. ILS, DME, ADC.
Explanation. FMCS does not normally utilise ADF.
Question Number. 210. Where is an ATC transponder mode 'A' selected ON?.
Option A. The altimeter.
Option B. The ATC control panel.
Option C. The airspeed indicator.
Correct Answer is. The ATC control panel.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 211. How many data bases are required in an FMS system?.
Option A. 3 (one is used for redundancy).
Option B. 1.
Option C. 2.
Correct Answer is. 2.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 212. What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope control?.
Option A. Roll.
Option B. Pitch.
Option C. Yaw.
Correct Answer is. Pitch.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 214. In an autothrottle system, when is EPR or thrust mode used?.
Option A. Approach.
Option B. Take-off.
Option C. Cruise.
Correct Answer is. Take-off.
Explanation. E.H.J.Pallet 3rd edition page 284 3rd paragraph.
Question Number. 215. What is Mode 1 & 2 of GPWS used for?.
Option A. Excessive descent rate, excessive terrain closure rate.
Option B. Excessive descent rate, unsafe terrain clearance.
Option C. Excessive terrain closure rate, altitude loss after take-off.
Correct Answer is. Excessive descent rate, excessive terrain closure rate.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 216. For radio communication over a distance of over 250 miles we use.
Option A. VHF.
Option B. HF.
Option C. VLF.
Correct Answer is. HF.
Explanation. NIL.
Question Number. 217. Autopilot, when on approach to landing, how many axis are used?.
Option A. 2.
Option B. 4.
Option C. 3.
Correct Answer is. 3.
Explanation. NIL.