 Random PRF is called JITTERING

Questions with answers and explanation: IR database and questions from the  Search mode occurs when the equipment is switched on, or when a new
IR group. DME channel is selected and the interrogator will transmit 150 pulse pairs
per second.
 Tracking mode where the PRF will be 25 pulse pairs per second.
 If the interrogator transmits 15 000 pulse pairs without achieving lock-on,
1. The relationship of the reference landing speed (Vref) to the reference the PRF drops to 60 pulse pairs per second until lock-on is achieved.
stalling speed in the landing configuration (Vsro) is that Vref may not be  The ground-based responder beacon has a limit of 2700 interrogations
below: FP per second.
a. 1.1 Vsro
b. 1.32 Vsro
c. 1.23 Vsro
d. Vsro

2. The tropopause is lower: MET

a. Over the North Pole than over the equator
b. South of the equator than north of it
c. over the equator than over the South Pole
d. in summer than in winter in moderate latitudes

3. The geometric shape of the reference system for the satellite navigation
system NAVSTAR GPS, defined as WGS 84, is:
a. a geoid
b. a sphere
c. a mathematical model that describes the exact shape of the earth
d. an ellipsoid

4. Regarding the DME system, which one of the following statements is true?
RADIO
a. when passing overhead the DME station the DME will indicate 0
b. The DME measures the phase difference between the reference and 5. Select the correct option OR options:
variable phase signals to calculate the distance A benefit of an Electronic Flight Display for instrument flying is that:
c. The transponder reply carrier frequency differs by 63MHZ from that of the a. The tendency for a pilot to over control is minimized
interrogation signal b. Information is presented in less concentrated form
d. DME operates in the VHF frequency band c. A 45° bank angle marking has been added to the roll index
d. Airspeed indications are more readable in analogue format
SUMMARY DME e. Its larger size makes very small pitch corrections possible
 Secondary radar
 Slant range
 When paired with VOR- short range, Rho-Theta
 UHF – 960 to 1215 MHz 6. The procedures that are designed according to ICAO Doc 8168 have been
 The interrogator transmits a train of pulse pairs on the appropriate developed for:
frequency. The two pulses forming a pair will be spaced by either 12 μs
in the “X” channel or 36 μs in the “Y” channel a. normal and non-normal operating conditions
 maximum system error of ± (0.25 nm + 1.25% b. the following operational conditions: RVR lower than 550m and cloud base
 of the slant range) on 95% of occasions. lower than 200ft AGL
c. normal operating conditions FABL 041300Z 27012KT 230V320 9999 SCT012 19/14 Q1012 NOSIG=
d. emergency conditions Which of the points on the plan view indicates the approximate last position
by which the landing checklist should have been completed during a
7. You are flying at FL340 in the northern hemisphere. The wind is geostrophic stabilized approach?
and there is a crosswind from the right all the time, your true altitude will: MET a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
a. increase, only if the temperature at your flight level is rising on your route
b. increase Stabilized approach
c. decrease
 Maintain a specified descent rate.
d. remain constant  Maintain a specified airspeed.
e. decrease, only if the pressure at the surface is decreasing on your route  Complete all briefings and checklists.
 Configure aircraft for landing (gear, flaps, etc).
 Be stabilized by 1,000 feet for IMC operations; 500 feet for VMC approach.
 Ensure only small changes in heading/pitch are necessary to maintain the
correct flight path.
 The aircraft speed is not more than final approach speed +10 KIAS and
not less than VREF
 Sink rate is no greater than 1000 feet/minute; if an approach requires a
sink rate greater than 1000 feet/minute a special briefing should be
conducted
 During a circling approach wings should be leveled on final when the
aircraft reaches 300 feet above airport elevation
 ILS approaches must be flown within one dot of the glide-slope and
localizer

9. You fly VFR from your home base (rwy width 45m) to a small airfield (rwy
width 27m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a: HP
(NARROW-LOW)
a. low approach with undershoot
b. low approach with overshoot
c. high approach with undershoot
d. high approach with overshoot

When approach is lower, you will undershoot.

8. Refer to the instrument chart above (FABL VOR-01) in conjunction with

weather report
10. The speed V2 is defined for jet aeroplane as: 14. Which of the following alternatives is correct regarding audio and visual
a. lift off speed signals in the cockpit when passing overhead a middle marker?
b. critical engine failure speed a. Audio: 75 Mhz, 2 dashed per second, Visual: Blue light flashes
c. take off decision speed b. Audio: 3000 Hz, alternating dots and dashes, Visual: Amber light flashes
d. take off climb speed or speed at 35ft c. Audio: 1300 Hz, alternating dots and dashes, Visual: Amber light flashes
d. Audio: 400 Hz, 2 dashes per second, Visual: Blue light flashes.
11. What type of clouds are associated with snow showers ? MET
a. Cumulus congestus and nimbostratus
b. Altostratus and stratus
c. Cumulus and Cumulonimbus
d. Cumulus and altostratus
e. Nimbostratus

12. If the temperature at the surface is given as +15 oC and at 4000 feet above
the surface it is +9oC, the state of the layer is said to be: MET
a. unstable
b. absolutely unstable
c. neutrally stable
d. conditionally unstable
e. stable

6/4000 ft = 2 degrees lapse rate.

STABILITY
DALR 3/1000 ft 1/100m Cirrus: value of DALR
and SALR closest
SALR 1.5/1000 ft 0.5/100 m
ELR 1.2/1000 ft 0.6/100m
STABLE ELR> 1.8 per 1000ft 0.3 per
100 m
UNSTABLE ELR<1/1000ft 3/1000 ft
COND UNST ELR 1.8

13. Which of the following equipment onboard the aircraft will best assist a
flight crew avoid CFIT?
a. TAWS
b. Autopilot
c. Flight director
d. Protective Breathing Equipment (PBE)
e. Sensitive barometric altimeter
 16. Refer to FALE RNAV-02
On a RSA approach chart the arrowed symbol represents the:
15. Refer to the aerodrome chart above and the weather code below
a. Altitude of the highest natural obstacle on the chart
FAWB 041500Z VRB05KT 9999 FEW050 30/10 Q1017=
b. Spot height on which TAA or MSA calculations are based
What is the approximate deviation from ISA temperature at the aerodrome ?
c. Highest elevation on the approach chart
(Assume standard ICAO temperature lapse rate and a pressure lapse rate of 1
d. Height above ground of the highest obstacle in the TMA
hPa per 30ft)
a. -7°C
b. +3°C
17. Select Both applicable options for 2 marks OR one option for 1 mark.
c. +7°C
Which of the following are normally considered control instruments?
d. +15°C
a. Tachometer
e. +23°C
b. Direction Indicator
c. Turn Co-ordinator
Elevation: 4095/1000*-2+15= 7 ISA. The aerodrome temperature is 30. They use
d. Altimeter
max temperature to work out the deviation, not 10.
e. Artificial Horizon
 aerodrome en route, you overhear ATC transmit the local QNH of 1001 to an
aircraft. Which of the following options is correct?
a. This will only be of concern to jet aircraft conducting uninterrupted
descents from high altitudes.
b. Be vigilant. Your actual altitude is lower than the indicated flight level.
c. As a precautionary measure, it is appropriate to continue the flight on the
local QNH
d. You are safe. Your actual altitude is higher than the indicated flight level.

22. If the QFE at Locarno (200 Metres AMSL) is 1000hPa. What is the
18. The autopilot uses input signals from the:
approximate QNH? (200/8 = 25)
1. ADC
a. 980 hPa
2. Attitude reference system
b. 990 hPa
3. ILS receiver
c. 1000 hPa
4. Mode control panel
d. 1025 hPa
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is
e. 1035 hPa.
a. 1,4
b. 1,2,3,4
23. During flight with reference to an EFIS display, a pilot should not attempt to
c. 1,2,3
maintain level flight using the attitude indicator alone? INSTRUMENRS
d. 2,3,4
a. True
b. False
19. The MDA for a circling approach is .............
a. Always at 500 feet or above
b. Reference to threshold elevation
c. Referenced to aerodrome elevation
d. Always fixed at 300 feet
e. Always at least 600 feet or higher

20. For a runway that has been technically classified as “DRY” which of the
following statements is true?
a. A small amount of course rime ice is allowed, but no clear ice, wet snow or
standing water.
b. Under some conditions, a runway with moisture on the surface could still be
classified as dry
c. Only dry runways may be operational when low visibility procedures (LVP’s)
are in force
d. Some accumulation of drizzle is allowed if the runway slope is positive
above 2”

21. You are pilot in command of an aircraft en-route from Lagos (DNMM) to
Enugu (DNEN), Nigeria, at flight Level 090 in IMC. Passing overheard an
24.Refer to the image above
How wide is the runway in the photograph ?
a. 23 m
b. 30 m
c. 35 m
d. 45 m

(Learn by heart)

25. Which has the effect of increasing load factor? (all other relevant factors
being constant)
a. Forward CG location
b. Increased air density
c. Vertical gusts
d. Increased aeroplane mass

Load Factor
26. Refer to the image above
LF= Lift/Weight The correct flight director indication for a " FLY UP AND RIGHT " command is:
S+L =1 a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 7 e. 8

27. At an aerodrome with runway edge and centre line lighting. The lowest
take-off minima for a performance class D aeroplane is:
a. RVR 500 Metres
b. RVR 200 Metres
c. RVR 250 Metres
d. RVR 800 Metres
 d. when using a Baro-VNAV vertical guidance

31. Middle marker beacons transmit at:

a. 1300 hz
b. 150 Mhz
c. 90 Mhz
d. 75 Mhz

28. With regards to icing conditions, what does “holdover time” mean?
a. An extended air traffic delay due to severe or inclement weather in sub-
freezing conditions
b. The delay imposed by ATC on departing aircraft during severe icing
conditions
c. The estimated time during which an anti-icing agent prevents the formation
of frost or ice
d. The time that de-icing fluid takes to become effective after application 32. What should a pilot do if a missed approach is initiated before arriving at
e. The time that clear or rime ice takes to accumulate to a depth of 5mm or the missed approach point (MAPt)?
more on a fight-critical aircraft surface a. Maintain MDA until reaching the MAP, at which point the full missed
approach procedure is commenced.
b. Level off at decision altitude or higher and prepare for the missed
29. Which of the following can be considered the most important approach procedure
consideration for a pilot in terms of management of a bird strike threat after c. Execute the full missed approach procedure but do not exceed the missed
departure? approach altitude without ATC clearance.
a. The presence of a waste site in close proximity to the airfield d. Continue to the MAP and then follow the missed approach procedure. The
b. An unserviceable aircraft landing light during daylight operations climb portion may be initiated before the MAP.
c. The intensity of the runway lighting
d. The increased risk of bird strike for a propeller-driven aircraft
e. The number of occupants on board the aircraft 33. In central Europe, when is the greatest likelihood for thunderstorms due to
warm updrafts? MET
a. Early mornings
30 ..................................RNAV (GNSS) instrument approach chart does not b. Late mornings
apply: c. Mid-afternoon
a. If the aircraft FMS is equipped with approved cold temperature d. Around midnight
compensation for the final approach
b. when the procedure is flown using a radio altimeter as primary reference 34. The temperature restriction placed on certain RNAV instrument approach
c. when the relevant ATS unit approves a CFDA approach charts does not apply to:
a. Baro-VNAV approaches a. Category I and II precision approaches are assumed to be flown using a
b. Cold-weather conditions pressure altimeter to determine decision altitude
c. LNAV/VNAV (SBAS) approach procedures b. It is independent of the aircraft approach category
d. Basic GNSS receivers c. Category I precision approaches do not have a decision altitude
d. Obstacles in both the approach and the missed approach are taken into
account
35. All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence are requested to report it. You
experience CAT which causes passengers and crew to feel definite strain
against their seat belt or shoulder straps. Unsecure objects are dislodged. 40. You are the pilot-in-command of an aeroplane flying enroute at FL150. For
Food service and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported traffic separation purposes, ATC gives you instructions to hold at 250 knots at
as: the next radio beacon on your route. The duration of the holds which you will
a. Light fly should be:
b. Moderate a. 8 minutes
c. Severe b. 4minutes
d. Extreme c. 5 minutes
d. 3 minutes
(Know the definitions of CAT) e. None of the above.

36. If QDM mode is selected, the VDF display will indicate: 41. In general the diameter of the “cone of confusion” associated with certain
a. The true track from the aircraft to the station radio navigation transmitters is:
b. The magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft a. Greater with a VOR than with an NDB
c. The true bearing from the station to the aircraft b. Equal in size, irrespective of whether the aid is a VOR or an NDB
d. The magnetic track from the aircraft to the station c. Smaller with a VOR than an NDB.

37. If QTE mode is selected, the VDF display unit will indicate: 42. Dew point is defined as the: MET
a. the true bearing from the station to the aircraft a. Lowest temperature at which evaporation will occur for a given
b. the magnetic track from the aircraft to the station temperature
c. the magnetic bearing from the station to the aircraft
b. Temperature below which the change of state in a given volume of
d. the true track from the aircraft to the station
air will result in the absorption of latent heat
38. Which of the following is a complete list of airborne weather radar c. Lowest temperature to which air must be cooled in order to reduce
antenna stabilization modes? the relative humidity
a. Roll and yaw d. Lowest temperature at which atmospheric water can still maintain a
b. Roll and pitch vapour pressure of 27.3 hPa
c. Roll, pitch and yaw e. Temperature to which moist air must be cooled to become saturated
d. Pitch and yaw at a given pressure.

43. With reference to a direct reading magnetic compass. It is true to say that
39. This question concerns procedure design according to ICAO Doc 8168. in the southern hemisphere:
Which of the following statements is true as far as the determination of the a. The northerly turning error is greater than the southerly
decision altitude for an ILS instrument approach procedure is concerned: b. No turning errors are experienced
c. The southerly turning error is the greatest
 d. Turning errors are only experienced on easterly and westerly compass b. Find it difficult to get out of that way of thinking and difficult to try a
headings different interpretation of the data
c. Find it difficult to stick to his/her interpretation of the data
44. Why is VNE stated as an operating limitation? d. Find it easy to interpret the data in different ways
1. Aerodynamic limitation
2. Engine performance limitation
3. Noise level limitation 47. What surface conditions would likely be caused by upper air divergence:
4. Structural limitation MET
5. ATC limitation a. Falling pressure and formation of cloud
Which of the following groups are the correct answers b. Falling pressure and dissipation of cloud
a. 2 only c. Raising pressure and formation of cloud
b. 3 and 5 d. Raising pressure and dissipation of cloud
c. 1 and 4

48. With reference to the CDI above. What is the position of the aircraft?
a. Radial 027
b. Radial 036
c. Radial 207
d. Radial 210
45. Refer to the figure above e. Radial 219
Identify the aerodrome feature in the photograph that is encircled by the red You need to fly 6 to the right to get to the radial 213. Which means you are on
oval? 207.
a. the glideslope transmitter unit
b. the stop bar installation 49. Select both correct options to obtain the allocated mark. If wind shear is
c. the localizer transmitter unit suspected, what precautionary measures would be taken on take-off?
d. the threshold light installation a. Use the longest appropriate runway
b. Apply normal take off power and use normal runway as wind shear
does not affect aircraft controllability.
46. Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking about a problem: c. Use the maximum allowable take off power
HP d. Select a lower Vr value to get airborne as soon as possible
a. Find it impossible to get out of that way of thinking, whatever happens
 e. Request a downhill take-off to reduce the risk of settling back onto the
runway 53. After passing at right angles through a very active cold front in the
direction towards the cold air, what will you encounter at FL50, in the northern
hemisphere, immediately after a marked change in temperature? MET
50. If the continuity equation is applicable, what will happen to the air density a. A decrease in tailwind
(rho) if the cross-sectional area of a tube changes? (low speed, subsonic and b. A veering in the wind direction
incompressible flow) c. A backing in the wind direction
d. rho1 > rho2 d. An increase in tailwind
e. the density depends on the change of the tube areas.
f. Rho1 = rho2 54. When rolling into a steep turn with reference to instruments only, a pilot
g. Rho1 < rho2 should:
a. Close the throttle immediately once the nose drops below the horizon
AxV=CONSTANT b. Allow the balance ball to deflect a maximum of a half-ball to the
inside of the turn.
51. A GBAS landing system (GLS) is: c. Anticipate to raise the nose positively once the bank angle pointer
touches the 45o marking.
a. An approach and landing system using ground based d. Increase the instrument scan rate as the turn steepens.
installations e.g: ILS and VOR/DME
b. A GNSS precision approach and landing system using correction
signals from your VHF ground-based station 55. Which of the following are required on-board an aircraft operated under
c. Any GNSS approach flown using satellite guidance signals IFR?
from the Russian GLONASS system 1. A magnetic compass
d. An approach and landing operation using standard ILS 2. A sensitive pressure altimeter
glideslope information for vertical guidance and a GNSS SBAS for 3. An accurate time-piece
enhanced lateral guidance 4. A GPS
5. A turn and bank indicator, or a turn co-ordinator incorporating a slip
52………the aircraft is equipped with……. (lights required to operate an indicator
aeroplane at night) The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
1. Serviceable navigation lights a. 1,2,3,5
2. Either two serviceable landing lights or one single serviceable landing b. 1,2,3,4,5
light housing with two separately energized filaments c. 1,2,3,4
3. A serviceable rotating beacon or strobe light
4. A serviceable electrical torch for each required crew member, readily
accessible to such crew member when seated at his or her
designated station 56. Which of the following statements best characterise a synergetic cockpit?
5. A dome light fitted to the cockpit canopy which must be either red or 1. Decisions are taken by the captain, but prepared by the crew
white in colour. 2. There is little delegating of tasks
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is 3. Communications are few in number but precise and geared purely to
a. 1,2,3,4 the flight
b. 1,2,3 4. Fluid, consensual boundaries exist in regard to leadership-style
c. 1,2,3,4,5 The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
a. 1,4
 b. 2,3
c. 2,4
d. 1,3,4

57. At a TAS of 200kts and a given endurance, the PSR/PNR is 650NM from the
point of departure in Zero wind conditions. With a 60kts headwind on the
outbound leg. The revised PSR/PNR is:
a. 59 nm closer
b. 95 nm closer
c. 195 nm further
d. 332 nm closer
e. 449 nm further

58. An aeroplane accelerates from 60 kts to 100 kts at a load factor equal to
1. The induced drag coefficient (i) and the induced drag (ii) alter with the
following factors:
a. (i) 4 (ii) ½
b. (i) ½ (ii) 1/16
c. (i) ¼ (ii) 2
d. (i) 1/16 (ii) ¼

59. Compressibility will:

a. Not affect the airspeed indicator
b. Affect the airspeed indicator by causing it to Over-read
c. Only affect the altimeter
d. Affect the airspeed indicator by causing it to under-read.

60. A flight crew has received the departure clearance for an intended flight.
The pilot in command studies the chart depicting the relevant turning
departure procedure and realizes that he requires a higher speed than the 611. Refer to the chart above
maximum specified for the departure procedure. What should he do? Approaching “ABV” on a track of 035* (M) in IMC for the VOR-A RWY 01
a. Fly the higher speed and advise ATC, but maintain climb gradient instrument approach, the correct procedure would be to:
b. Use a balanced field calculation for the departure procedure a. Maintain at least 1600ft, complete the pattern entry. Turn
c. Request and alternative departure procedure outbound, descend to 2500ft. Turn inbound at 8 DME,
d. Decrease V1 for an earlier rotation point. maintain altitude until established inbound, descend to
MDA/H
b. Maintain 6000ft, once overhead “ABV”, intercept the
outbound radial, execute a procedure turn approach
c. Descend to 5500ft when within 25 DME, complete a teardrop
entry. Turn left onto 187* (M). Descend to 2500ft once in the
hold
 d. Maintain 6000ft to “ABV” turn left onto heading of 187* (M), c. 1,2
descend to 3000ft once in the hold d. 1,3

64. Which statement is correct with respect to selections on the transponder

control panel?
a. The current ICAO 24bits aircraft address code must be inserted on the
control panel
b. With the selector knobs the four digit of the squawk can be selected
using the decimal symbols 0 through 9
c. With ALT selected a reply in the modes A, C and S can be transmitted
d. With ON selected a reply in the modes A, C and S can be transmitted

65. Which of the following are strategies for resolving conflict?

1. Seeking arbitration
2. Actively listening to other people
3. Recognise the early stages of conflict and address them
4. Becoming aware of cultural influences
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
62. Refer to the figure above a. 2,3,4 only
Which typical weather situation is shown on the weather chart? b. 1,2,4 only
(Spacing of the isobars 5hPa) c. 1,2,3 only
d. 1,2,3,4
a. Warm south wind conditions (Foehn)
b. A shallow pressure gradient
c. Westerly wind conditions
d. Mountain wave conditions with likely
Clear Air Turbulence (CAT)

63. Which of the following are the most favourable solutions to manage
phases of reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance):
1. Keep active open communication between man and machine
2. Use of amphetamines
3. Reducing the intensity of the light
4. Organising periods of rest during the flight
The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
a. 3,4
b. 1,4
 d. 0m (0ft)

69. Which of the following physical stimuli may cause stress reactions?
1. Noise
2. Conflict
3. Temperature
4. An administrative problem
5. Hunger
a. 2,3,5
b. 1,3,5
c. 3,4,5
d. 1,3,4

70. A METAR message is valid: MET

a. At the time of observation
66. Refer to the image above b. For the hour following the observation
Which kind of aircraft icing could potentially be expected in this cloud type? c. For 2 hours
a. Light clear ice d. For 6 hours
b. Moderate mixed ice e. For 9 hours
c. Severe rime ice
d. Light rime ice 71. If a pilot wants to conduct a circle to land manoeuvre after an ILS
e. Severe hoar frost approach, the aircraft should be stable at the least by:
What cloud is this? a. At least 100 feet above DA
b. CAT I decision height plus 200 feet
67. In terms of the ICAO PANS. Holding areas. There is an additional buffer c. MDA
area which extends 5.0 NM beyond the boundary of the holding area. This d. Circuit Height
buffer area guarantees a minimum obstacles clearance over flat terrain of: e. A circling approach may not be followed after an ILS approach
a. 1000 feet, decreasing to zero at the outer edges procedure
b. 984 feet
c. 197 feet 72. If a pilot wants to conduct a circle-to-land manoeuvre after a non-
d. 1500 feet precision approach, the aircraft should be stable at the latest by:

68. What is the minimum obstacle clearance guaranteed at the eadge of the a. MDA
buffer area (5nm outside of the holding area) of a holding pattern? b. MDA + 100ft
c. 400ft above airport elevation
a. 300m (1000ft/2000ft in mountainous areas) d. Circuit height
b. 150m (500ft) e. None of the above
c. 90m (300ft)
73. Control Area means:
a. The portion of an aerodrome where aircraft movement are under the 77. According to RSA AIP en route section, aircraft are subject to speed
direct control of ATC restrictions within 50 DME from JSV/PEV/CTV/BLV/ELV. These restrictions apply:
b. Controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified height a. To both outbound and inbound aircraft
above the surface without an upper limit unless an upper limit is b. Only when instructed by ATC
published in an AIP, AIC or NOTAM and designated as a control area. c. To outbound aircraft
c. Controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface to a d. To inbound aircraft
specified upper limit as published in AIP, AIC or NOTAM.

78. You are the pilot-in-command of an aircraft that is inbound to FAOR at

FL140. Due to airspace congestion, ATC instructs you to hold at 170 knots at
74. If plotted against airspeed, parasite drag: POF
the PNV radio beacon. The duration of the holds which you will fly should be:
a. Is considered to be nil at zero airspeed
a. 5 minutes
b. Starts at the best rate of climb airspeed
b. 4 minutes
c. Starts at the best angle of climb airspeed.
c. 6 minutes
d. 3 minutes

79. In order to indicate an emergency situation, the aircraft Secondary

Surveillance Radar (SSR) transponder should be set to:
a. 7000
b.7600
c. 7500
d. 7700

80. When flying in turbulent conditions, a pilot should remember the following
in respect of the vertical speed indicator (VSI):
a. In turbulence, the VSI always indicates altitude excursions in the
75. The retina allows for colour perception as a result of the: HP
opposite direction due to instrument lag
a. Crystalline lens
b. Make small corrections to avoid exacerbating a potentially divergent
b. Rods located in its peripheral zone
flight situation
c. Rods located in its central part
c. The VSI should preferably not be referred to in straight and level flight
d. Cones located in its central part
in such conditions
d. Correct altitude deviations aggressively when they occur to avoid
76. Clouds will mainly consist of super-cooled water droplets when the
airspace excursions.
temperature is: MET
a. Between 00c and -150c
b. Between -50C and -300C 81. Assuming no compressibility effect, induced drag at constant IAS is
c. Between -150C and -300C affected by: POF
d. Between -300C and -400C a. Engine thrust
e. Below -400C b. Outside air temperature
 c. Altitude e. Stratiform clouds with considerable turbulence
d. Aeroplane mass

85. Which statement is correct for microburst?

82. What approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the a. The diameter of the affected area on the surface does not exceed
equator? MET 4km
b. The gust can reach a speed of up to 219 knots
a. 8km b. 11km c. 16km d. 40km
c. The downdrafts is warmer than the surroundings
d. They only develop below convective clouds with heavy rain
e. They occur in the tropics only

83. Refer to the CDI above

Assume a magnetic variation of 23* degrees West at the VOR station, what
should be the true track to plot from the VOR station to the aircraft?

a. 015* b. 031* c. 195* d. 203* e. 257*

84. A conditionally unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope.

What type of clouds can be expected? MET
a. Layer-like clouds with little vertical development
b. Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated
turbulence
c. Dense Nimbostratus clouds with moderate turbulence
d. Stratiform clouds with a temperature inversion
 a. Initiate a go around and execute the missed approach
procedure
b. Level off and request a circle to land approach onto runway
05 from the flap setting
c. Increase the thrust or power setting to offset the high drag
from the flap setting
d. Complete the landing checklist and report the incident to the
operator after the flight
e. Immediately configure the aircraft with the correct flap setting
and land

86. Refer to the instrument approach chart above and the weather code
below:

FNLU 041200Z 03004KT 3000 HZ FEW075 DCT110 30/09 Q1028=

A flight crew is flying the localizer-only approach, passing 2 DME, “VNA”, the
following voice alert is heard: “Too low flaps”. In this case, the most correct 87. Refer to the FACT TETAN 1A RWY 19 DEP-05 04-APR2013
response of the pilot flying would be to:
Which of the following statements about the TETAN 1A standard departure
chart are correct? a. Light icing due to rime ice
b. Light icing due to clear ice
a. The CTR boundary has to be crossed at the specified minimum altitude to c. Moderate icing due to hoar frost and rime ice
ensure adequate terrain clearance d. Moderate to severe icing due to clear ice
b. Aircraft equipped only with RNAV (GNSS) avionics equipment may not fly e. Moderate to severe icing due to rime ice
this procedure
c. If the SID is in force, an aircraft that cannot comply with the minimum climb
gradient on the chart may not take off 92. The impression of an apparent movement of light when stared at for a
d. The altitude at which Cape Town Radar control must be contacted will not relatively long period of time in the dark is called: HP
be confirmed in the ATC departure clearance
a. “oculogyral illusion”
b. ”autokinesis”
c. “oculografic illusion”
88. For an aeroplane flying at a TAS of 400 knots, the PNR/PSR in zero wind
d. “white out”
conditions is 1067NM from the point of departure. For the same endurance,
with a headwind of 60 knots outbound and a tailwind of 60 knots inbound, the
change in the distance to the PNR/PSR would be: FP 93. What are the lowest minima to be used by an operator for a circling
approach with a category C aeroplane?
a. 2.3% a. Visibility 1600m and MDH 500 ft.
b. 4.9% b. Visibility 2700m and MDH 700 ft.
c. 27.8% c. Visibility 2560m and MDH 500 ft.
d. 14.2% d. Visibility 2400m and MDH 600 ft.
e. 5.6%

89. Complete the sentence, select both correct options:

94. “Low visibility procedures” means:
The “Shoreline effect” on a certain types of radio navigation, is stronger
when:
a. Procedures which apply when the RVR is between 1000 and 800 m
a. The radio aid is further inland
b. Procedures requested by pilots when they cannot see the runway at night
b. The aircraft is at low altitude
c. Procedures applied at an aerodrome for the purpose of ensuring safe
c. The flight is conducted at dawn or dusk
operations during low visibility operations
d. The aircraft is at high altitude
e. The radio aid is closer to the shore
95. The purpose of the autopilot Control Wheel Steering (CWS) mode is:

90. What is the range of speeds for initial approach that is used in a. to control the nose wheel steering during automatic landing
instrument approach procedure design for a “category A” aircraft? b. to consider as target parameters, the current pitch and roll angles at the
a. 70/100 kts time the mode becomes active
b. 141/165 kts c. to capture and hold the altitude selected with the control wheel on the
c. 90/150 kts mode control panel
d.120/180 kts d. to control the nose wheel steering during low visibility take-off and landing

91. What intensity and type of aircraft icing is most likely to occur at FL100 in a
thunderstorm, with the freezing level at 7000ft?
96. Virga is associated with:

a. Mountain waves
b. Hail
c. Snow
d. Updrafts
e. Downdrafts

97. The selected or selective Radial scan means that the:

a. Cross-check focusses on the secondary flight instrument more than
the primary instruments
b. Pilot does not look at any single instrument more than the others
c. VOR CDI information is always used to support the flight instruments
d. Pilot’s eyes always moves via the attitude indicator before looking at
other flight instruments.

98. Refer to the Ulundi NBD-02 instrument approach chart above

At which of the indicated positions on the approach is the risk of CFIT

greatest?

a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
 101. Unless otherwise authorized by the appropriate ATS authority, or directed
by the appropriate air traffic control unit, controlled flights shall, in so far as
practicable:
a. operate the shortest direct route between its departure point and
destination aerodrome
b. when on established ATS route, operate 10nm to the right of the defined
centre line of that route
c. when on any other route, operate directly between the navigation facilities
and/or points defining that route

102. Document-SA CATS 91-08-16 Radio Communication Failure (RCF)

procedures refers:

Select the correct option to complete the phrase below

If the communication failure occurs while operating in accordance with IFR

while in IMC or, if VMC but unable to maintain VMC. The aircraft shall:

a. In airspace where an ATS surveillance system is not used in the provision of

air traffic control, maintain the last assigned speed and level, or minimum
flight altitude if higher, for a period of 7 minutes

b. Continue to fly in instrument meteorological conditions, land at the nearest

suitable aerodrome and report your arrival by the most expeditious means to
99. Refer to the image above the appropriate ATC unit

Select both correct options: c. Maintain the last assigned flight level for a minimum of 3 minutes on
reaching, provided terrain permits. After 3 minutes the aircraft is to climb at
The correct flight director indication for a “FLY UP” only command is: the normal rate of climb, to the flight level specified in the current FPL

a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 8 e. 9 d. In airspace where an ATS surveillance system is not used in the provision of

air traffic control, maintain the last assigned speed and level, or minimum
flight altitude if higher, for a period of 20 minutes, following aircraft’s failure to
100. How does ICAO Doc 8168 describe the term “Departure end of the
report its position over a compulsory point and thereafter adjust level and
runway”?
speed on accordance with the filed FPL
a. That portion of a certified aerodrome used for instrument take-off
manoeuvres when low visibility procedures are in force
b. The end of the area declared suitable for take-off (i.e. the end of
the runway or clearway as appropriate) 103.When conducting a RNAV instrument approach procedure, the
c. The runway direction approved for a specific departure by the procedure may be entered directly from the initial approach fix:
state concerned a. When the fix is approached on a track within 30* of the outbound
d. The direction of the runway in current use at an aerodrome. heading
b. At all times due to the increased capabilities of onboard GNSS
equipment
 c. When the turn required does not exceed 110* c. Bergwind conditions over the west of the country
d. When the aircraft approaches the fix in the sector 3 of the race track d. Poor visibility in the Western Cape
pattern. e. Light rainfall over the north-western areas of the country

106. Refer to the TAF extract:

104. Unless otherwise authorized by the responsible ATSU, an ATS flight plan for BECMG 1821 2000 BR BKN004 PROB30 TEMPO 2124 0500 FG VV001
a flight to be conducted in controlled or advisory airspace shall be filed: What does the abbreviation “PROB30” mean?

a. If filed during flight while outside controlled or advisory airspace for a flight a. A change is expected in less than 30 minutes
to be conducted in such airspace, it shall be filed with the responsible ATSU at b. The probability of a change in the indicated weather is 30% or less
least 5 minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of c. The likelihood of the forecast element changing is insufficient to warrant the
entry into the controlled or advisory airspace use of the change indicators “BECMG” or “TEMPO”
d. The cloud ceiling is likely to lift to 3000ft
b. For international flights, at least 30 minutes before departure
e. Conditions will last for at least 30 minutes

c. For domestic flights, at least 30 minutes before departure

107. With reference to the figure above, which altimeter represents an altitude
of 8000ft?
105.Refer to the image above (In Louise IR questions)
a. 4 b. 2 c. 3 d. 1
The weather that may be expected over South Africa during the next few
days is:
108. Around Paris on January 3rd at 1800UTC the surface temperature under
a. Unseasonal snowfall in the Cape south coast region
shelter is +3*C. The sky is covered by 8 oktas of stratus. QNH is 1033hPa. If the
b. Widespread thunderstorms over the east of the country
sky is covered all night, the minimum temperature of the night of January 3 rd
to January 4th should be:

a. significantly above +3*C

b. significantly below 0*C
c. slightly below +3*C
d. slightly above +3*C
e. None of the above

109. How does stress overload affect performance?

a. performance is enhanced
b. performance is degraded
c. performance is initially degraded and is then enhanced
d. performance peaks and remains at this level

110. Refer to the chart above

The minimum sector altitude for an aircraft inbound to Ladysmith on ‘’LYV’ R-

245 is:

a. 5300ft b. 5900ft c. 7300ft d. 8400ft e. 9300ft

111.In certain conditions V2 can be limited by Vmca:

a. High take-off mass, small flap extension, high field elevation

b. High take-off mass, large flap extension, low field elevation
c. Low take-off mass, large flap extension, low field elevation
d. Low take-off mass, small flap extension, low field elevation
b. measuring the pulse lengths of signals received from a minimum number of
satellites received in a specific sequential order
112. The theoretical maximum range for an Airborne Weather Radar (AWR) is
determined by the: c. measuring the time taken for a minimum number of satellites transmissions,
in known positions, to reach the aircraft’s receiver
a. pulse repetition frequency
b. beam width
d. the aircraft’s receiver measuring the phase angle of signals received from a
c. carrier wave frequency
number of satellites in known positions
d. pulse length

117. Which statement corresponds to the definition of severe turbulence?

113. When otherwise calm and clear conditions exist a station on the shore of
a. Aircraft sustains suspected structural damage and an immediate landing
a large body of water will experience wind:
at the nearest suitable aerodrome is required
a. continually from land to water b. Liquids are splashing out of cups, walking is Impossible and catering carts
b. from the land in daytime and from the water at night are difficult to maneoeuvre
c. that is light and variable with a speed of no more than 7kts c. Difficulty in walking, occupants feel strain against seat belts, loose objects
d. continually from water to land move about
e. from the water in daytime and from the land at night d. Erratic changes in aircraft pitch, roll and yaw occur and an immediate
public-address announcement to passengers is necessary
e. Aircraft may be out of control for short periods, occupants are forced
114. Sensory input to the “Seat-of-the-pants” sense is given by: violently against seat belts, loose objects are tossed about

a. blood rushing into legs

b. pressure of the heart on the diaphragm 118. The biological reaction to stress is identical regardless of the cause of
c. acceleration of the stomach (nausea) stress. This mechanism occurs in three phrases and is referred to by Selye, as
d. Subcutaneous pressure receptors and muscle activity sensors the “General Adaptation Syndrome”. The sequence is:

a. Exhaustion phase – resistance phase – adaptation phase

115. Select both correct options:
b. Alarm phase – resistance phase – exhaustion phase
In which official publication will information regarding common bird activity at c. Alarm phase – denial phase – exhaustion phase
a South African aerodrome be found? d. Resistance phase – exhaustion phase – recovery phase

a. AD section of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)

b. AIRMET 119. Which of the following best describes a straight-in instrument approach?
c. ENR section of the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
d. South African Civil Aviation Regulations or Technical Standards a. An approach which is aligned to pass over some portion of the usable
e. NOTAM landing surface of the aerodrome
b. An approach which is aligned with the runway centre line or, in the case of
116. In a satellite-Assisted Navigation System (GNSS/GPS), a fix is obtained by: non-precision approaches, which has an angle between the final approach
a. measuring the time taken for an aircraft’s transmissions to travel to a track and the runway centre line of 30* or less
number of satellites, in known positions, and return to the aircraft’s receiver
c. An approach which does not require a racetrack or reversal manoeuvre for
alignment with the final approach segment
d. A radar vectored approach

120. With reference to FABL aerodrome chart AD-01 above, select both
applicable options: 124. Of the following statements regarding stress, which is correct?
a. Stress and anxiety are the same in every sense
a. When on the correct approach slope to rwy 30, a pilot would see the 2 b. Stress always has a negative effect on performance
white PAPI lights on the side furthest from the runway c. Stress may be positive, fatigue is always negative
b. Only rwy 30 has the visual approach slope indication on the non-standard d. Stress and fatigue are synonymous
side
c. Rwy 20 has a temporarly displaced threshold and 0.1% downslope
d. Rwy 02 has a permanently displaced threshold and 0.1% downslope
125. What is the purpose of a Standard Instrument arrival route?
e. Only rwy 30 has the visual approach slope indicator on the standard side

a. To expedite air traffic movement in areas with poor primary radar coverage
121. What type of fog is most likely to form over flat land during a clear night,
b. To ensure safety in case of communications failure
with calm or light wind conditions? MET
c. To permit transition from the en-route phase to the approach phase
a. Radiation fog
d. To separate VFR traffic from IFR traffic in very congested airspace
b. Orographic fog
c. Advection fog
d. Steam fog

122. Theoretically, can a ground direction finder receive the signal of a light
training aircraft 100 nm away from the airfield? For these purpose assume the 126. About a magnetic compass:
VDF station height is 130 feet.
a. Errors of parallax are due to the oscillation of the compass rose
a. Yes, provided the aircraft maintains a height of at least 4000 feet b. Acceleration errors are due to the angle of dip
AGL c. Acceleration errors are due to Schuler oscillations
b. Yes, provided the aircraft maintains a height of at least 5000 feet d. Turning error is due to the vertical component of the earth’s magnetic field
AGL
c. Yes , provided the aircraft maintains a height of not less than 6000
feet AGL
d. No, because the minimum height will most likely exceed the
service ceiling of the aircraft
e. No, because the distance exceeds the theoretical range of a
VDF installation.

123. The location of the centre of pressure of a positively cambered aerofoil

section at increasing angle of attack will:

a. Shift AFT until approaching the critical angle of attack

b. Shift in spanwise direction
c. Shift FWD until approaching the critical angle of attack 127. With reference to the image above, which of the alphabet letters
d. Not shift indicates the cloud section in which the most severe aircraft icing will be
experienced?
 b. Shall, when flights are anticipated above FL200, fly the aircraft in
accordance with VFR if VMC exists
a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E c. When an aircraft operating under IFR is flown in or encounters VMC, not
cancel its IFR flight unless it is anticipated, and intended, that the flight will be
continued for a reasonable period in uninterrupted VMC
127. An increase in wing loading will: POF

a. Decrease the minimum glide angle 122. What does the abbreviation VNE mean?
b. Increase the stall speed
a. Maximum landing gear operating speed
c. Increase sensitivity to turbulence
b. Never exceed speed
d. Increase CLMAX
c. Normal endurance speed

128. Non-verbal communication:

a. Should be avoided by all means in the cockpit 123. Density altitude is:
b. Is of no meaning in the cockpit
a. Equal to the true altitude after correction for non-standard temperature
c. Is always used intentionally
b. Used to determine aircraft performance
d. Supports verbal communication
c. Used to establish a minimum clearance of 2000ft over mountains
d. Equal to pressure altitude at sea level
e. All the above
129. A GBAS provides guidance relative to the:

a. LNAV portion of a RNAV approach

b. Vertical flight path during a Baro-VNAV approach
c. Final approach course and glide path
d. En-route track accuracy in areas with low satellite coverage

120. You aborted a take-off in a piston engine aircraft due to another aircraft
crossing the runway without being cleared to do so. Very hard brake pressure
was applied. Which action would be most appropriate after stopping?
a. Shut down the engines and evacuate
b. Obtain instructions from ATC, taxi to the runway holding point and
wait to be re-cleared for take-off
c. Request the fire department to slowly pour a small amount of
water over the wheel assembly
d. Run the propeller to utilize cooling airflow.

121. The PIC of an aircraft:

a. When an aircraft operating under IFR is flown in or encounters VMC, cancel

its IFR flight as soon as VMC is encountered
 b. The minimum temperature promulgated for the procedure

c. This approach requires barometric data input and may therefore only be
flown at an OAT of -5*C and lower

d. The airport average minimum temperature

125. Refer to the photograph of the runway above

What is the reason for the installation of the runway lighting installation which
has been circled?

a. There is no visual approach slope indicator system

b. The aerodrome is used for night-time LVP operations but only has an APAPI
installation
c. The runway has a displaced threshold
d. The runway is for precision approach runway category II or III operations
e. The aerodrome has a history of pilots confusing the runway threshold with a
parallel road within the airport perimeter

124. Refer to Lanseria International RNAV (GNSS) RWY 07 126. The ILS marker identified visually by an amber light flashing is the:

What does the MIN TEMP -5*C which is indicated in the bottom left-hand a. Inner marker
corner of the chart (above the straight-in approach minima section) refer to? b. Middle marker
c. Outer marker
a. The average aerodrome temperature deviation from ISA d. Locator
 modern glass cockpit aircraft includes the:

127. As a result of automation in cockpits: 1. Radio height

2. TCAS resolution advisory (RA) symbology
a. Communication and coordination call for an even greater effort on the 3. Localizer and Glide slope deviation pointers
part of the crew 4. EGT
b. The need for communication between crew members has been 5. The autopilot operating modes
decreased
c. It is easier for the captain to monitor the work of the first officer and vice
versa The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
d. Communication and coordination have clearly improved in man-man and a. 2,3,4
man-machine relations b. 1,5
c. 1,2,3,4,5
d. 1,2,3,5

130. The operating principle of a DME is the measurement of the:

a. Time between the transmission and reception of radio pulses

b. Frequency change between the emitted wave and reflected wave
c. Frequency of the reflected wave
d. Phase difference between emitted wave and reflected wave

131. A gravity erector system is used to correct the errors on:

a. an artificial horizon
b. a turn indicator
128. Refer to the figure above c. a directional gyro
d. a gyromagnetic compass
An entry into a holding pattern or racetrack procedure from the sector
marked 2 is called:
132. RAIM is the abbreviation for:
a. A procedure turn approach
b. A direct entry a. Royal aeronautical instruction manual
c. An offset entry b. Receiver avionics integration monitoring
d. A parallel entry c. Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring
d. Random access information memory

129. The set of parameters displayed on the Primary Flight Display (PFD) of
133. Which of the following are either cumulative or tend to escalate?
1. Stress factors (stressors)
2. Errors a. The number of aircraft using the VOR station
3. The effects of carbon monoxide poisoning b. Static interference
4. Human conflict c. Transmission frequency
5. Color blindness d. Shoreline effect
e. Elevation of the transmitter
The combination that regroups all of the correct answers is:
a. 2,3,5
b. 1,2,3
137. Select both correct options
c. 1,2
Which of the following airborne equipment will best assist a flight crew to
d. 1,2,3,4
avoid CFIT is:

a. Digital terrain map with satellite position data

134. You are the pilot of an aircraft departing VFR on a cross-country flight
b. Radar altimeter
from a local gravel runway called Rustig (FART). Your planned cruising level is
c. Fire extinguisher
FL65, FART has an elevation of 3000ft. The runway is 28nm from Wonderboom
d. TCAS/ACAS
aerodrome (FAWB), which has an elevation of 4095 ft and a transition altitude
e. Transponder with mode S capability
of 8000ft.
After take-off at which altitude must you change the altimeter sub-scale
setting to 1013.25 hPa?

a. 8000 feet
b. 6900 feet
c. 5900 feet
d. 6100 feet

135. You are the pilot of an aircraft departing VFR for a cross country flight
from a local gravel runway (FAHJ). Your planned cruise level is FL50. FAHJ has
an elevation of 3900 feet. The runway is 25NM from (FAWB) which has an
elevation of 4095 feet and a transition altitude of 8000 feet.
After take-off at which altitude must you change the altimeter sub scale
setting to 1013.25 hPa?

a. 8000 feet
b. 6900 feet
c. 5900 feet
d. 6100 feet
138. Refer to the prognostic chart above in conjunction with the de-identified
weather code below

136. Which of the following factors will affect the maximum range of a VOR 040900Z 0409/0418 08012KT 9999 BKN030 PROB30 TEMPO 0416/0418 5000 TSRA
navigation signal? BKN020 FEW030CB
BKN040 TX29/0412ZTN23/04 18Z= c. must only undertake a de-icing procedure before take-off
Assume the code applies to an aerodrome at position 20*S 30*E. What will the d. must only undertake a new anti-icing procedure before take-off
approximate density altitude be at 7000ft at 1500Z (assume ISA temperature
lapse rate, a temperature correction of 120ft/*C and factor of and pressure
lapse rate of 27ft/hPa ) 142. The number of energy types which a streamlined flow of fluid contains is:

a. 4240 ft a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6
b. 6520 ft
c. 7480 ft
d. 9760 ft 143. Planning for your flight, you are concerned about hydroplaning on take-
e. More information is required off. What formula do you use to calculate the speed for total hydroplaning?

a. V= 7.7 √tyre pressure in PSI

139. A heavy aircraft takes off on a runway 03L from OR Tambo Airport b. V= 9 √tyre pressure in PSI
threshold. You are flying a medium aircraft and intend to take off from the c. V= 1.3 √tyre pressure in PSI
same position. What minimum separation will be provided by the tower
controller?

a. 2minutes 144. The aircraft autonomous integrity monitoring (AAIM) function of an

b. 3NM aircraft receiver is performed using:
c. 3minutes
d. 5NM a. differential GPS
e. 5 minutes b. satellite signals only
c. a ground relay station
d. information from other onboard navigation equipment in addition to satellite
signals
140. The tropopause is a level at which: MET

a. Vertical currents are strongest

b. Temperature ceases to fall with increasing height 145. If the QFE at Locarno (200m above sea level) is 980hPa, what is the
c. Pressure remains constant approximate QNH?
d. Atmospheric ionization is at a maximum
e. Water vapour content is greatest a. 960 hPa
b. 1000 hPa
c. 1005 hPa
141. Complete the sentence: d. 1015 hPa
An aircraft has undertaken a de-icing procedure. e. 1010 hPa
If it has exceeded the holdover time of the anti-icing fluid, the aircraft…

a. must undertake a de-icing procedure before a new application of anti- 146. In which frequency band do most airborne weather radars operate?
icing fluid before take-off
a. EHF b. UHF c. VHF d. SHF
b. does not require a new anti-icing procedure before take-off
 150. The take-off distance available (TODA) includes:

a. The length of the runway and the stopway

b. The length of the runway, stopway and clearway
c. The length of the runway less any displaced threshold distance
d. The length of the runway only

147. Refer to the diagram above

The diagram shows the parameter Y against TAS. If a horizontal flight is
considered the axis Y shows the:

a. total drag
b. parasite drag
c. lift force
151. Refer to the instrument with a rotating compass rose above
d. induced drag Assume that it has been adjusted correctly
The magnetic track from the aircraft to the station is:

148. The ILS marker identified visually by a blue flashing light is the:
a. 120 degrees
b. 125 degrees
a. Middle marker c. 175 degrees
b. Inner marker d. 300 degrees
c. Locator e. 305 degrees
d. Outer marker

149. The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor:

a. gravity
b. movements with constant speeds
c. angular accelerations
d. relative speed and linear accelerations
 VOR-A procedure for RWY 01 when approaching “ABV” between radials:

a. 187 and 007 b. 257 and 077 c. 337 and 037 d. 157 and 217 e. 007 and
037

153. One of the three possible noise abatement procedures would be

provided by:

a. The Aeronautical Information Package ENR-1

b. ICAO document Annex 3
c. The control tower, that would assign the preferred noise abatement take-
off direction

154. Relative humidity at a given temperature is the relation between: MET

a. actual water vapour content and saturated water vapour content

b. actual humidity mixing ratio and saturated air temperature
c. dew point and air temperature
d. water vapour weight and humid air volume

155. You are flying in a radar controlled environment in a light aircraft. What
separation would you be given during an approach, following a medium
wake turbulence category aircraft?

a. 3 NM
b. 4 NM
c. 5 NM
d. 4 minutes
e. 5 minutes

156. True Air Speed (TAS) is:

a. Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for density error

b. Calibrated Air Speed (CAS) corrected for compressibility error
c. Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for compressibility error
d. Equivalent Air Speed (EAS) corrected for density error
152. Refer to FAAB chart section above

A procedure turn approach may be only executed at Alexander Bay for the 157. The maximum quantity of fuel that can be loaded into an aircraft ‘s tank
is given as 400 USG. If the fuel density (SG) is given as 0.79 the weight of fuel a. Synchronous transmissions
which may be loaded is: b. Multipath propagation
c. Coastal refraction
a. 1437 kg d. Meteorological electromagnetic disturbances
b. 1916 kg e. Twilight effect
c. 1196 kg

Know conversions. 162. Select the option from the list that correctly completes the sentence. In
flight, when an aircraft is……..the transition altitude, the vertical position is
expressed in terms of altitude:
a. Above
b. Below
c. At
158. The upper limit of the danger area D59 next to Durban (29’57S 30’65E) is:
d. At or below
a. unlimited
b. 60 ft
c. 600ft
d. 6000 ft

159. Below 1500ft above the surface, the aircraft altimeter sub-scale must be
set to:

a. any suitable height reference including QNH, QFE, QNE or radio altimeter
b. QNH only
c. QNH or QFE
d. QNH, QFE or the standard pressure of 1013.25 hPa

160. Flying manually during a final approach, the flight director system is
engaged in the G/S mode (holding of ILS Glide Slope). If the aircraft is above
the ILS Glide Slope, the horizontal command bar:

a. is automatically centered since the G/S mode is engaged

163. Refer to the photograph of San Francisco International Airport above
b. may be centered if the pilot is correcting to come back on to the ILS Glide
Slope
The aerodrome marking feature indicated by the red arrow refers to:
c. will be centered only when establish on the ILS Glide Slope
d. cannot be centered a. Low visibility landing direction indicators
b. A temporary displaced threshold
c. Threshold markings
161. Choose both correct options:
d. Touchdown zone distance markers
The accuracy of a ground direction finder can be affected by: e. A permanently displaced threshold
164. Select both correct options: 168.nICAO document 8168 recommends that pilots should not accept radar
When a runway has been technically classified as “dry”, which of the vectors during departure unless:
following criteria could apply? a. There is no published MSA or TAA
a. The runway may contain no wet ice, but any snow on its surface must b. They are above the minimum altitude required to maintain obstacle
be hard and stay in lumps if picked up. clearance in the event of an engine failure
b. The stopway must always be completely clear of snow, ice and c. They are published on a SID
moisture d. Low visibility procedures are in force
c. The runway is neither wet nor contaminated
d. No areas of standing water may be present except on the displaced
threshold area for departing flights.
169. The purpose of trimming is to:
e. The runway has a special type of paved surface that maintains good
a. Allow small altitude changes to be made without disrupting the
friction, even with moisture on it.
position of the control
b. Ensure basic aircraft control for light aircraft that do not have an
165. BECMG 1821 2000 BR BKN004 BECMG 2124 0500 FG VV001. MET autopilot
What does the “BECMG” data indicate for the 18 to 21 hours time frame? c. Assist with smooth aircraft control
a. Temporary fluctuations that are forecast to occur between 1800 and d. Make fine adjustments to aircraft altitude
2100 UTC e. Reduce the pilots workload
b. The probability of a change to the value of the forecast element is
between 18% and 21%
c. The new conditions are achieved between 1800 and 2100 UTC
170. Surface based inversions are common during: MET
a. Cloudy days in summer when the ground is wet
b. Cloudy days in winter when the ground is wet
c. Cloud free days in summer when the ground is dry
166. Considering a flight director of the “command bars” type: d. Cloud free nights in winter when the ground is dry
a. The vertical bar may be associated with the pitch channel
b. The horizontal bar is associated with the roll channel
171. When a pilot is facing a problem during flight he should: HP
c. The vertical bar is associated with the pitch channel
a. Make up his mind before consulting other crew members
d. The horizontal bar is associated with the pitch channel
b. Take as much time as he needs and is available to make up his mind
c. Avoid making up his mind until the very last minute
167. Regarding a clearway: d. Always make up his mind quickly to give himself as much spare time
1. It may not have an upslope of greater than 1.25% as possible
2. It may not be less than 500ft wide
3. It must be a tar, paved or asphalt surface

The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is: 172. The requirements for good sunglasses is to: HP
a. 1,2,3 a. Increase time for dark adaptation
b. 1,2 b. Fit the pilot individual taste
c. 2,3 c. Absorb enough visible light to eliminate glare without decreasing
d. 1,3 visual acuity
 d. Eliminate distortion in aircraft windshields b. 300m before the threshold
c. 300m from the far end of the runway
d. 200m beyond the ILS reference point
173. Decision height (DH) is referenced to:
a. Height above mean sea level
b. Aerodrome reference point (ARP) elevation
c. Aerodrome elevation 179. An aircraft descends in layered clouds. The freezing level is situated at
d. Runway threshold elevation FL60. At what levels is the probability of airframe icing the highest?
a. Between FL20 and FL60
174. GBAS refers to:
b. Between FL60 and FL120
a. A barometric air data sensor(s) that provide atmospheric data for
c. At FL140
vertical guidance during a GNSS approach
d. Between FL120 and FL180
b. A ground based GNSS augmentation system
e. Above FL250
c. The ICAO GNSS barometric navigation (Baro-VNAV) specifications
d. The IATA global approach structure/
180. During the climb after takeoff, the altimeter setting is adjusted at the
175. A visual approach is always conducted:
transition altitude. If the local QNH is 956 hPa, what will happen to the
a. Under VMC
altimeter reading during the readjustment?
b. Under IFR
a. It will increase
c. Under IMC
b. It will remain the same
d. Under VFR
c. It will decrease
d. It is not possible to give a definitive answer
176. An aircraft HDG 270 (C) decelerates from 130kts to 100kts. The pilot can
expect the aircrafts magnetic compass to indicate…… in the southern
hemisphere:
181. Which of the following thunderstorms produce the most severe
a. Remain on the heading of 090 (c)
conditions?
b. Show an incorrect heading to the south
a. Nocturnal air mass thunderstorms
c. Show an incorrect heading to the north
b. Warm front thunderstorms
c. Daytime air mass thunderstorms
d. Squall line thunderstorms
177. In general when may a pilot descend to MDA if executing a Non
precision approach:
a. Once the aircraft is established inbound on the final approach track
b. It is impossible to determine the descent point without further
descending
c. Once the beacon marking the IAF is crossed
To improve the detection of precipitation area(s) in a thunderstorm, in which
d. Once he receives a clearance from ATC
the top of the cloud lies at or near slightly above the level of flight:
a. The tilt setting should be higher when the selected range decreases
178. The glide path antenna is located on the side of the runway b. The tilt setting should be lower when the selected range increases
approximately: c. The tilt setting should be higher when the aircraft climbs to a higher
a. 300m beyond the threshold altitude
 d. The tilt setting should be lower when the aircraft climbs to a higher 187. The white arc of a simple Airspeed indicator normally extends between:
altitude a. VFE to VNO
b. VSI to VNO
182. When LVP’s are in force, the air traffic controller must pass the following
c. VSO to VFE
additional information to the pilot of every arriving aircraft:
d. VSO to VNO
a. The expected duration of the situation
b. A verbal confirmation that emergency lighting is operational
c. The depth of deposits on the runway and the current braking 188. Between Durban and Bloemfontein is an ATS route UW1. This route is:
coefficient a. An Advisory airway
d. The current RVR readings for the landing runway b. A RNAV airway
c. A wide-area augmentation airway (WAAS)
183. If the intensity of tip vortices responds to lift production, it means that:
d. An upper airway
a. The greater the lift coefficient, the greater the angle of incidence
e. All of the above
b. The greater the amount of induced drag, the greater the downwash
c. The higher the angle of attack, the greater the amount of induced
drag. 189. An ILS marker beacon operates in the:
a. VHF band
184. SBAS refers to:
b. UHF band
a. A basic mode S transponder (to simplify ATC surveillance)
c. LF/MF band
b. A satellite based augmentation system (to improve GNSS
d. HF band
performance)
c. An aircraft stability augmentation system (an autopilot) 190. According to SA-CATS 91.07.5, for a precision approach category I
d. First generation ADS-B surveillance (for GNSS-based ATC surveillance) runway to be classified as having full facilities, the minimum length of HI/MI
approach lighting required is:
a. 720 metres
185. Stratus formed by turbulence will occur when: MET
b. 1200 metres
a. Absolute instability exist at low level
c. 900 metres
b. Mixing in the friction layer occurs by turbulence and the condition
d. 420 metres
level is situated below the top of the turbulent layer
c. The wind speed is less than 10 knots and the air is heated by the
earth’s surface 191. What should a pilot do to optimize his/her night Vision? HP
d. The wind speed is greater than 10 knots and the condensation level is a. Select meals with high contents of vitamin B and C
situated just above the turbulent layer. b. Avoid food containing high amounts of vitamin A
c. Not smoke before start and during flight and avoid flash-blindness
d. Wait at least 60 minutes to night-adapt before he takes off
186. Which of the following quantities remains unchanged if unsaturated air is
lifted until it reaches the lifting condensation level? MET
a. Relative humidity 192. When using the selected or selective radial instrument cross-check a pilot:
b. Mixing ratio a. Checks the primary flight instruments before the supporting
c. Saturation vapour pressure instruments
d. Difference between temperature and dew point temperature b. Primarily uses the performance instruments to maintain smooth level
flight
c. Gives most attention to the AH with quick glances at the other flight
instruments
 d. Scans the instruments in a circular clockwise or anti-clockwise pattern
198. A conditionally unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain
slope. What type of clouds can be expected? MET
a. Layer-like clouds with little vertical development
194. Which of the following response is an example of “habit Revision”
b. Clouds with considerable vertical development and associated
(negative habit transfer):
turbulence
a. Incorrect anticipation of an air traffic controller’s instructions
c. Dense Nimbostratus clouds with moderate turbulence
b. Habitually missing an item on the checklist or missing the second item
d. Stratiform clouds with a temperature inversion
when two items are on the same line
e. Stratiform clouds with considerable turbulence
c. A pilot who has flown many hours in an aircraft in which the fuel lever
points forward for the on position, may unintentionally turn the fuel
lever into the false position when flying a different aircraft, where the 199. Distance A to B 1200NM
fuel lever has to point aft to be in the ON position PET distance is 60% of the total distance, PNR/PSR is 84% of the total
d. Turning the aircraft into the left when intending to turn it to the right. distance, 8hours and 24 minutes is the endurance. Calculate the ground
speed from PET to A: FP

195. What are the most frequent results of a self-centred captain on the flight a. 145 kts
deck? b. 200 kts
a. A major risk of authority inversion if the co-pilot is unassertive c. 240 kts
b. Performance is very poor as self-centred behaviour leads to an d. 300 kts
increase of cooperation and efficiency
c. In a two-pilot flight deck, the co-pilot is ignored and may react by 200. When in flight the needle of a needle and ball indicator is on the right
disengaging, showing delayed responses or aggression and the ball on the left, the aircraft is:
d. High group performance despite the strained relations
a. turning right with not enough bank
b. turning left with too much bank
196. The term “Hold over” refers to: c. turning left with not enough bank
a. Any time in excess of 15 minutes that is spent in a holding pattern due d. turning right with too much bank
to icing conditions at destination
b. The time that an aircraft can safely remain airborne in severe icing 201. Which of the following factors is most important when evaluating how
to best manage the threat of bird strike after departure:
conditions
c. The duration of the protection given by anti-icing fluid
a. Keeping in mind that reduced row settings for take-off are prohibited at
d. The time that de-icing fluid takes to remove ice
airports with known bird control problems
e. The total time that is spent on the de-icing of an aircraft on the b. Adjusting the scanning range of the airborne weather radar
ground c. Considering the time of the day

197. An instrument cross-checking pattern that is particularly well suited to an

202. Completion of the HASELL checks is normally not required before a
electronic flight display is the ……..scan: spiral dive recovery exercise:
a. Inverted V
b. Selective radial a. True
c. Standard b. False
d. Rectangular
e. Offset
203. How do you understand the statement “one cannot communicate”? 208. A VMO-MMO warning device consists of an alarm connected to:

a. Being silent as well as inactive are non-verbal behaviour patterns which a. a barometric aneroid capsule subjected to a static pressure and an
express a meaning airspeed sensor subjected to a dynamic pressure
b. The statement above is a misprint
b. ?
c. Eacht situation requires communication
d. You cannot influence your own communication c. ?

d. ?
204. The three types of authority gradient cockpits are:

a. authoritative, laissez faire, synergistic

b. autocratic, laissez faire, synergistic
c. autocratic, followership and synergistic
d. authoritative, followership and synergistic

205. If smoke appear in the air conditioning, the initial action to be taken by
the flight deck crew is to:

a. determine the origin of the smoke

b. start an emergency descent
c. put on the oxygen mask and goggles
d. cut off all air conditioning units

206. VMO:

a. should not be greater than Vc

b. should be chosen between Vc and Vd
c. should not be less than Vd
d. is equal to the design speed for maximum gust intensity

207. Given:
VS = Stalling speed
Vmca = Air minimum control speed
Vmu = Minimum unstick speed (disregarding engine failure)
V1 = Take-off decision speed
Vr = Rotation speed
V2 min = Minimum take-off safety speed
Vlof = Lift off speed
The correct formula is:

a. Vs < Vmca < V2 min

b. Vr < Vmca < Vlof
c. Vmu <= Vmca < V1
d. V2 min < Vmca > Vmu
 a. 3000 feet
b. 4600 feet
c. 6500 feet
d. 7300 feet
e. 7500 feet

Which of these weather codes below refers to the dominant cloud type in the
photo above:

a. 28015G26kts 9999 SCT040AC 35/22 Q1017

b. 23005KT 9999 FEW040CB 32/09 Q1019
c. 21007KT 9999 SCT030 FEW035TCU 29/07 Q1022
d. 09012KT 9999 FEW010 SCT030 26/21 Q1014 NOSIG
e. 10020KT 9999 SCT025CB TEMPO 0415/0513 5000 -RA BKN010

209. The minimum sector altitude for an aircraft inbound to Cape Town on CTV A heavy aircraft takes off on runway 28. A light aircraft take-off on the same
R050 is: runway but at an intersection. What is the recommended minimum separation
between the two?
a. 2 minutes
b. 2nm
c. 3 minutes
d. 3nm
e. 5 minutes

211. mRefer to above image (23*C at 7000ft)

041200Z 33008KT 280V040 9999 FEW045 30/13 Q1025 NOSIG
Assume that the code applies to an aerodrome at position 25S 30E
what is the approximate density altitude at 7000feet?
(ISA temp lapse rate, a temp correction of 120 feet/degree C and pressure
lapse rate of 27 feet/ hPa)

a. 4400 feet
b. 7300 feet
c. 9200 feet
d. 9500 feet
e. 10000 feet

210. Refer to the image above.MET

Chart issued at 1400 SAST. PE international airport is located on the on the
coastline above the arrow. what cloud could be expected at the airport a
1700 SAST

a. FEW St
b. SCT Cb
c. SCT Cu
d. BKN St
e. OVS As
 213. Which one of the tracks is represented by the cross section above?
a. track B-A
b. track B-C
c. track C-A
d. track D-A

212. The runway slope of RWY 01 FAAB is:

a. 0.26% down
b. 0.26% up
c. 0.87% up
d. 0.87% down
e. none of the above
214. Which cross section of airmass and cloud is applicable to the straight line
A-B?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

216. From the CDI and DI above (both indicating 360)

Assume that the pilot maintains the present heading in still conditions when will
the TO/FROM indicator change to FROM?
when passing…
a. radial 090
b. radial 180
c. radial 270
d. radial 360
e. None of the above

217. If a pilot loses visual contact with the runway while circling to land from
an instrument approach. He must do the following:
215. On which one of the tracks (dashed lines) is thos cross-section to be
expected? a. Initiate a go-around immediately, maintaining a minimum climb gradient
a. track A - E of 2.5% Climb straight ahead. At the first point where 50m (164 ft.)
b. track B - D obstacle clearance is obtained str a climbing turn with a track change of
c. track A - D a maximum of 15 degrees.
d. track B – C b. Initiate a climbing turn, within the circling area, towards the landing
runway. Return to circling altitude or higher, immediately followed by
interception and execution of the missed approach procedure.
c. If a turn is prescribed, start as soon as operationally practice, maintaining
an IAS as slow as for the intermediate missed approach segment. Comply
with all annotations on approach charts and execute the appropriate
manoeuvres without undue delay
d. proceed to missed approach point (or to the middle marker fix or
specified DME distance for precision approach procedure) and then
follow the published missed approach procedure
218. The one-engine cruising speed used to calculate the flight time for the
purpose of a taking off alternate aerodrome selected by an owner or
operator, is based on:

a. still-air standard conditions

b. actual conditions for the departure date
c. the mean annual wind and temperature conditions for the route
d. ISA conditions with an assumed 15 knot headwind.

219. The Primary flight Display (PFD) can display information relative to the
warning and advisory for the following conditions:

a. altitude capture, breaking systems, autopilot and flight director changes.

b. altitude capture, TCAS resolution advisory (RA) autopilot and flight director
mode changes.
c. pressurisation failure, altitude capture, TCAS resolution advisory (RA)
d. low oil pressure, terrain alerts, windshear detection.

220. Within communication, what elements suggest that a message has been
received and understood?
a. coding
b. Synchronisation
c. encoding
d. feedback

221. In a mountainous area, the most hazardous flying conditions associated

with standing waves are likely to be experienced:
a. just above the lenticular cloud on the windward side
b. on the windward side of the mountain just above the the ‘cap cloud’
c. between the toughs of the waves with the maximum at 30 NM to 50NM
downwind and close to the tropopause
d. in the vicinity of the ‘roll’ cloud or rotor zone beneath the first wave on the
leeward side

222. While executing VOR-A-RWY 01 approach for alexander bay, 2700 feet is
reached at 8 DME on the outbound leg. The most appropriate action is to:
a. Turn inbound immediately, but stop the decent. level the wings 90 228. Which of the following lists the phenomena least likely to be detected by
degrees into the turn expedite decent to 2500 feet and then continue radar:
turning inbound.
b. Level of and then turn inbound before further decent. a. turbulence in cloud that has precipitation
c. Continue outbound and descend to 2500 feet before turning inbound b. wet snow and turbulence in cloud that has precipitation
d. Turn inbound while descending to 2500 feet. c. clear air turbulence
d. precipitation

223, The frequency of an SSR ground transmission is: 229. Does the table with holding speeds in ICAO doc 8168 specify different
a. 1050 +/- 0.5 MHz holding speeds for category A and B aircraft in turbulent and normal
b. 1030 +/- 0.2 MHz conditions?
c. 1120 +/- 0.6 MHz a. No
d. 1090 +/- 0.3 MHz b. speeds for turbulent conditions are only specified for mach numbers
c. Yes
d. holding speeds only apply to aircraft categories C, D and E
224. You suspect there is wind shear whilst flying in IMC. Which instrument
indications could alert you to the presence of wind shear?
230. The decision speed at take-off (V1) is the calibrated airspeed:
a. below which the take-off must be continued
a. A gradual and persistent decrease in airspeed
b. at which the failure of the critical engine is expected to occur
b. Altimeter indications increasing and decreasing by 50ft c. at which take-off must be rejected
c. Sudden variations in the DI reading d. below which take-off must be rejected if an engine failure is recognized,
d. Sudden airspeed variations on the ASI above which take-off must be continued

225. Which of the following is an ILS localizer frequency? 231. What is self-concept?
a. 108.25 MHz a. How you see yourself
b. 112.10 MHz b. How you would like to be seen by others
c. 110.20 MHz c. how you would like to see yourself
d. 109.15 MHz d. how other people see you

226. You are the pilot of an aircraft that is under radar control. When you
leave controlled airspace, you should expect: 232. On the final approach the aircraft rapidly sinks. What type of wind shear
are you experiencing?
a. termination of radar service by a transmission from the controller stating a. clear air turbulence CAT
e.g ‘ZS-XXX, radar service terminates’ b. Subsidence
b. an imminent collision with another aircraft c. decrease
c. further radar control in a buffer area of 5 NM with final radar advisory d. Mountain wave
service for a further 5 NM thereafter
d. automatic termination of radar control service without being notified
233. The reference landing speed (Vref) has the following minimum margin
227. The alarm stage of response to stress what does the body do? above the reference stalling speed in the landing configuration (Vsro):
a. recognizes the stressor and prepares the body for action. a. 0.1
b. recognizes danger and slows the body down via the automatic system. b. 0.15
c. Attempts to maintain the body’s arousal state to the continuing stress c. 0.2
d. attempts to repair any damage cause by the stress d. 0.23
234. Between Durban and Bloemfrontein is an ATS route UW61:
a. an advisory route
b. an RNAV route
c. a wide-area augmentation airway
d. an upper airway
e. all the above

235. For a Cat 1 ILS RWY 01 approach to cape town the decision height for a
CAT B aeroplane will be:
a. 203 feet
b. 143 feet
c. 200 feet 242. During a landing roll of an aircraft, a chemical reaction occurs between
d. 287 feet a tyre and water, causing a complete loss of tire friction, what has most
probably cause this?
a. a secret agent has sprayed friction-reducing oil on the runway
b. dynamic hydroplaning
236. On a modern aircraft the flight director modes are displayed on the: c. viscous aquaplaning
a. control panel of the flight director only d. hydro-viscous aquaplaning
b. upper strip of the ECAM
c. upper strip of the ND 243.The maximum operating speed Vmo is expressed in:
d. upper strip of the PFD
a. CAS or TAS
237. In the airspeed indicator:
b. CAS or EAS
a. The needle is activated by a capsule through a system of gears c. TAS only
b. the forward speed is measured relative to aircraft total weight d. TAS or EAS
c. true airspeed is determined by the position of the pitot tube
d. the static pressure is removed by suction
244. The absolute legal minimum to be used for a visual approach is:
238. When engaged in the pitch old mode, the autopilot uses data issued by a. visibility 800m
the: b. RVR 2400m
a. IVSI c. visibility 1600m
b. attitude reference system d. RVR 1500m
c. ADC
d. flight management computer
245. A certificate of release to service:
239. Between Cape Town and Upington is an ATS route UQ23. According to a. be retained for a period of 12 months calculated from the date of issue of
the chart it is: such certificate of release to service
a. a route that must be flown at FL120 or below b. be retained for a period of 6 months calculated from the date of issue of
b. an RNAV route such certificate of release to service
c. a temporary airway c. be retained for a period of 24 months calculated from the date of issue of
d. an upper airway such certificate of release to service

240. A body is placed under a certain airstream,

If the airstream velocity increases by a factor of 4, the parasite drag will 246. The lowest visibility or RVR that a single engine aircraft may use for take-
increase by a factor of: off is:
a. 2 a. 800m
b. 4 b. 500m
c. 8 c. 3000m
d. 12 d. 1500m
e. 16

241. The maximum vertical separation between the transition altitude and 247. Precipitation in the form of showers occurs from:
transition level will always be: a. Clouds containing only ice crystals
a. 25 NM b. convective clouds
b. 1000 feet c. cirri-type clouds
c. 500 feet d. stratified clouds
d. 2000 feet to 3000 feet
248. Select the correct option or options d. turbulent stratocumulus
Which of the following options indicates a potential disadvantage of an e. wind gusts
electronic flight display?
a. A pilot could easily mistake the MFD for a PFD 254. The one engine cruising speed for a multi engine aircraft which is used to
b. A pilot could tend to fixate in the trend indicator calculate the flight time for the purpose of a take-off alternate aerodrome is
based on:
c. The accuracy of the displayed information could harm the new
instrument flying candidates confidence a. the maximum certified take-off mass

d. the system is not compatible with NDB approaches b. the mass at 1500 feet about the aerodrome elevation using all-engines
operative fuel burn rate for calculation
e. A pilot could try to keep the airspeed to an unnecessarily tight tolerance
c. the average route mass i.e the average of the actual take-off mass and
249. The max amount of fuel that can be loaded into an aircraft tanks is 2200L. estimated landing mass
If the fuel density is given as 0.79 the weight of fuel which may be loaded is? d. the actual take-off mass
FP
a. 2098 kg
b. 2785 kg 255. Select Both answers
c. 1738 kg The de-icing process of an aircraft on the ground may include the following
methods:
250. The maximum speed for a CAT B aeroplane during a turning departure is: a. the use of high pressure air
a. 165 knots b. manual brushing of the aircraft
b. 135 knots c. the combining of a type IV ISO fluid with a heated saline solution
c. 141 knots d. the aiming of hot jet-engine exhaust air at the affected locations on the
d. 121 knots contaminated airframe (under supervision of ground staff)
e. direct propeller or jet blast over the aircrafts critical areas

251. Stabilized approach means that: 256. A standard RNAV instrument approach procedure is based on:
a. The pilot or flight crew is conducting a GNSS approach with ground- a. a pattern that is identical to non-RNAV procedure
based augmentation b. the technical standards of FAA TSO-C129
b. the aircraft’s rate of decent is constant and correct c. a ’t’ or ‘y’ bar arrangement incorporating three initial approach fixes
c. the flight is under radar control d. a standard racecourse pattern with two initial approach fixes at 90
d. the flight is a commercial air transport operation degrees to the inbound leg.
e. the aircraft has not yet passed the outer marker or equivalent DME
position.
257.Which of the following options contains the list of ICAO PANS-Ops
instrument approach procedure classifications according to Doc 8168?
252. Increased aircraft speed generally……………the risk and danger of a bird a. land based guidance and GNSS approach
strike: b. Non-precision approach, approach procedure with vertical guidance
a. increases and precision approach
b. decreases c. non-precision approach, precision approach and circling approach
c. doesn't affect d. non-precision approach and precision approach.
253. Select BOTH applicable options 258. Distance measuring equipment operates in the:
which of the following phenomena are associated with convective weather?
a. UHF band and uses two frequencies
a. wind lulls
b. SHF band uses frequency modulation techniques
b. haze
c. VHF band and uses the principle of phase comparison
c. lightening
d. UHF band and uses one frequency
264. Va is defined as:
259. What are the characters of rime ice, and what conditions are most a. true atmospheric airspeed
favourable for its formation?
b. absolute maximum airspeed
a. Opaque rough appearance tending to spread backwards over an c. design manoeuvring speed
aircraft surface most frequently encountered in cumuliform clouds at
temperatures slightly below freezing. 265. Concerning the NAVSTARGPS satellite navigation system, what is the
b. Transparent appearance and tendency to take the shape of the surface meaning of the term ‘Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring’ (RAIM):
on which it freezes stratiform clouds and temperatures only slightly below a. It is the ability of the GPS satellite to check the integrity of the data
freezing promotes the formation. transmitted by the monitoring stations of the ground segment
c. Milky granular appearance, forming on leading edges and b. It is a method whereby a receiver ensures the integrity of the Pseudo
accumulating forward into the airstream stratiform clouds at temperatures Random Noise (PRN) code transmitted by the satellites
of -5* to -15* are most conductive to its formation.
d. Smooth appearance and builds forward from the leading surfaces into a
c. It is a technique whereby the receivers of the world wide distributed
stations (ground segment) automatically determines the integrity of the
sharp edge most conductive in cumuliform clouds of temps -20 to -25
navigation message
260. In essence Bernoulli’s theorem states: d. It is a technique by which a receiver checks the reliability of the signal it is
a. In a streamlined flow of fluid, pressure energy minus dynamic energy is receiving and can detect if on of the signals is incorrect
constant
b. in a streamlined flow of pressure the sum of all the pressure is a constant 266. Instrument Landing Systems (ILS) glide path provide azimuth coverage
c. In a streamlined flow of fluid, the sum of all energies is a constant (i)……….each side of the localiser centre line to a distance of (ii)……NM
minimum from the threshold:
261. A basic GNSS receiver certified for IFR operations must have the following a. i) 35 ii) 25
minimum capabilities: b. i)25 ii) 17
a. Automatic flight control (autopilot) direct (GOTO) navigation and altitude
alert.
c. i) 5 ii) 8
b. satellite timing and range position fixing, self-monitoring (RAIM) and d. i) 8 ii) 10
ephemeris error
c. a programmable database with co-ordinate input in decimals
d. RAIM, turn anticipation and procedure retrieval from the electronic
267. What are the effects of stress?
navigation database
a. It has very little immediate effect on vigilance and attention
262. As a general rule of thumb, to initiate a 500 feet per minute descent in a b. It reduces vigilance and focuses attention
light piston aeroplane: c. It increases vigilance and may focus attention
a. decrease the attitude on the AH by 5 degrees
b. lower the nose attitude by 5% from the normal 4 finger attitude d. It has no effect on memory recall
c. reduce power by 500 RPM
d. apply approximately 5 pounds of forward pressure on the control column
e. lower the aeroplane nose altitude until approximately half of the 268. One of the advantages of the inverted V instrument scanning technique
windshield is below the natural horizon is that:
a. instrument indications obtained from different sources confirm a flight
263. Glaucoma is due to: HP attitude
a. drop in pressure of the liquid around the eye b. the direction indicator is given preference over the magnetic compass
b. excess light on the eyeball
c. instrument fixation is emphasised
c. damage to the eyeball due to high altitude
d. increase in pressure of the liquid within the eye d. instrument fixation is avoided
e. all flight instruments are given equal scanning priority
 d. Replace partially used fire extinguishers in the designated storage points
in the aircraft
269. An air driven horizon suffers from turning and pitch error, usually when
turning through 90 degrees it will display:
e. always point the extinguishers away from your body

a. a pitch error indicating a climb 274. Aerodrome elevation 2400ft QNH 1009.7 hPa Temperature
b. over read the bank angle 20*C
c. a pitch error indicating decent using 30ft /hPa lapse rate and density correction of 118.8/ degrees celsius the
density altitude is approximately :
d. no pitch error

a. 2900 feet
270. How is a straight departure defined in ICAO Doc 8168? b. 3100 feet
a. A departure in which no turns are allowed until turned under radar control c. 3550 feet
of reaching the 4th climb segment which ever is later d. 3700 feet
b. A departure in which the track to be made good is identical to the e. 4200 feet
outbound radial of the departure runway
c. A departure in which the initial departure track is with 15 degrees of the 275. GBAS- approved aircraft:
alignment of the runway centre line a. require a FMC with temperature-compensation capability for Baro- VNAV
d. A departure in which the departure track is maintained until radar approaches
contact is first made b. do not require RNAV
c. are certified to conduct LNAV approaches only
271. The flight procedure for racetrack and reversal procedure in ICAO Doc d. are exempt from IFR certification
8168 for when a pilot conducts an instrument approach using a racetrack
procedure using a radio beacon the timing of the outbound leg starts:
276. Vortices are caused by:
a. abeam the radio beacon
b. 1 minute from the start of the outbound turn
a. The rotating mass of air expelled from jet engine outlet

c. when the wings are level on the outbound leg

b. the anti-clockwise air flow from the low pressure beneath a wing

d. from abeam the facility or on attaining the outbound heading whichever

c. a high pressure below and low pressure above the wing
comes later
278. High aspect ratio as compared with low aspect ratio has the effect of:
272. The holding speeds stipulated in ICAO Doc 8168 indicate: a. increasing induced drag and decreasing critical angle of attack
a. the exact speeds at which the holding patterns must be flown b. decreasing induced drag and critical angle of attack
b. maximum holding speeds c. increased lift and drag ratio
c. speed ranges for various aircraft categories d. increased lift and critical angle of attack
d. maximum speeds to be used in the holding patterns
279. The formation of morning fog is possible if:
273. Select both correct answers a. the turbulence in the lower atmospheric layers is moderate
Which of the following are important actions when combating a fire? b. the sky is overcast
a. when a burning magnesium alloy wheel assembly is underneath an c. warm, moist air is carried over cold coastal waters or coastal headlands
aircraft fuel tank, apply water for rapid cooling d. air temperature and dew point are equal or close to one another
b. beware of re-ignition e. the wind is strong
c. place all empty extinguishers in the fire to combat burning substance
 c. A verbal caution by the radar controller during the intermediate
280. Ground direction finding is provided on which VHF frequency range? approach segment
a. 107.95 to 136 MHz d. The automatic terminal information service
b. 108.0 to 117.95 MHz
c. 117.975 to 137 MHz 286.Vno Is defined as:
a. maximum cruising speed
d. 118.0 MHz to 123.95 MHz
b. maximum speed
e. 118.0 to 135.975 MHZ c. maximum structural cruising speed or maximum speed for normal
operations

281. If someone hyperventilates due to stress his/ her blood will become: 287.The decision for a CAT 1 ILS shall be:
a. less saturated with oxygen a. 200 feet or higher OCH
b. more alkaline b. lower than 200 feet but not lower than 150feet and visibility not less than
800m
c. more acid c. 200 feet or lower OCH
d. more saturated with carbon dioxide d. 200 feet and a RVR of 550m

288. The approximate inclined plane of a warm front is:

282. The technical term used to refer to the non-directional beacon receiver a. 1/50
installed in an aircraft is: b. 1/200
a. Automatic direction finder c. 1/500
d. 1/700
b. relative bearing indictor
c. NDB (with or without beat frequency oscillator) 289. What should the pilot do when the instrument approach chart does not
d. radar magnetic indicator (not sure about this option) specify speed limits:
e. sense something couldn't see this either a. Fly at the speed used to calculate the category of aircraft
b. Comply with airspace speed limitations only
283. Maintaining CAS and flight level constant, a fall in ambient temperature c. Adhere to the calculated speeds used in the design of PANS-Ops
results in: approach procedures
d. If ATC cancels speed restrictions the pilot my fly at any speed
a. Lower TAS because air density increases
b. lower TAS because air density decreases
c. Higher TAS because air density decreases 290.As a general rule, for a flight crew member combatting a fire, the principle
higher TAS because air density increases of thermal layering means:

284. Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial a. Water from a handheld extinguisher has to be discharged at the roof level
disorientation? for maximum cooling
a. Rely on seat of the pants b. It is less dangerous to move at floor level then to walk upright
c. The safest place in a smoke filed cabin is on the level of the overhead
b. get adapted to low levels of Illumination before flying lockers
c. Tilt your head to the side d. the removal of long sleeved clothing can assist with bodily cooling in
d. Rely entirely on the information of the flight instruments confined space

285. A distracted pilot may obtain warning that the approach has become
unstable by? 291.How is the term minimum sector altitude defined in South Africa?
a. The lowest altitude used which will provide a minimum clearance of 1500
a. A GPWRS alert
feet above all objects located in the area contained within a sector of a
b. A resolution advisory (RA)
circle of 25nm radius centered on the radio aid to navigation
b. The lowest route altitude values extending 10 NM to either side of the 295. A change of heading of 60 degrees at a bank angle of 45 degrees and a
route centerline and including a 10NM radius beyond the radio true airspeed of 120 knots will take 15 seconds to complete:
fix/reporting point or mileage break defining the route segment, which a. True
clear all terrain and man-made obstacles by 1000 feet in area where the b. false
highest terrain elevation or obstacle are up to 5000 feet and 2000feet
above all obstacles that are 5001 feet and above. 296. Due to rotation of the earth the apparent drift of a horizontal free
c. The lowest flight value that clears all terrain and man-made obstacles by gyroscope at a latitude of 45 N is:
a. 2 degrees per hour to the right
1000 feet in areas where the highest terrain elevation or obstacles are up
b. 15 degrees per hour to the left
to 5000feet. A clearance of 2000 feet is provided above all terrain or c. 7 degrees per hour to the left
obstacles which are 5001 feet and above. d. 11 degrees per hour to right
d. The lowest altitude which may be used which will provide a minimum
clearance of 1000feet above all objects located in an area contained (FORMULA)
within a sector of a circle 25nm radius centered on a radio aid to
297. The slope and the speed of warm front compared to cold front is:
navigation.
a. smaller and slower
b. smaller and faster
292. Select both correct answers c. greater and slower
The accuracy of a VOR radio aid is defined as follows: d. greater and faster
a. +/- 0.5 degrees for a doppler VOR
b. +/- 1 degree for a conventional VOR
298. If the field length limited take-off mass and V1 were calculated using
c. +/- 1 degree for a doppler VOR balanced field lengths, the use of any additional clearway in the calculation
d. +/- 5 degrees for a conventional VOR would cause:
e. +/- 5 degrees for a doppler VOR a. an increased field-length take off mass and an increased V1
b. an increased obstacle limited take off mass and increase V1
293. The basic design assumption in the design of a circling approach is that, c. an increased field length limited take off mass and a reduced V1
after initial visual contact: d. an increased obstacle clearance take-off mass with the same V1
a. the aircraft is flown in a controlled turn on final approach until correctly
positioned for landing
b. the aircraft is radar vectored onto final approach for the correct runway
and the flight crew may or may not maintain visual contact with the
runway environment
c. the runway environment should be kept in sight while at minimum decent
altitude
d. the aircraft has descended to below MDA or DA and has to manoeuvre
for landing on another runway

294. A pilot accustomed to landing on a wide runway may find, when

approaching to a narrow runway, that he/she is at a:
a. greater height and the impression of landing short
b. lower height and the impression of landing slow
c. greater height then he actually is with the tendency to land short
d. lower then actual height with a tendency to overshoot
 Marion Island is marked by the arrow and circle. The wind barb has been
299. refer to the image above removed for examination purposes. Which of the following winds would most
What does the aerodrome sign diagram depict? likely be reported by the weather station at Marion island at the effective time
a. holding point for a CAT A aeroplane only for runway 27 of the chart.
b. Holding point ‘A’ of a precision approach CAT 1 runway 27 a. 020/12 knots
c. Taxiway ‘A’ towards non-precision runway 27 b. 090/05 knots
d. Holding point ‘a’ of a non precision runway 27 c. 190/15 knots
d. 315/20 knots
300. Pressure altitude makes allowance for actual sea level pressure: e. None of the above
a. to be measured in terms of density
b. being the same as the standards atmosphere value
c. being different from the standard atmosphere value

301. A flight crew is inbound to FAPE in IMC on ‘PEV’ R-020 at 25 DME. The
aircraft is not under radar control. in terms of terrain clearance on the arrival
route (ignoring ATC and traffic considerations) the aircraft could legally and
safely descend to an altitude of:

a. 2000 feet b. 2600 feet c. 3500 feet d. 4700 feet e. 5400 feet

Refer to the photograph above

Name the runway characteristic that has been circled in red:
a. ILS area
b. Localizer sensitive area
c. runway turn pad
d. designated engine test bay
e. runway shoulder
 a. procedure turn or parallel entry
b. direct entry
c. tear drop entry
d. offset entry
e. parallel entry

Refer to the chart above, Alexander Bay VOR A RWY 01

The flight procedure to enter the holding pattern after executing the missed
approach is a:
 A pilot is flying the depicted ILS approach. passing 2 DME VNA the following
voice alter is heard ‘too low gear’ the most correct response to this would be
to:
a. decrease the rate of decent and continue the approach
b. initiate a go around
c. alter the controller
d. lower the undercarriage immediately and request a visual approach
e. continue the approach but fly level until the alter stops.

Refer to the instrument approach chart above in conjunction with the

weather code below.
Refer to the chart above
FNLU 041200Z 28006KT 2000 FEW012 BKN020 23/20 Q1011
You are a pilot that is planning to get airborne from Ladysmith aerodrome in
IMC for a flight to the south. Select the most CFIT-resistance departure strategy
from the list below In an Airborne Weather Radar that has a colour Cathode Ray Tube (CRT),
increasing severity of rain and turbulence is generally shown by a change of
a. prior to setting course, climb to 8400 feet overhead the aerodrome colour from:
b. climb at a maximum of Vx + 5 knots from he runway 11 and apply local
knowledge of high ground. Anticipate shallow turn to the right a. green to yellow to red
c. Contact the nearest radar facility telephonically prior to departure and b. yellow to amber to blue
obtain a provisional radar vector c. green to red to black
d. interpolate between 2 radials to the east when you calculate a departure d. yellow to orange to red
route.

ICAO PANS-OPS Doc 8168 refers. What should a pilot normally do when initially
reaching decision altitude?
a. proceed the middle marker fix or specified DME distance and then follow..
b. the full missed approach procedure may be initiated at any point during
the...
c. Level off at MDA and wait commence the go around at the missed
approach..
d. continue descending to decision altitude before executing the
procedure...
In the event of a controlled flight inadvertently deviating from its current…be
taken:

1. If the aircraft is off track action should be taken forthwith to adjust the
height soon as practicable
2. If the average true airspeed at cruising level between reporting points given
in a ATS flight plan by approximately true airspeed informed
3. If the estimated time at the next applicable reporting Point flight information
of intended landing whichever comes first is found to be in error in the
responsible ATSU, a revised estimate time shall be notified 2
4. If the aircraft deviates from its altitude action shall be taken forthwith

The combination that groups all of the correct statements is:

a. 2,3,4
b. 1,2,3,4
c. 1,2,3
Select BOTH correct answers
What surface weather conditions if any are normally associated with the
weather phenomenon that has been marked with the solid line to the left of
the X?
The gain control knob of an AWR adjusts:
a. intermittent drizzle
b. convective weather a. The power level of the transmitted energy is made dependent on the
c. subsiding air selected
b. The automatic gain control of the AWR is activated
d. light winds
c. The receiver sensitivity in order to achieve optimum target acquisition
e. steep pressure gradients
d. The brightness of the display

Stress reaction is:

a. The non-specific stimuli causing a human body to respond
b. The non-specific response of the body to demands placed on a person
c. The specific stimuli causing a human body to respond
d. The specific response of the body to demands placed on a person

All procedures contained in ICAO DOC 8168 depicts tracks. What are pilots
expected to do in this regard?

a. Be knowledgeable about the requirements of doc 8168 volume II to ensure

obstacle clearance
b. Ensure the heading flown corresponds to the depicted track to within 5°
c. Supplement all raw flight data with GNSS data to insure compliance with
published tracks
d. Attempt to maintain the track by applying corrections to the heading for
known wind

Pressure altitude will be equal to true altitude when:

a. Atmospheric pressure is 1013 health

b. Standard atmospheric conditions exist
c. The OAT is lower than standard for that day

Refer to the jeppesen instrument approach chart below...

a.5 DME
b.6 DME
c.7 DME
d.8 DME
e.9 DME

Read the following sentence regarding instrument flight...

" Pitch attitude changes for corrections to level flight should... Commonly Used
for Visual flight". This statement is:

a. True
b. False
 The acceptable display colors related to there functional meaning
recommended.. PFD are:

a. Red for warnings, magenta for autopilot or flight director engaged mode
In standard atmosphere when descending at constant CAS: b. Red for flight envelope and system limit, green for autopilot or flight...
c. Amber for the system's limit, white for autopilot or flight director engaged
a. TAS decreases d. red for caution and abnormal sources, white foreflight envelopes limits...
b. TAS increases
c. TAS first increases then remains constant below the tropopause
d. TAS remains constant The time and eye needs to adapt fully to the dark is about:

At which speed should a category C aircraft be flown in a holding pattern at a. 5 minutes

FL060? b. 10 seconds
c. 10 minutes
a. 170 kts d. 25-30 minutes
b. 230 kts
c. 265 kts At which height and at what time of the year can an aircraft be affected by
d. 240 kts the tropical easterly jet stream?

a. FL400 during winter in the northern hemisphere

b. FL450 during winter in the Southern Hemisphere
c. FL500 from June to August
d. FL550 from November to February

You are the pilot in command of a light piston twin aeroplane and have to
fly... Cape Town to a nearby aerodrome on behalf of the owner. New
departure clearance history of destination via the TETAN 1A SID. You ..
Specifies a minimum climb gradient of 6.2 % or approximately 750 ft per...
Climb speed. You calculate that you will only be able to attain a rate of
climb.. what do you do?

a. Fly the aeroplane at the best angle of climb speed to improve the climb...
b. Notify ATC that you are unable to comply with the SID
c. Study the departure chart for obstacles to identify and avoid them.
d. Cancel the flight

What does the abbreviation VY mean?

a. Speed for best rate of climb
b. Take-off decision speed
c speed for best angle of climb
Refer to the navigation instrument above.
Which option most accurately describes the present position of the aircraft?
Airborne weather radar has been primarily developed to detect:
a. areas of wind shear and severe aircraft icing
a. Radial 035 inbound
b. all kind of frozen precipitation such as hail, snow and graupel
b. Radial 045 outbound
c. the kind of precipitation which are usually accompanied by turbulence
c. QDR 090
d. areas of severe clear air turbulence
d. QDM 225
e. None of the above options is applicable
If during a descent :
- the pneumatic altimeter reading is constant At which of the following South African aerodromes are noise abatement
- the VSI shows zero procedures NOT..
- the IAS is increasing a. Wonderboom Airport (Pretoria)
The most likely explanation is that: b. Cape Town International airport
c. East London Airport
a. the total pressure intake is completely clogged up by ice. d. Mthatha Airport
b. the antenna of the radio altimeter is completely clogged up by ice
c. there is a leakage in the static pressure line In the Alarm Stage of response to stress what does the body do?
d. the static intakes are completely clogged up by ice. a. recognises the stressor and prepares the body for action
b. attempts to maintain the body’s arousal state to the continuing stress
c. recognises danger and slows the body down via the autonomic system
d. attempts to repair any damage caused by the stress

ICAO PANS OPS missed approach procedure refers

Complete the sentence:
Which of the following applies to an approach with vertical guidance?
The missed approach point is defined by.............
a. the intersection of the MDA with the radio facility in the aerodrome
environment...
b. a fix or a specified distance from the final approach fix
c. the inner marker
d. the point of intersection of the electronic guide path with the applicable...

What distinguishes status from role?

a. While role defines via behaviour-the functions that must be performed by
individuals, status defines the hierarchical position and its recognition by the
group
b. unlike status, role is fixed and is modified either by the situation in flight or by
Refer to the chart section above interactions of a new crew
The minimum sector safe altitude when established on QDR 230 “BM’” is : c. While role defines the enjoyment of a hierarchical position and its
a. 8600 feet recognition by the group status defines via behaviour the functions that must
b. 8900 feet be performed by individuals
c. 9000 feet d. unlike status, role is fixed and is not modified either by the situation in flight
d. 9900 feet or by interactions of a new crew
e. 11900 feet
A turn indicator is an instrument which indicates rate of turn. Rate of turn
The system which controls breathing, digestion, heart rate etc, over which depends on:
there is no voluntary actions? 1. bank angle
a. non-existent, as all these functions are under conscious control 2. aeroplane speed
b. the local nervous system 3. aeroplane weight
c. the autonomic nervous system The combination that regroups all of the correct statements is:
d. the critical nervous system a. 1,2,3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 1 and 3

The take-off safety speed V2 for two engines or three engines turbo-propeller
powered aeroplanes may not be less than:
a. 1.15Vs
b. 1.15 Vs1
c. 1.3 Vs
d. 1.2 Vs (or 1.13 Vsr on QBank)

On a flight from A to B, distance 2400NM, the distance to the Pet is

1329NM...This is based on a TAS of 400kts and a forecast hw component on..If
the actual hw component is 20kts stronger, the revised PET will be:
a. 1011NM
b. 1260NM
c. 1389NM
d. 1403NM
e. 1425NM.

Refer to FAKN_NDB RWY 05_NDB-01

An aircraft that is inbound to PK on a bearing of 110° for the PK...minimum
altitude of:
a. 7200ft
b. 9500ft
c. 4375ft
d. 8200ft
 c. the edge lights at the remote end of the rwy show yellow as a warning to
pilots
d. there is a displaced threshold at the opposite threshold
e. the lights indicate the stopway or clearway.

Loads must adequately be secured in order to:

a. prevent excessive g loading during the landing flare
b. avoid unplanned centre of gravity (cg) movement and aircraft
c. avoid any centre of pressure (cp) movement during flight

If the QNH at Locarno (200m above sea level) is 1025hPA, what is the approx
QFE?
Assume a pressure lapse rate of 1hpa/27ft

a. 993hpa
b. 1005hpa
c. 1031hpa
d. 1025 hpa
e. 1043 hpa

Refer to the image above.

What is the reason for the yellow colour of the runway lights that have been
circled in red?
a. during the construction of the aerodrome the contractor ran out of white
lights
b. the lights indicate the last taxiway exit before the opposite threshold
 During a final approach, the flight director system is engaged in the G/S
mode, the position of the horizontal command bar indicates:
1. the position of the aircraft relative to the ILS Glide slope
2. the correction on the pitch to be applied to join and follow the ILS glide
slope
3. the pitch attitude of the aircraft
The correct combination is:
a. 2
b. 1
c. 1,3
d. 1,2

A RAIM alert means that:

a. a RNAV (GNSS) instrument approach procedure may be conducted only at
an aerodrome where surveillance radar service is provided
b. the ILS or VOR transmitter unit has detected a fault in tis self-monitoring
system
c. GNSS position info is not accurate enough for flight any longer
d. the GNSS receiver’s ability to detect a failed satellite is lost

State the conditions which cause the “black hole effect” (BHE) and the
danger to flight safety:
a. BHE can be caused by flying under instruments with poor cockpit lighting
and can lead to disorientation
b. BHE can be caused by flying over water at night on the approach to an
Refer to the prognostic chart above in conjunction with the de-identified: airfield which can create the illusion that the aircraft is at higher altitude than
Assume the code applies to an aerodrome at position 20S 20E. it is, leading to a high approach being flown
041300Z AUTO 28012G26KT //// // ////// 35/01 Q1015= c. BHE can be caused by flying over featureless terrain on the on the
What is the approx deviation from ISA temp at 24000ft at a given position? approach to an airfield which can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a
(assume a pressure lapse rate of 40ft/hpa) higher altitude than it is, leading to a high approach being flown
a. -2*C d. BHE can be caused by flying over water at night on the approach to an
b. -32*C airfield which can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than
c. -49*C it is, leading to a low approach being flown
d. -15*C
e. none of the above A single axis autopilot normally only provides control around the:
a. Roll axis
b. Normal axis
All pilots encountering Clear Air Turbulence (CAT) are requested to report it. c. Yaw axis
You experience a CAT which causes passengers and crew feel definite strain d. Pitch axis
against their seat belt or shoulder straps. Unsecured objects are dislodged.
Food service and walking are difficult. This intensity of CAT should be reported
as:
a. light
b. moderate
c. severe
d. extreme
Which of the following statements about the TETAN 1A standard departure B. Up draft due to the associated convective currents.
chart are correct? C. A headwind increase prior to entering the microburst
a. Single engine aeroplane are not allowed to depart on this SID
b. Aircraft equipped only with RNAV (GNSS) avionics equipment may not fly
this procedure
c. If the SID is in force, an aircraft that cannot comply with the minimum climb
gradient on the chart may not take off
d. The altitude at which Cape Town Radar control must be contacted will not
be confirmed in the ATC departure clearance

Refer to the jeppesen enroute chart........

a. At 2000 feet AGL
b. At 8300 feet
c. At FL 85
d. At an altitude of 9000 feet
e. At 9500 feet

The relative thickness of an aerofoil is expressed in:

a. Degree cross section tail angle
b. Camber
c. Meters
d. % chord

A stabilize approach means that:

a. In case of multi crew operation, the captain is the pilot monitoring
b. The runway environment or visual approach aids are identified and kept......
c. Any deviations from the elements of a stabilized approach have been
d. Engine thrust or power has been set to maintain the target approach.....
e. The autopilot and auto throttle systems are engaged

While flying you notice smoke in the cockpit. You out on the......
a. The smoke was caused by the rapid decompression
b. There is no supply of oxygen
c. The smoke from the cockpit makes it appear as if the... Refer to the image above.
d. There is condensation forming inside the goggles The correct flight director indication for a “FLY DOWN” only command is:
a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. 7 e. 9
During the time after take-off the altimeter settings is adjusted at the transition
altitude. ... The receiver aerial for a NAVSTAR/GPS system should be mounted:
If the local QNH is 966 hPa what will happen to the altimeter reading during a. under the fuselage in order to receive correction data transmitted by D-
the. ... GPS stations
a. It will increase b. inside the tail fin to minimise the influence of reflections from the wing and
b. It will remain the same fuselage
c. It will decrease c. in the vicinity if the receiver to avoid long transmission lines
d. It is not possible to give a definite answer d. on the upper side of the fuselage in the vicinity of the centre of gravity

During a microburst the aircraft climbs before descending rapidly....

A. A tailwind increase prior to entering microburst The DME operates in the following frequency range:
a. 962 to 1213 Mhz crew members
b. 108 to 118 Mhz
c. 962 to 1213 khz Refer to ICAO doc 8168 vol 1.
d. 329 to 335 Mhz As far as the construction of instrument departure procedures at an
aerodrome is concerned, how is the problem addressed in cases where
obstacles cannot be cleared by the appropriate margin when an aeroplane
is flown on instruments?
a. a straight departure is specified which is aligned with the runway centre line
b. aircraft take-off weight is adjusted until compliance with the departure
climb gradient is possible.
c. aerodrome operating minima are established to permit visual flight clear of
obstacles
d. this situation is not allowed in terms of the requirements for aerodrome
design and placement.

The autocratic leadership style is synonymous with:

a. a “laissez-faire” style
b. a democratic style
c. an authoritarian style
d. an anarchic style

What does ICAO doc 8168 specify a pilot should do if he is unable to conform
to the procedures for normal conditions?
a. advise ATC as early as possible
b. avoid the holding pattern in total
c. divert to a more suitable airfield
d. declare an emergency

Question ???
Refer to the graph above a. if ATC approves the procedure turn approach, he should fly outbound..
Assuming zero thrust, the point on the diagram corresponding to the minimum feet and conduct a procedure turn to the left.
b. he should first descend from from 7600ft to 7400ft in the hold
gliding angle is:
c. he should cross the beacon and turn right onto the outbound heading
a. point 1
d. he must first enter the hold to determine the timing and drift effective...
b. point 2
c. point 3
d. point 4
When is a Terminal Arrival Altitude (TAA) used?
a. to provide a transition from the en-route structure to an RNAV approach
procedure
An efficient flight deck (synergetic cockpit) will be observed when:
b. the term “minimum sector altitude” applies to departing aircraft and the
a. the plan of action is defined by the captain because of his experience
term “terminal arrival altitude applies to arriving aircraft
level
c. it is used in RVSM airspace because the standard MSA terrain clearance is
b. decisions do not need to be discussed because of a common synergy
excessive and causes air traffic congestion
between the crew members
d. it replaces the MSA when an aircraft is under radar control in a TMA
c. the captain delegates the decision-making process to other crew members
d. decisions are taken by the captain with the help and participation of other
Inner marker beacons of an ILS transmits at: Select BOTH applicable options
a. 90 Hz With reference to the radio navigation facility indicated on the photograph
b. it depends on the modulating frequency below:
c. 150Mhz
d. 75 Mhz

The camber is defined as:

a. the path followed by the wind moving past the aerofoil
b. the straight line drawn from the leading to the trailing edge
c. the curvature of the aerofoils upper and lower surfaces

a. it is an MF beacon with intermittent hours of operation

b. it is a beacon of which signals do not provide directional guidance
c. it is a VOR beacon that transmits on a frequency of 122.1 MHz a..procedure
d. it is an ADF that transmits at a frequency of 460 kHz
e. it is an aeronautical multi-directional beacon which forms part of the...
In which of the following scenarios is the risk of experiencing a...
a. a light multi engine piston aircraft taking off during the day..
b. a single engine piston aircraft conducting a circuit at 500ft
c. a light twin-turboprop aeroplane descending at a high rate
d. a glider soaring at 10000 ft AGL
e. a large turbofan-engine transport aircraft on final approach..

At what temperature should a de-icing fluid be applied?

a. hot
b. cold
c. ambient
d. temperature above dewpoint
Refer to the image above.
e. …. ?
Assume that you are the pilot of an aeroplane and that the photo
represents...
From your present position you have been cleared by the tower controller to
When an aeroplane with the centre of gravity forward of the centre of
line up..
pressure of the combined wing/fuselage is in straight and level flight, the
What will your actions be in order to line up and face the departure
vertical load on the tailplane will be:
direction...
a. upwards
a. enter and turn left
b. zero because in steady flight all loads are in equilibrium
b. enter and trun right
c. downwards because it is always negative regardless of the position of the
c. you are already on the rwy. You may not take-off until you have been
centre of gravity
given..
d. downards
d. continue on taxiway D, cross the first runway and turn right on runway...
e. continue on taxiway D, cross the first runway and turn left on runway 16..
Increasing dynamic pressure will have th following effect on the total drag of
an aeroplane (all other factors of importance remaining constant):
a. total drag decreases across the whole speed range
b. total drag increases across the whole speed range 8.A plain in western Europe with an average elevations of 500 m (1600ft)
c. at speeds below the minimum drag speed, total drag decreases above sea level is covered with a uniform AC layer of cloud during the
d. at speeds above the minimum drag speed, total drag increases summer months. At what height above the ground is the base of this cloud to
be expected ?
- 15 000 above terrain
- 1 500 above terrain
Questions from IR group: - 7 000 above terrain
- 25 000 above terrain

1. Calculate Density Altitude from Spot Graph. Use 120ft/1° C and 27 feet for a 9. QNH 996 on climb out to flight level, what will the instrument indicate when
hPa. QNH as well of 1003???. Altitude on graph was 17 000. setting to QNE.

000

2. Picture of Runway and 2 red arrows on the right of the runway asking what is
indicated by arrows. 10. The mechanism of accommodation is caused by

-VASIS System
he diameter of the pupil
3. What is the Bearing... to the station
Heading Indicator ADF or NDB
120° ??? 15. 11. VOR accuracy and also Doppler accuracy in one question
115°

12. Which data can be displayed on the MFD and the PFD
4. Choose 2 options where you can obtain bird activity information.

13. Which 2 Performance instruments will be monitored in straight and level ?

5. Some sort of CFIT question

6. When flying an approach without.... ????

14. What happens when aquaplaning on contaminated surface or some
similar thing, can't remember

7. When there is smoke in the cockpit and you put on the smoke goggles, the
goggles fog up. Is it due to...
pid decompression
16. What type of weather is the airborne weather radar supposed to pickup ?

l
25. How is a decision taken in the cockpit

17. Minimum equipment necessary for an IFR flight 26. At what temperature is de-icing fluid applied

18.What legal info must be completed flight folio after a flight ? 27. Choose all the Environmental Stressors
1. Heat
2. Humidity
3. Divorce
4. Loss of job
19. At what height above aerodrome height must the aeroplane be 5. ?
configured and be stabilised for the landing ? 6. ?

28. Aircraft experiences a drop in altitude in wind shear, what is it (NO

20. Synoptic weather chart of south Africa. massive cold front just before cape VERTICAL OR HORIZONTAL WIND SHEAR OPTION>>>>
town. what weather will be expected shortly. choose 2.

29. Aeroplane CoG is moved forward, how will the elevator deflection be
changed

21. Question about drag...?

30. When radar vectors is received, will you be vectored as close as

operationally possible for the crew to the...

22. What is the frequency band for the ILS localiser the vertical and lateral aken as close as possible for the crew to the FAF
frequency

31. 226
SW
EN
23. Induced drag Magnetic variation is 23° West
air density What is the true track of the

24. Induced drag decreases with increased aspect ratio because of

aeroplane from the station

 GBAS provides guidance relative to the final approach course and

glide path.

 What effect does a crosswind have on hydroplaning (ANSWER?)

Written IR question papers:

Questions from student: (Who passed the first time)

1. Transponder mode C , what does it read? Altitude QNH, QNE, QFE?

2. Visual approach what altitude the plane levels off for a final
approach? 500ft over aerodrome altitude

3. Buffer area 197ft

4. Non precision approach missed approach procedure. When you

decide to do a missed approach before mapt, what do you do?
 anti-icing can be done at the same time, anti-icing have to be done
5. Minimum Visibility for 1 engine aircraft to take off? symmetrical, I don't remember the other options.

6. Minimum IFR flight level? 23. They also asked the shape of the occluded front. The one which has
the answer of "C"
7. If communication lost during IFR procedure approach, what happens?
24. They give a "metar" and ask you what met info is this? Metar, Taf,
8. Which one is the best climb speed? Vy speci, sigmet

9. Definition of Camber 25. They give you a picture of CB and Cumulus on top of it raises to high
levels and they ask you what do you expect when you see these
10. Definition of Center of pressure clouds? I have chosen "severe turbulance and shower"

11. Why doesn't dme mix the transmitted and transponded signals? 26. Regarding the thunderstorms which ones are correct; options: -the
Frequency difference of 63mhz freezing level is higher than outside environment,-the hail will only
happen where the downdraft is, -icing can still happen at
12. What is the frequency range of ILS localizer? temperatures lower than -23C, etc.

13. Correlation between induced drag and aspect ratio? When aspect 27. Where is the noise abatement procedure found? AIP ENR 1
ratio increase, induce drag decrease.
28. Induced drag is most when; Heavy aircraft and low speed
14. Tail load: When cg is in the front, what tail load is generally
experienced? "Downwards tail load" 29. V2 compensated for VSR0 for an extra rate of? 0,23

15. When the cg moves aft what happens to the downwards tail load? It 30. GPS for unauthorized use are? Options: -C/A, - C/A and P, - P "y" and
decreases "t", L1 and L2

16. When very hard braking is applied to stop the aircraft and the brakes 31. Locarno qnh 1025 at 200mt agl. The qne?
and tires gets hot, what is the right action to do? Options:Leave the
aircraft, taxi to apron, etc. 32. If someone if hyperventilating what happens? - the blood gets more
alkaline, carbon dioxide level in the blood decrease, etc.
17. Where is the clear icing experienced? 0 to -15C
33. When wind load increases, it increases the stall speed
18. Where is the vision processed and the vision is created? I have
chosen the option with cortex and spinal cord 34. TAS is; IAS corrected for position, instrument, compression and density
error
19. There was one departure chart with a final approach of 3.2 or 3.3
decent angle. The question was; from the collision avoidance point, 35. Pressure altitude is increased from 1250 to 1750 and the temperature is
what sold the pilot be careful about? I have chosen; "decent angle is decreased 17C. Temperature correction (118,8ft per each C). What is
steeper than usual" the total change on the density altitude?

20. You are at a town in Europe which is at 3500altutude in a valley. What 36. Surface friction in the Southern Hemisphere; veers and decreases the
altitude do you expect to see CC clouds? wind speed

21. They give the definition of "severe turbulence" and ask you what 37. The first sign of microburst; irregular changes on ASI
turbulence is this?
38. If a pilot is used to land at a wide runway is landing at a narrower
22. Anti-icing and de-icing: which 2 are correct? Options: de-icing and runway; he tends to land short
 39. Night vision . Which ones limits night visions; hypoxia, smoking, lack of
diet-vitaminA

40. When static blocks at decent it overreads and underreads at climb

41. Turning error 90 degrees: only pitch up

42. What does the turn indicator and ball show on the turns on the ground

43. What frequencies most weather radars use? SHF

44. Receptors of seat of pants: Muscles, ......

45. Definition of situation awareness

46. Runway width : 12 bars =45m

PET/PNR questions

1. Distance A-B 1200. TAS 340. W/V out +40. W/V back -40. What is the
distance fro the PET to PNR?

ANSWER 126 NM

2.Total distance A to B 2000 NM. TAS, wind and endurance constant. 5000kf
fuel + 500 kg reserve fuel. PET from A 1200 NM. What is the distance to the
PNR/PSR?

ANSWER 1320NM
OTHER QUESTIONS