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Persiapan Simak

(1) Blood diamonds, also known as conflict diamonds, are diamonds mined in war zones and sold to finance militant groups. They are often produced through forced labor. (2) Large amounts of money are at stake in the blood diamond trade, leading to bribery, threats, torture, and murder. (3) The UN and other groups have implemented the Kimberley Process to certify diamonds as conflict-free and prevent blood diamonds from entering the legitimate trade.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
119 views8 pages

Persiapan Simak

(1) Blood diamonds, also known as conflict diamonds, are diamonds mined in war zones and sold to finance militant groups. They are often produced through forced labor. (2) Large amounts of money are at stake in the blood diamond trade, leading to bribery, threats, torture, and murder. (3) The UN and other groups have implemented the Kimberley Process to certify diamonds as conflict-free and prevent blood diamonds from entering the legitimate trade.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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05.

PERSIAPAN
SIMAK
BAHASA INGGRIS
BAHASA INGGRIS
PERSIAPAN SIMAK UI

Text 1

Blood Diamonds, also known as “Conflict Diamonds”, are stones produced in areas controlled by rebel forces that are
opposed to internationally recognized governments. The rebels sell these diamonds, and the money is used to purchase
arms for their military actions. Blood Diamonds are often produced through the forced labor of men, women and
children. __01__, they are commonly stolen during shipment or seized by attacking the mining operations of legitimate
producers. The stones are then smuggled into the international diamond trade and sold as legitimate gems. __02__
amounts of money are at stake and bribes, threats, torture, and murder are modes of operation. This is why the __03__
“blood diamonds” is used. The United Nations and other groups are working to block the entry of conflict diamonds
into the worldwide diamond trade. Their approach has been to develop a government __04__ procedure known as the
Kimberly Process. This procedure requires each nation to certify that all rough diamond exports are produced through
legitimate mining and sales activity. All rough diamonds exported from these nations are to be accompanied by
certificates. Retail customers buying a cut diamond are encouraged to insist upon a sales receipt which documents that
their diamond is from a conflict free source.

01. (A) Also 03. (A) word


(B) Hence (B) term
(C) Therefore (C) idiom
(D) Nevertheless (D) concept
(E) On the other hand (E) meaning

02. (A) High 04. (A) certifies


(B) Average (B) certificate
(C) Sufficient (C) certifying
(D) Enormous (D) certifiable
(E) Appropriate (E) certification

Text 2

Wood plays a part in more activities of the modern economy than does any other commodity. There is ___05___
any industry that does not use wood or wood products somewhere in its manufacturing and marketing processes. Think
about the ___06___ of junk mail, newspapers, photocopies and other paper products that each of us handles, stores, and
disposes of in a single day. Total annual world wood consumption is about 3.7 billion metric tons or about 3.7 billion
m3. This is more than steel and plastic consumption together. International trade in wood and wood products amounts to
more than $100 billion each year. Developed countries produce less than half of all ___07___ wood but account for
about 80 percent of its consumption. Less-developed countries, mainly in the tropic, produce more than half of all wood
used by industries but use only 20 percent. The largest producers of this kind of wood and paper pulp are the United
States, the former Soviet Union, and Canada. Much of the logging in North America and Europe occurs in managed
forests, where cut trees are grown as crop. ___08___, tropical hardwoods in Southeast Asia, Africa, and Latin America
are being cut at an unsustainable rate, mostly from old-growth forests.

05. (A) almost 06. (A) accumulation


(B) nearly (B) number
(C) hardly (C) total
(D) never (D) amount
(E) virtually (E) figure

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07. (A) industrial 08. (A) For example
(B) industrially (B) Similarly
(C) industrious (C) In addition
(D) industrialized (D) In contrast
(E) industry (E) Therefore

Text 3

The Mahabharata is one of the two major Sanskrit epics of ancient India, the other being the Ramayana. Besides its
epic narrative of the Kurukshetra War and the fates of the Kaurava and the Pandava princes, the Mahabharata contains
__09__ and devotional material. Traditionally, the authorship of the Mahabharata is attributed to Vyasa. There have
been many attempts to __10__ its historical growth and compositional layers. The oldest preserved parts of the text are
thought to be not much older than around 400 BCE __11__ the origins of the epic probably fall between the 8 th and 9th
centuries BCE. The text probably reached its final form by the early Gupta period (c. 4 th century CE). The title may be
translated as “the great tale of the Bharata dynasty”. The Mahabharata is the longest known __12__ poem and has been
described as “the longest poem ever written”. About 1.8 million words in total, the Mahabharata is roughly ten times the
length of the Iliad and the Odyssey combined, or about four times the length of the Ramayana.

09. (A) philosophy 11. (A) although


(B) philosopher (B) unless
(C) philosophize (C) before
(D) philosophical (D) when
(E) philosophically (E) as long as

10. (A) disappear 12. (A) mediocre


(B) conceal (B) common
(C) unravel (C) trivial
(D) neglect (D) epic
(E) abduct (E) rapid

Text 4

Human activities consume resources and produce waste. As our populations grow and global consumption
increases, it is essential that we measure nature’s capacity to meet these demands on our planet. The Ecological
Footprint has emerged as one of the world’s leading measures of human demand on nature. It allows us to calculate
human pressure on the planet and come up with facts such as: If everyone lived the lifestyle of the average American,
we would need 5 planets.
The Ecological Footprint measures the supply of and demand on nature. On the supply side, biocapacity represents
the planet’s biologically productive land areas including our forests, pastures, cropland and fisheries. These areas,
especially if left unharvested, can also absorb much of the waste we generate, especially our carbon emissions.
Biocapacity can then be compared with humanity’s demand on nature: our Ecological Footprint. The Ecological
Footprint represents the productive area required to provide the renewable resources humanity is using and to absorb its
waste. The productive area currently occupied by human infrastructure is also included in this calculation, since built-up
land is not available for resource regeneration.
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Since the 1970s, humanity has been in ecological overshoot with annual demand on resources exceeding what
Earth can regenerate each year. It now takes the Earth one year and six months to regenerate what we use in a year. We
maintain this overshoot by liquidating the Earth’s resources. Overshoot is a vastly underestimated threat to human well-
being and the health of the planet, and one that is not adequately addressed.

13. Which of the following statements is FALSE? 15. Where is this kind of passage found?

(A) Compared to most people in the world, (A) A textbook on environment


American people consume more resources and (B) A bulletin of anthropology
produce more waste. (C) A journal of geography
(B) It seems that the problem of ecological (D) An article on geology
overshoot has been taken for granted and (E) A journal on human nature
poorly tackled.
(C) In the early 1900’s, the amount of time needed 16. What is the purpose of the writer in writing this
for the Earth to regenerate was less than one passage?
year and a half.
(D) Although utilized, some productive areas can (A) To explain the importance of knowing what the
still absorb carbon emissions produced by nature can supply and to what extend we can
human activities. use it
(E) The ecological footprint is the only way (B) To inform people about what resources the
available to measure how much pressure nature provides and how people can utilize
people put on the planet. them wisely
(C) To increase people’s awareness about how and
how fast the Earth can regenerate itself
14. What can be inferred from the passage? (D) To describe the differences and similarities
between the ecological footprint and
(A) It is important for us to know what ecological biocapacity
footprint is if we want to lead an American (E) To propose some alternative ways to overcome
lifestyle. the problem of overshooting
(B) The Ecological Footprint has been around
since the world’s population started to grow. 17. What is the tone of the passage?
(C) The kinds of activities that people did in the
past were probably different from today’s (A) Enthusiastic
activities. (B) Pessimistic
(D) In the past, it might not have been necessary to
(C) Neutral
know what ecological footprint was.
(E) Biologically productive lands provide most of (D) Indecisive
people need in order to survive. (E) Offended

Text 5

With so many people volunteering in so many different ways, the individual reasons for volunteering are almost
endless. Probably the best reason of all – and it’s likely why most people volunteer – is to help others by making a
difference and giving back to their community. This is truly a noble reason.
One of the best reasons to volunteer is that it is tied to something you’re passionate about. Maybe you lost a loved
one to a disease and want to keep others from suffering the same fate. Maybe you’ve always loved animals, but your
small apartment isn’t an ideal home for a large dog, much less two or three. Maybe art has allowed you to express
yourself, and you want to share that with others. Volunteering through different programs lets you be devoted to a cause
that’s close to your heart while spreading that passion to others.
Another great reason to volunteer is that volunteerism can benefit a professional resume. Many employers and
schools look favorably upon volunteer experience. Also, while you’re volunteering, you can learn new skills and
sharpen old ones, honing your communication, leadership, teamwork and time management talents. You’ll also have the
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chance to network with others and possibly vet out a new career avenue. You might even earn credit toward your
schooling.
Meeting people and having fun are also good reasons to volunteer. Perhaps you’re retired with plenty of free time
on your hands, maybe you have the summer off, or you just have some extra time in the afternoons or on weekends. No
matter what your circumstance, volunteering can keep you busy. You’ll be able to meet new people and have exciting
experiences, instead of sitting around being bored with little or nothing to do.
Whether you want to do your part or make your mark, there are many great reasons to volunteer. And those that
benefit from your help will just be happy you did, no matter the reason.

18. The most appropriate title for the passage is .... 20. The word “honing” in paragraph 3 is closest in
meaning to ....
(A) Different Ways to Volunteer
(A) to perfect
(B) Motivation behind Volunteering
(B) to be heard
(C) Effects of Volunteerism in the Community (C) to get
(D) to use
(D) Benefits of Doing Volunteer
(E) to practice
(E) Noble Reasons to Volunteer
21. Which of the following persons will most likely do
volunteering work?
19. All of the following statements about people who
(A) a newly hectic graduate
carry out volunteer act are stated in the text,
(B) a busy supermarket supervisor
EXCEPT ....
(C) a freshman at the medical faculty
(D) a young secretary at a law firm
(A) They will gain some kind of benefits at the end (E) a lung cancer survivor
of their volunteer work
22. The tone of the passage is ....
(B) They are a group of people who usually need to
fill or kill their extra time
(A) forceful
(C) They often start with a good intention at heart (B) encouraging
to help the community
(C) ingenious
(D) They perform a service required to advance
their position in the company (D) contemptuous
(E) They would use the experience to promote (E) skeptical
their credentials professionally

Text 6

A prolific painter, draftsman, and etcher, Rembrandt is usually regarded as the greatest artist of Holland’s “Golden
Age.” He worked first in his name Leiden and, from 1632 onward, in Amsterdam, where he had studied briefly with the
influential history painter Pieter Lastman. Rembrandt never went abroad, but he carefully examined the work of
Northern artists who had lived in Italy. In the Leiden period, Rembrandt also responded strongly to earlier
Netherlanders artists, such as Lucas van Leyden. However, a crucial aspect of Rembrandt’s development was his
intense study of people, objects, and their surroundings “from life,” as is obvious in paintings like his early self-portraits
and the Saint Paul in Prison (1627). Even by Dutch standards, Rembrandt’s preoccupation with direct observation was
exceptional and continued throughout his career. Despite the constant evolution of his style, Rembrandt’s compelling
descriptions of light, space, atmosphere, modeling, texture, and human situations may be traced back even from his late
works, such as The Jewish Bride. Amsterdam, Rijksmuseum. to the foundations of his Leiden years. It was also this
program, in good part that made Rembrandt a great teacher.

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In Amsterdam, Rembrandt became a prominent portraitist, attracting attention with dramatic compositions like The
Anatomy-Lesson of Dr. Tulp. In securing commissions, the artist was assisted by the Mennonite art dealer Hendrick
Uylenburgh. The Mennonites advocated personal interpretation of scripture, which probably influenced Rembrandt’s
subjective and often moving treatment of biblical subjects. The artist became highly successful in the 1630s, when he
had several pupils and assistants, started his own art collection, and lived the life of a cultivated gentleman, especially in
the impressive residence he purchased in 1639. Now it is known as the “Rembrandt House” museum. Rembrandt
exudes confidence and urbanity in his Self-Portrait (1640). It was modeled upon courtly portraits by Raphael and Titian.
These artists probably also inspired his Amsterdam signature, “Rembrandt”.

23. According lo the text, which of the following 25. This passage would probably be assigned reading in
statements is FALSE? which of the following art course?

(A) He got incredible success in the 1630s. (A) Urban Art


(B) Biblical Art
(B) His style kept on evolving throughout his (C) Artists and Their Art
career. (D) Philosophy of Art
(C) Rembrandt was very productive throughout his (E) Drawing and Composition
career.
(D) Rembrandt did not have any experience 26. The tone of the author is best described as ...
visiting other countries.
(A) smooth
(E) The Jewish Bride was made in the same period (B) amused
of time as the Saint Paul in Prison. (C) pleasant
(D) admiring
24. What is the author's purpose in writing this text? (E) objective

(A) To present the life of Rembrandt


27. What can be inferred about Rembrandt?
(B) To argue that Rembrandt was a great teacher
for other painters
(A) Figures from the Bible were Rembrandt’s main
(C) To argue that Rembrandt is one of the best interest.
painters in the world (B) Italian painters had a little influence on
Rembrandt’s paintings.
(D) To present the achievement of Rembrandt in (C) The time Rembrandt spent in Amsterdam was
obtaining commissions more essential in his early career.
(D) Unlike prominent Dutch painters, Rembrandt
(E) To present Rembrandt's development as a was preoccupied with Dutch standards.
painter throughout his career (E) Although Rembrandt’s style changed over his
career, certain elements can be found in all his
work.

Text 7

It is increasingly recognized that culture has an essential role to play as a driver of sustainable development,
contributing to the eradication of poverty and enhancing social inclusion. Culture helps to define people’s identities and
determines ___28___. Gender equality, which is a UNESCO priority, refers to the roles and responsibilities of men and
women and gender dynamics within families, societies and cultures.
In many respects, UNESCO World Heritage sites are prime examples of setting standards and sharing practices
around the world, and this issue examines the role of gender in many aspects of heritage, whether it involves the
spiritual beliefs underpinning the functions of a place, the roles of the women and men at a site, or even ___29___.
Moreover, the scope of the World Heritage Convention is vast, and with 1,031 sites now listed, there is no shortage of
examples of the different ways men and women live, work and pray in different cultures.
In this issue, we begin with an overview that looks at gender bias in the early days of the World Heritage
Convention, male/female parity in examining nominations, and attributed gender roles in the preservation of World

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Heritage sites. We examine certain World Heritage Sites, such as the Tombs of Buganda Kings at Kasubi (Uganda)
where women are the caretakers of the sacred site; and the Orthodox center of Mount Athos (Greece), where women
and children are not allowed. Gender and the 2003 Intangible Cultural Heritage Convention is another topic, reflecting
on how gender is commonly expressed, ___31___ and even constituted in and through intangible cultural heritage.
These are exercised around the world, and the roles that gender plays in just a few of them. ___33___ adopted by
the General Assembly of States Parties to the World Heritage Convention in November 2015, we look towards a more
peaceful and sustainable planet - the balance of power in our relationships will continue to be an important issue to
redress in this new framework.

28. The correct phrase to complete the sentence is ... 31. The correct word to complete the sentence is ...

(A) their way the future they shape (A) perform


(B) they shape their future the way (B) to perform
(C) is performed
(C) the way and their future they shape
(D) performed
(D) the way they shape their future (E) performing
(E) their future they shape the way

32. The most appropriate sentence to begin paragraph 4


29. (A) whether men or women access are allowed is ...
(B) whether are allowed access for men or women
(A) The cases presented illustrate the diversity of
(C) whether are men or women allowed access
cultures, beliefs and practices.
(D) whether men or women are allowed access (B) In each culture, the roles of men are
(E) whether men are allowed access or women significantly different from those of women.
(C) Some cultures may not acknowledge the
existence of women and children.
30. The italic phrase in paragraph 2 means ... (D) The World Heritage has a long list containing
cultural diversities found worldwide.
(A) it is not possible to know how many examples (E) Gender equality has been an important issue in
there are many countries for decades.
(B) there are only a few examples found and
explored 33. The correct phrase to complete the sentence is ...
(C) the number of sites that can be used as
examples is plenty (A) The spiritual beliefs
(B) The reservation of the sacred sites
(D) the UNESCO only provides a short list of (C) The gender policy
examples (D) The balance of power
(E) The age of the examples is probably unknown (E) The sustainable development policy

Text 8

Performance assessments measure the ability of students to perform tasks that correspond to important instructional
objectives. A major advantage of performance assessment is that they can communicate instructional goals that involve
complex performances in natural settings in, and outside of, school. By using tasks that require performances that
correspond to major instructional objectives, they provide instructional targets and thereby can encourage ___(34)___.
A second advantage of performance assessment is that they can measure complex learning outcomes that cannot be
measured by other means. As has frequently been stated, knowing how to do something is not the same as being able to
do it. Thus, a paper-and-pencil test that measures what a student knows about effective public speaking, for example,
does not provide a measure of the student’s ability to ___(35)___.
A third advantage of performance assessment is that they provide a means of assessing processes or procedures, as
well as products ___(36)___ from performing a task. For example, by observing students while they are conducting a
laboratory experiment, strength and weaknesses in the use of equipment and in technique can be assessed, as well as
success in completing the experiment and the strength of reasoning provided to support conclusions.

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A fourth advantage of performance assessments is that they implement approaches suggested by modern learning
theory. Rather than being recipients of discrete bits of knowledge, modern learning theory conceives of students as
active participants in the construction of meaning. According to this view, new information must be actively
transformed and integrated with a student’s prior knowledge. Performance-based assessments take student background
knowledge into account and engage students in the active construction of the meaning.
Unreliability of ratings of performances across teachers or across time for the same teacher is clearly a limitation.
Careful attention to the learning outcomes that the task is intended to assess and to the criteria that will be used in rating
the performances is required ___(39)___ to minimize this limitation. The rating reliability can be increased __(40)__
the outcomes to be measured and following the criteria for rating performances.

34. The correct phrase to complete the sentence is .... 38. The most appropriate sentence to begin paragraph 5
is ....
(A) the complex skills of development and
understandings (A) Most teachers rarely use performance
(B) the understandings of skills and complex assessments because they are time-consuming
development and impractical.
(C) the development of complex understandings (B) Another advantage of performance assessments
and skills is that they are relatively easy to prepare and
(D) the complex skills and development of cost-effective.
understandings (C) One obvious disadvantage of performance
(E) the development and understandings of assessment is the lack of experience that
complex skills teachers have in this field.
(D) The next advantage of performance assessment
is that the results are flexible, they can be
35. The correct phrase to complete the sentence is .... changed to suit the needs.
(E) The most commonly cited limitation of
(A) write a good speech performance assessments parallels that cited
(B) express feelings in public for essay questions.
(C) make a public appearance
(D) stage a demonstration 39. The most suitable phrase to complete the sentence is
(E) deliver an effective speech ....

(A) at the time both tasks are developed and at the


36. (A) result time performances are rated
(B) resulted (B) at both the time tasks are developed and at the
time performances are rated
(C) to result
(C) both at the time tasks are developed and the
(D) resulting time at performances are rated
(E) that result (D) both at the time tasks are developed and at the
time performances are rated
(E) both performances at the time tasks are rated
37. The italic phrase in paragraph 4 means ... and developed at the time

(A) the knowledge that students gained previously 40. The best phrase to complete (40) is
is considered
(B) student’s previous knowledge is likely to be (A) about definition
taken for granted (B) in defining
(C) knowledge from student’s prior education is (C) at definiton
carefully analyzed (D) by defining
(D) family background may determine how (E) with defining
knowledgeable the student is
(E) student’s current knowledge is backed up by to
his/her prior knowledge

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