LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

Part of the Most Comprehensive & Consistently Successful Study Material & Test Series Module, spanning
across both Physical and Online Programs in the entire Country. As a result LegalEdge was able to engineer Clean-
Sweep-Landslide figures of a handsome 64 Selections & 65 Selections in Top 100 (including AIR 1, 2 & 3 from Classroom
Contact Programs in 2022), & a whopping 273 selections & 327 selections in Top 500, in CLAT 2021 & CLAT 2022
respectively. With AILET being no different, a total of 34 of our students found their way into NLU, Delhi in 2021 & 35
in 2022. In a nutshell, every second admit in a Top National Law School in 2021 & 2022 came from the LegalEdge
Preparation Ecosystem.

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2023

MOCK CLAT 27

Scan this code after the test

Duration : 120 Minutes Candidate Name : _____________
Max. Marks : 150 Batch : _____________
Centre Name : __________ Contact No. : _____________

to punch in your answers

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES (Test ID: 2546364)

1. No clarification on the question paper can be sought. Answer the questions as they are.
2. There are 150 multiple choice objective type questions.
3. There is negative marking of 0.25 for every incorrect answer. Each question carries ONE mark. Total marks are
150
4. You have to indicate the correct answer by darkening one of the four responses provided, with a BALL PEN
(BLUE OR BLACK) in the OMR Answer Sheet.
Example: For the question, "Where is the Taj Mahal located?", the correct answer is (b).
The student has to darken the corresponding circle as indicated below:
(a) Kolkata (b) Agra (c) Bhopal (d) Delhi
Right Method Wrong Methods

5. Answering the questions by any method other than the method indicated above shall be considered incorrect and
no marks will be awarded for the same.
6. More than one response to a question shall be counted as wrong.
7. Do not write anything on the OMR Answer Sheet other than the details required and, in the spaces, provided for.
8. You are not required to submit the OMR Answer Sheet and Test Paper after the test.
9. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall result in the cancellation of his/her candidature.
10. Impersonation is an offence and the student, apart from disqualification, may have to face criminal prosecution.
11. You have to scan the QR code only after completion of offline test.
12. You cannot leave the examination hall without punching your answers on the portal.
 SECTION-A: ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (Q.1-Q.30): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

Passage (Q.1-Q.5): In the 2002 football World Cup, France, the reigning world champions, suffered a
humiliating defeat to unfancied Senegal. All 11 members of the victorious Senegalese team had played for
European clubs. They were not alone.

This question is posed by a new book, "Give Us Your Best and Brightest", by Devesh Kapur and John McHale.
The authors are development economists first, football fans second (if at all). But they see the emigration of
African players as a highly visible example of the "brain drain".

The answer to the Senegal conundrum is of course "both": the best players leave, and the dream of emulating
them motivates many others to take their place. The real question is whether the second effect outweighs the
first, leaving the game in Senegal stronger or weaker than it otherwise would be.

As with all debates about the brain drain, theory has run ahead of evidence. The numbers on international flows
of people are much patchier than those on cross-border flows of goods or capital. In a recent paper. Mr Stark and
his co-authors investigate internal migration

Education is not free, and some of those who gambled on a diploma as a ticket overseas will regret their decision.
But Mr Stark assumes that people in poor countries tend to demand too little education. A person's productivity
depends on the skills of those around him, as well as his own. Because of these spillovers, an individual's
education is worth more to the economy as a whole than it is to himself, and he will underinvest in it as a result.
Mr Stark sees limited emigration as one way to fix this market failure.
India's software engineers are perhaps an example of this principle at work. Indian students had little reason to
learn computer coding before there was a software industry to employ them. But such an industry could not take
root without computer engineers to man it.
India's valley-dwellers represent just one contingent in a much larger diaspora. India's relatively happy
experience with its educated emigres is more likely to be the exception than the rule. Its million-strong brain
drain represents just 4.3% of its vast graduate population, according to the Bank. By contrast, almost 47% of
Ghana's highly educated native sons live in the OECD; for Guyana, the figure is 89%. This is not a stimulative
leeching of talent; it is a haemorrhage.
But it is not easy to run a managed "emigration" policy. The drain of educated minds from poor countries is
mostly determined by host countries' rules, not home countries' interests. There will be tremendous pressure to
loosen those rules in the future, not least because, as the baby-boom generation retires, it will seek to "backfill
the taxpaying workforce behind it", as Messrs Kapur and McHale put it. The rich world no longer welcomes the
tired and the huddled; it looks set to compete ever more fiercely for the bright and the qualified.
1. The focus of the passage is on the question
(a) Does a brain drain pull up the standards of competence in a country?
(b) Can international migration be called a brain drain?
(c) Might poor countries gain when their best and brightest leave?
(d) Have foreign clubs deprived African countries of their best talent?
2. In the given passage, 'this market failure' refers to
(a) skewed priorities in education.
(b) lack of education in poor countries.
(c) inadequate recognition of the desirability of one's education.
(d) inadequacy of market-oriented skills.
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 44
3. The passage states that India's experience with its émigré is an exception because:
I. its brain drain represents an insignificant proportion of its educated populace.
II. its qualified but rejected visa-seekers can be absorbed in local industries.
III. its diaspora can be tapped for technology and foreign exchange.
(a) Only III (b) I and II (c) I and III (d) I, II and III

4. What is the effect of the Senegal conundrum?

(a) The best players leave.
(b) The dream of emulating the best players motivates others.
(c) The dream of emulating others motivates the best player.
(d) Both (a) & (b).

5. Which of the following is true about the authors of the book mentioned in the passage?
(a) They are more development economists than football fans and see the emigration of African players as a
brain drain.
(b) They are more development economists than football fans and do not see the emigration of African players
as a brain drain.
(c) They are less of development economists as compared to being football fans and see the emigration of
African players as a brain drain.
(d) They are more football fans than development economists and see the emigration of African players as a
brain drain.

Passage (Q.6-Q.10): Daphne Du Maurier, also known as ‘Lady Browning’, was a British writer and playwright
born on 13th May 1907 in London. She belonged to a creative family where her father and mother were actors,
her uncle was a magazine editor, and her grandfather was a writer. This became the base for her literary talent
as she started writing when she was very young. As a child, she knew how to stay in the limelight, having met
many celebrities because of her parents’ careers. At first, she was not considered as intellectual as other famous
authors such as George Elliot and Iris Murdoch and her work was seen as somewhat ‘old aged’. But now, Maurier
is recognized as one of the most brilliant writers and is called ‘the mistress of suspense’. She was homeschooled
by well-educated governesses and later attended the elite schools of London and Paris.

Because her childhood contained many literary and artistic experiences, it was not a surprise that Du Maurier
had a very vivid imagination and a profound love for writing and reading. Her first novel ‘The Loving Spirit’
was published in 1931. It was after reading this very novel that Lieutenant-Colonel Frederick, also called ‘Boy
Browning’ sailed all the way to London to meet the author of this book. They married the next year and remained
married for the next 33 years until Boy died in 1965.

Du Maurier’s other works are ‘I’ll Never Be Young Again’ (1932), ‘The Progress of Julius’ (1933), ‘Jamaica
Inn’ (1936), ‘Rebecca’ (1938), ‘Frenchman’s Creek’ (1941), ‘Mary Anne’ (1954), ‘The Scapegoat’ (1957), ‘The
Glass-Blowers’ (1963) and ‘Rule Britannia’ (1972). She also wrote many short stories, including ‘Come Wind,
Come Weather’ (1940), ‘Early Stories’ (1959), ‘The Breaking Point’ (1959), ‘Not After Midnight’ (1971) and
‘The Rendezvous and Other Stories’ (1980).

Daphne du Maurier also wrote three plays. The first was an adaptation of her novel ‘Rebecca’ that was published
in 1938. The play was released on 5th March 1940. The second play was ‘The Years Between’, that opened on
10th January 1945, and the third one was called ‘September Tide’, which first opened on 15th December 1948.

She was given the honour of being the ‘Dame Commander of the Order of the British Empire’ in the ‘ ueen’s
Birthday Honors’; however, she never really used this title. Later on in her life, Du Maurier also wrote some
non-fiction works. ‘Gerald’ was published in 1934, ‘The Du Mauriers’ in 1937, ‘The Young George du Maurier’
in 1951, ‘The Infernal World of Branwell Bronte’ in 1960 and ‘Growing Pains’ in 1970. Many of her works

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 3 of 44
 were made into film adaptations such as ‘My Cousin Rachel’, ‘The Birds’, ‘Jamaica Inn’, ‘Hungry Hill’ and
‘Frenchman’s Creek’.
Du Maurier had a ‘romantic’ style of writing, although she did not like being called as a romance novelist. She
received the Grand Master Awards from the ‘Mystery Writers of America’. She died on 19th April 1989 in
Cornwall, England, the UK, at the age of 81.

6. The passage is
(a) A biography (b) An autobiography (c) A summary (d) A novel

7. All of the following can be inferred from the passage, except

(a) Daphne Du Maurier’s writing skills stem from her exposure to many artistic and literary experiences in her
childhood.
(b) George Elliot, Iris Murdoch and Daphne Du Maurier were contemporaries.
(c) Daphne Du Maurier was born with a silver spoon in her mouth.
(d) Daphne Du Maurier won accolades during her lifetime.

8. The writer was known by which sobriquet?

(a) Daphne du Maurier (b) Boy Browning
(c) Rebecca (d) Lady Browning

9. Which of the following works was adapted as a play?

(a) My Cousin Rachel (b) Hungry Hill
(c) The years between (d) Rebecca

10. Why do you think Daphne du Maurier did not like being called a romance novelist?
(a) Daphne Du Maurier did not wish to be confined to a genre.
(b) Daphne Du Maurier was a writer as well as a playwright.
(c) Daphne Du Maurier was a versatile woman who also delved into artistic pursuits.
(d) Daphne Du Maurier came from an eclectic background that rendered her vivid imagination.

Passage (Q.11-Q.15): Art suffuses our lives. Whether it's bluegrass, heavy metal, Frank Sinatra of Mozart,
music moves us all. On a trip to a foreign city, visiting an art museum is a mandatory exercise. Imaginative
writing affects many of us, though — alas — with decreasing frequency.

Why should art be important? Being seen as an "art lover" may increase our status, but otherwise, art is not
useful. Yet art has been part of the human experience since Paleolithic man painted on the walls of caves in
Lascaux, France, and Altamira, Spain, more than 30,000 years ago. Art preceded agriculture, cities and writing.

Denis Dutton, an art professor in New Zealand, has proposed a bold new explanation. He argues that humankind's
universal interest in art is the result of human evolutions. We enjoy sex, grasp facial expressions, understand the
logic and spontaneously acquire language — all of which make it easier for us to survive and produce children.
In "The Art Instinct: Beauty, Pleasure, and Human Evolution," Dutton contends that an interest in art belongs on
this list of evolutionary adaptations.

Drawing on Charles Darwin's second great book, "The Descent of Man, and Selection in Relation to Sex", Dutton
argues that art, like broad shoulders in a man and a narrow waist in a woman, facilitates seduction. We tell
stories, sing songs, invent tales, recount jokes and draw pictures in order to find a mate and, having found one,
produce children. We value art because Dutton claims, it may be made of rare and valuable materials and require
much skill to produce. People value wealth and skill in choosing a mate.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 4 of 44
 This is a stimulating but not entirely satisfactory argument. Some forms of art may have evolutionary
explanations that do not involve sexual selection, and some forms of beauty may not be linked to art at all. Take
music: we can imagine men and women singing to one another for several reasons, but we can also imagine
music being used to induce sleep, energize an army, or identify friends and enemies. Or painting: zoologist
Desmond Moris and others have encouraged chimpanzees to paint. Some of their works were hung in museums
without being labelled as the work of chimps, and they received much acclaim. It seems unlikely. Likewise, the
cave paintings done 30 millennia ago probably had no connection with romance (many were done in remote
parts of caves where no one lived). They may have been produced by shamans for religious purposes.
Dutton recognizes these limitations in his explanation of why art has persisted. His love of music, he notes,
cannot be confined to its role in sexual communication; as a child, he was entranced with Beethoven's Seventh
Symphony long before he had the faintest interest in girls. Moreover, art, especially music and poetry, helps us
see the human personality.
Evolution has, without any doubt, left people with an appreciation for both natural and man-made beauty, but
sexual selection explains only a small part of the reason.
11. Which of the following questions is answered by Dutton's research?
(a) Are we genetically predisposed to appreciate art?
(b) Does an interest in art make it easier for humans to survive and reproduce?
(c) Are preferences in music and paintings passed on to children?
(d) Do we value beauty even though we define it differently?
12. Which of the following best describes the way the conclusion functions in the context of the passage?
(a) The last argument supports the central idea presented in the passage.
(b) questions arising out of the discussion on the topic are identified for further study.
(c) The conclusion accepts the central claim and closes the case.
(d) Conclusion is drawn as counterarguments to qualify the central argument.
13. What does the author mean when he uses the word ‘suffuses’ in the first line?
(a) spreads (b) Fills (c) Permeates (d) Floods
14. The period that the author mentions with regard to art, is
(a) Paleolithic (b) Mesolithic (c) Stone age (d) Neolithic
15. Which of the following is the author’s approach to Dutton’s argument with regard to his arguments on Charles
Darwin's second book?
(a) Appreciating and stimulating. (b) Contradictory and ironical.
(c) Stimulating, yet not entirely satisfactory. (d) Satisfactory, but not entirely stimulating.
Passage (Q.16-Q.21): P1. IN THE very olden time, there lived a semi-barbaric king, whose ideas, though
somewhat polished and sharpened by the progressiveness of distant Latin neighbours, were still large, florid, and
untrammelled, as became the half of him which was barbaric. He was a man of exuberant fancy and, withal, of
an authority so irresistible that, at his will, he turned his varied fancies into facts. He was greatly given to self-
communing, and when he and himself agreed upon anything, the thing was done. When every member of his
domestic and political systems moved smoothly in its appointed course, his nature was bland and genial; but
whenever there was a little hitch and some of his orbs got out of their orbits, he was blander and more genial
still, for nothing pleased him so much as to make the crooked straight, and crush down uneven places.

P2. Among the borrowed notions by which his barbarism had become semified was that of the public arena, in
which, by exhibitions of manly and beastly valour, the minds of his subjects were refined and cultured. But even
here, the exuberant and barbaric fancy asserted itself. The arena of the king was built not to give the people an
opportunity of hearing the rhapsodies of dying gladiators nor to enable them to view the inevitable conclusion
of a conflict between religious opinions and hungry jaws, but for purposes far better adapted to widen and
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 5 of 44
 develop the mental energies of the people. This vast amphitheatre, with its encircling galleries, its mysterious
vaults, and its unseen passages, was an agent of poetic justice in which crime was punished. Or virtue rewarded
by the decrees of an impartial and incorruptible chance.

P3. When a subject was accused of a crime of sufficient importance to interest the king, public notice was given
that on an appointed day, the fate of the accused person would be decided in the king's arena,--a structure which
well-deserved its name; for, although its form and plan were borrowed -from afar, its purpose emanated solely
from the brain of this man, who, every barleycorn a king, knew no tradition to which he owed more allegiance
than pleased his fancy, and who ingrafted on every adopted form of human thought and action the rich growth
of his barbaric idealism.

P4. When all the people had assembled in the galleries, and the king, surrounded by his court, sat high up on his
throne of royal state on one side of the arena, he gave a signal, a door beneath him opened, and the accused
subject stepped out into the amphitheatre. Directly opposite him, on the other side of the enclosed space, were
two doors, exactly alike and side by side. It was the duty and the privilege of the person on trial to walk directly
to these doors and open one of them. He could open either door he pleased: he was subject to no guidance or
influence but that of the aforementioned impartial and incorruptible chance. If he opened the one, there came out
of it a hungry tiger, the fiercest and most cruel that could be procured, which immediately sprang upon him and
tore him to pieces as a punishment for his guilt. The moment that the case of the criminal was thus decided,
doleful iron bells were clanged, great wails went up from the hired mourners posted on the outer rim of the arena,
and the vast audience, with bowed heads and downcast hearts, wended slowly their homeward way, mourning
greatly that one so young and fair, or so old and respected, should have merited so dire a fate.

16. Which of the following reflects the character of the king?

(a) Bland and genteel. (b) Whimsical and just.
(c) Savage and fanciful. (d) courageous and quirky.

17. The author’s attitude towards the king is

(a) Condescending (b) Mordant (c) Lionising (d) Supercilious

18. Which of the following explains the king’s justice?

(a) The king's justice was draconian as well as whimsical.
(b) The king's justice was harsh but just.
(c) The king's justice was, on most occasions, clement but just.
(d) The king's justice was based on the legacy of his forefathers.

19. ‘He was greatly given to self-communing, and, when he and himself agreed upon anything, the thing was done.’
What is the author implying through the lines above?
(a) That the king summoned his inner conscience while making a decision and when he executed his
judgments based on his inner conscience.
(b) That the king had intimate communication with himself, and if he believed that he and his inner self were
in congruence, he gave in to his fancy.
(c) The king only listened to himself and executed decisions that he relied on to serve his purpose.
(d) The king interacted with his ego and took decisions based on what he was told by his ego and those who
agreed with him.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 6 of 44
20. Which of the following is the best interpretation of paragraph three?
(a) The king’s idea of the arena was to deal with the criminals in the most justified manner that would instil
assurance in the public of his fair means.
(b) The area was a manifestation of the king’s desire to vent his warped idealism to the public by severely
punishing the criminals that took his interest.
(c) The structure of the area bore allegiance to its king in its plan, form and philosophy, that of savage
idealism that he kept close to his heart.
(d) The arena's structure catered to the king’s idea of justice in its purpose, for the king’s loyalty stood only to
his own fanciful ideas that fostered his brutal fanatism.

21. ‘The moment that the case of the criminal was thus decided, doleful iron bells were clanged, great wails went up
from the hired mourners posted on the outer rim of the arena, and the vast audience, with bowed heads and
downcast hearts, wended slowly their homeward way, mourning greatly that one so young and fair, or so old and
respected, should have merited so dire a fate.’ Pick the word from the given options that best portrays the
atmosphere.
(a) Sanguine (b) Melancholy (c) phlegmatic (d) Effervescent

Passage (Q.22-Q.25): Lower temperatures and shorter days trigger the breakdown of chlorophyll — the green
molecule that captures energy from light in the process of photosynthesis. As the chlorophyll is removed, it
reveals other pigments that have been swamped by its bold colour. These are called carotenoids. They aid the
process of light absorption and, in chlorophyll's absence, give rise to pale and brilliant yellows, ambers, golds
and oranges. Different species of tree retain different amounts of carotenoids, which leads to much of the
polychromatic beauty of a forest in autumn.

The pigments responsible for reds (hectic and otherwise), and also for purple and magenta. are called
anthocyanins. These molecules are actively created in autumn, rather than being revealed by chlorophyll's
absence. In recent years, researchers have argued that they are produced in response to environmental causes.

Plant starts to disassemble its light-gathering apparatus in preparation for winter, its leaves become particularly
sensitive to light damage. The process of disassembly liberates chlorophyll from a molecular production line
called the electron-transfer system. That system is designed to corral the energy captured by chlorophyll and use
it to build up sugar molecules. Lone chlorophyll, however, dumps its energy resulting in the formation of
destructive molecules called free radicals and peroxides. These can kill a leaf.

Since the leaves are about to be discarded anyway. But the reason for the disassembly of the light-gathering
apparatus is to recover as many valuable chemicals as possible from each leaf before it drops. Premature leaf fall
would thus be a bad thing.

Anthocyanins provide a natural sunscreen for a plant's leaves. They absorb light that would otherwise be picked
up by tone chlorophyll molecules, thus preventing damage during the period of nutrient recovery. Hock's team
found support for this theory in work showing that autumnal anthocyanins were most abundant in leaves exposed
to direct sunlight, and least so in those shaded by the canopy.

The timing and extent of red colouration in different trees is consistently related to the concentration of
nutritionally valuable nitrogenous compounds and sugars in the leaves. Nutrient deficiencies, especially of
nitrogen, triggered more intense colour in maples as the tree attempted to lessen the effects of sunlight.

Not everybody agrees that the main autumnal role of anthocyanins is protection from excess illumination. Their
production is triggered by thin besides light and nutrient deficiencies. Some researchers, therefore, believe that
anthocyanins are doing several jobs at the same time. Besides absorbing light, the pigments can neutralise free
radicals directly, help calls to hold on to their water, and even act as an antifreeze.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 7 of 44
 The precise triggers for anthocyanin production could thus take years to figure out. Until then, a reliable foliage
forecast is that researchers will spend their time seeing red, while everybody else simply enjoys the technicolor,
sylvan swansong of the autumn.

22. Which of the following best describes the way the passage is structured?
(a) A natural observation is elucidated, a theory is stated, an argument is presented, and alternatives are
mentioned.
(b) An observation is highlighted, and two theories are compared and contrasted. and a conclusion is drawn.
(c) A case is presented, counter-arguments are listed, and the findings are summarized.
(d) A theory is discussed; its limitations are stated and a conclusion is drawn.

23. According to the passage, which of the following views does not disagree with the theory that anthocyanins
protect leaves from excess sunlight?
(a) Drought and low temperatures can result in the production of anthocyanins.
(b) Exposure to ozone can result in the synthesis of anthocyanins.
(c) Anthocyanins absorb light that would be picked up by lone chlorophyll molecules.
(d) The only role of anthocyanins is to help cells to hold on to their water.

24. Which of the following is untrue with regard to the passage?

(a) The precise triggers for anthocyanin production could thus take centuries to figure out.
(b) The process of disassembly liberates chlorophyll from a molecular production line called the electron-
transfer system.
(c) The pigments responsible for reds (hectic and otherwise), and also for purple and magenta.
(d) As the chlorophyll is removed, it reveals other pigments that have been swamped by its bold colour.

25. What is the timing and extent of red colouration in different trees related to?
(a) The amount of chlorophyll present in the leaves.
(b) Exposure of the leaves to ozone.
(c) Drought and low temperatures.
(d) The concentration of nitrogenous compounds and sugars in leaves.

Passage (Q.26-Q.30): Around 2800 kilometres below where you are standing right now, there is a large amount
of molten iron swirling around and generating our planet’s magnetic field. This magnetic field may be invisible,
but it is vital for life on Earth since it shields the planet from streams of radiation from the sun, known as the
solar wind.

But around 565 million years ago, our planet’s magnetic field decreased to less than ten per cent of its strength
today. Then, almost mysteriously, the field regained its strength just before the Cambrian explosion or the
“biological big bang” when various phylae and species of multicellular life emerged on earth.

A new paleomagnetic research study published in Nature Communications says that this rejuvenation of the
magnetic field happened within the span of a few tens of million years (which is rapid in a geological context)
and also coincided with the formation of Earth’s solid inner core. This suggests that the core is likely a direct
cause of the rejuvenation.

Our planet’s magnetic field is generated in its outer core, which lies between the Earth’s mantle and the solid
inner core. The solid inner core is composed of an outermost inner core and innermost inner core. In the outer
core, swirling liquid iron generates electric currents due to a geodynamo process, and in turn, these electric
currents induce the magnetic field.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 8 of 44
 For decades, scientists have been trying to figure (_______) how the Earth’s magnetic field and core have
changed throughout our history. But they cannot directly measure the magnetic field due to the location and
extreme temperatures of materials in the core. Thankfully, minerals that rise to Earth’s surface from the core
contain tiny magnetic particles that lock in the direction and intensity of the magnetic field at the time the
minerals cool from their molten state.
By studying the magnetism “locked” in these ancient crystals, researchers were able to deduce two important
events in the history of the Earth’s inner core.
First, the formation of a solid inner core happened about 550 million years ago. Researchers attribute the rapid
renewal of the magnetic field at the same time to this formation and deduce that the solid inner core recharged
the molten outer core and restored the magnetic field’s strength.
Second, the growing inner core’s structure changed about 450 million years ago. This marked the boundary
between the innermost and outermost inner core. The mantle that lies above the core also saw some changes
around the same time, due to plate tectonics on the surface.
“Because we constrained the inner core’s age more accurately, we could explore the fact that the present-day
inner core is actually composed of two parts. Plate tectonic movements on Earth’s surface indirectly affected the
inner core, and the history of these movements is imprinted deep within Earth in the inner core’s structure,”
added Tarduno, in the press statement.
Researchers believe that Mars once had a magnetic field that later dissipated, leaving the planet oceanless and
vulnerable to solar winds. While it is not easy to conclude that the Earth would have met the same fate without
the magnetic field, our planet would have lost a lot more water if the field was not generated.
26. Which of the following best reflects the writing style used by the author?
(a) Persuasive (b) Expository (c) Compare and Contrast (d) Personal
27. ‘For decades, scientists have been trying to figure (______) how the Earth’s magnetic field and core have
changed throughout our history’. Fill in the blanks with the correct word.
(a) out (b) away (c) in (d) over
28. Which of the following best reflects the title of the passage?
(a) Magnetic Field: A Harbour of Life
(b) The Collapse of Magnetic Field Around 565 million Years Ago
(c) Magnetic Field: Earth’s Saviour
(d) Earth’s Magnetic Field: A Shield from Solar Wind
29. Which of the following is a seamless conclusion to the last paragraph?
(a) The inner core is tremendously essential. Right before the inner core started to grow, the magnetic field
was at the point of collapse, but as soon as the inner core started to grow, the field was regenerated.
(b) By understanding how these processes work, scientists get insights into how other planets could also form
magnetic shields and sustain the conditions needed to harbour life as we know it.
(c) The study could give us an insight into how the processes work, which would then be instrumental in
bringing out technologies to protect the other from again going to the point of collapse.
(d) Researchers uncover how Earth's magnetic field got restored by an event around 550 million years ago.
30. The statement that represents the author’s central idea in the best way possible is
(a) Unlike Mars, Earth has a strong magnetic field that shields it from streams of solar radiation referred to as
solar winds.
(b) Ancient rocks hold clues to how Earth can sustain life, avoiding a Mars-like fate.
(c) Life on Earth is the effect of the magnetic field that rejuvenated around 500 million years ago.
(d) The Magnetic field rejuvenated just before the Cambrian explosion when various phylae and species of
multicellular life emerged on Earth.
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 9 of 44
 SECTION-B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

Directions (Q.31–Q.65): Read the information given below and answer the questions based on it.

Passage (Q.31-Q.35): New Delhi [India], May 3 (ANI): The Central government published the Civil
Registration System (CRS) report 2020 based on birth and death reports on Tuesday. CRS is a universal,
continuous, compulsory and permanent recording of birth, death and stillbirth, stated the data. Registration of
birth and death is done under a central Act “Registration of Birth and Death Act (RBD), 1969”. According to
CRS, death registration has increased by 4.75 lakh in the year 2020 as compared to 2019. These figures include
deaths due to COVID-19 and other reasons. There was an increase of 4.87 lakh and 6.90 lakh in death
registrations in the year 2018 and 2019 respectively. The number of registered deaths has increased from 76.4
lakhs in 2019 to 81.2 lakhs in 2020. Out of the total registered deaths, the share of males and females is 60.2 per
cent and 39.8 per cent. As per the draft MCCD Report-2020, which is yet to be published, out of the total
registered deaths (81,15,882 lakh), 18,11,688 have medically certified CoD. Out of 18,11,688 medically certified
deaths, 1,60,618 have been certified as COVID deaths in 2020. According to the data released, the number of
claims settled and ex-gratia relief from SDRF (as of 24 March 2022) is 7, 24,279. Post-independence, the
Registration of Births and Death Act (RBD Act) was enacted in 1969 to promote uniformity and comparability
in the registration of births and deaths across the country and compilation of vital statistics based thereon. With
the enactment of the Act, registration of births, deaths and stillbirths has become mandatory in India. The
Registrar General, India (RGI) at the Central Government level coordinates and unifies the activities of
registration throughout the country. However, implementation of the statute is vested with the state governments.
The registration of births and deaths in the country is done by the functionaries appointed by the state
governments. The directorates of Census Operations are the sub-ordinate offices of Office of the Registrar
General, India and these offices are responsible of monitoring of working of the Act in their concerned state and
Union Territory. The Act mandates the use of uniform birth and death reporting forms and certificates throughout
the country.

31. Vital Statistics based on the 2020 Civil Registration System Report (CRS), the Union Territory of recorded the
highest sex ratio at birth in the country in 2020.
(a) Andaman and Nicobar (b) Chandigarh
(c) Daman and Diu (d) Ladakh

32. Which of the following statements is not correct about Registrar General of India?
(a) The Registrar General of India was founded in 1961 by the Government of India under the Ministry of Home
Affairs.
(b) It arranges, conducts and analyses the results of the demographic surveys of India including the Census of
India and Linguistic Survey of India.
(c) The position of Registrar is usually held by a civil servant holding the rank of Joint Secretary.
(d) None of these

33. Consider following statements about the RBD Act

I The Registration of Births and Death Act (RBD Act) of 1969 promotes uniformity and comparability in the
registration of births and deaths across India.
II The registration of births and deaths in the country is done by the functionaries appointed by the central
governments.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

34. Which of the following state recorded Lowest Sex Ratio at Birth in 2020?
(a) Manipur (b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(c) Daman and Diu (d) Haryana

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 10 of 44
35. Which of the following state saw maximum increase in death rate?
(a) Maharashtra (b) Assam (c) Bihar (d) Uttar Pradesh
Passage (Q.36-Q.40): In a move that could expedite the implementation of railways and highways projects
across the country, the Union government has asked the Ministry of Railways and the National Highways
Authority of India (NHAI) to use the soil/silt excavated from ponds/tanks in all districts across the country under
the Amrit Sarovar mission for their infrastructure projects.
The water conservation mission launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on April 24, 2022, aims at
developing and rejuvenating 75 water bodies in each district in all States as part of the celebrations of ‘Azadi ka
Amrit Mahotsav’. At least 50,000 water bodies are expected to be rejuvenated across the country during the
nationwide programme that would culminate on August 15, 2023. The Centre announced that the national flag
would be hoisted at all the Amrit Sarovar sites on that day.
Since the project would involve excavation of several thousands of tonnes of earth in the form of soil or silt, the
Ministry of Rural Development has told the Ministry of Railways and the NHAI to map its infrastructure projects
with the Amrit Sarovar sites in all States and Union Territories. The authorities were told to use the soil and silt
excavated from the sites for the construction of ongoing projects.
According to official sources, the Amrit Sarovar mission will cater to the requirements of projects being
implemented by the NHAI. In Tamil Nadu, the issue of allowing contractors to lift burrow earth became so
intense that in February this year the NHAI threatened to cancel the road widening work of East Coast Road
between Mamallapuram and Puducherry. However, the issue was resolved after the State government assured
to resolve the issue. The soil and silt excavated from the 75 waterbodies from each district of Tamil Nadu might
be made available to road contractors for implementing road projects, official sources said.
36. Which of the following statements is not correct about Amrit Sarovar Mission?
(a) With a view to conserve water for the future, the Prime Minister launched a new Mission on Amrit Sarovar
on 24th April 2021.
(b) This mission aims to open and rejuvenate 75 water bodies in each district of the country as part of the
celebration of Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav.
(c) In toto, it aims to the creation of 50,000 water bodies of a size of about an Acre or more.
(d) The Mission encourages the mobilisation of citizen and non-government resources for supplementing these
efforts.
37. Consider following statements about Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav
I Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav is an initiative by the Government of India to celebrate and commemorate 75 years
of independence and a brilliant history of its people, culture and achievements.
II The official journey of Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav commenced on 12th March 2021 which started a 75-week
countdown to our 75th anniversary of independence and will end post a year on 15th August 2023.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
38. Which of the following ministries/department is not involved in the mission?
(a) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
(b) Ministry of Forest, Environment and Climate Changes
(c) Department of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Earth Sciences
39. Which of the following institute has been engaged as technical partner for the Mission?
(a) Atal Innovation Center-GISC Foundation - Incubation Center of GTU
(b) Bhaskaracharya National Institute for Space Application and Geo-informatics
(c) Geo Designs and Research Institute Rajasthan
(d) Beacon Bin Science and Technology Institute Maharashtra

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 11 of 44
40. According to the last report published by Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), a total of polluted stretches
were identified on rivers.
(a) 516,495 (b) 654, 621 (c) 245, 235 (d) 351, 323

Passage (Q.41-Q.45): Approximately 3800 youth have registered till 5pm on Friday, the first day of
registration, for recruitment into the Indian Air Force (IAF) under the new Agnipath scheme, according to an
IAF official. Registration for the IAF is open from June 24 to July 05 while registrations for Army and Navy are
set to open on July 01. According to the schedule given by IAF, the course is set to commence on December 30,
2022. First of batch of Agniveers are set to arrive at Navy’s training establishment INS Chilka on November 21.
In a first, the Navy will also recruit women Agniveers. The Army plans to induct 40,000 Agniveers in two
batches with 83 recruitment rallies planned across the country. In the first batch around 25000 Agniveers will
be recruited by first half of December and remaining in the second batch by first half of February 2023.
On June 14, the Government announced the “Agnipath” scheme for recruitment of soldiers into the armed forces
for four years replacing the current permanent entry scheme and the age bracket for new recruits was fixed at 17
½ to 21 years of age. For this year, the Government has announced a onetime upper age limit relaxation to 23
years. All recruitment in the forces for soldiers, sailors and airmen will now be through this route. Agniveers on
completion of four years will get an opportunity to join regular cadre and upto 25% would be selected for regular
cadre.

41. Which of the following statements is not correct about the Agnipath Scheme?
(a) It allows patriotic and motivated youth to serve in the Armed Forces for a period of four years.
(b) Under this scheme, the youth joining the army will be called Agniveer.
(c) Around 45,000 to 50,000 soldiers will be recruited annually, and most will leave the service in just four
years.
(d) After four years, only 25% of the batch will be recruited back into their respective services, for a period of
10 years.

42. Consider following statements about the profits of Agniveers

I Upon the completion of the 5-years of service, a one-time ‘Seva Nidhi’ package of Rs
11.71 lakhs will be paid to the Agniveers that will include their accrued interest thereon.
II They will also get a Rs 48 lakh life insurance cover for the five years.
III In case of death, the payout will be over Rs 1 crore, including pay for the unserved tenure.
Which of the above statements is/are not true?
(a) Both I and II (b) Both II and III
(c) Both I and III (d) Only III

43. Which of the following is the name of India’s own indigenous aircraft?
(a) Rudresh (b) Yashowardhan (c) Soumitra (d) Tejas

44. Who is the current Chief of Army Staff of the Indian Army?
(a) General Rakesh Kumar Singh Bhadauria
(b) General Manoj Pande
(c) General MM Naravane
(d) General Hari Kumar

45. India was ___________ arms importer in the 2017-21 period.

(a) largest (b) second largest (c) third largest (d) fourth largest

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 12 of 44
 Passage (Q.46-Q.50): The world’s most powerful particle collider, the Large Hadron Collider (LHC), will begin
smashing protons into each other at unprecedented levels of energy beginning July 5. Scientists will record and
analyse the data, which are expected to throw up evidence of “new physics” — or physics beyond the Standard
Model of Particle Physics, which explains how the basic building blocks of matter interact, governed by four
fundamental forces. The Large Hadron Collider is a giant, complex machine built to study particles that are the
smallest known building blocks of all things. Structurally, it is a 27-km-long track-loop buried 100 metres
underground on the Swiss-French border. In its operational state, it fires two beams of protons almost at the
speed of light in opposite directions inside a ring of superconducting electromagnets.
The magnetic field created by the superconducting electromagnets keeps the protons in a tight beam and guides
them along the way as they travel through beam pipes and finally collide. “Just prior to collision, another type
of magnet is used to ‘squeeze’ the particles closer together to increase the chances of collisions. The particles
are so tiny that the task of making them collide is akin to firing two needles 10 km apart with such precision that
they meet halfway,” according to the European Organisation for Nuclear Research (originally Conseil Européen
pour la Recherche Nucléaire, or CERN, in French), which runs the particle accelerator complex that houses the
LHC. Since the LHC’s powerful electromagnets carry almost as much current as a bolt of lightning, they must
be kept chilled. The LHC uses a distribution system of liquid helium to keep its critical components ultracold at
minus 271.3 degrees Celsius, which is colder than interstellar space. Given these requirements, it is not easy to
warm up or cool down the gigantic machine.

46. Which of the following statements is not correct about Large Hadron Collider?
(a) The Large Hadron Collider is a giant, complex machine built to study particles that are the smallest known
building blocks of all things.
(b) In its operational state, it fires three beams of protons almost at the speed of light in opposite directions inside
a ring of superconducting electromagnets.
(c) The magnetic field created by the superconducting electromagnets keeps the protons in a tight beam and
guides them along the way as they travel through beam pipes and finally collide.
(d) LHC’s powerful electromagnets carry almost as much current as a bolt of lightning; they must be kept chilled.

47. Consider following statements about latest upgrade in LHC

I This is the LHC’s third run, it will operate round-the-clock for four years at unprecedented energy levels of
3 tera electron volts. (An electron volt is the energy given to an electron by accelerating it through 1 volt of
electric potential difference).
II Scientists are aiming to be delivering 1.6 billion proton-proton collisions per second” for the ATLAS and
CMS experiments.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

48. A decade ago, CERN had announced to the world the discovery of which of the following during the LHC’s
first run?
(a) Higgs boson (b) Crize Tig (c) Jason boson (d) Zak Timb

49. The LHC has already discovered the -

(a) pentaquark (b) three new tetraquarks
(c) Both of the above (d) None of the above

50. Which of the following country has signed a pact to supply state-of-the-art tech for Kudankulam Nuclear Power
Plant?
(a) Israel (b) France (c) Russia (d) USA

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 13 of 44
 Passage (Q.51-Q.55): External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar met Chinese Foreign Minister and State
Councillor Wang Yi on Thursday (July 7) at the G20 Foreign Ministers Meeting. On the sidelines of the two-
day meeting that concluded on July 8 in Bali, Indonesia, the two ministers discussed border issues. The 17th
G20 Heads of State and Government Summit will happen in November in Bali. After Indonesia, India will
assume the presidency of G20 from December 2022.
The G20 was formed in 1999 in the backdrop of the financial crisis of the late 1990s that hit East Asia and
Southeast Asia in particular. Its aim was to secure global financial stability by involving middle-income
countries. Together, the G20 countries include 60 per cent of the world’s population, 80 per cent of global GDP,
and 75 per cent of global trade.
The G20 has no permanent secretariat. The agenda and work are coordinated by representatives of the G20
countries, known as [X], who work together with the finance ministers and governors of the central banks. India
recently said ex-NITI Aayog CEO [Y] would be the G20 Sherpa after Piyush Goyal. “On the advice of the G7
Finance Ministers, the G20 Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors began holding meetings to discuss
the response to the global financial crisis that occurred,” the G20 website says. Since 1999, an annual meeting
of finance ministers has taken place. The first G20 Summit took place in 2008 in Washington DC, US. In addition
to Summits, the Sherpa meetings (that help in negotiations and building consensus), and other events are also
organised throughout the year. Each year, the presidency invites guest countries.

51. Which of the following will correctly replace [X] from the above passage?
(a) Sherpa (b) Knights (c) Missilis (d) Honos

52. Which of the following statements is not correct about G20?

(a) It is an informal group formed in 1999 by 19 countries and the European Union (EU), with representatives
from the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank.
(b) Mexico is a member of the G20.
(c) Brazil was supposed to be the "20th" member, but dropped out at the last minute due to political issues at
the time.
(d) The G-20 does not have fixed seats, and the secretariat changes annually between the countries that host
and chair the group.

53. Consider following statements about

I Members are divided into 5 groups (India belongs to Group 2 along with Russia, South Africa and Turkey).
II The G-20 agenda still depends heavily on the guidance of Finance Ministers and central Governors.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and I (d) Neither I nor II

54. Troika is made up of India, Indonesia and

(a) France (b) Italy (c) Germany (d) Turkey

55. Which of the following will correctly replace [Y] from the above passage?
(a) Parameswaran Iyer (b) Amitabh Kant
(c) Rao Inderjit Singh (d) Suman Berry

Passage (Q.56-Q.60): Parliamentary Standing Committee on Law and Justice, headed by veteran BJP leader
Sushil Kumar Modi, has recommended substantial changes to the Mediation Bill, meant for institutionalisation
of mediation and establishment of the Mediation Council of India. The panel cautioned against making pre-
litigation mediation compulsory and warned the Centre against the provision to give higher courts the power to
frame rules for mediation. Sources in the panel confirmed after a meeting here on Monday that the members
deliberated upon 20 key issues in the Bill, including the “mandatory and coercive nature of pre-litigation
mediation.” A member in the panel told that making pre-litigation mediation mandatory may actually result in
delaying of cases and may prove to be an additional tool in hands of truant litigants to delay the disposal of

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 14 of 44
 cases. “We felt that not only pre-litigation mediation should be made optional but also be introduced in a phased
manner instead of introducing it with immediate effect for all civil and commercial disputes. As a starting point,
the challenges faced in implementing pre-litigation mediation under the Commercial Courts Act, 2015, should
be studied before mandating it across other case categories,” he said. In this background, the panel is learnt to
have recommended that the compulsory provision of pre-litigation mediation should be reconsidered and it
should be offered as an option to only those who are willing to mediate.

56. Which of the following statements is not correct?

(a) The purpose of this bill is to settle civil or commercial disputes through mediation after obtaining court or
court approval.
(b) After two mediation sessions, one side can withdraw from mediation.
(c) The arbitration process must be completed within 180 days and the parties can extend it by another 180 days.
(d) The India Mediation Council will be established to regulate the entire process.

57. Consider following statements about recommendations made by the panel

I It recommended that pre-trial mediation be mandatory and phased in, rather than immediately introducing
mediation in all civil and commercial disputes.
II If you conduct pretrial mediation under the Commercial Courts Act of 2015, you must investigate it before
it becomes mandatory in other categories of cases.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II

58. The panel was against which of the following clause of the draft which gives power to the supreme court or the
High court to make laws of pre-litigation according to them?
(a) clause 24th (b) clause 25th (c) clause 26th (d) clause 27th

59. The Legal Services Authorities Act was passed in ______________.

(a) 1987 (b) 1990 (c) 1993 (d) 1997

60. Who is the current minister of Law and Justice in India?

(a) Shri Gajendra Singh Shekhawat (b) Shri Kiren Rijiju
(c) Shri Mahendra Nath Pandey (d) Shri Anurag Singh Thakur
Passage (Q.61-Q.65): With a renewed emphasis on the protection and well-being of the environment, five new
Indian sites have been recognised as wetlands of international importance, as part of the Ramsar Convention.
Bhupender Yadav, the Union Cabinet Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change took to Twitter to
make the official announcement, writing, “The emphasis PM Shri @narendramodi ji has put on environmental
protection and conservation has led to a marked improvement in how India treats its wetlands.” To understand
what this recognition means, one must first know what a Ramsar site is. It is essentially a wetland of international
importance under the Ramsar Convention, which is also known as the ‘Convention on Wetlands’ — an
intergovernmental environmental treaty established by UNESCO in [1], and named after the city of Ramsar in
Iran, where the convention was signed that year.

61. Which of the following has been redacted by [1]?

(a) 1965 (b) 1968 (c) 1971 (d) 1974
62. Out of the five newly added wetlands, -
(a) three are in MP, one each in Mizoram and Tamil Nadu.
(b) three are in Tamil Nadu, one each in Mizoram and MP.
(c) two each are in Tamil Nadu and MP, and one in Mizoram.
(d) two each are in Mizoram and MP, and one in Tamil Nadu.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 15 of 44
63. Which of the following can’t be a parameter for a geographical entity to be a wetland?
(a) A temporary area of marsh
(b) An artificial piece of peatland
(c) Fen with flowing water
(d) Marine water area, whose depth at low tide is approx 6.5 meters

64. Who out of the following has compiled the National Wetland Inventory and Assessment?
(a) ISRO (b) GSI (c) IWAI (d) IMD

65. Out of all wetlands in India, which type is spread over the largest area?
(a) Rivers/streams (b) Reservoirs/barrages
(c) Inter-tidal mudflats (d) Tanks/ponds

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 16 of 44
 SECTION - C: LEGAL REASONING

Directions (Q.66-Q.105): Read the comprehension and answer the questions:

Passage (Q.66-Q.70): Due process is a concept much needed in India. While recognised as a constitutional
standard, the conversation around executive action, especially police action, is mostly around a rights-based
framework. To put it simply, the conversation focuses on substantive rights such as liberty, privacy and freedom
and broad declarations regarding these rights, rather than an engagement with the minutiae of the criminal justice
process. The recent judgement of the Supreme Court, mainly on the constitutionality of the post-2015
amendments to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, is notable in this respect. The petitioners, about
250 of them, did not challenge the entirety of the statute, but the exceptions that this Act carved out from normal
criminal processes under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
On the definition of money laundering, the apex court clarified that Section 3 of the PMLA, which states that
anyone “involved in any process or activity connected with the proceeds of crime and projecting it as untainted
property” needs to be read as anyone “involved in any process or activity connected with the proceeds of crime
or projecting it as untainted property This, the court added, meant that even concealment, possession, acquisition
or use of proceeds of crime will amount to money laundering.
The PMLA, under which the Enforcement Directorate investigates and prosecutes the offence of money
laundering, has some major departures from normal criminal procedure. ED officers are empowered to record
admissible statements, investigation, arrest, have additional powers of search and seizure, bail , subject to
determination by the Adjudicating Authority under the Act, and there are additional restrictions on grant of bail.
All these and certain other aspects of the Act were challenged to circumscribe the powers of the Enforcement
Directorate and its officers.
The Supreme Court has upheld all these aspects, stating that the PMLA is a code dealing with money laundering
and ED officers investigating under this Act are not police officers, and as such, not bound by the restrictions
applicable to the police under the Code of Criminal Procedure. Reinforcement by the Supreme Court of a
predicate offence is going to help in circumscribing the misuse of the ED’s power.

66. Construing to the passage above, which of the interpretation is the most correct?
I. Safeguards have been deemed by the Supreme Court to prevent unlawful arrest by ED to be sufficient to
combat any misuse.
II. While affirming EDs powers, the court has however reiterated the procedural limitations of this Act,
including the necessity of a predicate offence before a prosecution for money laundering can be launched.
III. Court is of the view that misuse of penal powers is unfortunately by itself not a ground for declaring a law
as unconstitutional.
IV. The clear reinforcement by the Supreme Court of the necessity of a predicate offence is going to help in
circumscribing the misuse of the ED’s power.
(a) I, and IV
(b) II ONLY
(c) II and IV
(d) IV

67. The Enforcement Directorate on Sunday arrested six Bangladeshi nationals during cross-border money
laundering case investigation. As per reports, some of them were "disguised" as Indians with fake IDs. The
arrested included the "mastermind" of the group, Kumar Halder, accused of perpetrating a bank fraud in the
neighboring country to the tune of 10,000 crores Bangladeshi taka. Choose the correct statement.
(a) Since the accused are refugees rather than Indians, the ED cannot arrest the six people without prior approval.
(b) There is a prima facie case of cross-border money laundering against the accused.
(c) Since the accused were arrested solely for the purpose of investigation for a case related with money
laundering, the arrest by the Enforcement Directorate is legal under PMLA.
(d) The arrested suspect was a convicted felon accused of bank fraud in a nearby country of 10,000 crores
Bangladeshi taka. As a result, there is a case of money laundering, and the arrest is lawful.
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 17 of 44
68. A famous Hollywood actor was arrested by a police officer in connection with a case in which it was alleged
that he was found selling and possessing illegal drugs on a star cruise. The ED requested that the matter be
transferred to them because they have the right to investigate any process or activity involving the proceeds of
crime and projecting it as untainted property." Under what circumstances will the transfer of case be said to be
valid?
(a) Even if it has been proven that the matter is not within the jurisdiction of the ED but has been validated by
the Adjudicating Authority under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act.
(b) The adjudication authority determines that the matter should be forwarded to the Enforcement Directorate
in accordance with the Prevention of Money Laundering Act.
(c) The matter in question is disputed, but the transfer has been validated by the Adjudicating Authority under
the Act,
(d) The enforcement directorate can directly claim charge of the matter from the police if the arrest in question
is covered under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act.

69. The Petitioner was arrested on July 20, 2009, and was granted bail the same day. Despite the fact that the charge-
sheet was filed on December 9, 2016, he was not arrested until February 14, 2019 on determination by
Adjudicating Authority. It has thus been contended before the Court that this goes against Supreme Court
precedent, which states that if the accused was not arrested during the course of the inquiry and cooperated with
the investigation, there is no need for arrest once the charge-sheet is filed. However, following a lengthy
investigation, the petitioner was arrested in 2019. As per the ED investigation he was found guilty. Decide
whether the argument of the petitioner is valid?
(a) The accused has been given extensive freedom during the investigation. As a result, he can no longer claim
that there is no need for arrest after the charge-sheet is filed.
(b) The accused in this case is correct and should be released because he cooperated with the inquiry.
(c) The accused cannot be exempted from the criminal justice system as act is in accordance with law and hence
petitioner claim cannot be accepted.
(d) The accuser’s claim was founded on due process, which must be followed in all criminal trials. As a result,
true.

70. The Enforcement Directorate on Thursday arrested Chitra, the former managing director of the National Stock
Exchange (NSE), in connection with a money laundering probe related to the alleged illegal phone tapping of
NSE employees during 2009-17. Ms. Chitra was previously in judicial custody in the NSE co-location “scam”
case. Based on a First Information Report (FIR) registered recently by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI),
the ED has initiated its probe under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act and arrested her. She alleged that
the case belongs to be tried by and under penal laws and not under PMLA. And thus her arrest is illegal. Choose
the correct statement.
(a) Since the arrest was made under the PMLA, Chitra's claim in the current case would be dismissed.
(b) Ms. Chitra's arrest under the PMLA violates due process, and she should be given the opportunity to be
heard.
(c) Ms. Chitra was arrested on suspicion of money laundering under the PMLA, for which the ED deviated
significantly from standard criminal process.
(d) Ms Chitra's arrest is illegal since it violates the Supreme Court's ruling on the validity of the post-2015
modifications to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 18 of 44
 Passage (Q.71-Q.75): Ingredients of attempt include guilty intention to commit an offence, some act done
towards the commitment of the crime and the act must fall short of the completed offence. Therefore, the
offender's moral guilt is the same as in the case of an actual crime.
The Proximity Rule states that the act or a series of act, in order to be designated as an attempt to commit an
offence, must be sufficiently proximate to the accomplishment of the intended substantive offence. Proximity is
a linkage between time and action or to the intention. It is applied in the cases third stage that is of attempt. It
primarily focuses on whether a person is 'dangerously close' to complete the crime or 'so near' to the result that
the danger of success is very high.
Locus Poenitentiae: This is a doctrine used to determine when an act is merely preparation rather than when can
an act be an attempt. Hence, the doctrine of Locus Poenitentiae says that when an act is such that there is ample
time with the accused to choose whether to commit such crime or not; and is within the control of that person.
The intender may change his path or may fear the consequences, if the act is in control of the intender to not to
commit the offence, then it is said to be mere preparation and not an attempt. Hence, it is not punishable under
penal law.
Equivocality Test: This test is a combination of the above two tests. This test requires the unequivocal intention
through the act done which is considered to be fulfilled beyond a reasonable doubt that the end is towards the
crime intended.

71. Meer and his classmates carried firecrackers inside the school, which is against the rules. The gang planned to
humiliate Meera by setting fire to the crakers’ right when she gets inside the washroom. Meer held a matchstick
and a firecracker in his hand, ready to light the firecrackers. Will Meer face charges for attempting to commit a
crime?
(a) Meer will be held responsible for the act of attempting a crime because he had not yet made a successful
attempt in furtherance of his intention to commit a crime.
(b) Meer will not be made responsible because he has not yet committed the crime though has intention and
hence will not be held responsible for attempting to commit a crime.
(c) Meer will be held accountable for attempting to commit a crime since there is a clear relationship between
time and action or intent to commit the crime.
(d) Meer will not be held accountable since he did not had the intent to conduct an offence and did not take any
effort to carry it out.

72. Meer and his classmates brought fire crackers into the school, which is against the rules. The plan was for the
gang to humiliate Meera by lighting firecrackers exactly when she entered the restroom. Meer was holding a
matchstick and a firecracker, preparing to light the firecrackers. They light the matchstick when the school
headmaster came, and caught them red handed and hence they did not light the fire cracker. Will Meer now face
charges for attempting to commit the crime under equivocality test?
(a) Yes, He will be held accountable since there is now an indirect link between his actions and the intent to
commit the crime.
(b) No, because the headmaster caught them red-handed, they did not complete the crime and hence are not
liable.
(c) Yes, because Meer's act of igniting the firecracker proves beyond reasonable doubt that he had the intent to
commit an offence and took some action to facilitate the crime's commission.
(d) No, because he would be accountable if he had lighted the firecracker, but not otherwise.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 19 of 44
73. Zeeshan was the owner of Leela Filling Station, and the other accused are Leela Filling Station employees. The
officer-in-charge of Dholakpur police station claimed that on 16.4.2020, he was on patrol with constables. About
3 A.M. when the patrolling party reached near Leela Filling Station, Dholakpur. they noticed a tanker and some
people standing nearby. The officer-in-charge asked the driver to stop the jeep. The persons who were standing
near the tanker started running away they were chased and caught. When asked, they revealed their identities.
When the officer-in-charge arrived near tanker no. WB-11-8693, he saw that Kerosene oil was being loaded in
an underground tanker. He also detected the odour of kerosene oil from the tanker’s leaving location. The officer
in charge wanted documentation, but the employees apprehended were unable to show any documents connected
to the oil in the tanker vehicle. Adulteration charges were brought against the accused i.e. employees. In his
defence, he stated that the allegations of committing a crime should be dropped because they did not sell the
adulterated substance, they were mere at attempt stage. Choose the correct statement for accountability of
accused.
(a) All of the accused, along with Zeeshan, will face charges of adulteration rather than attempting to sell
adulterated goods.
(b) The accused will be charged with attempting to commit adulteration because the police officer discovered
evidence that led him to believe there was kerosene mixing in the petro/diesel tank.
(c) The accused will be held liable for only attempting to commit a crime but failed to do so since the adulterated
goods were not sold.
(d) As there was kerosene mixed in the petro/diesel tank, the accused will be held accountable for adulteration
and no charges will be withdrawn.

74. Assume, in the above-mentioned situation, that the police officer confiscates the vehicle carrying Kerosene at
the entry to the Leela filling station. Choose the statement that whether accused can be liabile in the current state
of facts?
(a) The accused will be held liable for attempting to commit a crime rather than committing a crime because no
act was taken toward the commission of the crime.
(b) The accused will be held liable for attempted adulteration because the act is still under the intender's control.
(c) The accused will not be held guilty for even attempting to commit the adulteration offence because the act
is under the control of the intender to not commit the offence.
(d) The accused will not be held accountable because the mere seizure of the truck filled with kerosene does not
suggest the accuser’s intent to commit a crime.

75. Zeeshan received an order for high-quality diesel and requested the customer to visit the next day for taking the
delivery. Zeeshan was caught mixing fuel and kerosene that night and was charged the next day. He said that all
they did was just preparation. The court noted that when Zeeshan knew the client was coming the next day, the
accused attempted to add diesel and kerosene at night so that they would not be caught or seen by the customer.
And he did so to act in a way to cheat that diesel was of good quality. Choose a statement that provides for the
court's accurate judgement in the current case in accordance with proximity rule.
(a) The accused will be found guilty of preparation rather than attempt because they did not sell the adulterated
good to the consumer.
(b) That the accused will not be held liable as he is only at the preparatory stage, which is not punishable.
(c) That the accused will be held liable under because the act of mixing was such that the accused had ample
time to choose whether or not to commit such crime; and is within accuser’s control.
(d) The court will hold the accused accountable as the acts done by the accused is sufficiently proximate to the
accomplishment of the intended substantive offence.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 20 of 44
 Passage (Q.76-Q.80): In certain circumstances a person who has suffered an injury will not be able to get
damages from another for the reason his own negligence has contributed to his injury; every person is expected
to take care reasonable care of himself. Thus, when the plaintiff by his own want of care contributes to the
damage caused by the negligence or wrongful conduct of the defendant, he is considered to be guilty of
contributory negligence. It does not mean breach of a duty towards other party but it means absence of due care
on his part about his own safety.
At Common Law, contributory negligence was a complete defense, and the negligent plaintiff could not claim
any compensation from the defendant. The court modified this rule and introduced the rule of Last Opportunity"
or "Last Chance." The last opportunity rule may be stated as: "When an accident happens through the combined
negligence of two persons, he alone is liable to the other who had the last opportunity of avoiding the accident
by reasonable care". The rule was further defined in the case of British Columbia Electric Co. v. Loach (1916)
1A.C. 719. "a defendant, who had not in fact the last opportunity to avoid the accident, will nevertheless be liable
if he would have that opportunity but for his negligence" (Constructive Last Opportunity).
The rule of last opportunity also was very unsatisfactory because the party, whose act of negligence was earlier,
altogether escaped the responsibility. The law was changed in England. The Law Reform (Contributory
Negligence) Act, 1945 provides that when both parties are negligent and they have contributed to some damage,
the damage will be apportioned as between them according to the degree of their fault. The same is considered
to be the position in India as well.

76. Davies, a dustman, was travelling on the municipal dust lorry's ladder despite being told not to. On a bend in the
road, an omnibus attempted to pass the lorry. It would have succeeded if the lorry driver hadn't suddenly moved
to the right into the path of the omnibus without providing a hand signal or glancing in his mirror. Davies was
hurt in the crash and later died as a result of it. His widow filed a claim for damages against the defendant, who
joined the lorry driver as a third party. Decide
(a) That the drivers of both the lorry and the 'bus were negligent is clear.
(b) Though the dustman had no right to be on the ladder, but the lorry driver might have foreseen that he would
be there and the omnibus driver actually saw him. Sight and foresight establish duty; and hence a case of
compensation exists.
(c) Standing on the ladder constitutes contributory negligence as it was contrary to orders, hence the claim of
compensation will be proportional.
(d) No duty was owed to the 'bus driver, and since negligence implies a .breach of duty, therefore there was no
negligence.

77. Monty, a beggar, has created a permanent home opposite a popular area in Kanpur chowk, rangeela paan shop.
Hemant, who used to come every day after supper for a pan, used to tell the shopkeeper, "Why don't you tell
Monty to stop sleeping on the pavement after drinking alcohol?" It is really risky. He made the statement in light
of the recent hit-and-run accident in which ten people were killed. The following day, hemant was drunk and
driving when he stopped rashly at the panshop, and he unintentionally drove over Monty's legs. Select the
appropriate statement by choosing a statement proving a conclusive answer.
(a) Only the defendant in this instance, hemant, will be held liable for the injuries sustained by the plaintiff,
Monty.
(b) It was a case of contributory negligence and the damage will be apportioned as between them according to
the degree of their fault.
(c) Monty's lack of care contributes to the damage caused by Hemant's negligence and wrongful conduct, and
hence he is considered to be guilty of contributory negligence.
(d) Both will be found liable under the contributory negligence rule.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 21 of 44
78. Monty, a beggar, has created a permanent home opposite a popular area in Kanpur chowk, rangeela paan shop.
Hemant, who used to come every day after supper for a pan, used to tell the shopkeeper, "Why don't you tell
Monty to stop sleeping on the pavement after drinking alcohol?" It is really risky. He made the statement in light
of the recent hit-and-run accident in which ten people were killed. Suppose, if Hemant is not inebriated while
driving and yet crashes onto Monty owing to a failure of the car brakes. Decide whether hemant will be liable in
the present case under last opportunity rule.
(a) No, where there is a last chance which is a clear one in this case with hemant, it is in accord with
commonsense to load full legal responsibility on to the person who possesses it and fails to take it.
(b) Yes, where there is a last chance which is a clear one, it is in accord with commonsense to load full legal
responsibility on to the person who possesses it and fails to take it.
(c) No, as failure of breaks was not under the control of hemnat though a case of constructive last opportunity
can be considered.
(d) Yes, as the defendant hemant, who had not in fact had the last opportunity to avoid the accident, will
nevertheless be liable if he would have that opportunity but for his negligence.

79. Miya was a lady driver who used to help teach learners how to drive. Miya teaches them in her own personal
car, having customized control over the steering and brakes into her hand. One, jiya hired Miya for driving
lesson, but put down a condition that she wants to learn driving from her personal car and not from Miya’s car.
Miya consented, but charged Jiya three times more. Jiya crashed with an electric pole alongside the road on the
first day, inflicting two fractures in left hand of Miya. Can Miya claim damages for injuries caused by Jiya's
negligence?
(a) Because the accident was caused by Jiya's negligence, a claim for compensation is appropriate.
(b) No, because Miya taking responsibility for instructing learners to drive will be considered contributory
negligence.
(c) Yes, even though the case points to both Miya and Jiya's contributory negligence, Miya is entitled to a part
of the compensation from Jiya.
(d) No, because Miya, while not negligent, agreed to the risk of sitting next to a learner driver. As a result, will
be unable to seek compensation.

80. Shankar was driving without a helmet on National Highway 7, which is infamous for many fatal crashes. The
transport ministry issued an advisory requiring all drivers of two-wheeled motor vehicles to wear helmets while
driving, especially in rainy weather when roads become slippery and there is a high chance of a road accident.
Shankar rushed out the house and neglected to put his helmet on. Because the road was foggy, the drivers couldn't
even see whether any vehicles were approaching from the front; there was no visibility. Shankar was hit by a
truck coming from the wrong direction. Shankar filed a lawsuit for damages incurred against the truck driver for
driving in the wrong lane and crashing into him, suffering him injuries. Decide the liability under contributory
negligence.
(a) Since the driver was not wearing a helmet, he will be held accountable only to the extent of his culpability
under the rule of last opportunity.
(b) Under the last opportunity and constructive last opportunity rules, both the Shankar and the truck driver will
be held liable.
(c) Shankar cannot be said to be at fault for not wearing helmets and so sustaining injuries, he will only be
entitled to claim damages proportionately, according to the rule.
(d) Because Shankar was at blame for not wearing helmets and so sustaining injuries thus both will be liable,
damage will be distributed between them based on the degree of their negligence.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 22 of 44
 Passage (Q.81-Q.85): Allegations of snooping or tapping or illegal access to messages and calls of political
opponents have been made by every party in opposition against the ruling party in every country and there is
nothing new about it. Indian political scenario is no different. While, the safeguards provided under the governing
laws are adequate to prevent their misuse, oversight on legitimate use thereof is lacking. When people are
conscious of their rights to privacy and judiciary is also proactively protecting fundament rights of citizen, some
mechanism of oversight has been developed over spy agencies without compromising national security. A
humble suggestion of forming a committee to have oversight over affairs of the State agencies having powers of
interception of computer resources and large budgets for the matter. However, since the Hon'ble Supreme Court
is already seized of the issue it is appropriate to wait for presentation and consideration of report of the Committee
and thereafter decision by the Supreme Court. Till then media trial will continue to hold the field.

While normal inception of phone calls and messages and emails are permissible within domains of law. Tapping
by public authorities for investigation falls in domain of law specially when it is for interest of public. However,
at times these legal methods are not sufficient or do not yield desired results and in such cases experienced
officers out of zeal use spyware like Pegasus, which is generally used by National spy agencies. For National
spy agencies it is common to use spyware like Pegasus on their day-to-day operations for legitimate purposes
but when such use is for purpose other than National security, the same is not permissible. Unfortunately, even
for democracies like India, budgets &expenses and activities of National spy agencies like RAW are not available
for scrutiny by the Parliament and no one knows on what activity for buying which service, tax payers money
has been spent. The whole operations of National spy agencies are opaque and out of bounds for watch dogs,
mostly for legitimate reasons but this may lead to misuse of power. However, when the line between legitimate
national security and political reasons gets blurred, it beginning of violation of Constitutional mandate and oath
by political masters.
81. The appellant Mr.R.S. Jethani, a coroner of Mumbai was indulged in obtaining a bribe of Rs. 2,00,000 from a
doctor whom he threatened to falsely accuse in the case involving the negligent death of the patient. The doctor
was not interested in paying the bribe and approached the Anti-Corruption Bureau of Police. The police officials
traced the call between Jethani and the doctor regarding the discussion of the amount to be paid and the location
at which the transaction shall take place. All of this was done without any intimation of Jethani and on the
account of the statements made on the phone call, charges were framed against him. Is the act of tapping the
phone calls by the police valid?
(a) Another person listening in on a conversation was a technical process and in respect of the admissibility of
the evidence and hence valid.
(b) The whole act of tracing and filing charges was deemed as legitimate on the basis that there was no element
of compulsion or coercion in which case the act might be violated, thus valid.
(c) The act done by the officials against Malkhani was wrong and that this power shall be used sparingly under
proper direction and circumspection.
(d) Though illegal but the evidence stands correct for the prosecution of the appellant Mr. Jethani.
82. Madhu married Sushant in April 2019, and the marriage was going well until Sushant began addressing her
concerns about Madhu's character. He continues to check her phone, whatsapp chats with her friends, her parents,
and all lines are crossed when he covertly placed a recording app in Madhu's phone and listened to all telephonic
conversations in his phone. Madhu filed a lawsuit before the Supreme Court for breach of her fundamental right
to privacy after her husband tapped her conversation with her friends and parents. Choose the correct statement.
(a) The act of the husband tapping his wife’s conversation, which she was making with her friends and parents
was deemed to be illegal and this act was said to be infringing wife’s constitutional right to privacy.
(b) The husband has resorted to illegal means, breaking the trust between the husband and wife and making the
institution of marriage redundant.
(c) The telephonic conversations are an important part of a person’s, this shall not be recorded by immoral
means. The tapes become inadmissible in the courts as it was obtained unconstitutionally.
(d) The case calls in serious concerns over violation of right to privacy an individual and unauthorized tapping
of phone calls and messages.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 23 of 44
83. The petitioner claimed that his removal from the position of head constable was improper and violated the
principle of natural justice because no departmental inquiry was undertaken and the accused was fired without
being given an opportunity to present his case. Tabla, a police constable, allegedly solicited a favor from a
hardened criminal over the phone. On the basis of this conversation, the constable was fired without any
departmental inquiry. This conversation was submitted to the court on a CD, and the source was not disclosed,
nor was the recorded conversation provided to the petitioner. The Court was confronted with a legal question
regarding whether or not the recorded telephonic conversation was legal, which formed the basis of dismissal
without the establishment of an inquiry.
(a) This act had infringed Article 21 of the Constitution of India and the source of telephonic conversation was
not verified by any forensic expert thus the evidence cannot be held admissible.
(b) The respondents should have conducted a departmental enquiry against the petitioner and give him a proper
opportunity of hearing the and follow the rules established by the procedure.
(c) The recorded conversation, though violating the right to privacy, falls within the permissible domain of law.
(d) The procedure established by law should be followed while breaching the privacy of an individual and
keeping it secretive because of the sensitive nature of the information gathered.

84. Which of the following, if true, would seriously undermine the author’s argument?
I. The relation between the ‘right to privacy’ and ‘personal liberty’ was distinctly observed by the court of law,
along with the necessities to tap communications of the individuals.
II. The need of safeguarding the rights of the individuals and maintaining privacy is paramount.
III. The court has established a fair and just procedure to keep the checks and balances so that no misuse of
power takes place.
IV. No person shall be deprived of life and personal liberty and an exception to be made only in the circumstances
where the law provides the procedure for the same.
(a) I & II
(b) III
(c) IV
(d) II, III, IV

85. The Mumbai police have been informed that a meeting will be held at the Motel Taj Mumbai in their room
number 202 with a well-known criminal, Jamun Bhai, against whom the police have been unable to obtain
evidence. Though all hotels are not permitted by law to share customer information with anybody, police
authorities, with the assistance of staff and management, placed telephone recorders and tape recorders in Jamun
Bhai's room, claiming it to be an issue of national and public interest. Jamun instantly suspected something was
wrong and phoned the police, accusing the hotel of violating his privacy by placing telephone recorders and tape
recorders in his room. Make a decision on the case that has come to your bench.
(a) The aforementioned situation is a blatant infringement of an individual's right to privacy. As a result, the
court will rule in favour of Jamun bhai.
(b) As it was a case of national and public interest, the court, while accepting the plea of violation of right to
privacy, will not rule in favour of Jamun Bhai since the act was permissible.
(c) Although the police violated the hotel's rules, it is permissible because it was done in the national interest.
(d) The court will rule in favor of jamun Bhai’s plea and issue an order accordingly.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 24 of 44
 Passage (Q.86-Q.90): “The grant or refusal to grant bail lies within the discretion of the Court subject to laws
enforced in India. The grant or denial is regulated, to a large extent, by the facts and circumstances of each
particular case. But at the same time, right to bail is not to be denied merely because of the sentiments of the
community against the accused. The primary purposes of bail in a criminal case are to relieve the accused of
imprisonment, to relieve the State of the burden of keeping him, pending the trial, and at the same time, to keep
the accused constructively in the custody of the Court, whether before or after conviction, to assure that he will
submit to the jurisdiction of the Court and be in attendance thereon whenever his presence is required”
s. 439 confer on the High Court and the Court of Session power to cancel bail. Section 439(2) The Code of
Criminal Procedure makes clear provisions for cancellation of bail and taking accused back in custody. The
power of cancellation of bail can be resorted to broadly in the following two situations: (i) On merits of a case
mainly on the ground of the order granting bail being perverse, or passed without due application of mind or in
violation of any substantive or procedural law; and (ii) On the ground of misuse of liberty after the grant of bail
or other supervening circumstances. Bail in the first type of cases can be cancelled by superior courts only,
whereas in the second category of cases bail can be cancelled by the very court which may have granted bail.
The bail can be cancelled where (i) the accused misuses his liberty by indulging in similar criminal activity, (ii)
interferes with the course of investigation, (iii) attempts to tamper with evidence or witnesses, (iv) guilty of
threatening witnesses or indulges in similar activities which would hamper smooth investigation, (v) there is
likelihood of his fleeing to another country, (vi) attempts to make himself scarce by going underground or
becoming unavailable to the investigating agency, (vii) attempts to place himself beyond the reach of his surety,
etc. The above grounds are illustrative and not exhaustive."

86. There were 20 FIRs registered against the Accused persons for offences punishable under Sections 409, 420,
467, 468, 471, 114, 34 and 120(B) of the IPC. All the offences accused were charged of are non bailable. The
main accused person in these FIRs being the Vice-Chairman of the Shree Vikas Cooperative Bank Limited
('Applicant Bank') was accused of having sanctioned different loans for his relatives without proper security
even as the relatives (other accused) failed to repay the loan with interest in due time. Subsequently, out of 15
Accused persons, 4 persons expired while the remaining Accused was granted anticipatory bail. The Applicant-
Bank averred that the main Accused should not be granted bail he is planning to make himself scarce by going
underground or becoming unavailable to the investigating agency. The court then too ordered for the bail the
main accused. Is the order of the court correct?
(a) Yes, because the court has the discretion to grant bail, and hence the court's order is lawful.
(b) No, because the court is satisfied with the accuser’s plea for grant of bail.
(c) Yes, because the court has the authority and discretion to grant or deny bail, thus, the order is valid.
(d) No, if there is a slight possibility that the accused may flee from the hands of justice, in which case the court's
order is invalid.

87. Shanta and anuj's family does not have a healthy relationship. Their five-year-old children have seen anuj beating
shanta on a regular basis for failing to complete household chores properly. When Manu and Kanu came from
school one fine day, they were eyewitnesses to their father's murder at the hands of their mother with a sharp
kitchen knife. However, because the testimony of the child witness was not considered conclusive evidence, the
mother was granted bail. The prosecution argued that the mother should not be granted bail or custody of the
children because she can brainwash them. Decide
(a) The court will rule in favour of the prosecution and will deny shanta bail.
(b) The bail will not be revoked because no attempts were made to tamper with the eyewitnesses.
(c) The court will not give shanta bail because the accused can interfere with the evidence and eyewitnesses.
(d) The bail will not be revoked by the court due to the accused's potential for brainwashing the only
eyewitnesses to the crime.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 25 of 44
88. Jeewan was arrested under AFSPA, an act of the Indian Parliament that allows the Indian Armed Forces special
powers to maintain public order in "disturbed areas." The act gives no relief to the accused; the accused cannot
seek bail if arrested under AFSPA. Jeewan argued that the right to bail is a fundamental right that cannot be
denied to any Indian citizen. Considering the arguments, the court granted bail to the accused with the condition
that he appear every week at the Dholakpur police station, submit a bail amount of Rs 1 lakh, and not go beyond
the local permissible limit. Is the court's order valid in light of the fact that the accused complied with the
conditions imposed by the court while granting bail?
(a) No, because the court's order contradicts the provisions of AFSPA, which provide no provision for grant of
bail.
(b) Yes, because the court order is invalid because it violates substantive law, i.e., AFSPA.
(c) No, but the court's order is lawful since it is an individual's right to seek bail and it should not be rejected
just because of community emotions against the accused.
(d) Yes, because the court's action violates a substantive or procedural law.

89. Continuing with the similar circumstances as stated above, the accused while out on bail was charged for the
rape of “X”. Now, it was case of the state and it argued for the cancellation of the bail of the accused on the
ground that the accused misused his liberty granted by the court. While the accused contend that he has already
been given bail in the previous matter and hence cannot be arrested. Decide what can be the possible legal
consequence?
(a) The bail may not be revoked on the grounds that the accused abused his freedom by engaging in illegal
behavior.
(b) The said plea would be rejected since the accused cannot utilize bail as a defense in both cases because they
are separate offences.
(c) Since the accused has been involved in criminal activity, the said plea by the state is likely to be accepted.
(d) The accuser’s bail will be revoked on the grounds specified in section 439 (2) of the CrPC.

90. The present appeal was filed by the accused calling out the order of the high court cancelling the bail granted by
the Court of Session on an apprehension that the accused will tamper with the witnesses in evidence. The accused
was charged with mishandling the accounts and selling the company's shares at significantly higher prices to its
shareholders. The accused contended that, given the nature of the case, the high court's ruling cancelling bail
solely on the basis of suspicion of witness tempering the evidence is improper. Decide.
(a) The accuser’s appeal is maintainable because the court cannot deny or rescind bail on the basis of a mere
apprehension that the accused may tamper with the witnesses in evidence.
(b) Even in cases of apprehension, the court has discretion to cancel or refuse an accuser’s bail. As a result, the
high court's decision is upheld.
(c) The appeal filed by the accused in the Supreme Court is valid because the court can cancel the bail if it finds
that the accused is tampering with the witnesses in evidence.
(d) The accuser’s appeal is maintainable because there were supervening circumstances that could result in the
court cancelling the bail.

Passage (Q.91-Q.95): There are two states involved in extradition- the territorial state and the requesting state.
The “territorial state” is where the accused or convict flees to escape the trial or punishment. On the other hand,
the “requesting state” is the one where the offence is or is allegedly committed. The requesting state formally
demands the surrender of the accused or convict through diplomatic channels and in conformity with any treaty.

The principle of reciprocity is well-founded under various aspects of international law. It provides that every act
of favor, respect, benefit or penalty that a country bestows on the citizens or legal entities of another country
should be returned (reciprocated) in the same manner. This principle may also operate for the mutual extradition
of accused persons or convicts of the respective countries.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 26 of 44
 The principle of double criminality provides that the act, for which the accused person or convict is requested to
be extradited by the requesting state, must be a crime in the territorial state as well. The principle of double
jeopardy is also called ‘non-bis in-idem’. It provides that a person who had already been tried and punished
cannot be extradited if the request pertains to the same crime. No criminal tried and convicted once can be
extradited for the same offence, except for the expired period of punishment. The principle of specialty provides
that the requesting state is bound to try or punish the extradited offender only for the offence for which he is
extradited.

91. Neha and Raj decided to relocate to Iraq to expand Raj's business, they were a happily married couple. The
couple had been granted a two-year business visa by the authorities. Raj indulged in illegal business dealing so
much so that he murdered two of his rivals within a span of 2 months. The court of Iran filed charges of culpable
homicide amounting to murder under Iraq Penal code. Raj, the applicant, filed an extradition request so that he
could be prosecuted in India, because both states are signatories to the Berne Convention, which states that every
act of favor, respect, benefit, or penalty bestowed on citizens or legal entities of another country should be
returned (reciprocated) in the same manner. It is also known to the court that both countries consider culpable
homicide amounting to murder a crime under their respective penal codes. Decide, whether or not Raj’s request
be permitted?
(a) Since the principle of reciprocity allows member states to reciprocate favor even in circumstances of mutual
extradition, Raj's request will be granted.
(b) The court will not consider Raj's request because it is not up to the accused to request extradition in the first
place.
(c) Raj's plea would be denied since the crime was committed on Iranian territory and the motion to extradite
the convict to India is invalid.
(d) Raj's punishment has been decreed by an Iranian court, and hence the extradition request filed by petitioner
Raj will not be permitted.

92. Continuing with the same circumstances as earlier, the Iranian court dismissed the applicant's case and sentenced
him to 24 years in prison without the possibility of parole. When Raj returns to India, he is arrested again because
murder is a felony in India as well, and the Indian penal law provides for a punishment of life imprisonment
with parole. Choose the correct statement.
(a) The Indian government cannot arrest and prosecute Raj again because he has already served his sentence in
Iraq.
(b) According to the principle of double criminality, the state of India can arrest and prosecute Raj.
(c) Cannot determine as both facts and passage lacks sufficient information to reach a conclusion.
(d) The state of India has the authority to arrest and prosecute Raj since a criminal who has been tried and
convicted once can be extradited for the same offence, save for the expired period of punishment.

93. A Tunisian national has been extradited from Belgium to the United States. Where he is being prosecuted on
charges of terrorist offences and is liable to life imprisonment. The applicant specifically claimed that extradition
to the United States of America would subject him to treatment that was incompatible with Article 3 of the
Convention, which guarantees the right to a free and fair trial. He contended in this regard that some of the
offences for which his extradition had been granted carried a maximum life prison sentence which was
irreducible de facto, and that if he were convicted he would have no prospect of ever being released. Choose an
argument under which the applicant likely to succeed?
(a) The Court determined that the applicant's life sentence in the United States was irreversible.
(b) In case where the Court ruled that the applicant's life sentence in the United States was irrevocable since
there was suitable method for challenging such a sentence under US law.
(c) Since US law did not provide a sufficient procedure for contesting this type of sentencing, the court will
conclude that his extradition to the US violated Article 3 of the Convention.
(d) The court determined that the crime for which the applicant is convicted is not a crime in the territorial state
and hence the applicant's case is valid.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 27 of 44
94. The case included the extradition of a British citizen to the United States of America to face first-degree murder
charges. The applicant claimed that extradition to the United States would breach Articles 3 and 6 of the
Convention (right to a fair trial), because if convicted in Florida (USA), he would face a mandatory life sentence
without the chance of release. This is the second time the applicant has applied to the Court with regard to his
extradition. The Court determined that extraditing him would not violate Article 3 of the Convention. However,
the applicant was extradited. following the Court's subsequent decisions in “Vinter and Others”, he argued
before national courts that developments in the Court's Article 3 case-law on life sentences without the possibility
of parole were such as to require the re-opening of the proceedings. The UK courts refused to re-open the
proceedings. Make a decision.
(a) In his second application to the Court, the applicant argued that extradition would violate his rights under
Articles 3 and 6 of the Convention, citing current case law.
(b) In his second application to the Court, the applicant argues that extradition would violate Articles 3 and 6 of
the Convention, citing current case law.
(c) The court order extraditing the accused is valid, and the case will not be reopened in this case.
(d) According to developments in the Court's Article 3 case-law on life sentences without the possibility of
parole, the applicant's petition to reopen the case is valid.

95. The applicant was a Mexican national, Rosse who was detained in the United Kingdom. He was arrested at
Heathrow Airport (United Kingdom) in April 2018 in response to a request from the United States for his
provisional arrest. He faces extradition to the United States, where he is wanted on drug trafficking and
distribution allegations. The Court granted an interim remedy to stay the applicant's extradition to the United
States of America on June 12, 2018, pursuant to Rule 39 of the Rules of Court. The UK Government was notified
of the application, and the parties were asked whether his extradition would be in accordance with the
requirements of the Convention. Select the proper statement based on the facts and information offered in the
passage.
(a) It was the applicant's case that his extradition should be prevented since it violated the convention to which
both the requesting and the requested states are parties.
(b) It was the applicant's case that his extradition, if allowed, would result in gross injustice, which is contrary
to the interests of equity.
(c) Since the petitioner is an offender, the court's order is null and void, and his extradition must proceed
immediately.
(d) The court's order is legitimate since extradition must be made in conformity with and only when the
requirements of the Convention are met.

Passage (Q.96-Q.100): It is the essential principle of criminal jurisprudence that crime cannot be committed by
an innocent mind. Mens Rea, the mental element is sine qua non for proving an offence. Whereas the accused
can take the defence of ‘Mistake of fact’ of section 76 and 79 under the chapter of General Exception of IPC.
Section 76 provides the defence, when a person believed himself to be bound by law to perform the act in
question as a result of mistake of fact in good faith , whilst in section 79 provides the same in case the person
believes himself to be justifies by law. Going by the doctrine , Ignorantia facti doth excuse, which means
ignorance of fact is excusable and ignorance includes mistake.

One can take the plea of ignorance of fact( Ignorantia facti doth excuse) but not ignorance of law. Ignorance of
facts is excuses which also includes mistake. Statutorily section 76 and 79 under the chapter of General Exception
of Indian Penal Code, provides about the 'defence of mistake of fact'. The case of State of Orissa v. Ram Bahadur
Thapa is one of the landmark precedent regarding excusing of ignorance of fact. The case relates to a murder of
women by the accused in apprehension of ghost. What constitutes “good faith” and what is the degree of “due
care and attention” under the law have been emphasized in this case. The notion of mistake of fact, which
includes good faith have no standard value. It differs from person to person , basing on the personal intellect of
a person. This case serve as vital precedent on how to adjudicate the bonafideness of a plea of general defence
of Mistake of fact.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 28 of 44
96. Choose the case that best illustrates how the concept of Mistake of law can be applied.
(a) A creditor in order to compel his debtor to discharge the debt takes his goods without his consent;
(b) A sets fire by night to an inhabited house in a large town for the purpose of facilitating robbery and thus
causes the death of a person.
(c) The accused had forged a certificate in order to qualify himself for the examination of Engine Driver.
(d) A kept with himself a rifle all the time believing that a person is allowed to take extreme steps to protect him
or his property in any given case.

97. Two brothers involved in a long property dispute approached justice strange and offered him a bribe in the form
of a certain piece of the land from the disputed property after giving decision in their favor. Justice Strange made
a separate agreement with both parties regarding the share he will receive if they win the matter presented before
him. As a result, when the issue came before his court for a decision, he ended up ruling in favour of the party
that offered him the larger share. The magistrate is charged for taking bribery, a punishable offence under
Prevention of corruption act. The judge is
(a) Not liable for any offence as he has the special immunity under Section 79 of Indian Penal Code.
(b) The magistrate took bribery and mistake of law is no excuse thus will be held liable and cannot take defense
under section 76 of the Indian penal code.
(c) Liable because he exploited the parties and delivered the judgment in a biased manner and not taking decision
as per the law.
(d) Not liable because he gave the fair chance to both the parties to make the settlement with him.

98. Ashish wanted to surprise her younger daughter a gift, so he went in a luxurious car showroom and purchased
her a brand new Jonda CRV. Ashish bought the car with his own money, but in the name of her underage
daughter Pihu. Pihu crashed the car on a busy route. Asish claimed insurance money from the insurance
company. The insurance company maintained that the Ashish could not seek insurance money in guise of his
daughter as a claimant because he purposefully and intentionally presented her minor daughter a motor motor
vehicle, which is a punishable offence under the Motor Vehicle Act. Decide
(a) Based on the facts presented, she received no benefit and the insurance company suffered no loss. As a result,
the accused Ashish will not be held accountable.
(b) Ashish is not entitled to insurance money because he intentionally gave a minor a motor vehicle to drive.
(c) The insurance company's claim is only maintainable if it is proven without question that Ashish purchased
the car for his benefit under the name of his daughter.
(d) The insurance company's claim cannot be upheld since Ashish lacked mens rea and hence cannot be held
accountable for the crime committed.

99. Zeeshan had applied for a master's degree at the University of law in London. The institution has requested that
all candidates submit their Undergraduate degree as well as three letters of recommendation exclusively from
deans or heads of departments. The university also required students to submit a statement of purpose, which
was a brief essay explaining why they chose to pursue this master programme at this particular university.
Zeeshan was unable to have any of his recommendation letters signed by the HODs, so he fabricated a certificate
and was found to have acted illegally. Determine whether zeeshan's can claim defence of mistake of fact in the
current case.
(a) Zeeshan plainly cannot use the defence that mistake of fact because he deliberately committed forgery.
(b) Zeeshan can assert mistake of fact as a viable legal defence for escaping the crime of forgery.
(c) Zesshan is liable because he committed forgery by faking a certificate.
(d) Zesshan cannot be held liable since he has special immunity under Indian penal code section 76.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 29 of 44
100. Ramu was the manager of a food supply cahin industry. he never considered trying his hands at farming his age-
old family farming company. It wasn't until he was fired as a manager for making the error of cancelling a large
order at the last minute. Ramu then began dealing in food grains. The appellant, a food grain dealer, applied for
a licence but received no notification that his application was rejected. He purchased food grains from time to
time and submitted returns to the license department. A food inspector visited his godowns one day and
discovered food grains kept without a license. He was convicted for selling food grains without license as he had
mensrea. Decide
(a) The accused's conviction can be overturned since he lacked mens rea.
(b) The conviction of the accused cannot be said aside as mistake of law is not excusable.
(c) The accused's conviction can be reversed on the grounds that a factual mistake is excusable.
(d) The accused's conviction cannot be set aside since a mistake of fact is excusable but a mistake of law is not.

Passage (Q.101-Q.105): As per the text of Article 226 of the Indian Constitution, High Courts are empowered
to issue writs against “any person or authority” for the enforcement of fundamental rights, or “any other
purpose”. In view of established constitutional law cases, the power of High Courts to issue writs under Article
226 is much broader than the Supreme Court’s powers under Article 32. Indeed, the term “authority” must
receive a liberal construction, as held in cases including Dwarka Nath v. Income Tax Officer (1964) and Andi
Mukta Sadguru v. V.R. Rudani (1989). This is owing to the fact that Article 226 by its design uses a wide
language to enable High Courts to mould reliefs to meet the Indian landscape’s peculiar cases, while also
empowering them to issue writs other than prerogative writs the Supreme Court can decree under Article 32.

The ‘public function’ test, i.e., the proposition that private entities discharging functions characterized as ‘public’
are covered under Article 226, is a product of such a liberal construction. As established by Khamroi, “every
individual retains their right to privacy over personal information, even though that information exists only on a
virtual space.” However, the question as to whether this right to privacy can be enforced through writs against a
private entity such as WhatsApp depends on establishing that WhatsApp performs a ‘public function’.

In fact, to this day, there has never been any instance in India where a private entity was held to discharge a
public function merely because its activities are ‘fundamental’, important, or ‘public’. The entity in question
must discharge said function fully exclusively. Evidently, this is not the case with WhatsApp, since there are
several other similar social media apps which Indian users rely on, including those not owned by its parent
company Facebook.

101. Choose the statement which is correct in respect to the information provided in the passage’s text.
(a) A writ under Article 226 can lie against a “person” if it is a statutory body or performs a public function or
discharges a public or statutory duty.
(b) A Petition under Article 226 is maintainable against a private party which discharges a Public Function.
(c) The standard for imparting constitutional character, and consequently establishing maintainability, seems at
first glance loose at best, and dangerously vague at worst.
(d) In establishing that an organization is discharging a ‘public function’ the function/service provided is closely
related to that which is provided by the State in its sovereign capacity; need to be proven.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 30 of 44
102. The Supreme Court has in the matter of Ramakrishna Mission and ors. v. J.K Ramamna and Ors. was seized of
an appeal from a judgment of the Gauhati High Court, which had declared that the ‘Ramakrishna Mission
Hospital’ , a hospital in Itanagar while not the ‘State’ within the meaning of Article 12, performed a ‘public duty’
and was consequently amenable to writ jurisdiction under Article 226. Choose the statement that provides for a
reasonable conclusion that follows from the given facts and the information presented in the passage.
(a) it was the unique status of the hospital as holding a monopoly in Itanagar; and thus a provider of the public
function of healthcare, that rendered it subject to Article 226.
(b) It was neither party’s case before the Supreme Court that any organization providing a ‘public’ function
could be subject to Article 226.
(c) The specific attributes of the hospital itself, as a performer of public duty, were therefore a crucial factor in
this determination of whether or not the hospital subject to Article 226.
(d) A service voluntarily undertaken cannot be said to be a public duty. Hence the hospital is not amenable to
the writ of article 226.

103. Blue City is a newly established state following its separation from the state of Indiana. To increase the state's
globalisation, libralisation, and privatisation, the newly formed government of Blue City invited tenders across
all states to boost and strengthen the telecom sector at the earliest. Pink telecom was the first contractor to have
close links with the government. Many players afterwards entered the competition. Given the fact that Pink
Telecom was the first to partner with the government, can it be claimed to provide a public function?
(a) Yes, as the first and only company with close ties to the government, pink telecom can be said to perform
public functions.
(b) A public function requires exclusivity, which pink tekecom has in this case. As a result, it is deemed to
perform a public function.
(c) A public function necessitates exclusivity, which the pink telecom lacks, so it cannot be said to be disclosing
a public function.
(d) Because there are other market players on whom the public relies, the pink telecom cannot be regarded to be
disclosing a public function.

104. Following agreement with the central government, the public prosecutor withdrew all cases pending against a
terrorist organization. The aforementioned group has been labeled "proclaimed offenders" due to their role in
the recent Ahmadabad bomb blasting case in which a large number of people were killed in a mall. A public
prosecutor has the authority to withdraw any accusation of prosecution in any case he deems appropriate. This
withdrawal by the public prosecutor Marrie Gold sparked widespread public outcry. A writ of quo warranto has
been issued in opposition to the withdrawal of the prosecution charges against the terrorist. Choose a statement
that best allows for the court's decision in the current case.
(a) The court will rule in favor of the prosecution because the a public prosecutor has the authority to withdraw
any prosecution accusation in any case he considers suitable.
(b) Since the withdrawal was well-thought-out and only took place after due consultation with the central
government, the verdict is likely to favor prosecution.
(c) Because the opposition's claim is valid, the court may, using its writ power, request that the public prosecutor
take his motion back for withdrawal of the prosecution.
(d) The court has power to issue writs against “any person or authority” for the enforcement of fundamental
rights, or “any other purpose”.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 31 of 44
105. Following agreement with the central government, the public prosecutor withdrew all cases pending against a
terrorist organisation. The aforementioned group has been labeled "proclaimed offenders" due to their role in the
recent Ahmadabad bomb blasting acse in which a large number of people were killed in a mall. A public
prosecutor has the authority to withdraw any accusation of prosecution in any case he deems appropriate. This
withdrawal by the public prosecutor Marrie Gold sparked widespread public outcry. Opposition pleaded to stop
the withdrawal of the prosecution and remand the accused and present him with capital punishment. Can the
court pass orders by way of writ against the public prosecutor?
(a) Yes as the office of public prosecutor comes under the direct relation with the central government and hence
the court can pass orders by way of writs against marrie gold.
(b) Yes as the power of the public prosecutor to withdrew the motion is independent of his relation with central
government , moreover the court can pass such orders irrespective of the fact that he hold a public office or
not.
(c) No, as the office of public prosecutor comes under the purview of public function and hence the court cannot
pass orders by way of writ against the public prosecutor.
(d) No as the office of public prosecutor cannot be deemed to be a public office, thus the court cannot pass orders
by way of writ against the public prosecutor.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 32 of 44
 SECTION - D: LOGICAL REASONING

Directions (Q.106-Q.135): Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow-

Passage (Q.106-Q.110): India is better placed than many other countries to avoid the risks of potential
stagflation with recovery broadly on track, notwithstanding an increasingly hostile external environment, as per
an RBI article on the state of the economy. The article, published in the RBI's June bulletin, noted that global
economic conditions continue to deteriorate as ratcheting up of commodity prices and financial market volatility
have led to heightened uncertainty. “In the midst of this increasingly hostile external environment, India is better
placed than many other countries in terms of avoiding the risks of a potential stagflation,” said the article
authored by a team led by RBI's deputy governor Michael Debabrata Patra. Stagflation refers to a situation where
inflation, as well as unemployment, are high, while demand remains stagnant in the economy. With most
constituents of GDP surpassing pre-pandemic levels, domestic economic activity is gaining strength, it said, and
added the inflation print for May has brought some relief as it recorded a decline after seven months of
continuous rise. The central bank, however, added that the opinions expressed in the article are those of the
authors and do not necessarily represent the views of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

With a growth rate of 8.7 per cent in 2021-22, India's gross domestic product (GDP) surpassed its pre-pandemic
(2019-20) level by 1.5 per cent and the recovery remains robust in 2022-23 so far, the article said. “The recovery
remained broadly on track. This demonstrates the resilience of the economy in the face of multiple shocks and
the innate strength of macro fundamentals as India strives to regain a sustainable high growth trajectory,” it said.
The recent actions by the Reserve Bank which demonstrated its commitment to price stability while supporting
growth augurs well in this milieu, it added. Another article in the bulletin said global growth has lost momentum
over the first half of 2022 as evident from incoming data.

“The outlook is fluid and uncertain. In this highly uncertain environment, our endeavour will be to track global
GDP and subsequently inflation on as contemporaneous basis as possible so as to keep all stakeholders
forewarned and forearmed,” said the article titled ‘Nowcasting Global Growth’. The article attempts to bridge
the gap between the availability and arrival of global GDP estimates and higher frequency indicators of global
economic activity.

106. The primary concern of the author in the passage is:

(a) To explain the meaning of stagflation and its impact on GDP.
(b) To explain the post-pandemic state of GDP in India, based on the RBI articles.
(c) Suggest plausible remedies RBI can implement to avoid stagflation.
(d) None of the above

107. What can be most conveniently inferred from the given passage?
(a) Inflation prior to May was relatively high.
(b) RBI’s projections regarding the future state of the Indian economy are usually very accurate.
(c) Inflation in January was on a similar level as that of May.
(d) IMF’s projection regarding the future state of the Indian economy is contrary to that of the authors of the
above articles.

108. What has the author conveyed regarding the risks of potential stagflation to India?
(a) India suffers a high risk of potential stagflation despite recent improvement in the performance of GDP
constituents.
(b) Given the performance of GDP constituents, India is suffering from the risk of potential stagflation.
(c) India does not suffer a risk of potential stagflation.
(d) Given the recent improvement in the performance of GDP constituents, India is better placed to tackle
potential stagflation.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 33 of 44
109. Which of the following conclusions can reasonably be drawn from the passage?
(a) Global Stagflation will hit the world very soon.
(b) Unforeseeable factors such as the pandemic impacted global GDP and its constituents.
(c) The state of Indian and world GDP can never be contrary to RBI's.
(d) India is the Global Trade Centre and it cannot be impacted by the pandemic.

110. Consider the statement: “With a growth rate of 8.7 per cent in 2021-22, India's gross domestic product (GDP)
surpassed its pre-pandemic (2019-20) level by 1.5 per cent and the recovery remains robust in 2022-23 so far”
Which of the following is an assumption of the above statement?
(a) The data shows a staggering growth in GDP, so India has nothing to worry about.
(b) RBI’s concern is on GDP only and not on job related issues in India.
(c) The figures are promising for India that can be a sign of good recovery of GDP of India.
(d) All of the above.

Passage (Q.111-Q.115): Does fleeing of ousted leaders a planned manoeuvre? Days after leaving Afghanistan
after the Taliban walked into Kabul on August 15 last year, President Ashraf Ghani surfaced in the United Arab
Emirates. Eleven months later, almost to the day, Gotabaya Rajapaksa of Sri Lanka became the second South
Asian leader to flee his country. He chose to fly east to Singapore, after a 36-hour halt in the Maldives. Singapore
is not the first country that comes to mind as a safe haven for political leaders seeking exile. Unlike the UAE,
which welcomed Ghani on “humanitarian grounds”, the government of the city-state put out a terse statement
as Rajapaksa landed, as if to convey its discomfort. “Singapore generally does not grant requests for asylum,”
the Ministry of Foreign Affairs said, nor had Rajapaksa asked for it. He had been allowed on a private visit.

When leaders go into exile, why do they choose to go where they go? The question has been interesting enough
for academic study. Abel Folch and Daniel Krcmaric (Journal of Politics, Vol 79, Number 2, 2017) studied the
destinations of 98 fleeing “autocrats” between 1945 and 2008. They found that they were more likely to go to
countries that were strategic allies, former colonisers, important trade partners, or neighbours. The last was
particularly so for those ousted suddenly, as in a coup, as advance planning is not possible in such cases. Most
are less likely to seek out democracies. And the numbers have been falling because more nations now worry
about their credibility in giving safe haven to unsavoury characters. But here’s the thing: according to the
authors, the more quickly such leaders find that safe haven, the better the chances for peaceful transition back
home, which is why influential players use their heft to find them a secure landing. Folch and Krcmaric give the
example of Syria, where at the end of 2012, it was believed President Bashar al-Assad would leave and was said
to be “looking for a way out”. A diplomatic scramble to find an exile destination for Assad failed. European
powers said there was “no way” they would have him. Not having “a credible exit option”, the authors assert, is
why “Assad unsurprisingly decided to continue the conflict”, one that is still ongoing. An oped writer in The
Washington Post contrasted Syria’s fate with Tunisia’s, where the dictator Zine al-Abidine Ben Ali fled early to
Saudi Arabia, enabling a peaceful transition in his country. A conflict that is a proxy war between “great powers”
does complicate exits for all.
111. According to the information of the passage, which according to you is the objective of the study by the author
in the passage?
(a) To study the reasons behind Gotabaya Rajapaksa's finding safe haven in Singapore.
(b) To study the political economy of countries providing haven to fleeing and ousted leaders.
(c) To understand the rationale and implications behind the fleeing and ousted leaders' exile to a haven.
(d) To study the foreseeable political implication of Gotabaya’s exile from Sri Lanka.

112. As per the author, which factors are responsible for enabling a peaceful transition?
(a) Having the support of “great powers”.
(b) Getting access to a safe haven based on “humanitarian grounds”.
(c) Getting asylum in a safe haven which is a democracy.
(d) Getting quick access to a safe haven and a credible exit option.
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 34 of 44
113. Which of the following fall closest to the underlying assumption in the present study?
(a) Some nations play a pivotal role in the entry or exit of ousted leaders to safe havens.
(b) More countries are refraining from becoming a safe haven for unsavoury characters to avoid impacting their
own international standing.
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)

114. “They found that they were more likely to go to countries that were strategic allies, former colonisers, important
trade partners, or neighbours.” Which of the following can best be concluded from the given statement?
(a) Association with other countries is very essential to considered as safe havens by the fleeing leaders.
(b) All leaders have associations with other countries, in one form or the other, as tactical manoeuvring.
(c) Earlier association with nations play a crucial role for the fleeing leaders seeking a safe haven.
(d) The would be ousted leaders form associations with the neighbouring countries to plan their exile.

115. Which of the following if true would weaken the argument of the author about fleeing leaders?
(a) Some countries have provided shelter to absconding autocrats.
(b) No country has ever provided shelter to fleeing autocrats.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Passage (Q.116-Q.120): For more than a decade, Silicon Valley’s moguls have been promoting Bitcoin and
blockchain-based cryptocurrencies, claiming these will transform global commerce. Instead, Bitcoin died long
ago as a digital currency, becoming nothing more than an empty speculative asset with its value most recently
plunging from $60,000 to less than $20,000. Meanwhile, as the same hypesters now promote a mystical internet
world called Web3, India is racing ahead and implementing what they had promised — its Unified Payments
Interface (UPI). A French company, Lyra Network, just announced it would deploy UPI. Entrance into the
European Union is just the latest international move for UPI, an alternative payments system designed to be
secure, reliable, and interoperable among different payment companies. Merchants in Singapore, Malaysia,
Thailand, Philippines, Vietnam, Cambodia, and Bhutan accept UPI payments through QR code payment systems
common in Asia. The National Payments Corporation of India is now negotiating with Australia to integrate
UPI with Australia’s own nascent fast payment rail, called New Payments Platform. The reason for its broad
adoption abroad is that UPI has been shown to work well for a very large population. In addition, UPI has an
open protocol on which other technologies can be built, creating a much larger and more useful network than its
competitors for financial payments. By facilitating exactly what blockchain was supposed to do — cut out
intermediaries and induce greater competition — UPI could force a global acceleration of innovation in payment
technology. This is part of a growing trend of critical technologies emerging from beyond the usual innovation
corridors in the West. Both China and India have gone from having few start-ups of value to hosting dozens of
billion-dollar valuation unicorns. It is also no secret that Asia tends to be ahead of the West in mobile applications
and payment innovation. China has effectively become a cashless society, but payments are dominated by two
super-applications that stifle innovation and have major privacy risks. With the problems of identity that Aadhaar
solved, and the commercial platform that UPI created, India has the ability to democratise e-commerce and rein
in the technology companies that are building monopolies. A key part of the rationale behind UPI is to create a
neutral marketplace and commerce platform that is low-cost and accessible. To ensure healthier competition,
the Reserve Bank of India has very wisely placed explicit limits on market share in UPI payments. This may
make foreign companies and some venture capitalists scream government interference, but it hasn’t stopped
more than 300 banks and dozens of payment applications and start-ups — including subsidiaries of all major
United States (US) tech giants — from joining UPI.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 35 of 44
116. Which of the following is the correct expression of the author’s arguments as stated in the passage?
(a) With its Unified Payments Interface (UPI) as a tool of global commerce, India can democratise e-commerce
through a global acceleration of innovation in payment technology.
(b) UPI has become the world’s biggest instant real-time payment system.
(c) India is ahead with its Unified Payments Interface (UPI) from the nascent payment system of Australia.
(d) UPI might provide a neutral marketplace unlike blockchain-based cryptocurrency.

117. Which of the following points most closely support that UPI is reliable and useful?
(a) On April 25, 2022, a temporary outage caused disruptions in payments across India as UPI has become one
of the most preferred ways to do transactions in the country.
(b) UPI emerged as the most preferred payment mode with a market share of 64% in the first quarter of 2022.
(c) Monthly transaction volumes of UPI are likely to cross the 5-billion-mark in March 2022 but have
increasingly been facing glitches and failure rates.
(d) Several alternatives to UPI have come up from various parts of the world.

118. Based on the passage, which of the following fails to capture the author’s view regarding UPI?
(a) UPI has the potential to become the sole online instant real-time payment system in India.
(b) UPI doesn’t stifle innovation and doesn’t have major privacy risks compared to two super-applications of
China.
(c) RBI placing explicit limits on market share in UPI payments is important to enable competition and to
prevent creation of monopolies.
(d) Lately, several technological advancements have come from non-Western countries.

119. Consider the statement: “The best indication of its usefulness is that UPI has grown wildly popular. In six
short years, transactions running on UPI have skyrocketed, now exceeding $100 billion per month. For more
than 150 million monthly users, those transactions occur largely via mobile wallets and payment applications.”
If the information of the above statement is true, then which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the
above statement?
(a) UPI transactions have increased substantially as compared to credit card transactions.
(b) UPI is the fastest online method for transferring money.
(c) UPI is being the preferred mode of online transactions.
(d) UPI is not a preferred method of online payment.

120. Which of the following, if true, weakens the author’s idea that UPI could force a global acceleration of
innovation in payment technology?
(a) UPI can be integrated with other technologies due to the presence of its interoperability.
(b) UPI has potential for global adoption due to its proposition of secure and easy accessibility.
(c) UPI is seen as the next step to improve ease of access and to neutralise market monopolies of tech
companies.
(d) Many countries have their own unified alternative payment systems that is more robust than UPI.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 36 of 44
 Passage (Q.121-Q.125): Naga rebel group National Socialist Council of Nagaland (Isak-Muivah) or NSCN(IM)
has stuck to its demands for a separate flag and a constitution is an indication that the deadlock in the peace talks
with the central government, aimed at bringing an end to India’s oldest insurgency, is likely to continue. The
militant outfit, which has been engaged in the peace process for the past 25 years, held an “emergency meeting”
at its camp near Dimapur on May 31 amid pressure from the civil society for a negotiated settlement of the
“Naga political issue”.

“How can we forfeit the Naga national flag and Naga constitution in the name of Naga political solution?”
wondered NSCN (IM) chairman Q Tuccu. “What belongs to us that defines our political identity can never be
compromised for the sweet morsel in the name of Naga political settlement. We cannot be made a laughing stock
before the world by tamely succumbing to pressure or temptation.” It is believed the Bharatiya Janata Party
(BJP)-led Centre had earlier rejected the group’s core demands for a separate flag and a constitution during
previous rounds of talks. Instead, it allowed the NSCN (IM) to use the Naga flag for cultural purposes only,
which the outfit turned down last week. Recently, Nagaland Chief Minister Neiphiu Rio, former CM S C Jamir
and NSCN (IM) top brass met central government leaders in New Delhi. Some analysts say a nationalist party
like the BJP is unlikely to accept these demands given that it had removed Article 370 stripping Jammu and
Kashmir of its special status. But there is a counter-argument that the Northeast is not Kashmir and there cannot
be a one-size-fits-all formula for a diverse country like India.

After years of negotiations with successive governments, the NSCN (IM) had on August 3, 2015 signed a
framework agreement with the BJP-led Centre. The “agreement” was based on the idea of “shared sovereignty”
for the Nagas, a community comprising more than 60 tribes (the exact number is unclear) spread across the
Northeast and parts of neighbouring Myanmar. Shared sovereignty denotes sharing of administrative and
legislative power between India and ‘Nagalim’. Under this arrangement, the Naga Hoho, the apex body of all
Naga tribes, would look after the welfare of all Naga-inhabited areas, irrespective of their integration with the
proposed ‘Nagalim’. This marked a significant departure from the group’s original demand for a sovereign
‘Nagalim’, which would have required physical integration of Naga-inhabited areas of Manipur, Assam,
Arunachal Pradesh and even parts of Myanmar with Nagaland. Issues such as “symbols of sovereignty” — a
separate flag and a constitution, Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA) and demographic changes as a
result of cross-border migrations — were discussed in subsequent meetings.

There has been a sense of urgency in the political class for an early resolution of the peace talks as assembly
polls are due by February 2023. On May 31, chief minister Rio, who heads a Nationalist Democratic Progressive
Party-led coalition government along with the BJP, said: “We are talking to everybody and my point of view is
that as facilitators we cannot voice anything. We have to see that they (negotiating parties) come to an
understanding. We are working hard,” Rio said in reply to media queries on the expectations of a solution before
the February 2023 polls. But it is easier said than done, as experts see a major hurdle in the peace process if the
NSCN (IM) does not soften its stand on the two demands.

121. As per the passage, which of the following is the major roadblock to the Naga Peace Talks?
(a) NSCN (IM) demand for a sovereign ‘Nagalim’.
(b) NSCN (IM) demand for greater power for Nagas under the idea of “shared sovereignty” which is part of
the 2015 agreement.
(c) NSCN (IM) demand for an independent army and police consisting of Nagas.
(d) NSCN(IM) has stuck to its demands for a separate flag and a constitution.

122. Which of the following can be deduced from the above passage?
(a) NSCN (K) faction has no say in the present peace process.
(b) NSCN (IM) is not that strong as compared to its initial years of formation.
(c) It may not be possible to reach an early resolution of peace talks before the February 2023 polls.
(d) NSCN (IM) will not compromise on its demand for Naga national flag and Naga constitution.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 37 of 44
123. Which of the following strengthens, “How can we forfeit the Naga national flag and Naga constitution in the
name of Naga political solution?”
(a) The surrendering of the Naga National Flag and Naga constitution will have an adverse impact on political
identity in the name of Naga political settlement.
(b) The surrendering of the Naga National Flag and Naga constitution will have a beneficial for political identity
in the name of Naga political settlement.
(c) The surrendering of the Naga National Flag and Naga constitution will have no impact on political identity
in the name of Naga political settlement.
(d) All of the above.
124. According to the passage, which of the following statements is not true?
(a) Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA) and demographic changes are also relevant issues of concern
under Naga peace talks.
(b) NSCN has dropped the demand of ‘Nagalim’.
(c) NSCN (IM) has shown signs of being stubborn with its two demands.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
125. Which of the following caters to the main point of the author?
(a) NSCN cannot afford to lose its political identity.
(b) It is unrealistic to settle the matter before February 2023 polls.
(c) ‘Naga political issue’ is a major agenda of the Central Government.
(d) Naga peace talk deadlock is likely to persist.
Passage (Q.126-Q.130): On Tuesday, India took a significant step forward in checking cervical cancer which
kills more than 60,000 women in the country every year. The Drugs Controller General of India granted market
authorisation to the Pune-based Serum Institute to manufacture the country’s first indigenously developed
vaccine, Cervavac, against the human papillomavirus (HPV). The vaccine, which has been almost four years in
the making, reported encouraging results in the clinical trials. If things go according to SII’s schedule, Cervavac
should be ready for mass manufacturing by the end of the year. The government shouldn’t lose time in including
the vaccine in the country’s Universal Immunisation Programme. HPV is a common pathogen. But only a small
proportion of its strains cause cancer. The disease is largely preventable and a combination of early screening
techniques and vaccination has reduced its virulence considerably in most developed countries. India has
remained an outlier in these developments. The health ministry’s guidelines recommend cervical cancer
screening every five years for women above 30 at primary health centres and sub-health centres. But several
studies have shown that the public health system in large parts of the country is ill-equipped to perform such
gynaecological procedures, despite their relatively low cost. According to the WHO, a vast majority of cervical
cancer deaths happen in middle- and low-income countries. The global health agency’s plans to vaccinate 90
per cent of women below the age of 15 by 2030 hasn’t made much headway largely because of global big
pharma’s monopoly on the vaccines. The SII’s website notes that Cervavac will be available to developing
countries “in the near future”. Developments in the Pune-based manufacturer’s laboratory will be keenly
watched.
126. Out of the following, what could be a plausible title for the paragraph?
(a) Cervical cancer could be eliminated through mass production of vaccines
(b) The vaccine is the only cure for the highly dangerous cervical cancer disease
(c) Improving facilities in healthcare centres is critical to preventing deaths
(d) Approval for home-grown cervical cancer vaccine could be a game changer
127. What could be a logical course of action, according to the author?
(a) The government pushes for the mass production of vaccines before testing them comprehensively.
(b) Facilities in the healthcare centres must be improved to allow complex gynaecological procedures.
(c) Women of all ages get vaccinated with the cervical cancer vaccine before the end of the year.
(d) Cervavac should be made available at the medicine counters by the end of the year.
Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 38 of 44
128. Which among the following is a plausible inference, based on the information given in the passage?
(a) A decision to allow for mass production of the vaccines could be taken solely on the results of clinical trials.
(b) Improving healthcare centres’ facilities would be vital in improving the prospects of mass immunization.
(c) Breaking the monopoly of pharma companies is the only sure-shot way of reaching the target set by the
WHO.
(d) Vaccine production will increase significantly if the government includes it in its Universal Immunisation
Programme.

129. As per the passage, why has India remained an outlier in some of the developments in the vaccine sphere?
(a) Because India is not a developed country, it is still in developing stage.
(b) Because of India’s poor condition of its public health system.
(c) Because India is among the countries that spend the least on the health system.
(d) The data given in the passage is insufficient.

130. Which of the following would not strengthen the author’s arguments in the passage EXCEPT?
I. Human Papillomavirus is responsible for more than 95% of cervical cancer cases.
II. The vaccine's clinical trials showed the antibody response to be 1000 times more than the baseline required
against HPV types.
III. Human Papillomavirus is a rare pathogen these days, with rapidly decreasing numbers each decade.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only I and II
(d) Only II and III

Passage (Q.131-Q.135): The current research study found a few similarities and differences with existing
literature on the topic of stress, coping strategies, and problem-solving skills in college students. It has been
noted that many studies discuss stress, coping, and problem-solving skills, but it is important to remember that
a single behaviour can be influenced by other behaviours. For example, in the case of chronic stress, stress can
lead to decreased energy levels, disrupted sleep patterns, concentration and emotional health problems. Research
also shows that after someone develops anxiety or depression, that unhealthy lifestyle behaviours such as
physical inactivity, increased alcohol consumption and overeating usually follow. Stressful events can be
experienced by students that also create additional stress. This provided support for the current study’s
theoretical framework of using the cognitive transactional model of stress and coping to help explain the
relationship between stress, coping, and problem-solving skills. There are usually multiple causes and
contributing factors to stress. Learning to cope with stress can also be viewed as a process as stress levels may
rise and fall during the course of a semester, and stress is subjective for each student. This sequence of how
someone can be impacted by stress illustrates how the transactional process of experiencing stress may bring
about the cascading effects of stressful events, and how each transaction, or stressful experience, may bring
about differences in appraisal and various coping techniques, depending on whether or not the stress is short-
term or long-term. The results of this study indicated that the typical college student engages more frequently in
certain coping mechanisms that are not as helpful, such as behavioural disengagement and substance use,
possibly leading to more unnecessary stress. By engaging in more active coping strategies, such as planning and
proactive coping, the college student population overall could benefit from stress that is shorter in duration, or
possibly stress that is not as intense compared to stress that is experienced when coping strategies are not as
proactive and helpful.

131. What is the central idea of the passage?

(a) Stress is unanimously affecting each and every student.
(b) Stress, if sustained for long period of time, can have cascading effect on students.
(c) Stress treatment is impossible since the impact varies from student to student.
(d) Stress is necessary for a human to be on the right track and achieving his/her goals.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 39 of 44
132. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the author’s argument?
(a) Stress can be induced by multiple factors.
(b) Stress sometimes takes its toll on health.
(c) College students can become more stressful if they resort to substance use and behavioural disengagement.
(d) All of the above.

133. What is the assumption of the author in “Stressful events can be experienced by students that also create
additional stress”?
(a) Students are generally under extreme stress and they don’t want to experience more stress.
(b) Students are not able to handle stress, but additional stress.
(c) Students are under stress and any stressful event would add fuel to the fire.
(d) Students are not much affected by additional stress.

134. Which of the following can be a suitable tile of the passage?

(a) Stress and Students
(b) Stress is unavoidable
(c) College students and stress
(d) Stress study: college students

135. Why does the author said, “engaging in more active coping strategies”?
(a) That students need to involve in coping mechanism to get relief.
(b) That students need to disinvest themselves from coping mechanism to get relief.
(c) That students need to engage in coping mechanism to correct his belief.
(d) That students need to disengage from coping mechanism to get relief.

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 40 of 44
 SECTION - E: QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES

Directions (Q.136 and Q.137): Read the following carefully and Answer the Questions.
Bag A contains 3 different colour tiles. i.e. Yellow, white and brown. In that, there are 12 yellow tiles, 8 white
tiles and X brown tiles. The probability of choosing Brown tiles 2/7. In Another Bag B, it contains, 12 blue tiles
and number of red tiles was equal to five more tiles than brown tiles in Bag A.

136. What is the probability of not choosing white colour tiles in Bag A?
(a) 2/7 (b) 3/7 (c) 5/7 (d) 1/7

137. What is probability choosing 2 tiles from bag B, if both are same in colour?
(a) 12/25 (b) 13/25 (c) 1/2 (d) 14/25

Directions (Q.138-Q.142) :Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are total 16000 students in a college and respective ratio of boys and girls among them is 5:3. All the
students are one among Intermediate students, UG students and PG students. All the students in the college are
divided into two groups viz. music club group and sports club group.
Intermediate: 35% of the total number of students are Intermediate students. Respective ratio of the number of
students who are in music club and number of students who are in sports club is 4:3. Number of boys are 400
more than the number of girls.
UG: Number of boys are 20% less than the number of intermediate boys. Number of girls are 200 more than the
number of intermediate girls. Respective ratio of the number of students who are in music club and number of
students who are in sports club is 15:11.
PG: 55% of the total number of students of PG are in music club.

138. Find the difference between total number of Intermediate students and total number of PG students in the college.
(a) 450 (b) 600 (c) 400 (d) 550

139. Find the total number of students in the college who are in music club group.
(a) 9060 (b) 8240 (c) 7020 (d) 6640

140. Number of UG boys in the college is what percent of the number of PG girls in the college?
(a) 450% (b) 350% (c) 400% (d) 300%

141. Find the average of the number of Intermediate boys, number of Intermediate students who are in sports club
group and number of PG students who are in sports club group.
(a) 3120 (b) 3240 (c) 2580 (d) 2960

142. Find the respective ratio of the number of Intermediate girls in the college and number of UG students in the
college who are in sports club group.
(a) 7:5 (b) 11:9 (c) 9:7 (d) 13:11

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 41 of 44
 Directions (Q.143-Q.147): The pie chart given below shows the percent distribution of total transactions (in
rupees) made by a person in a bank in 5 different months.

Percent distrubution of total transaction

15% 15%

25%
35%

10%
Jan Feb Mar Apr May

Note:
1: The average of total transactions in Jan and Feb is Rs.24000.
2: Total transaction = Debited amount + Credited amount

143. If the debited amount in Jan and Feb are Rs.6000 and Rs.14000 respectively, then find the ratio of credited
amount in Jan to that in Feb?
(a) 3: 4 (b) 2: 3 (c) 3: 5 (d) 1: 2

144. Find the average of total transactions made in Feb, Mar, and Apr.
(a) Rs.30000 (b) Rs.24000 (c) Rs.28000 (d) Rs.20000

145. In Apr, if the ratio of the debited amount to the credited amount is 10: 11, then find the credited amount in Apr?
(a) Rs.16500 (b) Rs.22000 (c) Rs.11000 (d) Rs.27500

146. Find the difference between total transactions made in Apr and may.
(a) Rs.30000 (b) Rs.24000 (c) Rs.28000 (d) Rs.20000

147. If the credited amount in Mar and May are respectively Rs.7000 and Rs.10000, then find the difference between
the debited amount in Mar and May.
(a) Rs.4000 (b) Rs.6000 (c) Rs.3000 (d) Rs.5000

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 42 of 44
 Directions (Q.148-Q.150): Answer the following questions on the basis of the information given below.
Total population of H. P.(a state with 12 districts) is 5168000 and out of these 2610000 are male. Some more
data about H. P. is also available in following table. The population given in the table is in thousands.
Population
Area Total Male Female
S.No. District Density (per
(Km2) Population Population Population
km2)
1 Bilaspur 246
2 Chamba 6500 396 193 203 61
3 Hamirpur 369 185 335
4 Kangra 5700 1174 590 584 206
5 Kinnal 6400 35 11
6 Kullu 5500 302 160 142 52
7 Lahaul
14000 25 17 11 2
and Spiti
8 Mandi 4000 776 390 386 194
9 Shimla 5100 617 310 307 121
10 Shirmanv 2800 381 190 191 136
11 Solan 1900 382 200 82 201
12 Una 378 190 252

148. What is the total male population of Kinnal district? (In thousands)
(a) 35.7 (b) 35.4 (c) 36.4 (d) 37.3

149. What is the approximate area of Hamirpur district?

(a) 1050 km2 (b) 1100 km2 (c) 1170 km2 (d) 1020 km2

150. If the female population density is defined as female population per square km, then what is the female
population density of Una district?
(a) 122.47/km2 (b) 125.33/km2 (c) 129.67/km2 (d) 127.67/ km2

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 43 of 44
 NOTES:

Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 44 of 44