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3rd Q Physical Science

This document appears to be a physical science test consisting of 29 multiple choice questions covering topics in chemistry and physics. The test was given to students in the third quarter of the 2019-2020 school year by the Division of Island Garden City of Samal. It covers concepts related to atoms, nuclear reactions, chemical bonds, states of matter, and alternative energy sources. The student is given one hour to complete the test, which will be scored out of a total number of points.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
84 views

3rd Q Physical Science

This document appears to be a physical science test consisting of 29 multiple choice questions covering topics in chemistry and physics. The test was given to students in the third quarter of the 2019-2020 school year by the Division of Island Garden City of Samal. It covers concepts related to atoms, nuclear reactions, chemical bonds, states of matter, and alternative energy sources. The student is given one hour to complete the test, which will be scored out of a total number of points.

Uploaded by

Viktor Inoc
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Division of Island Garden City of Samal

DIVISION UNIFIED TEST IN PHYSICAL SCIENCE


Third Quarterly Examination
S.Y. 2019-2020

Name: ____________________________________________________ Date: __________________


School: ____________________________________________________ Score: _________________

TEST I-Directions: Read and analyze each item carefully. Choose the correct answer from the choices A, B, C and D.
Write the letter that corresponds to your answer. You have one hour to finish the test. GOD BLESS!

1. What was the original source of the iron mined from Earth that we use today, such as automobiles?
A. Drops of liquid metal ejected from the Sun. C. The core of an exploding supernova.
B. The original Big Bang creation event D. Mass lost from red giant stars.

2. Where did the hydrogen come from if all of the naturally occurring chemical elements heavier than hydrogen,
helium and lithium were created in nuclear reactions having to do with the evolution of stars?
A. It came from the radioactive decay of Uranium C. It was synthesized during the Big Bang.
B. It was synthesized in supernova explosions. D. Nobody knows how it got there.

3. Which of the following explains why nuclei with a mass number greater than seven did not survive in the early
universe?
A. Universe cooled too much resulting to the formation of unstable nuclei.
B. Temperature of the early universe is too high to initiate the advanced reactions.
C. Early universe is not suitable for the formation of nuclei with mass number of eight.
D. chances of nuclear collision to initiate the fusion were getting higher when the universe expand.

4. Which of the following is considered as the basic use of a medical implants and prosthesis?
A. Attack foreign substances in the body C. Replace a missing body
B. Support organs and tissues D. Monitor body functions

5. Which of the following subatomic particles is negatively charged?


A. electron B. neutron C.proton D. quarks

6. Which statement is FALSE?


A. Neutrons are neutral C. Electrons are negatively charged
B. Protons are positively charged D. Protons and neutrons balance each other electrically

7. Bohr’s theory of the atom proposed that:


A. No more than two electrons are allowed in any energy level.
B. Electrons orbit the nucleus like planets move around the sun.
C. Energy shells have subshells which contain regions of space called orbitals
D. Electrons move around the nucleus in fixed orbits having different energy level.

8. Which of the statements below best describes alchemy?


A. It is a pseudoscience concerned with turning metals into gold.
B. It is a field of science based on logic and experimentation.
C. It is a speculative science practiced by alchemists
D. It is the practice of the scientific method.

9. Which of the following was NOT part of the ideas of Leucippus and Democritus about atoms?
A. Universe is made up of either atoms or a void.
B. Universe changes because atoms move about, combine, collide and separate.
C. Object is made of small, indivisible parts which influence the object’s properties.
D. Universe is made up of four elements that combine and separate to cause change.

10. Which of the following arguments stated by Plato on atomism about matter and the world?
A. Each of the four kinds of matter is composed of geometrical solids.
B. Everything is made-up of four eternal and unchanging kinds of matter, fire, air) all gases), water (all liquids
and metals) and earth (all solids).

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C. Infinite number of elementary natural substances in the form of infinitesimally small particles that combined
to comprise the different things in the universe.
D. Four elements could be balanced in substances in an infinite number of ways, and then combined gave
proportions of “essential qualities”, hot, dry, cold and wet.

11. Where did the rest of chemical elements (Neptunium, Lawrencium, Americium, etc.) come from when most of
the hydrogen and helium as well as lithium that we see in the universe were formed during the initial "Big
Bang"?
A. They existed before the Big Bang. C. They were also formed during the Big Bang.
B. They were created in laboratory experiments. D. They were produced by nuclear reactions in stars.

12. Which of the following was NOT one of the four basic materials of matter believed by the Ancient Greeks?
A. Fire B. Gold C. Earth D. Water

13. Who calculated that the atom consisted mostly of empty space through which electrons move and also
concluded that there was a tiny, dense region "the nucleus" centrally located within the atom that contained all
of an atom's positive charge and virtually all of its mass?
A. Aristotle B. Chadwick C. Einstein D. Rutherford

14. Which is NOT a property of molecular polar substances?


A. Malleable C. Low boiling point
B. Good conductor D. Low melting point

15. Which of the following is considered as the basic use of a medical implants and prosthesis?
A. Attack foreign substances in the body C. Replace a missing body
B. Support organs and tissues D. Monitor body functions

16. Which of the following ideas of John Dalton’s atomic theory is no longer true?
A. All matter is composed of tiny indestructible particles called atoms.
B. Atoms can combine together in small numbers to form molecules.
C. Atoms of the same element are alike in every way.
D. Atoms of different elements are different.
17. Which of the following statements regarding subatomic particles is correct?
A. In a neutral atom, the number of neutrons is equal to the number of protons.
B. Protons are positively charged particles and neutrons are negatively charged.
C. The relative masses of an electron, a proton and a neutron are all about 1 unit.
D. Isotopes of an element have the same number of protons but a different number of neutrons.

18. Leucippus and Democritus proposed the "first" atomic view of matter. They arrived at this view based on
A. Many experiments. C. Philosophical and intuitive speculation.
B. Careful measurements. D. All of the above contributed to their atomic view.

19. What statement is TRUE about Big Bang model?


A. Cosmic expansion stopped at some point in time.
B. The singularity is an established, well- defined part of the model.
C. Part of its proof is the amount of the H and He we have in the universe today.
D. The Big Bang was a big explosion that threw matter into many different directions.

20. What factors determine the polarity of a molecule?


A. bond length and molecular size C. bond polarity and molecular size
B. bond length and molecular shape D. bond polarity and molecular shape

21. Although all parts (postulates) of Dalton's atomic theory are important, which among his postulates is
considered as crucial to explain the observations summarized by the Law of Definite Proportions?
A. Atoms are very small.
B. Matter is composed of atoms.
C. Atoms of the same element have the same properties.
D. Atoms combine with other atoms in fixed, to form compounds.

22. Which of the following statements is TRUE about chemical reaction?


A. In a chemical reaction, heat and light, electrical and mechanical energy are produced.
B. Chemical reaction can take place if particles are far apart.

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C. In a chemical equation, chemical bonds are just rearrange.
D. Chemical reaction will occur even with insufficient energy.

23. Which of the following are the reasons why solar cells are not commonly used?
I. High cost
II. Limited source of sunlight
III. Difficulty in finding silicon
A. I only B. II only C. III D. I, II, III

24. Based on the data collected, which source of alternative energy is most efficient?

A. Coal B. Wind C. Solar D. Natural gas

25. Which factor has an impact on the effectiveness of a disinfectant?


A. The disinfectant solution is more potent after several uses.
B. Evaporation can alter the chemical makeup of the solution.
C. Items should be placed in the disinfectant bath wet.
D. Using soap in the sanitization process is desirable.

26. How many moles of potassium chlorate, KClO3 are needed to produce 12.0 g O2?
A. 0.25 mol B. 0.35 mol C. 0.45 mol D. 0.55 mol

27. What is the product when 2H2 reacts with O2?


A. 4H2O B. 3H2O C. 2H2O D. H2O

28. What do Surfactants do?


A. Decrease the surface tension of water, allowing the water carrier to spread over the surface.
B. Decrease the surface tension of water, controlling the water carrier to spread in a limited surface.
C. Increase the surface tension of water, allowing more water carrier to spread over the surface.
D. Increase the surface tension of water, controlling the water carrier to spread in a limited surface.

29. The following are personal care products used to enhance the appearance of the human body EXCEPT:
A. Lotions B. Perfumes C. Shaving Creams D. Sunscreens

30. Which statements BEST support the structure of matter?


A. Sodium molecules has three types of elements present.
B. Compounds includes things we use in our everyday lives.
C. All elements prefer to hang out together with other elements.
D. Compounds includes substances only derived from hydrogen and sodium.

31. For the balanced reaction CH4 + 2O2 2H2O + CO2, calculate the percentage yield of carbon dioxide if
1000 g of methane react with excess oxygen to produce 2300 g of carbon dioxide.
A. 83.8% B. 89.1% C. 96.8% D. 92.8%

32. For the balanced reaction Mg + 2HCl H2 + MgCl2, calculate the percentage yield of magnesium chloride
if 100 g of magnesium react with excess hydrochloric acid to yield 330. g of magnesium chloride.
A. 84.2 % B. 81.6 % C. 74.3 % D. 71.8 %

33. From the following options, what is the BEST way to control hazards in school?
A. Have rules to help people avoid hurting themselves
B. Eliminate the hazard completely from the area
C. Use personal protective equipment (PPE)
D. Replace the hazard for a less risky option

34. Which of the following steps in identifying the proper order for facial cleansing
A. Cleanse, moisturize and tone C. Moisturize, cleanse and rinse
B. Cleanse, rinse and moisturize D. Tone, cleanse and moisturize

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35. Which of the following is TRUE about the use of personal care products?
A. Use a variety of personal care products more often.
B. Read about the safety of the products before using them.
C. Expose the children to many sources of harmful chemicals.
D. Choose alternatives that contains fragrance, phthalate, and paraben.

36. Which statement BEST describe the relationship concerning the number of elements and the number of
compounds?
A. Elements must equal the number of compounds.
B. Elements and compounds is approximately the same.
C. Compounds is much larger than the number of elements.
D. Elements is much larger than the number of compounds.

37. What would be the result of the nuclear notation ( ZA X ) for carbon 13?
13 13 13 13
A. 6 C B. 12 C C. 18 C D. 20 C

38. What intermolecular forces are present between molecules of methanal, HCHO?
A. Instantaneous dipole–induced dipole bonds only.
B. Permanent dipole–permanent dipole bonds only.
C. Hydrogen bonds and instantaneous dipole–induced dipole bonds.
D. Permanent dipole–permanent dipole bonds and instantaneous dipole–induced dipole bonds.

39. What phrase is relevant to a process involving “carbon burning” if an element is used up by a star in a fusion
even through no actual combustion occurs?
A. S- process B. CNO cycle C. Alpha ladder D. Triple-alpha process

40. Which of the following nuclear reactions will produce an element with a mass number of 16?
A. 126c + 42he C. 2010ne + 42he
B. 2he + 2he
4 4 D. 2814si + 2814si

41. Which of the following is a characteristic of proteins?


A. They form through hydrolysis.
B. They store genetic information for cellular metabolism.
C. They may enhance the rate of specific chemical reactions.
D. They may form either long, thin fibrous molecules or compact, rounded globular molecules.

42. In the reaction A + B C + D, if the quantity of B is insufficient to react with all of A,


A. A is the limiting reactant C. No product can be formed.
B. B is the limiting reactant. D. There is no limiting reactant

43. The boiling point of water is about 200°C higher than one would predict from the boiling points of hydrogen
sulfide and hydrogen selenide. One may explain this apparent anomaly by which of the following?
A. The water molecule is lighter than the other two molecules.
B. Water is less polar than hydrogen sulfide and hydrogen selenide.
C. The H-O covalent bond is much stronger than the H-S and H-Se bonds.
D. The intermolecular forces are much greater in water than in hydrogen sulfide and hydrogen selenide

44. Based on the following information:


CF4, Molecular Weight 87.99, Normal Boiling Point -182°C
CCl4, Molecular Weight 153.8, Normal Boiling Point -123°C
The intermolecular forces of attraction in the above substances is described by which of the following:
A. Hydrogen bond C. Dipole-dipole forces
B. Ion-dipole forces D. London dispersion forces

45. Which of the following statements can explain why the rate of a reaction increases in the presence of a
suitable catalyst?
1. A greater proportion of reactant particles have sufficient energy to react.
2. Reactant particles collide with more money.
3. Reactants particles collide more frequently.
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
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46. What do you think is the best way to prevent the clogging of drains?
A. Treat them every week with NaCl.
B. Treat them twice a month with NaOH.
C. Do not allow grease and hair get in them.
D. Change grease to soap before disposing it.

47. How to calculate the rate of reaction of a substance?


A. Adding the mass by amount of volume
B. Dividing in change in mass by the temperature
C. Adding the change in mass and the total mass
D. Dividing in change in mass or volume by time taken

48. Rates of chemical reactions increase with temperature. Which one of the following statements BEST
summarizes how this observation is explained by collision theory?
A. Higher temperature it will be more likely that the reactants will collide in the proper orientation required for
reaction.
B. Higher temperature, reactants will be moving slower when they collide, making it easier to reach the
transition state for the reaction.
C. Higher temperature, reactants will be moving faster so more collisions will occur with energy greater than
the activation energy for the reaction.
D. Higher temperature, the activation energy for a reaction will be lower, so more collisions will occur with
energy greater than the activation energy for the reaction.

49. How would you formulate emulsifiers on cosmetic products?


A. Acetamide MEA, Glycerin , Propylene glycol, Sorbital, Urea, Xylose.
B. Acetylated lanolin, C14-15 alcohols, Glyceryl Stearate, Hexyl laureate, Isopropyl myristate, PPG-20 cetyl
ether, Stearic acid, Wheat germ glycerides.
C. Acetylated lanolin alcohol, Caprylic/capric triglyceride, Dimethicone, Mineral oil (liquid petrolatum),
Petrolatum, Vegetable oil, Soy bean lipid, bees wax, coconut oil.
D. Borax (sodium tetraborate decahydrate), Cetyl alcohol, Cocamidopropyl betaine, Di propylene glycol,
Lecithin, Polysorbate, Sodium lauryl sulfate; Sodium laureth sulfate.

50. . undergoes alpha decay. What would be the products of this reaction?
A. And C. And
B. And D. And

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Division of Island Garden City of Samal
DIVISION UNIFIED TEST IN PHYSICAL SCIENCE
Third Quarterly Examination
S.Y. 2019-2020

ANSWER KEY

1 C 26 A

2 C 27 C

3 A 28 A

4 C 29 B

5 A 30 C

6 D 31 A

7 D 32 A

8 B 33 C

9 D 34 A

10 A 35 B

11 B 36 C

12 B 37 A

13 D 38 D

14 B 39 C

15 C 40 A

16 C 41 D

17 D 42 B

18 C 43 D

19 C 44 D

20 D 45 A

21 C 46 C

22 A 47 D

23 A 48 C

24 A 49 D

25 B 50 A

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