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Chemistry-Part Test-4

PART TEST-4 Class : XIII (All) Time : 1 Hr. Max. Marks : 90 INSTRUCTIONS 1. The question paper contains 30 questions. From Q.No. 31 to Q. No. 60. All Questions carry 3 marks each. All of them are compulsory. 2. Each question contains four alternatives out of which only ONE is correct. 3. There is NEGATIVE marking. For each wrong answer 1 mark will be deducted. 4. For Assertion–Reason type questions Mark A: If Assertion is True and Reason is False. Mark B: If

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
25 views

Chemistry-Part Test-4

PART TEST-4 Class : XIII (All) Time : 1 Hr. Max. Marks : 90 INSTRUCTIONS 1. The question paper contains 30 questions. From Q.No. 31 to Q. No. 60. All Questions carry 3 marks each. All of them are compulsory. 2. Each question contains four alternatives out of which only ONE is correct. 3. There is NEGATIVE marking. For each wrong answer 1 mark will be deducted. 4. For Assertion–Reason type questions Mark A: If Assertion is True and Reason is False. Mark B: If

Uploaded by

Raju Singh
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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Signature of invigilator ____________

PART TEST-4
Class : XIII (All)
Time : 1 Hr. Max. Marks : 90

CHEMISTRY
INSTRUCTIONS
1. The question paper contains 30 questions. From Q.No. 31 to Q. No. 60. All Questions carry 3
marks each. All of them are compulsory.
2. Each question contains four alternatives out of which only ONE is correct.
3. There is NEGATIVE marking. For each wrong answer 1 mark will be deducted.
4. For Assertion–Reason type questions
Mark A: If Assertion is True and Reason is False.
Mark B: If Assertion is False but Reason is True.
Mark C: If both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.
Mark D: If both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explaination of Assertion.
5. Indicate the correct answer for each question by filling appropriate bubble in your answer sheet.
6. Use only HB pencil for darkening the bubble.
7. Use of Calculator, Log Table, Slide Rule and Mobile is not allowed.
8. The answer(s) of the questions must be marked by shading the circles against the question by dark
HB pencil only. For example if only 'B' choice is correct then,
the correct method for filling the bubble is
A B C D

the wrong method for filling the bubble are


(i) A B C D

(ii) A B C D

(iii) A B C D

(iv) A B C D

The answer of the questions in wrong or any other manner will be treated as wrong.
Q31. –Diketone shown below has no active hydrogen. It can undergo aldol reaction with acetone.

Product formed is:

(A) (B)

(C) (D) none of these

For Q. No. 32 to Q.36


MgSO4 + soda extract  white ppt. [A] + solution
After filtration of white ppt. [A] 
solution   white ppt. [B]
Q32. Initially soda extract was having 
(A) CO32 (B) HCO3 (C) Both (D) None

Q33. Solution contains 


(A) SO42, HCO3 (B) SO42, CO32 (C) CO32, HCO32 (D) None

Q34. White ppt. [B] is 


(A) Same as that of [A] (B) Different from [A]
(C) Insoluble in excess of H2O & CO2 (D) None

Q35. In the above Rxns. in place of MgSO4, other reagent that may be used is 
(A) Lime water (B) Baryta water (C) Both (D) None

Q36. Which of following acids can decompose carbonates in solution 


(A) H3BO3 (B) HCN (C) CH3COOH (D) None

ROUGH WORK
Q37. Which of the following represent impossible reactions?

I. HI
 + ROH

II. 2(CH3)3C–OH Conc



. H 2SO 4
 (CH3)3C–O–C(CH3)3
III. (CH3)3C–O–CH3 aq. 
HI
 CH3–I + (CH3)3C–OH
(A) I & II (B) II & III (C) I & III (D) I, II & III

SOCl
Q38. R  OH 2  R  O  SO  Cl Re
arranges
  R  Cl
[a ] [ b]

where R =

[a] is a chiral molecule with configuration D. Then [b] has the configuration
(A) D (B) L
(C) equimolar (D + L) mixture (D) unequal mixture of D and L

Q39. The equivalent weight of the salt KHC2O4·H2C2O4·4H2O used as reducing agent is
(A) Molecular weight/1 (B) Molecular weight/2
(C) Molecular weight/3 (D) Molecular weight/4

Q40. 3 mol of a mixture of FeSO4 and Fe2(SO4)3 required 100 ml of 2M KMnO4 solution in acidic
medium. Hence, the mol fraction of FeSO4 in the mixture is
(A) 1/3 (B) 2/3 (C) 2/5 (D) 3/5

ROUGH WORK
For Q. No. 41 and 42
AIDS is a twentieth – century disease that has become a major medical problem in the world. The
number of drugs that are effective in treating HIV infection and AIDS is small.
The drug most used to treat AIDS patient is zidovudine, also known as azidothymine, or AZT. If
fights an AIDS infection but does not cure it.

The following questions are based on AZT.


Q41. Which group is not present in AZT?
(A) carbonyl (keto/aldehyde) (B) oxirane
(C) peptide (D) azide
Q42. Select the incorrect statement
(A) it can tautomerise
(B) it can give white precipitate with Lucas reagent
(C) it shows acidic property due to H attached to N
(D) N3– can be replaced by Cl–.
Q43. What is the product obtained when ethylene glycol reacts with cyclohexanone?

(A) (B)

ROUGH WORK
(C) (D)

Q44. U238 by successive radioactive decay changes to 82Pb206. Find out the ratio of  and –particles
92
emerged in the process.
(A) 4 : 3 (B) 3 : 4 (C) 2 : 3 (D) 3 : 2

Q45. Two reactions proceed at 250C at the same rate. The temperature coefficient of the rate of the
first reaction is 2 and that of second is 2.5. Find out the ratio of the rates of 2nd to Ist reaction at
95 0C.
(A) (2.5/2)6 (B) (2.5/2)8 (C) (2.5/2)5 (D) (1.25)7

CH ONa
Q46. 3 ?
CH OH
3

(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) (i) + (ii) (B) (ii) + (iii) (C) (ii) + (i) (D) (iii) + (iv)

Q47. A mixture of Benzaldehyde & formaldehyde on heating with aq. NaOH sol. gives:
(A) Benzyl alcohol & sodium formate (B) Sodium Benzoate & methyl alcohol
(C) Sodium Benzoate & Sodium formate (D) Benzyl alcohol & Methyl alcohol

ROUGH WORK
For Q. No. 48 to Q.52

Q48. [A] is 
(A) ppt. (B) soluble salt (C) turbidity (D) None

Q49. [B] is 
(A) ppt. (B) soluble salt (C) turbidity (D) None

Q50. [C] is 
(A) ppt. (B) turbidity (C) same as [A] (D) None

Q51. Pairs of same species in the above sequence are 


(1). A,C (2) D, E (3) F, G (4) D, G
(A)1,2, 4 (B) 2, 3, 4 (C) 1, 2, 3 (D) None

Q52. High precaution must be taken while producing 


(1) D (2) E (3) F (4) G
(A) 1, 2 (B) 2, 3 (C) 3, 4 (D) 1,4

Q53. When neopentyl alcohol is treated with H2SO4 a mixture of two alkenes (85 : 15) is formed. Which
statement is incorrect about these alkenes?
(A) both give same major product with HBr
(B) both give different products (major) with HBr/R2O2/light
(C) the alkene which is formed in 85% concentration has higher heat of hydrogenation than the
other one obtained in 15% concentration.
(D) both give different products on ozonolysis.
ROUGH WORK
Q54. For the reaction,
N2O4(g) 2NO2(g)
The relation connecting the degree of dissociation () of N2O4(g) with equilibrium constant KP is
K P / PT KP
(A)  = 4  K / P (B)  = 4  K
P T P

1/ 2 1/ 2
 KP / KT   KP / KT 
(C)  =  
 (D)  =  

 4  KP / KT   4  KP 
Where PT is the total equilibrium pressure.

Q55. The pH of a buffer is 6.745. When 0.01 mole of NaOH is added to 1 litre of it, the pH changes to
6.832. Its buffer capacity is
(A) 0.187 (B) 0.115 (C) 0.076 (D) 0.896

Q56. pH of K2S solution is


(A) > 7 (B) < 7 (C) 7 (D) zero

Q57. The least stable carbocation intermediate of the following acid catalysed isomerisation reaction
would be

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

ROUGH WORK
Q58. For three different gases, values of vander Waals’ constant ‘a’ and ‘b’ are given. What is the
correct order of liquefaction of gases:
Gases ‘a’ ‘b’
X2 1.3 0.090
Y2 4.1 0.023
Z2 2.2 0.075
(A) X2 > Y2 > Z2 (B) Y2 > Z2 > X2 (C) Z2 > Y2 > X2 (D) X2 > Z2 > Y2

0
Q59. Given that E H 2O|H 2 |Pt = 0 at 298 K. The pressure of H2 gas would be [ E H 2O|H 2 |Pt = -0.8277 V]
(A) 10–7 atm (B) 10–10 atm (C) 10–12 atm (D) 10–14 atm

Q60. In acidic medium MnO4– is an oxidizing agent.


MnO4– + 8H+ + 5e–  Mn2+ + 4H2O
If H+ ion concentration is doubled, electrode potential of the half cell MnO 4–, Mn2+/Pt will
(A) increase by 28.46 mV (B) decrease by 28.46 mV
(C) increase by 14.23 mV (D) decrease by 142.30 mV

ROUGH WORK

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