WELL AP – Practice Exam A

1. Employee surveys show that which of the following are a leading source of dissatisfaction within
the environmental conditions of an office, within the Comfort concept?
a. Humidity
b. Light glare
c. Temperature
d. Acoustic problems

2. How much water does the Institute of Medicine (IOM) recommend that men consume each
day?
a. Approximately 2.7 gallons
b. Approximately 3.7 gallons
c. Approximately 2.7 liters
d. Approximately 3.7 liters

3. Which of the following is not a part of Feature 93, Workplace Family Support?
a. Family Support
b. Employer Supported Child Care
c. Designated Nap Areas
d. Parental Leave

4. Which of the following is a widely used herbicide that may lead to kidney problems and
reproductive difficulties?
a. Glyphosate
b. Atrazine
c. Simazine
d. Benzene

5. How large must a space be to require a Demand Controlled Ventilation measure?

a. 1,000 square feet
b. 750 square feet
c. 250 square feet
d. 500 square feet

6. Which of the following is not part of Feature 100, Biophilia II – Quantitative?

a. Indoor Water Feature
b. Indoor Biophilia
c. Outdoor Biophilia
d. Water Feature
 WELL AP – Practice Exam A

7. Which type of cells are critical to the circadian system, sending information to various parts of
the brain to trigger reactions downstream in the body, with peak sensitivity to teal-blue light?
a. Cone cells
b. Rod cells
c. Photosensitive retinal ganglion cells (ipRGCs)
d. None of the above

8. What are the two parts to Feature 28, Cleanable Environment? (Choose 2)
a. Accessibility
b. Material Offgassing
c. Chemical Storage
d. Equipment and Cleaning Agents
e. Cleanability
f. Material Properties

9. In order to comply with the Health Benefits part of Feature 92, Building Health Policy, how many
of the cited benefits must employers provide?
a. 4 benefits
b. 3 benefits
c. 5 benefits
d. 6 benefits

10. Approximately how many liters of air do we breathe per day?

a. 13,000 liters
b. 17,000 liters
c. 15,000 liters
d. 11,000 liters

11. Which of the following can remove dissolved metals from drinking water? (Choose 2)
a. Media filters
b. Kinetic Degradation Fluxion (KDF) filters
c. Carbon filters
d. Reverse osmosis systems

12. Which of the following must be monitored by Feature 18, Air Quality Monitoring and Feedback
(Choose 5)
a. Radon
b. Carbon Dioxide
c. VOCs
d. Carbon Monoxide
e. Particle Count
f. Humidity
g. Ozone
h. Temperature
 WELL AP – Practice Exam A

13. The ______ the NRC value, the better the material is at absorbing sound under standardized
conditions.
a. More negative
b. Larger
c. Smaller
d. None of the above

14. Feature 18, Air Quality Monitoring and Feedback requires real-time measurement, recoding and
transmission of key indoor air quality metrics as well as ambient outdoor air quality. To whom is
this data reported? (Choose 2)
a. WELL Consultants
b. Building management
c. IWBI
d. Building occupants

15. For which of the following does the Feature 37, Drinking Water Promotion set limits?
a. Pesticides
b. Intact minerals
c. Dissolved minerals
d. Herbicides

16. Which is the primary reason fluoride is added to the water according to the WELL Building
Standard?
a. Fluoride binds to other disinfectants to render them less harmful
b. Fluoride prevents tooth decay
c. Fluoride is a byproduct of fertilizer manufacturing and needs to be disposed of properly.
Dissolving fluoride in water renders the chemical harmless while providing an effective
means of disposal.
d. Fluoride is an effective disinfectant

17. Which of the following Features addresses both Window Size and Transmittance for Working
and Learning Spaces and Uniform Color Transmittance?
a. Feature 62, Daylight Modeling
b. Feature 63, Daylight Fenestration
c. Feature 61, Right to Light
d. Feature 60, Automated Shading and Dimming Controls
 WELL AP – Practice Exam A

18. Which of the following primary personal and environmental variables contribute to an
occupant’s thermal comfort? (Choose 6)
a. Personal hydration
b. Metabolic rate
c. Radiant temperature
d. Air Speed
e. Dry bulb temperature
f. Clothing
g. Dull temperature
h. Humidity
i. Wet bulb temperature
j. Air flow

19. Which of the following is required for Construction Pollution Management? (Choose 4)
a. Moisture Absorption Management
b. Direct exhaust chemical mixing areas
c. Duct Protection
d. Walk-off mats used at entryways to contain dust
e. Filter Replacement prior to occupancy

20. Which of the following Features addresses Automated Sunlight Control and Responsive Light
Control?
a. Feature 62, Daylight Modeling
b. Feature 60, Automated Shading and Dimming Controls
c. Feature 59, Surface Design
d. Feature 61, Right to Light

21. What is the total volume per occupant storage capacity requirement for Feature 50, Food
Storage?
a. 15 liters per occupant, but no more than 5,000 liters of combined space
b. 15 liters per occupant, but no more than 7,000 liters of combined space
c. 20 liters per occupant, but no more than 5,000 liters of combined space
d. 20 liters per occupant, but no more than 7,000 liters of combined space

22. Feature 19, Operable Windows requires which of the following to be analyzed prior to
integrating operable windows into the design?
a. Annual prevailing breeze patterns
b. U rating of windows
c. Annual prevailing air quality patterns
d. STC ratings of windows
 WELL AP – Practice Exam A

23. If a project decides to utilize indoor plants, which of the following Features could be most
affected?
a. Feature 03, Ventilation Effectiveness
b. Feature 10, Pesticide Management
c. Feature 33, Agricultural Contaminants
d. Feature 22, Pest Control

24. Which of the following is not a part of Feature 81, Sound Barriers?
a. Wall Construction Methodology
b. Doorway Specifications
c. Wall Construction Specifications
d. Glazing Specifications

25. Which of the following is the shorthand term for short wavelength ultraviolet light?
a. UV-C
b. UV-A
c. UV-B
d. UV-D

26. The WELL Building Standard V1 is applicable to commercial and institutional offices such as:
a. Retailers, Commercial Kitchen, Restaurateurs, Education, Multifunction Residence
b. Core and Shell Corporations, New and Existing Buildings, New and Existing Inlands
c. New and Existing Buildings, New and Existing Interiors, Core and Shell Compliance
d. Commercial Kitchen, Multifamily Residence, Retailers, Education, Restaurateurs

27. Which term refers to photosensitive cells in the eye used to differentiate colors and brightness
in moderate and high levels of illumination?
a. Visible Light Cells
b. Cone Cells
c. Intrinsically Photoreceptive Retinal Ganglion Cells
d. Rod Cells

28. What does the acronym PAHs abbreviate?

a. Polycyclic ammonium hydrocarbons
b. Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbon
c. Polycyclic ammonium hydrogens
d. Polycyclic aromatic hydrogens

29. Which is a requirement for internally generated noise from mechanical equipment? (Choose 3)
a. Conference rooms must have a maximum noise criteria of 30
b. Closed offices must have a maximum Noise Criteria of 35
c. Open offices must have a maximum noise criteria of 30
d. Open office spaces and lobbies must have a maximum NC of 40
e. Closed offices must have a maximum Noise Criteria of 30
 WELL AP – Practice Exam A

30. Which of the following hormones play a primary role in stress, increased blood sugar,
suppresses the immune system and aids in protein, fat and carbohydrate metabolism while also
undergoing diurnal variation, playing an important role in the sleep-wake cycle?
a. Serotonin
b. Cortisol
c. Calcitriol
d. Estradiol

31. Sitting for more than _____ hours per day is associated with a ___ year lower life expectancy.
a. 2, 3
b. 3, 4
c. 3, 2
d. 4, 3

32. Which of the following contaminant, naturally occurring or inadvertently introduced into water,
can pose serious health threats? (Choose 5)
a. Atrazine
b. Benzene
c. Arsenic
d. Ammonia
e. Glyphosate
f. Lead
g. Particulate Matter
h. Ethane
i. Simazine
j. Microbes

33. Light exposure in the ______ will shift our circadian rhythm ______.
a. Late Morning; back (phase delay)
b. Evening; back (phase delay)
c. Evening; forward (phase delay)
d. Early Morning; back (phase delay)

34. Feature 79. Sound Masking impacts which of the following bodily systems? (Choose 2)
a. Nervous
b. Cardiovascular
c. Immune
d. Muscular
 WELL AP – Practice Exam A

35. Which of the following are parts of Feature 52, Mindful Eating? (Choose 2)
a. Meal Size
b. Break Area Furnishings
c. Eating Furnishings
d. Eating Spaces
e. Dinnerware Size
f. Break Area Space

36. Which of the following are required for recertification?

a. No performance testing is required for recertification
b. Performance testing for all new WELL Features
c. Performance testing for all Features, old and new
d. Performance testing for Preconditions only

37. Which of the following Features includes a requirement for precautionary material selection?
a. Feature 25, Toxic Material Reduction
b. Feature 36, Enhanced Material Safety
c. Feature 24, Combustion Minimization
d. Feature 27, Antimicrobial Activity for Surfaces

38. What is the difference between chlorine & chloramine versus trihalomethanes (THMs) and
haloacetic acids (HAAs)?
a. Trihalomethanes and haloacetic acids are disinfectants; chlorine and chloramine are
disinfectant byproducts
b. Chlorine, Chloramine, trihalomethanes and haloacetic acids are all disinfectants
c. Chlorine and chloramine are disinfectants; trihalomethanes and haloacetic acids are
disinfectant byproducts
d. Chlorine, Chloramine, trihalomethanes and haloacetic acids are all disinfectant
byproducts

39. Which of the following is effective in removing organic contaminants like polychlorinated
biphenyls (PCBs), benzene, and styrene from water?
a. Media filters
b. Kinetic Degradation Fluxion (KDF) filters
c. Carbon filters
d. Reverse osmosis system

40. What does the acronym LRV stand for?

a. Light Radiation Vessel
b. Light Reflectance Values
c. Light Radiation Values
d. Light Reflectance Variations
 WELL AP – Practice Exam A

41. Which of the following describes the term “zeitgebers”?

a. Internal cues that align physiological functions to the solar day in the 24-hour cycle
b. Internal cues that align physiological functions to the solar day in the 12-hour cycle
c. External cues that align physiological functions to the solar day in the 24-hour cycle
d. External cues that align physiological functions to the solar day in the 12-hour cycle

42. Feature 64, Interior Fitness Circulation impacts all but which of the following bodily systems?
a. Nervous
b. Cardiovascular
c. Skeletal
d. Muscular

43. Which of the following Features addresses Healthy Sunlight Exposure?

a. Feature 62, Daylight Modeling
b. Feature 61, Right to Light
c. Feature 60, Automated Shading and Dimming Controls
d. Feature 63, Daylighting Fenestration

44. Which of the following skin disorders can be triggered by stress hormone via chronic stress and
anxiety and manifests itself by the production of itchy or sore patches of thick, red skin with
silvery scales?
a. Psoriasis
b. Scabies
c. Cellulitis
d. Acne

45. Which of the following is a part of Feature 99, Beauty and Design II? (Choose 2)
a. Ceiling Height
b. Pattern Incorporation
c. Beauty and Mindful Design
d. Artwork

46. Which of the following is not a part of Feature 73, Ergonomics: Visual and Physical?
a. Seat Flexibility
b. Desk Height Flexibility
c. Visual Ergonomics
d. Desk partition height

47. Which type of cell facilitates peripheral vision and vision in dim lighting conditions with peak
sensitivity to green-blue light?
a. None of the above
b. Cone cells
c. Photosensitive retinal ganglion cells (ipRGCs)
d. Rod cells
 WELL AP – Practice Exam A

48. Which of the following represents the definition of a candela (cd)?

a. Percentage of space in which the light level from direct sun alone exceeds a pre-defined
threshold (such as 1,000 lux) for some quantity of hours (such as 250) in a year
b. Unit of illuminance, equivalent to one lumen per square foot
c. Annual sufficiency of ambient daylight levels in interior environments
d. Measurement of luminous intensity and the SI base of unit of light

49. Under Feature 89, Adaptable Space, areas greater than 1,860 m2 (20,000 ft2) must provide a
designated quiet space that meets which of the following requirement?
a. Noise Criteria (NC) from mechanical systems is 25 or lower
b. Noise Criteria (NC) from mechanical systems is 30 or lower
c. Noise Criteria (NC) from mechanical systems is 35 or lower
d. Noise Criteria (NC) from mechanical systems is 40 or lower

50. Which term refers to a type of dementia marked by the loss of cognitive ability, affecting
memory, thinking and behavior generally over a period of 10 to 15 years?
a. Lou Gehrig’s Disease
b. Alzheimer’s Disease
c. Huntington’s Disease
d. Parkinson’s Disease

51. What percentage of our time is spent within the built environment?
a. 90%
b. 82%
c. 75%
d. 99%

52. Which of the following Features would most likely help to minimize moisture in HVAC
equipment?
a. Feature 03, Ventilation Effectiveness
b. Feature 36, Part 5: Legionella Control
c. Feature 14; Infiltration Management
d. Feature 01; Air Quality Standard

53. What percentage of adults worldwide (ages 20 and over) is considered overweight?
a. 40%
b. 13%
c. 69%
d. 35%
 WELL AP – Practice Exam A

54. What are the 7 concepts of the WELL Building Standard?

a. Fitness, Air, Water, Light, Comfort, Mind, Nourishment
b. Location, Social, Light, Fitness, Nutrition, Water, Air
c. Nourishment, Air, Land, Emotions, Water, Physical, Light
d. Nutrition, Air, Environment, Location, Comfort, Water, Light

55. According to the WELL Building Standard, proximity to highly travelled roads and manufacturing
plans can affect outdoor air quality, increasing ozone and VOC content, and in turn, diminishing
indoor air quality. Which of the following strategies would be of most help with mitigating air
pollution in highly traveled roads and manufacturing plans?
a. Media filters
b. Entryway Systems
c. Carbon filters
d. Operable Windows

56. Feature 95, Stress and Addiction Treatment impacts all but which of the following bodily
systems?
a. Digestive
b. Endocrine
c. Muscular
d. Cardiovascular

57. What are the two parts of Feature 29, Cleaning Equipment? (Choose 2)
a. Chemical Storage
b. Accessibility
c. Cleanability
d. Equipment and Cleaning Agents
e. Material Off-gassing
f. Material properties

58. Feature 99, Beauty and Design II impacts which of the following bodily systems?
a. Muscular
b. Cardiovascular
c. Nervous
d. Immune

59. Which of the following Features addresses Cold Storage?

a. Feature 45, Food Advertising
b. Feature 42, Food Contamination
c. Feature 46, Safe Food Preparation Materials
d. Feature 38, Fruits and Vegetables
 WELL AP – Practice Exam A

60. Which of the following Features addresses quarterly testing and water data record keeping and
response?
a. Feature 35, Periodic Water Quality Testing
b. Feature 37, Drinking Water Promotion
c. Feature 36, Water Treating
d. Feature 34, Public Water Additives

61. What percentage of American adults (ages 20 and over) are considered obese?
a. 13%
b. 35%
c. 69%
d. 40%

62. Under Feature 81, Sound Barriers, what is required for wall construction specifications? (Choose
3)
a. Conference rooms, minimum NIC of 53 for walls adjoining private offices
b. Enclosed offices minimum NIC of 35 when a sound masking system is present
c. Conference rooms, minimum NIC of 35 for walls adjoining private offices
d. Enclosed offices minimum NIC of 40 when no sound masking system is used
e. Enclosed offices minimum NIC of 35 when no sound masking system is used

63. Which of the following terms describes the aesthetic mottling of the teeth?
a. Chloritis
b. Fluorosis
c. Fluoritis
d. Chlorosis

64. Just 2.5 hours of moderate-intensity physical activity per week can reduce overall mortality risk
by nearly what percentage?
a. 20%
b. 25%
c. 10%
d. 15%

65. Copy rooms can contribute to the production of what gas, which is linked to asthma and other
respiratory diseases?
a. Carbon Dioxide
b. Ammonia
c. Ozone
d. Ethane
 WELL AP – Practice Exam A

66. How many food allergens are addressed by Feature 40, Food Allergies?
a. 8 food allergens
b. 7 food allergens
c. 7 food allergens plus gluten
d. 8 food allergens plus gluten

67. What terms refers to small thin-walled air-conditioning compartments of the lung that are
typically arranged in saclike clusters that give the tissue a honeycomb appearance and expand
its surface area for the purpose of air exchange?
a. Bronchi
b. Pulmonary cluster
c. Alfeoli
d. Alveoli

68. What term refers to repeated, continuous exposure to a substance or condition over an
extended period, from several years to a lifetime?
a. Focus Condition
b. Acute Exposure
c. Chronic Exposure
d. Focus Exposure

69. Which of the following Features requires employers to offer each employee a self-monitoring
device for his/her personal use that accurately measures and tracks biomarkers associated with
occupant health and wellness, including, but not limited to, heart rate variability, sleep quality
and duration, activity levels, and body mass?
a. Feature 94, Self-Monitoring
b. Feature 70, Fitness Equipment
c. Feature 68, Physical Activity Space
d. Feature 65, Activity Incentive Programs

70. What do R9 values take into consideration?

a. How we perceive black hue
b. How we perceive saturation of warmer hues
c. How we perceive saturation of cooler hues
d. How we perceive white hues

71. Which of the following represents the elements necessary to execute Photocatalytic oxidation
(PCO)?
a. A combination of UV light rays and TiCO2-coated filter
b. A combination of UV light rays with AlO2-coated filter
c. A combination of UV light rays with TiO2-coated filter
d. A combination of UV light rays with HgO2-coated filter
 WELL AP – Practice Exam A

72. Which of the following represents a definition of Cone Cells?

a. Photosensitive cells found with LED light bulbs which display the full Visible Light
Spectrum
b. Photosensitive cells in the eye used to discern peripheral vision in low levels of
illumination
c. Photosensitive cells in the eye used to differentiate colors and brightness in moderate
and high levels of illumination
d. Photosensitive cells within the retina of the eye which aid in distinguishing between
objects near and far

73. How many Innovation Features does the WELL Building Standard include?
a. 2 Features
b. 1 Feature
c. 4 Features
d. 5 Features
e. 3 Features

74. Feature 72, ADA Accessible Design Standards impacts which of the following bodily systems?
(Choose 2)
a. Cardiovascular
b. Skeletal
c. Muscular
d. Nervous

75. Which of the following addresses Free Address and Personal Thermal Comfort Devices?
a. Radiant Thermal Comfort
b. Density Thermal Comfort
c. Individual Thermal Comfort
d. Thermal Comfort

76. In order to comply with the Charitable Activities part of Feature 96, Altruism, how many of
hours of paid time, as organized by the employer for a register charity twice a year, is required?
a. 8 hours
b. 9 hours
c. 11 hours
d. 10 hours

77. How many premature deaths worldwide does air pollution contribute to per year? (Choose 2)
a. Approximately 50,000
b. 1 in 8
c. 1 in 7
d. Approximately 7 million
 WELL AP – Practice Exam A

78. Which type of cells facilitates daytime vision and color perception with peak sensitivity to green-
yellow light?
a. Photosensitive retinal ganglion cells (ipRGCs)
b. Rod cells
c. Cone cells

79. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Property grounds are included in the area calculations for WELL Pilot
b. Parking garages are included in the area calculations for WELL Building Standard v1
c. Parking garages and lots are no subject to Performance Verification
d. Parking garages and lots are not included in the area calculations for WELL Pilot
projects

80. Which of the following represents a group of diseases that impact the metabolism due to
insufficient insulin production and/or high insulin resistance, and are considered a leading
causes of death?
a. Diabetes
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Thyroid Disease

81. How many more calories per hour does standing burn, in comparison to sitting?
a. 55 calories
b. 50 calories
c. 58 calories
d. 60 calories

82. Which of the following Features addresses Lease Depth and Window Access?
a. Feature 60, Automated Shading and Dimming Controls
b. Feature 62, Daylight Modeling
c. Feature 61, Right to Light
d. Feature 63, Daylighting Fenestration

83. Which of the following terms is a metric that describes the length of time it takes for a sound to
decay by 60 DB from its original level?
a. Impulse response
b. Reverberation time
c. Exponential decay
d. Acoustic resonance
 WELL AP – Practice Exam A

84. How much water does the Institute of Medicine (IOM) recommend that women consume each
day?
a. Approximately 2.7 liters
b. Approximately 2.7 gallons
c. Approximately 3.7 gallons
d. Approximately 3.7 liters

85. An increase in relative humidity of 35% can increase the emissions of formaldehyde by which of
the following factors?
a. 1.9
b. 3.6
c. 1.6
d. 2.9

86. Which of the following defines Dry Bulb Temperature (DBT)?

a. Temperature of air measured by a thermometer freely exposed to the air, while
accounting for humidity
b. Temperature of air measured by a thermometer freely exposed to the air but shielded
from radiation and moisture, without accounting for humidity
c. Temperature of air measured by a thermometer freely exposed to the air but shielded
from radiation and moisture, while accounting for humidity
d. Temperature of air measure by a thermometer freely exposed to the air but shielded
from radiation, without accounting for humidity

87. Which of the following represents the 6 major pollutants? (Choose 6)

a. Carbon Monoxide
b. Particulate Matter
c. Sulfur Dioxide
d. Nitrogen Monoxide
e. Ozone
f. Hydrogen Sulfide
g. Hydrogen Chloride
h. Ammonia
i. Lead
j. Nitrogen Dioxide
k. Ethane
l. Sulfur Monoxide
m. Carbon Dioxide
n. Methane
 WELL AP – Practice Exam A

88. Which of the following are part for Feature 51, Food Production? (Choose 2)
a. Farm Support
b. Gardening Space
c. Planting Support
d. Farm Space
e. Planting Space
f. Gardening Support

89. Water composes how much of the human body?

a. More than 6/8
b. More than 3/4
c. More than 7/8
d. More than 2/3

90. Which of the following defines Rod Cells?

a. Photosensitive cells in the eye used to discern peripheral vision in low levels of
illumination
b. Photosensitive cells within the retina of the eye which aid in distinguishing between
objects near and far
c. Photosensitive cells found within LED light bulbs which display the full Visible Light
Spectrum
d. Photosensitive cells in the eye used to differentiate colors and brightness in moderate
and high levels of illumination

91. To what angel should computer screens at desks located within 4.5 meters or 15 feet of view
windows be perpendicularly oriented to the plane of the nearest window?
a. 18°
b. 10°
c. 20°
d. 15°

92. What steps does the Project Team need to follow to successfully achieve WELL?
a. Register project on WELL Online, Gather project information and prepare
documentation, Submit for Documentation Review, Schedule Performance
Verification
b. Register project on WELL Online, Gather projection information and prepare doctrine,
Schedule Preliminary Validation, Submit for Documentation Review
c. Schedule Performance Verification, Gather project information and prepare documents,
Register project on WELL Online, Submit for Detailed Review
d. Gather project information and prepare documentation, Schedule Performance
Verification, Submit for Documentation Review, Register project on WELL Online
 WELL AP – Practice Exam A

93. Which of the following are technologies prescribed by Feature 36, Water Treatment that are
designed to maintain high water quality irrespective of variations to the water supply through
the provisioning of various precautionary filtration and sterilization processes? (Choose 3)
a. Reverse osmosis systems
b. Sediment filters
c. UV sanitization
d. Kinetic Degradation Fluxion (KDF) filters
e. Media filters
f. Carbon filters

94. Which word is used to describe different WELL project types?

a. WELL Rating Systems
b. WELL Systems
c. WELL Typologies
d. WELL Project Categories

95. Which represents a requirement in the Nourishment section of WELL? (Choose 2)

a. Onsite training programs must be offered once per month
b. The diameter of circular plates must be no larger than 10 inches
c. At least 45 minutes must be provided to all employees (full time and part time) to eat
lunch between the hours of 11am and 3pm
d. All pork must be Federally Certified Organic AND Humane Certified

96. The life expectancy among those with mental illness is more than ___ shorter compared to
those without mental illness?
a. 10 years
b. 10%
c. 12%
d. 12 years

97. What percentage of American adults (ages 20 and over) are considered overweight?
a. 69%
b. 13%
c. 40%
d. 35%

98. What percentage of adults worldwide (ages 20 and over) are considered obese?
a. 40%
b. 35%
c. 13%
d. 69%
 WELL AP – Practice Exam A

99. Which option is most effective in removing bacteria post-hand washing?

a. Bath towels washed twice weekly
b. Single-direction (down) electronic hand dryer
c. Dual-direction electronic hand dryer
d. Paper towels

100. What does the acronym NRC stand for?

a. Noise Reduction Coefficient
b. Noise Reduction Constant
c. Noise Reflection Coefficient
d. Noise Radical Coefficient
 WELL AP – Practice Exam B

1. Feature 23, Advanced Air Purification requires the use of ____ to remove VOCs and ozone, and
ultraviolet sanitizers to irradiate any bacteria, viruses, and mold spores, present in circulating
indoor air.
a. Carbon papers
b. Carbon filters
c. Nitrogen papers
d. Media filters

2. In order to maintain a current certification (for New and Existing Buildings and for New and
Existing Interiors), a project must file an application for recertification no later than:
a. 2 years after the date on which the project was awarded its initial certification
b. 3 years after the date on which the project was awarded its initial certification
c. 5 years after the date on which the project was awarded its initial certification
d. 4 years after the date on which the project was awarded its initial certification

3. The Health and Wellness Library par of Feature 84, Health and Wellness Awareness requires at
least one book title or one magazine subscription for every ____ occupants.
a. 5
b. 15
c. 20
d. 10

4. Feature 74, Exterior Noise Intrusion impacts all but which of the following bodily systems?
a. Skeletal
b. Nervous
c. Cardiovascular
d. Endocrine

5. What term refers to an exaggerated or pathological reaction (sneezing, respiratory irritation,

itching or skin rashes) to substances that are without comparable effect on the average
individual?
a. Toxicity
b. Allergic reaction
c. Immune reaction
d. Respiratory reaction

6. The presence of all but which of the following within walking distance from residences is linked
to a higher likelihood of walking and using transit?
a. Industrial Parks
b. Retail Shops
c. Offices
d. Bus Stops
 WELL AP – Practice Exam B

7. What do ultraviolet germicidal irradiation, also known as UVGI, devices manage?

a. Mold on cooling coils
b. Mold and bacteria on cooling cables
c. Bacteria on cooling cables
d. Mold and bacteria on cooling coils

8. Which of the following best keeps the body’s internal clocks synchronized?
a. Digestion
b. Light
c. Exercise
d. Temperature

9. High consumption of SSBs can lead to which of the following. (Choose 3)

a. Depression
b. Stroke
c. Blood clots
d. Hypertension
e. Heart attack
f. Metabolic syndrome

10. Which of the following is a chronic inflammatory disease of the airways, triggered by exposure
to allergens, that causes the airways to spasm, alternatively swelling and narrowing, resulting in
wheezing or gasping for air?
a. Respiratory Disorder
b. Asthma
c. Immune Disorder
d. Alveoli Disorder

11. What does the acronym THM stand for?

a. Trihalomercury
b. Trihalomethane
c. Triptohalomethane
d. Trihalomagnesium

12. What does Feature 01, Air Quality Standards require as an independent means of verifying that
the building is meeting critical air quality requirements?
a. An assessor to complete a performance test after occupancy
b. A project team member to complete a performance test after occupancy
c. A project team member to complete a performance test before occupancy
d. An assessor to complete a performance test before occupancy
 WELL AP – Practice Exam B

13. What term refers to an opening in a surface (as in a wall or membrane)?

a. Bay
b. Fenestration
c. Elevation
d. Seepage

14. Filing an application for recertification extends the validity of the project’s original certification
period for ___ months, during which time the project must satisfactorily complete the
recertification process to the determine that the building continues to perform to the WELL
standard.
a. Seven
b. Four
c. Two
d. Six

15. Which of the following is not a part of Feature 85, Integrative Design?
a. Design Charrette
b. Stakeholder Orientation
c. Stakeholder Charrette
d. Development Plan

16. Which of the following Feature addresses Acoustic Planning and Mechanical Equipment Sound
Levels?
a. Feature 74, Exterior Noise Intrusion
b. Feature 75, Internally Generated Noise
c. Feature 80, Sound Reducing Surfaces
d. Feature 78, Sound Masking

17. Which of the following Features addresses duct protection, filter replacement, moisture
absorption and dust containment and removal?
a. Feature 05, Air Filtration
b. Feature 03, Ventilation Effectiveness
c. Feature 04, VOC Reduction
d. Feature 07, Construction Pollution Prevention

18. What is the correct term for keeping the body’s internal clocks synchronized?
a. Circadian photoentrainment
b. Circadian clock
c. Circadian rhythm
d. Circadian cycle

19. What does the acronym SSB stand for?

a. Sodium-saturated beverage
b. Sugar-saturated beverage
 WELL AP – Practice Exam B

c. Salt-saturated beverage
d. Sugar-sweetened beverage

20. What is the average life expectancy of a smoker in relation to a nonsmoker?

a. 12 years less
b. 5 years less
c. 10 years less
d. 2 years less

21. Which of the following represents the definition of a Health Product Declarant (HPD)?
a. Quantified environmental data for a product with pre-set categories of parameters
based on the International Organization of Standards (ISO) 14040 series of standards,
but not excluding additional environmental information
b. Qualified environmental data for a product with pre-set categories of parameters based
on recycled content, but not excluding additional environmental information
c. Quantified environmental data for a product with pre-set categories of parameters
based on the raw material source and extraction reporting, but not excluding additional
environmental information
d. A standard format for reporting product content and associated health information
for building products and materials

22. Polybrominated diphenyl ethers are included in a particular type of chemical that increases
what quality in materials?
a. Smell
b. Color intensity
c. Melting point
d. Fire resistance

23. Which of the following are included in the top ten risk factors contributing to global mortality,
according to the World Health Organization (WHO)? (Choose 2)
a. Insufficient vegetable intake
b. Lack of water consumption
c. Consumption of sugar-sweetened beverages
d. Insufficient fruit intake

24. Which of the following refers to the internal clock that keeps the body’s hormones and bodily
processes on a roughly 24-hour cycle, even in continuous darkness?
a. Circadian rhythm
b. Sleep rhythm
c. Sleep cycle
d. Circadian cycle
 WELL AP – Practice Exam B

25. Which of the following does Feature 98, Organizational Transparency incorporate to support fair
and equitable organizations? (Choose 2)
a. Human Resources records
b. JUST participation
c. LEED surveys
d. GRI Sustainability Reporting Guidelines

26. The New and Existing Buildings typology addresses the full scope of project design and
construction as well as aspects of building operations. This typology is applicable to office
buildings where a minimum of _____ of the total area is occupied by the building owner and is
operated by the same management.
a. 70%
b. 90%
c. 80%
d. 100%

27. Which term best describes the state of having regulated response to environmental conditions
to retain stability as covered within the WELL Building Standard?
a. Equilibrium
b. Heterostasis
c. Disequilibrium
d. Homeostasis

28. What does the acronym PBDEs stand for?

a. Polybrominated diphenhydramine ethers
b. Polybrominated diphenhydramine ethanol
c. Polybrominated diphenyl ethers
d. Polybrominated diphenyl ethanol

29. Which of the following Features require the adoption of organic and free-range agricultural
products?
a. Feature 50, Food Storage
b. Feature 49, Responsible Food Production
c. Feature 44, Nutritional Information
d. Feature 51, Food Production

30. Which of the following is among the most widely used pesticides in the United States and
among the most commonly detected pesticides in drinking water?
a. Benzene
b. Simazine
c. Glyphosate
d. Atrazine
 WELL AP – Practice Exam B

31. What pollutant serves as a proxy for other indoor pollutants?

a. Carbon Monoxide
b. Nitrogen Dioxide
c. Sulfur Monoxide
d. Carbon Dioxide
e. Particulate Matter
f. Sulfur Dioxide
g. Nitrogen Monoxide
h. Ozone

32. How many servings of fruit per day do the Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend?
a. 4 servings
b. 3 servings
c. 5 servings
d. 6 servings

33. Which of the following represents the definition of metabolic?

a. The process of large molecules breaking into smaller parts and subsequently oxidized to
release energy
b. Any biological process that occurs within an organism that is not necessary to sustain
life
c. The process of large molecules breaking into smaller parts and subsequently powering
respiration
d. Any biochemical process that occurs within an organism that is necessary to sustain
life

34. Volatile Organic Compounds, also known as VOCs, include which of the following? (Choose 2)
a. Simazine
b. Atrazine
c. Formaldehyde
d. Benzene

35. In order to comply with the Information Reporting part of Feature 86, Post-Occupancy Surveys,
aggregate results from surveys must be reported within 30 days to all but which of the following
groups?
a. U.S. Green Building Council
b. International WELL Building Institute
c. Building owners
d. Building manager
 WELL AP – Practice Exam B

36. Which term best describes the lack of oxygen delivery of body tissues that can cause nausea,
lack of consciousness, and death?
a. Hypoxia
b. Hypnoxemia
c. Hypnoxia
d. Hypoxemia

37. Which of the following are parts for Feature 48, Special Diets? (Choose 6)
a. Vegetarian (contains no meat or fish)
b. Lactose-free
c. Vegan (contains no animal products)
d. Shellfish-free
e. Egg-free
f. Pork-free
g. Peanut-free
h. Gluten-free
i. Pescatarian

38. In order to satisfy Part 1: Bicycle Storage and Support of Feature 69, Active Transportation
Support, separate and secure bicycle storage for at least 5% of regular building occupants, as
well as short-term bicycle storage for at least 2.5% of all peak visitors, are required to be within
how many feet of the building’s main entrance?
a. 500 feet
b. 250 feet
c. 650 feet
d. 300 feet

39. VOC levels can be up to how many times higher indoors than outdoors?
a. 2 times more
b. 10 times more
c. 12 times more
d. 5 times more

40. Which of the following represents the definition of aerosols?

a. Substances consisting of very fine particles of a liquid suspended in a gas
b. None of the above
c. Substances consisting of very fine particles of a solid suspended in a gas
d. Substances consisting of very fine particles of a liquid or solid suspended in a gas

41. Carbon monoxide has _____ time the binding affinity for hemoglobin compared to oxygen.
a. 210
b. 190
c. 200
d. 220
 WELL AP – Practice Exam B

42. Which of the following chemicals are commonly added to water to kill pathogen organisms and
can lead to the formation of disinfectant byproducts such as trihalomethanes (THMs) and
haloacetic acids (HAAs), as well as N-nitrosodimethylamine (NDMA), which may lead to cancer
and other adverse health effects when exposure occurs at levels above the EPA standards?
(Choose 2)
a. Fluoride
b. Chloride
c. Chloramide
d. Iodine
e. Bromine
f. Chlorine
g. Chloramine
h. Fluorine

43. Which of the following are designed to absorb volatile pollutants and remove the largest
particles?
a. Carbon filters
b. Media filters
c. Kinetic Degradation Fluxion (KDF) filters
d. Reverse osmosis filters

44. Which of the following are designed to address smaller particles?

a. Media filters
b. Carbon filters
c. Kinetic Degradation Fluxion (KDF) filters
d. Reverse osmosis filters

45. Which of the following are parts for Feature 47, Serving Sizes? (Choose 2)
a. Dinner Sizes
b. Lunch Sizes
c. Breakfast Sizes
d. Utensil Sizes
e. Meal Sizes
f. Dinnerware Sizes
g. Snack Sizes

46. Letters of assurance will be required from the flowing licensed professionals to confirm that the
requirements of WELL Features have been met:
a. Engineers, Directors, Land Surveyor
b. Contractors, Appraisers, Engineers
c. Constructors, Architects, IWBI Coach
d. Contractors, Engineers, Architects
 WELL AP – Practice Exam B

47. What is the sufficient amount of ambient light levels for most tasks?
a. 300 lumens
b. 300 candela
c. 300 lux
d. 300 foot candles

48. Which of the following are NOT Features within the Comfort concept?
a. Individual Thermal Comfort
b. Density Thermal Comfort
c. Radiant Thermal Comfort
d. Thermal Comfort

49. Which term best represents designing objects and spaces that are aesthetically pleasing while
maximizing accessibility, usability and operability regardless of the user’s age, ability and other
factors?
a. Extensive Design
b. Universal Design
c. Inclusive Design
d. Comprehensive Design

50. Which of the following are design methods that can be used to slow the movement of air from
outdoors to indoors within mechanically ventilated main building entrances? (Choose 3)
a. At least 3 normally-shut doors that separate occupied space from the outdoors
b. Entrance mat
c. Revolving entrance doors
d. Building entry vestibule with two normally-closed doorways

51. Which of the following represents a definition of Ultraviolet Germicidal Irradiation (UVGI)?
a. A sterilization method that uses ultraviolet light to break down microorganisms by
destroying their DNA
b. A sterilization method that uses ultraviolet light to break down microorganisms by
slowing their reproduction
c. A sterilization method that uses ultraviolet light to break down microorganisms by
destroying their bacteria
d. A sterilization method that uses ultraviolet light to break down microorganisms by
destroying their pathogen
e. A sterilization method that uses ultraviolet light to break down microorganisms by
destroying their RNA
 WELL AP – Practice Exam B

52. 60% of individuals with asthma who live in urban environments also experience sensitivity to
what allergen?
a. Yeast
b. Cockroaches
c. Dogs
d. Cats

53. Which ASHRAE Standard is incorporated into Feature 76, Thermal Comfort?
a. ASHRAE Standard 62.2
b. ASHRAE Standard 189.1
c. ASHRAE Standard 90.1
d. ASHRAE Standard 55

54. Where are cone cells located within the eye?

a. Cornea
b. Sclera
c. Vitreous humor
d. Retina
e. Iris

55. Which of the following describes the supply of air at low velocity levels at or near the floor level,
which then rises to the ceiling level?
a. Dispersement ventilation
b. Replacement ventilation
c. Upward shift ventilation
d. Displacement ventilation
e. Misplacement ventilation

56. Under which of the following conditions is BPA prone to be released? (Choose 2)
a. Exposure to light
b. Exposure to moisture
c. Exposure to cold
d. Exposure to heat
e. Exposure to UV light
f. Exposure to dish detergent

57. The general documents required for WELL Certification include the following:
a. Lighting drawings, Municipal drawings
b. Mechanical drawings, Lighting drawings
c. Lighting drawings, Manual drawings
d. Mechanism drawings, Lighting drawings
 WELL AP – Practice Exam B

58. Through _____, lights of high frequency and intensity promote alertness, while the lack of this
stimulus signals the body to reduce energy expenditure and prepare for rest.
a. Photosensitive stem cells (PSCs)
b. Cone cells
c. Photosensitive retinal ganglion cells (ipRGCs)
d. Rod cells

59. Which of the following should be addressed by written protocol for Feature 09, Cleaning
Protocol?
a. Dated cleaning logs maintained and available to all occupants
b. All of the above
c. Cleaning schedule and frequency
d. A list of approved products
e. A list of high and low touch surfaces

60. The quality of United States drinking water relies largely on what piece of legislation?
a. The Clean Water Act of 1974
b. The Energy & Water Policy Act of 1992
c. The Safe Drinking Water Act of 1974
d. The Water Quality Act of 1992

61. Feature 55, Electric Light Glare Control sets limits on glare based on measures of luminous
intensity. How is this calculated?
a. lux/ft2
b. cd/ft2
c. cd/in2
d. cd/m2

62. Exposure to which of the following herbicides may lead to kidney problems and reproductive
difficulties?
a. Simazine
b. Atrazine
c. Benzene
d. Glyphosate

63. Feature 56, Solar Glare Control requires which of the following (Choose 2)
a. Glare Shading
b. Glare Management
c. View Window Shading
d. Daylight Shading
e. View Window Management
f. Daylight Management
 WELL AP – Practice Exam B

64. Feature 87, Beauty and Design I impacts which of the following bodily systems?
a. Immune
b. Nervous
c. Cardiovascular
d. Muscular

65. Project teams may propose an alternative for any requirement of WELL by submitting a
completed alternative adherence path form to IWBI. Each form pertains to one Feature, and
there is no limit on the number of alternative path adherence forms that can be submitted per
project. Project teams may submit an alternative adherence path proposal for pre-approval:
a. During registration
b. After registration
c. Before or after registration
d. Before registration

66. Which of the following is not a part of Feature 88, Biophilia I – Qualitative?
a. Pattern Incorporation
b. Nature Incorporation
c. Nature Interaction
d. Nature Integration

67. Exposure to which material via inhalation is associated with lung cancer and mesothelioma and
can occur when building materials degrade over time or are disturbed during renovation or
demolition?
a. Asbestos fibers
b. MDF
c. Dust
d. Particulate matter

68. Which of the following are parts for Feature 45, Food Advertising? (Choose 2)
a. Nutritional Cues
b. Nutritional Messaging
c. Advertising and Environmental Messaging
d. Health Cues
e. Advertising and Environmental Cues
f. Health Messaging

69. Feature 11, Fundamental Material Safety addresses the presence of which materials within
building materials? (Choose 2)
a. Particulate matter
b. Asbestos
c. Lead
d. MDF
 WELL AP – Practice Exam B

70. Which term best represents a set of symptoms, such as a headache, fatigue, eye irritation and
breathing difficulties, that typically affect workers in modern airtight office buildings, and that
are believed to be caused by indoor pollutants and poor environmental control?
a. Aerotoxic Syndrome
b. Sick Building Syndrome
c. Somatization Disorder
d. Toxic Workplace Syndrome
e. Asthma

71. What are the methods by which moisture can enter buildings and building assemblies? (Choose
4)
a. Water transported moisture
b. Capillary water
c. Water diffusion
d. Vapor diffusion
e. Air transported moisture
f. Capillary vapor
g. Bulk water
h. Air diffusion

72. Which of the following micronutrients must be disclosed according to Feature 44, Nutritional
Information? (Choose 4)
a. Potassium
b. Iron
c. Vitamin D
d. Vitamin D2
e. Vitamin A
f. Vitamin C
g. Calcium
h. Vitamin B

73. What term refers to the separation between the interior and the exterior environments of a
building, restricting transfer of air, water, heat, light, noise and creatures?
a. Building Façade
b. Building Skin
c. Building Envelope
d. Water Vapor Barrier
e. Building Veneer
f. Building Fenestration
 WELL AP – Practice Exam B

74. Innovation Feature pave the way for project teams to develop unique strategies for creating a
healthy environment. Features can relate to any of the WELL Concepts. Innovation Features
must:
a. Be supported by Core and Shell Compliance
b. Not apply to the Mind Concept
c. Not be novel and can address any existing Feature of WELL
d. Be novel and should not address an existing Feature of WELL

75. During Performance Verification, an individual with authorized access to all areas of the building
must be present so that performance test and inspections may be conducted in any area,
including:
a. Air, Grounds, Roof, Tenant Spaces
b. Mechanical, Kitchen, Grounds, Roof
c. Mechanical, Tenant Spaces, Grounds, Roof
d. Maintenance, Water, Air, Lighting

76. Which term refers to photosensitive cells in the eye used to discern peripheral vision in low
levels of illumination?
a. Cone Cells
b. Rod Cells
c. Intrinsically Photoreceptive Retinal Ganglion Cells (ipRGCs)
d. Visible Light Cells (VLC)

77. In terms of Feature 13, Air Flush, which of the following is the higher priority?
a. Materials management
b. Management of construction pollution
c. Integration of SMACNA control measures
d. Air flush

78. Feature 15, Increased Ventilation requires buildings to design and supply rates of fresh air that
are _____ higher than typically provided?
a. 20%
b. 35%
c. 30%
d. 25%

79. High humidity may lead to which of the following? (Choose 3)

a. Paratens
b. Symbionts
c. Mold
d. Dust mites
e. Bacteria
f. Viruses
 WELL AP – Practice Exam B

80. In order to comply with the Material Information part of Feature 97, Material Transparency,
what percentage of interior finishes and finish materials, furnishings (including workstations)
and built-in furniture must have some combination of qualifying material descriptions?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 25%
d. 40%

81. Which of the following defines metamers?

a. Different spectral distributions of light which produce the same response on the rods
and are therefore visually identical
b. Different spectral distributions of light which produce the opposite response on the rods
and are therefore visually different
c. Different spectral distributions of light which produce the opposite response on the
cones and are therefore visually different
d. Different spectral distributions of light which produce the same response on the cones
and are therefore visually identical

82. Which of the following are acceptable separation methods for Source Separation of Feature 77,
Olfactory Comfort? (Choose 5)
a. Vestibules
b. Positive Pressurization
c. Satellite rooms
d. Negative pressurization
e. Hallways
f. Self-closing doors
g. Neutral pressurization
h. Interstitial rooms

83. Feature 88, Biophilia I – Qualitative impacts which of the following bodily systems?
a. Immune
b. Cardiovascular
c. Nervous
d. Muscular

84. Which of the following properties of water serve as indicators for possible presence of many
harmful contaminates? (Choose 2)
a. Turbidity
b. Color
c. Tone
d. Temperature
e. Total pathogens
f. Total coliforms
 WELL AP – Practice Exam B

85. Which of the following is not a part of Feature 89, Adaptable Spaces?
a. Space Management
b. Stimuli Management
c. Convertible Furnishings
d. Workplace Sleep Support
e. Privacy

86. Which term best describes diseases of the brain and nervous system?
a. Neurocognitive Diseases
b. Neuropathy Diseases
c. Neurological Diseases
d. Neurosarcodosis Diseases

87. In order to comply with the Non-Workplace Sleep Support part of Feature 90, Healthy Sleep
Policy, the organizational cap for late night work and communications for non-shift work must
be set at what time?
a. 10pm local time
b. 9pm local time
c. 11pm local time
d. Midnight local time

88. How many servings of vegetables per day do the Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend?
a. 3 servings
b. 5 servings
c. 4 servings
d. 6 servings

89. What is the recommended limit of added sugars per day?

a. 2-3 tablespoons
b. 1-3 teaspoons
c. 6-9 teaspoons
d. 5-7 teaspoons
e. 2-5 teaspoons

90. An increase in relative humidity of ____ can increase the emissions of ______ by a factor of 1.8
to 2.6.
a. 35%, formaldehyde
b. 33%, formaldehyde
c. 35%, carbon
d. 33%, carbon
 WELL AP – Practice Exam B

91. Which term best describes an infectious biological agent such as bacteria, virus and fungus that
is capable of causing disease in its hosts?
a. Parasite
b. Symbiont
c. Paraten
d. Pathogen

92. According to the WELL Guide, research shows that high levels of perceived justice in the decision
making process at work are correlated with a lower risk of _____ and an increased sense of
_____.
a. Anxiety; productivity
b. Poor Health; mortality
c. Poor Health; loyalty
d. Poor Health; productivity
e. Anxiety; loyalty

93. Feature 95, Stress and Addiction Treatment requires which strategy?
a. Minimum four weeks paid time off
b. Employee Health Programs
c. None of the above
d. Employee Assistance Programs

94. Which is required to verify that air infiltration/leakage is kept in check?

a. Annotated Document
b. Letter of Assurance from MEP engineer the designed and maintains the building
c. Commissioning Report
d. Letter of Assurance from Owner

95. Which is required to document Feature 43, Artificial Ingredients? (Choose 2)

a. Commissioning Report
b. Annotated Documents
c. Spot Check
d. Visual Inspection
e. Operations Schedule

96. Which is required to document Feature 86, Post-Occupancy Surveys?

a. Visual Inspection
b. Spot Check
c. Operations Schedule
d. Policy Document
 WELL AP – Practice Exam B

97. When a WELL Feature is denied, a project team can submit a curative action plan. Once a
project submits a curative action plan, whats the next step?
a. Project team has the option to accept or appeal Certification
b. WELL schedules conference call with project team
c. WELL review & approves the curative action plan, no retesting is required
d. WELL reviews the curative action plan and schedules retesting

98. Which of the following are Preconditions for New and Existing Interiors? (Choose 3)
a. Feature 35, Periodic Water Quality Testing
b. Feature 45, Food Advertising
c. Feature 77, Olfactory Comfort
d. Feature 65, Activity Incentive Programs
e. Feature 57, Low-Glare Workstation Design
f. Feature 87, Beauty and Design I
g. Feature 14, Air infiltration management

99. In regards to Feature 24, Combustion Minimization, Part 2: Low-Emission Combustion Sources,
which of the following does NOT need to meet California’s South Coast Air Quality Management
District rules for pollution?
a. Internal combustion engines
b. Process heaters
c. Steam generators
d. Water heaters
e. Boilers
f. Air conditioners
g. Furnaces

100. Which of the following Features includes a requirement for air leakage testing?
a. Feature 17, Direct Source Ventilation
b. Feature 15, Increased Ventilation
c. Feature 13, Air Flush
d. Feature 14, Air Infiltration Management

101. Which term refers to a cluster of medical conditions or risk factors that increase the
chances of developing cardiovascular disease, diabetes, fatty liver disease and several cancers?
a. Sick Building Syndrome
b. Oncology
c. Metabolic Syndrome
d. Medical Predisposition
e. Immunodeficiency syndrome
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

1. Which serve as possible indicators for the presence of harmful contaminants? (Choose 2)
a. Lead
b. Turbidity
c. Sodium Chloride
d. Total coliforms
e. Dissolved metals

2. According to the WELL Guide, copy rooms can contribute to the production of which of the
following?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Formaldehyde
c. VOCs
d. Ozone
e. Carbon monoxide

3. Which of the following is true regarding WELL Recertification?

a. WELL Certification is valid for 5 years
b. WELL Recertification is available to all previously WELL Certified projects as long as it is
completed within the required timeframe
c. For the first recertification event following initial certification, a project can elect to be
reviewed under either the version of WELL for which it achieved initial certification or
any subsequent release version
d. WELL Recertification does NOT require a full site visit and Performance Verification

4. In a regularly occupied training room that includes 100m2 of wall space, how much dark wood
paneling would be acceptable on the walls?
a. 30 m2 maximum
b. 50 m2 maximum
c. 70 m2 maximum
d. 80 m2 maximum

5. Which of the following is true regarding Feature 59, Surface Design?

a. LRV values relate only to walls and ceilings, not furniture
b. The LRV of ceilings must be lower than the LRV of walls
c. Higher LRVs promote alertness and activity
d. Walls must have the highest LRVs
e. Higher LRVs can result in unwanted glare

6. According to the WELL Guide, sitting burns how many fewer calories per hour than standing?
a. 100
b. 250
c. 150
d. 200
e. 50
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

7. Which are commonly used to kill pathogenic organisms in water? (Choose 2)

a. Sodium dioxide
b. Sodium chloride
c. Bromamine
d. Chlorine
e. Chloramine

8. The maximum reverberation time for conference rooms is _____ and for open offices is _____.
a. 0.8 seconds; 0.5 seconds
b. 0.6 seconds; 0.5 seconds
c. 0.5 seconds; 0.3 seconds
d. 0.5 seconds; 0.8 seconds

9. Which is associated with type 2 diabetes as well as breast cancer according to the WELL guide?
(Choose 2)
a. High intake of processed meat
b. Air pollution
c. Low vegetable consumption
d. High intake of red meat
e. Poor water quality
f. Low fruit consumption

10. To which group must the post-occupancy surveys be reported within 30 days? (Choose 3)
a. GBCI
b. The WELL Assessor
c. Building owners and managers
d. International WELL Building Institute
e. Building occupants (upon request)

11. For non-shift work, WELL projects and spaces should introduce an organizational cap at _____
for late night work and communications.
a. 9pm
b. Midnight
c. 10pm
d. 11pm

12. Ultraviolet sanitizers serve to irradiate which of the following?

a. Bacteria and mold spores only
b. Mold spores only
c. Viruses and mold spores only
d. Bacteria and viruses only
e. Mold spores, viruses and bacteria
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

13. Which is true regarding PM2.5 vs. PM10 in regards to Feature 01, Air Quality Standards?
a. The limit for PM2.5 is the same as PM10
b. The limit for PM2.5 is higher than from PM10
c. PM2.5 and PM10 are not addressed by Feature 01, Air Quality Standards
d. The limit from PM2.5 is lower than for PM10.

14. Why is organizational transparency important within the WELL system? (Choose 2)
a. A higher level of perceived justice in the decision making process at work is correlated
with a lower risk of poor health, whereas declining levels of perceived justice can
increase risk
b. It leads to greater employee satisfaction, as well as a heightened sense of loyalty
c. Research shows that organizational transparency leads to higher revenue and increased
profit margins
d. Increased organizational transparency has been shown to better align employee pay
with performance

15. Which of the following represents strategies under Feature 89, Adaptable Spaces? (Choose 2)
a. Ambient lighting must provide continuously dimmable light levels at 2700 K or less
b. At least 50% of the office must be free-address
c. At least 20% of desks must be adjustable height
d. The Noise Criteria (NC) from mechanical systems must be 30 or lower
e. At least 10% of wall systems must be movable within the space

16. Under Feature 84, Health and Wellness Awareness, which of the following must be provided to
all occupants? (Choose 2)
a. Educational literature on health and wellness
b. A free health assessment to all employees
c. A guide describing the WELL Building Standard features pursed by the project
d. A copy of the WELL Building Standard

17. Which of the following are covered by Fundamental Material Safety? (Choose 4)
a. Halogenatd Flame Retardants
b. Asbetos
c. Mold
d. Lead
e. Atrazine
f. PCBs
g. Mercury
h. PBDEs
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

18. Enhanced Material Safety address which Standards? (Choose 3)

a. Cradle to Cradle
b. Living Building Challenge
c. BREEAM
d. ISO
e. GreenScreen
f. Greenguard
g. LEED

19. In beverage vending machines, at least _____ of the slots must be for products that contain less
than _____ grams of sugar or less per 8 ounce serving.
a. 50%; 15 grams
b. 50%; 30 grams
c. 100%; 15 grams
d. 75%; 30 grams
e. 100%; 30 grams

20. To accurately portray colors in the space and enhance occupant comfort, Color Rendering Index
R9 must be at what level?
a. 85 or higher
b. 80 or higher
c. 50 or higher
d. 60 or higher
e. 75 or higher
f. 70 or higher

21. Under Physical Activity Spaces, which represents the requirements with respect to gyms or
swimming pools that are walking distance from the building?
a. The gym must be at least 4,000 ft2 and the pool must have dedicated swimming lanes
b. They must be free to all occupants
c. They must be for the exclusive use of occupants
d. They must be a pedestrian oriented walkway or path that connects the building with the
amenities
e. They must be discounted by at least 10% to occupants

22. Which standard is referenced with respect to VOC reduction in furniture & furnishings?
a. ANSI/BIFMA
b. SCAQMD
c. ASHRAE
d. CDPH
e. CARB
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

23. According to the WELL Guide, what is the definition of overweight?

a. Body Mass Index of 15-19.9
b. Body Mass Index of 20-24.9
c. Body Mass Index over 30
d. Body Mass Index of 25-29.9
e. Body Mass Index of 12

24. Feature 90, Healthy Sleep Policy requires organizations to provide employees with a _____
subsidy on software and/or applications that monitor daytime sleep-rated behavior patterns
such as activity levels, caffeine and alcohol intake, and eating habits.
a. 50%
b. 40%
c. 20%
d. 30%
e. None of the above

25. Which of the following represents the requirements surrounding parental leave? (Choose 2)
a. Supplementary to paid leave, provide an additional 12 workweeks of paternity or
maternity leave during any 12 month period
b. Supplementary to paid leave, provided an additional 6 workweeks of paternity or
maternity leave during any 12 month period
c. Paid paternity and maternity leave for 12 weeks during any 12 month period
d. Paid paternity and maternity leave for 6 workweeks during any 12 month period
e. Paid paternity leave for 6 weeks and maternity leave for 12 weeks during any 12 month
period

26. Which of the following does NOT need to be tested periodically within the WELL system?
a. Lead
b. Arsenic
c. Mercury
d. Sodium chloride
e. Copper

27. Which of the following represents the requirements around asbestos and lead restriction in the
WELL system?
a. No asbestos and no lead
b. No asbestos and not more than 100 ppm lead
c. No lead and not more than 100 ppm asbestos
d. Not more than 100 ppm asbestos and 100 ppm lead
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

28. What is used to provide that air filters have been properly operated and maintained?
a. A Letter of Assurance by the building engineer confirming compliance with all relevant
codes and standards
b. Records of air filtration maintenance, provided annually
c. A site visit by the WELL Assessor to inspect air filters
d. Records of air filtration maintenance, provided quarterly

29. ipRGCs are critical to the circadian system, sending information to various parts of the brain to
trigger reactions downstream in the body. These cells demonstrate peak sensitivity to ____
light.
a. Blue-yellow
b. Green-blue
c. Teal-blue
d. Red-green
e. Green-yellow

30. Which has the largest positive impact on circadian rhythm if they are at the same level of
brightness?
a. Incandescent bulbs
b. All have the same impact
c. Light at 6500K
d. LED bulbs
e. Red light

31. Which of the following would be an acceptable strategy for Daylight Management under
Feature 56, Solar Glare Control? (Choose 3)
a. Interior light shelves
b. Interior or exterior window shading devices that are set on a timer
c. Exterior light shelves
d. Interior or exterior window shading devices that automatically adjust to daylight levels
e. Interior or exterior window shading devices that are controllable by occupants

32. Electric Light Glare Control requires that bare lamps and luminaire surfaces more than ____
above the enter of view (degrees above horizontal) have luminance less than _____ cd/m2.
a. 26 degrees; 3,680 cd/m2
b. 50 degrees; 3,000 cd/m2
c. 60 degrees, 5,000 cd/m2
d. 53 degrees, 8,000 cd/m2
e. 20 degrees; 2,5000 cd/m2
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

33. Under Feature 82, Individual Thermal Comfort Control, what percent of open office spaces must
be free address?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 45%
d. 40%
e. 20%

34. In regards to participating in charitable activities, under the WELL Building Standard, individuals
must be given _____ hours of paid time organized by the employee for a registered charity
_____.
a. 8 hours; twice per year
b. 16 hours; once per year
c. 8 hours; three times per year
d. 4 hours; four times per year
e. 8 hours; once per year

35. Incorporating Biophilia into the project affect which of the following systems?
a. Immune
b. Digestive
c. Endocrine
d. Integumentary
e. Nervous

36. Which of the following are referenced by Responsible Food Production? (Choose 2)
a. Fair-Trade Certified
b. Marine Stewardship Council Certified
c. Federally Certified Organic
d. Non-GMO Certified
e. Humane Certified

37. Feature 87, Beauty and Design I is derived from which of the following standards?
a. LEED
b. ISO
c. Living Building Challenge
d. BREEAM
e. JUST
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

38. According to the WELL Guide, which of the following affect the leaching rate of inorganic
metals? (Choose 4)
a. Weather
b. Turbidity
c. Variations in temperature
d. pH
e. Light
f. Changing industrial practices

39. Which of the following must be monitored indoors under Feature 18, Air Quality Monitoring and
Feedback? (Choose 3)
a. Formaldehyde
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Carbon monoxide
d. VOCs
e. Particle count
f. Ozone

40. Doors connecting to private offices, conference rooms and teleconference rooms must be
constructed to have at least one of the following. (Choose 3)
a. Weather stripping
b. Non-spring loaded door stoppers
c. Sweeps
d. Gaskets
e. NIC of at least 0.8 higher
f. Non-hollow core

41. Which of the following are design requirements for Mindful Eating?
a. Eating spaces for employees must contain tables and chairs to accommodate at least
25% of total employees at a given time
b. The use of laptop computers is prohibited in dining areas during eating hours
c. The use of cell phones is prohibited in dining areas during eating hours
d. Employees must be provided with a method of heating food other than a microwave
oven
e. At least a 30-minute lunch break must be given to every employee as part of the
company policy
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

42. A new office building includes 850 full-time occupants and 40 part-time occupants. How much
space must be allocated for a garden or greenhouse to meet the requirements of Food
Production?
a. 42.5 m2
b. 44.5 m2
c. 89 m2
d. 70 m2
e. 85 m2

43. Which of the following statements is true?

a. Carbon filters are designed absorb volatile pollutants and remove ozone
b. Media filters are designed to absorb volatile pollutants and remove the smallest
particles
c. Carbon filters are designed to absorb volatile pollutants and remove the smallest
particles
d. Media filters are designed to absorb volatile pollutants and remove the largest particles
e. Carbon filters address particle size, media filters address volatile pollutants

44. Which term refers to an external cue that aligns physiological functions to the solar day in the
cycle?
a. Circadian photoentrainment
b. Circadian rhythm
c. Light-response mechanism
d. Zeitgeber
e. Photo response mechanism

45. According to Feature 32, Organic Contaminants, exposure to _____ and ______ in drinking
water has been associated with a range of adverse health effects, including _____, _____ and
_____.
a. Lead; fluoride; cancer; digestive track issues; nervous system difficulties
b. Copper; mercury; digestive track issues; nervous system difficulties
c. Polychlorinated biphenyls; fluoride; vomiting; heat palpitations; digestive track issues
d. Polychlorinated biphenyls; vinyl chloride; cancer; immune deficiencies and nervous
system difficulties

46. Lack of physical activity can shave off how many years of life according to the WELL Guide?
a. 2 years
b. 2-5 years
c. 2-3 years
d. 3-5 years
e. 3-7 years
f. 2-7 years
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

47. Under the WELL system, onsite professional fitness or training programs must be offered how
often?
a. Once per month
b. 5 times per quarter
c. Twice per month
d. Once per week

48. Which represents the WELL requirement regarding family support leave?
a. At least 6 workweeks of leave during any 6-month period for the care of a seriously ill
child, spouse, domestic partner, parent, parent-in-law, grandparent, grandchild or
sibling
b. None of the above
c. At least 12 workweeks of leave during any 12-month period for the care of a seriously
ill child, spouse, domestic partner, parent, parent-in-law, grandparent, grandchild or
sibling
d. At least 6 workweeks of leave during any 12-month period for the care of a seriously ill
child, spouse, domestic partner, parent, parent-in-law, grandparent, grandchild or
sibling

49. Which of the following represents a requirement for View Window Shading? (Choose 3)
a. External shading systems that are controllable by the occupants or set on a timer
b. Light shelves which are designed to maximize passive solar design
c. Variable opacity glazing, such as electrochromatic glass, which can reduce
transmissivity by 90% or more
d. Interior window shading or blinds that are controllable by the occupants or set on a
timer
e. Window film with a visible light transmittance (VLT) of less than 0.8

50. Which heating method is best in arid environments?

a. Gas heating
b. Electric heating
c. Space heaters
d. Radiant heating
e. Oil heating

51. Which of the following is NOT addressed by Air Quality Monitoring and Feedback? (Choose 3)
a. Particle count
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Formaldehyde
d. VOCs
e. Temperature and humidity
f. Carbon monoxide
g. Ozone
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

52. To minimize glare caused by incoming sunlight, all computer screens at desks located within 15ft
(4.5m) of view windows should be oriented at what angle?
a. 20° angle perpendicular to the plane of the nearest window
b. 25° angle parallel to the plane of the nearest window
c. 25° angle perpendicular to the plane of the nearest window
d. 20° angle parallel to the plane of the nearest window

53. Which of the following would NOT count as a strategy under Activity Incentive Programs?
a. $300 or greater in reimbursements or incentive payments for every 12-month period
that an employee meets a 52-visit minimum to the gym or professional program
b. A fitness program in which it is demonstrated that at least 30% of regular building
occupants utilize free access to gyms
c. A subsidy of at least $50 per year for employees to cover the costs of a bicycle share
membership
d. Tax-exempt payroll deductions relating to bicycle commuting and mass transit

54. Under the WELL system, ultraviolet germicidal irradiation (UVG) devices are employed to
specifically manager which of the following?
a. Mold and bacteria on cooling coils
b. Mold and bacteria stemming from potential leaks in the building piping
c. Mold and bacteria caused by high-humidity levels within the building interior
d. Mold and bacteria in restrooms and surrounding the kitchen sink

55. What are the requirements regarding Window Access with respect to WELL? (Choose 2)
a. 75% of all desks or regularly occupied seats are within 7.5 m of an atrium or window
with views to the exterior
b. 50% of all desks or regularly occupied seats are within 7.5 m of an atrium or window
with views to the exterior
c. 95% of all desks or regularly occupied seats are within 15 m of an atrium or window with
views to the exterior
d. 90% of all desks or regularly occupied seats are within 15 m of an atrium or window with
views to the exterior
e. 95% of all desks or regularly occupied seats are within 12.5 m of an atrium or window
with views to the exterior

56. Under Visual Lighting Design, Visual Acuity for Focus the ambient lighting system must be able
to maintain an average light intensity of _____ or more, measured on the horizontal plane,
_____ above the finished floor.
a. 180 lux (15 fc); 0.5m (20 inches)
b. 250 lux (22 fc); 1m (40 inches)
c. 300 lux (25 fc); 1m (40 inches)
d. 215 lux (20 fc); 0.76m (30 inches)
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

57. Which is true regarding noise reduction coefficient? (Choose 2)

a. NRC is an average value that the determines the absorptive properties of a material
b. NRC is a unit of measurement to measure reverberation time
c. NRC values are dependent on temperature and humidity
d. The larger the NRC value, the better the material is at absorbing sound under
standardized conditions
e. The smaller the NRC value, the better the material is at absorbing sound under
standardized conditions

58. Which of the following is specifically required by Feature 85, Integrative Design upon
construction completion? (Choose 2)
a. Tour the buildings as a group
b. Begin initial enhanced commissioning post-warranty review
c. Perform building flushout
d. Discuss how building operations will support adherence to the WELL Building Standard
e. Schedule performance testing

59. According to the WELL Building Standard, short naps are effective for which of the following?
a. Maintain a body’s circadian rhythm
b. Reducing the time needed to sleep during night
c. Maintaining a strong immune system
d. Improving mental and physical acuity, even more so than caffeine

60. Which of the following is the preferable method for drying hands with respect to WELL?
a. Hand towels washed at least every day
b. Standard air dryers (single direction air flow)
c. Hand towels washed at least once per week
d. Disposable paper towels
e. Dual-sided air dryers

61. How often must the dissolved metals lead, arsenic, mercury, and copper be tested?
a. Weekly
b. Quarterly
c. Monthly
d. Semi-annually
e. Annually
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

62. What do the concepts of Comfort and Fitness have in common? (Choose 3)
a. Treadmill workstations
b. Workstation chair height adjustability
c. Bicycle desks
d. Desk-top height adjustment stands
e. Pairs of fixed-height desks of standing and seated heights, which need not be located
adjacent to each other
f. Adjustable height standing desks

63. Which of the following is NOT addressed by Feature 17/Direct Source Ventilation? (Choose 2)
a. Bicycle storage areas
b. Bathrooms
c. Chemical storage units
d. Parking Garages
e. Printers and copiers

64. Mops, rags and dusters used to clean all non-porous surfaces must consist of a microfiber with a
denier no higher than _____?
a. 5
b. 1
c. 2
d. 4
e. 3

65. In regards to mechanical sound levels under Feature 75/Internally Generated Noise, open
offices and lobbies have a maximum noise criteria (NC) of _____ and enclosed offices have a
maximum noise criteria of _____.
a. 40; 35
b. 30; 25
c. 25; 30
d. 35; 40

66. Activated carbon filters are effective for removing which of the following organic contaminants?
(Choose 3)
a. Benzene
b. Mercury
c. Lead
d. PCBs
e. Styrene
f. Atrazine
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

67. Feature 73, Ergonomics, Visual and Physical requires that at least _____ of workstations have
the ability to alternate between sitting and standing positon.
a. 30%
b. 40%
c. 50%
d. 20%
e. 60%

68. Which is the part of the eye that facilitates daytime vision and color perception with peak
sensitivity to green-yellow light?
a. Cones
b. Rods
c. None of the above
d. Cornea
e. Intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells

69. Which represents the requirements of Fruit and Vegetable Variety? (Choose 2)
a. At least 50% of the fruits and vegetables provided must be in season
b. All fruits and vegetables must be federally certified organic
c. At least 2 varieties of fruits and at least 2 varieties of non-fried vegetables
d. At least 50% of available options are fruits and/or non-fried vegetables
e. At least 50% of calories must come from fruits and/or vegetables
f. Provide at least 1 fruit and 2 varieties of non-fried vegetables

70. In regards to air sanitization, spaces with more than _____ regular occupants (within buildings
that recirculate air) must use either _____ and/or _____ to treat the recirculated air.
a. 5, ultraviolet sanitization, activated carbon filters
b. 10, ultraviolet germicidal irradiation, photocatalytic oxidation
c. 10, ultraviolet sanitization, activated carbon filters
d. 5, ultraviolet light, photocatalytic sanitization

71. According to Responsible Food Production, _____ percent of produce and ______ percent of
meat, egg and dairy products must be Federally Certified Organic or Humane Certified.
a. 75%; 100
b. 50%; 50%
c. 100%; 50%
d. 100%; 100%
e. 100%; 75%
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

72. In regards to Melanopic Light Intensity for Work Areas, light model or light calculations must
show at least _____ equivalent melanopic lux is present at ____ or more of workstations. This
light must be present for at least _____ hours per day, every day of the year.
a. 200 EML; 50%; 8 hours
b. 300 EML; 50%; 8 hours
c. 200 EML; 75%; 4 hours
d. 215 EML; 75%; 6 hours

73. Feature 95, Stress and Addiction Treatment requires which of the following?
a. 12 weeks paid leave for medical conditions such as for depression, anxiety, substance
use, addiction and co-occurring mental health issues
b. 6 weeks paid leave for medical conditions such as depression, anxiety, substance use,
addiction and co-occurring mental health issues
c. 6 weeks unpaid leave for medical conditions such as for depression, anxiety, substance
use, addiction and co-occurring mental health issues
d. Employee Assistance Programs offering short-term treatment and referrals to
qualified professionals for depression, anxiety, substance use, addiction and co-
occurring mental health issues

74. According to the WELL Guide, which can help to remove dissolved metals? (Choose 2)
a. Activated carbon filters
b. Ultraviolet sanitization
c. Kinetic degradation fluxion
d. Reverse osmosis filter
e. Clay filters

75. Physical inactivity is estimated to be responsible for numerous chronic diseases including _____
of type 2 diabetes cases.
a. 27%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 13%
e. 18%

76. Which is false regarding Healthy Sunlight Exposure?

a. Annual sunlight exposure must be achieved for no more than 10% of regularly occupied
space
b. At least 55% of the space must receive at least 300 lux of sunlight for at least 50% of
operating hours each year
c. No more than 10% of the area can receive more than 1,000 lux of sunlight for 250 hours
each year
d. Spatial daylight autonomy must be achieved for at least 55% of regularly occupied space
e. At least 50% of occupied space must receive at least 250 lux of sunlight for at least
10% of the operating hours each year
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

77. Which of the following would NOT trigger indicator lights at all operable windows?
a. Outdoor air has a relative humidity below 60%
b. Outdoor air exceeds PM10 levels of 50 µg/m3
c. Outdoor air has a temperature of 8°C above or below set indoor temperature
d. Outdoor air exceeds ozone levels of 51 ppb

78. According to the WELL Guide, removing turbidity in water may also remove which of the
following?
a. Bacteria
b. Chloramine
c. Protozoa
d. Benzene
e. Chlorine

79. According to the WELL Guide, chronic stress is associated with which of the following negative
physiological outcomes? (Choose 3)
a. Psoriasis
b. Acne
c. Alzheimer’s disease
d. Loss of bone density
e. Metabolic syndrome
f. Reduced pH levels in blood

80. Which feature addresses all of the following chemicals: Formaldehyde, VOCs, Carbon Monixide,
Radon, RM2.5 and PM10?
a. Ventilation Effectiveness
b. Construction Pollution Management
c. VOC Reduction
d. Air Quality Monitoring and Feedback
e. Air Quality Standards
f. Fundamental Material Safety

81. Under Active Furnishings, projects must provide some combination of treadmill desk, bicycle
desks, portable desk pedals and/or stepper machines for what percentage of employees?
a. 7%
b. 5%
c. 6%
d. 3%
e. 1%
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

82. Halogenated flame retardants are limited to _____ under the Toxic Material Reduction feature.
a. 0.001%
b. 0.15%
c. 0.05%
d. 0.01%
e. None of the above, halogenated flame retardants are not allowed within WELL projects

83. Under Feature 01, Air Quality Standard, what is the limit for radon in the lowest occupied level
of the project?
a. 6 pCi/L
b. 8 pCi/L
c. 4 pCi/L
d. 10 pCi/L

84. According to the WELL Guide, which represents the range of the body’s core temperature?
a. 97°F -100°F
b. 96°F -99°F
c. 96°F -101°F
d. 98°F -101°F

85. Which are the non-image-forming photoreceptors of the eyes?

a. Rods
b. None of the above
c. Cones
d. Cornea
e. Intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells

86. The addition of chlorine and chloramine can lead to the formation of which of the following?
a. Disinfectant byproducts
b. Flurosis
c. Chloroacetic acids
d. Trichloromethanes

87. All water being delivered to the project area for human consumption or showers/baths must be
treated with which of the following:
a. Activated carbon filters
b. Clay filters
c. Safe levels of chlorine and/or chloramine
d. Reverse osmosis
e. Kinetic degradation
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

88. Light exposure in the ____ will shift our rhythms forward (phase advance), whereas light
exposure in the _____ will shift our rhythms back (phase delay).
a. Late morning/early afternoon; late afternoon/early evening
b. Late night/early morning; late afternoon/early evening
c. Early morning; late evening
d. Early morning/late afternoon; late morning/early evening

89. Feature 94, Self-Monitoring requires that employees be provided with a sensor capable of
measuring at least 2 parameters such as body weight, activity and steps, hart rate variability and
sleep duration. These sensors must be subsidized at what percent?
a. 20%
b. 25%
c. 100%
d. 50%

90. Which of the following is NOT a requirement of Feature 80, Sound Reducing Surfaces?
a. Cubical style offices must have partitions that reach 1.2 m (48 inches) and have a
minimum NRC of 0.8
b. Walls for offices & conference rooms must have an NRC of 0.8 on at least 25% of the
surface area
c. Open office ceilings must have an NRC of 0.9 for the entire surface area
d. Conference room ceilings must have an NRC of 0.8 on at least 50% of the surface area
e. Furniture in offices and conference rooms must have an NRC of 0.8 for all systems
furniture and seating installed

91. Which is NOT a requirement of Processed Foods?

a. In beverage vending machines and on food service menus, at least 50% of slots or
listings are products that have 15 g of sugar or less per 240 mL serving
b. No partially hydrogenated oil
c. No preservatives that are not naturally occurring
d. In any foods where a grain flour is the primary ingredient by weight, a whole grain must
be the primary ingredient
e. No beverage with more than 30g of sugar per container is sold or distributed
f. No individually sold, single-serving, non-beverage food items contains more than 30 g of
sugar

92. Which Features touch upon some form of ultraviolet sanitization to address water safety?
(Choose 2)
a. Feature 30, Fundamental Water Quality
b. Feature 37, Drinking Water Promotion
c. Feature 32, Organic Contaminants
d. Feature 31, Inorganic Contaminants
e. Feature 36, Water Treatment
f. Feature 100, Biophilia II Quantitative
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

93. Which is NOT required by Interior Fitness Circulation in projects of 2 to 4 floors?

a. Elevators located at least 10 m from the building entrance
b. Stairs clearly visible from the main entrance to the project
c. Stairs located visually before any elevators present upon entering from the main
entrance
d. Stairs located within 25 ft of the entrance to the building or the edge of its lobby
e. Stair width set at a minimum of 1.4 m (56 inches) between handrails

94. The WELL Guide requires that pesticides have a hazard tier ranking of _____ per the City of San
Francisco Department of the Environment’s Reduced-Risk Pesticide List.
a. 4
b. 2
c. 1
d. 3
e. 5

95. Which of the following has 210 times the binding affinity for hemoglobin compared to oxygen?
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Ozone
c. Lead
d. Sulfur
e. Carbon dioxide
f. Nitrogen

96. Exposure to which pathogens through water containing coliforms can lead to adverse
gastrointestinal effects such as diarrhea, vomiting, nausea and cramps?
a. Viruses only
b. Protozoa and viruses
c. Bacteria, viruses and protozoa
d. Bacteria and viruses
e. Bacteria, viruses and water-born amoebas
f. Bacteria only

97. According to the WELL Guide, ambient light levels of _____ lux are sufficient for most tasks?
a. 350
b. 200
c. 150
d. 300
e. 250
 WELL AP – Practice Exam C

98. According to the WELL Guide, which of the following represents the wavelength for green-blue
versus green-yellow light?
a. Green-yellow = 555 nm; green-blue = 498 nm; teal-blue light = 480 nm
b. None of the above
c. Green-yellow = 498 nm; green-blue = 480 nm; teal-blue light = 555 nm
d. Green-yellow = 480 nm; green-blue = 555 nm; teal-blue light = 498 nm
e. Green-yellow = 498 nm; green-blue = 555 nm; teal-blue light = 480 nm

99. Under the WELL system, employer-based health insurance (or subsidies to purchase insurance
through an exchange) must be offered to which group?
a. Full-time and part-time workers
b. Full-time workers and their spouses and dependents, as well as part-time worker
c. Full-time and part-time workers as well as their spouses and dependents
d. Full-time workers and their spouses and dependents

100. Which of the following is specifically covered under Feature 59, Surface Design, Working
and Learning Area Surface Reflectivity? (Choose 3)
a. Floors
b. Vestibules
c. Computer monitors
d. Ceiling
e. Walls
f. Furniture
 WELL AP – Practice Exam D

1. Exposure to pesticides, fertilizers, and herbicides have been linked most strongly to what body
system?
a. Reproductive System
b. Integumentary System
c. Muscular System
d. Immune System
e. Skeletal System

2. Feature 23, Advanced Air Purification, addresses carbon filtration (Part 1), air sanitization (Part
2) and _____ (Part 3).
a. Air Flow Rate Testing
b. Air Quality Maintenance
c. ASHRAE 52.2
d. System Replacement
e. Combustion Gas Minimization

3. What documentation is required for Feature 43, Artificial Ingredients, Part 1 Artificial Substance
Labeling?
a. A narrative
b. A signed letter of assurance from the owner
c. A visual inspection
d. An annotated operations schedule

4. WELL Core and Shell Compliance requires at least one _____ per Concept.
a. Credit
b. Optimization
c. Precondition
d. Prerequisite

5. Of the following types of building uses, which may the WELL Building Standard V.1 be applied
to? (Select the correct two answers)
a. Institutional
b. Residential
c. Commercial
d. Industrial
 WELL AP – Practice Exam D

6. Which is NOT a requirement of Processed Foods, Part 1: Refined Ingredient Restrictions?

a. In any foods where a grain flour is the primary ingredient by weight, a whole grain must
be the primary ingredient
b. No partially hydrogenated oil
c. No individually sold, single-serving, non-beverage food items contains more than 30g of
sugar
d. In beverage vending machines and on food service menus, at least 50% of slots or
listings are products that have 15g of sugar or less per 240 mL serving
e. No beverage with more than 30g of sugar per container is sold or distributed through
catering services, vending machines or pantries.

7. Use of radiant temperature system enhances thermal comfort by _____.

a. None of the above
b. Supplying air from low velocity levels at or near the floor level
c. Separating the ventilation systems from the heating and cooling elements
d. Controlling relative humidity levels within the range of 35%–45
e. Improving ventilation effectiveness

8. Feature 85, Integrative Design, requires which of the following? (Choose 3)

a. A guide available to all occupants describing the WELL Building Standard
b. Having the project team perform a values assessment
c. Discussing how building operations will support adherence to WELL
d. Touring the building as a group
e. Descriptions on how the project will meet at least two of the following features:
celebration of culture, integration of public art, celebration of spirit and place

9. Which of the following individuals may NOT be the WELL AP serving as the WELL Project
Administrator?
a. Owner
b. WELL Assessor
c. USGBC staff
d. Architect

10. Which outdoor air measurements would discourage occupants from opening windows? (Choose
3)
a. PM10 levels of 50 µg/m3
b. Relative humidity below 60%
c. Temperature of 8°C above or below set indoor temperature
d. Carbon dioxide levels exceed the given thresholds
e. Ozone levels exceed 51 ppb
 WELL AP – Practice Exam D

11. Which of the following would provide improved acoustic comfort under Feature 81, Sound
Barriers?
a. Absorptive surfaces such as wall panels
b. Air gaps in wall construction
c. Doors with a hollow core
d. Materials with low Noise Isolation Class (NIC)

12. A new office building is 30,000m2 and includes 10,000m2 of open space surrounding the
building. There are 250 full time occupants. How much space must be allocated from a garden
or greenhouse to meet the requirements of Food Production?
a. 25 m²
b. 10 m²
c. 100 m²
d. 30 m²
e. 50 m²

13. The project team for a new building has met all of the Preconditions for the WELL Building
Standard. Which one of the following could they consider as an Optimization?
a. Feature 73, Ergonomics: Visual and Physical
b. Feature 87, Beauty and Design I
c. Feature 75, Internally Generated Noise
d. Feature 54, Circadian Light Design
e. Feature 81, Sound Barriers

14.
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam – WELL Certification

1. A new library is under construction. Which of the following WELL Features is a Precondition of
certification for New and Existing Buildings?
a. Feature 51 Food Production
b. Feature 81 Sound Barriers
c. Feature 67 Exterior Active Design
d. Feature 11 Fundamental Material Safety

2. Which of the following is NOT a porous high-touch surface that requires more frequent and
thorough cleaning?
a. Towels
b. Upholstered furniture covers
c. Rugs
d. Fabric wallcoverings

3. Which of the following WELL Features is a Precondition of certification for New and Existing
Buildings?
a. Feature 86 Post-Occupancy Surveys
b. Feature 91 Business Travel
c. Feature 16 Humidity Control
d. Feature 48 Special Diets

4. For an existing interior space, how many WELL Features are available?
a. 98 plus 5 Innovation Features
b. 41 Preconditions plus 61 Optimizations
c. 30 Preconditions plus 26 Optimizations
d. 100 plus 5 Innovation Features

5. The WELL Building Standard was pioneered by which group?

a. USGBC
b. Delos
c. Cleveland Clinic
d. International WELL Building Institute (IWBI)

6. IWBI was established pursuant to which of the following commitments?

a. Clinton Global Initiative
b. Kyoto Protocol
c. Montreal Protocol
d. COP21

7. What percent of WELL Preconditions must be met in order to achieve Silver Certification?
a. 90%
b. 95%
c. 75%
d. 100%
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam – WELL Certification

8. What tasks is the WELL Assessor required to perform?

a. Visit the site, host the initial project charrette, and submit the project documentation to
IWBI.
b. Register the project, visit the site, and perform tests on parameters of the interior
environment.
c. Visit the site, visually inspect elements to validate project design documentation, and
perform performance tests on parameters of the interior environment.
d. A WELL Assessor is not required, but is strongly suggested to participate in the project
documentation.

9. To verify that the building continues to perform in accordance with the WELL Building Standard,
New and Existing Building projects must apply for recertification how often?
a. Every 3 years
b. Every 4 years
c. Recertification is not applicable
d. Every 5 years

10. Which of the following is NOT a licensed professional type that can sign a Letter of Assurance for
a WELL Feature?
a. Property Managers
b. Architects
c. Contractors
d. Engineers

11. Excluding Innovation Features, how many total Preconditions and Optimizations are available
for Core and Shell project typologies?
a. 100
b. 105
c. 82
d. 54

12. What is the role of a WELL AP?

a. Provide required signatories
b. Guide projects to a successful certification or compliance award
c. Provide specific calculations pertaining to the project
d. Perform the Performance Verification

13. After the WELL certification award, which of the following would a project team NOT be
required to provide to maintain its status as a WELL Certified project?
a. Logs with proof of maintenance
b. New tenant move-in drawings
c. Results of post-occupancy surveys
d. Ongoing environmental parameter measurements
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam – WELL Certification

14. A project team is anticipating that their project will earn a score of 7. What award level does this
score correspond to?
a. Platinum
b. Gold
c. Silver
d. Bronze

15. Which of the following organizations is a public benefit corporation whose mission is to improve
human health and well-being through the built Environment?
a. Green Business Certification Inc (GBCI)
b. U.S. Green Building Council (USGBC)
c. International WELL Building Institute (IWBI)
d. Delos Living LLC

16. A project team for an existing building is considering the addition of artwork to the central
stairway, which already includes view windows to the exterior. Which WELL Concept includes a
Feature that rewards combinations of windows and artwork like this?
a. Fitness
b. Light
c. Comfort
d. Mind

17. If a project is so expansive that a single WELL Assessor cannot complete the Performance
Verification in a reasonable amount of time, what alternative path is available to the WELL
Assessors?
a. Employ a pre-qualified testing organization that the WELL Assessor oversees
b. Add up to 1 additional WELL Assessor
c. Request 1 additional WELL Assessor for every 9,300 m2 (100,100 ft2) of project area
d. Extend the time that the assigned WELL Assessor is scheduled to perform the
Performance Verification

18. What minimum Concept Score must an existing 2 story retail building earn in the Mind Concept
to qualify for WELL certification?
a. 5
b. 4
c. 7
d. 6

19. Which WELL Concept includes a requirement that project comply with current ADA Standards
for Accessible Design?
a. Air
b. Comfort
c. Fitness
d. Mind
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam – WELL Certification

20. Which of the following are types of annotated documents that must be turned in for a WELL
certification application?
a. Lighting drawings and floor plans
b. Design drawings and operations schedules
c. Furniture plans and equipment schedules
d. Floor plans and lighting specifications

21. Which WELL Concept includes the requirement that any bathroom or kitchen sink column of
water is at least 25 cm [10 inches] in length?
a. Fitness
b. Water
c. Mind
d. Nourishment

22. Which of the following WELL Features is a Precondition of certification for New and Existing
Buildings?
a. Feature 37 Drinking Water Promotion
b. Feature 98 Organizational Transparency
c. Feature 89 Adaptable Spaces
d. Feature 73 Ergonomics: Visual and Physical

23. Each WELL Feature is ascribed to one or more human body systems. Which of the following is
NOT a system addressed by the WELL Building Standard v1?
a. Endocrine system
b. Lymphatic system
c. Muscular system
d. Integumentary system

24. From the date of registration, how long do projects teams utilizing WELL have to complete
documentation submission and schedule Performance Verification?
a. 3 years from the date of registration
b. 5 years from the date of registration
c. 3 years from the date of the on-site Performance Verification
d. 2 years from the date of the on-site Performance Verification

25. The WELL Building Standard v1 shares multiple similarities with the LEED v4 Rating Systems.
Which of the following LEED v4 credits is most similar to WELL Feature 56 Solar Glare Control?
a. EQ Credit Quality Views
b. EQ Credit Interior Lighting
c. EQ Credit Enhanced Commissioning
d. EQ Credit Daylight
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam – WELL Certification

26. At which website should a project team register their WELL Building project?
a. LEED Online
b. GBCI
c. IWBI
d. WELL Online

27. Who is responsible for completing a test after occupancy that confirms the project is meeting
minimum air quality requirements?
a. General Contractor
b. WELL Assessor
c. MEP Engineer
d. Commissioning Authority

28. Which WELL Concept includes the requirement that after substantial completion but before
occupancy the HVAC system undergoes testing and balancing?
a. Air
b. Light
c. Comfort
d. Fitness

29. At a non-profit with 200 employees, annual Occupant Indoor Environmental Quality surveys are
administered to a representative sample of 30% of the employees. Which WELL Concept
requires that the survey results are delivered to IWBI within 30 days?
a. Comfort
b. Fitness
c. Mind
d. Air

30. Which of the following conditions must be met for a new building project team to schedule the
WELL Performance Verification?
a. 4 months since the space’s certificate of occupancy was issued and 50% occupancy
achieved
b. Commissioning complete and documentation submitted
c. One month since the certificate of occupancy issued and commissioning complete
d. Documentation approved, at least one month since certificate of occupancy issued,
and 50% occupancy achieved

31. How many Optimizations are required for WELL Core and Shell Silver Certification?
a. 40% of applicable Optimizations
b. One per Concept
c. None
d. 80% of applicable Optimizations
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam – WELL Certification

32. Which WELL Concept includes a Feature that prohibits overhead luminaries from pointing
toward computer screens?
a. Light
b. Mind
c. Comfort
d. Fitness

33. An existing building is ready to begin the WELL certification process. They have registered the
project and are gathering project documentation. At what point should the project team
schedule the Performance Verification?
a. After the Documentation Review phase is marked approved in WELL Online
b. As soon as possible
c. As soon as the WELL Assessor has been assigned to the project
d. Once the project has 12 months of 100% occupied data

34. Creating a distraction-free, productive environment is the intent of which WELL Concept?
a. Light
b. Mind
c. Comfort
d. Fitness

35. Which of the following WELL Features is a Precondition of certification for New and Existing
Buildings?
a. Feature 56 Solar Glare Control
b. Feature 47 Serving Sizes
c. Feature 36 Water Treatment
d. Feature 13 Air Flush

36. For which building type is WELL Building Standard v1 NOT applicable?
a. Existing office tower
b. Existing 186 m2 (2,000 ft2) tenant suite in a 4 story building
c. New core and shell development
d. New single family residence

37. For a new office building project, failure to meet the requirements of which feature would
prevent the project from earning WELL certification?
a. Feature 19 Operable windows
b. Feature 33 Agricultural contaminants
c. Feature 61 Right to light
d. Feature 95 Stress and addiction treatment
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam – WELL Certification

38. For a new office building project, what minimum combination of applicable Preconditions and
Optimizations would result in a Silver award for the WELL Building Standard?
a. All Preconditions only
b. 80% of Preconditions and 40% of Optimizations
c. All Preconditions and 20% of Optimizations
d. All Preconditions and 40% of Optimizations

39. Minimizing disruption to the body’s circadian rhythm is the intent of which WELL Concept?
a. Fitness
b. Comfort
c. Light
d. Mind
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Air

1. Which substance has 210 time the binding affinity for hemoglobin compared to oxygen, and is
toxic to humans?
a. Nickel
b. Chlorine
c. Carbon monoxide
d. Methane

2. For which Feature in the WELL Building Standard is envelope commissioning required?
a. Feature 05 Air Filtration
b. Feature 13 Air Infiltration Management
c. Feature 12 Moisture Management
d. Feature 15 Increased Ventilation

3. In an urban high rise building, a contractor has just completed construction on a 10,000 ft2
(930m2) tenant suite. The team is preparing for a complete air flush of the space prior to
occupancy. What volume of outside air is required for this space to meet Feature 13 Air Flush?
a. 200,000,000 ft3 (9,300,000 m3)
b. 140,000,000 ft3 (3,967,380 m3)
c. 100,000,000 ft3 (2,107,380 m3)
d. 180,000,000 ft3 (5,827,380 m3)

4. Which resource should project teams refer to for managing moisture with respect to indoor air
quality?
a. ASHRAE 62.1
b. National Institute of Building Science’s “Whole Building Design Guide”
c. EPA’s “Moisture Control Guidance for Building Design, Construction and
Maintenance”
d. The Moisture Control Handbook

5. Which recommended strategy can suppress microbe build-up on high-touch surfaces and
reduce the need for cleaning chemicals?
a. Cleaning with a UV device, as recommended by the manufacture
b. Using vacuum cleaners with HEPA filters
c. Increasing the frequency of cleaning to twice daily
d. Using microfiber cloth cleaning towels

6. In order to comply with Feature 26 Enhanced Material Safety, 25% of products (by cost) must be
certified under which of the following standards?
a. California Air Resources Board
b. GreenScreenB Benchmark I
c. Green Seal
d. Cradle to CradleTM
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Air

7. In which way does a flexible storage space support the goals of Feature 28 Cleanable
Environment?
a. Additional stock of high-touch surface materials can be stored for easy replacement
b. Workstations can be expanded if new employees are hired
c. Green cleaning products and equipment can be stored in close proximity to the project
space
d. Movable furniture can be stored to allow all high-touch surfaces to be complexly
cleaned during cleaning

8. An office building’s air quality test has met 3 of the minimum requirements for Part 2: Standards
for Particulate Matter and Inorganic Gases: carbon monoxide, PM2.5, and PM10. What other
minimum standard is required for WELL Certification?
a. Formaldehyde less than 27ppb
b. Radon less than 0.148 Bq/L
c. Ozone less than 51 ppb
d. Methane less than 51 ppb

9. A building owner is upgrading the HVAC system because they are concerned with the negative
effects humidity extremes can have on the building occupants. What can they do to ensure that
humidity levels will stay within the acceptable range?
a. Establish a schedule to close blinds according to the time of day
b. Hire an envelope commissioning agent to review the entire building envelope and check
for air leakages
c. Install an energy recovery unit
d. Use modeling software to show that humidity levels will be within the acceptable
range for 95% of all annual business hours.

10. In cleaning storage areas, which two items should be stored in separate bins from one another?
a. Bleach and ammonia-based products
b. Green cleaning products from regular cleaning products
c. Products with toxic chemicals and those without
d. Cleaning products for floors and cleaning products for bathrooms

11. Which of the following is NOT a relevant standard for cleaning products?
a. Green Seal
b. Greenguard
c. UL EcoLogo
d. EPA Design for the Environment Program
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Air

12. At an existing office building campus, signage indicating an outdoor smoking ban is posted at all
building entrances. The signs indicate the ban on smoking within 7.5m (25ft) of all building
entrances, operable windows, building air intakes, and regularly occupied exterior building
spaces. What signage must be added to the courtyard areas more than 7.5m (25ft) from building
entrances to meet the requirements of Feature 02 Smoking Ban?
a. The location of designated smoking areas, posted every 30m (100ft) along walkways
b. Contact information for a smoking cessation program, posted every 15m (50ft) along
the edge of the no smoking area
c. The local municipal ordinance on smoking in exterior public areas, posted every 15m
(50ft) along the edge of the no smoking area
d. The hazards of smoking, posted every 30m (100ft) along walkways

13. An urban development has recently completed construction, and new tenants are moving in.
The project team is tabulating all products (including furnishings, furniture and finishes) to
report for Feature 26 Enhanced Material Safety. What metric should the project team use to
report compliance?
a. Either weight or cost
b. Cost
c. Volume
d. Weight

14. What is the maximum level of carbon dioxide for all spaces with an actual or expected occupant
density greater than 25 people per 93 m2 allowed by Feature 03 Ventilation Effectiveness?
a. 700 ppm
b. 1,000 ppm
c. 800 ppm
d. 500 ppm

15. A janitorial company is beginning work at a WELL-Certified building, and several requirements
related to the WELL Building Standard are written into the contract. Since the program has
achieved Feature 9 Cleaning Protocol, which of the following requirements must be met?
a. Mops, rags and dusters used to clean all non-porous surfaces must consist of microfiber
with a denier no higher than 1.5
b. Approved product seals for cleaning produces are exclusive to: EPA’s Design for the
Environment, UL EcoLogo or Green Seal
c. Walk-off matts should be wet cleaned every day
d. Vacuum cleaners contain MERV 8 filters
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Air

16. A new office building in San Diego has installed HVAC Equipment that cannot accommodate
MERV 13 filters. In order to achieve Feature 05 Air Filtration, what other way can the project
team demonstrate that adequate particle filtration is addressed?
a. Install carbon filters
b. Install MERV 10 filtration media
c. Provide documentation that filters have been continually maintained
d. Show that 95% of all hours in a calendar year, ambient outdoor PM10 and PM2.5
levels are below the limits set in Feature 01 Air Quality Standards

17. A Property Management company is considering submitting their portfolio of 9 urban office
properties for WELL Certification. The property teams are reviewing the requirements for air
data recording keeping. What should the property teams plan to provide in the WELL application
for this Feature? (Choose 2)
a. A written policy for each property, specifying enforcement strategies for air quality
monitoring and detailed plans for corrective action
b. A letter from the MEP specifying the height above finish floor of air quality monitoring
devices
c. Results form flow hood testing that confirm compliance with ASHRAE 62.1 ventilation
calculations
d. Daily reports on air quality for the entire performance period

18. The use of UVGI is required for which of the following Features?
a. Feature 22 Pest Control
b. Feature 06 Microbe and Mold Control
c. Feature 12 Moisture Management
d. Feature 09 Cleaning Protocol

19. Which of the following WELL Features requires that all doorknobs be coated in or composed of a
material that is abrasion-resistant, non-leaching and meets EPA testing requirements for
antimicrobial activity?
a. Feature 06 Microbe and Mold Control
b. Feature 28 Cleanable Environment
c. Feature 25 Toxic Material Reduction
d. Feature 27 Antimicrobial Activity for Surfaces

20. Which of the following strategies for pest control meet the requirements of Feature 22 Pest
Control?
a. Ensure that all indoor garbage cans greater than 113 liters (30 gallons) have a lid
b. Place all indoor garbage cans greater than 113 liters (30 gallons) at least 7.5 m (25 ft)
from doors to the exterior or operable windows
c. Store all perishables in cabinets or drawers
d. Ensure that all outdoor garbage cans greater than 113 liters (30 gallons) have a lid
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Air

21. A university in Dublin has decided to pursue WELL certification for a new library building. The
WELL AP on the design team has advised the Architect and MEP Engineer that bathrooms and
chemical storage closets need to be directly exhausted to the outdoors with no recirculation.
What other spaces should the project team include in direct exhausting?
a. Classrooms
b. Main lobby
c. Printer rooms
d. Elevator shafts

22. Which of the following is NOT a part of Feature 07 Construction Pollution Management?
a. Filter Replacement
b. VOC Management
c. Duct Protection
d. Moisture Absorption Management

23. What is the primary reason to introduce activated carbon filters to the main air ducts of an
existing building?
a. To reduce VOCs in the indoor air
b. To reduce energy demand
c. To reduce HVAC noise from vibration
d. To increase thermal comfort

24. In Tokyo a new mixed use complex is being planned to replace a retired railyard. The ambient air
has a high concentration of small particulates. According to Feature 05 Air Filtration, what is the
project team required to install in order to protect the building occupants from exposure to the
particulates?
a. MERV 10 filters
b. Carbon filters
c. Air scrubbers
d. MERV 13 filters

25. Which of the following WELL Features promotes the use of products that have been
independently verified to be free of many suspected hazards?
a. Feature 28 Cleanable Environment
b. Feature 07 Construction Pollution Management
c. Feature 11 Fundamental Material Safety
d. Feature 26 Enhanced Material Safety

26. Which of the following buildings should use ultraviolet germicidal irradiation for advanced air
sanitation?
a. Any building greater than 2 stories
b. A building with 29 occupants distributed in 2 spaces
c. Any building with a central ventilation system
d. A 1 story building with 5 occupants
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Air

27. After substantial completion and prior to occupancy, which process is used to test air infiltration
and ensure the building is airtight?
a. Air flush
b. Envelope commissioning
c. IAQ test
d. Retrocommissioning

28. A new office space is being constructed on the 5th floor of a downtown tower. According to
Feature 03 Ventilation Effectiveness, when is the ideal time to perform testing and balancing on
the HVAC system in this project? (Choose 2)
a. After substantial completion
b. After commissioning
c. Before occupancy
d. After occupancy

29. What regular documentation is required for WELL project teams to demonstrate that air
purification strategies are in proper operation?
a. Annual records of filtration/sanitation maintenance
b. Monthly records of filter/sanitation maintenance
c. Monthly letters from third party inspectors that air filtration/sanitation systems are in
place
d. Annual letters from third party inspectors that air filtration/sanitation systems are in
place

30. In projects with regularly occupied spaces at or below grade, where in the WELL project should
the radon test for Feature 01 Air Quality Standards be performed?
a. In the highest unoccupied level
b. In the lowest occupied level
c. In the lowest unoccupied level
d. In the highest occupied level

31. What is the humidity level required to meet Feature 16 Humidity Control?
a. Between 30% and 60%
b. Less than 60%
c. Between 30% and 50%
d. 50%

32. In order to comply with Feature 11 Fundamental Material Safety, what is the allowable limit for
added lead in all newly-installed building materials? (Choose 2)
a. 0.25% weighted average for wetted surfaces
b. 0.05% weighted average for wetted surfaces
c. 100 ppm
d. 0 ppm; there is no acceptable limit for added lead in newly-installed building materials
e. 200 ppm
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Air

33. How can exposure to flame-retardant chemicals be dangerous to human health?

a. They attach to hemoglobin more readily than oxygen and cause hypoxia
b. They bioaccumulate in fat and result in food chain contamination, including human
milk
c. They cause skin irritation and rashes
d. They make asthma and respiratory irritation worse

34. A new medical office building is being constructed in a suburban campus setting. The 2-story
building is planned to hold 6 tenants, and the main lobby will host a 24-hour security desk and a
daily parking attendant. The owner would like to pursue WELL certification for the building.
Which of the following would qualify as an air seal for Feature 08 Healthy Entrance?
a. 2 sets of normally-closed doors in a series: the main building doors, and the tenant suite
doors
b. 3 sets of normally-closed doors in a series: the main building doors, the first floor
elevator door, and the second floor elevator door
c. 2 sets of normally-closed doors in series: the main building doors and the induvial office
doors
d. An entryway vestibule with 2 sets of normally-closed doors

35. What are the minimum dimensions required for entryway walk-off systems?
a. At least 2m (6ft) wide and 3m (10ft) long in the direction of travel
b. At least the width of the doorway and 2m (6ft) long in the direction of travel
c. At least the width of the doorway and 3m (10ft) long in the direction of travel
d. At 2m (6ft) wide and 4m (12ft) long in the direction of travel

36. The interior designer for a new office building is selecting floor coverings. Which of the following
would be the best selection for cleanability?
a. Vinyl tile
b. Carpet tiles glued to the subfloor
c. Wall to wall carpet
d. Unfinished concrete slab

37. A new office building in Seattle is in its post-occupancy performance test phase by a WELL
Assessor. Which air quality test results meet the minimum standards for volatile substances for
Feature 01 Air Quality Standards?
a. Formaldehyde less than 50 ppb and total VOCs less than 500 ug/m3
b. Formaldehyde less than 27 ppb and total VOCs less than 1,000 ug/m3
c. Formaldehyde less than 50 ppb and total VOCs less than 1,000 ug/m3
d. Formaldehyde less than 27 ppb and total VOCs less than 500 ug/m3
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Air

38. The Property Manager for a Johannesburg office building is installing lobby signage to display
real-time data on indoor environmental quality. Which of the following is NOT a required
parameter for this display to meet the requirements of Feature 18 Air Quality Monitoring and
Feedback?
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Humidity
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Temperature

39. The presence of pets in indoor environments can have negative health implications for humans.
Specifically, the bodies, feces and saliva of pests contain allergens that can trigger what
reaction:
a. Autoimmune disorders
b. Fatigue
c. Cardiovascular disease
d. Asthma

40. Before integrating operable windows into a building design, what must be evaluated?
a. The number of building occupants
b. Distance from planned operable window locations to interior rooms that may contain
sources of pollution, like bathrooms, printer rooms, or chemical storage rooms
c. Software options for sun-tracking exterior shade devices
d. Local temperature, humidity, and average contaminant levels in outdoor air

41. The requirement for 100% of installed paints and coatings to meet the California Air Resource
Board (CARB) 2007, Suggested Control Measure (SCM) for Architectural Coatings, or South Coast
Air Quality Management District (SCAQMD) Rule 1113 can be found in which WELL Building
Feature?
a. Feature 07 Construction Pollution Management
b. Feature 04 VOC Reduction
c. Feature 25 Toxic Material Reduction
d. Feature 11 Fundamental Material Safety

42. A project team in Montreal is designing a new hospital wing for administrative offices. The team
has an opportunity during the schematic design phase to plan for a data gathering station to
measure outdoor air parameters. Where should the team locate the devices to comply with
Feature 19 Operable Windows?
a. Within 1.6 km (1mi) of the building
b. Within 3 m (30ft) of the main building entrance
c. On the roof
d. On the building exterior, halfway between the ground level and the roof
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Air

43. Which of the following is NOT a component in which urea-formaldehyde must be limited to a
maximum of 100 ppm according to Feature 25 Toxic Material Reduction?
a. Laminating adhesives and resins
b. Thermal insulation
c. Paints
d. Furniture

44. Which of the following WELL Features requires that rags used to clean non-porous surfaces have
a denier no higher than 1.0?
a. Feature 09 Cleaning Protocol
b. Feature 28 Cleanable Environment
c. Feature 29 Cleaning Equipment
d. Feature 27 Antimicrobial Activity for Surfaces

45. Ensuring interior rooms that may contain sources of air pollution are isolated from adjacent
spaces with self-closing doors is a criteria for which of the following WELL Features?
a. Feature 17 Direct Source Ventilation
b. Feature 01 Air Quality Standards
c. Feature 14 Air Infiltration Management
d. Feature 12 Moisture Management

46. Which of the following are ongoing requirements for indoor air monitoring in Feature 18 Air
Quality Monitoring and Feedback?
a. Record data at daily intervals; Send annual reports to IWBI
b. Record data at hourly intervals; Send monthly reports to IWBI
c. Record data at hourly intervals; Send annual reports to IWBI
d. Record data at 15 minute intervals; Send annual reports to IWBI

47. A retailer is designing a new corporate office for the global headquarters. The architect is
preparing narratives for the WELL Feature 12 Moisture Management. In addition to the
narratives that describe how exterior and interior water from common sources are addressed,
what other narrative should the project team prepare?
a. Condensation, and material selection and protection
b. Site drainage and condensation
c. Air conditioning unit, and materials selection and protection
d. Plumbing leaks and condensation
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Air

48. A Fortune 500 company is leasing 5 floors of an existing building. The Business Manager has
approved new desks and chairs for 62 employees on one of the floors. The VOC content of at
least what percentage (by cost) of the new desks and chairs must meet ANSI/BIFMA e3-2011
Furniture Sustainability Standard?
a. 95%
b. 100%
c. 85%
d. 90%

49. Which of the following Features from the Air Concept is a Precondition for New and Existing
Buildings?
a. Feature 14 Air Infiltration Management
b. Feature 25 Toxic Material Reduction
c. Feature 02 Smoking Ban
d. Feature 22 Pest Control

50. Which of the following are high-touch surfaces, according to Feature 27 Antimicrobial Activity
for Surfaces?
a. Handles, doorknobs, elevator buttons
b. Bookshelves, keyboards, printers
c. Light switches, light fixtures, framed art
d. Countertops, handles, curtains

51. Under what circumstance should combustion-based space heaters be allowed in regularly
occupied spaces?
a. Combustion-based space heaters should never be allowed in regularly occupied
spaces
b. When they have automatic shut-off timers with a maximum of 15 minute cycles
c. When they are located within 7.5m (25ft) of an exterior door
d. When they are located on an exterior wall and directly vented to the outside

52. A developer is planning a new convention center, which will include over 30 conference rooms
of all sizes. The team is interested in pursuing WELL certification, and is considering a
displacement ventilation system for the conference rooms. In which of the following ways can
the project team demonstrate adequate system performance for a ventilation systems?
a. Provide ventilation calculations that demonstrate each space will receive at least 30%
more than the ASHRAE minimum requirements
b. Perform an ASHRAE 90.1 energy model
c. Perform a computational fluid dynamics analysis
d. Provide IWBI with monthly preventative maintenance reports and any corrective action
once the building is occupied
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Air

53. Exceeding ASHRAE minimum fresh air supply rates by which amount is the requirement for
earning Feature 15 Increased Ventilation?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 30%

54. In the absence of a local code regulating dedicated outdoor air systems, what should a project
team do to comply with the requirements of Feature 20 Dedicated Outdoor Air Systems?
a. Have a detailed design review of the dedicated outdoor air system by an independent,
qualified, registered professional mechanical engineer
b. Submit monthly data on thermal comfort, ventilation rates, and system serviceability to
IWBI
c. Follow the published and peer-reviewed ASRHAE guide on dedicated outdoor air
systems
d. Consult with manufacturer of the planned dedicated outdoor air system to ensure
proper installation and operation

55. Which of the following is NOT a requirement of high-touch and non-porous surfaces for Feature
28 Cleanable Environment?
a. Modular and movable components
b. Free of sharp angels, corners and crevices
c. Smooth and free of defects
d. Finished and smooth welds and joints

56. Mops, rags and dusters used to clean high-touch surfaces should have a denier no higher than
what amount?
a. 10.0
b. 1.0
c. 2.0
d. 6.0

57. A law firm occupies the ground floor of a high rise and their entire office has recently undergone
a major renovation. The project team ensured a complete flush-out of the ground floor in order
to reduce VOCs or other air pollutants resulting from the construction activities. What other
precaution should the team take just prior to occupancy for improved air quality?
a. Sal ducts from contamination
b. Test for radon
c. Replace all air filters
d. Use ultraviolet lamps on the HVAC cooling coils and drain pans
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Air

58. The phthalates (plasticizers) DEHP, DBP, BBP, DINP, DIDP and DNOP are limited to 0.01%
(100ppm) in flooring and wall coverings according to which of the following Features?
a. Feature 11 Fundamental Material Safety
b. Feature 25 Enhanced Material Safety
c. Feature 04 VOC Reduction
d. Feature 25 Toxic Material Reduction

59. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable third party verification that demonstrates Feature
26 Enhanced Material Safety, Part 1: Precautionary Material Selection?
a. Living Product Challenge label
b. GreenScreen Benchmark
c. Cradle to Cradle Material Heath Score
d. Living Building Challenge Materials Petal
e. Declare Label

60. Which of the following standards establishes limits for the VOC content of furniture for Feature
04 VOC Reduction?
a. SCAQMD
b. SMACNA
c. CDPH
d. ANSI/BIFMA

61. Which of the following professionals would be most appropriate to perform a review of the
planned dedicated outdoor air system?
a. A mechanical engineer not employed or contracted by the project’s engineering
company
b. The WELL Assessor
c. The mechanical engineer of record
d. The architect

62. The new Property Management team at a Toronto building would like to implement a pesticide
management policy and pursue WELL certification. Where should they look for a list of
acceptable pesticides?
a. Chapter 3 of the San Francisco Environment Code Integrated Pest Management (IPM)
program
b. Pesticide Research Institute’s PestSmart tool or Pesticide Product Evaluator tool
c. LEED v4 O+M: Existing Buildings Credit Integrated Pest Management
d. EPA Office of Pesticide Programs (7504P)
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Air

63. The project manager of a museum renovation is scheduling abatement activities for asbestos
and lead. What other hazardous material should the project manager abate if present the
building?
a. PVC
b. Mercury
c. Urea formaldehyde
d. PCB

64. Which of the following does NOT describe an advantage of displacement ventilation systems?
a. Air can be delivered at higher temperatures because registers are near or at the floor
b. The airflow tends to concentrate pollutants near the ceiling, out of the breathing zone
c. Air is not delivered and pushed through the return air path (often the dirtiest portion of
the air stream)
d. Air I delivered at very low velocity, preventing occupant discomfort due to air speed

65. In buildings with more than 10 occupants that used recirculated air, which of the following are
strategies to implement air sanitation?
a. Ultraviolet germicidal irradiation and carbon filters
b. Ultraviolet germicidal irradiation and photocatalytic oxidation
c. Photocatalytic oxidation and MERV 13 filters
d. Carbon filters and photocatalytic oxidation
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Fitness

1. Feature 67 requires pedestrian amenities like a bench or a drinking fountain at projects of what
size?
a. Sites with at least 46.5 m2 (500 ft2) of open space
b. Sites of any size
c. Sites in which the building takes up less than 75% of the total lot size
d. Sites with buildings over 4 stories above ground

2. At an office building, occupants are discouraged by high gym member fees. According to Feature
65 Activity Incentive Programs, what should be offered to building occupants to encourage
participation in fitness programs?
a. $200 gym membership reimbursement per six-month period
b. Free fitness education courses each quarter
c. The option of a standing bike desk or treadmill desk for each employee
d. Treadmill desks for every employee

3. An employee has access to her building’s gym and regularly uses the treadmill. In combination
with the treadmill what additional fitness equipment should she be able to use according to
Feature 70 Fitness Equipment Part 1?
a. Wall balls, Full Squat Rack and stationary bicycles.
b. Stability ball, Kettle balls, Pull-up bar, full squat rack and Elliptical Machine.
c. Elliptical machines, rowing machines, and stationary bicycles.
d. Kettle Bells, Wall Balls, and Squat Rack.

4. Out of the recommended weekly workouts, how many should be muscle training, according to
The American College of Sports Medicine?
a. At least 4 per week
b. At least 2 per week
c. Once a week
d. Every day

5. Which of the following strategies would a WELL project team use to promote the use of stairs in
a building of 4 floors?
a. Reimbursement for gym memberships
b. Limit elevator operating hours
c. Locating stairs close to the building entrance and lobby
d. Neighborhood walkability

6. The lobby and central staircase of a building includes several large paintings. What other
component of the staircase would qualify this project for Feature 64 Interior Fitness Circulation,
Part 3 Facilitative Aesthetics?
a. Music
b. A water fountain
c. Staircase with a minimum width of 1.4m [56 inches]
d. Signage to encourage stair use
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Fitness

7. To encourage alternative transportation and daily fitness, a property manager recently installed
showers and changing rooms at an urban property. The new area contains 1 shower and
changing room for the first 100 regular building occupants, plus an additional shower for every
150 regular building occupants thereafter. What other additional onsite facility must be present
in order to qualify this property for Feature 69 Active Transportation Support?
a. One locker for every 10 regular building occupants
b. One locker for every 5 regular building occupants.
c. Treadmills for every 5 regular building occupants.
d. Treadmills for every 10 regular building occupants.

8. The site of an office building includes a water fountain. What other feature might a building
owner install to meet the requirements of Feature 67 Exterior Active Design, Part 2: Pedestrian
Promotion?
a. A bench
b. Group of moveable chairs and tables
c. A sculpture
d. Bike racks

9. A group of building occupants ride their bikes to work every day. Which of the following
incentive strategies should their employer implement to help meet the requirements of Feature
65?
a. Award a tax-exempt payroll deduction relating to bicycle commuting, or a direct
subsidy of an equivalent amount
b. Award a $200 subsidy per year to a group of employees who engage in a professional
fitness program
c. Award a $50 subsidy per month to occupants who engage in alternative transportation
at least 3 days per week
d. Award a $25 subsidy per year to employees to cover the cost of a bicycle share
membership

10. An existing 4 story building recently underwent a major renovation to convert its layout from 8
separate suites into one large headquarters for a corporate tenant. The new tenant is interested
in open staircases to visually connect all 4 floors and promote walkability. Where should at least
one of the staircases be located?
a. Within 7.5 m (25 ft) of the building entrance
b. Within 6 m (20 ft) of the elevator
c. Within 9.2 m (30 ft) of the building entrance
d. Within 8.5 m (28 ft) of the elevator
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Fitness

11. In a lobby on the way to their offices, occupants of a building should view artwork, windows
with views to the outdoors and what other feature to meet the requirements of Feature 64
Interior Fitness Circulation?
a. Indoor Plants
b. Signage with prompts to encourage stair use next to each elevator bank
c. No-Smoking Signage
d. A lounge with moveable chairs and tables

12. Which of the following is NOT a direct benefit of regular physical activity?
a. Fitness maintenance
b. Weight management
c. Improved job performance
d. Chronic disease prevention

13. Physical inactivity is the fourth leading risk factor for mortality. How many mortalities per year
worldwide can be attributed to physical inactivity?
a. 30-50 million
b. 3-5 million
c. 20 million
d. 1 million

14. Which LEED credit can contribute to a building meeting the requirements of Feature 67 Exterior
Active Design?
a. LEED ND: Built Project credit Walkable streets
b. LEED BD+C: New Construction credit Surrounding density and diverse uses
c. LEED ND: Built Project credit Preferred locations
d. LEED BD+C: New Construction credit Access to quality transit

15. A 4 story office building includes stairs located within 7.5 m (25 ft) of the main entrance. Which
of the following design features would NOT promote the use of stairs and discourage reliance on
elevators?
a. Light levels of at least 108 lux (10 fc)
b. Windows with views to the outdoors
c. Music
d. Skylights of at least 1 m2 in size

16. The average adult obtains how many minutes of moderate to vigorous intensity physical
activity?
a. 15 Minutes per day
b. 6-10 Minutes per day
c. 10 Minutes per day
d. 5 Minutes per day
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Fitness

17. A team of 15 employees are training for a city marathon. Each employee has participated in
various events throughout the year. Assuming their employer has a policy that meets Feature
65, Activity Incentive Programs, which of the following is each employee entitled to?
a. A meaningful monthly subsidy for every prepaid sports event
b. Monthly on-site training programs by certified personal trainers
c. A meaningful annual subsidy to cover the costs of participation in sports events (races,
sports teams, team fitness events)
d. 50% reimbursement for software or wearable technology that tracks physical activity
and eating habits.

18. At a building where structured fitness opportunities are available, how often should classes on
safe fitness techniques be offered to meet Feature 66?
a. Twice per month
b. Twice per week
c. Once every 2 months
d. Once every 3 months

19. After finishing a workout at an onsite fitness facility, what would an employee have access to in
a building which meets Feature 69 Active Transportation Support?
a. Post-workout stretching equipment and access to his/her locker
b. Post-workout stretching equipment
c. Both a Shower and access to his/her locker
d. Refreshment station with fruit and a water re-fill station

20. Dedicated exercise space that is at least 18.6 m2 (200 ft2) large must be provided for spaces
with what minimum number of occupants to meet Feature 68?
a. more than 25
b. more than 10
c. more than 30
d. more than 50

21. A company with 300 employees offers individual workstations to each employee in its 6,500 m2
(70,000 ft2) office. Which of the following active furnishings could be offered to meet Feature
71 Active Furnishing?
a. 150 desk-top height adjustment stands
b. 60 adjustable height standing desks AND 60 desk-top height adjustment stands
c. 10 treadmill desks
d. 150 adjustable height standing desks
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Fitness

22. A new employee at an office building has opted to ride their bike to work every day to avoid
driving. Which of the following is required for Feature 69 Active Transportation Support?
a. Tire pumps and a monthly reimbursement of $15
b. Employees are provided bicycle locks and a yearly reimbursement of $175 for
alternative transportation
c. Bicycle maintenance tools (tire pumps, patch kits, and hex keys) are available
d. Complimentary shaded bicycle racks with private locks for every occupant

23. How does the CDC (Center for Disease Control) define Fitness?
a. The condition of being physically fit and healthy
b. The ability to walk 1.6 km (1 mile) in under 15 minutes
c. The ability to exercise for 30 minutes per day for 5 days without undue fatigue
d. The ability to carry out daily tasks with rigor and alertness without undue fatigue and
with ample energy to enjoy leisurely activities

24. Which of the following is NOT a contributor to growing physical inactivity rates around the
world?
a. Modern transportation
b. Labor saving conveniences
c. Longer lifespans
d. Sedentary jobs

25. According to the WELL Building Standard, which of the following is true regarding public
behavior?
a. 90% of individual’s time is spent indoors
b. 40% of individual’s time is spent indoors
c. 80% of all individual’s time is spent indoors
d. 60% of individual’s time is spent indoors

26. Several building occupants attend an onsite fitness program once a month. In addition to a
comprehensive fitness program, what other educational opportunities should be offered to
these occupants?
a. Access to a Mind-Body Fitness course every 3 months
b. Nutrition strategy courses which include budgeting for healthy eating and an online
comprehensive fitness schedule
c. A class on comprehensive exercise regimes, different modes of exercise and safe
fitness techniques every 3 months
d. Daily access to both an online fitness and nutrition course
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Fitness

27. According to Feature 71 Active Furnishings, which of the following should be available for at
least 60% of workstations?
a. Portable desk pedal
b. Adjustable height standing desk
c. Treadmill desk
d. Wellness ball chair

28. What is the minimum Walk Score needed to meet the requirements of Feature 67 Exterior
Active Design?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 50
d. 70

29. To achieve Part 2: External Exercise Space of Feature 68 Physical Activity Spaces, which of the
following might be available to building occupants at a WELL-Certified property?
a. Walking trails with benches, 0.8 km (0.5 mi) from the building
b. Tennis courts 1 km (0.6 mi) from the building
c. Complimentary access to the gym of each occupant’s choice
d. Outdoor track facility at a local college, accessible by regular shuttle to and from the
building

30. A building has recently renovated its gym according to Feature 70 Fitness Equipment. Building
occupants may see which of the following muscle-strengthening exercise equipment?
a. Rowing machine
b. Elliptical machine
c. Full-squat rack
d. Treadmill

31. A small office building has 10 employees. 4 work spaces each have one standard desk and one
side table for storage. To reduce prolonged sitting, what should each of the other 6 workstations
include?
a. A balance ball chair
b. An adjustable height standing desk
c. A workstation chair with adjustable height
d. A treadmill desk

32. Physical inactivity is estimated to be responsible for what percentage of heart disease?
a. 50%
b. 9%
c. 15%
d. 30%
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Fitness

33. A project team has decided to pursue Feature 71 Active Furnishings with several desk-top height
adjustment stands. To what other WELL Feature could these contribute?
a. Feature 72 Accessible Design
b. Feature 70 Fitness Equipment
c. Feature 64 Interior Fitness Circulation
d. Feature 73 Ergonomics: Visual and Physical

34. The American College of Sports Medicine recommends that an individual engage in moderate-
intensity aerobic activity at least how often?
a. 45 minutes per day for 5 days a week.
b. 30 minutes for 5 days a week
c. 45 minutes per day for 3 days a week
d. 30 minutes every day per week.

35. Muscle-strengthening exercise equipment should be provided in a quantity that would allow use
by what percentage of regular building occupants?
a. 1%
b. 5%
c. 3%
d. 7%
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Light

1. In an office building new construction project, consideration of the brightness contrast between
which two areas is NOT required?
a. Work room and stairway
b. Open office and the hallway
c. Desk surface and computer monitor
d. Main lobby and the exterior

2. Which of the following Features sets the minimum distances from windows to regularly
occupied spaces?
a. Feature 61 Right to Light
b. Feature 63 Daylighting Fenestration
c. Feature 53 Visual Lighting Design
d. Feature 57 Low-Glare Workstation Design

3. Light exposure in the late afternoon/early night will shift circadian rhythms in what way
a. Phase advance
b. Phase forward
c. Phase delay
d. Circadian rhythms would not be affected by late afternoon/early night exposure to light

4. To comply with the requirements of Feature 62 Daylight Modeling, what is the maximum total
time per year that up to 10% of regularly occupied space can receive more than 1,000 lux (93
fc)?
a. 300 hours
b. 200 hours
c. 350 hours
d. 250 hours

5. For no more than what percentage of regularly occupied space should annual sunlight exposure
(ASE1000,250) be achieved?
a. 90%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 80%

6. An interior designer is planning a new furniture layout with computer screen orientation to
minimize glare. The designer should ensure that computer screens at desks located within what
distance from a view window can be oriented within a 20 degree angle perpendicular tot eh
plane of the nearest window?
a. 7.5 m (25 ft)
b. 3 m (10 ft)
c. 4.5 m (15 ft)
d. 2.75 m (9 ft)
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Light

7. The requirement for lighting control zones to be no larger than 46.5 m2 (500 ft2) can be found
in which WELL Feature?
a. Feature 57 Low-Glare Workstation Design
b. Feature 53 Visual Lighting Design
c. Feature 60 Automated Shading and Dimming Control
d. Feature 54 Circadian Lighting Design

8. What specific part of the body acts as a main internal clock that synchronizes with clocks in
peripheral tissues and organs?
a. Rods
b. Cones
c. Intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells (ipRGCs)
d. Suprachiasmatic nucleus

9. Which of the following terms describes the percentage of space in which the light level from
direct sun along exceeds a predefined threshold?
a. Transmissivity
b. Annual sunlight exposure
c. Visible transmittance
d. Spatial daylight autonomy

10. What is the definition of Equivalent Melanopic Lux?

a. Total luminous output of a light source, weighted to the eye’s visual sensitivity
b. Unit of illuminance, equivalent to one lumen per square foot
c. A unit of measure of how much a light source will stimulate melanopsin’s light
response
d. A unit of measure of illuminance intensity perceived by the human eye

11. Which of the following Features outlines design parameters for windows to optimize the
quantity and quality of daylight while minimizing unwanted glare and thermal heat gain?
a. Feature 53 Visual Lighting Design
b. Feature 56 Solar Glare Control
c. Feature 63 Daylighting Fenestration
d. Feature 60 Automated Shading and Dimming Controls

12. At an existing library building, the facility manager is tasked with assessing the current layout
against the requirements of Feature 61 Right to Light: Lease Depth. Which of the following
metrics should the facility manager use in the calculations?
a. Number of regularly occupied seats within 7.5m (25 ft) of view windows
b. Number of building occupants
c. Number of desks
d. Are of regularly occupied spaces within 7.5m (25 ft) of view windows
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Light

13. The requirement that 75% of all workstations be within 7.5 m (25 ft) of an atrium or window
with views to the exterior is included in which WELL Feature?
a. Feature 87 Beauty and Design I
b. Feature 61 Right To Light
c. Feature 63 Daylighting Fenestration
d. Feature 73 Ergonomics: visual and physical

14. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of automated controls for shading devices?
a. Ensures the systems operate as intended
b. Contributes to energy reduction
c. Helps regulate circadian cycle
d. Contributes to comfort without disrupting occupants from other tasks

15. In order to minimize glare at workstations and desks, bare lamps and luminaire surfaces more
than 53 degrees above the center of view must have luminances of what intensity?
a. Less than 6,000 cd/m2
b. Less than 8,000 cd/m2
c. More than 8,000 cd/m2
d. More than 6,000 cd/m2

16. What does the acronym LRV stand for?

a. Light Reflectance Value
b. Lumen Reflectance Variable
c. Luminary Reflectance Value
d. Light Radius Variation

17. Which of the following is NOT a common source of glare in buildings?

a. Shielded light
b. Direct sunlight hitting the eye
c. Unshielded light
d. Reflective surfaces

18. In all major workspaces, how should all lighting except decorative fixtures be controlled to meet
the requirements of Feature 60 Automated Shading and Dimming Controls, Part 2: Responsive
Light Control?
a. Use occupancy sensors to dim to 20% or less when the zone is unoccupied, and engage
automatic shading devices when light sensors indicate that sunlight could contribute to
glare
b. Be programmed to dim continuously in response to daylight, and engage automatic
shading devices when light sensors indicate that sunlight could contribute to glare
c. Use occupancy sensors to dim to 50% or less when the zone is unoccupied, and be
programmed to dim continuously in response to daylight
d. Use occupancy sensors to dim to 20% or less when the zone is unoccupied, and be
programmed to dim continuously in response to daylight
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Light

19. To optimize quantity and quality of daylight while minimizing unwanted glare and thermal heat
gain, what is the ideal range for window-wall ratio as measured on external elevations?
a. 20% to 50%
b. 30% to 50%
c. 20% to 60%
d. 30% to 60%

20. Requirements for Uniform Color Transmittance are included with which of the following WELL
Features?
a. Feature 63 Daylighting Fenestration
b. Feature 54 Circadian Lighting Design
c. Feature 58 Color Quality
d. Feature 53 Visual Lighting Design

21. The color quality of light affects visual appeal and occupant comfort. Color quality is impacted
by the sensitivity of which specific part of the body?
a. Rod photoreceptors
b. Intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cells (ipRGCs)
c. Cone photoreceptors
d. Zeitgebers

22. A design team is planning to minimize the need to install artificial lighting by incorporating
daylight harvesting. The lighting design intends to meet the equivalent melanopic lux for 80%
workstations. What time duration must daylight be present to meet Feature 54?
a. 11:00 AM and 3:00 PM on the Winter Solstice
b. 11:00 AM and 3:00 PM every day of the year
c. 9:00 AM and 1:00 PM every day of the year
d. 9:00 AM and 1:00 PM on the Summer Solstice

23. Increasing the amount of surfaces with high LRVs in workstation areas will have which of the
following results?
a. More reflected light
b. Less reflected light
c. Increased energy consumption
d. Decreased alertness and activity

24. Which of the following is NOT a strategy to minimize glare in glazing above 2.1 m (7 ft) from the
floor?
a. Film of micro-mirrors
b. Fixed exterior shades
c. Interior light shelves
d. Interior blinds controlled by building occupants
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Light

25. Which of the following Features requires photometric sensors that detect and prevent glare
conditions?
a. Feature 56 Solar Glare Control
b. Feature 57 Low-Glare Workstation Design
c. Feature 60 Automated Shading and Dimming Controls
d. Feature 53 Visual Lighting Design

26. A project team is pursuing Feature 60 Automated Shading and Dimming Controls. Which
windows need to have shading devices that automatically engage when light sensors indicate
that sunlight could contribute to glare at workstations?
a. Windows on the side of the building that gets more than 60% of direct sun exposure
throughout the day
b. Windows without external shading fins
c. Windows in all regularly occupied areas
d. All windows larger than 0.55 m2 (6 ft2)

27. In order to minimize glare, which of the following should be present for all glazing less than 2.1
m (7 ft) above the floor in regularly occupied spaces?
a. Variable opacity glazing
b. Micro-mirror film to reflect sunlight towards the ceiling
c. Interior light shelves
d. Fixed external shading fins

28. Which of the following Features addresses the maximum luminance allowed for light fixtures
above 53 degrees above the center of view?
a. Feature 53 Visual Lighting Design
b. Feature 55 Electric Light Glare Control
c. Feature 56 Solar Glare Control
d. Feature 57 Low-glare Workstation Design

29. Which of the following disorders related to light exposure are associated with increased risk of
obesity, diabetes, depression and hypertension?
a. Photoentrainment
b. Chronic sleep deprivation
c. Photosensitivity
d. Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

30. An existing building tenant is measuring the color quality of its electric lights in order to assess a
possible WELL Building certification path. What metric should the project team use?
a. LRV
b. EML
c. CRI
d. IES
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Light

31. A mixed use development is in the Design Development Phase. To what standard should the
Electrical Engineer refer when confirming that maintained illuminance will be adequate on
vertical surfaces?
a. ASHRAE 90.1, Appendix G
b. ANSI/IES American National Standard Practice for Office Lighting (RP-1-12)
c. Centre for Occupational Health and Safety, Lighting Ergonomics
d. Local building code

32. On buildings with greater than 40% window-to-wall ratio as measured from exterior elevations,
which of the following control measures is required to earn Feature 63 Daylighting
Fenestration?
a. Internal blinds
b. Light shelves
c. External shading
d. Automated shading device

33. In an existing building under renovation and pursuing WELL Certification, 50% of the windows
are being replaced. The project team is tasked with reducing glare in the building. Where is the
most appropriate location for a film of micro-mirrors on the window?
a. Glazing over 2.1 m (7ft) above the floor
b. Glazing on the east and west sides of the building
c. All window locations
d. New windows only

34. A new corporate headquarters building is being constructed in a dense urban area. During the
design phase, lighting simulations demonstrate that 40% of regularly occupied space receives at
least 300 lux (28 fc) for over 50% of operating hours each year. What should the designers
change to meet WELL Building requirements for spatial daylight autonomy?
a. Increase window area to ensure that 50% of regularly occupied space is reached by
natural light
b. Change building orientation to ensure that natural light reaches regularly occupied
space for more than 60% of operating hours each year
c. Introduce light shelves to increase minimum lux received to 400 lux
d. Include light wells to ensure that 60% of regularly occupied space is reached by
natural light

35. The circadian rhythm is an internal clock in humans and animals that synchronize physiological
functions on a cycle of what duration?
a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 60 minutes
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Light

36. To minimize glare from incoming sunlight, all computer monitors within 4.5 m (15 ft) of view
windows should be able to be oriented perpendicular to the plane of the nearest window,
within how many degrees?
a. 20 degrees
b. 4 degrees
c. 5 degrees
d. 30 degrees

37. What is the basic intent of Feature 57 Low-Glare Workstation Design?

a. To increase background lighting and provide less of a contrast between ambient light
and direct sunlight
b. To direct the light reflection away from directly hitting the occupant’s eye
c. To reduce overhead lighting levels
d. To set limits on glare based on measures of luminous intensity

38. What visible transmittance (VT) parameters are required for Feature 63 Daylighting
Fenestration?
a. 40% VT for glazing over 2.1 m (7 ft) from the floor, and 50% VT for glazing below 2.1 m
(7 ft) from the floor
b. 60% VT for glazing over 2.1 m (7 ft) from the floor, and 40% VT for glazing below 2.1 m
(7 ft) from the floor
c. 60% VT for glazing over 2.1 m (7 ft) from the floor, and 50% VT for glazing below 2.1 m
(7 ft) from the floor
d. 50% VT for glazing over 2.1 m (7 ft) from the floor, and 50% VT for glazing below 2.1 m
(7 ft) from the floor

39. An average lighting intensity of at least 215 lux (20 fc) is required in which space type?
a. Staircases
b. Workstations and desk areas
c. Reception areas
d. All regularly occupied areas

40. A project team working on a university research building is preparing documentation for WELL
Certification. What should they include to demonstrate compliance with Feature 62 Daylight
Modeling?
a. Modeling Report
b. Letter of Assurance
c. Policy document
d. Performance test results
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Light

41. Which of the following are acceptable Light Reflectance Values (LRV) for ceilings?
a. 0.5 – 0.75
b. 0.1 – 0.2
c. 0.2 – 0.8
d. 0.8 – 0.9

42. What is the term for excessive brightness of the light-source, excessive brightness-contrasts and
excessive quantity of light?
a. Glare
b. Melanopic Lux
c. Light intensity
d. Photoentrainment

43. Which of the following terms refers to minimum levels of natural lighting in spaces?
a. Spatial daylight autonomy
b. Visible transmittance
c. Transmissivity
d. Annual sunlight exposure

44. A new conference center is under construction, and the project team is finalizing finish
selections for the main dining room. What should the final finishes for the walls directly visible
from regularly occupied spaces incorporate?
a. Average LRV of 0.7 for at least 80% of the surface area
b. Average LRV of 0.5 for at least 50% of the surface area
c. Average LRV of 0.7 for at least 50% of the surface area
d. Average LRV of 0.5 for at least 80% of the surface area

45. A project team is evaluating the light shielding in an existing research library. For this project to
earn WELL certification, what minimum shielding angle is required for light fixtures in regularly
occupied areas with luminance from 50,000 to 500,000 cd/m2?
a. 20 degrees
b. No shielding required
c. 30 degrees
d. 15 degrees

46. For the majority of tasks, what ambient light level is sufficient?
a. 300 lux (28 fc)
b. 400 lux (37 fc)
c. 150 lux (14 fc)
d. 500 lux (46 fc)
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Light

47. A lighting designer is finalizing the controls specifications for all lighting in a new office building.
The designer should ensure that all fixtures except decorative fixtures are programmed to
automatically dim to what level when the zone is unoccupied?
a. 50% or less
b. 20% or less
c. 10% or less
d. 25% or less

48. Which WELL Feature requires that certain Light Reflectance Values (LRV) are met for ceilings,
vertical surfaces, and furniture?
a. Feature 78 Reverberation Time
b. Feature 62 Daylight Modeling
c. Feature 58 Color Quality
d. Feature 59 Surface Design

49. What is the name for the external cues that align physiological functions to the solar day?
a. Homeotherms
b. Melanopic lux
c. Photoentrainments
d. Zeitgebers

50. According to Feature 58 Color Quality, which of the following conditions should electric lights
meet for acceptable color quality?
a. Ra of 80 or higher
b. Ra of 100
c. Ra of 10 to 20
d. Ra of 50 or higher

51. In a new office project the overhead lights in workstation areas are designed to provide an
average of 200 lux, and fixtures are independently controlled in zones of 37 m2 (400 ft2). Tasks
lights that provide 300 lux will be provided at each desk. What must the project team change
about this design to achieve Feature 53 Visual Light Design?
a. Increase the overhead lighting design to provide at least 215 lux.
b. Increase the overhead lighting zones to 46.5 m2 (500 ft2)
c. Reduce the overhead lighting zones to 32.5 m2 (350 ft2)
d. Provide task lamps that provide 500 lux at each desk
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Light

52. What verification methods are required to demonstrate that Feature 54 Circadian Lighting
Design has been achieved?
a. Letter of assurance from the MEP, and a commissioning report
b. Letter of assurance from the MEP, and an on-site spot measurement by the WELL
Assessor
c. Letter of assurance from the Architect, and a commissioning report
d. Letter of assurance from the Architect, and an on-site spot measurement by the WELL
Assessor
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Nourishment

1. Which of the following is a detrimental health outcome linked to high consumption of SSBs
(sugar-sweetened beverages)?
a. Cancer
b. Asthma
c. Obesity
d. Heart Failure

2. An occupant of a WELL-Certified building orders a meal every day from the cafeteria consisting
of a sandwich on whole grain bread and side salad. At the checkout counter, what other food
options should they encounter?
a. Beverages with no added sugar
b. A variety of low-fat snacks
c. Vegetable dishes
d. Fruit dishes in a bowl

3. At all sink locations, fragrance-free soap (no antimicrobial agents) and dispensers with
disposable and sealed soap cartridge are provided. What other item must be provided at all sink
locations for Feature 41?
a. Disposable paper towels
b. Antibacterial hand sanitizer
c. Automated hand dryer
d. Solid soap bar with drainage rack

4. In a WELL-Certified building, which of the following must be true if raw meat is prepared or
stored on site?
a. Label on all raw meat indicate its source
b. At least one removable, cleanable drawer is provided in cold storage at the bottom of
the unit
c. The top shelf of all cold storage units are reserved for storing raw foods (uncooked
meat, fish, and poultry)
d. Raw meats are stored on site for a maximum of 24 hours before being cooked or
discarded

5. At a WELL-Certified building, the property manager should ensure that which of the following
allergens are clearly labeled on all foods sold or distributed at the property?
a. Peanuts, fish, gluten, shellfish, soy, tree nuts
b. Peanuts, gluten, soy
c. Peanuts, fish, gluten, wheat, shellfish, soy, milk and dairy products, egg, tree nuts
d. Peanuts, fish, gluten, shellfish, soy, milk & dairy products, egg, wheat
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Nourishment

6. According to Feature 46 Safe Food Preparation Materials, which of the following materials are
approved for cooking tools used to prepare food?
a. Glass, Cast iron, copper
b. Stainless steel, coated aluminum, laminate wood
c. Glass, Ceramic (with no lead), cast iron
d. Cast iron, non-coated aluminum, solid untreated wood

7. What is the minimum BMI threshold that indicates an individual is obese?

a. BMI of 25
b. BMI of 30
c. BMI of 50
d. BMI of 40

8. A project owner has decided to limit the amount of all highly processed beverages, snacks, and
meals. Which of the following ingredients restrictions must be true of all foods, beverages,
snacks, and meals sold or distributed for Feature 39 Processed Foods?
a. Contains no artificial dyes, or flavoring
b. Contains no Partially – Hydrogenated Oils
c. 50% of foods must contain no High Fructose Corn syrup and/or another artificial
sweetener
d. No individually sold, single-serving, non-beverage food items containing more than 40g
of sugar

9. A building owner is overhauling a building’s cafeteria menu and vending machines to meet the
requirements of Feature 39 Processed Foods. Which of the following is required of the new
cafeteria and vending machine options?
a. All foods containing common allergens must be served in separate vending machines
b. No individually sold, single serving snacks may contain more than 30g of sugar
c. Wheat flour is banned as the primary ingredient in any food option
d. Partially-hydrogenated oils may be included in a maximum of 50% of the food options

10. In order to meet the requirements of Feature 48 Special Diets, what must be true of a catered
event?
a. Peanut-free, Gluten-free, and Vegetarian options must be available if they are
requested
b. All religious dietary restrictions must be adhered to
c. Prior to the catering event, employees and clients must submit all dietary preferences
d. All food must be labeled for the most common food allergies
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Nourishment

11. According to Feature 51 Food Production, which of the following is NOT provided to grow and
maintain a garden space?
a. Irrigation
b. Exterior lighting
c. Gardening tools
d. Planting medium

12. In order to meet the requirements of Feature 47 Serving Sizes, what must be true of all circular
plates served to customers?
a. All circular plates must have a diameter no larger than 10 inches (25cm)
b. All circular plates must have a diameter no larger than 9 inches (23cm)
c. All circular plates must have a diameter no larger than 9.5 inches (24cm)
d. All circular plates must have a diameter no larger than 10.5 inches (26cm)

13. The requirement for a removable, cleanable drawer or container in the cold storage unit,
dedicated to storing raw foods, is included in which WELL Feature?
a. Feature 46 Safe Food Preparation Materials
b. Feature 50 Food Storage
c. Feature 51 Food Production
d. Feature 42 Food Contamination

14. An employee with a food allergy or dietary restriction in a WELL-Certified building can request to
have any of the following food options except:?
a. Sugar-free option
b. Gluten-free option
c. Vegan option
d. Egg-free option

15. Which of the following is NOT required by Feature 52 Mindful Eating, Part 2: Break Area
Furnishings?
a. Refrigerator, microwave, and sink, for employee use
b. Dish-washing amenities
c. Eating utensils and food storage units for employee use
d. Food labeling stickers and pens

16. Which of the following is a goal of Feature 45 Food Advertising? (Choose 2)

a. Discourage purchases of sugary and caffeine-laden drinks
b. Discourage building occupants from purchasing sugary drinks and processed foods
c. Fully implement only natural, whole food advertising
d. Encourage occupants to purchase natural, less-processed foods
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Nourishment

17. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), how many global deaths are attributed to
an inadequate consumption of fruits and vegetables?
a. 27 million deaths
b. 2.7 million deaths
c. 207 million deaths
d. 27,000 deaths

18. Which of the following labels for all meat, egg, and dairy products sold or distributed on site are
required by Feature 49 Responsible Food Production?
a. Fair Trade Certified only
b. Federally Certified Organic and Fair Trade certified
c. Humane Certified only
d. Federally Certified Organic and Humane Certified

19. Feature 42 Food Contamination requires that all cold storage spaces for raw meat contain how
many removable, cleanable drawers or containers located at the bottom of the unit?
a. At least 5
b. At least 1
c. At least 2
d. At least 3

20. What must be true for at least half of the entrée items in a building cafeteria’s menu to meet
the requirements of Feature 47 Serving Sizes?
a. A version of an entrée that is 425 calories or less and vegetarian
b. A version of an entrée that is 550 calories or less with a lower cost than the larger,
regular version
c. A version of an entrée that is 575 calories or less and vegetarian
d. A version of an entrée that is 650 calories or less with a lower cost than the larger,
regular version

21. What is the intent of clear labelling for artificial colors, sweeteners, and preservatives present in
all food sold or distributed at a building?
a. Discourage the consumption of certain ingredients
b. Encourage food producers to stop using certain additives
c. Prevent susceptible people from consuming certain allergens
d. Allow consumers to make informed nutritional decisions

22. A building’s cafeteria recently renovated its signage according to Feature 45 Food Advertising.
What should the signage include?
a. Benefits of organic food
b. Messages discouraging the consumption of processed and sugary foods and beverages
c. List of foods on the menu that are locally sourced
d. Nutrition information including total grams of sugar for soda on the menu
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Nourishment

23. In a building’s cafeteria, a variety of pre-packaged and canned foods are used to prepare meals.
Which of the following foods meet the conditions of Feature 39 Processed Foods?
a. Whole wheat cereal containing no partially hydrogenated oil
b. Pre-packaged deli meats with no sodium nitrates or nitrates
c. Salad dressing containing no MSG
d. Bottled ketchup with no artificial colors or flavorings

24. In order to meet the requirements of Feature 47 Serving Sizes, what must be true of all bowls
serving to customers?
a. Customers have the option of a 8 oz (237 mL) or 16 oz (473 mL) (costs vary)
b. Bowls must be no larger than 16 oz (473 mL)
c. Customers have the option of a 16 oz (473 mL) or 16 oz (591 mL) (costs vary)
d. Bowls must be no larger than 8 oz (237 mL)

25. In order to meet the requirements of Feature 49 Responsible Food Production, which of the
following must be true about product sold or distributed on site on a daily basis?
a. Must be labeled to indicate the presence of GMOs (genetically modified organisms)
b. Must be labeled with the USDA organic label (country-equivalent) and Free-trade label
(country-equivalent)
c. Must be federally certified organic (based on country)
d. Must be color coded per food labeling laws

26. Which of the following body systems contain the largest reservoir of bacteria, which can play a
role in immune health?
a. Endocrine system
b. Integumentary system
c. Cardiovascular system
d. Digestive system

27. What minimum amount of fruits and vegetables must be offered at a WELL-Certified building
that has a café open daily?
a. 4 of any combination of fruits and vegetables
b. 50% of entrees
c. 2 fruits (containing no added sugars) and 2 (non-fried) vegetables
d. 20% of all available food options

28. A building manager is hosting a lunch for the occupants, and has asked the cafeteria to prepare
meals with signage clearly declaring the presence of common allergens. Which of the following
allergens do NOT need to be included?
a. Caffeine
b. Egg
c. Soy
d. Fish
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Nourishment

29. A café located in an office building ha recently renovated its menu to incorporate more
nutritious food options. The daily menu currently offers:

Ham sandwich

Grilled cheese sandwich

Hamburger

Fried fish

Spaghetti

Chicken and rice

Oranges

Apple splices

Dried cherries

What additional food item(s) should this cafeteria sell to meet the requirements of Feature 38
Fruits and Vegetables?

a. Nothing, the requirements are already met

b. Carrot and celery sticks
c. Fried green tomatoes
d. Fruit cups and no added sugar

30. Which of the following WELL Concepts intends to enable people to make more informed
choices?
a. Water
b. Nourishment
c. Light
d. Air

31. According to Feature 46 Safe Food Preparation Materials, what must be true regarding food
preparation?
a. Foods that are considered allergenic must be prepared in separate pots and pans
b. Kitchen staff may use pans with non-stick coating so long as it is sourced from
sustainable chemicals
c. Cutting boards must be replaced when they become excessively worn or have deep
grooves
d. Green Seal cleaning products must be used after food preparation
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Nourishment

32. The owner of a building has asked the cafeteria to focus on healthy options for the building
occupants. In order to reduce the likelihood of unintended overeating and to encourage
healthier eating habits, what should the maximum cup size be for beverages served on a daily
basis?
a. 240 mL (8oz)
b. 480 mL (16oz)
c. 355 mL (12oz)
d. 296 mL (10oz)

33. In order to meet the requirements of Feature 47 Serving Sizes, what must be true of all non-
circular plates served to customers?
a. The total surface area of the plate must not exceed 69 in2 (445 cm2)
b. The total surface area of the plate must not exceed 79 in2 (507 cm2)
c. The total surface area of the plate must not exceed 80 in2 (516 cm2)
d. The total surface area of the plate must not exceed 70 in2 (450 cm2)

34. Feature 43 Artificial Ingredients require that all food sold or distributed at a property are labeled
to indicate if they contain which of the following ingredients?
a. Artificial colors and flavors, brominated vegetable oils, potassium bromate
b. Artificial colors and flavors, brominated vegetable oils, potassium bromate, BHA, BHT,
MSG, HVP, sodium nitrate and nitrate
c. Artificial colors and flavors, artificial sweeteners, brominated vegetable oils,
potassium bromate, BHA, BHT, MSG, HVP, sodium nitrate and nitrate, sulfites
d. Artificial colors and flavors, brominated vegetable oils, potassium bromate, BHA, BHT,
MSG, HVP

35. A building occupant purchases a prepared lunch and pre-packed snack from the cafeteria.
According to Feature 44 Nutritional Information, which of the following is NOT a required label
for these foods?
a. If the item contains GMOs (genetically modified organisms)
b. Macronutrient and micronutrient content
c. Sugar content
d. Total Calories

36. The average daily intake of calories in the U.S. has increased from 25% from 1970 to 2010. What
is the current daily energy intake in the U.S. per 2010 data?
a. 2,600 calories
b. 2,400 calories
c. 2,100 calories
d. 2,200 calories
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Nourishment

37. For a project to comply with Feature 51 Food Production, a garden space or greenhouse of what
size and location must be provided for all building occupants?
a. 3 ft2 (0.3 m2) per occupant within 1 mi (1.6 km) of the project boundary
b. 2 ft2 (0.2 m2) per occupant within 1.5 mi (2.4 km) of the project boundary
c. 1 ft2 (0.1 m2) per occupant within 0.5 mi (0.8 km) of the project boundary
d. 5 ft2 (0.5 m2) per occupant within 1 mi (1.6 km) of the project boundary
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam – Synergies

1. Which of the following Nourishment Features most benefit the dietary needs of buildings
occupants with gluten allergies?
a. Feature 40 Food Allergies and Feature 48 Special Diets
b. Feature 44 Nutritional Information and Feature 45 Food Advertising
c. Feature 49 Responsible Food Production and Feature 50 Food Storage
d. Feature 42 Food Contamination and Feature 52 Mindful Eating

2. Which of the following WELL Concepts offer structured training programs for building
occupants?
a. Fitness
b. Water
c. Air
d. Comfort

3. According to the Feature 86 Post Occupancy Surveys, aggregate results from surveys conducted
must be reported within how many days?
a. 60 days
b. 14 days
c. 30 days
d. 90 days

4. By pursuing the features in the WELL Building Standard, a project could achieve how many Living
Building Challenge Imperatives?
a. 35-50%
b. 15-35%
c. 10-15%
d. 50-75%

5. What is the maximum number of Innovation proposals that may be submitted with a WELL
Building certification application?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 5
d. 4

6. The facility manager of an office building has renovated interior surfaces (ceilings, walls,
furniture) to include only materials with low VOC values. Which WELL Concept would benefit
most from this renovation?
a. Water
b. Comfort
c. Mind
d. Air
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam – Synergies

7. Which WELL Feature has the most similarities with LEED v4 EQ Credit Quality Views?
a. Feature 58 Color Quality
b. Feature 61 Right To Light
c. Feature 56 Solar Glare Control
d. Feature 62 Daylight Modeling

8. Who must provide a letter of assurance for Feature 50 Food Storage?

a. Owner and WELL AP
b. Architect
c. Architect and Facility Management Team
d. Owner

9. Which LEED v4 credit has the most similarities with WELL Feature 14 Air Infiltration
Management?
a. EQ Credit Indoor Air Quality Assessment
b. EQ Credit Thermal Comfort
c. EA Credit Enhanced Commissioning (Option 2)
d. EQ Prerequisite Minimum Indoor Air Quality Performance

10. Which of the following Features in the Comfort Concept requires an Architectural Drawing as
documentation for verification of achievement?
a. Feature 81 Sound Barriers
b. Feature 72 Accessible Design
c. Feature 79 Sound Masking
d. Feature 77 Olfactory Comfort

11. According to the Integrative Design Process, who must meet with stakeholders prior to the
design and programming of a WELL project?
a. Architects, Owner, Facility management team and Engineers
b. Engineers and Business Owner
c. Project managers and Business Owner
d. Project managers, Business Owner, Architect

12. Which of the following Air Features includes a requirement for Visual Inspection?
a. Feature 4 VOC Reduction
b. Feature 13 Air Flush
c. Feature 22 Pest Control
d. Feature 16 Humidity Control
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam – Synergies

13. In order to pursue Feature 100 Biophilia II – Quantitative, an interior designer has included a
decorative plant wall covering the largest available wall on each floor in the project. Which of
the following WELL Features might be impacted by the introduction of indoor plantings?
a. None of the above
b. Feature 22 Pest Control
c. Feature 51 Food Production
d. Feature 32 Organic Contaminants
e. Feature 10 Pesticide Management

14. Which of the following WELL Features has the most similarities with Living Building Challenge
3.0 Imperative 10: Red List?
a. Feature 25 Toxic Material Reduction
b. Feature 24 Combustion Minimization
c. Feature 28 Cleanable Environment
d. Feature 26 Enhanced Material Safety

15. A Commissioning Agent is preparing the project commissioning report. Which WELL Features
should the report cover?
a. Feature 14 Air Infiltration Management and Feature 53 Visual Lighting Design
b. Feature 3 Ventilation Effectiveness and Feature 7 Construction Pollution Management
c. Feature 3 Ventilation Effectiveness and Feature 14 Air Infiltration Management
d. Feature 7 Construction Pollution Management and Feature 53 Visual Lighting Design

16. A project has just completed construction, and the designers, owners, managers, and facilities
staff are touring the project together. According to the Feature 85 Integrative Process, what else
must occur following construction completion?
a. Designers, owner, managers and facilities staff must discuss how building operations
will adhere to WELL standards.
b. Stakeholders, managers, owner, and designers must create a plan for continuous
reporting of building data with IWBI
c. Designers and managers must prepare a case study of the WELL Building project
d. Facilities staff, designers, owner, and managers must meet with building tenants to
review the WELL Building features in use at the property

17. Which of the following Comfort Features requires a Policy Document?

a. Feature 35 Periodic Water Quality Testing
b. Feature 29 Cleaning Equipment
c. Feature 54 Circadian Lighting Design
d. Feature 82 Individual Thermal Control
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam – Synergies

18. What feature promotes the availability of health and wellness literature including descriptive
information about the WELL objectives?
a. Feature 46 Safe Food Preparation
b. Feature 70 Fitness Equipment
c. Feature 84 Health and Wellness Awareness
d. Feature 62 Daylight Modeling

19. Which WELL Concept(s) operates around both transparent advertising and educational
literature to aid building occupants in their daily choices?
a. Fitness Concept only
b. Nourishment Concept only
c. Both Nourishment and Fitness Concepts
d. All of the WELL Concepts

20. Which WELL Feature has the most similarities with LEED v4 Credit Daylight?
a. Feature 56 Solar Glare Control
b. Feature 58 Color Quality
c. Feature 62 Daylight Modeling
d. Feature 61 Right to Light

21. Which of the following is thought to be responsible for 27% of Type II Diabetes cases?
a. Lack of sleep
b. Red meat consumption
c. Physical inactivity
d. Work-related stress

22. Who must provide a letter of assurance for Feature 04 VOC Reduction, Part 5: Furniture and
Furnishings?
a. Owner and WELL AP
b. Architect and Owner
c. Architect and Facility Management Team
d. Architect

23.
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Water

1. Lead, arsenic, glyphosate, atrazine and microbes are examples of what?

a. Water pollution
b. Water additives
c. Water ingredients
d. Water contaminants

2. What is the key to continuously delivering high quality water?

a. Implementing and maintaining appropriate water filters
b. Maintaining additives in water
c. Monitoring contaminants in water
d. Testing for metals in water

3. Lead, arsenic, antimony, mercury, nickel and copper are all examples of which of the following?
a. Microorganisms
b. Organic pollutants
c. Disinfectant byproducts
d. Dissolved metals

4. What are three options that can be used for water treatment to achieve Feature 36 Water
Treatment?
a. UV sanitization, water ionizers, and carbon filters
b. Carbon filters, sediment filters, and UV sanitization
c. Sediment filters, infrared filters, and water ionizers
d. Infrared filters, carbon filters, and sediment filters

5. Which of the following is not a part of Feature 36 Water Treatment?

a. Drinking Water Access
b. Legionella Control
c. Organic Chemical Removal
d. Sediment Filter
e. Water Quality Maintenance

6. Which of the following building systems deals with turbidity limits?

a. Air
b. Irrigation
c. Lighting
d. Water

7. Which member of the project team is responsible for providing letters of assurance to
document the promotion of drinking water access?
a. Project Team
b. Tenant and Facility manager
c. Architect
d. WELL Assessor
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Water

8. Excessive exposure to the additives chlorine/chloramine and fluoride in water can cause adverse
effects including aesthetic mottling of the teeth, stomach discomfort, and eye/skin irritation,
kidney damage, and what other health problems?
a. Asthma
b. Diabetes
c. Heart attacks/stroke
d. Cancer

9. All water being delivered to the project area for human consumption is tested quarterly for the
presence of which of the four following dissolved metals or metalloids?
a. Nickel, arsenic, iron, and copper
b. Zinc, arsenic, mercury, and nickel
c. Lead, arsenic, mercury, and copper
d. Lead, zinc, mercury, and nickel

10. A company leasing 3 floors in an existing building is considering WELL certification. How often
should the company’s facility manger have the drinking water tested for dissolved metals?
a. Quarterly
b. Annually
c. Monthly
d. Weekly

11. How often should aerators of water dispenses be cleaned to remove debris and sediment?
a. Quarterly
b. Every 2 months
c. Every week
d. Every month

12. How often should the mouthpiece and protective guards of water dispenses be cleaned to
prevent lime and calcium build-up?
a. Every three days
b. Twice weekly
c. Every day
d. Weekly

13. The project team for an existing building is pursuing WELL certification. All water being delivered
to the project has been tested, and the turbidity level was found to be less than 1.0 NTU. What
other test must be passed to achieve Feature 30 Fundamental Water Quality?
a. Total coliforms are not detected in the sample
b. An active carbon filter is installed on all water meant for human contact
c. Quarterly testing for inorganic metals is done
d. The pH level is at a neutral level of 7
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Water

14. Which of the following would help maintain continuous delivery of high quality drinking water?
a. Rainwater harvesting
b. Installing carbon filters
c. Creation of more water wells
d. Installing water efficient fixtures

15. Exposure to what two metals has been linked to developmental delays and defects in learning
abilities in children, as well as high blood pressure and kidney problems in adults?
a. Mercury and zinc
b. Iron and lead
c. Lead and mercury
d. Nickel and iron

16. Checking water for turbidity and total coliform bacteria are preconditions for which of the
following Features?
a. Feature 32: Organic contaminants
b. Feature 33: Agriculture contaminants
c. Feature 36: Water treatment
d. Feature 30: Fundamental water quality

17. The Institute of Medicine (IOM) recommends that women and men consume approximately
how much water a day? This amount includes water from all sources such as drinking water,
other beverages and food.
a. Women 2.5 liters and men 3.5 liters
b. Women 2.7 liters and men 3.7 liters
c. Women 2.6 liters and men 3.8 liters
d. Women 2.3 liters and men 3.9 liters

18. Water quality maintenance is used to verify that the selected filtration/sanitation system chosen
for a project continues to operate as designed. Projects must annually provide IWBI with record-
keeping for a minimum of what time period, including evidence that the filter and/or sanitizer
has been properly maintained as per the manufacture’s recommendation?
a. A minimum of 1 year
b. A minimum of 10 months
c. A minimum of 3 years
d. A minimum of 2 years

19. Adverse health effects, including cancer, immune deficiencies and nervous system difficulties
have been linked to which of the following water issues?
a. Organic contaminants
b. Fundamental water quality
c. Public water additives
d. Inorganic contaminants
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Water

20. What is the maximum level of Nitrate in drinking water allowed by Feature 33 Agricultural
Contaminants?
a. Nitrate less than 5 mg/L (1 mg/L as nitrogen)
b. Nitrate less than 50 mg/L (11 mg/L as nitrogen)
c. 50 mg/L nitrogen
d. 10 g/L nitrogen

21. The quality of surface water in the U.S. is protected by which of the following legislation?
a. Safe Drinking Water Act
b. Pure Water Act
c. Water Protection Act
d. Clean Water Act

22. Feature 30 Fundamental Water Quality helps all the following human systems except which?
a. Nervous
b. Digestive
c. Respiratory
d. Immune
e. Urinary

23. What negative health conditions are associated with exposure to bacteria, viruses, and protozoa
in drinking water?
a. Headache, blurred vision, and insomnia
b. Cramps, nausea, vomiting and diarrhea
c. Shortness of breath and low blood pressure
d. Drowsiness, dizziness, and memory problems
e. Depression and psychosis

24. How often should water be tested for inorganic metals to ensure that the water quality is
properly maintained year-round?
a. Monthly
b. Weekly
c. 6 months
d. Quarterly

25. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), how many annual deaths are attributed to
unsafe water, sanitation and hygiene?
a. 2.2 million
b. 1 billion
c. 1.4 million
d. 2 million
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Water

26. Pesticide compounds that have contaminated groundwater through agricultural and storm
water runoff have been linked to kidney, thyroid, gastrointestinal and what other health
problem?
a. Reproductive difficulties
b. High blood pressure
c. Lung cancer
d. Heat attacks

27. To promote proper hydration, what is the maximum distance all parts of regularly occupied floor
space should be from water dispensers?
a. Every 10m (32 ft)
b. Every 50m (165ft)
c. Every 30m (100ft)
d. Every 100m (330ft)

28. The following Feature are rated as preconditions for which building types?
Feature 30: Fundamental water quality
Feature 31: Inorganic contaminants
Feature 32: Organic contaminants
Feature 33: Agricultural contaminants
Feature 34: Public water additives

a. Core and shell, new and existing building

b. New and existing interiors, core and shell
c. New and existing buildings, new and existing interiors, core and shell
d. New and existing interiors, new and existing buildings

29. Which of the following is most effective at removing organic contaminants like Polychlorinated
Biphenyls (PCBs), benzene, and styrene?
a. UV sanitization
b. Infrared filters
c. Sediment filters
d. Activated carbon filters

30. According to Feature 31 Inorganic Contaminants, all water being delivered to the project area
for human consumption (at least one water dispenser per project) must meet which of the
following maximum limit for mercury?
a. 0.001 mg/L
b. 0.004 mg/L
c. 0.002 mg/L
d. 0.005 mg/L
 WELL AP – GBES Practice Exam - Water

31. The installation of carbon filters from water meant for human consumption can remove which
of the following contaminants?
a. Arsenic
b. Mercury
c. Excess iron
d. Common pesticides and herbicides

32. According to Feature 30, all drinking water delivered to an existing building must be less than
wat maximum turbidity?
a. 0.8 NTU
b. 1.0 NTU
c. 0.3 NTU
d. 0.4 NTU

33. According to Feature 34 Public Water Additives, which of the following is a common public
water additive that, in properly monitored limits, has positive health effects?
a. Nitrate
b. Antimony
c. Chlorine
d. Benzene

34. To encourage water consumption in a new building, at least one water dispense should be
located within what distance of the workstations on each floor?
a. 50 m (165ft)
b. 20 m (65ft)
c. 40 m(130ft)
d. 30m (100ft)

35. Which of the following are rated as Optimizations for new buildings?
a. Feature 35 Periodic water quality testing, Feature 32 Organic contaminants, and Feature
36 Water treatment
b. Feature 34 Public water additives, Feature 36 Water treatment, and Feature 37 Drinking
water promotion
c. Feature 33 Agricultural contaminants, Feature 31 Inorganic contaminants, and Feature
32 Organic contaminants
d. Feature 35 Periodic water quality testing, Feature 36 Water treatment, and Feature 37
Drinking water promotion

36. Feature 34 Public Water Additives, contains which of the following parts?
a. Disinfectants, Disinfectant Byproducts, and Fluoride
b. Microorganisms, Organic Pollutants, and Fluoride
c. Legionella Control, Microorganisms, and Disinfectant Byproducts
d. Disinfectants, Disinfectant Byproducts, and Organic Pollutants