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Assess Your English

The document provides a mock exam for assessing English skills, including a listening comprehension section with 5 extracts and questions, a use of English section with 60 multiple choice questions testing grammar and vocabulary, and a reading comprehension section. It tests a variety of skills including filling out forms, choosing correct answers, completing sentences and notes, and identifying missing words or phrases in passages. The exam is intended to help evaluate and improve English language abilities.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
105 views20 pages

Assess Your English

The document provides a mock exam for assessing English skills, including a listening comprehension section with 5 extracts and questions, a use of English section with 60 multiple choice questions testing grammar and vocabulary, and a reading comprehension section. It tests a variety of skills including filling out forms, choosing correct answers, completing sentences and notes, and identifying missing words or phrases in passages. The exam is intended to help evaluate and improve English language abilities.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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ASSESS YOUR ENGLISH

MOCK EXAM i

[2023]
LINH
[Compiled by Linh]
Part I/Listening (30 points)
There are 3 sections for the test. Each question carries one point. You will hear each piece TWICE. For
each part, you will have some time to look through the questions.
Section 1
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Client Details

Name: Andrew Peterson (Example)


Educational Qualification: Degree in (1)___________
Previous Job: (2)___________
Hobbies: (3)___________
Main Skills: (4)___________
Expected Salary (5) $_________
Can start? (6)___________
Other languages? (7)___________

Choose THREE letters from the list, A-G.


Which THREE qualities do employers most value in their staff?
A. Problem-solving skills
B. Diligence
C. Experience
D. Flexible hours
E. Independent thinking
F. Good personality
G. Qualifications

Section 2
Choose THE CORRECT ANSWER (A, B, C OR D) which fits best according to what you hear.
Extract 1
(1) How did Freedman and Fraser demonstrate the foot-in-the-door technique?
a. By observing teens asking for something small, then later making a larger request.
b. By observing that participants who would agree to place a small sign in their yard who would later
agree to put a larger sign in their yard.
c. By convincing people to buy additional features when purchasing a car.
d. By suggesting people to buy more expensive data plans for their new phones.
(2) Why does the professor say this?
a. To ask the students if they know how to sell an expensive product.
b. To emphasize that foot-in-the-door technique is used to sell expensive products
c. To show the students he is not completely sure how to use the technique
d. To introduce a relevant example of foot-in-the-door technique.
Extract 2
(1) What is the lecture mainly about?
a. Changes over time in the way we view the elderly.
b. The difference between agrarian and industrialized societies
c. Why the elderly is not respected like they used to be.
d. Why people no longer live with their aging parents.
(2) What was the role of elderly in agrarian societies?
a. They were taken care of by their children and helped around the house
b. They held most of the community’s power.
c. They would be sought out for their knowledge.
d. They were the majority of the workforce.

Extract 3
(1) What does the professor imply about black holes?
a. They are mysterious and difficult to understand.
b. It is impossible to create an accurate theory to describe them.
c. Scientists have given up on trying to learn more about them since 1916
d. We should know more about black holes by now
(2) Why does the professor say this?
a. To prove that a star dying is a major event.
b. To emphasize the intensity of gravity that causes the star to collapse.
c. To show what happens when a star dies.
d. To highlight the difference between large and small stars.

Extract 4
(1) What is the lecture mainly about?
a. Problems with food distribution in the past few years
b. The relationship between caloric consumption and economic growth
c. Amartya Sen’s work on inequality, poverty, and food distribution problems
d. Why people were able to eat more as the economy grew.
(2) According to the lecture, what would create a better distribution of food?
a. If the government gives food directly to the poor.
b. If the government does more research.
c. If policies are made to support employment and economic stability.
d. If more women are given jobs.
Extract 5
(1) What is the lecture mainly about?
a. Teachers from China before the Warring States Period
b. How the Chinese remember Confucius.
c. Confucius’ guidance from heaven
d. What we know about Confucius’ life, based on the Analects.
(2) What does the professor imply about Confucius?
a. Contrary to popular belief, Confucius had many different sides to his personality
b. He was actually a very religious man.
c. He tricked people into thinking he was guided by Heaven to bring peace to the world
d. He had his conversations recorded in the Analects by one of his students

Section 3
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
The history of coffee

Coffee in the Arab world


-   These was small-scale trade in wild coffee from Ethiopia.
-   1522: Coffee was approved in the Ottoman court as a type of medicine.
-   1623: In Constantinople, the ruler ordered the (1) ___________ of every coffee house.
Coffee arrives in Europe (17th century)
-   Coffee shops were compared to (2) ___________ .
-   They played an important part in social and (3) ___________ changes.
Coffee and European colonization
-   European powers established coffee plantations in their colonies.
-   Types of coffee were often named according to the (4) ___________ they came from.
-   In Brazil and the Caribbean, most cultivation depended on (5) ___________ .
-   In Java, coffee was used as a form of (6) ___________ .
-   Coffee became almost as important as (7) ___________ .
-   The move towards the consumption of (8) ___________ in Britain did not also take place in the USA.
Coffee in the 19th century
-   Prices dropped because of improvements in (9) ___________ .
-   Industrial workers found coffee helped them to work at (10) ___________ .
Part 2/Use of English (30 points)
This part consists of 60 questions. Each question carries 0.5 point. Read the questions carefully and
answer them all.

For questions 1 – 10, read the text below. A word is missing in parts of the text and decide which
answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap.
BUSINESS IS BOOMING AT SCHOOL

Students at Oakfields School in England are working on getting a head start in business. They are
doing this by learning about business as (1) ___________ of their classes. The program has begun in the
Year 8 German class where students are learning how to speak German and how to (2) ___________
their own business at all the time the same time. For the last year the class have been setting
(3) ___________ a company that sells German toys. In November last year they made a respectable
profit of over £250 selling the toys at a local market. One student commented: “Previously, I wasn’t
that (4) ___________ on German, but now I realized it's a useful life skill.”
Business has had an (5) ___________ on other lessons too. English students are planning to sell some of
their best creative writing as e-books while some design students are starting a mail order plastic
crockery business. In (6) ___________ , two 15-year-old students have started a business of their own
selling a computer app that helps students to (7) ___________ their work.
The school hopes that learning about business early will give students a better (8) ___________ of
finding employment in the future. Teachers at Oakfields say that this is (9) ___________ important as
the school is located in an area where there are relatively few (10) ___________ . The students
themselves add that they find developing business skills enjoyable as well as useful.

(1) A. bit B. part C. piece D. section


(2) A. let B. deal C. take D. run
(3) A. up B. off C. out D. down
(4) A. fond B. willing C. keen D. eager
(5) A. input B. impact C. increase D. involvement
(6) A. conclusion B. particular C. consequence D. addition
(7) A. control B. organize C. fix D. support
(8) A. likelihood B. option C. chance D. opportunity
(9) A. absolutely B. utterly C. particularly D. totally
(10) A. work B. jobs C. labor D. careers
For questions 11 – 18, read the texts below. A word, phrase, or sentence is missing in parts of each
text. Decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits the gap.

To: Emily Swanton [email protected]


From: Arnold Hansen [email protected]
Subject: Polton Farm Fair
Date: June 2nd

This e-mail serves as a receipt for you registration (11) ___________ confirms your participation in the
Seventeenth Annual Polton County Farm Fair from July 14th to July 16th . As a returning exhibitor,
Swanton Farm Feed will be offered (12) ___________ space at a discounted rate.

Please be aware of a new requirement when preparing your space. This year, all booths must be
completely ready by 8p.m on July 13th (13) ___________. Tables will be provided by the organizer, as in
past years.

Thank you once again for your participation in our (14) ___________.

Arnold Hansen, Assistant Coordinator


Polton County Farm Fair

(11) A. whereas B. rather than C. in case D. and also


(12) A. rent B. rental C. rents D. renting
(13) A. This includes the removal of trash and packing materials.
B. The number of food vendors has increased in recent years.
C. The exact schedule will be announced later.
D. The Livestock Pavilion will be located next to the south exit
(14) A. discovery B. survey C. event D. vote

(18 April) – MKZ Foods, Inc., the region’s largest exporter of pecans, expects its outgoing shipments to
increase significantly over the next few months. This (15) ___________ is based on the fact that the
region’s pecan farmers expanded their land area by 20 percent last year. According to spokesperson
Katharina Seiler, MKZ’s exporters could reach a colossal 50,000 metric tons this year. (16) ___________ .

MKZ buys most of the yield from the region’s pecan farms and processes it (17) ___________ export
throughout the world. “The availability of new land for (18) ___________ in the region is creating
opportunities for growth,” said Ms. Seiler. “I believe MKZ is going to have a truly outstanding year.”

(15) A. cost B. delay C. decision D. forecast


(16) A. Such a figure is unprecedented in the company’s history.
B. Moreover, Ms. Seiler holds an advanced degree in economics.
C. Pecans are high in vitamins and minerals.
D. Still, MKZ shares have been profitable in recent years.
(17) A. on B. for C. in D. by
(18) A. farming B. farmer C. farmed D. farm

For questions 19 – 20, mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s).
(19) If the book captures the restless, gregarious and troubled spirit of the man, the music
proves more elusive.
A. gargantuan
B. hail-fellow-well-met
C. solitary
D. open-air
(20) It had the reputation of being the gathering place for smugglers, gun-runners, pirates, and
equally unsavory folk.
A. having a strong influence on others
B. characterized by energy and vigor
C. tending to wander
D. morally offensive

For questions 21 – 22, mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s).
(21) In January 2022, Tesla announced a final quarter crescendo during which vehicle sales
grew at a staggering 87%, helping launch the company’s shares into the upper stratosphere.
A. zenith B. nadir C. acme D. heyday
(22) Little effort to control the pandemonium is made by teachers and other staff, who
themselves are caught up in the chaos marking the change-over from secondary to primary
school.
A. hullabaloo
B. hubble-bubble
C. impertinent
D. tranquility

For questions 23 – 32, read the text below, and think of the word which best fits each gap. Use only
one word in each gap.
Son Doong Cave is in the heart of Phong Nha Ke Bang National Park in Quang Binh province of Central
Vietnam. Only recently (23) ___________ in 2009 – 2010 by the British Cave Research Association, the
cave has only been open to the (24) ___________ since 2013. Fewer people have seen inside of Son
Doong Cave than have stood on the summit of Mount Everest. Join us on this otherworldly expedition
and become one of the lucky few (25) ___________ have had the life changing experience of exploring
the world’s largest cave. Imagine trekking straight into the (26) ___________ of the world’s largest cave
on an expedition unlike any other. A cave is (27) ___________ massive that a Boeing 747 could fly
through its largest cavern. Foreign landscape found (28) ___________ else, enormous stalagmites rising
from the ground and statuesque stalactites hanging from the ceiling like an alien species. Jungle
emerge (29) ___________ the cave itself, which is so surreal that it’s worth seeing once. Misty clouds
envelop the whole scene, a result of the cave’s own localized weather system. Passages adorned
(30) ___________ ancient fossils offer evidence of the millions of years that have passed on this Earth.
As you approach the Jungle just outside the entrance, the (31) ___________ of cool wind that cascades
out brings to life everything inside of you. Hazy, cold and exhilarating, it is apparent that there’s (32)
___________ magical waiting just beyond the opening to the cave.

For questions 33 – 40, read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of some of the
lines to form a word that fits in the gap in the same line.
MINOAN RECREATION
The Minoans were a sport-centred society. In antiquity all sports were ultimately derived from
religious rituals, but by the time the Cretans were enjoying their palace civilization, sport had passed
over into a (33) ___________ (RECREATION) activity. A great deal can be surmised about Creatan
sports because they are a common subject of wall paintings and vase (34) ___________ (SCULPT) . One
of the most frequently illustrated activities in Minoan painting and ceramics was the sport of bull
jumping. Bull jumping was a test of both courage and (35) ___________ (AGILE) . We can imagine the
difficulty of vaulting either onto a charging bull’s back or ever it in a somersault landing with one’s
feet on the other side of the bull from the eloquent depictions of this event on Minoan vase work.
Successful execution of the event involved (36) ___________(PARTICIPATE) seizing hold the horns of a
bull in full charge at the moment when it tosses its head. Completion of a successful somersault
depended upon the (37) ___________ (COMPETE) using the (38) ___________ (MOMENT) from the bull’s
violent head jerk and using it gracefully to either mount or vault along the length of the bull’s body.
The Minoan depictions of this event reveal a remarkably elegant sport (39) ___________ (RELY ) on
precise timing that seemed less about bravery and strength than about spectacle and fluidity and,
unlike in modern-day bullfighting, the animal was (40) ___________ (HARM) .

For questions 41 – 50, complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first
sentence, using the word given. Do not change the word given. You must use between three and six
words, including the word given.

(41) For some people, entertainment options are paramount, while others care more about
diversity.
OVER-RIDING
→ Entertainment options are of ____________________________________________, while others care more about
diversity.
(42) The plane appears to be breaking up in mid-air.
DISTINTEGRATING
→ __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
(43) The operation will not leave you with an ugly scar.
DISFIGURING
→ __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
(44) The president arranged for me to use his chauffeur-driven car whenever I liked.
DISPOSAL
→__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
(45) “Please be chivalrous when you are at the party .” – Mrs. Brown said to her son.
Ps
→Mrs. Brown insisted that____________________________________________________________________________________
(46) The manager concluded that he ought to give me a refund.
CAME
→The manager ____________________________________________ deserved a refund.
(47) Following some complaints by local residents, the government withdrew its proposal to
build a new runway at the airport.
LIGHT
→The government’s proposal to build a new runway at the airport
____________________________________________ some complaints by local residents.
(48) All the children enjoy themselves at the summer camp.
FUN
→Every
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_
(49) “I must warn you how dangerous it is to cycle at night without any lights,” said the police
officer to Max.
→Max received a ____________________________________________at night without any lights from the police
officer.
(50) They are demolishing the old bus station and replacing it with a new one.
PULLED
→The old bus station is ____________________________________________ with a new one.

For questions 51 – 55, think of the one word which can be used appropriately in all three sentences.
(51) ___________
At first, I thought it was a rare species but it turned out to be a ___________ sparrow.
Cybercrime is becoming increasingly ___________ as more transactions take place online.
It’s a ___________ misconception that most scientists are eccentric personalities.
(52) ___________
The two countries are similar with ___________ to the divorce rates.
Of course, we argue, but I don’t think we’re any different from other couples in that ___________ .
Todd lost a lot of people’s ___________ when they saw how he treats his wife.
(53) ___________
Though the educational system puts a lot of pupils under enormous ___________, hardly anything is
being done to improve it.
I’d like to ___________ the importance of regular mental exercise that will make you feel challenged.
The primary ___________ should be placed on the first syllable, not the second.
(54) ___________
The BBC are offering ___________ coverage of the Olympics, so we shouldn’t miss a single thing.
During the night a fresh, new ___________ of snow covered the ground.
When I was a toddler, I wouldn’t go anywhere without my security ___________ to keep me comfort.
(55) ___________
I know what may cheer you up. Let’s see a good comedy. It’ll certainly ___________ you in a good mood.
Little children with their unpredictable behavior always ___________ my patience to the test.
We're going to have to work very hard, but as Chris so succinctly ___________ it, there's no gain without
pain.

For questions 56 – 60, choose the word/phrase (A, B, C or D) that best completes each of the
following sentences.
(56) By going in person to the office which ___________ forms, she was able to get what she
wanted.
A. controlled B. offered C. disseminated D. issued
(57) There will of necessity be a ___________ to the amount of money put at the new manager’s
disposal.
A. ceiling B. roof C. sky D. summit
(58) Charles had very little interest in the museum; he gave each exhibit no more than a(n)
___________ glance.
A. transient B. temporary C. ephemeral D. cursory
(59) Four people drowned when the yacht ___________ in a sudden storm.
A. inverted B. overflowed C. upset D. capsized
(60) You can work ___________ with very little money if you follow our home decoration tips.
A. marvels B. miracles C. wonder D. mysteries
Part 3/Reading (40 points)
This part consists of 40 questions. Each question carries 1 point. Read the questions carefully and
answer them all.
For questions 1 – 10, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the text.
It has long been known that when the green parts of plants are exposed to light under suitable
conditions of temperature and moisture, carbon dioxide is absorbed by the plant from the
atmospheric CO2 and oxygen is released into the air. This exchange of gases in plants is the opposite
of the process that occurs in respiration. In this plant process, which is called photosynthesis,
carbohydrates are synthesized in the presence of light from carbon dioxide and water by specialized
structures in the cytoplasm of plant cells called chloroplasts. These chloroplasts contain not only two
types of light-trapping green chlorophyll but also a vast array of protein substances called enzymes.
In most plants, the water required by the photosynthesis process is absorbed from the soil by the
roots and translocated through the xylem of the root and stem to the chlorophyll-laden leaves. Except
for the usually small percentage used in respiration, the oxygen released in the process diffuses out of
the leaf into the atmosphere through stomates. In simple terms, carbon dioxide is the fuel, and oxygen
is the product of the chemical reaction. For each molecule of carbon dioxide used, one molecule of
oxygen is released. Here is a summary chemical equation for photosynthesis:
6CO2, + 6H2O → C6H12O6, + 6O2
As a result of this process, radiant energy from the sun is stored as chemical energy. In turn, the
chemical energy is used to decompose carbon dioxide and water. The products of their
decomposition are recombined into a new compound, which successively builds up into the more
and more complex substances that comprise the plant. These organic substances, that is, the sugars,
starches, and cellulose, all belong to the class of organic molecules. In other words, the process of
photosynthesis can be understood as an enzyme-induced chemical change from carbon dioxide and
water into the simple sugar glucose. This carbohydrate, in turn, is utilized by the plant to generate
other forms of energy, such as the long chains of plant cells or polymers that comprise the cellular
structures of starches or cellulose. Many intermediate steps are involved in the production of a
simple sugar or starch. At the same time, a balance of gases is preserved in the atmosphere by the
process of photosynthesis.

(1) Which title best expresses the ideas in this passage?


A. A Chemical Equation
B. The Process of Photosynthesis
C. The Parts of Vascular Plants
D. The Production of Sugar
(2) The combination of carbon dioxide and water to form sugar results in an excess of
A. water
B. oxygen
C. carbon
D. chlorophyll
(3) Which process is the opposite of photosynthesis?
A. Decomposition
B. Synthesization
C. Diffusion
D. Respiration
(4) In photosynthesis, energy from the sun is
A. changed to chemical energy
B. conducted from the xylem to the leaves of green plants
C. not necessary to the process
D. released one to one for each molecule of carbon dioxide used
(5) Underline the sentence in paragraph 1 that describes how oxygen is released into the
atmosphere.
Paragraph 1 is marked with an arrow (→).

→ It has long been known that when the green


parts of plants are exposed to light under suitable
conditions of temperature and moisture, carbon
dioxide is absorbed by the plant from the
atmospheric CO, and oxygen is released into the
air. This exchange of gases in plants is the
opposite of the process that occurs in respiration.
In this plant process, which is called photosynthesis,
carbohydrates are synthesized in the presence of
light from carbon dioxide and water by specialized
structures in the cytoplasm of plant cells called
chloroplasts. These chloroplasts contain not only
two types of light-trapping green chlorophyll but
also a vast array of protein substances called
enzymes. In most plants, the water required by
the photosynthesis process is absorbed from the
soil by the roots and translocated through the
xylem of the root and stem to the chlorophyll-laden
leaves. Except for the usually small percentage
used in respiration, the oxygen released in the
process diffuses out of the leaf into the atmosphere
through stomates. In simple terms, carbon dioxide
is the fuel, and oxygen is the product of the chemical
reaction. For each molecule of carbon dioxide...

(6) The word stored in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to


A. retained
B. converted
C. discovered
D. Specified
(7) The word their in paragraph 2 refers to
A. radiant energy and chemical energy
B. carbon dioxide and water
C. products
D. complex substances
(8) The word successive in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to
A. with effort
B. in a sequence
C. slowly
D. carefully
(9) Besides the manufacture of food for plants, what is another benefit of photosynthesis?
A. It produces solar energy.
B. It diffuses additional carbon dioxide into the air.
C. It-maintains a balance of gases in the atmosphere.
D. It removes harmful gases from the air.
(10) Which of the following is NOT true of the oxygen used in photosynthesis?
A. Oxygen is absorbed by the roots.
B. Oxygen is the product of photosynthesis.
C. Oxygen is used in respiration.
D. Oxygen is released into the atmosphere through the leaves.

For questions 11 – 20, read the following text and answer the questions given.

GRAVITY
A. Without forces of gravitation, Earth
and other planets would be unable to
stay in their orbits around the Sun. the
Moon would be unable to orbit the
Earth, tidal waves would not occur and
the rising of hot air or water convection
would be impossible. Gravitation is a
phenomenon winch allows objects to
attract other matter; the physics behind
it have been explained in The Theory of
Relativity and Newton’s Law of
Universal Gravitation; though attempts to explain gravity hail back to ancient times. In 4th Century
B.C. the Greek philosopher Aristotle developed the hypothesis that all objects were drawn into their
correct position by crystalline spheres and that a physical mass would fall towards the earth in direct
proportion to its weight.
B. In the late 16th century Galileo deduced that while gravitation propels all objects to the ground at
the same rate, air resistance resulted in heavier objects appearing to fall more quickly; his theories
contradicting earlier belief systems put in place by Aristotle and others; so paving the way for
formulation of the modern theories of today. Though the two terms are now used interchangeably in
layman use, strictly by scientific definition, there are distinct differences between ‘gravitation’ and
‘gravity’. The first relates to the influence exerted by different objects which allow them to attract
other objects, whereas ‘gravity’ refers specifically to the force possessed by such objects which
facilitates gravitation. Certain scientific theories hold that gravitation may be initiated by a
combination of factors and not simply the existence of gravity alone; though doubts have been raised
regarding some of these theories.

C. Gravity is directly proportional to mass; a smaller object possessing less gravity. To illustrate, the
Moon is a quarter of the Earth’s size and possesses only 1/6 of its gravity. The mass of the Earth itself
is not spread out proportionally, being flatter at the poles than the equator as a result of its rotation;
gravity and gravitational pull in different locations throughout the world also vary. In the 1960s, as a
result of research into the worldwide gravity fields, it was discovered that inexplicably areas around
and including the Hudson Bay area of Canada appeared to possess significantly lower levels of gravity
than other parts of the globe; the reasons for this dissimilarity have since been extensively
investigated resulting in two explanations.

D. The original theory presented attributed this anomaly to activity which occurs 100-200 kilometres
below the Earth’s surface within the layer known as the ‘mantle’. The mantle is comprised of hot
molten rock known as magma which flows under the earth’s surface causing convection currents.
These convection currents can result in the lowering of the continental plates which make up the
Earth’s surface, as a result when this occurs, the mass in that area and its gravity is also reduced.
Research findings indicated that such activity had occurred in the Hudson Bay region.

E. More recently a second conjecture suggested that, in fact, lower levels of gravity in the area are a
result of occurrences during the Ice Age. The Laurentidelcesheet, which covered most of Canada and
the northern tip of the USA until it melted 10,000 years ago, is thought to have been 3.2 kms thick in
most parts and 3.7 kms thick over two areas of Hudson Bay. The sheer weight of the ice layer weighed
down the surface of the earth below, leaving a deep indentation once it had melted, having caused the
area around Hudson Bay to become thinner as the earth’s surface was pushed to the edges of the
icesheet.

F. Extensive investigation has since been carried out by the Harvard-Smithsonian Center for
Astrophysics using data collected by satellites during the Gravity Recovery and Climate Experiment
(GRACE) between 2002 and 2006. The satellites are placed 220kms apart and orbit 500kms above
Earth. Being extremely sensitive to even minor differences in gravitational pull of the areas of earth
they pass over, as the first satellite enters an area with decreased gravity it moves slightly away from
the earth as the gravitational pull is reduced and also moves slightly further away from the sister
satellite that follows, such activity allowing scientists to create maps of gravitational fields. The
GRACE findings also allowed scientists to estimate the appearance of Hudson Bay over 10,000 years
ago, prior to the great thaw. The areas possessing the lowest gravity today correlate with the areas
covered in the thickest layers of ice at that time.

G. Researchers now believe that both theories regarding reduced gravity levels in the Hudson Bay
region are accurate and that the area’s characteristics are a result of both magma activity and the
impact of the Laurentidelcesheet. It has been estimated that the former has resulted in 55-75% of
gravity reduction and that pressure resulting from the latter accounts for 25-45%.

H. The effects of the Laurentidelcesheet are reversible due to the earth layer’s capability to ‘rebound’
in response to removal of the weight which once restricted it. Return to the original position,
however, is an extremely slow process; it is estimated that the area around Hudson Bay will take a
further 5,000 years to recover the altitude it once possessed prior to the Laurentidelcesheet. The
rebound activity in the area is also measurable through observation of sea levels; unlike the rest of
the world, sea levels are not rising in the area as a result of melting icecaps, but are dropping as the
land recovers its previous form

I. Research conducted into the Laurentidelcesheet has significant implications on a global scale. The
increased knowledge of how that particular area has changed over time and the long-term
implications activity in the Ice Age had, pave the way to a better understanding of how current
changes elsewhere will manifest themselves over the long term.
Choose the correct heading for paragraphs B, C and E-H from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number i-x in boxes 11 – 16 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings
i Return to previous form
ii Substantiating a hypothesis
iii Historic theories
iv The general rule of gravity and an exception
v The initial explanation
vi How proximity to the poles affected Hudson Bay
vii Scientific definition and contemporary views
viii Relevance to our future
ix An alternative view point
x Consolidating theories

Example
Paragraph D : v
Paragraph I : viii

(11) Paragraph B
(12) Paragraph C
(13) Paragraph E
(14) Paragraph F
(15) Paragraph G
(16) Paragraph H

Questions 16 – 20
Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information


FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN If there is no information on this

(16) Differentiation between gravity and gravitational pull is generally only made by academics in
the field.

(17) Gravity levels in areas around the equator are significantly higher than around the poles.

(18) It was first believed that lower gravity levels in Hudson Bay could be attributed to its location
between the poles and the equator.

(19) Molten rock activity within the magma layer has had less of an impact on gravity levels in the
Hudson Bay area than the Laurentidelcesheet.

(20) The GRACE project’s main focus was areas of Canada and North America once thought to be
covered by the Laurentidelcesheet.

For questions 21 – 33, you are going to read a lecture about the structure and function of cell
membranes. Read the text carefully and answer all the questions.
Structure and function of cell membranes
(A) Human body is made up of millions of cells - little building blocks of life. Each cell contains many
functional subunits (organelles) that enable its proper functioning and is protected from the external
environment by a cell membrane. While structure and function of organelles are extensively covered
in various biology courses, the importance of study of cell membranes is often underrated. This
article is dedicated to provide a short introduction into the basic functions and anatomy of a cell
membrane.
 
(B) Cell membranes protect and organize cells. Most importantly they serve as barriers,
discriminating the cell’s interior from the outer milieu. Because cells always exist in aqueous
environment their membranes should be structured in such way so they do not solve in water. This
function is ideally carried by special chemical molecules - phospholipids. These molecules are
constructed from two parts: tails made up of 2 molecules of fat that ‘avoid’ water and heads that have
an affinity for water. For this specific behaviour the phospholipid’s tails are called hydrophobic
(‘hydro’ means water and ‘phobia’ means fear) and heads are called hydrophilic (‘philos’ means love).
When phospholipids are added to water, they self-assemble into double-layered structures, shielding
their hydrophobic portions from water and exposing their hydrophilic portions to the environment.
This phospholipid bilayer may resemble a sandwich, where phospholipid heads are bread rolls and
tails are the sandwich filling.
 
(C) In addition to lipids, membranes are loaded with proteins. They usually go through the lipid
bilayer and are exposed to both aqueous environment and cell's interior. In fact, proteins account for
roughly half the mass of most cellular membranes. They make the membrane semi-permeable, which
means that some molecules can diffuse across the lipid bilayer but others cannot. Small hydrophobic
molecules and gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide cross membranes rapidly. Small molecules, such
as water and ethanol, can also pass through membranes, but they do so more slowly. On the other
hand, cell membranes restrict diffusion of highly charged molecules, such as ions, and large
molecules, such as sugars and amino acids. The passage of these molecules relies on specific
transport proteins embedded in the membrane.
 
(D) Membrane transport proteins are specific and selective for the molecules they move, and they
often use energy to enhance passage. Also, these proteins transport some nutrients against the
concentration gradient, which requires additional energy. The ability to maintain concentration
gradients and sometimes move materials against them is vital to cell health and maintenance. Thanks
to membrane barriers and transport proteins, the cell can accumulate nutrients in higher
concentrations than exist in the environment and, conversely, dispose of waste products.
 
(E) Other membrane-embedded proteins have communication-related jobs. Large molecules from the
extracellular environment, such as hormones or immune mediators, bind to the receptor proteins on
the cell membrane. Such binding causes a conformational change in the protein that transmits a
signal to intracellular messenger molecules. Like transport proteins, receptor proteins are specific
and selective for the molecules they bind.
 
(F) Another important type of membrane’s components are cholesterol molecules, which account for
about 20 percent of the lipids in animal cell plasma membranes. However, cholesterol is not present
in bacterial membranes or mitochondrial membranes. The cholesterol molecules are embedded in
place of phospholipid molecules and help to regulate the stiffness of membranes. To function
properly, the cell membrane should be in fluid state. Cholesterol reduces membrane fluidity at
moderate temperatures by reducing the moving of phospholipids. But at low temperatures, it hinders
solidification by disrupting the regular packing of phospholipids.

Label the diagram below.


Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD from the passage for each answer. Do not write the articles.
Which elements of cell
membrane correspond to the
numbers in the diagram?

(21) ________

(22) ________

(23)________

Which paragraph contains the following information?


Write the correct letter, A–F, in boxes 4–8 on your answer sheet.
(24) Specific proteins transport nutrients from the external environment against the concentration
gradient. ________
(25) The barrier function of cell membranes is supported by a bilayer of phospholipids. ________
(26) The level of membrane fluidity is regulated by cholesterol molecules. ________
(27) The importance of cell membranes are often underestimated. ________
(28) Proteins make the membrane semi-permeable. ________
Complete the summary below.

Choose ONLY ONE WORD from the passage for each answer.
Cell membranes protect cells and organize their activities. The first main function of cell membrane -
barrier function - is carried by phospholipids. These molecules don’t solve in water and, thus, are
ideal for cells that always exist in (29)________ environment. In addition to lipids, membranes are
loaded with (30)________ that make the membrane (31)________, which means that some molecules can
diffuse across the lipid bilayer but others cannot. One of the most important types of membrane
proteins are (32)________ proteins and receptor proteins. The last type of membrane elements are
cholesterol molecules, which are embedded in place of (33)________ molecules and help to regulate the
stiffness of membranes.
You are going to read an article in which four academics give their views on fiction. For questions 34-
40, choose from the sections of the article (A-D). The sections may be chosen more than once. When
more than one answer is required, these may be given in any order.

Why Do We Read Novels?


We asked a group of academics for their views on the appeal of fiction
A Cathy Smith
Is a work by a prize-winning novelist better than a trashy summer blockbuster? Undoubtedly, if you’re looking
for a literary masterpiece. But it’s not ‘better’ if you’re simply looking for escapism. ‘Literary fiction’, unlike
‘genre fiction’ such as mystery or romance, is not about escaping from reality. Instead it provides a means to
better understand the world. What makes a work deserve the title of literary fiction can be pinned down, to a
certain extent, by critical analysis of the writer’s techniques. Yet a huge element of the appeal of literary fiction
lies in something almost indefinable – the brilliant, original idea; the insight that, once written down, seems the
only way to say something. Writers of fiction have to recruit or seduce us into their world – only then do we
trust them to take us on a journey with them. The books we put down after only a few pages are those which
have failed to make that connection with us.

B Matteo Bianco
A novel – whether for adults or children – takes you places, emotionally and imaginatively, which you would
never otherwise have visited. However, I don’t think you should put yourself under any more pressure to finish
‘a classic’ than a kids’ comic. And if by ‘classics’ we mean Tolstoy, Proust, Hardy and so on, then my own
reading is distinctly patchy. The author Martin Amis once said that the only way we have of evaluating the
quality of a book is whether it retains a readership. I think that’s fair enough, though it’s imprecise. A work of
fiction can always be fine-tuned in such a way that the final experience for the reader is enhanced, and this fact
must say something about the theoretical (if not practical) possibility of stating that one book is better than
another. And while I can’t prove that a single copy of a classic work of fiction is a greater gift to the world than
a million trashy romances, I’m going to go ahead and say it’s so anyway.

C Gita Sarka
The author Albert Camus says that the appeal of narrative art lies in its power to organise life in such a way
that we can reflect on it from a distance and experience it anew. Distinct from television or film, literature
allows us significant control over our experience of what’s being presented to us. One book I would always tell
anyone to read is The Life and Times of Michael K. – a literary prize winner, but hated by some of my
colleagues. It’s a classic for me because of what it says about living in difficult times; to a lot of people it’s just a
bit boring and the main character doesn’t speak enough. Categories such as ‘literary masterpieces’ and even
‘literature’ do not exist independently of their assessors – assessors who are bound in an era and see value in
part through the eyes of that era. Personally, I find it impossible to make claims that one work is better than
another. I can say why it might be worthwhile to study it, but that’s all.

D George C. Schwarz
If, at a certain time in their life a person is interested in just one particular genre or author, that’s fine as long
as they have the opportunity of reading a wide range of books throughout their lives. These opportunities can
come through family members, teachers and friends who can create the reading landscape and encourage
them to look wider and further. A famous writer once said that it’s easy to recognise the people who don’t read
fiction, as their outlook on life is narrower and less imaginative, and they find it hard to put themselves in
other people’s shoes. It’s a generalisation, but with elements of truth. The power of fiction begins with fairy
tales, nursery rhymes and picture books, which give children ways of looking at the world outside their own
experience. Literature teachers often recommend reading ‘the classics’. But what classics, whose and which
era? In a way it doesn’t matter – the key point is that one can’t escape from a need for shared references and
reading experience.

(34) admits to gaps in their literary knowledge?


(35) suggests a possible consequence of not reading novels?

(36) points out that opinion about a book depends on the period in which it is being judged?

(37) explains why readers sometimes choose to read books which are not considered classic works of
literature?

(38) gives reassurance about people whose choice of reading is limited?

(39) says that no-one should feel obliged to read a particular type of book?

(40) defends their right to judge particular types of novels?

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