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Raus CSP22 FLT4Q

This document provides instructions for Test Code TS22E1046, which is part of Rau's IAS Test series for the Preliminary Exam 2022. The test contains 100 multiple choice questions to be completed within 2 hours. Candidates must fill in their responses on the provided OMR answer sheet and will be penalized for incorrect answers. After completing the exam, candidates should submit only their answer sheet and can keep the test booklet.

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Pranav Chawla
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© © All Rights Reserved
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Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
106 views20 pages

Raus CSP22 FLT4Q

This document provides instructions for Test Code TS22E1046, which is part of Rau's IAS Test series for the Preliminary Exam 2022. The test contains 100 multiple choice questions to be completed within 2 hours. Candidates must fill in their responses on the provided OMR answer sheet and will be penalized for incorrect answers. After completing the exam, candidates should submit only their answer sheet and can keep the test booklet.

Uploaded by

Pranav Chawla
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 20

Test is part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 2022

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I) Test Code

FULL LENGTH TEST (FLT)–4 TS22E1046

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK


THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN or MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English Only. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) provided.
Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.

4. All items carry equal marks.

5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions contained therein.

6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.

7. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE


OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

This test is part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 2022
1. Which of the following changes was/were and other weaker sections of the
proposed by the Charter Act of 1833? society, and to protect them from social
1. It ended the commercial monopoly of injustice and exploitation.
the East India Company. 2. Prevention of concentration of wealth
2. The Governor-General was given the and means of production.
power to superintend all financial, civil 3. To organise agriculture and animal
and military affairs of the Company. husbandry on modern and scientific
3. No Indian citizen was to be denied lines.
employment under the Company on the Select the correct answer using the code
basis of religion, colour, birth or given below:
descent. (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 1 and 2 only
given below: (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 4. With reference to the Lok Sabha, consider
(d) 1, 2 and 3 the following statements:
1. The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker
2. Which of the following has/have been are the Presiding Officers of the Lok
provided under the Constitution of India, Sabha.
relating to the principle of Equality, 2. The Deputy Speaker presides over the
envisaged in the Preamble? Lok Sabha when the Speaker is absent
1. Elections to the Lok Sabha and the from the sitting of the House.
State Assemblies to be on the basis of 3. In the “absence” of the Speaker and the
adult suffrage. Deputy Speaker, the duty of the office of
2. Equality of opportunity in the matters the Speaker is performed by such
of public employment. member of the Lok Sabha as appointed
3. Secures to men and women equal right by the President.
to an adequate means of livelihood. 4. When the offices of both the Speaker
Select the correct answer using the code and the Deputy Speaker fall “vacant”,
given below: the House shall be presided by a
(a) 1 only Chairperson from amongst the panel
nominated by the Speaker of the Lok
(b) 1 and 2 only
Sabha.
(c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above are
(d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
3. Which of the following Directive Principles
(b) 2 and 4 only
of State Policy (DPSPs) is/are Gandhian
(c) 1 and 2 only
Principle(s)?
(d) 3 and 4 only
1. To promote the educational and
economic interests of the SCs, the STs

RAUSIAS-TS22E1046 1
5. With reference to the Money Bill, consider 7. Consider the following statements:
the following statements: 1. The term ‘law’ in Article 13 of the
1. When the Office of the Speaker of the Constitution of India has been given a
Lok Sabha falls vacant, the duties of the wide connotation and includes the
Office shall be performed by the Deputy ordinance making powers of the
Speaker, excluding certifying a Bill as President and the Governor.
Money Bill. 2. Issuing ordinance by the President and
2. The deadlock on Money Bill can be the Governor is their discretionary
resolved through Joint Sitting of both power and they need not consult the
the Houses of the Parliament. Council of Ministers.
3. The receipt of money on account of the Which of the statements given above are
Consolidated Fund of India or the correct?
Public Account of India is a part of (a) 1 only
Money Bill. (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Both 1 and 2
correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only 8. Which of the following best describes about
(c) 2 and 3 only the writ of Habeas Corpus?
(d) 1 only (a) The writ is in the nature of a proceeding
whereby the court enquires into the
legality of the claim which a party
6. Which of the following statements is/are
asserts to a public office and to oust
correct about the legislative powers of the
him from its enjoyment if the claim is
Parliament and the Legislatures of the
not well founded.
State?
(b) The writ demands some activity on the
1. The Parliament can make law on the
part of the body or person to whom it is
matters under the State List for the
addressed and commands the person to
whole country if it is in national interest
whom it is addressed to perform certain
and has been approved by the Rajya
public or quasi-legal public duty which
Sabha by resolution supported by not
he has refused to perform and the
less than two-thirds of the members
performance of which cannot be
present and voting.
enforced by any other adequate legal
2. In case of inconsistency between the remedy.
laws made by the Legislatures of the
(c) The writ is issued by the High Court or
States and the laws made by the
the Supreme Court to an inferior court
Parliament on matters enumerated in
forbidding the latter to continue
the Concurrent List, the law made by
proceedings therein in excess of its
the State Legislature shall prevail and jurisdiction with which it is not legally
the law made by the Parliament shall be vested.
void to the extent of the inconsistency.
(d) The writ is in the nature of an order
Select the correct answer using the code calling upon the state who has detained
given below: another person to produce before the
(a) 1 only court in order to let the court know on
(b) 2 only what ground the person has been
(c) Both 1 and 2 detained or confined and to set him free
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 if there is no legal justification for the
imprisonment.

RAUSIAS-TS22E1046 2
9. Which of the following statements is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct about the Fundamental Duties? given below:
1. These extend only to the citizens of (a) 1 only
India. (b) 2 only
2. The Constitution prohibits their (c) Both 1 and 2
implementation by laws. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
13. Which of the following are the functions of
(a) 1 only
the Committee on Public Accounts?
(b) 2 only
1. It scrutinizes the appropriation
(c) Both 1 and 2 accounts of the Government of India.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. It examines the audit reports of the
Comptroller and Auditor General of
10. Which of the following statements is/are India.
correct about Judicial Review in India? 3. It considers the demands for grants of
1. The Constitution of India provides for various Ministries/Departments of the
Judicial Review as a basic structure of Government of India.
the Indian Constitution. 4. It examines the public undertakings
2. Judicial Review can be done for only and government companies, which
constitutional and legislative actions. come under the purview of the
Select the correct answer using the code Committee on Public Undertakings.
given below: Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only given below:
(b) 2 only (a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
11. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the Gram Nyayalayas? 14. With reference to the Constitution 25th
1. The Gram Nyayalayas shall try only civil Amendment, consider the following
cases. statements:
2. There shall be no appeal on a decision 1. To give effect to the Directive Principles
by the Gram Nyayalaya. of State Policy, the word “compensation”
Select the correct answer using the code was omitted from Article 31 and was
given below: replaced by the term “amount”.
(a) 1 only 2. Article 31C was added in the
(b) 2 only Constitution to give effect to Articles 14,
(c) Both 1 and 2 19 and 31 over Article 39(b) and Article
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 39(c).
3. Kesavananda Bharati Judgment
12. Which of the following statements is/are declared the entire Article 31C as
correct about the Panchayati Raj constitutionally invalid, as it barred
Institutions? judicial review.
1. The Chairperson at the Gram Which of the statements given above is/are
Panchayat level shall be elected directly correct?
by the people. (a) 2 only
2. The implementation of schemes for (b) 1 and 3 only
economic development and social (c) 1 only
justice have been entrusted to the (d) 2 and 3 only
Panchayats by the Constitution.

RAUSIAS-TS22E1046 3
15. Which of the following Fundamental Rights 17. The Governors of the state are empowered
is part of “Cultural and Educational to
Rights”? 1. appoint the State Election
1. Protection of interests of minorities. Commissioner.
2. Freedom as to attendance at religious 2. appoint Judge of the High Court.
instruction or religious worship in 3. appoint the Advocate General for the
certain educational institutions. State.
3. Right of minorities to establish and 4. nominate members for the District and
administer educational institutions. Regional Councils.
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

16. With reference to India’s Vice-President,


18. If a person deposits Rs. 10,000 cash in his
consider the following statements:
fixed deposit account, which of the
1. In the constitutional set-up, the Vice-
following measures of money supply is/are
President of India has been clothed with
likely to increase/decrease?
a dual capacity as the second head of
1. Reserve Money
the Executive and as the Chairman of
the Rajya Sabha and accordingly, holds 2. Narrow Money (M1)
two distinct and separate offices. 3. Broad Money (M3)
2. Maintenance of order in the Rajya Select the correct answer using the code
Sabha is a fundamental duty of the given below:
Chairman and he has been invested (a) 1 and 2 only
with all the necessary disciplinary (b) 2 only
powers for the purpose.
(c) 2 and 3 only
3. When a Bill is passed by the Houses
(d) 1, 2 and 3
and is in possession of the Rajya Sabha,
the Chairman authenticates the Bill
with his signature before presenting it 19. Which of the following can be considered as
to the President for assent. Near Money?
4. It is the right of the Chairman to 1. Coins and currency notes in circulation.
interpret the Constitution and rules and 2. Deposits with the banks.
the Chairman's rulings constitute 3. Treasury Bills and Dated Bonds.
precedents which are of a binding Select the correct answer using the code
nature. given below:
Which of the statements given above are (a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

RAUSIAS-TS22E1046 4
20. Which of the following best describes the 23. With respect to “Project Nexus”, consider
term “Shoe Leather Costs”, normally the following statements:
associated with inflation in an economy? 1. Project “Nexus” seeks to interconnect
(a) Increase in the prices of goods and multiple national payment systems to
services. facilitate cross-border international
(b) Increase in the rate of interest by the payments.
Central Bank to check inflation.
2. The Project is being developed by the
(c) Increase in the cost of holding money
Bank for International Settlements
due to inflation.
(BIS).
(d) Increase in tax rates by the Government
Which of the statements given above is/are
to check inflation.
correct?
(a) 1 only
21. With respect to currency notes and coins,
consider the following statements: (b) 2 only
1. One Rupee notes, issued by the (c) Both 1 and 2
Government of India, are considered as (d) Neither 1 nor 2
legal tenders.
2. Under the RBI Act, 1934, the RBI can
24. Which the following are referred to as Twin
print currency notes of denomination of
Deficits in an economy?
only up to Rs. 10,000.
1. Fiscal Deficit
3. The coins minted by the Government
are put into circulation directly by the 2. Revenue Deficit
Government itself. 3. Current Account Deficit
Which of the statements given above is/are 4. Primary Deficit
correct?
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1 only given below:
(b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
22. With respect to UPI 123Pay, consider the
following statements:
1. The UPI 123Pay can be used for making 25. With respect to the Employment Elasticity,
transactions only through feature consider the following statements:
phones. 1. The Employment Elasticity is calculated
2. The UPI 123Pay supports transactions as change in the GDP, in response to
to be carried out through ‘Scan and increase in employment.
Pay’.
2. The Employment Elasticity can either
3. There is a per day transaction limit on be positive or negative in a country.
UPI 123Pay.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
incorrect?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only

(c) 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2


(d) 2 and 3 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-TS22E1046 5
26. Which of the following best describes the 2. Garima Grehs will act as shelter homes
concept of Foreign Trade Multiplier? for the transgenders.
(a) Increase in the GDP in response to 3. Scholarships will be provided to the
increase in imports and exports. transgender students and the beggars
(b) Increase in the GDP in response to from class 9 to post-graduation.
increase in exports. Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Increase in exports in response to correct?
increase in the GDP. (a) 1 only
(d) Increase in overall trade in response to (b) 2 and 3 only
increase in the GDP.
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
27. An increase in real exchange rate in a
country is associated with which of the
following? 30. Consider the following statements about
the New India Literacy Programme:
1. Increase in the rate of inflation
1. The scheme aims to promote literacy in
2. Decrease in imports
adults more than 18 years of age.
3. Increase in trade competitiveness
2. The scheme will only focus on
Select the correct answer using the code
foundational literacy and numeracy.
given below:
(a) 1 only 3. The Ministry of Education will hire
permanent cadre of teachers to spread
(b) 2 only
literacy.
(c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) 2 and 3 only
incorrect?
(a) 1 and 3 only
28. Consider the following statements about
the Denotified and Nomadic tribes: (b) 3 only

1. The Development and Welfare Board for (c) 2 and 3 only


Denotified Tribes functions under (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
2. The SEED Scheme has been framed for 31. With respect to Fully Accessible Route
the Denotified and Nomadic tribes. (FAR), consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. This route enables non-residents to
correct? invest in G-Secs without any
(a) 1 only investment limit.
(b) 2 only 2. This route has been introduced by RBI.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which among the statements given above
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
29. Consider the following statements about (b) 2 only
the SMILE Scheme:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. The Scheme deals with the development
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
of the transgenders and the beggars.

RAUSIAS-TS22E1046 6
32. What does the Taylor’s rule, seen in news 35. With respect to ECGC limited (earlier
recently, deals with? known as Export Credit Guarantee
(a) This rule suggests as to how the Central Corporation of India), consider the following
Bank in a country should change the
statements:
interest rates to control inflation or
promote Growth. 1. The ECGC provides for export credit

(b) This rule suggests as to how much forex insurance support to exporters and
reserves a country should maintain to functions under the administrative
pay for its imports. control of Reserve Bank of India.
(c) This rule suggests as to how the 2. Presently, ECGC is implementing the
Government of a country should NIRVIK Scheme to boost exports from
promote growth during recession.
India.
(d) This rule suggests as to how a country
can reduce its fiscal deficit. Which among the statements given above
is/are correct?
33. With respect to differences between New (a) 1 only
Pension System (NPS) and Old Pension (b) 2 only
system, consider the following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. The Old Pension system provided for
the entire contribution by the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Government, while the NPS provides for
the contribution by both Government 36. Which of the following statements is/are
Employees and Government.
correct?
2. Unlike Old Pension System, NPS
1. The Sun is vertically overhead at the
provides for defined benefit upon
retirement. Equator on two days each year.
Which among the statements given above 2. On 22nd December, the Sun is overhead
is/are correct? at the Tropic of Cancer.
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only given below:
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 only

34. Which among the following commodities (c) Both 1 and 2


is/are taken into consideration for the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
calculation of Consumer Food Price Index
(CFPI) in India?
37. “Horst and Graben” are the terms
1. Major Cereals such as Rice and Wheat
associated with which of the following
2. Beverages such as Tea and Coffee
mountain types?
3. Prepared meals and snacks.
Select the correct answer using the code (a) Folded mountains
given below: (b) Block mountains
(a) 1 only (c) Volcanic mountains
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) Residual mountains
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-TS22E1046 7
38. Which of the following statements is/are 41. Which of the following statements is/are
correct? correct regarding the Mediterranean
1. The water table curves up under the climate?
hills and drops under the valleys. 1. It is characterized by cold and dry
2. The permeable rock, in which the water winters, and mild wet summers.
is stored, is called an ‘aquifer’. 2. “Fybnos” is a type of natural vegetation
Select the correct answer using the code associated with the Mediterranean
given below: climate in Africa.
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only given below:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
39. Which of the following statements is/are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct regarding the Karst topography?
1. Poorly jointed, loose limestone near the 42. Which of the following statements is/are
surface, moderate to heavy rainfall and correct?
good groundwater circulation are the 1. Sea and land breeze circulation is an
prime factors responsible for the example of local wind system.
creation of the Karst topography. 2. Daytime heating of the land surface
2. Sinkholes, dolines and blind valleys are leads to the formation of the sea breeze.
the important depositional landforms Select the correct answer using the code
found in the Karst region. given below:
Select the correct answer using the code (a) 1 only
given below:
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
43. Which of the following factors make the
ocean circulation in the Indian Ocean
40. Which of the following statements are different from the Atlantic and the Pacific
incorrect regarding Coral reefs? circulations?
1. All types of Corals are responsible for 1. The Indian Ocean is bounded to the
building coral reefs. north by the Asian continent.
2. Corals are found only in warm tropical 2. The Asian continent drives the
oceans. strongest monsoon on the Earth.
3. The Great Barrier Reef, along the 3. The Indian Ocean lacks steady
Australian coast, is one of the biggest Equatorial easterlies.
reef systems across the world.
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-TS22E1046 8
44. With respect to “Volga”, consider the Which of the pairs given above is/are
following statements: correctly matched?
1. It is Europe’s longest river. (a) 3 only
2. It begins in the Valdai Hills in Russia. (b) 1 and 2 only
3. It flows to the Mediterranean Sea. (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
48. Consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. Particulate size 2.5 micrometers or less
(b) 2 and 3 only
in diameter (PM 2.5) are responsible for
(c) 1 and 3 only causing the greatest harm to human
(d) 1, 2 and 3 health.
2. Air pollutants reduce growth and yield
of crops and cause premature death of
45. With respect to the “Great Dividing Range”,
plants.
consider the following statements:
3. Noise is not recognised as air pollutants
1. It is a series of plateaus and in Air (Prevention and Control of
low mountain ranges in Pollution) Act, 1981.
Western Australia. Which of the statements given above are
2. It contains Australia’s highest peak, correct?
Mount Kosciuszko. (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 and 3 only
correct? (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 49. Consider the following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Stenohaline organisms are able to adapt
to a wide range of salinities.
2. Euryhaline organisms have a low
46. With respect to the “Baba Budan range”,
tolerance to salinity changes.
consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. It is a range of mountains in correct?
the Western Ghats of Karnataka. (a) 1 only
2. It includes Pushpagiri, the highest peak (b) 2 only
of Karnataka. (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(a) 1 only 50. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only 1. Primary productivity varies in different
(c) Both 1 and 2 types of ecosystems.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Net primary productivity is the available
biomass for the consumption to
heterotrophs.
47. Consider the following pairs: Which of the statements given above is/are
S.N. Coal Field State correct?
1. Namchik-Namphuk Assam (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
2. Tiru Valley Sikkim
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Siju Meghalaya (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-TS22E1046 9
51. Consider the following statements: S.N. Santuary State
1. The pyramid of biomass in sea is 1. Bakhira Wildlife Gujarat
generally inverted. Sanctuary
2. Pyramid of energy is always upright, 2. Khijadiya Bird Uttar
can never be inverted. Sanctuary Pradesh
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code
correct?
given below:
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

52. Which of the following statements is/are 55. Which of the following statements is/are
correct? correct?
1. The Nagoya Protocol applies to the 1. According to the International
genetic resources that are covered by Consortium on Combating Wildlife
the Convention on Biological Diversity Crime, wildlife crime refers to the acts
(CBD). committed contrary to the national laws
and regulations, intended to protect
2. The Nagoya Protocol does not address
natural resources, and to administer
traditional knowledge associated with
their management and use.
the genetic resources.
2. The United Nations Convention against
Select the correct answer using the code
Transnational Organized Crime is
given below: mandated to support its member states
(a) 1 only fight wildlife crimes.
(b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) Both 1 and 2 given below:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
53. Which of the following statements is/are
correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. The International Monetary Fund (IMF)


priced the Wildlife Conservation Bond 56. With respect to “Biotope”, consider the
following statements:
(WCB) in support of South Africa’s
efforts to conserve endangered species. 1. It is an area of uniform environmental
conditions providing a living place for a
2. The WCB is also known as the “Rhino
specific assemblage
Bond”.
of plants and animals.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. The biotope is not a macroscopic, but a
given below: microscopic approach to preserving the
(a) 1 only ecosystem and biological diversity.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
54. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
matched? (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-TS22E1046 10
57. Which of the following statements are 3. Some snails and fish go into aestivation
correct about the Indian Star Tortoise to avoid summer–related problems, like
(Geochelone elegans)? heat and desiccation.
1. These reptiles’ natural range Select the correct answer using the code
encompasses India, Pakistan and Sri given below:
Lanka. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. They are covered under Appendix I of
(b) 1 and 3 only
the Convention on International Trade
(c) 2 and 3 only
in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna
and Flora (CITES). (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. In India, the species is protected under
Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) 60. Consider the following statements
Act, 1972. regarding parasitism:
Select the correct answer using the code 1. Parasites, that feed on the external
given below: surface of the host organism, are called
(a) 1 and 2 only ectoparasites.
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. Cuscuta, a parasitic plant, that is
(c) 1 and 3 only commonly found growing on hedge
(d) 1, 2 and 3 plants, has lost its chlorophyll and
leaves in the course of evolution.
58. Which of the following statements are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct about the Chilika Lake? correct?
1. The Chilika Lake is a brackish water (a) 1 only
lake, spread across the districts of Puri, (b) 2 only
Khurda and Ganjam in Odisha. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. It is connected to the Bay of Bengal. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. It is the largest wintering ground for the
migratory birds on the Indian sub-
61. Consider the following statements
continent.
regarding the National Ganga Council
Select the correct answer using the code
(NGC):
given below:
1. The Minister of Environment, Forest
(a) 1 and 2 only
and Climate Change is the chairman of
(b) 2 and 3 only
the NGC.
(c) 1 and 3 only
2. The River Ganga Basin, comprising
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ganga and its tributaries, has been
entrusted to the Council with
59. Which of the following statements are responsibility for pollution control and
correct? regeneration.
1. In bacteria, fungi and lower plants, Which of the statements given above is/are
various kinds of thick-walled spores are correct?
formed, which help them to survive the
(a) 1 only
unfavourable conditions.
(b) 2 only
2. Under unfavourable conditions, many
zooplankton species in lakes and ponds (c) Both 1 and 2
are known to enter diapause. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-TS22E1046 11
62. Which of the following statements are 2. The main food sources for the Benthos
incorrect regarding the Critical Wildlife are algae and organic runoff from land.
Habitats (CWHs)? Which of the statements given above is/are
1. The Scheduled Tribes and Other correct?
Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition (a) 1 only
of Forest Rights) Act of 2006, (b) 2 only
established the CWH. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. The Ministry of Environment, Forest (d) Neither 1 nor 2
and Climate Change has the authority
to issue guidelines to designate a CWH.
65. With respect to the “Van Panchayats or the
3. The CWHs are completely devoid of any
Village Forest Councils”, consider the
traces of human activity. following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code 1. 70% of the forest area in Uttarakhand
given below: comes under the management of the
(a) 1 and 2 only Van Panchayats.
(b) 1 and 3 only 2. The institution of Van Panchayat was
(c) 2 and 3 only created under the Indian Forest Act, in
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1927.
3. The Van Panchayats execute various
63. Which of the following statements are projects, like the Compensatory
incorrect regarding the Plastic Waste Afforestation Fund Management and
Management (Amendment) Rules, 2021? Planning (CAMPA) Scheme.
Which of the statements given above are
1. These new set of Rules, announced by
correct?
the Environment Ministry, prohibits
single-use plastic goods with “low (a) 1 and 2 only
usefulness and high littering potential” (b) 2 and 3 only
by 2022. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. The prohibition will not apply to the (d) 1, 2 and 3
products manufactured of compostable
plastic. 66. Consider the following statements about
3. This restriction will be enforced by the the Arctic Council:
Central Pollution Control Board and the 1. The Chairmanship of the Arctic Council
State Pollution Control Boards in rotates every 2 years among the Arctic
accordance with the Environment States.
(Protection) Act, 1986. 2. The Arctic Council cannot implement or
Select the correct answer using the code enforce its guidelines, assessments or
given below: recommendations.
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. The Arctic Council’s mandate, as
(b) 1 and 3 only articulated in the Ottawa Declaration,
(c) 2 and 3 only explicitly excludes military security.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
64. With respect to “Benthos”, consider the
following statements: (b) 2 and 3 only

1. This group contains powerful swimmers (c) 1 and 3 only


that can overcome the water currents. (d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-TS22E1046 12
67. Consider the following statements: 70. With reference to the Sudarshana Lake,
1. The Lion Capital of Sarnath symbolises consider the following statements:
Nirvana of Buddha. 1. It was originally built during the reign
2. The method of construction of the of the Mauryan rulers.
Mauryan pillars was similar to that of 2. It was repaired by the Shaka ruler,
the Achamenian pillars. Rudradaman, in the 2nd century CE.
3. The tradition of Yaksha worship Which of the statements given above is/are
completely disappeared after the advent correct?
of Buddhism. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above are (b) 2 only
incorrect? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only 71. With reference to the period from 6th
(d) 1, 2 and 3 century BCE onwards, consider the
following statements:
68. With reference to the Mahajanapadas, 1. Overseas trade route to South-east Asia
consider the following statements: was not well developed.
1. Each of these states were ruled by the 2. The term ‘Satthavahas’ was used for the
kings. local chieftains.
2. All the state had standing army and 3. Trade with the Roman Empire was
regular bureaucracy. mainly done through land route via
3. Raids on the neighbouring states were Iran.
recognised as illegitimate means of Which of the statements given above is/are
acquiring resources. incorrect?
Which of the statements given above are (a) 1 and 3 only
incorrect? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 72. With reference to the Gupta period,
consider the following statements:
69. Consider the following statements about 1. The Jati system, based on occupational
the Kushana rulers: status, gained importance over the
1. The Kushana rulers claimed high status traditional Varna system.
by identifying themselves with a variety 2. States patronisation to agricultural
of deities. activity declined during this period.
2. They assumed the title of Devaputra, 3. The women had a distinctly subordinate
i.e., the ‘Son of God’. social position in the society.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-TS22E1046 13
73. Consider the following statements: 1. Sulh-i kul is an Arabic term, literally
1. On her inscriptions and coins Raziyya meaning ‘universal peace’, or ‘absolute
mentioned that she was the daughter of peace’.
Sultan Iltutmish. 2. This idea of tolerance did not
2. Queen Rudramadevi, of the Kakatiya discriminate between the people of
dynasty of Warangal, changed her name different religions in Akbar’s realm.
on her inscriptions and pretended she 3. Abul Fazl helped Akbar in framing a
was a man. vision of governance around this idea of
Sulh-i Kul.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

74. Consider the following statements about 77. With reference to the Santhal Hool,
Delhi Sultanate’s administration: consider the following statements:
1. The duty of the muqtis was to lead 1. The uprising was aimed against the
military campaigns and maintain law oppressive policies of the Dikus, i.e., the
and order in their iqtas. outsiders.
2. Accountants were appointed by the 2. Gomdhar Konwar provided main
state to check the amount of revenue leadership to this revolt.
collected by the muqtis. 3. The Santhal insurrection was helped by
Which of the statements given above is/are non-tribals and some Dikus also.
correct? Which of the statements given above are
(a) 1 only correct?
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
75. Consider the following statements about
social and economic conditions during 78. With reference to the Agrarian League in
Mughal period: Pabna (during India’s struggle for
independence), consider the following
1. The landless peasants and labourers
statements:
belonged to the class of people called
1. The unrest was caused against the
kamin.
efforts of the Zamindars to enhance rent
2. The peasants who owned the land and beyond legal limits.
tilled were called muzarian.
2. The main form of struggle was that of
Which of the statements given above is/are legal resistance with very little violence.
correct? 3. Young Indian intellectuals supported
(a) 1 only the peasant’s cause.
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above are
(c) Both 1 and 2 correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
76. With reference to Sulh-i Kul, consider the (c) 1 and 3 only
following statements: (d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-TS22E1046 14
79. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. M.Viraraghavachariar, G. Subramaniya incorrect?
Iyer and P. Ananda Charlu formed the (a) 1 and 2 only
Madras Mahajan Sabha in 1884. (b) 2 only
2. Dadabhai Framji and Dinshaw Petit (c) 1 and 3 only
formed the Bombay Presidency (d) 2 and 3 only
Association.
Which of the statements given above is/are 82. With reference to the Ghadar Movement,
correct? consider the following statements:

(a) 1 only 1. The headquarter of this Movement was


set-up in Vancouver (Canada).
(b) 2 only
2. Bhai Parmanand, Sohan Singh Bhakna
(c) Both 1 and 2
and Harnam Singh were associated with
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 this Movement.
3. During World War I, the leaders of this
80. Consider the following statements: Movement exhorted Indians to go back
1. The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was, to India and organize an armed revolt.

in particular, aimed at the ‘Amrita Which of the statements given above is/are
Bazar Patrika’. incorrect?
(a) 1 only
2. ’Swadesamitran’ newspaper was under
(b) 1 and 3 only
the editorship of Sisir Kumar Ghosh.
(c) 2 and 3 only
3. The editor of ‘Voice of India’ was Bal
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Gangadhar Tilak.
Which of the statements given above are
83. With reference to the Akali Movement,
incorrect?
consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. The Movement arose with the objective
(b) 2 and 3 only of freeing the Gurdwaras from the
(c) 1 and 3 only control of the corrupt Mahants.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. This Movement failed to make a
contribution to the political
development of Punjab.
81. Consider the following statements about
the Swadesh Bandhab Samiti: 3. Jat peasantry provided backbone for
the Akali Jathas, while their leadership
1. The Swadesh Bandhab Samiti was a
was in the hands of the nationalist
corps of volunteers widely used during
intellectuals.
the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. It was set-up in Barisal by Aurobindo correct?
Ghosh. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. The Samitis organized schools, training (b) 1 and 3 only
in Swadeshi craft and arbitration (c) 3 only
courts. (d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-TS22E1046 15
84. With reference to the Hindustan Socialist 3. The Congress recognized the necessity
Republican Association (HSRA), consider to create a common all-India national-
the following statements: political leadership.
1. It was created in Lahore to avenge the Which of the statements given above is/are
killing of Lala Lajpat Rai. correct?
2. The members threw bomb in the (a) 1 and 2 only
Central Legislative Assembly, against
(b) 1 and 3 only
the passage of the Public Safety Bill in
(c) 3 only
1929.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. One of its member, Jatin Das, died due
to prolonged hunger strike during the
trials. 87. With respect to “Pegasus”, consider the
Which of the statements given above are following statements:
correct? 1. It is a spyware tool developed by a
(a) 1 and 2 only Russian firm, the NSO Group.
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. It is designed to enter a device, gather
(c) 1 and 3 only data and then forward it to a third
(d) 1, 2 and 3 party, without the consent of the user.
Which of the statements given above is/are
85. With reference to the Cripps Mission of correct?
1942, consider the following statements: (a) 1 only
1. It provided for the elected members in (b) 2 only
the Constituent Assembly from the (c) Both 1 and 2
Princely States. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Mission promised India Dominion
Status and a constitution-making body
88. With respect to “Viruses”, consider the
after the War.
following statements:
3. It rejected the idea of the partition of
the country. 1. Viruses are inert outside the host cell.
4. Viceroy Linlithgow did not want Cripps 2. Viruses are able to generate energy.
to succeed and sabotaged his efforts to 3. The main purpose of a virus is to deliver
accommodate the Indian opinion. its genome into the host cell to allow its
Which of the statements given above are expression by the host cell.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1and 2 only correct?
(b) 2 and 4 only (a) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
86. With reference to the objectives of the
Indian National Congress, consider the 89. Recently, IIT-Hyderabad has created India's
following statements:
first AI-based employment portal for the
1. The promotion of national unity was a persons with a disability. What is it called?
major objective of the Congress.
(a) Nukarita
2. The Congress was to take up the
(b) Shram Divyang Portal
questions of social reform to expand its
reach to the masses. (c) Divyangkari
(d) Swarajability

RAUSIAS-TS22E1046 16
90. Which of the following statements are 93. Magic Pit, Constructed Wetland and
correct regarding the Young Scientist TADOX are the technologies related to
Programme (YUVIKA)? which of the following?
1. It is launched by ISRO for the Indian
(a) Wildlife conservation
University students.
2. The programme's main goal is to teach (b) Plastic waste remediation
the students the fundamentals of space (c) Fish farming
technology, science and applications. (d) Wastewater treatment
3. It is planned that each state/UT picks 3
students to participate in this
programme. 94. Consider the following statements about
Select the correct answer using the code the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission:
given below: 1. It is implemented by C-DAC, under the
(a) 1 and 2 only Ministry of Electronics and Information
(b) 1 and 3 only Technology.
(c) 2 and 3 only 2. Unique identification number, called
(d) 1, 2 and 3 ABHA number, is provided to the
persons.
91. Consider the following statements:
3. A registry has been created for the
1. In adults, the red blood cells (RBCs) are
healthcare professionals and health
generated in the red bone marrow.
facilities across India.
2. Because of the presence of
haemoglobin, leucocytes are often Which of the statements given above is/are
referred to as the RBCs. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 2 and 3 only
correct? (b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 3 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
95. Which of the following is/are the
92. Which of the following statements is/are application(s) of Synthetic Biology?
correct regarding the Nuclear Non- 1. Micro-organisms harnessed for
Proliferation Treaty (NPT)? bioremediation to clean pollutants from
1. The Treaty is the only multilateral our water, soil and air.
treaty that contains a legally
enforceable commitment to the aim of 2. Rice modified to produce beta-carotene.
nuclear disarmament by the nuclear- 3. Yeast engineered to produce rose oil, as
weapon states. an eco-friendly and sustainable
2. India is one of the only 5 countries that substitute for real roses that the
either did not sign or signed, but later perfumers use to make luxury scents.
withdrew from the NPT.
Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code
given below: given below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-TS22E1046 17
96. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Gold Nano Particles show various useful correct?
properties, like changing colour with (a) 1 only
changing size of the particles. (b) 2 only
2. Gold Nano Particles can enable the (c) Both 1 and 2
room temperature catalyst to break (d) Neither 1 nor 2
down volatile organic compound in the
air.
99. Consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Ingenuity is a small robotic solar-
correct?
powered helicopter that landed on
(a) 1 only
Jupiter.
(b) 2 only
2. Ingenuity completed the world’s first
(c) Both 1 and 2 powered extraterrestrial flight.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
97. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 only
1. Microgravity is the condition in which (b) 2 only
the people or the objects appear to be (c) Both 1 and 2
weightless.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Gravity becomes weaker with distance
and it is possible for a spacecraft to go
100. With reference to the Somatic Cell Nuclear
far enough from the Earth that a person
Transfer (SCNT), consider the following
inside would feel very little gravity.
statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. The procedure involves implanting a
correct?
donor nucleus from a somatic (body)
(a) 1 only
cell into an enucleated oocyte (egg cell).
(b) 2 only
2. The most practical application of the
(c) Both 1 and 2 SCNT is in the reproductive cloning of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 farm animals that have exceptional
qualities, such as the ability to produce
98. Consider the following statements large quantities of milk.
regarding the LIDAR technology: 3. The technique could also be used to
1. It is a remote sensing method that uses revive extinct species.
light in the form of a pulsed laser to Which of the statements given above is/are
develop three-dimensional maps of the correct?
surface of the Earth. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. Satellites are the most commonly used (b) 2 and 3 only
platforms for acquiring LIDAR data over (c) 3 only
broad areas.
(d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-TS22E1046 18

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