JEE Mains Sample Paper 3
JEE Mains Sample Paper 3
JEE Mains
Time: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 360
Topics Covered:
Physics : Properties of Solids, Properties of Liquids, Heat & Thermodynamics, Ray Optics,
Wave Optics, Electromagnetic Waves
Chemistry : p-Block (13 & 14 Group), Thermodynamics, Thermochemistry, Solid State, Alkyl Halides
& Haloalkane, Surface Chemistry, Metallurgy, Chemistry in Everyday Life
Mathematics : Progression, Permutation Combination, Straight Lines, Definite Integrals, Indefinite
Integrals
Important Instructions :
1. The test is of 3 hours duration.
2. The Test consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.
3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and
Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4
(four) marks for each correct response.
4. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 3 for correct response of
each question. ¼ (one-fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the question (i.e. 1 mark) will
be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score
will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
5. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any
question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted
accordingly as per instruction 4 above.
6. For writing particulars/marking responses on Answer Sheet use only Black/Blue Ball Point Pen
provided in the examination hall.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager,
mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.
PART-A : PHYSICS
1. A water jet of area 50 cm2, moving with a velocity of 25 m/s impinges normally on a plate moving with a velocity of 5
m/s in the same direction. If = 1000 kg/m3, then the force exerted on the plate will be:
(A) 3750 N (B) 2000 N (C) 3125 N (D) 2500 N
2. If a rubber ball is taken at the depth of 200 m in a pool its volume decreases by 0.2%. If the density of the water is 103
kg/m3 and g = 10 m/s2, then the volume elasticity in N/m2 will be:
(A) 108 (B) 2×108 (C) 109 (D) 2×109
3. A mono-atomic ideal gas is compressed from volume V to V/2 through various processes. For which of the following
process final pressure will be maximum?
(A) Isobaric (B) Isothermal (C) Adiabatic (D) PV2 = constant
4. There is a small air bubble inside a thick lens of glass as shown in the figure. What is the distance between the images
of the air bubble as seen by two observers, one in air and other in water?
(Given radius of curved surface is 5 cm)
rd
1
5. At a certain point on a screen in a YDSE apparatus, the path difference for the two interfering waves is of the
3
wavelength. Find the ratio of the intensity at this point to that at the centre of a bright fringe.
1 1 1 3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4 3 4
6. Consider the refraction of light ray as shown in the figure below. Incident ray is rotating with constant angular velocity
n1
2 rad/sec. What is the angular velocity of refracted ray, when the angle of incidence becomes 30°? (Given 3 )
n2
1
(A) 2 rad/s (B) 3 rad/s (C) rad/s (D) 6 rad/s
2
8. Consider the situation as shown in the figure. A point object O is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a concave lens of
focal length 5 cm. Now a concave mirror of radius 9 cm is adjusted on the right side of the lens, so that the final image
coincides with the object O. Find the separation between the lens and the mirror.
9. The surface tension of a liquid is 80 dyne/cm. Its relative density is 0.8. If the angle of contact between the liquid and
glass is 60°, find the height to which the liquid rises in a glass capillary tube of radius 1 mm. (g = 10 m/s 2)
(A) 0.5 cm (B) 2 cm (C) 1 cm (D) 4 cm
Density
Density
11. A gasoline engine takes in 5 moles of air at 20°C and 1 atm, and compresses it adiabatically to 1/10 th of the original
volume. Find the change in internal energy. (Assume air to be diatomic)
(A) 92 kJ (B) 23 kJ (C) 46 kJ (D) 82 kJ
12. When an object is placed in front of a concave mirror of focal length f, a virtual image is produced with a magnification
of 2. To obtain a real image with a magnification of 2, the object has to be moved by a distance equal to
f 2 3
(A) (B) (C) f (D) f
2 5f 2
13. The central fringe in a Young’s double slit experiment with the wavelength = 500 nm has intensity I0 . If one of the
I1
slits is covered by a 5m thick film of glass ( = 1.5), the intensity at centre of the screen becomes I1. The ratio of is
I0
3 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)1
16 4 2
15. In the figure, the intensity of waves arriving at D from two coherent sources s 1 and s2 is I0. The wavelength of the wave
is = 4m. Resultant intensity at D will be
16. The cross-sectional area of a horizontal tube increases linearly along its length, as we move in the direction of flow.
The variation of pressure, as we move along its length in the direction of flow (positive x-direction) is best represented
by which of the following graphs?
17. The velocity of water near the surface of river is 5 m/s whereas the depth is 5m. The coefficient of viscosity of water is
10–2 poise, then shearing stress will be
(A) 1 N/m2 (B) 5 × 10–3 N/m2 (C) 10–2 N/m2 (D) 2.5 × 10–3 N/m2
18. The minimum distance between an object and its real image formed by a thin convex lens of focal length f is Kf. Find
the value of K.
(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2
19. In the P-V diagram shown in figure, ABC is a semicircle. The work done in the process ABC is
(A) Zero (B) a tm L (C) a tm L (D) 4 a tm L
2 2
21. Two identical cylindrical vessels, with their bases at the same level, each contain a liquid of density . The height of
the liquid in one vessel is h1 and that in the other is h2. The area of either base is A. What is the work done by gravity in
equalizing the levels when the vessels are interconnected?
2 2
h1 h 2 h1 h 2
A ρg (h1 h 2 ) A ρg (h1 h 2 )
2 2
(A) (B) (C) Aρg (D) Aρg
2 2
22. In Young’s double slit experiment, the 10th maximum of wavelength 1 is at distance y1 from its central maximum and
the 5th maximum of wavelength 2 is at a distance y2 from its central maximum. The ratio y1/y2 will be
2λ1 2λ2 λ1 λ2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
λ2 λ1 2λ2 2λ1
23. A point object is placed at a distance of 12 cm on the axis of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm. On the other side of
the lens, a convex mirror is placed at a distance of 10 cm from the lens such that the image formed by the combination
coincides with the object itself. What is the focal length of the convex mirror?
(A) 10 cm (B) 15 cm (C) 20 cm (D) 25 cm
24. The ratio of adiabatic bulk modulus and isothermal bulk modulus of a gas is ( = Cp/Cv)
γ ( γ 1)
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D)
( γ 1) γ
25. Water flows in a horizontal tube as shown in figure. The pressure of water changes by 600 N/m2 between x and y where
the areas of cross section are 3 cm2 and 1.5 cm2 respectively. Find the rate of flow of water through the tube.
x
y
(A) 169 cm3/s (B) 179 cm3/s (C) 189 cm3/s (D) 199 cm3/s
26. A diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure. If 105 J of heat is given to the gas, find the change in internal energy of
the gas.
(A) 30 J (B) 35 J (C) 55 J (D) 75 J
27. Two hails stones with radii in the ratio of 1 : 2 fall from a great height through the atmosphere. Then the ratio of their
momentum after they have attained terminal velocity is:
(A) 1 : 32 (B) 1 : 16 (C) 1 : 8 (D) 1 : 4
29. A plane EM wave of frequency 25 MHz travels in free space along the +x direction. At a particular point in space and
time, E 6 .3 ˆj V / m . What is B at this point?
(A) 2.52 × 10–5 kˆ T (B) 2.52 × 10–5 ( kˆ ) T (C) 2 .1 1 0
8
kˆ T (D) 2 .1 1 0
8
( kˆ ) T
30. In the Young’s double slit experiment apparatus shown in figure, the ratio of maximum to minimum intensity on the
screen is 9. The wavelength of light used is , then the value of y is
λD λD λD λD
(A) (B) (C) (D)
d 2d 3d 4d
E II
R e a c t io n c o o r d i n a t e s
OH
OH
OH OH
a l c .K O H
Cl
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
35. Which of the following alkyl halide undergo rearrangement in SN1 reaction
CH 3 Cl
I
(I) CH 3
C CH CH 3 (II) (III)
CH 3
I CH 3
(A) only I (B) only II and III (C) only I and II (D) I, II, III
37. If unit cell of a mineral has cubic closed packed array of oxygen atoms with m fraction of octahedral holes occupied by
aluminium ion and n fraction of tetrahedral holes occupied by magnesium ions, m and n, respectively are
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(A) , (B) 1, (C) , (D) ,
2 8 4 2 2 4 8
39. A compound of B (Boron), X reacts at 200°C with NH3 to give another compound Y which is called as inorganic
benzene. The compound Y is colorless liquid and is highly light sensitive. The compound X with excess of NH 3 and at
still higher temp gives (BN)n. The compound X and Y respectively.
(A) BH3 and B2H6 (B) NaBH4 and C6H6 (C) B2H6 and B3N3H6 (D) B4C3 and C6H6
Cl(I) CH3
Cl(II)
41.
O Cl(III)
The rate of reaction with AgNO3 will be
(A) I > II > III (B) III > I > II (C) III > II > I (D) I > III > II
42. A cyclic process ABCDA is shown in a P-T diagram. The corresponding P-V diagram is
A B
D C
A B A B
P P
(A) (B)
D C D C
V V
A B A B
P P
(C) D (D)
C
D C
V V
Cl
The major product is
CH 3
CH 3
(C) CH 2 = CH – CH 2
– CH – CH – CH 3 (D) None of the above
OCH 3
44. The heats of neutralisation of CH3COOH, HCOOH, HCN and H2S are –12.8, –13.2, –3.2 and –3.9. Kcal per equivalent.
Arrange these acids in increasing order of strength.
(A) H2S < HCN < HCOOH < CH3COOH (B) HCN < H2S < CH3COOH < HCOOH
(C) HCOOH < CH3COOH < H2S < HCN (D) CH3COOH < HCOOH < HCN < H2S
45. A fixed mass of gas is subjected to transformation of states from A to B to C to D and back to A as shown in figure
A B
D C
V
The succeeding operation that enables this transformation of states are:
(A) heating, cooling, heating, cooling (B) cooling, heating, cooling, heating
(C) heating, cooling, cooling, heating (D) cooling, heating, heating, cooling
46. The standard molar enthalpies of cyclohexane (l) and benzene (l) at 25°C are –156 and +49 KJ/mol. The standard
enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene (l) at 25°C is –119 KJ/mol. Estimate the magnitude of resonance energy.
(A) 357 KJ/mol (B) 205 KJ/mol (C) 152 KJ/mol (D) None of the above
T T
M MO
C M MO
CO
G° C CO
G°
(C) (D)
T T
50. Copper is purified by electrolytic refining of blister copper. The incorrect statement about this process is:
(A) Pure Cu deposits at cathode (B) Impure Cu is used as cathode
(C) Acidified aqueous CuSO4 is used as electrolyte (D) Impurities settle as anode mud.
CH3
–
OH
52. Major product of the reaction
OT5
53. A solid AB has NaCl type structure. If the radius of cation A is 100 pm, then the radius of the anion B will be
(A) 241 pm (B) 414 pm (C) 22.5 pm (D) 44.4 pm
54. The packing efficiency of the two dimensional unit cell show below is
L
(A) 39.27% (B) 68.02% (C) 74.05% (D) 78.54%
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
57. A sequence of how many nucleotides in messenger R.N.A. makes a codon for an amino acid
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 2
58. The pH value of solution in which a polar amino acids does not migrate under the influence of electric field is called
(A) Neutralization point (B) Isoelectronic point (C) Isoelectric point (D) None
Cl
Cl Cl
(P) (Q) (R )
The correct order of SN1 reactivity is
(A) (Q) > (R) > (P) (B) (Q) > (P) > (R) (C) (R) > (Q) > (P) (D) (P) > (Q) > (R)
3 1 1 7
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 4 8 8
62. ABCD is a convex quadrilateral with 3, 4, 5 and 6 points marked on its sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively.
Triangles are formed using these 18 points and original vertices of the quadrilateral. Number of such triangles that do
not have any side common with the quadrilateral are
(A) 342 (B) 461 (C) 422 (D) 384
63. Let a1, a2, a3, …., a11 be real numbers satisfying a1 = 15, 27 – a2 > 0 and ak = 2ak–1 – ak–2 for k = 3, 4, ….11. If
a 1 a 2 a 3 .....a 1 1 a 1 a 2 a 3 .....a 1 1
2 2 2 2
90 , then is equal to
11 11
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 9 (D) 0
64. The number of ways so that the birthdays of 6 people falls in exactly 3 calendar months is
(A) 118800 (B) 36960 (C) 158400 (D) 47520
3 3
360
1
66. The sum of the series is
k 1 k k 1 k 1 k
18 19 13 14
(A) (B) (C) (D)
19 18 19 13
x y z
67. For some α R, if and p, q, r are in A.P., then
px qy rz
14
68. Arithmetic mean of three numbers which are in G.P. is . By adding 1 to the first and second number, and subtracting
3
1 from the third number, resulting numbers are in A.P. Then sum of squares of original three numbers is
(A) 91 (B) 364 (C) 84 (D) 273
69. The least positive integer k for which the value k × n2(n2 – 12)(n2 – 22)….(n2 – (n – 1)2) turns into a factorial of some
positive integer is
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 8
71. The possible values of a for which the point (a, a2) lies inside the triangle formed by the straight lines
2x + 3y – 1 = 0, x + 2y = 3 and 5x – 6y – 1 = 0 is
3 1
(A) (–3, 2) (3, 6) (B) , 1 ,1 (C) (–3, 1) (1, 2) (D) (–1, 1) (1, 3)
2 2
e ( x 1)( x ln x )
x
72. 2
dx is equal to
x
x x ln x x x ln x 1 x x ln x x x ln x 1
(A) e c (B) e c (C) e 2 c (D) e c
x x x x
73. The value of for which the lines 3x – 4y – 13 = 0, 8x – 11y – 33 = 0 and 2x – 3y + = 0 are concurrent is
(A) –6 (B) –7 (C) +8 (D) +9
75. The number of ways in which 5As and 6Bs can be arranged to form a string of text which reads the same way
backward and forward is
(A) 10 (B) 24 (C) 42 (D) 15
x
du
76. If , then ex equals
1)
u 1/ 2
ln 2
(e 6
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 3
2
x (1 x )
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 3 4 5
78. The value of k for which the lines kx + y = 6 and 2x – 5y = 1 are perpendicular to each other is
5 2 5 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 5 2 5
79. The number of possible straight lines, passing through (2, 3) and forming a triangle with coordinate axes, whose area is
12 sq. units is
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
x x 16 x 16 x
2 2
1 1 1 1
(A) ta n sec c (B) ta n sec c (C) c (D) c
4 4 4 4 16x 16x
81. A light ray coming along the line 3x + 4y = 5 gets reflected from the line ax + by = 1 and goes along the line
5x – 12y = 10. Then,
64 112 14 8 64 8 64 14
(A) a ,b (B) a ,b (C) a ,b (D) a ,b
115 15 15 115 115 115 15 15
( x 1)
2
83. The diagonals of a parallelogram PQRS are along the lines x + 3y = 4 and 6x – 2y = 7. Then PQRS must be
(A) Rectangle (B) Square (C) Cyclic quadrilateral (D) Rhombus
84. The equation of line which passes through the point of intersection of 2x + 3y – 5 = 0 and x + y = 2 and also which is
farthest from (2, 3) is
(A) 2y + 3x = 5 (B) 2x + y = 3 (C) x + 2y = 3 (D) 2x + 3y = 5
.( x 1)
27 18
x
85. If x 2 6 ( x 1)
17
(5 x 3 ) d x c , where c is the constant of integration, then the value of k is
k
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 9 (D) 10
86. Statement 1 : If two lines are perpendicular, then product of their slopes is –1.
Statement 2: If the product of slopes of two lines is –1, then these lines will be perpendicular.
(A) Only 1 is true (B) Both 1 and 2 are true (C) Only 2 is true (D) Both are false
87. The maximum number of points of intersection of five distinct lines and four distinct circles is
(A) 60 (B) 72 (C) 62 (D) None of these
88. The condition on a and b, such that the portion of the line ax + by – 1 = 0, intercepted between the lines ax + y = 0 and
x + by = 0, subtends a right angle at the origin is
(A) a = b (B) a + b = 0 (C) a = 2b (D) 2a = b
89. If a vertex of a triangle is (1, 1) and the middle points of two sides passing through it are (–2, 3) and (5, 2), then find
coordinates of centroid of the triangle.
5
(A) (5, 3) (B) (5, 1) (C) ,3 (D) (3, 1)
3
dx 1 1
90. If 2
c , where c is constant of integration and , > 0, then – is
(1 (1 x ) (1 x )
2010
x)
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) –1 (D) –2