Aakash CPP 02
Aakash CPP 02
FOR 9X
FDN
Physics
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for Foundations
Chapter - Force and Laws of Motion
F2 F2 F2
(a) (b) (c)
(1)
(1)
Force and Laws of Motion Aakash Institute
5. The figure here shows two horizontal forces acting 9. With reference to figure given below, the magnitude
on a block that is on a frictionless floor. Assume of force at cross-section X – X is
that a third horizontal force F3 also acts on the X
block. What are the magnitude and direction of
F3 when the block is
m f0(N)
(a) Stationary
(b) Moving to the left with a constant speed of Smooth Floor
5 m/s ? x
3N X
5N m : Mass of the body
(A) 1, 3, 4, 2 (B) 4, 1, 2, 3
t (sec)
(C) 1, 4, 3, 2 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 O 2 4
7. W ith ref erence to Q6, Rank the situations (A) 0 N (B) 2 N
according to the decreasing order of magnitudes of (C) 4 N (D) 8 N
the acceleration of the block, greatest first
12. Two bodies of equal mass (m) moving with equal
(A) 1, 4, 3, 2 (B) 4, 1, 2, 3 speed v in opposite directions collide. The final
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 velocity if both objects stick to each other after
8. In a spring scale, the reading is proportional to the collision is
weight of the object placed on the pan and the (A) v (B) –v
scale gives that weight units. If, instead, it is (C) 2v (D) Zero
marked in mass units, the reading is accurate only
13. A bullet of mass 10 g is fired from a rifle. The bullet
where the free – fall acceleration g is the same as
takes 0.003 sec to move through the barrel and
where the scale was calibrated
leaves with a velocity of 300 m/sec. What is the
force exerted on the bullet by the rifle?
Scale marked in (A) 1000 N (B) 500 N
weight units
(C) 100 N (D) 5000 N
14. The force acting on a body when its momentum
changes by 10 kg m/sec, in 5 seconds
(A) 15 N (B) 2 N
(C) 5 N (D) 10 N
Fg = mg
15. Action and Reaction
The weight of a bowling ball with a mass of 7.2 kg
(A) Always exist in pairs
is 72 N on Earth but would be on ___(I)___ N on
the moon. (B) Are equal in magnitude
(A) Value of (I) = 10 (B) Value of (I) = 12 (C) Always act in opposite directions
(C) Value of (I) = 14 (D) Value of (I) = 8 (D) All the above are true
(2)
Aakash Institute Force and Laws of Motion
16. A body A of mass m1 on collision exerts a force on application of brakes, which provided equal
another body B of mass m2. If the acceleration retardation then
produced in B is a2, then the acceleration of A is (A) Motorcycle will stop at shorter distance
m2 m1 (B) Car will stop at shorter distance
(A) m a2 (B) m a2 (C) Both will stop at the same distance
1 2
(D) Nothing can be said
(C) (m1 + m2)a2 (D) None of these 25. A spaceship moving at 1000 m/sec, fires a missile
17. A girl of mass 40 kg jumps with horizontal velocity of mass 1000 kg at a speed of 10000 m/sec.
of 5m/sec. on a stationary cart with frictionless What is the mass (after firing) of the spaceship if
wheels. The mass of the cart is 10 kg. With what it slows down to velocity of 910 m/s?
velocity the cart starts moving, assume there is no (A) 101 × 103 kg (B) 105 kg
other force in horizontal direction? 4
(C) 10 kg (D) 103 kg
(A) 20 m/s (B) 5 m/s 26. A 2 kg bouncy ball is dropped from a height of 10m
(C) 10 m/s (D) 4 m/s hits the floor and returns to its original height. What
18. A cricketer catches a ball of mass 150 g in 0.1 sec was the change in momentum of the ball upon the
moving with speed 20 m/sec, then he experiences impact with the floor?
a force of (A) 28 kg m/s (B) 42 kg m/s
(A) 300 N (B) 30 N (C) 56 kg m/s (D) 50 kg m/s
(C) 3 N (D) 0.3 N 27. 60 kg man on a stationary 40kg boat throws a
19. A particle of mass 0.3 kg is subjected to a force 0.2kg baseball with a velocity of 50 m/sec. With
F = kx with k=15 N/m and x being its distance what speed does the boat move after the man
from the origin. What will be its initial acceleration throws the ball? (Assume no friction at any place)
if it is released from a point 20 cm away from the (A) 1 m/s (B) 1 cm/s
origin? (C) 10 m/s (D) 0.1 m/s
(A) 5 m/s2 (B) 10 m/s2 28. Two bodies each of mass 0.25 kg moving towards
(C) 3 m/s2 (D) 15 m/s2 each other with a constant speed of 3m/s. After
they stuck together the velocity of the combination
20. A hammer weighing 2.5 kg moving with a speed of
will be
1 m/sec strikes the head of a nail driving it 10 cm
into the wall. Find the acceleration on hammer and (A) 3 m/s (B) 6 m/s
impulse provided to it (C) 0 m/s (D) 4.5 m/s
(A) –5 m/sec2, 2.5 Ns (B) –7.5 m/sec2, 3.5 Ns 29. A man of mass 50 kg carries a bag of weight 40N
on his shoulder. The force with which the floor
(C) –10 m/sec2, 5 Ns (D) None of these
pushes up his feet will be
21. If a constant force acts on a body, initially at rest,
(A) 882 N (B) 530 N
the distance moved by the body in time t is
proportional to (C) 90 N (D) 600 N
30. A bomb of mass 9 kg explodes into two pieces of
(A) t (B) t2
masses 3 kg and 6 kg. The velocity of mass 3 kg
(C) t3 (D) t° is 16 m/s. The kinetic energy of mass 6 kg in
22. A force of 980 N acts on a body for 0.1 seconds. joule is
The change in momentum of the body is (A) 196 (B) 320
(A) 98 Ns (B) 9.8 Ns (C) 192 (D) 620
(C) 0.98 Ns (D) 980 Ns 31. In which of the following graph the total change in
23. A force F1 acts on a particle to accelerate it from momentum is zero ?
rest to velocity v. The force F1 is then replaced by
force F 2 which decelerates the particle from F F
velocity v to rest then which of the following 10 10
statement is true? (A) (B)
(A) F1 must be equal to F2 O 2 4 t O 2 4 t
(B) F1 may be equal to F2
F F
(C) F1 must be unequal to F2 10 10
(D) None of these 3
2
24. A motorcycle and a car are moving with same (C) O 4 t (D) O 2 t
v elocity. If they are brought to rest by the –10 –5
(3)
Force and Laws of Motion Aakash Institute
32. When an object is in motion 39. A lift of mass 1000 kg is moving with acceleration
(A) Force is required to keep it in state of motion of 1 m/s2 in upward direction, then the tension
developed in string which is connected to lift is
(B) No force acting on it
(take g = 9.8 m/s2)
(C) A net balanced force may be acting on it
(A) 9800 N (B) 10800 N
(D) It is in vaccum
(C) 11000 N (D) 10000 N
33. In figure the acceleration of mass '2m' is
40. A 10g bullet moving at a 200 m/s stops after
penetrating 5cm of wooden plank. The magnitude
of average force exerted on the bullet will be
m (A) 2000 N (B) 3000 N
2m (C) 4000 N (D) 5000 N
3m 41. A block of mass 5kg is acted upon two anti
(A) g/s (B) 2g/5 parallel forces 17N and 24 N respectively. Find the
(C) 2g/3 (D) g/2 magnitude and direction of acceleration of block
34. Which is velocity(v) time(t) graph of a moving object (A) 17/5 m/s2 along 7N force
with net external force zero ? (B) 31/5 m/s2 along 24N force
v (C) 7/5 m/s2 along 24N force
v A B (D) Body will be at rest
(A) (B)
42. Two blocks are attached by a light inextensible
t t string and the system is pulled by applying a force
v F0 as shown in diagram. Find acceleration of each
v
block
(C) (D)
m 2m Fo
t t
smooth
35. A body of mass m kg starts from rest and travels
a distance of s meter in t second. The force acting Fo F
(A) am , a2m o
on it is 2m m
2ms ms Fo F
(A) N (B) N (B) am , a2m o
t2 t 2m 2m
ms2 ms2 Fo F
(C) N (D) N (C) am , a2m o
2t t 3m 3m
36. A rocket of mass 1000 kg exhausts gases at a Fo 2F
rate of 4kg/s with a velocity 3000 m/s. The thrust (D) am , a2m o
2m 3m
developed on the rocket is
(A) 12000 N (B) 120 N T1 T2
43. 5kg 3kg 2kg 40N
(C) 800 N (D) 200 N
Find tension in the two strings:
37. A body of rest explodes into two equal parts then
(A) T1= 20 N (B) T1= 32 N
(A) They move in different speed in different
direction T2= 32 N T2= 20 N
(B) They move with different speed in same (C) T1= 16 N (D) T1= 8 N
direction T2= 8 N T2= 16 N
(C) They move with same speed in same direction 44. Find common acceleration and tension in the string
(D) They move with same speed in opposite 100N
direction
38. An object of mass 5 kg falls down on floor from a 2kg
height of 5 m and rebounds with the same speed
with which it strikes the floor. Find the change in
3kg
momentum due to collision from floor? [g=10 m/s2]
(A) 50 kgm/s (B) 100 kgm/s (A) 20 m/s2, 80N (B) 10 m/s2, 60N
(C) 75 kgm/s (D) 125kgm/s (C) 20 m/s2, 60N (D) 10 m/s2, 80N
(4)
Aakash Institute Force and Laws of Motion
45. When a 4 kg rifle is fired, the 10g bullet receives 51. A block of mass m is pulled by a force 50N. The
an acceleration of 3×106 cm/s2. The magnitude of tension at the middle of block is:-
the force acting on the rifle (in newton) is 5cm 5cm
(A) Zero (B) 120
(C) 300 (D) 3000 50N
Find tension in string AB and CD Acceleration of the whole system will be:-
(A) 5m/s2 (B) 10m/s2
(A) TAB=36N (B) TAB=46N 2
(C) 15m/s (D) 20m/s2
TCD=40N TCD=30N 53. A machine gun fires n bullets per second with
(C) TAB=30N (D) TAB=40N speed u, and mass of each bullet is m. If bullets
TCD=46N TCD=36N hit a wall and rebounds with same speed, then
47. The block is in equilibrium force acting on the wall is
(A) nmu (B) 2 nmu
T2 T1
nmu
(C) 4 nmu (D)
2
m
54. A uniform rope at mass M and length L is fixed at
its upper end vertically from a rigid support. Then
mgcos mgcos the tension in the rope at the distance 'l' from the
(1) T1 sin (2) T2
sin rigid support is:-
L Mg L l
T1 cos T1 cos (A) Mg (B)
(3) T cos (4) L 1 L
2 T2 cos
l
Choose correct pair (C) Mg Mg (D)
L
(A) 1, 2 (B) 1, 2, 3 55. A particle of mass 2 m moving with velocity V
(C) 2, 3 (D) 3, 4 strikes a stationary particle of mass 3 m and
48. A block of mass 5 kg is placed on a table and it sticks to it. The speed of the system will be
is pressed by 10 N force. Then normal force (A) 0.8 V (B) 0.2 V
exerted by the table on the book is (g = 9.8 m/s2) (C) 0.6 V (D) 0.4 V
(A) 10 N (B) 70 N 56. The mass m will ascend with an acceleration
(C) 59 N (D) 50 N (Pulley and rope are massless)
49. F
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Force and Laws of Motion Aakash Institute
58. A particle of mass m strikes a wall with speed v 64. Figure shows a uniform rod of length 30 cm having
at an angle 30° with the wall elastically as shown a mass 3 kg being pulled by constant forces of 20
in the figure. The magnitude of impulse imparted to N and 32 N as shown. Find the force exerted by
the ball by the wall is 20 cm part of the rod on 10 cm part
30°
20 N 32 N
10 cm 20 cm
30°
(A) 36N (B) 12N
mv (C) 64N (D) 24N
(A) mv (B)
2
(C) 2mv (D) 3mv
59. A horizontal force 10 N is necessary to just hold
a block stationary against a wall. The coefficient of
friction between the block and the wall is 0.2. Then m m
m
weight of the block is 65. 2m
F1 = 2mg
(A) 20 N (B) 50 N 2m
F2 = mg
(C) 100 N (D) 2 N
(I) (II) (III)
60. Find acceleration of the blocks.
Find the correct relation between accelerations.
(A) aI = aII = aIII (B) aII > aIII > aI
kg
(C) aII > aI > aIII (D) aII > aI, aI = aIII
10
10kg 66. The maximum and minimum magnitudes of the
30°
resultant of two f orces are 17 N and 7 N
(A) 2 m/s2 (B) 2.5 m/s2 respectively. If these two forces are acting at right
angle to each other, then the value of resultant of
(C) 3 m/s2 (D) 3.5 m/s2 these forces in newton will be:
61. Maximum force of friction is called (A) 10 (B) 12
(A) Limiting friction (B) Static friction (C) 13 (D) 24
(C) Sliding friction (D) Rolling friction 67. When a body is stationary:-
62. A car accelerates on a horizontal road due to force (A) There is no force acting on it.
exerted by
(B) Forces acting on it are not in contact with it.
(A) The engine of the car
(C) The combination of forces acting on it balance
(B) The driver of the car each other
(C) The earth as weight of the car (D) The body is in vacuum
(D) The road 68. A body is in translatory equilibrium if:-
63. Find T (A) Resultant force on it is zero
10 N
60° (B) Its at rest
T
2 kg 3 kg (C) Its in uniform motion
smooth surface (D) All options are correct
(A) 5 N (B) 2 N 69. A force of 10 N is applied on a body of 2 kg mass
at rest. The distance travelled by the body in 2 s
(C) 1 N (D) 3 N
is
(A) 10 m (B) 20 m
(C) 30 m (D) 40 m
(6)
Aakash Institute Force and Laws of Motion
70. Which of the following is non-conservative force ? 72. Find the tension T2 in the system shown
(A) Electrostatic force (B) Gravitational force T1
(C) Viscous force (D) Spring force 1kg
T2
71. Its required to increase the velocity of scooter of 2kg
mass 80 kg from 5 m/s to 25 m/s in 2 s. The T3
force required will be: 3kg
(A) 200 N (B) 600 N (A) 1g N (B) 2g N
(C) 800 N (D) 100 N (C) 5g N (D) 6g N
T1 T2
73. 1kg 8kg 27kg 36 N
Find T2
(A) 18 N (B) 9 N
(C) 3.375 N (D) 1.75 N
(7)
Force and Laws of Motion Aakash Institute
CPP-02
FOR 9X
FDN
ANSWERS
(8)
CPP-02
FOR 9X
FDN
Chemistry
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for Foundations
Chapter - Is Matter Around Us Pure
(1)
Is Matter Around Us Pure Aakash Institute
18. A solution is defined as a 26. In Brownian movement the path of the particles is
(A) homogeneous mixture of two or more (A) Linear (B) zig-zag
substances (C) uncertain (D) curved
(B) heterogeneous mixture of two or more substance 27. Which one of the following is a heterogeneous
(C) homogeneous mixture of liquid and solid mixture ?
components only (A) Air (B) Vinegar
(D) homogeneous mixture consisting of water as one (C) Soil (D) Soda water
of the components
28. Which amongst the following is mixture ?
19. 8g NaOH is dissolved in one litre of solution. Its
(A) Graphite (B) Curd
molarity is
(C) Ice cream (D) Both (B) and (C)
(A) 0.8 M (B) 0.4 M
29. Tea leaves from tea can be separated by
(C) 0.2 M (D) 0.1 M
(A) Filtration (B) Magnetic separation
20. The number of moles of solute per kg of a solvent
is called its : (C) Sieving (D) Evaporation
(A) molarity (B) normality 30. Presence of impurities
(C) mole fraction (D) molality (A) lowers the boiling point of solution
21. Two substances, A and B were made to react to (B) increases the boiling point of solution
form a third substance C according to the following (C) does not affect the boiling point
equation A + B C. (D) first decreases then increases the boiling point
Which of the following statements concerning this of liquid
relation is incorrect ? 31. At room temperature a non-metal which is a liquid
(i) The product C shows the properties of is
substances A and B (A) sulphur (B) bromine
(ii) The product will always have a fixed composition (C) chlorine (D) nitrogen
(iii) The product so formed cannot be classified as a 32. The volume of ethyl alcohol that is mixed with 250
compound ml of 60% (V/V) solution of alcohol in water is
(iv) The product so formed is a homogeneous mixture (A) 150 ml (B) 100 ml
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) (B) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (C) 200 ml (D) 250 ml
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv) (D) (ii) and (iv) 33. The mass of potassium sulphate required to
prepare its 10 percent solution in 100 g of water is
22. German silver does not contain :
(A) 11.11 g (B) 8.5 g
(A) Cu (B) Zn
(C) 8.1 g (D) 9.3 g
(C) Ni (D) Sn
34. Molarity of pure water (density of water is 1.0 gml–1)
23. Which one of the following is not a chemical
is
change ?
(A) 57.51 mol L–1 (B) 55.55 mol L–1
(A) sublimation (B) combustion
(C) 58.1 mol L–1 (D) 54.56 mol L–1
(C) electrolysis (D) rusting
35. W hich one is an example of homogeneous
24. Which of the following processes results in the mixture ?
formation of a new compound ?
(A) blood (B) milk
(A) Dissolving common salt in water
(C) salt solution (D) iron filing and sulphur
(B) Heating water
36. A solution of solid is
(C) Heating platinum red
(A) Foam (B) coloured gemstone
(D) Heating mixture of iron and sulphur
(C) Air (D) Fog
25. The fresh precipitate can be transformed in colloidal
solution by 37. The process involved in squeezing out water from
wet clothes in washing machine is
(A) peptization (B) coagulation
(C) diffusion (D) osmosis (A) centrifugation (B) sedimentation
(C) filtration (D) evaporation
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Aakash Institute Is Matter Around Us Pure
38. Sulphur is soluble in (A) only (i) and (ii) (B) only (i)
(A) Water (B) Alcohol (C) only (ii) and (iii) (D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) Carbon disulphide (D) Acetone 47. An example of inorganic compound
39. A mixture has the following properties (A) proteins (B) acetic acid
(i) The solution is hazy (C) alcohol (D) baking soda
(ii) The particles are suspended in the solution and 48. After heating the mixture of ammonium chloride
cannot be seen by naked eyes and salt for a few minutes, we observe which of the
following on the upper part of the inverted funnel?
(iii) It undergoes tyndall effect
(A) a reddish brown deposit
The mixture is a
(B) a white solid deposit
(A) true solution (B) colloidal solution
(C) water droplets
(C) suspension (D) Pure substance
(D) a yellow gas
40. A student took some iodine crystals and added it
49. At 274 K, the physical state of water is observed
to beaker containing alcohol. Stirred it with the
as
help of a glass rod. Crystals dissolved completely.
It was an example of (A) Solid (B) Liquid
(A) True solution (B) Colloidal solution (C) Vapour (D) Both solid and liquid
(C) Suspension (D) Pure substance 50. Total number of naturally occuring elements are
(A) CuSO4 + water (B) alum + water 55. Ionic compounds are formed when
(C) sugar + water (D) starch + water (A) There is huge electronegativity difference
between the two participating atom
45. In which of the following gas does not act as
(B) Cations & anions are generated
solute ?
(C) Transfer of valence electron takes place
(A) air (B) aerated drink
(D) All (A), (B) & (C) are true
(C) Milky glass (D) All of these
56. An atom or ion is most stabilised when the
46. Which is a non-metal ? number of electrons in the last shell is
(i) Sulphur (A) 6 (B) 10
(ii) Chlorine (C) 8 (D) 7
(iii) Carbon
(3)
Is Matter Around Us Pure Aakash Institute
57. During formation of CaCl2, the number of electrons 65. Colloids are actually
calcium loses are
(A) True solution
(A) 2 (B) 3
(B) Homogenous mixture
(C) 1 (D) 4
(C) Heterogenous mixture
58. Ionic compound conducts electricity in solution due
to presence of (D) Very unstable mixture
(A) Cations (B) Anions 66. Colloids show Tyndall effect due to
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) Electrons (A) Their heterogenous nature
59. The incorrect statement regarding mixtures is (B) Larger size of particles
(A) The components are in close contact (C) Considerable unstability
(B) The components are mixed in fixed proportion (D) Both (A) & (B)
(C) The components do not chemically react 67. Match the following with respect to dispersed
(D) The components can be separated by simple phase-dispersion medium & their examples
means (i) Gas in solid (a) Gold
60. How will you separate a mixture of Fe fillings & (ii) Liquid in gas (b) Foams
SiO2 ?
(iii) Solid in solid (c) Rock salt
(A) By using water (B) By using alcohol
(iv) Solid in liquid (d) Cloud
(C) By using magnet (D) By sublimation
(A) (i) - (a), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (c), (iv) - (b)
61. Match the following with respect to the method of
separation of the following mixtures (B) (i) - (b), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (c), (iv) - (a)
(i) Water + Ethanol (a) Filtration (C) (i) - (b), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (d), (iv) - (a)
(ii) AgCl + NaNO3 solution (b) Sublimation (D) (i) - (c), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (b)
(iii) Mixture of inks (c ) Fractional distillation
68. Match the following
(iv) Mixture of camphor & NaCl (d) Chromatography
(i) Blood (a) Aqueous solution
(A) (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (d), (iv) - (b)
(ii) Muddy water (b) Colloid
(B) (i) - (a), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (c), (iv) - (b)
(iii) Brine (c) N o n - a q u e o u s
(C) (i) - (b), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (d) solution
(D) (i) - (c), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (b)
(iv) Bromine in acetic acid (d) Suspension
62. Which of the following is not a chemical change ?
(A) (i) - (a), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (d)
(A) Dissolution of salt in water
(B) (i) - (d), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (c), (iv) - (b)
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) (i) - (b), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (c)
(C) Settling of cement
(D) (i) - (b), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (c), (iv) - (d)
(D) Rusting of iron
69. Sol & Gel are respectively
63. The minimum diameter of solute in true solution will
be of the order of (A) Solid in liquid and liquid in liquid colloid
(A) Picometer (B) Millimeter (B) Solid in liquid and liquid in solid colloid
(C) Nanometer (D) Femtometer (C) Liquid in gas and liquid in liquid colloid
64. Solubility is dependent on (D) Solid in solid and liquid in liquid colloid
70. If strength of 150 ml. sugar solution is 5% by
(A) Mass of solvent present
weight, then the mass of sugar in the solution
(B) Temperature
(A) 5 g. (B) 10 g.
(C) Density of solvent
(C) 2.5 g. (D) 7.5 g
(D) Volume of solvent present
71. Calculate the amount of water present in 12% salt
solution
(A) 100 g (B) 12 g
(C) 88 g (D) 112 g
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Aakash Institute Is Matter Around Us Pure
72. A 15% solution of H2SO4 by weight has a density 81. A true solution —
of 1.02 g/cm3. Calculate its strength in terms of (A) May contain more than one type of solute
weight/volume.
(B) Can be separated to its components by
(A) 15% (B) 15.3% dialysis
(C) 15.9% (D) 14.2% (C) Can be separated to its components by
73. Peptisation means magnetic separation.
(A) Conversion of precipitate into colloids by (D) Has particles of size greater than 10–9 m.
chemical means 82. A salt solution is obtained by dissolving 20 gm KCl
in 40 gm of water. What should be done to produce
(B) Conversion of precipitate into colloids by
100 ml 20% (w/v) solution ?
physical means
(A) 60 ml of the above solution + 40 ml H2O
(C) Dissolution of colloids to true solution by
chemical means (B) 50 ml of the above solution + 50 ml H2O
(D) Dissolution of colloids to true solution by (C) 40 ml of the above solution + 60 ml H2O
physical means (D) 20 ml of the above solution + 80 ml H2O
74. Coagulation includes 83. Brownian motion can be observed in
(A) Change in size of colloidal particles (A) True solution
(B) Change in charge of colloidal particles (B) Colloids
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Is Matter Around Us Pure Aakash Institute
90. Which method is used to separate drugs from blood? 100. Which one is not a method of separation of a
mixture?
(A) Fractional distillation
(A) Chromatography (B) Evaporation
(B) Crystallisation
(C) Dilution (D) Sublimation
(C) Chromatography
101. Find out the elements which are liquid at room
(D) Distillation temperature
91. The gas which is responsible to kill germs is (A) Iodine and Mercury
(A) CO2 (B) Cl2 (B) Mercury and Chlorine
(C) O2 (D) H2 (C) Mercury and Bromine
92. Smoke is an example of (D) Mercury and Sodium
(A) Gas dispersed in liquid 102. Dyes present in ink may be separated by
(B) Gas dispersed in solid (A) Evaporation (B) Distillation
(C) Solid dispersed in gas (C) Chromatography (D) Fractional Distillation
(D) Solid dispersed in solid 103. Osmosis involves
93. 15% (w/v) alcohol solution means
(A) Flow of solute molecules from more concentrated
(A) 15 ml alcohol in 85 ml of water solution to less concentrated solution
(B) 15 g alcohol in 85 g of water
(B) Flow of solvent molecules from less concentrated
(C) 15 g alcohol in 85 ml of water
solution to more concentrated solution through
(D) 15 g alcohol in 100 ml of solution
semipermeable membrane
94. Fog is a colloidal solution of
(C) Flow of solv ent molecules f rom more
(A) Gas in solid (B) Liquid in gas
concentrated solution to less concentrated
(C) Solid in gas (D) Gas in liquid
solution through semipermeable membrane
95. The temperature at which the vapour pressure of a
liquid becomes equal to the atmospheric pressure (D) Flow of solute molecules f rom less
is known as concentrated solution to more concentrated
(A) Boiling point (B) Freezing point solution
(C) Sublimation point (D) Melting Point 104. Woolen garments can be protected from moths by
using
96. A solution contains 30g of NaCl in 370g of water.
What is the w/w% of solute in solution? (A) NH4Cl (B) I2
(A) 8.5% (B) 5.7% (C) Camphor (D) Naphthalene
(C) 7.5% (D) 9.6% 105. Allotropic form of a non-metal which is a good
97. For simple distillation, what should be the minimum conductor of electricity under normal condition
difference in the boiling points of two liquids? (A) Bromine (B) Oxygen
(A) 25K (B) 5K (C) Graphite (D) Diamond
(C) 52K (D) 52°C 106. The solution which shows Tyndall effect is
98. Calculate the amount of H2O required to prepare (A) NaCl solution
1000g solution of sucrose which is 5% (w/w)
(B) Sugar solution
(A) 700g (B) 800 g
(C) Starch solution
(C) 850 g (D) 950 g
(D) Sodium acetate solution
99. Common salt obtained from sea-water is an impure
substance. It can be purified by 107. Blue colour of sky is due to
(C) Fractional Distillation 108. A sample of water containing salt will have the boiling
point
(D) Chromatography
(A) 100°C (B) 273 K
(C) 99.9°C (D) Greater than 100°C
(6)
Aakash Institute Is Matter Around Us Pure
109. 'X' and 'Y' are mixed together having boiling points 111. Which one of the following is a natural colloid?
236.5K and 251.3K respectively. Which separation (A) NaCl solution
technique can be used to separate X and Y?
(B) Sugar solution
(A) Crystallization (B) Chromatography
(C) Blood
(C) Sublimation (D) Fractional Distillation
(D) Milk of magnesia
110. Which one of the following is homogeneous in nature?
112. Which of the following is not a chemically pure
(A) Alloy (B) Milk
substance?
(C) Paint (D) Sand in water
(A) CO2
(B) Iron
(C) Sugar
(D) NaCl solution
(7)
Is Matter Around Us Pure Aakash Institute
CPP-02
FOR 9X
FDN
ANSWERS
(8)
CPP-02
FOR 9X
FDN
Biology
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for Foundations
Chapter - Tissue
1. The tip of nose in mammals is made up of 7. Match column-I with column-II and select the
correct option
(A) Bone (B) Tendon
(C) Ligament (D) Cartilage Column-I Column-II
(a) Neutrophils (i) Bean shaped nucleus
2. In cactus and other desert plants, rate of water loss
via transpiration is reduced due to the presence of (b) Basophils (ii) 3 - 7 lobed nucleus
(A) Stomata (B) Lignin (c) Eosinophils (iii) S - shaped nucleus
(C) Cutin (D) Suberin (d) Monocytes (iv) 2 - lobed nucleus
3. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct (A) (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
option.
(B) (a) – (iii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
List-I List-II
(C) (a) – (ii), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (iv)
(a) Skin (i) Myosin
(D) (a) – (iv), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii)
(b) Stomata (ii) Stratified epithelium 8. Refer to the figure and label (a), (b) and (c)
(c) Wall of heart (iii) Epidermis of leaf correctly from the options given below :
(d) Contractile protein (iv) Cardiac muscle
(A) (a) – (ii), b – (iii), c – (iv), d – (i)
(a)
(B) (a) – (iv), b – (ii), c – (i), d – (iii)
(C) (a) – (ii), b – (i), c – (iii), d – (iv)
(b)
(D) (a) – (i), b – (iv), c – (ii), d – (iii)
4. If Plasma cells : Antibodies, then, Mast cells: ? Stoma
(c)
(A) Lymph (B) Histamine
(A) a – Epidermal cells, b – Stomata, c – Parenchyma
(C) Actin (D) Chondrin
(B) a – Chloroplasts, b – Epiblema, c – Guard cells
5. Skeletal muscles are
(C) a – Chloroplasts, b – Epidermal cells, c – Guard
(A) Branched, multinucleate, tapering
cells
(B) Bundles of elongated, spindle shaped cells
(D) a – Stomata, b – Parenchyma, c – Chloroplast
(C) Elongated, cylindrical and unbranched
9. If Oviduct : Ciliated epithlium, then Skin : ?
(D) Involuntary, striated, unbranched, tapering
(A) Cuboidal epithelium
6. Which of the following statement/statements is not
true ? (B) Keratinized stratified epithelum
(i) Albumin maintains osmotic pressure of blood. (C) Non-keratinized stratified epithelium
(ii) Fibrinogen help in blood clotting. (D) Squamous epithelium
(iii) Serum contains blood coagulation factors.
(A) Only (i) (B) Only (iii)
(C) Both (i) and (iii) (D) (ii)
(1)
Tissue Aakash Institute
10. Which of the following statement/statements is 14. Identify the plant tissue by the description given
true? below.
(i) Sprain is caused by excessive pulling of (i) Presence of thick outer layer in older plants.
ligaments.
(ii) Dead cells.
(ii) Bone cells are called chondrocytes.
(iii) Presence of suberin.
(iii) Deficiency of vitamin A causes rickets.
(A) Epidermis (B) Hydathodes
(A) Only (i) (B) Both (i) and (iii)
(C) Vascular cambium (D) Cork
(C) Only (ii) (D) None of these
15. Anil observed a slide of plant tissue and saw the
11. Refer to the below figure and correctly label the following characteristics:
parts (a), (b) and (c) from the options.
(i) The cells are similar in structure; have thin
(b) (a) cellulosic cell wall; prominent nuclei; dense
cytoplasm; no vacuoles
(ii) Compactly arranged cells with no intercellular
spaces between them
Identify the tissue:
(2)
Aakash Institute Tissue
20. Cutinised hair, present over the epidermis on the 27. Blood without RBCs and thrombocytes is known as
aerial surface in many plants are known as (A) Plasma (B) Lymph
(A) Epiblema (B) Trichomes (C) Serum (D) Blood corpuscles
(C) Pericycle (D) Cambium 28. Human RBCs are
(A) Biconvex, nucleated and round
21. Which of the following prevents coagulation of
(B) Biconcave, nucleated and round
blood?
(C) Biconvex, non-nucleated and oval
(A) Histamine (B) Serotonin
(D) Biconcave, non-nucleated and round
(C) Heparin (D) Acetylcholine 29. Instrument used for RBC counting is
22. A student drew the diagram of neuron and labelled (A) Electrocardiograph
it as follows (B) Sphyghmomanometer
Synaptic Knobs
Dendrites Myelin sheath (C) Haemocytometer
(D) Haemoglobinometer
. .
.
.............................................
................... .....
........................................
............... ................................................
..............................
30. If Bone : Skeletal tissue : : Blood : ?
.. ................. ..................................
................................................ . ..... ........ ........ ......
...
.. ................ .............. .............................................................
. . (A) Dense connective tissue
Nodes of Ranvier (B) Loose connective tissue
Cyton Axon (C) Fluid connective tissue
(D) Elastic connective tissue
The wrong labellings are
31. Which of the following statements is not true
(A) Cyton & axon regarding sieve tubes?
(B) Nodes of ranvier and myelin sheath (i) Meant for downward translocation of organic
(C) Axon and nodes of ranvier solutes.
(D) Cyton and myelin sheath (ii) Narrow, elongated and with a distinct nucleus.
23. Match the following : (iii) Presence of sieve plates.
Column - I Column - II (A) Only II (B) Only II and III
(a) Stereocilia (i) Cuticle (C) Only I (D) I, II and III
(b) Kidney tubules (ii) Monocots 32. Sebaceous gland : Holocrine : : Mammary gland :
(c) Xerophytic plant (iii) Vas deferens ?
(d) Dumb-bell shaped (iv) Cuboidal epithelium (A) Merocrine (B) Apocrine
guard cells (C) Holocrine (D) Endocrine
(A) (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (ii) 33. Bone dissolving cells are
(B) (a) – (i), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (iii) (A) Osteocytes (B) Osteoprogenitor
(C) (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv) (C) Osteoblasts (D) Osteoclasts
(D) (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
34. RBC : Polycythemia : : WBC : ?
24. Muscles that help in peristaltic movements are
(A) Leukocytosis
(A) Cardiac muscles only
(B) Leukopenia
(B) Smooth muscles only
(C) Diapedesis
(C) Skeletal muscles
(D) Differential leukocyte count (DLC)
(D) Both smooth muscles and cardiac muscles
35. Which muscles are branched and immune to
25. Blood is
fatigue?
(A) Highly alkaline
(A) Skeletal muscle only
(B) Highly acidic
(B) Cardiac muscle only
(C) Slightly alkaline
(C) Smooth muscle
(D) Neutral
(D) Both skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle
26. Ends of a long bone are known as
36. ‘Graveyard of RBCs’ is
(A) Epiphyses (B) Diaphyses
(A) Spleen
(C) Lamellae (D) Canaliculi
(B) Liver
(C) Adrenal glands
(D) Kidney
(3)
Tissue Aakash Institute
37. Refer the fig. below and label (a), (b), (c) correctly 42. Choose the incorrect one
from the options given (A) Plasma cells – B lymphocytes
Perichondrium (B) Cartilage – Ossein
(C) RBC formation – Bone marrow
(D) Platelets – Megakaryocytes
(b)
43. Vitamin required for blood coagulation is
(A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin D
(c)
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin A
44. Choose the correct pair.
(A) Aerenchyma – Hydrophytes
(a) (B) Meristematic tissue – Xylem
(A) a – Chondrocytes, b – Lacuna, c – Matrix (C) Apical meristem – Cambium
(B) a – Lacuna, b – Matrix, c – Chondrocytes (D) Plasma – Haemoglobin
(C) a – Chondrocytes, b – Canaliculi, c – Matrix (a)
Permanent tissue.
45. Meristematic tissue
(D) a – Haversian Canal, b – Lacuna, c – Chondrin (b)
38. The following are blood coagulation factors, except Identify a and b from the options below.
(A) Prothrombin (B) Heparin (A) a – Redifferentiation, b – Differentiation
(C) Fibrinogen (D) Thromboplastin (B) a – Differentiation, b – Dedifferentiation
39. Refer to the diagram of a striated muscle below (C) a – Differentiation, b – Re-differentiation
and identify the parts wrongly labelled and choose (D) a – Differentiation, b – Reverse differentiation
the correct option 46. If Nerve tissue : Neuron : : Muscle fibre : ?
I - Band (A) Sarcomere (B) Sarcolemma
(C) Sarcoplasm (D) Tendons
47. Blood buffer is
(A) Sulfate
(B) Nitrate
(C) Bicarbonate
(D) Chloride
A - Band 48. Choose the correct statement/statements
regarding single-unit smooth muscle :
M - Line (i) Number of muscle fibres are closely joined
(A) I – Band and A – Band together.
(B) M – Line and A – Band (ii) All fibres contract together as a single unit,
(C) I – Band and – M – Line rythmically and automatically.
(D) I – Band, A – Band and M – Line (iii) Found in stomach, intestine, urinary bladder.
40. Match the following and choose the correct option (A) Only (iii)
Column - I Column - II (B) Only (ii) and (III)
(a) Schwann cells (i) Columnar epithelium (C) Only (i)
(b) Kupffer cells (ii) Myeline sheath (D) All, (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) Nissl bodies (iii) Liver 49. Mucus producing cells are called
(d) Goblet cells (iv) Neuron (A) Stereocilia
(A) a – (ii), b – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i) (B) Goblet cells
(B) a – (ii), b – (iv), (c) – (i), (d) – (iii) (C) Secretory epithelial cells
(C) a – (iv), b – (ii), (c) – (iii), (d) – (i) (D) Germinal epithelial cells
(D) a – (iii), b – (ii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i) 50. Which is false w.r.t. tracheids ?
41. If Cells : Cytology : : Tissues : ? (A) Pointed at ends
(A) Pathology (B) Histology (B) Living cells
(C) Microbiology (D) Forensic science (C) Functions mai nly as wat er conduct ing
channels
(D) Thickening takes place due to lignin deposition
(4)
Aakash Institute Tissue
51. Sieve tube in mature plants have (A) Cardiac muscle
(A) Sieve plates (B) Smooth muscle
(B) Well developed nucleus (C) Skeletal muscle
(C) Cell sap (D) All muscles in our body
(D) Both (A) & (C)
61. Bone forming cell is
52. Which one of the below is not a plant secretory
(A) Chondroclast (B) Osteoclast
product?
(A) Resin (B) Oil (C) Osteoblast (D) Ossein
(C) Honey (D) Nectar 62. Which is a false statement?
53. Palisade and spongy cells are which type of tissue ? (A) Bone growth is bidirectional
(A) Parenchyma (B) Sclerenchyma (B) Chondrin is a cartilage protein
(C) Storage Tissue (D) Collenchyma (C) Outermost layer of skin is dermis
54. Water secreting glands in form of liquid droplets (D) Platelets help in blood coagulation
are 63. Which of the following produce histamine and
(A) Lenticels (B) Hydathodes heparin?
(C) Stomata (D) Pits (A) Adipose cell (B) Mast cell
55. The cartilage present in the articular surface of (C) Ligament (D) Cartilage cell
long bones is
64. Concentric rings present in bones are called
(A) Yellow elastic cartilage
(A) Neurilemma
(B) Hyaline cartilage
(C) White fibrous cartilage (B) Lamellae
(D) Calcified cartilage (C) Sarcolemma
56. Match the following : (D) Cartilaginous rings
Column I Column II 65. Which of the following is/are present in muscle?
(i) Endothelium (p) Ciliated epithelium (A) Actin and myosin
(ii) PCT (q) Transitional epithelium (B) Rhodopsin and iodopsin
(iii) Fallopian tube (r) Squamous epithelium (C) Haemoglobin
(iv) Antitranspirant (s) Cuboidal epithelium (D) Haemocyanin
(A) (i) – (p), (ii) – (s), (iii) – (q), (iv) – (r) 66. Excitable cells in body are
(B) (i) – (q), (ii) – (r), (iii) – (p), (iv) – (s) (A) Nerve cells only
(C) (i) – (r), (ii) – (s), (iii) – (p), (iv) – (q)
(B) Skin cells
(D) (i) – (r), (ii) – (q), (iii) – (s), (iv) – (p)
(C) Both nerve & muscle cells
57. If :–RBC : Erythropenia
(D) Blood cells
Platelets : ?
67. If we do not have platelets in our body, what will
(A) Leucocytosis (B) Polycythemia
happen ?
(C) Leukopenia (D) Thrombocytopenia
(A) No protein synthesis
58. Which of the following is made up of rRNA and
(B) No blood clotting
ribosomes?
(C) No brain formation
(A) Schwann cells (B) Nissl's granules
(D) No muscle contraction
(C) Myelin sheath (D) Platelets
68. Which of the following exhibits diapedesis?
59. Bone : Ossein
(A) Neuron (B) RBC
Skin : ?
(C) WBC (D) Platelet
(A) Chondrin (B) Haemoglobin
69. Tissue can be defined as a group of cells having
(C) Keratin (D) Myosin
(A) Common origin and always a common function
60. Identify the muscle on the basis of the following
(B) Common origin and always a different function
characters
(C) Different origin and different function
(i) Spindle shaped cells.
(D) Different origin and common function
(ii) Uninucleale.
(iii) Causes peristalsis of intestine.
(5)
Tissue Aakash Institute
70. Which of the following tissues responsible for 80. Stomatal apparatus consists of
regenerating parts removed by the grazing (A) Subsidiary cells (B) Guard cells
herbivores in grasses? (C) Stomatal aperture (D) All of these
(A) Apical meristem 81. Secretion and absorption is carried out by which
(B) Lateral meristem kind of epithelium ?
(C) Intercalary meristem (A) Simple squamous
(D) All of these (B) Columnar
71. The simple tissue characterized by pits is/are (C) Keratinized stratified squamous
(A) Collenchyma (B) Parenchyma (D) Non-keratinized stratified squamous
(C) Sclerenchyma (D) All of these 82. Goblet cells are present in which tissue ?
72. Which of the following forms secondary thickening (A) Epithelial tissue
in collenchyma ?
(B) Neural tissue
(A) Lignin (B) Pectin
(C) Connective tissue
(C) Callose (D) Hemicellulose
(D) Muscular tissue
73. Sclereids are present in the pulp of
83. Matrix of connective tissue is mainly made up of
(A) Guava (B) Pear
(A) Phospholipids
(C) Sapota (D) All of these
(B) Glycolipids
74. Which of these can be described as hard lignified
thick walled long cells with pointed ends of a plant ? (C) Modified polysaccharides
(A) Sclerenchyma fibres (D) Modified triglycerides
(B) Parenchyma 84. Which of these describes the function of tight
junction?
(C) Collenchyma
(A) Cementing neighbouring cells together
(D) Sclereids
(B) Give rigidity to tissue
75. Protoplasm is absent in all of these, except
(C) Stop leaking of substance across the tissue
(A) Tracheids
(D) All of these
(B) Vessels
(C) Xylem sclerenchyma 85. Cuboidal or columnar epithelium specialized for
secretion are called ______.
(D) Xylem parenchyma
(A) Ciliated epithelium (B) Glandular epithelium
76. W hy are siev e tubes better suited f or
translocation? (C) Areolar tissue (D) Transitional epithelium
(A) Because of broader lumen and perforated cross 86. Inner lining of lung alveoli, blood vessels and
walls peritoneum is provided by
(B) Because they are broader than their length (A) Simple squamous epithelium
(C) Due to the presence of bordered pits (B) Simple cuboidal epithilium
(D) Because of absence of cell walls (C) Simple ciliated epithelium
77. Find the incorrect match. (D) Ciliated columnar epithelium
(A) Gymnosperms – Albuminous cells and 87. The intestinal mucosa is lined by (i)
sieve cells epithelium, whose free surface ends are thrown
(B) Angiosperms – Vessels in xylem into projections called as (ii) . Here (i) and
(C) Apical meristem – Root and shoot tips (ii) are respectively.
(D) Collenchyma – Lignified cell wall (A) Columnar and villi
78. Commercially used phloem fibre is/are (B) Columnar and microvilli
(A) Jute (B) Flax (C) Cuboidal and villi
(C) Hemp (D) All of these (D) Cuboidal and microvilli
79. Identify the correct statement(s) about stomatal 88. Pseudostratified epithelium covers the inner lining
structure of
(A) Guard cells are present (A) Nasal passages and small bronchi
(B) Regulates the process of transpiration and (B) Thyroid follicles and ovary
gaseous exchange
(C) Trachea and large bronchi
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Gastric and intestinal glands
(D) Found in stem and roots
(6)
Aakash Institute Tissue
89. Tendons and ligaments belong to 98. W hich of these is not lined by squamous
(A) Muscular tissue epithelium?
(B) Fluid connective tissue (A) Cheek
(C) Fibrous connective tissue (B) Bowman's capsule of nephron
(D) Areolar connective tissue (C) Henle's loop of nephron
90. A central canal within the lamellae of compact bone (D) Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron
containing blood vessels, nerves and lymphatics is 99. Which of these is not a feature of the epithelial
called tissue?
(A) Volkmann canal (B) Neural canal (A) Presence of basement membrane
(C) Canaliculi (D) Haversian canal (B) Cells of this tissue are tightly packed
91. The most easily excited part of the neuron and the
(C) Supplied with blood vessels
spike initiation zone for the axon is
(D) Can repair itself
(A) Dendrite (B) Axon terminal
100. Fibres of connective tissues are secreted by
(C) Axon hillock (D) Axolemma
(A) Macrophages (B) Eosinophils
92. Nissl's granules can be described as
(A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum of the neurons; (C) Histiocytes (D) Fibroblasts
and are the site of protein synthesis 101. Cartilage cells are also known as
(B) Vesicles filled with neurotransmitters (A) Adipocytes (B) Osteocytes
(C) Spirally coiled mitochondria of cells (C) Fibroblasts (D) Chondrocytes
(D) Golgi apparatus of the neurons 102. Cartilage found in intervertebral discs is
93. Which is not a characteristic feature of (A) Hyaline (B) Reticular
meristematic tissue? (C) Fibrous (D) Elastic
(A) The cells are compactly arranged 103. Crunchiness in some fruits like pears is due to the
(B) The tissue comprise of differentiated cells presence of
(C) These cells are metabolically active (A) Companion cells (B) Stone cells
(D) These cells devide repeatedly (C) Tracheids (D) Collenchyma
94. Cork cambium is an example of 104. Which of the following statements does not hold
(A) Lateral meristem true for cardiac muscles?
(B) Apical meristem (A) Exhibits autorhythmicity
(C) Intercalary meristem (B) Possess intercalated discs that do not allow
(D) Primary meristem transmission of nerve impulse across the muscle
95. Cells of which tissue contains pectin deposition in (C) Presence of long refractory period
their cell wall? (D) Exclusively present in heart
(A) Sclerenchyma 105. Haversian system is a feature of
(B) Xylem parenchyma (A) Mammalian bone
(C) Meristem (B) Amphibian bone
(D) Collenchyma (C) Reptilian bone
96. Which of these is/are function(s) of parenchyma? (D) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Storage and assimilation of food 106. Cells lining the lining of urinary bladder, consists of
(B) Buoyancy (A) Cuboidal epithelium
(C) Prevention of water loss in the form of cuticle (B) Transitional epithelium
(D) All of these (C) Stratified squamous epithelium
97. Guard cells are (D) Pseudostratified epithelium
(A) Kidney shaped in dicots 107. The cartilage present in tip of nose is also present
in
(B) Dumb-bell shaped in dicots
(A) Nasal septum (B) Ear pinna
(C) Dumb-bell shaped in monocots
(C) Intervertebral disc (D) Tracheal rings
(D) Both (A) and (C)
(7)
Tissue Aakash Institute
108. Match column-I with column-II and tick correct (C) Thick walls
option : (D) Discontinuous lumen which are separated by
Column-I Column-II end walls
I. Lateral meristem (i) Suberin 117. Collenchyma differs from parenchyma in having
II. Coir (ii) Secondary growth (A) Cellulose walls
III. Cork (iii) Phloem fibre (B) Pectin deposits at corners
IV. Bast (iv) Sclerenchyma fibre (C) Living protoplasm
(A) I-(iv), II-(iii), III-(ii), IV-(i) (D) Vacuoles
(B) I-(ii), II-(iv), III-(iii), IV-(i) 118. The tissue present in the pinna of a mammal is
(C) I-(ii), II-(iv), III-(i), IV-(iii) (A) Elastic cartilage (B) Calcified cartilage
(D) I-(i), II-(iv), III-(ii), IV-(iii) (C) Fibrous cartilage (D) Hyaline cartilage
109. Match column-I with column-II and choose the 119. Apical meristem is responsible for
correct option : (A) Growth in thickness
Column-I Column-II (B) Growth in length
I. Neutrophil (i) Granulocyte (C) Growth of cortex
II. Lymphocyte (ii) Macrophage (D) Growth of parenchyma
III. Eosinophil (iii) Humoral immunity 120. Choose the incorrect statement.
IV. Monocyte (iv) Most abundant (A) Nature of matrix differs according to the function
leukocyte of the tissue
(A) I-(iii), II-(iv), III-(i), IV-(ii) (B) Epithelial tissues have large intercellular spaces
(B) I-(iv), II-(iii), III-(i), IV-(ii) between them
(C) I-(ii), II-(i), III-(iv), IV-(iii) (C) Fats are stored below the skin and in between
(D) I-(iv), II-(iii), III-(ii), IV-(i) the internal organ
110. Cork cells are made impervious to water and gases (D) Cells of striated muscles are multinucleated
by the presence of and unbranched
(A) Cellulose (B) Lipids 121. Girth of stem increases due to
(C) Suberin (D) Lignin (A) Apical meristem
111. The largest leucocyte is (B) Intercalary meristem
(A) Eosinophil (B) Monocyte (C) Lateral meristem
(C) Basophil (D) Lymphocyte (D) Vertical meristem
112. Parenchyma cells are 122. If you observe the muscular tissue of the urinary
(A) Thick walled and specialized bladder, you will observe
(B) Lignified (A) Cartilage
(C) Relatively unspecialised and thin walled (B) Unstriated muscles
(D) None of these (C) Ligament
113. Which of the following does not lose their nucleus (D) Striated muscles
at maturity ? 123. Ligaments connect
(A) Sieve tube cells (B) Companion cells (A) Muscle to bone (B) Bone to bone
(C) Red blood cells (D) Xylem vessels (C) Muscle to skin (D) Bone to cartilage
114. Most of the human neurons are 124. Bases of leaves and internodes have
(A) Bipolar (B) Multipolar (A) Apical meristem
(C) Unipolar (D) Pseudounipolar (B) Lateral meristem
115. A bone left in dilute HCl for about three days will (C) Intercalary meristem
(A) Become soft and elastic (D) None of these
(B) Dissolve completely 125. Which one of the following pairs is correctly
(C) Remain as it is matched?
(D) Break into pieces (A) Meristem : Actively dividing cells
116. A tracheid differs from a vessel in having (B) Xylem : Transport of food
(A) Scalariform thickenings (C) Sclerenchyma : Transport of starch
(B) Lack of bordered pits (D) Phloem : Transport of water
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126. Starch in potato is stored in 128. Which of the following statements is incorrect with
(A) Sclerenchyma (B) Parenchyma respect to skeletal tissues ?
(C) Collenchyma (D) Chlorenchyma (A) Chondroblasts are embedded in the matrix in
127. fluid filled spaces called lacunae
(B) Bone is a strong, rigid, non porous tissue
(1)
(2) (C) Matrix of bone is composed of 30% organic
(3) material and 70% inorganic bone salts
(D) Bones protect delicate tissues and organs
(4) 129. Which of the following statements is correct with
respect to epithelial tissues ?
(A) Ciliated epithelium is present in Bowman's
Select the correct order of labelling: (1, 2, 3, 4)
capsule
(A) Medullary ray; parenchyma; vascular bundle;
multicellular hair (B) Cells of cuboidal epithelium lines the salivary
and pancreatic ducts
(B) Parenchyma, multicellular hair, vascular bundle;
medullary ray (C) Squamous cells of the glandular epithelium are
(C) Parenchyma, medullary ray, vascular bundle, modified to secrete chemicals
multicellular hair (D) Thin flat cells of the squamous epithelium have
(D) Vascular bundle, medullary ray, parenchyma, microvilli which help in the absorption of
multicellular hair nutrients.
(9)
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20. (B) 46. (A) 72. (B) 98. (D) 123. (B)
21. (C) 47. (C) 73. (D) 99. (C) 124. (C)
22. (B) 48. (D) 74. (A) 100. (D) 125. (A)
23. (A) 49. (B) 75. (D) 101. (D) 126. (B)
24. (B) 50. (B) 76. (A) 102. (C) 127. (B)
25. (C) 51. (D) 77. (D) 103. (B) 128. (B)
26. (A) 52. (C) 78. (D) 104. (B) 129. (B)
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CPP-02
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Mathematics
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for Foundations
Chapter - Polynomials
1. Given f(x) is a cubic polynomial in x. If f(x) is (C) deg f(x) – deg. g(x)
divided by (x + 3), (x + 4), (x + 5) and (x + 6), then (D) deg f(x) + deg g(x)
it leaves the remainders 0, 0, 4 and 6 respectively.
Find the remainder when f(x) is divided by x + 7. 7. If P(x) = ax 2 + bx + c be a polynomial, a 0
(A) 0 (B) 1 and P(x) = 0 has roots sin and cos then
|sin – cos| is
(C) 2 (D) 3
2. If ( x – 1) and (x – 2) are factors of x 3 + ax2 + b2 4ac
(A) b2 4ac (B)
bx – 2, then the value of a and b respectively, are a
(A) 4 and 5 (B) – 4 and – 5
c
(C) – 4 and 5 (D) 4 and – 5 (C) (D) None of these
a
3. If (x + 2)(x + 3) is a factor of x 3 + ax2 + x – b,
8. The remainder where 1724 – 1324 is divided by 120
then the value of a is
is
(A) – 4 (B) 4
(A) 3 (B) 1
(C) – 2 (D) 2 (C) 0 (D) 2
4. W hich one of the following pairs is correctly
matched? 9. If P(x) = aoxn +a1xn–1 + ........ +an, ao 0 is a
Polynomials HCF polynomial of degree 'n' (n is even) and 1, 2.....
n are roots of equation p(x) = 0, then which of
(A) f(x) = x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 (x – 3)
the following is true
g(x) = x2 – 5x + 6
(B) f(x) = x3 – 6x2 + 11x – 6 (x – 2) a1
(A) 1 2 .......... n a
g(x) = x2 – 65x + 244 o
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Polynomials Aakash Institute
12. Let P(x) be a polynomial p(x) = 3x + 4, then the value of a is
value of p [p(p(1))] is (A) 3 (B) 0
(A) 7 (B) 25 (C) 6 (D) – 6
(C) 79 (D) 99 21. 212 – 61 is divisible by
13. Consider the following statements (A) 15 (B) 9
(i) x – 2 is a factor of x3 – 3x2 + 4x – 4 (C) 11 (D) 8
(ii) x + 1 is a factor of 2x3 + 4x + 6 22. If , are roots of expression x2 – 12x + 30 = 0,
(iii) x – 1 is a factor of x5 + x4 – x3 + x2 –x + 1. then 3 + 3 is
Of these statements – (A) 7 (B) 9
(A) 1 and 2 are correct (B) 1, 2 & 3 are correct (C) 10 (D) 648
(C) 2 and 3 are correct (D) 1 and 3 are correct 23. n4– 4n3
– 39n2
+ 86n + 140 (where n is a natural
14. The equation x3– 3x +q = 0 will have a repeated number) is always divisible by
root, if the value of q is (A) 140 (B) 35
(A) ± 2 (B) ± 1 (C) 20 (D) None of these
(C) ± 3 (D) ± 4 24. A number when divided by 10 leaves a remainder
15. In the following graphs the one not representing a of 9, when divided by 9 leaves a remainder of 8, by
quadratic polynomial is 8 leaves a remainder of 7 etc. down to where, when
divided by 2, leaves a remainder of 1 is
(A) 59 (B) 419
(A) (B) (C) 1259 (D) 2519
25. If x + y + z = 0; x2 + y2 + z2 = 14, then x4 + y4
+ z4 is
(A) 49 (B) 98
(C) (D) (C) 196 (D) 96
26. Which is not a factor of 38 – 28?
16. True statement is (A) 97 (B) 65
(A) Degree of a zero polynomial is 0 (C) 35 (D) 13
(B) Degree of a zero polynomial is not defined 27. (x – 1)2 + (y – 2)2 + (z – 3)2 + (t – 4)2 = 0
(C) Degree of a constant polynomial is not defined then xyzt =
(D) A polynomial of degree n must have n zeroes (A) 12 (B) 24
17. If , are the roots of the quadratic polynomial (C) 48 (D) 96
2
1 1 28. If gcd(a, b) = 1, then the gcd of a + b and a – b
x2 + x – 2, then is is either
(A) a or b (B) 1 or 2
9 9 (C) 1 or a (D) 1 or b
(A) (B)
4 4
29. If a2 – b2 is a prime number, then a2 – b2 is equal
2 2 to (where a, b are natural numbers)
(C) (D) (A) a – b (B) ab
5 5
18. The sum of roots of x3 – 6x + 11x – 6 = 0 is a
(C) (D) a + b
(A) 6 (B) 11 b
30. If gcd of a and b is 1 and a and b are the divisors
(C) 9 (D) None of these
of of c then
19. If HCF of x2
– x – 6 and x2 + 9x + 14 is x + m,
(A) c is divisor of ab (B) ab is divisor of c
then the value of m is
(C) a2b is divisor of c (D) ab2 is divisor of c
(A) 1 (B) 2
31. For any integer n, n2 + 2 is not divisible by
(C) – 2 (D) – 1
(A) 2 (B) 4
20. If the remainder obtained on div iding
2x3 – x2 + 5x + a – 3 by (x – 1) is 3, then the (C) Any odd integer (D) None of these
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Aakash Institute Polynomials
32. x3 + 2x2 – 11x + 12 = (x – a)(x – b)(x – c)
2 1 2 1
then abc = (B) 3x 2 2 3x 2 2
x x
(A) 9 (B) 18
(C) –12 (D) 24 2 1 2 1
(C) 3x 2 2 3x 2 2
33. Which one of the following algebraic expressions is x x
a polynomial in variable x?
2 1 2 1
2 1 (D) 3x 2 2 3x 2 2
x2 x x x
(A) 2 (B)
x x
42. If 4x 4 12x 3 25x 2 24x 16 ax 2 bx c ,
3
3x 2
then which of the following is true?
(C) x2 (D) None of these
x (A) 2b = a – c (B) 2a = b + c
34. One of the factor of, (C) 2b = a + c (D) 2b = c – a
(a+2b)3 + (2a – c)3 – (a + 2c)3 + 3(a + 2b)(2a – c)(a + 3
2c) is : 3
43. Resolve into factors : x x
(A) 2a + 2b – 3c (B) 2a – 2b + 3c x,y,z x,y,z
(C) 2a + 2b + 3c (D) –2a – 2b – 3c (A) (x + y)(y + z)(z + x)
35. x831 + y831 is always divisible by : (B) –(x + y)(y + z)(z + x)
(A) x – y (B) x2 + y2 (C) 3(x + y)(y + z)(z + x)
(C) x + y (D) None of these (D) –3(x + y)(y + z)(z + x)
36. If (x + 1)(x + 2)(x + 3)(x + k) + 1 is a perfect 44. The HCF of the polynomials (2x – 1)(5x2 – ax + 3)
square, then the value of k is and (x – 3)(2x2 + x + b) is (2x – 1)(x – 3). Then
(A) 4 (B) 5 the values of a and b respectively are
(C) 6 (D) 7 (A) 16, –1 (B) –16, 1
37. If A = 6x4
+ – 5x3 14x2
+ 2x + 2 and B = – 3x2 (C) –16, –1 (D) 16, 1
2x – 1, then the remainder when A is divided by B 45. The remainder when the polynomial
is p(x) = x100 – x97 + x3 is divided by (x + 1) is
(A) x (B) 2x (A) 1 (B) –1
(C) 3x (D) 4x (C) 2 (D) –2
38. The HCF of the polynomials x 4 + 6x 2 + 25, 46. One of the dimensions of the cuboid whose volume
x3 – 3x2 + 7x – 5 and x2 + 5 – 2x is is, 16x2 – 26x + 10 is
(A) x2 – 2x – 5 (B) x2 – 2x + 5 (A) 2 (B) 8x – 5
(C) x – 1 (D) 3x + 2 (C) x – 1 (D) All of these
39. If the LCM of the polynomials, (y – 3)a (2y + 1)b 47. If the degree of a polynomial AB is 15 and the
(y + 13) 7 and (y – 3) 4 (2y + 1) 9 (y + 13) c is degree of polynomial B is 5, the degree of a
(y – 3)6 (2y + 1)10 (y + 13)7 , then the least value polynomial A is
of a + b + c is
(A) 3 (B) 8
(A) 23 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 10
(C) 10 (D) 16
48. The expression 21x2 + 11x – 2 equals to
40. The remainders obtained when the polynomial,
x3 + x2 – 9x – 9, divided by x, x + 1 and x + 2 (A) x 2 7x 1 (B) 7x 1 3x 2
respectively are
(A) –9, 0, –15 (B) –9, –16, 5 (C) 7x 1 3x 2 (D) 7x 1 3x 2
(C) 0, 0, 5 (D) –9, 0, 5 49. The remainder when x3 – 3x2 + 5x – 1 is divided
4 1 by x + 1 is
41. Factorizing 9x 4 2 , we have (A) –8 (B) –12
x
(C) –10 (D) –9
2 1 2 1
(A) 3x 2 2 3x 2 2
x x
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Polynomials Aakash Institute
50. Find the value of a, if (x + 2) is a factor of the (A) x + 1 (B) x + 2
3 2
polynomial f(x) = x 13x ax 20 (C) 2x + 1 (D) 2x – 1
(A) –15 (B) 20 57. If 3x – 1 is a f actor of the polynomial
(C) 25 (D) 32 f x 81x3 45x 2 3a 6, then a ?
(B) 2x5 x 4 3x3 6x2 6x 59. For what value of k the HCF of x 2 x 5k 1
(D) 2x 1 x 4 x 4 x
1
1 x
1 x
(A) (B)
2 3 3 x 3
54. The polynomial 11a 12 2a 2 on factorization
gives 1 1 1
(C) x 1 x
(D) 3 x 1
x
3
(A) 11a 2 a 2 61. Which of the following is to be added to make
x6 – 6x4 + 4x3 + 8x2 – 10x + 3 a perfect square
(B) a 2 11a 2 (A) (x + 1)2 (B) (x – 1)2
(C) (x – 2)2 (D) (x + 2)2
(C) a 11 a 2
a2 1 1 a 3
62. Find the square root of
(D) 11a 2 a 2 4 a2 a 2 4
1 a 1 1 a 2
55. Factorize the polynomial 8x 3 (A) (B) 1
64 2 a 2 2 a
1 2 x 1
(A) 2x 4x a 1 1 a 2 1
4 2 16 (C) (D)
2 a 2 2 a 2
1 2 x 3 3
(B) 2x 4x 16 x y x y
8 2 63.
2
y 3x 2 y 2 =
1 2 1 x (A) x3 – y3 (B) (x – y)3
(C) 2x 4x
4 16 2 3 2
(C) 2x – 3x y (D) x3 – 6x2y2
64. Find the square root of
1 2 x
(D) 2x 4x 16 (4a + 5b + 5c)2 – (5a + 4b + 4c)2 + 9a2
4 2
(A) 3 b c (B) 3(b + c – a)
56. W hich of the f ollowing is a f actor of
(C) 3(b + c) (D) 3(b + c – a)
f x 2x3 5x 2 x 2 ?
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Aakash Institute Polynomials
3 3 (A) 1 (B) 3
a b a b
65.
2
2
a a 3b 2
= (C) 4 (D) 5
74. The square root of (xy + xz – yz)2 – 4xyz(x – y)
(A) a3 – b3 (B) (a + b)3 is
(C) a3 + b3 (D) (a – b)3 (A) (xy + yz – 2xyz) (B) (x + y – 2xy)
66. The square root of (3a + 2b + 3c)2 – (2a + 3b + (C) (xy + 3 – y) (D) (xy + yz – zx)
2c)2 + 5b2 is
75. If the polynomials f(x) = x 2 + 5x – p and g(x) =
(A) 5 a b c (B) 5 a b x2 – 2x + 6p have a common factor, then the
common factor is
(C) 5 a c (D) 5 a c b (A) x + 2 (B) x
(C) x + 4 (D) Either (B) or (C)
67. When a fourth degree polynomial f(x) is divided by
(x + 6), the quotient is Q(x) and the remainder is 76. If degree of both f(x) and f(x) + g(x) + h(x) is 18,
– 6. And when f(x) is divided by [Q(x) + 1], the then degree of g(x) can be
quotient is (x + 6) and the remainder is R(x). Find (A) 19 (B) 18
R(x). (C) 20 (D) All of these
(A) 12 + x (B) – (x + 12) 77. If LCM of f(x) and g(x) is a 6 – b 6, then their
(C) 0 (D) 3 HCF can be
68. The remainders obtained when the polynomial x3 – (A) a – b (B) b2 + ab + a2
8x is divided by x, x + 1, x + 2 respectively are (C) a2 – ab + b2 (D) All of these
(A) –9, 0, –15 (B) –9, –16, –5 78. If HCF of the polynomials (x + 4)(2x2 + 5x + a) and
(C) 0, 0, 5 (D) 0, 7, 8 (x + 3)(x2 + 7x + b) is (x2 + 7x + 12) then 6a + b
is
a b2 b c 2 c a2 (A) – 6 (B) 5
69. Find the value of b c c a a b c a a b b c
(C) 6 (D) – 5
(A) –1 (B) 0 79. Find the HCF of the polynomials f(x) = x3 + x2 +
(C) 1 (D) 2 x + 1 and g(x) = x3 – x2 + x – 1.
(A) x(x + 1) (B) x – 1
70. If the HCF of 8x3y2 and 12x6y2 is 4xaxb, find the
2
(C) x + 1 (D) x + 1
value of a + b.
2
80. f(x + 2) = x + 7x – 13, then find the remainder
(A) 2 (B) 5
when f(x) is divided by (x + 2).
(C) 6 (D) 8
(A) – 25 (B) – 12
71. The polynomial 5x 5
– 3x 3 + 2x 2 – k gives a
(C) – 23 (D) – 11
remainder 1, when divided by x + 1, find the value
of k. 81. If (x – 2) and (x – 3) are two factors of f(x) = x 3 +
ax + b, then find the remainder when f(x) is
(A) 5 (B) –1
divided by (x – 5).
(C) 2 (D) 1 (A) 0 (B) 15
72. Factorise : a3 + b3 + 3ab – 1 (C) 30 (D) 60
(A) (a + b – 1)(a2 + b2 + a + b + 1 – ab)
(B) (a + b – 1)(a2 + b2 + a + b + 1 + ab) 82. Factorize : a2 b 4 c 4
a,b,c
(C) (a + b – 1)(a2 – b2 + ab + 1 + ab)
(A) (a – b)2(b – c)2(c – a)2
(D) (a + b – 1)(a2 + b2 – ab + b + 1 – ab)
(B) (a – b)(a + b)(b – c)(b + c)(c – a)(c + a)
73. If f and g are two polynomials of degrees 3 and 4
(C) (a + b)2(b – c)2(c + a)2
respectively, then what is the degree of f – g?
(D) (a – b)2(b – c)2(c + a)2
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