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What is the Difference between CFG and regular grammar?
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Pooja Mehta · Follow
Studied at Government Engineering College, Bhavnagar · 6y
How can a CFG (context free grammar)
Originally Answered: What is the Difference between CFG and regular grammar ? of regular expression be written?
Regular grammars are simpler and less productive than context-free grammars.
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Regular and context-free grammars differ in the types of rules they allow. The rules of context-
free grammars allow possible sentences as combinations of unrelated individual words (which
Chomsky calls "terminals") and groups of words (phrases, or what Chomsky calls "non-
terminals"). Context-free grammars allow individual words and phrases in any order and allow
sentences with any number of individual words and phrases. Regular grammars, on the other
hand, allow only individual words along with a single phrase per sentence. Furthermore,
phrases in regular grammars must appear in the same position in every sentence or phrase,
generated by the grammar. Because context-free grammars allow a wider range of rules than
regular grammars, they can generate a wider range of structures than regular grammars.
Regular grammars can generate only simple expressions consisting of strings of single,
structurally independent words. Context-free grammars are used in natural language
processing to generate and parse language data because they can capture many of the
defining features of human language, such as their potential for infinitely recursive structures.
Regular grammars, which generate only a subset of the expressions of context-free grammars,
are also used for natural language processing.
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Sourab Mandal · Follow

M.Sc. in Computer Science, Visva Bharati University, Santiniketan (Graduated 2018) · Updated 3y

Related What is the difference between regular grammar and linear grammar in
automata? Messages

If I say the difference in one sentence then it is:

All Regular Grammars are Linear Grammars but all Linear Grammars are not Regular
Grammars.

To answer the question let us first understand these grammars:

No messages
Context-free Grammar Connect with others on
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Linear Grammar &
conversation.
Regular Grammar
New message
Context-free Grammar 5

A grammar G = (V, T, S, P) is context-free if all productions in P have the form

A -> x

where A ∈ V and x ∈ (V ∪ T) * .

Note: All the notations and alphabets have the conventional meaning.

Linear Grammar

A linear grammar is a context-free grammar that has at most one non-terminal / variable in the
right hand side of each of its productions. (Having only λ or ɛ in the RHS also counts).

Regular Grammar

A grammar G = (V, T, S, P) is said to be right-linear if all productions are of one of the forms

A -> xB
A -> x

where A, B ∈ V and x ∈ T *.

Similarly,

A grammar G = (V, T, S, P) is said to be left-linear if all productions are of the form

A -> Bx
or A -> x.

A regular grammar is one that is either left-linear or right-linear.

Example

Now, consider the grammar G = ({S,A}, {a, b}, S, P) with productions:

S → aA
S → Sb
S→λ

This grammar is Context-free for sure. Since, LHS of the production consists of a variable and
the RHS consists of (V ∪ T) *.

This grammar is linear because it has at most one variable on the right.

But if you observe closely the productions are the combination of both left-linear and right-
linear grammar (1st and 2nd one respectively). So, it is not a regular grammar. It had to be
either left-linear or right-linear.

Always being either left or right linear doesn’t necessary mean that a grammar is regular.

Pumping Lemma is one technique by which it can be determined if a grammar is not regular.

References:

Buy An Introduction To Formal Languages And Automata Book Online at Low Prices in India

Context-free grammar - Wikipedia Messages

Linear grammar - Wikipedia

Regular grammar - Wikipedia

Thanks!
No messages
~Sourab
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Mike Mendis · Follow

Former Editor · Upvoted by David Edgar, lives in The United Kingdom (1964-present) and
Jeremy Whigham, lives in England (1947-present) · Updated 8y

Related Is US English grammar different from English grammar?

Originally Answered: Is American English grammar different than British English?
The differences between American and British English are mostly a matter of usage, and relate
to differences in vocabulary and idiomatic expressions—and, of course, pronunciation.
However, there are some minor grammatical differences as well that most people don't notice
as grammatical differences.

One such difference is the use of adjectives instead of adverbs in American English, as in "You
did good [adjective]" for "You did well [adverb]." In British English, "You did good" means "You
did a good deed," or "You did something beneficial" (in which case "good" is a noun). A similar
substitution of the adjective form for the adverb form appears in the use of "real" for "really."
So, it is quite common to hear Americans say: "You did real good," whereas in standard British
English, it would be: "You did really well."

Very similar to the substitution of adjectives for adverbs is the substitution of nouns for
adjective forms in American English. Thus, it is common in American English to hear people
speak of "a hook nose," whereas in British English, it is "a hooked nose." The adjective form is
created by adding the suffix "-ed" to the noun. As early as the nineteenth century, Mark Twain
observed this trend (and complained about it). He noted that Americans were talking about
"ice water" when they really meant "iced water." His complaint was that the two phrases meant
two different things. Americans did not pay heed to Mark Twain's complaint, and the trend has
continued—and it has, in fact, gathered steam since the nineteenth century. Today we hear and
read in American English of "mid-size cars," which in British English would be "mid-sized cars,"
and "outsize clothing" instead of "outsized clothing." Examples of this sort could be multiplied
by the dozen: "high heel shoes" for "high-heeled shoes"; "skim milk" for "skimmed milk";
Messages
"cream corn" for "creamed corn"; "middle age woman" for "middle-aged woman"; "fine
tooth comb" for "fine-toothed comb"; and on and on.

A very common difference is the formation of the past tense of some irregular verbs. The
tendency in American English is to use the past participle as the past tense form. Examples
would include "shrunk" as the past tense of "shrink" instead of "shrank" (as in the movie title
"Honey, I shrunk the kids" instead of "Honey, I shrank the kids") and "seen" as the past tense
of "see" instead of "saw" (as in "I seen it with my own eyes" instead of "I saw it with my own
eyes"). Another pattern involving the past tense is the use of the same form of the verb for
No messages
both past and present tenses. So, in American English, the past tense of "spit" is "spit,"
whereas in British English it is "spat." Similarly, Americans use "shit" instead of "shat" as the Connect with others on
past tense of "shit." Oddly enough, American English has chosen a more old-fashioned Quora by beginning a new
sounding past tense for "dive." Most Americans would say: "She dove into the pool," whereas in conversation.
British English, it would be "She dived into the pool." Similarly, Americans use "snuck" as the
past tense of "sneak," whereas the British use "sneaked." (These last two examples sit on the
borderline between grammar and usage. "Dove" and "snuck" are both American inventions.) It
is also worth noting that "drug" is appearing increasingly5 in American English as the past tense
of "drag," as in "He drug the body off the roadway so it could not be seen by anyone" in Van
Cotright's novel, Sugar in the Canefield. In British English, it would have to be "He dragged the
body ...."

Another grammatical difference is the use of the gerund instead of the infinitive in some
situations. For example, it is becoming increasingly common in American English to hear
people say "Nice meeting [gerund] you" when they are being introduced to another person,
whereas in British English, it would be "Nice to meet [infinitive] you." It should be pointed out
that "Nice meeting you" might be used in British English when a person is leaving after
meeting someone for the first time and after having had some sort of conversation. It is a
shortened from of "It was nice meeting you," and the gerund is used as a way of looking back
on the meeting, in contrast to the infinitive ("to meet") which looks forward to the meeting
that will immediately follow the introduction. In American English, this distinction does not
appear to exist.

Another difference is the tendency in American English to place predicative adjectives in the
attributive position. (Predicative adjectives are adjectives that appear only in the predicate of
the sentence, after a linking verb. The attributive position is the position just in front of a
noun.) For example, in American English it is quite common to hear something like: "You should
speak to the responsible person," whereas in British English, it would be: "You should speak to
the person responsible." This would be a shortened form of: "You should speak to the person
who is responsible." In British English, a distinction is made between "responsible person" and
"person responsible." A responsible person is a person who exhibits the quality of
responsibility, that is, who takes his or her responsibilities seriously and behaves in a
responsible manner. (This is one meaning of the word "responsible.") The person responsible is
the person who bears the responsibility for something, the one on whose shoulders the
responsibility rests, the one who is in charge and who will be blamed if things go wrong. (This is
another meaning of the word "responsible" and it is in this sense of the word that "responsible"
is a predicative adjective.) The difference is not an inconsequential one. Consider the
difference between "The responsible person will be punished" and "The person responsible
will be punished." In British English, if you are a "responsible person," you are not deserving of
punishment because you have exhibited a desirable quality (that is, you behave in a responsible
manner). But if you are the person responsible for a crime or a misdemeanour or a violation of
the rules, then you should indeed be punished.

Yet another grammatical difference is the tendency in American English to fuse words together
to form a single word that has no definite grammatical status. Two very common examples
are "anymore" and "underway." In British English, these are still (officially) "any more" and
"under way" (two separate words in each case). I will not go into an explanation of the
grammar involved in these expressions, since the explanation is long and involved. But I will say
that they do constitute a difference in grammar, not just in usage.

There are several other such grammatical differences between British and American English, but
these should suffice as examples.
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Stephen Johnson · Follow

Studied Communication & English (language) (Graduated 1998) · 2y

Related How can one differentiate formal grammar from formal grammar theory?
All grammar, whether it is instructional, prescriptive or linguistic, is theoretical.

Grammatical theory is in the domain of linguistics, there are many theories and they are
basically an attempt to explain the phenomena of language broadly enough to apply to the No messages
vast majority of known languages. None have completely succeeded in reaching this goal. My
Connect with others on
best guess is that a ‘formal grammar theory’ is one that is well developed and broadly accepted
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as valid (if not entirely successful). Many of the terms and concepts found in instructional and
conversation.
prescriptive grammars come from linguistic theory, but their application is not considered
formal grammar as they are not consistently applied and many concepts taught in English
grammar classes are borrowed from linguistics and mixed
5 with concepts from different

theories.

‘Formal grammar’ probably means the broadly accepted range of sentence forms used in
anything from academic, scientific and generally serious writing to speech in a serious setting
such as a business meeting, conference presentation, and so on. Formal grammar avoids casual
expressions like phrasal verbs, contractions, and colloquial language. What actually constitutes
acceptable formal grammar is often a matter of dispute.
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Mark Gritter · Follow

PhD dropout in Computer Science, Stanford University (Graduated 2006) · Upvoted by Justin Rising,
MSE in CS · Updated 1y

Related Is there more than one way to write CFG for a given CFL? I wrote a CFG
which gives me the correct answer but it is different from my professor's solution.
Yes, certainly. There is even more than one “normal form” for context-free grammars, and the
grammar satisfying each normal form is not unique either!

Finding the smallest CFG for a given context-free language consisting of just one string is an
NP-hard problem: see Smallest grammar problem - Wikipedia .

Worse, deciding whether two context-free grammars are the same language is an undecidable
problem, as is deciding whether a context-free grammar produces the language of all strings or
not.

As a concrete example, consider the context-free language of mathematical expressions

Messages
containing just 1, 2, +, and *. Like 1+2*2*2, or 1+2*2+1. We could parse these strings in
multiple ways, each corresponding to a different context-free grammar:

1+1*2*1 = 1+((1*2)*1)

1+1*2*1 = 1+(1*2*1))

1+1*2*1 = ((1+1)*2)*1

1+1*2*1 = (1+1)*(2*1) No messages

Here’s one way corresponding to the usual order of operations: Connect with others on
Quora by beginning a new
1 E := M | M '+' E  conversation.
2 M := D | D '*' M 
3 D := '1' | '2' 
Here’s another grammar that matches the same language
5 but with the “order of operations”

reversed:

1 E := S | S '*' E 
2 S := D | D '+' S 
3 D := '1' | '2' 

Both are right-associative but we could write left-associative versions too, or more complicated
grammars that parse in other ways.
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Yuval Feinstein · Follow

Freelance NLP, Machine Learning and Search Consultant · 6y

Related What is a context-free grammar?

A context free grammar is a model of a language.

It consists of several rules. A rule defines the replacement of a

symbol by another symbol.

In order to generate a sentence from the language,

you are allowed to apply one rule at a time. A rule does not depend on the context

(hence the context freeness).

For example: Here's a simple context free grammar. Every sentence in this language

is derived from the symbol S (i.e. Start). The meaning of each rule is:

if the left side appears in a phrase, it can be replaced by the right side.

(1) S->A

(2) A->big A

(3) A ->house

A sample derivation using this grammar is:

A (1)

big A (2)

big big A (2)

big big house (3) Messages

(every row shows which grammar rule was used to build it from the previous row).

As you can see, this language enables us to generate an infinite amount of sentences,

starting with many "big"s and ending with "house".

This is the base of context-free grammars.

There are ways (algorithms) to get from a sentence to its derivation, No messages
which are used in programming languages and in natural language processing. Connect with others on
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William Lazura · Follow

Studied Japanese for six years, live in Japan · 5y

Related What are some grammar differences between Japanese and Korean?
Unfortunately, I do not speak Korean. However, I did some digging.

Apparently, their “keigo” system is a little bit different. I found this article talking about the
differences between Korean and Japanese. https://www.ninjal.ac.jp/publication/ninjal-
f/pdf/ninjalF005_04.pdf

According to a woman teaching Korean in Japan, Koreans will handle a situation where they
have to talk about someone in their “in group” differently. In Japan, if you were a salaryman,
sitting in your office, and you got a call asking about your boss, you would respond like

「田中部長は今、席を外しております。」

Tanaka buchou wa ima, seki wo hazu… (more)

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Mark Gritter · Follow

Messages
PhD dropout in Computer Science, Stanford University (Graduated 2006) · Upvoted by Daniel R. Page,
Ph.D. Computer Science, University of Western Ontario (2019) · Updated 1y

Related What is the difference between PDA (pushdown automata) and CFG
(context free grammar)?
One attitude to take is that they are different formalizations of the same class of languages,
and there’s no significant difference. Indeed, we can always convert one into the other.

Another way to look at it is that they are very different sorts of things. A grammar looks like
this: No messages
Connect with others on
<nonterminal> -> <terminals and other nonterminals>
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<another nonterminal> -> <its expansion as terminals and nonterminals> conversation.

etc.
The CFG is a set of “production rules” that tells you how 5to transform strings. While we can
decide whether any given string is produced, that’s sort of implicit in the definition rather than
explicit. But, given a CFG we can easily run it in the forward direction to generate strings.

A pushdown automata is an abstract machine. It looks like a collection of states and transitions
between states, depicted as a table or graph.

State 1 input symbol B stack empty -> push symbol B and enter state 2

State 1 input symbol A stack B -> push symbol B and enter state 3

etc. These are not operating on a string of terminals and nonterminals, like the CFG, but on an
input string one symbol at a time.

It’s a very explicit way of deciding whether a string belongs to the language or not: just follow
along as the machine operates! (Unless it is nondeterministic, of course.) It’s less easy to
generate strings from the PDA than from a grammar.

Your question is sort of like asking “what is the difference between an abacus and a four-
function electronic calculator?” On the one hand, they are equally powerful in an abstract
theoretical sense. On the other, they look much different in practice. If you look at examples of
CFGs and of PDAs, they appear much different.
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Sirin Labidi · Follow

Legal Council at Banking (2016–present) · 3y

Related How does the grammar in Italian different from English?

Italian has 5 inflected tense forms: for the present, simple past, imperfect, future and Messages
conditional. The other tenses are formed with auxiliaries. The auxiliary do, however, has no
equivalent in Italian, which leads to mistakes such as: What you do? or I no like German food.

Italian does not use the perfect tenses to make a connection to the present in the same way
that English does. This results in problems such as I have done my homework on the bus. A
similar lack of correspondence in the use of tenses in the two languages leads to interference
errors such as: What will you do when you will … (more)
1
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Johnny Wilson · Follow Quora by beginning a new
Former writer and magazine editor (1973–1999) · 4y
conversation.
Related What is the difference between a new grammar and old grammar?
“Grammar” has two meanings: 1. The way a speaker puts together sounds to convey meaning.
This is an unconscious part of learning to talk, and most children have mastered its basics by
the age of five. 5

The second meaning of “grammar” is a description of the unconscious process described

above. There can be more than one way to describe a language, just as there can be more than
one way to write music (standard notation or tablature, for example.”
A major change in how English is described took place in the first half of the 20th century. Up
to that point, the grammatical descriptions used had bee… (more)
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Rosina Lippi · Follow

academic linguist · 8y

Related How similar and how different are German and English grammar ?
Originally Answered: How is the grammar of German and the grammar of English similar and how is it
different?
The primary difference between German and English grammar is this:

German nouns (1) have gender (male, female or neuter) and (2) articles and adjectives are
declined, which means that an ending is added that signals the relationship of the words to
each other in the meaning of the sentence. English lost 96 percent of such endings long ago,
and because of that, word order became inflexible. Better to demonstrate, I think.

The dog sees the man. > only one meaning here; the dog is the agent or subject, and 'man' is
the object being seen. If you want the man to see the dog, you have to change the word order.
'The man sees the dog.' In German, you do not have to change word order (you can, but you
don't have to); you change word endings.

Der Hund sieht den Mann. 'The dog sees the man.' The dog (der Hund) is here the agent or
noun, and thus is in nominative case, so the article stays unchanged. 'den Mann' is the
accusative form of 'der Mann' which makes that person the object, the thing being seen. To
change the meaning, you change the endings and not the word order:

Den Hund sieht der Mann. 'The man sees the dog'-- in this case, 'der Mann' is in the nominative
case, and so the article doesn't change, while 'der Hund' is in accusative case, and so the article
does change.

This is the simplest scenario. Endings depend on gender, case (nominative, accusative, dative,
genitive), singular or plural, and in some cases the verb will have an influence.

Because word order is so flexible in German, it sometimes confuses an English speaker who
doesn't pick up on the markers quickly enough. Look at these two sentences again next to each
other:

Der Hund sieht den Mann.

Den Hund sieht der Mann.

Completely different meanings.

And oddy enough, you can get sentences like this in German, Wenn Fliegen hinter Fliegen
fliegen fliegen Fliegen.

Which you might be able to interpret because nouns are capitalized. Fliegen = flies (plural
noun) fliegen = verb, third person plural. wenn = when; hinter = behind.
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Shivam Trivedi · Follow

teaching theory of computation from past 1 year · 5y

Related What is the difference between regular expression and regular grammar?
There is a concept of regular language in theory of computation. Regular language is
language which is accepted by finite automaton. Here finite automaton is a machine which
checks whether the language is regular or not. If given language is accepted by machine then
the language is regular. If not then language is not regular.

E.g. : compiler, it checks given source code and if any error is present in code it shows that
error.

Now, coming to your question.

Regular grammar: It is a generator of regular language. A language which should generate all
the strings from given language is called generator. For generating regular language we need
some rules and that are defined in grammar. Grammar is embedded in compiler to check given
source code.

Regular expression: It is representator of regular language. Regular expression is

mathematically represent by some expression called regular expression. Regular expression is
character sequence that define a search pattern.

Here i’m giving you one example which contains

R: Regular expression,

G: Regular grammar and

M: Deterministic finite automata. (Acceptor of regular language)

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Joe Devney · Follow

Professional writer and editor, Master's in Linguistics. · Upvoted by Marc Ettlinger, PhD, Linguistics, UC
Berkeley. · Updated 5y

Related What is the difference between descriptive and prescriptive grammar?

A descriptive grammar is built up by analyzing how speakers use a language, and deducing the Messages
rules they are following. A prescriptive grammar is a set of explicit rules for using language that
are taught, or enforced, so that people will use the language in a particular way. Typically the
rules are handed down from generation to generation. Both kinds of grammars have their
places in the world.

Linguists create descriptive grammars in order to understand language more deeply. They
understand that a single language can have multiple dialects, and that each dialect will have its
own grammatical rules--internally consistent, but perhaps different from other dialects of the
same language. The rules they deduce are sometimes more nuanced than the ones taught by No messages
prescriptivists. Connect with others on
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Prescriptivists include schoolteachers, copyeditors, and others charged with correcting people's
conversation.
use of the language. (Also some people who just have strong opinions on the topic.)
Prescriptivists start with the assumption that there is one "correct" way to use the language,
and many incorrect ways. The "correct" version is actually the language's prestige dialect,
especially its written version--for example, Standard American
5 English. To oversimplify a bit, the
"prestige dialect" of a language is generally the one used by educated people in the big cities.

Is there any danger of one replacing the other? I don't think so, for two reasons. First, they
serve different purposes. Prescriptivists enforce cultural cohesion through language. They help
keep the written language, at least, from changing too quickly, and they do their (sometimes
heavy-handed) best to make sure everyone they have influence over knows the rules for
"correct" grammar. No matter your station in life, it can be an advantage to be able to use the
prestige dialect in some situations. Descriptivists are not interested in enforcing rules, but in
discovering the rules and the patterns behind them, and comparing languages and dialects.
They do not consider some dialects as "substandard." Each is worthy of study.

The second reason I think one will not replace the other is that in one important area, they are
mostly in agreement anyway. A descriptivist grammar of a formal register of Standard American
English will be very much the same as what I learned from my grade school teachers. (There will
be some differences, though. If you want to see a heated discussion, bring up the topic of
"singular they" in a forum that includes both prescriptivists and descriptivists.)
166.8K views · View 108 upvotes · View 4 shares · Answer requested by Sakura Harono

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Michelle Eby · Follow

Studied Linguistics · Upvoted by Logan R. Kearsley, MA in Linguistics from BYU, 8 years working in
research for language pedagogy. · 4y

Related What are the differences between descriptive and prescriptive linguistics?
Simply put, prescriptive linguistics is the philosophy of people who believe that language
should be spoken in a given way. They are the people who complain about split infinitives and
using “they” as a gender neutral pronoun. The vast majority of linguists actually disagree with
this philosophy because it implies language doesn't and shouldn't change, which isn't true. Messages

Descriptive linguistics looks at how the language is being used with no judgement, seeking
only to understand how it works. Descriptive linguists are the ones who will insist, for example,
that African American Vernacular Englis… (more)
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Bistappayya Nadiger · Follow

50 5 and 2advisor. · 5y
Grammar teacher , guide No messages
What's the difference between traditional grammar and structural
Related Connect with others on
grammar? Quora by beginning a new
Traditional grammar treats the parts of speech as the building blocks for every sentence. conversation.
Words are labelled as belonging to one of the eight parts of speech.

Nouns, pronouns , adjectives etc.,

The word’s parts of speech depends upon its role or function
5 in a sentence.

Now look at the following examples .

We shall fight to the last. ( Noun)

We shall fight to the last man. ( Adjective )

The rain lasted for two hours. ( verb )

The child was found at long last.( Adverb )

Structural Grammar describes how sounds , word forms and word positions affect meaning .It
concerns itself with two meanings in each sentence , the lexical meaning and the structural
meaning. The lexical meaning is the dictionary meaning of the words .The structural meaning
comes from how the words are formed and where they are positioned in the sentence.

Let me explain with one example.

Now look at the following sentence.

The groby stils kraded mitly.

Note : Except ‘the’ all words are underlined by my computer. It means they have no dictionary
meaning .It reads like a sentence. According to structural grammar it has a structural meaning .
This means , the words in this sentence follow a familiar pattern.

‘Stil’ is recognised as a noun because it has a plural ending, -s and preceded by the article ‘the.’

‘Groby’ looks like an adjective. Its position is between an article and a noun.

‘Kraded ‘ looks like verb. By adding ‘ed’ in end position of this word , it indicates past form.

‘Mitly’ looks like an adverb as it ends with ‘ly’ the usual form of most adverbs.

Here is one more example.

The weary head wears a stylish crown.

After naming the pasts of speech elements ( as indicated inside the brackets ) we find this
sentence as follows.

The ( article ) weary ( past participle functioning as an adjective of manner ) head ( noun ) wears
( verb ) a ( article ) stylish ( adjective of quality ) crown. ( noun ) .

Adjective, noun , verb, are called content or form words.

Articles are called ‘function words’ which are used to connect words to one another. And show
how they relate to one another in a sentence.

Nouns , adjectives principal verbs, and adverbs are called content words.

Articles, personal and relative pronouns , auxiliary verbs , prepositions and conjunctions are
called grammatical words.
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Pratiksha Karbhari Garkar · Follow

1 Analyst at Aress Software and Education Technologies pvt Limited  (2021–present) · 1y
Data

Related What is the difference between regular grammar and context-free grammar
in the theory of computation?
Chomsky has divided grammar into 4 types:

1. Type 0: Unrestricted Grammer

2. Type 1: Context-Sensitive Grammar

3. Type 2: Context-Free Grammar

4. Type 3: Regular Grammer

Regular Grammer:

1. Type 3 grammar.

2. Recognizer Finite State Automata.

3. The restriction is More than any other grammar.

4. Rules Productions are of the form:

V –> VT / T (left-linear grammar)
(or)
V –> TV /T (right-linear grammar)

5. Example: S -> aS | bS | ∊

Context-free grammar:

1. Type 2 grammar.

2. Recognizer Push-down automata.

3. Restriction Less than Regular Grammar.

4. Rules Productions are of the form:

A->B;
A∈N(Non-Terminal)
B∈V*(Any string)

5. Example: S –> AB;A –> a;B –> b

Please 🙏 upvote my answers. Your one vote inspires me to share my knowledge with you all.
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John Kerpan · Follow

I 7full time Latin teacher and an avid reader. · 4y

Related What is the difference between generative grammar and descriptive

grammar?
These two terms describe different fundamental beliefs about how grammar works.

Generative Grammar: grammar is a fixed set of rules, and as long as you are following the
rules, you get grammatically correct sentences. If you break the rules, you no longer have
grammatically correct sentences.
— the main downside to this approach is it fails to account for the natural change of
languages, as well as begs the questions of who determines the rules.

Descriptive Grammar: grammar is a framework that humans use to convey meaning, and if
your audience understands what you mean, the grammar is correct. If they cannot, you need to
find a different way to say something.
— this has the downside of being very imprecise. If everyone has a slightly different idea of
how the language works based on how their social circle communicates, are they even
speaking the same language as another group who doesn’t understand what they are saying?

(These answers have been geared towards helping someone get the gist of these terms, but are
by no means technical or precise.)
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James Jones · Follow

2 1
M.S. from The University of Oklahoma (Graduated 1979) · 4y

Related What is regular grammar?

In a regular grammar, every production has one of the following forms:

A → aB No messages
A→a Connect with others on
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A→∊ conversation.

where A and B are nonterminal symbols, a is some terminal symbol, and ∊ is the empty string.
It’s been a long time since I studied formal languages, but I believe regular grammars are those
that can be recognized by finite state machines. 5

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José Zambon · Follow

4
Works at Self-Employment · 4y

Related What is the main distinction between universal and specific grammar?
According to Noam Chomksy human beings share a kind of hardwired code called principles
which govern languages and other set of codes, called parameters, that can change in the
process of language acquisition which in the end determine the different specific languages of
the world. Therefore, in Chomksyan theories of language Universal Grammar is the initial point
which allow humans to develop specific languages as they are exposed to these languages as
they grow.

For more…

http://linguistics.ucla.edu/people/hunter/ugrad-thesis/ling2680essay.pdf

also..

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Veronica Curlette · Follow

English teacher · 1y

Related What is the difference between useful grammar and useless grammar?
Grammar is a system (involving phonology, morphology, syntax, semantics and pragmatics),
that governs how a language is used by the majority of its native speakers in any one
geographic region.

So which grammar textbook rules are useful? The answer depends entirely on what you want to
do with the language and which textbook you are using.

I’m going to assume that you are an English language learner. (Not many native speakers of
any language really care about grammar rules because they know them or at least think they
do.)

If you need English to pass a state exam, you have to learn all the rules t… (more)

Val N · Follow
2 1
Certified Teacher of the Deaf · 3y

Related What's a determiner in grammar?

Determiners are words occurring right before a noun or a noun phrase which gives us more
information.

A noun is a person, place, thing or idea.

A noun phrase is a noun + a direct object OR an indirect object.

Messages
*If you are unsure as to what direct and indirect objects are, let me know in the comments, and
I’ll edit my response to include an explanation.

There are many types and examples of determiners. For more information on all of the types,
please check out:

Determiners: the, my, some, this - English Grammar Today - Cambridge Dictionary

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Christopher F Clark · Follow Connect with others on
Yacc++ author, Intel chip designer, ex-Googler · 3y Quora by beginning a new
Related What is the difference between context-free grammar and context-free conversation.
language?
First, let me give you the similarity. A context-free grammar
5 (CFG) always specifies a context-
free language (CFL). Thus, most people think they are the same and in some sense that is true.
For every CFL there exists a CFG.

However, here comes the difference. There are languages we can prove are context-free but for
which we don't know how to construct the appropriate context-free grammar. In fact, in many
cases we don't even know what sentences are in the language. That is we know the context-
free language exists and can specify it, but we don't know what sentences it actually describes.

So, if… (more)

Alvin Grissom II · Follow

4
MS in Computer Science, Emory University (Graduated 2009) · 9y

Related Where can you find a good explanation of context free grammar?
A context free grammar is one in which production rules are independent of the context. The
language described by the CFG is a Context-free language .

Every CFG production rule can be written as S->a, where S is a unique nonterminal symbol and
a is some combination of non-terminals or production rules. For example, the following is a
context-free grammar, as is any combination of the rules in isolation. I took this example from
Wikipedia.
Rule 1: S → aS a
Rule 2: S → bS b
Rule 3: S → ϵ
(Epsilon is the empty string.)

The following are examples of strings that may be constructed by this… (more)

Varna Sajee · Follow

4
5y

Related What is applied grammar? How is it different from grammar?

Originally Answered: What is applied grammer? How is it different from grammer?
[It's grammar* not grammer :)]

Grammar comprises the rules and the theory bit of it. But applied grammar involves actually
putting the rules into practice and using them while writing or speaking. For example, we learn
the usage of articles like ‘a’ , ‘the’ and ‘an’ in grammar. In applied grammar, we use those rules,
as in, we write- An apple a day keeps the doctor away.

David Dean · Follow

1
Studied at University of Oxford · 2y

Related What is anaphora in grammar?

Anaphora

The use of a word referring to a word used earlier in a text or conversation, to avoid repetition,
for example the pronouns he, she, it, and they and the verb do in I like it and so do they. OED

Humayra Khatun · Follow

5
2y Messages
Related What are the applications of context-free grammar?
Context-free grammars are used as basis for compiler design and implementation

Context-free grammars are used as specification mechanisms for programming languages

·
No messages
Designers of compilers use such grammars to implement compiler’s components, such as
Connect with others on
scanners, parsers, code generators, code synthesizers
Quora by beginning a new
· conversation.

The implementation of almost any programming languages is preceded by a context-free

grammar that specifies it.
 5

Mark Gritter · Follow

2
PhD dropout in Computer Science, Stanford University (Graduated 2006) · 1y

Related What is "alternative" in context-free grammar?

It is a allowable in a context-free grammar for a nonterminal to have more than one expansion.
For example, we might have a rule like this:

<digit> -> 0 | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 | 5 | 6 | 7 | 8 | 9

Each of the digits ‘0’, ‘1’, etc. is an “alternative”. Another way to write this is to list each
alternative as a separate rule:

<digit> -> 0

<digit> -> 1

<digit> -> 2

<digit> -> 3

The semantics of an alternative is that any one of the choices may be made, each time the
nonterminal is expanded. There is no requirement to either pick a different alternative each
time, or to pick the same alternative each time. It i… (more)

Martin Jansche · Follow

1
works with many languages · Updated Jan 7

Related What is the decidability of a context-free grammar?

A context-free grammar isn't the kind of thing which can be said to be decidable or not.

We can fix this question in multiple ways:

Every context-free language is decidable, in the sense that there exists a Turing
Machine which halts on every Input string with a determination of whether that string
is in the language or not.

There are many kinds of decision problems associated with context-free grammars.
Some decision problems for CFGs are decidable, some are not. The word problem for
CFGs (is this string in the language generated by this CFG?) is decidable. It is decidable
whether the language g

… (more)

Paul · Follow
1 3
Programmer by heart, engineer by title · 1y

Related If expr->expr op term|expr is a given grammar, can we convert the term into
a factor in CFG?
No. This grammar doesn't have any expansions that end up in a set of terminals (all expansions
don't change the number of nonterminals).

You could make a simple equivalent grammar as literally any grammar for the empty language.
Messages

Stanislav Semerikov · Follow

6
B.A. in Linguistics & Translation Studies, Ural State Pedagogical University · 6y

Related Is Russian grammar regular?

Russian grammar is highly organised and established. If you learn it well, you will be able to
freely build not only new sentences, but new words as well (much easier compared even to
English). There’s a lot to learn, but it’s definitely worth it. No messages
The only thing most people don’t like about the Russian grammar, is that it has a lot of Connect with others on
exceptions to most of the rules. But they are usually not as prominent in regular speech and Quora by beginning a new
memorising them is half the fun! conversation.
 5
Nelson Workman · Follow
2
Studied German Studies (Graduated 1970) · 5y

Related What are some differences between ASL grammar and English grammar?
If I remember, one differences is that adjectives in ASL follow nouns. Also, again it’s been a long
time, ASL uses a processing called indexing. In speech, when we’re talking about Tom, Dick, and
Harry, we use their names over and over. Someone who is signing will fingerspell “Tom” and
point to his thumb, then fingerspell “Dick” and point to his index finger, then “Harry” and point
to his middle finger. From then on, those fingers are “pronouns” and the signer simply points to
a finger depending on which person he’s talking about.

Someone please correct me if I’m wrong.

1 answer collapsed (Why?)

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