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1. The normal physiologic curves in children will become similar to that of an adult by the age of:
a. 16 c. 12
b. 8 d. 10
Answer: D
By this age, the physiologic curves of children will be similar to the adults.

2. In a full term baby, knee extension is incomplete by about:

a. 20 degrees c. 40 degrees
b. 10 degrees d. 30 degrees
Answer: A
20 degrees.

3. This route of the sound waves is fastest and used in normal hearing:
a. Fluid conduction c. ossicular conduction
b. Air conduction d. bone conduction
Answer: B
Air conduction hearing occurs through air near the ear, and it involves the ear canal and eardrum. Bone conduction
hearing occurs through vibrations picked up by the ear's specialized nervous system.

4. Which of the following statements is true of Metabolic Equivalents (MET)?

a. All of these
b. It is used to describe energy requirements
c. One MET is arbitrarily equal to the resting oxygen consumption of an individual
d. The average value at rest is 3.5 mL of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute
Answer: A
All of the following are correct and true about metabolic equivalents.

5. Procedures performed together to relieve pain by exercising the synovial membrane and removing diseased
cartilage, soft tissue and the bony enlargement from joints:
a. Menisectomy c. None of these e. Osteotomy
b. Arthrodesis d. Debridement and synovectomy
Answer: D

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6.
canal.
a. c. Canaliculus e. Lacuna
b. Lamellae d. None of these
Answer: A
Volkmann canals connect adjacent osteons and also connect the blood vessels of the Haversian canals with the

7. Using the athroscope and supplementary instruments, which of the following procedures can be performed?
a. Draining of a septic tank
b. Biopsy of synovial disorders
c. Removing loose foreign bodies and adhesions
d. All of these
e. Smoothing knee cartilage irregularities from chondromalacia patellae
Answer: D
All of the statements are correct regarding arthroscope.

8.
a. Oblique c. Spiral e. Linear
b. Transverse d. Spiral
Answer: B

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9. The following statements are true of arthroscopy, EXCEPT:

a. Particularly useful in diagnosing conditions, i.e., meniscal disorder and cruciate ligament injuries
b. Most useful in diagnosing conditions of the posterior and middle third of the medial meniscus
c. It is contraindicated for patients with a bleeding disorder
d. It is both a diagnostic procedure and treatment and involves very little knee trauma
e. The visual examination of the joint interior, using a fiberoptic lens instrument attached to a light source
Answer: B
Arthrogram is most useful in diagnosing conditions of the posterior and middle third of the medial meniscus.

Reference: Farrell, J. (1986). Illustrated guide to orthopedic nursing. Philadelphia: Lippincott.

10. These effects result in aerobic energy depletion in the early stages of heavy exercise:
a. Both of these c. Depletion of glycogen stores
b. Oxygen debt d. None of these
Answer: A
Both oxygen debt and depletion of glycogen level result in aerobic energy depletion in the early stages of heavy
exercise.

11. The following precautions must be observed when turning patients after internal fixation, EXCEPT:
a. e the incision site
b.
c. Pain medication must be taken 15-20 minutes before turning
d. Alternating from side to side helps promote good circulation
e. As the patient turns, support affected leg in adduction and once repositioned, keep hip and knee elevated on
pillows in a higher plane as the unaffected leg

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Answer: E
After internal fixation of the hip, certain precautions are observed:
No hip flexion beyond 90 degrees
No hip ADDUCTION beyond midline
No hip internal/external rotation
No hip active abduction

12. An intramedullary rod or screw plate is an internal fixation device used in this fracture type:
a. Tibia fracture d. Subtrochanteric (femoral) fracture
b. Femoral shaft fracture e. Trochanteric (femoral) fracture
c. Upper extremity fracture
Answer: B
Intramedullary nailing (IMN) is the gold standard of treatment for femoral shaft fractures. Early definitive treatment in
systemically stable patients within 24 to 48 hours reduces the incidence of pulmonary complications, infection rates,
and mortality. Hemodynamically stable patients with multiple injuries received the most benefit from early fixation.
Delayed treatment increases pulmonary complications in up to 56% of patients compared to only 16% of patients
treated early.

13. Intense discomfort that usually accompanies an injury or inflammation, may immobilize the patient:
a. Phantom pain d. Acute pain
b. Chronic pain e. Superficial pain
c. Referred pain
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Answer: D
Acute pain usually comes on suddenly and is caused by something specific. It is sharp in quality. Acute pain usually
there is no longer an underlying cause for the pain. Phantom
limb pain refers to ongoing painful sensations that seem to be coming from the part of the limb that is no longer there.
The limb is gone, but the pain is real. Chronic pain is pain that is ongoing and usually lasts longer than six months. This
type of pain can continue even after the injury or illness that caused it has healed or gone away. Pain signals remain
active in the nervous system for weeks, months or years. Referred pain is when the pain you feel in one part of your
body is actually caused by pain or injury in another part of your body. Superficial pain arises from nociceptive receptors
in the skin and mucous membranes. For example, if you cut your lip, this pain is called superficial somatic pain.
Superficial somatic pain is the type of pain that happens with common everyday injuries and is characterized as pricking,
sharp, burning, or throbbing pain.

14. Delayed union is a fracture complication wherein callus formation is retarded, so the fracture fails to mend
within the normal healing time. Factors contributing to this complication include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Inadequate fracture manipulation
b. Defective metabolism, especially protein metabolism
c. Infection of the fractured bone
d. Vitamin E deficiency
e. Infection of the surrounding tissues (as in open fracture)
Answer: D
Vitamin D deficiency can be the contributing factor on delayed union fracture.

15. Continuous standing, particularly on a hard surface, can cause fatigue and stress on the back, legs and feet.
Improvements in workstation design include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Opportunities to change positions, move around, or alternate between sitting or standing
b. Feet must remain flat on the floor
c. Provide cushioned in soles
d. Provide anti-fatigue mats or other floor materials which provides cushioning
e. Provide stools or sit-lean stands
Answer: B
The feet must have protective equipment such as cushioned in soles and anti-fatigue mats or other floor materials
which provide cushioning to prevent fatigue and stress.

16. Which hip-repair surgical procedure is indicated for pain in early stages of degenerative joint disease before
motion has been lost?
a. Double-cup arthroplasty
b. Femoral Prosthesis
c. Muscle Release
d. Arthrodesis
e. Displacement Osteotomy
Answer: A
This defines Double-cup arthroplasty.

17. Following are true of macrotrauma, EXCEPT:

a. Results injuries repetitive injury
b. Direct injuries result in a joint-closing (compression) type of injury
c. Results from an injury of a magnitude that causes immediate clinical signs and symptoms
d. Indirect macrotraumatic mechanisms include joint distraction and rotation or transmitted torque
e. A single-incident injury manifested by strain or sprain or contusion
Answer: A
MICROTRAUMA results from repetitive injuries.

18. The following statements apply to halo skeletal traction, EXCEPT:

a. This is applied to reduce or immobilize stable cervical fractures of dislocations
b.
c. None of these
d. Permitting mobility is an advantage of halo traction over other forms, reducing respiratory and circulatory
problems and muscle atrophy
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e. Because the pins penetrate the skull only about 1/8+, skin incisions and drill holes are not necessary, reducing
the risk of infection
Answer: C
All statements are TRUE about halo skeletal traction.
The halo head attachment and accompanying torso vest are applied by the doctor to reduce or immobilize stable
cervical fractures or dislocations.
The halo's a metal ring that's secured around the patient's head by four pins, two anterior and two posterior (see
illustration). These pins penetrate the skull about 16", and don't require skin incisions and drill holes needed for some
cervical spine traction.
Permitting mobility is halo traction's primary advantage over other forms of skeletal traction . It allows the patient to sit,
stand, and walk. Giving the patient freedom from strict bed confinement reduces the risk of respiratory and circulatory
problems, as well as muscle atrophy.
Reference: Working with orthopedic patients. (1983). Springhouse, Pa: Intermed Communications.

19. The goal of postural regulation is to stabilize the head with respect to the vertical. The following statements
describe this stabilization concept, EXCEPT:
a. None of these
b. Predetermined response appears to be formed through experience with self-initiated goal-directed activity
c.
anticipatory postural actions
d. Geocentric frame of reference enable anticipation or prediction of center of force displacements that are
induced by voluntary motion
e. Corrections of head position occur in advance of a voluntary change in body position
Answer: C
SENSORY INPUT is used
anticipatory postural actions.

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20. The following statements are true in supracondylar and condylar fracture, EXCEPT:
a. Traction is treatment of choice
b. Traction is not indicated in this type of fracture
c.
d. Rod, nail, plate or screws may be used as internal fixation device
e. Internal fixation carries risk of damage to the sciatic or popliteal artery
Answer: B
Traction is the TREATMENT OF CHOICE for supracondylar and condylar fractures.
Traction is treatment of choice, because internal fixation carries risk of damage to sciatic nerve or popliteal artery.
Howeve
Internal fixation devices include rod, nail, plate, or screws.
Reference: Working with orthopedic patients. (1983). Springhouse, Pa: Intermed Communications.

21. Inhibitive ankle-foot orthosis are used in children with spastic cerebral palsy for the following reasons,
EXCEPT:
a. Inhibit or decrease abnormal reflexes in the lower extremity by protecting the foot from tactile-induced reflexes
b. Normalize movement of trunk, pelvis and lower extremity in standing and during gait
c. Decrease spasticity by prolonged stretch and pressure on the tendons of the triceps surae muscle and too
flexors
d. Change in bony alignment of the foot and ankle
e. Prevent excessive ankle plantar flexion and improve lower extremity muscle timing
Answer: D
Inhibitive ankle-foot orthosis are not indicated for changes in bony alignment of the foot and ankle, it is indicated for
muscle problems/spasticity. For this condition, surgery is most likely indicated.

22. On a full-term, healthy newborn infant, gentle rubbing on one cheek elicits a response that deviates his mouth
to that side. This is called:
a. Asymmetric Tonic Neck Reflex
b. Moro Reflex
c. Symmetric Tonic Neck Reflex
d. Rooting Reflex
e. Sucking Reflex
Answer: D
The rooting reflex is one of the involuntary primitive motor reflexes, which are also known as the frontal release reflexes,

touched or stroked, the newborn will turn his or her head towards the stimulus and open the mouth with tongue thrusting.
The rooting reflex is present at birth (approximately 28 week gestation) and lasts about 4 to 6 months until the frontal
lobe of the cerebral cortex develops and suppresses the primitive motor reflexes.

23. Transfer training after open reduction internal fixation are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. If the lower extremities are too weak or painful to be lifted as transfer progresses, wheelchair leg rests are fully
elevated to maintain a long sitting position with the knees extended
b. The subject is instructed to push with the arms on the supporting surface in order to raise the hips and begin
moving to the transfer surface
c. Depending on the comfort and ease of the transfer, transfer training may be accomplished with or without a
sliding board
d. Subjects do not practice wheelchair mobility
e. Legs are pulled along with the hips as subjects move
Answer: D
For patients with ORIF, they MUST practice wheelchair mobility.

24. A spot within a muscle, ligament, tendon or periosteal tissue, that elicits a localized rather than referred pain
to adjacent areas upon sustained stimulation:
a. Tender point d. trigger point
b. Stimulation point e. motor point
c. Acupuncture point
Answer: A

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Tender points are areas of pain around joints, but not in the joints themselves. These places hurt when you press on
them. They are
scattered over the neck, back, chest, elbows, hips, buttocks, and knees.

25. The following statements described the Hassis Infant Neuromotor Test (HINT), EXCEPT:
a.
b. Aimed at identifying early motor deficits and early signs of cognitive delay in infants at risk
c. Spans an age range of 3 to 12 months
d. Designed to examine differences in motor behavior, specifically posture and antigravity control
e. Was developed to provide a reliable and valid neuromotor screening tool for early identification of
neurodevelopment handicaps in high-risk infants
Answer: D
This statement does not define HINT.

26. Which of the following processes in early ambulation after fixation does not apply?
a. To bring the patient to a chair from a standing position, flex your knees and hips and slowly lower her into the

b. To assist the patient into a standing position, move in close and grasp the patient under her arms, allowing
the patient to hold you around your neck
c. Obtain a straight-
unaffected side
d. To bring the patient back to into bed from a chair, slide the chair so its braced against the bed, have the patient
bend forward from the hips and flex the knee of the unaffected leg at a 90 angle
e. To bring your patient to a sitting position on the bed, first raise the head of the bed to 300, have the unaffected
leg flexed at a right angle, and the affected leg partially flexed
Answer: B
To assist the patient into standing position, move in close and grasp the patient under her arms. NEVER ALLOW her
to hold you around your neck.
Take these preliminary steps: Obtain a straight-backed, relatively high chair with arms. Place it close to the bed, on

her to do so if it causes pain. Next, have her push herself up by placing her palms against the mattress. Then, place
one arm behind her..
Flex your knees and hips, if she can continue, move in close to her and grasp her under her arms. Important: Never
allow her to hold you around your neck. Stabilize her by bracing one of your legs against her unaffected leg. You may

Flex your knees and hips, ask the patient to reach for the armrests, and then assist him in lowering himself slowly into
the chair.
Reference: Working with orthopedic patients. (1983). Springhouse, Pa: Intermed Communications.

27. Home exercise program following open reduction internal fixation include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Basic ROM and strengthening exercises to prevent contracture and reduce atrophy while non ambulatory
b.
c. Subjects perform isometric exercises, ROM exercises, and upper extremity exercise until fatigued
d. Even as pain increases or weakness develops, full active ROM must be performed
e. -weight bearing
status
Answer: D
Many subjects had difficulty with full active ROM because of increased pain or weakness. GENTLE ACTIVE-ASSISTED
EXERCISES, therefore, were often PERFORMED, AS TOLERATED. RESISTIVE EXERCISES were NOT
non-weight-bearing status.

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Reference: Hakim, R. M., Gruen, G. S., & Delitto, A. (1996). Outcomes of patients with pelvic-ring fractures managed
by open reduction internal fixation. Physical therapy, 76(3), 286-295.

28. As part of an overall ergonomics program, a variety of administrative practices can be used effectively, but
must not be used instead of considering engineering improvements. Following are some accepted recommendations,
EXCEPT:
a. Subdivision of labor d. Job rotation
b. Exercise e. Work/Rest Schedule
c. Workload reduction
Answer: B
Exercise is not included as an engineering improvement. Engineering improvements mostly pertain to work an
workplace modifications.

29. These cardinal signs characterized inflammation, EXCEPT:

a. Edema
b. Rubor
c. Pain
d. Heat
e. No disturbance of function
Answer: E
Cardinal signs of inflammation:
Rubor - redness
Calor - heat
Dolor - pain
Tumor - swelling
Functio laesa loss/disturbance of function

30. Fracture of a long bone, i.e. a femur may cause traumatic hemorrhage even if the break is closed. Which of
the following statements does not apply:
a. Blood loss may eventually cause hypovolemic shock
b. None of these
c. Within 24-48 hours, as much as 1 to 2 liters (2 to 4 units) of blood may accumulat
d. Increasing ecchymosis of his injury
e. Laboratory tests may show decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit
Answer: B
All statements are correct.
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31. When other forms of reconstructive hip surgery have failed, and the patient still suffers incapacitating pain, a
total hip replacement may be performed. The following statements are true, EXCEPT:
a. It is contraindicated on patients with history bone infection
b. life span is uncertain
c. The prosthesis is considered total because the both joint components are replaced
d. After total hip replacement, no activities are prohibited
e. The procedure usually restores joint movement and stability, allowing the patient to ambulate without severe
pain
Answer: D
After internal fixation of the hip, certain precautions are observed:
No hip flexion beyond 90 degrees
No hip adduction beyond midline
No hip internal/external rotation
No hip active abduction

32.
care, EXCEPT:
a. Keep the affected leg facing front at all times whether sitting, lying or walking
b. Legs must not be crossed legs whether lying, sitting or standing
c. Place a pillow between the legs when lying in unaffected side, with the affected leg uppermost
d. Patient may reach down to the end of the bed to pull covers
e. Never turning hip or knee inward or outward
Answer: D
This movement Is prohibited because this motion promotes hip flexion beyond 90 degrees.

33. A form of tendon inflammation that occurs when a muscle/ tendon unit is repeatedly tensed:
a. Epicondylitis
b.
c. Tendinitis
d. stenosing tenosynovitis
e. tenosynovitis
Answer: C
Tendinitis is a condition where the connective tissues between your muscles and bones (tendons) become inflamed.
Often caused by repetitive activities, tendinitis can be painful. It commonly happens in the elbow, knee, shoulder, hip,
Achilles tendon and base of the thumb. Tendinitis is also called tendonitis.

34. Epidemiological studies have established some risk factors for work-related low back pain and include the
following, EXCEPT:
a. Vibration
b. Movements into inner ranges of motion such as stretching or reaching heavy-materials handling
c. Prolonged posture of sitting or standing
d. Requirements of lifting, pushing, pulling, bending and twisting
e. Repetitious work, poor management employee relations and new employment status
Answer: B
The statement is not considered as a risk factor for work-related low back pain.

35. The following conditions can result from excessive and repetitive end-range motions, excessive force, and
stretching leading to chronic soft tissue inflammation, muscle spasm and postural imbalance, EXCEPT:
a. Repetitive sprain injuries
b. None of these
c. Cumulative trauma disorders
d. Repetitive strain injuries
e. Repetitive motion injuries
Answer: A

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36. As part of an overall ergonomics program, a variety of administrative practices be used effectively, but must
not be used instead of considering engineering improvements. Following are some accepted recommendations,
EXCEPT:
a. Work/Rest schedule
b. Exercise
c. Job rotation
d. Workload reduction
e. Subdivision of labor
Answer: B
Exercise is not included as an engineering improvement. Engineering improvements mostly pertain to work an
workplace modifications.

37. Management following open reduction internal fixation of the pelvis include the following, EXCEPT:
a.
b. Physical therapy is initiated to begin transfer and exercise training with the subjects
c. Subjects are expected to be able to perform a home exercise program prior to hospital discharge
d. Subjects are maintained on bed rest for 1 to 2 days
e. Short-term goals include independence with transfer and wheelchair mobility
Answer: A

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38. Included among the types of irregular bone are the following:
a. Sesamoid d. Carpals
b. Wormian e. Sesamoid and wormian
c. None of these
Answer: B
Wormian bones are abnormal ossicles that develop from extra ossification centers within the cranium. They are most
frequently located in the lambdoid suture or the coronal suture, and have been seen in the fontanelles, particularly the
posterior fontanelle. It is unclear at this time exactly how or why they are formed, although genetic as well as
environmental factors have been proposed.

39. Characteristic findings in the diagnosis of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo includes the following,
EXCEPT:
a. A latency of 1 or more seconds after the head is moved into the provoking position before the onset of the
vertigo and nystagmus
b. Continued nystagmus and a recurrence of vertigo when the person returns to a sitting position
c. Decreased intensity of the vertigo with repeated movement of the person into the provoking position
d. Characteristic nystagmus
e. A gradual reduction in the vertigo and nystagmus with a duration of less than 60 seconds
Answer: B

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40. The following assumptions on mechanical pain threshold (MPTh) are true, EXCEPT:
a. MPThs are perceived differently by male subjects than female subjects
b. Women have lower MPThs than do men
c. MPThs do not differ in different body regions
d. There is no gender difference in MPTh with pressure applied at the top of the index finger proximal to the nail
e. There is positive correlation between age and MPTh
Answer: C

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41. The following statements are true of the hinged type of total knee prosthesis, EXCEPT:
a. Rotation places a great stress on the prosthesis/bone interfaces which will eventually loosen
b. Indicated for completely destroyed knee joint
c. Includes a hinge, which functions on one axis, and the hinged pieces are continually articulated
d. Patient must have functioning ligaments in the knee
e. Long, thin intermedullary portions hold the prosthesis in place, without the aid of methyl mathacrylate
Answer: D
The hinged type of total knee prosthesis is indicated for a completely destroyed knee joint or NON FUNCTIONING
ligaments.

42. In Moro reflex, when the infant is held in supine and the head is gently, but abruptly, allowed to drop in partial
hyperextension, the following response is observed, EXCEPT:
a. The legs flex slightly
b. Deviates his mouth to a lateral side
c. The hips abduct but to a lesser degree than the arms
d. The arms return forward over the body in a clasping maneuver
e. The arms briskly abduct and extend while the hands open
Answer: B
This response is present on rooting reflex.

43. In a workplace, an issue closely related to heights is difficulty with reaches. Following are some
recommendation to improve on material handling ergonomics problem, EXCEPT:
a. Increase dimensions of the work surface
b. Smaller lot sizes
c. Tilt the work surface
d. Provide containers with removable sides
e. Provide cut-outs in the work surface
Answer: A
Increasing the dimensions of the work surface will not improve on material handling regonomics problem.

44. Nonunion may occur with internal fixation. When this happens, the bone fragments may be stimulated with
electrical current. Which of the following statements does not apply?
a. The electrodes may be implanted either by open incision or percutaneously, using a hand drill
b. The electricity applied either through magnetic coils placed on the skin at the fracture site, or through implanted
electrodes
c. Electrical bone stimulation substitutes for normal piezoelectric effect, in which mechanical stress on a solid
object induces electrical activity
d. A weak current of 20 microamperes is transmitted, because higher level would cause tissue necrosis and a
lower level could fail to stimulate osteogenesis
e. In alternating current stimulation of the bone, electronegativity appear to have the same osteoblastic
simulating effect
Answer: E
When bone is stimulated by a DIRECT CURRENT, electronegativity appears to have the same osteoblast stimulating
effect.

remove the internal fixation and perform a bone graft. Or he may stimulate the bone fragments with electrical current.
(In this case, the internal fixation device may not need to be removed.)
Electrical bone stimulation substitutes for normal piezoelectric effect, in which mechanical stress on a solid object
induces electrical activity. In healthy bones, exercise produces electrical stimulation, making the bones grow. However,
when bone is stimulated by direct current, electronegativity appears to have the same osteoblast stimulating effect.
The electricity's applied either through magnetic coils placed on the skin at the fracture site, or through implanted
electrodes directly into bone tissue powered by a battery (which may or may not also be implanted). The electrodes
may be implanted either by open incision, or percutaneously, using a hand drill.
Percutaneous insertion avoids the problem often associated with extensive surgery. Infection rarely occurs with this
implantation method. Also, an internal fixation device may rema

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The battery transmits a weak current (20 microamperes from each cathode) to the bone. This current is so weak that
necrosis. A lower level could fail to stimulate
osteogenesis.
Reference: Working with orthopedic patients. (1983). Springhouse, Pa: Intermed Communications.

45. The following statements are true of arthrography, EXCEPT:

a. The visual examination of the joint anteriorly
b. The X-ray examination of a joint following injection of radiopaque dye
c. Most useful in diagnosing conditions of the posterior and middle third of the medial meniscus
d. A strictly diagnostic procedure
e. The only contraindication for this procedure is allergy to an iodine-based dye
Answer: E
There are MULTIPLE contraindications for arthrography. Contraindications for MR arthrography include pre-existing
infection, reflex sympathetic dystrophy and possibly bleeding disorders, avascular necrosis and known allergy to
contrast media.

46. If a 15 kilogram force is applied over an area of three square centimeters, the pressure (in kilograms per
square centimeter) is equal to:
a. None of these c. 3
b. 5 d. 7
Answer: B
Kilograms/square centimeter = pressure
15kg/3cm2 = 5

47. The following statements apply to osteomyelitis, EXCEPT:

a.
the bone
b. The intramedullary abscess generally forms at the tip of a long bone where it exerts pressure inside the bone
c. Accompanied by lowered ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate), leukocytosis, and presence of causative
organism in wound or blood culture
d. Occasionally, the new bone will surround the sequestrum completely in an attempt to heal the area, detaching
the sequestrum completely and requires surgical removal
Answer: C
A patient with osteomyelitis would have ELEVATED ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate).

48. The following statements characterize Moro reflex, EXCEPT:

a. Absence of the response in the neonate definitely indicates brain disease
b. It is normally present from birth until age 3-4 months
c. Loss of the reflex previously present is one of the early signs Kernicterus
d. Is indicative of a significant cerebral disorder if present beyond six months
Answer: A
Elicitation of the Moro reflex should be part of the examination of any newborn or young infant. It is normally present
from birth until age 3-4 months. The intensity of the response gradually abates in the normal infant. Persistence of the
Moro reflex in the term infant after 4 months of age raises suspicion of neurologic disease. Its presence beyond 6
months is indicative of a significant cerebral disorder. Loss of the reflex previously present is one of the early signs of
Kernicterus.
Reference: Van, A. M. W. (1971). Pictorial manual of neurologic tests. Chicago: Year Book Medical Publishers.

49. The hip-repair surgical procedure involves removal of a bone wedge to shift weight-bearing stresses away
from degenerated cartilage onto healthy cartilage. A blade plate may be inserted for secure fixation and early
ambulation.
a. Arthrodesis d. Femoral Prosthesis
b. Muscle Release e. Double-cup arthroplasty
c. Displacement Osteotomy
Answer: C

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50. The following statements allow soft tissue palpation of certain structures, EXCEPT:
a. The pulse of the brachial artery can be felt directly medial to the biceps tendon
b. Have the subject make a fist as resistance is offered to the dorsum of his hand to accentuate the extensor
carpi radialis longus and brevis
c. If the subject places his closed fist (in supination) under the edge of a table and tries to lift the table, the
Brachioradialis tendon and its muscle belly becomes accessible for palpation
d. To make the brachioradialis more prominent for palpation, have the subject close his fist, place in neutral
position under the edge of a table then lift up against the weight of the table.
Answer: C
If the subject places his closed fist (in supination) under the edge of a table and tries to lift the table, the BICEPS
BRACHII tendon and its muscle belly becomes accessible for palpation.

51. Fat embolism is a common complication of long-bone fractures or surgery, or multiple fractures. The following
statements apply to fat embolism, EXCEPT:
a. Does not affect the central nervous system
b. If signs and symptoms worsen, the patient may require endotrachial intubation and mechanical ventilation
c. Severe cases may lead to coma and death, however, signs and symptoms may remain subtle and undetected
d. Signs and symptoms usually occur within 24 to 72 hours following fracture or surgery, but may appear to 7 to
10 days after it.
e. An accumulation of fat particles (emboli) which obstruct blood blow and cause inflammatory reactions around
affected blood vessels.
Answer: A
Fat embolism syndrome (FES) is defined as an uncommon life-threatening disease process consisting of pulmonary,
central nervous system (CNS), and cutaneous manifestations. Cerebral fat embolism should be considered in
traumatically injured patients with unexplained decline in their neurologic examination.

52. The following statements apply to micro trauma, EXCEPT:

a. May be caused by abnormal forces that occur about the knee, i.e., unaccustomed walking on particularly
uneven terrain.
b. May be caused by abnormal biomechanics of the lower extremity kinetic chain, i.e., when excessive
compensatory pronation causes excessive medial transverse plane rotations at the knee
c. A series of inflammatory reactions to submaximal loading that eventually produces clinical signs and
symptoms
d. May be caused by excessive normal forces (overuse syndrome) about the knee, i.e., the different
biomechanical forces that occur during walking, jogging, and running
Answer: A
Normal forces about the knee, such as produced by walking, can cause an inflammatory response at the knee if the
person is not accustomed to the amount of walking or to walking on particularly uneven terrain.

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53. The hip-repair surgical procedures replaces the degenerated femoral head with an intramedullary prosthesis:
a. Muscle Release d. Displacement Osteotomy
b. Arthrodesis e. Double-up arthroplasty
c. Femoral Prosthesis
Answer: C
The proximal femoral prosthesis is inserted into the femur after cutting the femoral neck to fit, and preparing the
medullary canal. The canal can be shaped so that the prosthetic stem fits snugly, but without great stability (press-fit).
Stability can be increased by using a smaller stem than the canal and anchoring it with methyl-methacrylate cement.
Proper cement insertion improves stability. It typically includes use of a femoral plug and pressurized injection of a
more fluid cement. These measures also reduce the risk of cement failure.

54. The following signs and symptoms generally accompany a fracture, EXCEPT:
a. Deformity but no shortening in the injured area
b. Decreases of complete loss of muscle power in the injured area
c. Localized discoloration and edema
d. Presence of grafting sound when testing for ROM during assessment
e. Presence of crepitation during skin palpation
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Answer: A
A broken leg bone can lead to a limb length discrepancy if it heals in a shortened position. This is more likely to happen
if the bone was broken into many pieces. It is also more likely to happen if the skin and muscle tissue around the bone
were severely injured and exposed, as occurs in an open fracture. 2In a child, a broken bone sometimes grows faster
for several years after healing, causing it to become longer than the bone on the opposite side. This type of overgrowth
occurs most often in young children with femur (thighbone) fractures.

55. The following statements are true of balanced suspension traction, EXCEPT:
a. A hammock or splint, such as a Thomas splint with Pearson attachment is an example of this type of Traction
b. The weight that suspends the affected extremity is greater than the weight of the counter traction being applied
c. This assembly allows more range of motion than other forms of traction without affecting the line of traction
pull
d. Most commonly used to support leg injuries such as femoral fractures with displacement, and nonaligned bone
fragments
e. This assembly promotes neurovascular integrity by decreasing prolonged pressu
leg.
Answer: B
The weight that suspends the affected extremity must be EQUAL to the weight of the counter traction being applied.

56. External fixation is considered as an alternative for the following reason:

a. Internal fixation might increase soft tissue damage because of the surgical procedure involved
b. All of these
c.
fracture
d. Bone fragments in comminuted fract
e. Traction would reduce and immobilize the area securely, but would place the patient at great risk of immobility
complications.
Answer: B
All of the statements are correct.

57. The following is true in a nonunion fracture complication, EXCEPT:

a. To improve circulation, holes may be drilled near the fracture site and bone grafting may be performed to
supply bone tissue
b. A pseudarthrosis may form at the fracture site, causing excessive joint mobility
c. There may be increased joint motion proximal and distal to the fracture site
d. May be treated with an orthotic device in combination with increased activity to improve blood supply to the
site
e. There may be gradual muscle atrophy, and pain with weight bearing
Answer: D
Nonunion fracture describes the failure of a fractured bone to heal and mend after an extended period of time.

58. The Problem Oriented Medical Record is a system based on the following, EXCEPT:
a. Identification of a specific treatment plan
b. Assessment of the effectiveness of the treatment plans
c. Preparation of the informed consent
d. Formation of present and past information about the patient
e. Development of a specific, current problem
Answer: C
Preparation of the informed consent is not a component of the Problem Oriented Medical Record.

59. If the tendon surface become irritated and rough, and if the sheath becomes inflamed and continues to press
on the tendon, the following condition may be diagnosed:
a. Tendinitis d. Tenobursitis
b. Epicondylitis e. Cystitis
c. Stenosing tenosynovitis
Answer: C

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Trigger finger is also known as stenosing tenosynovitis. It occurs when inflammation narrows the space within the
sheath that surrounds the tendon in the affected finger. If trigger finger is severe, your finger may become locked in a
bent position.

60. Licenses of registered physical and occupational therapists shall be renewed upon presentation of credit units
earned in the past three years totaling
a. 30 credit units d. 60 credit units
b. 50 credit units e. 80 credit units
c. 70 credit units
Answer: D
60 credit units.

61. Facial expression is an age-related change that may affect expressive communication in the elderly. The

result of
a. Pessimistic outlook over the years
b. Significant loss of fat in the muscle fibers of the face
c. Denervated facial nerve
d. None of these
e. All of these
Answer: B
One of the effects of aging is significant loss of fat in the muscle fibers of the face. Other choices are causes of lesions.

62. The Act known as the Philippine Physical and Occupational Therapy Law, creating the board of examiners for
PT and OTs is known as Republic Act No.
a. 8066 d. 8056
b. 5680 e. 5690
c. 5670
Answer: B

63. Resolution No. 381, Series of 1995 standardized the guidelines and procedures for the implementation of the
continuing professional education program, which includes the following, EXCEPT:
a. The CPEC is composed of a chairman, from the members of the PRB, and two members, the first is the
president of the PPTA and OTAP, the second is the president of the Association of PT and OT Schools
b. The Continuing Professional Education (CPE) Council for PT and OT assists its corresponding Professional
Regulatory Board (PRB) for PT and OT in implementations CPE program.
c. The CPEC does not accept, approve applicants for accreditation of CPE providers
d. The term of office of the chairman of each CPE council is co-terminus with his/her incumbency in the PRB.
e. The term of office of the first and second member is co-terminus with his/her incumbency as officer of their
respective organizations.
Answer: C

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 academicians.

All members of the CPE/CPD APK Council

MSCI shall be appointed by the Commission and shall take
MODULE
their oath of office before
PLPanyPT
or BOARD
all member/sREVIEW
of the Commission.

C. Powers and Functions of CPE/CPD Council

Each CPE/CPD Council shall, upon a majority vote if its members, exercise powers and
functions which shall include, but not be limited, to the following:

1. Accept, evaluate, and approve applications for accreditation of CPE/CPD providers;

2. Accept, evaluate, and approve applications for accreditation of CPE/CPD programs,
activities or sources as to their relevance to the profession and determine the
number of CPE/CPD credit units to be earned on the basis of the contents of the
program, activity or source as submitted by the CPE/CPD provider;
3. Accept, evaluate, and approve applications for exemptions from CPE/CPD
requirements;
64.
4. Monitor periodically the implementation of programs, activities or sources;
Disinfection is a process distinct from sterilization. The following statements are true, EXCEPT:
a.
b.
5. Assess
Something that is sterileperiodically
is free of any and upgrade
microbial life. the criteria for accreditation of CPE/CPD providers
Disinfection is a process that results in the complete removal of all microbial life from an object.
c. Sterilization mayand CPE/CPD programs,
be accomplished activitiesof irradiation
through autoclaving or sources; by and
x-rays or gamma rays
d. Disinfection tends to kill vegetative microorganisms or inhibit their growth
e. 6. Perform
Most disinfectants such other
are chemicals, related
generally used on functions
inanimatethat mayor surfaces
objects be incidental to the
rather than implementation
on living tissues.
Answer: B
of thethatCPE/CPD
STERILIZATION is a process results in theprograms or policies.
complete removal of all microbial life from an object.

65. Vestibular influence on the geocentric frame of reference are as follows, EXCEPT:
a. Detection of head acceleration
b. Tibialis anterior muscle activity increases during ambulation when head is tilted backward.
c. Otolith organs provide reference for head position with respect to earth-vertical
d. No influence on trunk and limb stability when head position changes
e. Used for repositioning the eyes based on changes in head orientation
Answer: D 3
There is influence on trunk and limb stability when head position changes.

66. Allograft rejection is a result of

a. Formation of antibodies and sensitized lymphocytes, either or both of which may destroy the antigen, a
property of acquired immunity
b. Histocompatibility complexes
c. That function to which protects an individual from toxins that might cause tissue damage
d. Destruction of the antigen by phagocytosis, a property of innate immunity
e. Provoked immunity
Answer: C
Letter C defines histocompatibility complexes.

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Reference: Sadowsky, H. S. (1996). Cardiac transplantation: a review. Physical therapy, 76(5), 498-515.

67. The following statements describes Down Syndrome, EXCEPT:

a. Deficit in eye-hand coordination laterality, and visual control were present in older children.
b. The present of monosynaptic reflex during platform perturbations suggested that balance problem do not
result from hypotonia but from defects within higher-level postural control mechanisms
c. In 7-11 years of age group, those with Down Syndrome scored equally in running speed, balance strength
and visual motor controls than the group without
d. In children 1-6 years of age postures responses to loss of balance were slow and therefore insufficient for
maintaining stability
e. Attainment of early motor milestones is though to be delayed because of problems with ligamentous laxity in
some joints, decreased strength, and hypotonia.
Answer: C
In 7-11 years of age group, those with Down Syndrome did NOT score equally in running speed, balance strength and
visual motor controls than the group without.

68. The following statements apply to Duchenne (pseudohypertrophic) dystrophy, EXCEPT:

a. Subject is still able to rise from a forward flexed position without using his hands to assist the movement
b. Contractures are common and patients seldom survive into the third decade
c. The enlargement of the muscles is due to fatty infiltration and the muscles are weak.
d. A primary, genetic disorder characterized by early weakness and enlargement of the musculature of the
calves, thighs, hips and shoulders
e. Onset is in the first five years of life and occurs almost exclusively in boys
Answer: A
Subject is still able to rise from a forward flexed position USING his hands to assist the movement.

69. Bilateral vestibular deficits results in the following, EXCEPT:

a. None of these d. disequilibrium
b. Oscillopsia e. postural instability
c. Skew deviation
Answer: C

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70. In evaluating the client, the caregiver

a. Initiate planning for extended treatment as necessary.
b. Prepare and document the treatment plan and program
c. Determines the
d.
e. Determines and selects the appropriate treatment techniques and equipment
Answer: C
It is important to

71. Splints that incorporate some elastic component such as springs of rubber bands that exerts a force on the
joint but allow for some change of joint position.
a. Dynamic-progressive d. Static
b. Static-progressive e. Dynamic
c. Static-progressive
Answer: E
This defines dynamic splints.

72. The following statements describe repair of acute instability, EXCEPT

a. Advancement of the posterior oblique ligament is a reconstructive procedure that is almost always used
b. Peripheral tears of the medial meniscus is salvaged by suturing the structure to the capsular ligaments
c. The need to drill holes in bone to reattach ligaments is seldom necessary inasmuch as the periosteum is
usually intact and will hold sutures well
d. Repair of an acute case by direct suture is usually avoided
e.
Answer: D
Repair of an acute case is by direct suture WHENEVER POSSIBLE.
Advancement of the posterior oblique ligaments is a reconstructive procedure that is almost always used.
Peripheral tears of the medial meniscus should be salvaged by suturing the structure to the capsular ligaments.

tissue. We also seldom find a need to drill holes in bone to reattach ligaments, inasmuch as the periosteum is usually
intact and will hold sutures well.
Reference: Walsh, W. M. (1980). Anteromedial Rotatory Instability of the Knee: Present State of the Art of Surgery.
Physical therapy, 60(12), 1633-1635.

73. Changes in the capability to produce a given response during practice when augmented feedback about the
performance is provided
a. Initiative d. Performance
b. Response e. Function
c. Learning
Answer: D
Meanwhile, learning is defined as relatively permanent changes in the capability to produce a given response when
augmented feedback may or may not be present.

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Reference: Vander Linden, D. W., Cauraugh, J. H., & Greene, T. A. (1993). The effect of frequency of kinetic feedback
on learning an isometric force production task in nondisabled subjects. Physical therapy, 73(2), 79-87.

74. Informed consent includes the following, EXCEPT:

a. May be given before, during of after the initial treatment.
b. The client or surrogate may sign a document to document the process indicating authorization to the proposed
treatment
c. Known or potential risks associated with the treatment are explained, and the client must be able to ask
questions and receive responses about any aspects of treatment
d. Consent from a legally qualified surrogate is necessary if the patient has not reached the legal age of consent,
or mentally confused.
e. Provide sufficient information about the proposed and alternative treatment/s appropriat
condition, to allow him to make a knowledgeable decision.
Answer: A
Informed consent should always be given BEFORE the initial treatment.

75. After successfully passing the Board Examination, the following initials may be added after the name of the
successful physical/occupational therapy examinee
a. PTRP/OTRP d. RPT/ROT
b. PTR/OTR e. RPT/OTRP
c. PTRP/ORT
Answer: A
You will become a future PTRP/OTRP!

76. The powers and duties of the Board of Physical and Occupational Therapy include the following, EXCEPT:
a. To study the conditions affecting physical and occupational therapy education and prepare a written favorable
recommendation to authorize schools to offer course in physical or occupational therapy
b. To study, promote and improve the conditions of the practice of physical and occupational therapy
c. To issue, suspend, revoke or re-issue any certificate of registration for the practice of physical and
occupational therapy
d. To give examinations to applicants for the practice of physical and occupational therapy in accordance with
the provisions of the Philippine Physical and Occupational Therapy Law.
e. To look into the conditions affecting the practice of PT and OT and delegate to accredited professional
associations so they may adopt measures of good ethics and high professional standard in the practice.
Answer: E

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77. Incorrect entries in your documentation may be edited by doing the following, EXCEPT:
a. Corrected statement must be entered in the chronologic sequence
b. On the margin, state why the correction was necessary
c. Single line drawn through the inaccurate information, but still making it legible.
d. Correction must be dated and initiated
e. Erase or draw multiple lines on the inaccurate information.
Answer: E
An incorrect information may be edited by a single line drawn through the inaccurate information, but still making it
legible. Do not erase or draw multiple lines on the inaccurate information.

78. The somatic sensory examination is the most difficult and least reliable part of the evaluation. The following
rules and generalizations will be helpful, EXCEPT:
a. Consistency of findings of several sensory examination gives some assurance of validity
b. Peripheral nerve lesions are often associated with diminished or absent sweating, dry skin, tropic changes in
the nails and loss of subcutaneous tissue
c. The test ordinarily used for the sensory examination are rather crude and the findings are imprecise, the more
so the less complete the lesion
d. Subjective symptoms of numbness and paresthesia are unfortunately much the same qualitatively whether
they result from thalamic, spinal, radicular or peripheral neural deficits
e. Cutaneous sensitivity is greater on the face, hand, forearms genitalia and feet. Avoid testing calloused areas
Answer: A
Consistency of findings of several sensory examination gives some assurance of validity.

79. Abdominal muscle exercise during pregnancy and at least 8 weeks post birth should be chosen with care
because of the following reasons, EXCEPT:
a. There is a noted increase in rectus abdominis muscle separation width, length, and angles of insertion
b. Decrements in abdominal muscle function can parallel in time the structural adaptations as pregnancy
progressed
c. The ability to stabilize the pelvis against resistance can be decreased as pregnancy progresses and remain
compromised postbirth
d. No reversal in rectus abdominis muscle separation may be found by 4 weeks postbirth
e. Continued functional deficits may be found in parallel with incomplete resolution of structural adaptations post
birth
Answer: D

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There is reversal in rectus abdominis muscle separation may be found by 4 weeks postbirth.

80. After internal fixation of the hip, the physical therapist must pay special attention to:
a. Use of a trochanter roll or properly placed sandbags beside the thigh to avoid extreme external rotation
b. All of these
c. Patient may not lean forward further than 30 to 40 which would increase hip flexion
d. To prevent increased pain and undue strain on the fracture site, adduction, external rotation or acute flexion

e. Use of pillow or abductor triangle to maintain abduction and keep the affected leg to one side of his midline
Answer: B
All statements mentioned are correct.

81. Ergonomic design in office settings has become increasingly important, particularly because of the increased
use of computers. The following are acceptable recommendations, EXCEPT:
a. Feet flat on the floor or footrest to provide stability
b. Top of monitor placed at eye level to allow proper head and neck position
c. Padded wrist rest to reduce arm and shoulder discomfort
d. Keyboard placed at 15 degree from elbow height with a slight incline
e. Hard copy holder close to monitor to reduce eye motions and discomfort and allow proper neck posture
Answer: C and D
Padded wrist rest to reduce SHOULDER AND UPPER BACK DISCOMFORT. Keyboard placed at SEATED ELBOW
HEIGHT with a slight incline.

Reference: Crowson, R. (1996). Handbook of Manufacturing Engineering. Abingdon: CRC Press.

82. After transverse rectus abdominals myocutaneous flap procedure, the following techniques may be used to
reduce stress on the sutures of the abdominal wound closure EXCEPT:
a. Teach log-rolling techniques for moving safely in bed without disrupting the sutures
b. Positioning the bed at a 90-degree angle, patient lying on the uninvolved side in a fetal position.
c. Lifting and sit-ups are not permitted until a 6 weeks after surgery
d. Exercises designed for co-contraction of the oblique, transversus abdominis and multifidus muscles for optimal
trunk strengthening

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e. Avoid Valsalva maneuver by exhaling during physical exertion

Answer: B
This position will not relieve stress on sutures of the abdominal wound closure.

83. When an injured site is immobilized in a cast, the following statements are true in the care of a casted lower
extremity, EXCEPT:
a. Flexing and extending the toes is an exercise to test nerve function
b. To check for circulation, briefly press on the large toenail until it turns white. Let go, and observe if the normal
pink color returns quickly
c. Excess swelling may be prevented by keeping the casted leg elevated on pillows, above chest level
d. Occasionally, when the skin under the cast feels itchy, an object may be inserted to try to relieve the itching.
e.
Answer: D
This is not the most appropriate thing to do as it can cause scratches that may lead to infection or loosening of the cast.

84. Using proper body mechanics, which of the following statements is incorrect when moving an object?
a. Keeping upper body straight, use the leg and hip muscles to stand upright, holding the object close to the
body
b. To move an object from table to floor, keep back straight, flex hips and knees and slowly lower the object to
the floor
c. If the object is too heavy, ask a coworker for help
d. For an object placed on a high shelf, slide the object off the shelf and using a smooth coordinated movement,
lower the object to a waist-level table
e. When lifting the box at waist level, to change direction to the left, move your left foot so the toes are pointing
left
Answer: D
To prevent back strain caused by unexpected weight, NEVER SLIDE a carton off a shelf.
Reference: Intermed Communications, inc. (1984). Providing early mobility. Horsham, Pa: Intermed Communications.

85. The following may cause biomechanical or physiological predisposition to microtrauma, EXCEPT:
a. Foot malalignment that places abnormal stresses on particular tissues
b. Insufficient flexibility
c. Improper technique
d. Proportional relationship between maximum output capacity and rapid expulsion of force
e. Limb length discrepancies
Answer: D
This statement will not cause trauma.

86. The following are characteristics of below-knee amputees, EXCEPT:

a. Positioning the body weight more posterior with respect to the knee would increase the external knee flexion
moment, thus placing a higher demand on the quadriceps femoris musculature
b. To compensate for decreased tibial mobility, progression is augmented through a backward trunk lean
c. There may be decreased tibial speed, which may be attributed to the lack of normal ankle mechanics because
of the cushioned heel keeps body weight on the heel
d. Increasing stride length during fast walking is more dependent on torque of the amputated limb knee extensors
e. There is prolonged hip extensor activity, more than twice the duration and intensity of normal
Answer: B
To compensate for decreased tibial mobility, progression is augmented through a FORWARD trunk lean.

87. Following statements describe fibromyalgia, EXCEPT:

a. A nonarticular rheumatic disease of unknown origin characterized by tenderness at 11 or more of the 18 tender
points sites
b. Cardiovascular training offers no benefit in reducing the symptoms
c. There may be patient-reported joint swelling without objective findings of swelling
d. The tender points are primarily localized to the musculotendinous junctions
e. Generalized fatigue, chronic headache and sleep disturbance may be present
Answer: B

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Fibromyalgia is a disorder characterized by widespread musculoskeletal pain accompanied by fatigue, sleep, memory
and mood issues. Cardiovascular training can give benefit to the condition for reducing symptoms.

88. The ability to move within a given posture without loss of balance:
a. Harmony d. Symmetry
b. Steadiness e. order
c. Dynamic stability
Answer: C
This defines dynamic stability.

89. Functionally, anatomic actions determine muscle participation in postures and movements, additionally,
muscles also participate in posture and movements according to limb and body position in relation to gravity, applied
resistance, and velocity in motion:
a. Both statements are true c. Both statements are false
b. First statement is true, second statement is false d. First statement is false, second statement
is true
Answer: A
Both statements are correct.

90. Following are example of anatomic pulleys, EXCEPT:

a. In the leg, where tendons of the peroneal and long toe flexor descend distally on the posterior aspect of the
legs and go behind and around the malleoli to form attachments in the foot and toes
b. In the quadriceps and patellar tendons, where the direction of pull is changed as the knee flexed, and improves
the force arm distance due to the interposed patella
c. When the flexor digitorum superficialis contract, their tendons rise from the joint axes, and held down by loops
that deflect the tendon with movement
d. The patella raising the line of pull of the quadriceps muscle from the knee joint axis
e. In the palmar side of the phalanges, when the flexor digitorum profundus contract their tendons rise from the
joint axes, and held down by seven loops that deflect the tendon with movement
Answer: D
This statement defines a lever.

91. Fractures, though not usually life threatening, may be caused by:
a. Pathologic muscle contractions and pathologic decay
b. All of these d. Direct force
c. Fatigue or stress e. Torsion force
Answer: B
All of the statements can cause fracture.

92. Fascioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy presents the following clinical picture, EXCEPT:
a. Degree involvement ranges from facial weakness to severe generalized weakness
b. Initially affects facial, scapular, upper arm, abdominal and foot dorsi flexor muscles
c. Disease may progress to the proximal hip and distal arm and hand musculature
d. Mode of inheritance is autosomal dominant
e. Course is usually progressive but does not progress to wheelchair dependence
Answer: E

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93. Compression-side fractures of the inferior side of the femoral neck are characterized by the following
statements, EXCEPT:
a. With an overt fracture line, bed rest is indicated
b. Usually negative radiograph and positive bone scintigraphy initially
c. If sclerosis is present without an overt fracture, bed rest is indicated
d. Any widening of the fracture line would required stabilization with multiple Kowles pins
e. When hip pain is absent at rest, gradual progressive weight bearing and increased activity are begun
Answer: D
Any widening of the fracture line would require stabilization with multiple KNOWLES PINS.

Reference: Jones, D. L., & Erhard, R. E. (1997). Diagnosis of trochanteric bursitis versus femoral neck stress fracture.
Physical therapy, 77(1), 58-67.

94. The following applies to an open-complicated-complete-oblique fracture:

a. All of these
b. Fracture has injured surrounding nerves and blood vessels causing additional complications
c. The bone breaks and completely snapped
d. Either one or both broken ends protrude through or communicates with the wound site
e. The bone breaks at an angle
Answer: A
All of the statements apply to an open-complicated-complete-oblique fracture.

95. The following statements describe the prosthesis of an above knee amputee, EXCEPT:
a. When a SACH foot is used, it is set at about 90 degrees with respect to the shank
b. At faster speeds, a knee damper assists in improving control of the calf momentum
c. To improve foot clearance, the unaffected pelvis may be elevated
d. Due to lack of propulsion on the calf, the pelvis drops in late stance on the prosthetic side

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e.
Answer: C
To improve foot clearance, the AFFECTED pelvis may be elevated.

96. Principles of prevention of cumulative trauma injury for the hands and wrists include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Eliminate direct pressure on the palm
b.
c. Isolate vibration
d. Increase excessive or unnecessary grasping force where possible
e. Reduce the number of repetitions
Answer: D
It should be to decrease excessive or unnecessary grasping force where possible.

97. The following levels of amputation are presently being performed, EXCEPT:
a.
b. Removal of the foot at ankle joint
c.
forearm
d.
e. Removal of patella with quadriceps brought over femur end
Answer: A

Remember, the doctor's primary consideration is to amputate as little of the arm or leg as possible. The information
that follows will familiarize you with all levels of amputation presently being performed:
Partial foot: removal of one or more toes and part of foot
Total foot: removal of the foot below the ankle joint
Ankle (Syme's): removal of the foot at ankle joint

Knee disarticulation: removal of patella with quadriceps brough over the femur end; or patella fixed to a cut
surface between condyles (called Gritti-Stokes amputation)
Above the knee (AK): removal of leg from 3" (7.6 cm)
Hip disarticulation: removal of both leg and hip, or leg and pelvis
Hemipelvectomy: removal of leg and half of pelvis
ant tumor, extensive injury, or
gangrene.
Fingers: removal of one or more fingers at hinge or condyloid joints
Wrist disarticulation: removal of hand at wrist
tion between the
middle and lower third of the forearm
Elbow disarticulation: removal of lower arm at elbow

Reference: Working with orthopedic patients. (1983). Springhouse, Pa: Intermed Communications.

98. Stress fractures of the femoral neck are generally characterized by the following, EXCEPT:
a. Radiographs are often negative
b. Injection with a local anesthetic will provide the complete relief of pain
c. There is sudden onset of pain and a recent change in activity level
d. In the early stages, localized pain that worsens with activity and improves with rest is present
e. Localized tenderness may occur at the greater trochanter
Answer: B
Injection with a local anesthetic will provide the complete relief of pain in TROCHANTERIC BURSITIS.

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Reference: Jones, D. L., & Erhard, R. E. (1997). Diagnosis of trochanteric bursitis versus femoral neck stress fracture.
Physical therapy, 77(1), 58-67.

99. Physiological fatigue is a central concern of ergonomics. To prevent undesirable static overload, the following
improvements are recommended, EXCEPT:
a. Improvements in equipment heights
b. Layout changes
c. Holding a single comfortable position
d. Keep the body in a neutral posture and the muscle relaxed
e. Braces, straps and supports to hold the tool to the hand
Answer: C
because there are
appropriate positions for specific tasks.

100. Following are most frequently reported musculoskeletal or fibrous connective tissue symptoms, EXCEPT:
a. Swelling and numbness of the extremities
b. Swelling in articular, periarticular and soft tissue
c. Nonrestorative sleep with morning fatigue
d. Aches and pains that are specific, fluctuating through the full range of pain sensations frequently accompanied
by marked stiffness
e. Tender points frequently accompanied by muscle spasms or nodules that cluster in regions around the neck
and shoulders, upper chest wall and lower back
Answer: D
In fibromyalgia, aches and pains are DIFFUSED OR WIDESPREAD and are fluctuating through the full range of pain
sensations frequently accompanied by marked stiffness.
Reference: Krsnich-Shriwise, S. (1997). Fibromyalgia syndrome: an overview. Physical therapy, 77(1), 68-75.

101. Continuous discomfort may accompany many orthopedic conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis or
osteoarthritis:
a. Acute Pain d. Referred Pain
b. Phantom Pain e. Chronic Pain
c. Superficial Pain
Answer: E
Acute pain usually comes on suddenly and is caused by something specific. It is sharp in quality. Acute pain usually
months. It goes away when there is no longer an underlying cause for the pain. Phantom
limb pain refers to ongoing painful sensations that seem to be coming from the part of the limb that is no longer there.
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The limb is gone, but the pain is real. Chronic pain is pain that is ongoing and usually lasts longer than six months. This
type of pain can continue even after the injury or illness that caused it has healed or gone away. Pain signals remain
active in the nervous system for weeks, months or years. Referred pain is when the pain you feel in one part of your
body is actually caused by pain or injury in another part of your body. Superficial pain arises from nociceptive receptors
in the skin and mucous membranes. For example, if you cut your lip, this pain is called superficial somatic pain.
Superficial somatic pain is the type of pain that happens with common everyday injuries and is characterized as pricking,
sharp, burning, or throbbing pain.

102. The following is true in a malunion fracture complication, EXCEPT:

a. There was inadequate fracture reduction
b. The fracture has healed incorrectly, leaving the bone deformed, weak, and possibly causing pain
c. If malunion is detected before healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to align the bone fragments
d. If malunion is detected after healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to obtain a more normal
position for healing
e. If the malunion is slight, it may not have to be corrected because the correction procedure could cause delayed
union or nonunion
Answer: C
If malunion is detected AFTER healing is complete, surgical correction is necessary to align the bone fragments.

103. An individual with rheumatoid arthritis that has a functional capacity adequate to perform only a few or none
of the duties of occupation or self-care is classified as Class:
a. III d. II
b. IV e. I
c. V
Answer: A

104. An individual with rheumatoid arthritis that is largely or wholly incapacitated, bedridden or using a wheelchair,
permitting little or no self-care is classified as Class:
a. V d. III
b. IV e. II
c. I
Answer: B
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105. This hip-repair surgical procedure severes hip muscles and tendons around joint to decrease pressure and
pain within the joint. The success rate is low and return to full weight status is a lengthy process:
a. Displacement Osteotomy d. Femoral Prosthesis
b. Arthrodesis e. Muscle Release
c. Double-cup Arthroplasty
Answer: E
Muscle release is a surgical procedure that involves cutting through or disconnecting a tendon to allow for a greater
range of movement.

106. Periarticular connective tissues are designed to withstand tensile stress. If these tissues are deprived of tensile
stress by being immobilized in a shortened position, the following changes will occur, EXCEPT:
a. Remodeling is halted
b. An increase in the amount of reducible crosslink
c. There is a decrease in its functional length
d. Becomes shorter, weaker, and more stiff
e. Exhibit decreased amounts of collagen, glycosaminoglycans and water
Answer: D
Tissues become shorter, weaker, and LESS STIFF.

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Reference: McClure, P. W., Blackburn, L. G., & Dusold, C. (1994). The use of splints in the treatment of joint stiffness:
biologic rationale and an algorithm for making clinical decisions. Physical Therapy, 74(12), 1101-1107.

107. The two mode theory of vision asserts that:

a. The degradation of perceptual and sensory systems are linked to potential postural problems
b.
tion through the environment
c. Spatially distributed information comes via the ambient mode, responsible for orientation and locomotion, and
the focal mode, responsible for object recognition and identification
d. The somatosensory and visual systems are primarily sensitive to low frequency stimulation
e. Visual perception is anchored to the optic array and emphasizes the important of optical information retrieved
from various sectors of the optic array
Answer: C
The focal mode in general answers the
in relation to performance evaluation, have been concerned with focal vision. The ambient mode is concerned with
the observer is located in space.

108. The following statements describe cumulative trauma disorders, EXCEPT:

a. May be related to a single episode incident

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b. The posture maintained by the worker-including the length of time sustained must be addressed in conjunction
with the repetitious motion
c. A relatively minor stress, one which has been imposed and successfully sustained numerous times in the
past, can result in a significant breakdown of the system
d. A combination or series of stresses applied over a period of time from which adequate recovery does not
occur
Answer: A
This statement refers to microtrauma. Cumulative trauma disorders may be related to MULTIPLE episodes incident.

109. External fixation is used to stabilize fractures that are difficult or impossible to immobilize with casts, traction
pins, or plates. It is indicated in the following conditions, EXCEPT:
a. An acutely infected open fracture
b. A massive open fracture, with extensive soft tissue injury
c. Intra-articular fracture
d. Arthrodesis
e. A comminuted fracture
Answer: C
An intra-articular fracture is NOT AN INDICATION for external fixation.
Question: When does the doctor apply an external fixation device?
Answer: He uses it to stabilize fractures that are difficult or impossible to immobilize with casts, traction pins, or plates.

A massive open fracture, with extensive soft tissue injury

A comminuted fracture
Multiple trauma, with a number of fractures in different body parts
An acutely infected open fracture
Arthrodesis (surgical joint fusion)
Infected nonunion of a fracture
A bone graft
Reference: Working with orthopedic patients. (1983). Springhouse, Pa: Intermed Communications.

110. The following statements characterize, fibromyalgia syndrome, EXCEPT:

a. Frequently misdiagnosed and confused with myofascial pain syndrome, polymyositis, juvenile rheumatoid
arthritis or systemic lupus erythematosus.
b. A chronic pain disorder of unknown etiology.
c. There are widespread musculoskeletal aches and pains, stiffness and general fatigue.
d. A non-rheumatic disorder.
e. Median age of onset is from 29 to 37 years and medical presentation is 34 to 53 years.
Answer: D
Fibromyalgia is a non-inflammatory, RHEUMATIC disorder.

111. A polypropylene fixed or solid ankle-foot orthosis (AFO) is commonly prescribed to correct an equines gait
pattern in children with spastic cerebral palsy. The following statements described this AFO, EXCEPT:
a. Solid AFO covers the entire posterior calf and mediolateral borders and sole of the foot.
b. Rationale of use is based on the inhibitive or tone-reducing cast.
c. Reduces excessive ankle plantar flexion during stance.
d. There are straps across the anterior upper tibia and front of the ankle
e. It biomechanically controls the ankle by using a three-force system
Answer: B

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112. The following can improve documentation, EXCEPT:

a.
b. Writing must be legible and entries must be timely.
c. progress or response to treatment
d. Use objective statements and provide continuity with status notes
e. Your own abbreviation may be used so long as you inform the facility
Answer: E
Every facility has their certified abbreviations that are applicable for documentation.

113. Down syndrome exhibit various types of motor impairment that are as follows: EXCEPT:
a. Utilize different strategies to control their movements.
b. Movements are clumsy, i. e. slow and low efficacy.
c. Shorter reaction times.
d. Displays atypical sequences of motor development.
e. Delays in motor performance at a very young age.
Answer: C
Patient with down syndrome have DELAYED reaction times.

114. The following statements describe total contact casting, EXCEPT:

a. Promotes ulcer healing by increasing the weight bearing surface area and allow patient to remain ambulatory.
b. Are snug-fitting, below knee casts that protect insensitive limbs from repetitive trauma
c. Contraindicated for superficial plantar ulcers in the presence of decreased or absent sensation.
d. Is an effective therapy for healing chronic neuropathic plantar ulcers in individuals with chronic sensory
neuropathies
e. Contraindicated in deep foot ulcers where abscesses, osteomyelitis or similar deep infection or gangrene is
present.
Answer: C
Total contact casting is INDICATED for superficial plantar ulcers in the presence of decreased or absent sensation.

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Reference: Sinacore, D. R. (1996). Total contact casting for diabetic neuropathic ulcers. Physical therapy, 76(3), 296-
301.

115. Surgical removal of a piece of bone to realign bone and shift weight-bearing stress away from a worn area:
a. Osteotomy d. None of these
b. Arthrodesis e. Menisectomy
c. Debridement and synovectomy
Answer: A
Osteotomy is the surgical cutting of a bone, to allow for re-alignment. It is a surgical procedure which requires careful
planning during recovery period and is done under a general anaesthetic. The purpose of osteotomy varies for different
joints.

116. Person-level problems characterized by the inability to perform any of the activities considered usual for a
human being, such as limitations in walking or limited ability to communicate:
a. Disorder d. Disabilities
b. Infirmity e. Affliction
c. Impairments
Answer: D
This statement defines disabilities.

117. The following statements describe fatigue, EXCEPT:

a. Impairment of transmission at the myoneural junction
b. Increase in frequency of activation of each functioning motor unit
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c. Impairment of excitation contraction coupling

d. Reduction of functioning motor units
Answer: B
In fatigue, there is DECREASE in frequency of activation of each functioning motor unit.

118. A therapist completes a cognitive function test on a patient status post stoke. As part of the test, the therapist

a. Verbalize a position statement d. repetition of a series of numbers

b. Discuss how two objects are similar e. a figure from a picture
c. Repetition of a series of letters
Answer: B

119. Feedback information about the outcome of movements:

a. Performance of Results d. Knowledge of Function
b. Result Oriented e. Performance Orientation
c. Knowledge of Results
Answer: C
Knowledge of result is knowledge about achieving the goal of the performance or externally presented information
about the outcome of performing a skill.

120.
a. Abdominal reflex d. symmetrical tonic neck
b. Tonic labyrinthine e. asymmetrical tonic neck
c. Moro
Answer: B
Tonic labyrinthine reflex:
With prone position: increased flexor tone/flexion of all limbs; with supine: increased extensor tone/ extension of all
limbs.

121. Ergonomic design in office settings has become increasingly important particularly because of the increased
use of computers. The following are acceptable recommendations, EXCEPT:
a. Hard copy holder close to monitor to reduce eye motions and discomfort and allow proper neck posture.
b. Keyboard placed at 15 degrees from elbow height with a slight incline
c. Padded wrist rest to reduce arm and shoulder discomfort.
d. Top of monitor placed at eye level to allow proper head and neck position.
e. Feet flat on the floor or footrest to provide stability
Answer: B
The wrist should be placed in neutral position when working/typing but in this case, the patient will not achieve neutral
position.

122. An attorney contacts you by phone and requests information on a patient he claims to represent. Questions

would be to
a. Tell the attorney not to bother you at work
b. Answer the question asked by the attorney
c. Refer the attorney to supervisor
d.
sent to the appropriate party.
e. Request the attorney to provide documented proof that he represents your patient and only then will you

Answer: E
This is the most appropriate thing to do.

123. This surgical procedure is an advantageous consideration if only one side of the knee is worn
a. Arthroscopy d. Osteotomy
b. Norkalb osteotomy
c. Knee arthroplasty
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Answer: A
Knee arthroscopy is a surgical technique that can diagnose and treat problems in the knee joint. During the procedure,
your surgeon will make a very small incision and insert a tiny camera called an arthroscope into your knee. This allows
them to view the inside of the joint on a screen. The surgeon can then investigate a problem with the knee and, if
necessary, correct the issue using small instruments within the arthroscope.

124. The following entries in the assessment section of SOAP notes are all correct, EXCEPT:
a. Right lower extremity muscle strength is within normal limits
b. Patient should be independent with straight cane by discharge date
c. Strength duration curves show radial nerve regeneration
d. Patient continues to make steady progress with upper extremity resistive exercises
Answer: A
This statement is part of the OBJECTIVE part of the SOAP notes.

125. The most common major orthopedic procedure performed in the elderly population is total hip arthroplasty.
The following statements are true, EXCEPT:
a. Protecting the prosthesis from unnecessary forces does not retard premature loosening.
b. Carrying a load in a single hand is an activity that likely places excessive force on the hip.
c. Mechanical factors such as micro motion and characteristics of implant materials contribute to prosthetic
loosening.
d. Studies showed that loosening of cemented components occurred in 30 % to 40% of patients 10 years after
surgery.
e. Biologic factors, including sepsis, and osteolytic responses to debris from implant are implicated to contribute
to prosthetic loosening.
Answer: A
Protecting the prosthesis from unnecessary forces RETARDS premature loosening.

126. Splints that hold the joint at some constant position:

a. Dynamic-progressive d. Static-Progressive
b. Dynamic e. Static-progressive
c. Static
Answer: C

127. A rehabilitation hospital assembles a team of health professions to after comprehensive care for patients
following amputation. Which member of the team would be responsible for assisting the patient and family with financial
matters and acting as a liaison with third party payers?
a. Physical therapist d. physiatrist
b. Occupational therapist e. vocational counselor
c. Social worker
Answer: C
This is the job of social workers in the rehabilitation setting.

128. A patient sustains a deep laceration over the right anterior thigh after stumbling into a modality cart. The

a. Apply direct pressure over the wound

b. Apply Betadine to cleanse and sterilize the wound
c. Apply ice and elevate the leg
d. Apply sterile dressings
e.
Answer: A
This is the most appropriate first thing to do for the bleeding to stop.

129. A therapist reviews the medical record of a patient with cancer. The medical record includes a number of
advanced directi
the patient is giving up hope. The most appropriate actions is
a.
b. Discuss your
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c. Explain the benefits of positive thinking to the patient

d. Inform the patient about other possible treatment alternatives
e.
Answer: B
The physician is the most appropriate person to approach in this situation.

130. A patient in rehabilitation hospital begins to verbalize about the uselessness of life and the possibility of
committing suicide. The most important therapist action is
a. Ask nursing to check the patient every 15 minutes
b.
c.
d.
e. Suggest the patient be placed on a locked unit
Answer: C

131. Resolution No. 217, Series of 1992 delists the names of delinquent professionals from the rolls of registered
professionals if the professional
a. Had been delinquent in the payment of the annual registration fees for at least three (3) years from the year it
was last paid.
b. Had been delinquent in the payment of the annual registration fees for three (3) continuous years from the
year it was last paid.
c. Had been delinquent in the payment of the annual registration fees for five (5) continuous years from the year
it was last paid.
d. Had been delinquent in the payment of the annual registration fees for at least five (5) years from year it was
last paid.
e. Completes only 20 CPE units per annum
Answer: C
This statement applies to the Resolution No. 217, Series of 1992.

132. A registered professional can be permanently exempt from Continuing Professional Education requirements
a. Upon reaching the age of 65 years old
b. By becoming a member of the Board of Examiners
c. Upon formally requesting for exemption for earning the PRC most outstanding professional award
d. Upon completing his/her doctoral degree
e. Upon written recommendations from the President and Dean of the University
Answer: A
This statement is correct.

133. A general term for a repetitive-induced tendon injury involving the synovial sheath:
a. Epicondylitis d. tendinitis
b. Tenosynovitis e. stenosis
c. Cystitis
Answer: B
Tenosynovitis is an inflammatory condition affecting the tendon sheath has a wide variety of causes and treatment
considerations.

134. A manager develops a policy on physical and occupational therapy utilization of continuing education
resources. Which of the following would be most appropriate action to enhance the quality of patient care?
a. First come first served basis, i. e., continuing education is offered to therapists who reserved first
b. Prioritize requests for continuing education resources based on established patient care standards
c. Offer continuing education resources to senior therapist is relation to their years of experience.
d. Establish a committee to review requests for continuing education resources
e. Divide the continuing education resources evenly among therapy staff.
Answer: B
This is the most appropriate action to enhance the quality of patient care.

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135. A therapist observes a patient exercising. It becomes obvious that the patient is not challenged by the exercise
routine and is receiving little benefit from the therapy. The most appropriate action for the therapist would be to
a.
b. Tell the patient they are no longer benefiting from physical therapy
c.
d. Consult with the supervising therapist and suggest treatment alternatives
e. Discuss with the consulting doctor your observation
Answer: D
A physical therapist has the rights consult the supervising therapist and suggest treatment alternatives or progress the
current exercise of the patient.

136. The following statements describe the Board of Examiners for Physical and Occupational Therapy, EXCEPT
a. The Board is composed of a chairman and four members who shall be appointed by the President of the
Philippines.
b. The appointees are submitted to the President of the Republic of the Philippines through the Professional
Regulation Commission.
c. The chairman shall be a physiatrist and the four members shall be two professionally qualified physical
therapists.
d. The chairman and the members are appointed from the list of qualified professionals submitted by their
respective bonafide national professional organization accredited by the Professional Regulation Commission.
e. The chairman and the members of the Board are appointed from recommendation submitted by any qualified
professionals
Answer: E
The chairman and the members are appointed from the list of qualified professionals submitted by their respective
bonafide national professional organization accredited by the Professional Regulation Commission, not by any qualified
professionals.

137. Credit units may be earned when undergoing the following programs/activities, EXCEPT:
a. Professional chair holder (10 cu per chair)
b. On the job local (5 cu per training) and international training (10 cu per training)
c. Distance inter and intra school quiz competition (1 cu)
d. Inventions (10-3 cu per invention
e. International study/observation tour (6 cu per hour)
Answer: C
This statement is incorrect.

138. Removing synovial fluid via arthrocentesis includes the following potential benefits, EXCEPT:
a. Provides relief in tense synovial effusions.
b. Improve the delivery of nutrients to cartilage and surrounding tissues.
c. Concomitant injection of corticosteroids can increase recurrence of joint effusion.
d. Decrease joint intra-articular pressure preventing synovial capillary perfusion
e. Remove white blood cells, a source of destructive enzymes, from the joint.
Answer: C
Concomitant injection of corticosteroids can DECREASE recurrence of joint effusion.

139. Persistent asymmetry of the Moro reflex suggest the following, EXCEPT:
a. Hemiparesis
b. Fracture of the clavicle
c. Injury to the brachial plexus
d. Hemiplegia
e. Fracture of the humerus
Answer: E

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140. Characteristics of myotonic dystrophy are as follows: EXCEPT:

a. General loss of strength and energy are regularly present and slowness of grip release may be evident
b. A quick tap on the thenar eminence results in contraction that is abnormally short, and the thumb abducts for
several seconds
c. Symptoms commonly appear in adulthood, usually in the third and fourth decades
d. No sensory or specific reflex changes are seen
e. There is prolonged contraction with posture of the hand
Answer: B

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141. Neurodevelopment treatment (NDT) is the most commonly used approach to treatment with cerebral palsy.
The following statements describe NDT, EXCEPT:
a. Treatment outcomes are supposed to be achieved through physical handling of the child during movement,
giving the child more normal sensorimotor experiences
b. As the child gains postural control, the therapist gradually withdraws support
c. This approach focuses on encouraging and building upon normal movement patterns and normal postural
reactions while trying to reduce abnormal movements
d. Current interpretations of NDT does not include the importance of functional skill practice in treatment
e. It is implicit in NDT that improved postural control will lead to improvement in functional skills without
necessarily working on these specific skills
Answer: D

142. Children with spastic cerebral palsy demonstrate pathological gait patterns as in the following, EXCEPT:
a. Fixed contracture of the triceps surae muscle group is evident
b. May be accompanied by anterior pelvic tilt during the stance phase
c. Often accompanied by excessive knee flexion or hyperextension
d. Decreased walking speed and stride length
e. Abnormal joint motions including dynamic equinus or excessive ankle plantar flexion during the stance phase
of gait
Answer: A
Fixed contracture of the triceps surae muscle group is NOT EVIDENT.

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Reference: Radtka, S. A., Skinner, S. R., Dixon, D. M., & Johanson, M. E. (1997). A comparison of gait with solid,
dynamic, and no ankle-foot orthoses in children with spastic cerebral palsy. Physical therapy, 77(4), 395-409.

143. A therapist presents an educational seminar on cerebral palsy, where he discusses its numerous etiologies.
The following are congenital etiology of cerebral palsy, EXCEPT:
a. Meningitis c. Syphilis
b. Rubella d. toxoplasmosis
Answer: A
Meningitis is considered as a POST NATAL etiology for cerebral palsy.2

144. If your patient cannot support weight on one leg but has good muscular strength and coordination, which
crutch-walking gait would you choose?
a. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing)
b. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing)
c. Four-point-gait
d. Swing-through three-point gait
e. Two-point gait
Answer: E

Reference: Intermed Communications, inc. (1984). Providing early mobility. Horsham, Pa: Intermed Communications.

145. If your patient cannot support his weight on one leg but has normal use of his arms, upper body and other leg,
which crutch-walking gait would you choose?
a. Two-point gait c. Three-point-and-one-gait (partial-weight-bearing)
b. Three-point-gait (non-weight-bearing) d. Four-point gait
Answer: B

Reference: Intermed Communications, inc. (1984). Providing early mobility. Horsham, Pa: Intermed Communications.

146. Depending on patient size and transfer method, condition and mobility potential, the following are preferred
features in wheelchair selection for a hemiplegic, EXCEPT:
a. Fixed armrests and foot-and-leg rests are swing-detachable with heel loops
b. Motorized type with reclining back
c. Back with head extension and foot-and-leg rests are elevating
d. Standard type with standard handrims
e. Extension brakes and fixed back
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Copyright. The Catalyst. Unauthorized reproduction, use or dissemination, uploading or downloading is strictly
prohibited and shall be prosecuted to the full extent of the law, including administrative complaints with the
Professional Regulatory Board, Philippine Regulation Commission.
 APK MSCI MODULE
PLP PT BOARD REVIEW

Answer: D
Certain modifications are needed for patients with hemiplegia to properly propel a wheelchair.

45
Copyright. The Catalyst. Unauthorized reproduction, use or dissemination, uploading or downloading is strictly
prohibited and shall be prosecuted to the full extent of the law, including administrative complaints with the
Professional Regulatory Board, Philippine Regulation Commission.