© 1995 Federal Publications (Singapore) Private Limited

© 2001 Times Media Private Limited

© 2003, 2007, 2013 Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore)
Private Limited

Published by Marshall Cavendish Education

An imprint of Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore) Private Limited
Times Centre, 1 New Industrial Road, Singapore 536196
Customer Service Hotline: (65) 6411 0820
E-mail: [email protected]
Website: www.marshallcavendish.com/education

First published 1995

Second edition 2001
Third edition 2007
Fourth edition 2013
Reprinted 2013

All rights reserved.

No part of this publication may be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system

or transmitted, in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical,
photocopying, recording or otherwise, without the prior permission
of the copyright owner. Any requests for permission should be
addressed to the Publisher.

Marshall Cavendish is a trademark of Times Publishing Limited.

ISBN 978-981-01-1711-5

Printed in Singapore

Acknowledgements
The publisher would like to acknowledge the following who have kindly given permission for the use of copyright material:

Front cover © Redbaron/Dreamstime.com, Yuri_arcurs/Dreamstime.com

©981-01-1711-5.indd 1 Jan/29/13 9:09 AM

 4th Edition

Workbook

Dr Charles Chew • Chow Siew Foong

Dr Ho Boon Tiong • Tan Peng Yeon

(S)PMWB_Titlepage.indd 1 8/22/12 1:36 PM

 Preface
Physics Matters for GCE ‘O’ Level Workbook (4th Edition) is the companion workbook to our exciting
new Physics Matters for GCE ‘O’ Level textbook. It is specifically developed to fulfil the latest GCE ‘O’
Level syllabus requirements set by the Ministry of Education (MOE). All aspects of this new edition
have been re-designed to strengthen understanding of concepts, provide ample practice and equip you
with the edge and confidence to excel in Physics.

Comprehensive exercises
Each worksheet comprises a complete range of exercises — multiple-choice,
structured and free-response — to give you all the practice you need. The
questions are designed to support learning with understanding and give you a
firm grounding in conceptual understanding.
Chapter

Name: ( ) Section C: Free-Response Questions

a

Class: Date:
1. (a) Explain why a piece of expanded polystyrene feels much lighter than a piece of lead of equal
volume.
16: Static Electricity

Worksheet 16
4. The diagram shows a toy bird pivoted on a support
and in stable equilibrium. When designing the toy bird,
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions the manufacturer needs to plan the position of its
A
centre of gravity. Which position, A, B, C or D, B
1. What is the SI unit of electric charge?
should the centre of gravity be?
A Ohm B Newton C Coulomb D Ampere ( ) C

D
2. A neutral conducting ball is placed near a negatively-charged conducting ball.
(b) Air is made up of about 80% nitrogen and 20% oxygen by volume. The densities of air and
(
oxygen )are 1.29 kg m–3 and 1.43 kg m–3 respectively. Find the density of nitrogen.

Section B: Structured Questions

1. (a) Suppose you are supplied with a plane mirror (Figure e 5.1), a concave mirror (Figure 5.2),
neutral
negatively-charged a convex mirror (Figure 5.3) and three small rubber balls. On Figures 5.1 to 5.3, indicate
conducting
conducting ball
ball where you would place the balls to illustrate the threee kinds of equilibrium. Also, state the
Which of the following is likely to happen? eutral.
type of equilibrium in each case: stable, unstable or neutral.

A The neutral ball moves towards the charged ball and attaches to it.
B The neutral ball moves away from the charged ball.
C Both balls move towards each other and then move away from each other Á Figure 5.1 Á Figure 5.2 Data-Based Question
Á Figure 5.3

after they touch.

equilibrium equilibrium
brium 2. Dr. X has developed a new liquid. The volume of this new liquid changes when placed in different
equilibrium
D The charged ball moves away from the neutral ball. ( )
surroundings (e.g. on different planets).
(b) Explain the following observations. (a) State how the mass of the liquid is affected on different planets.
3. Why does object A become negatively charged after it is rubbed with object B?
(i) The base of a Bunsen burner is designed to be large
arge and heavy.
A Electrons have moved from object A to object B.
B Electrons have moved from object B to object A.
C Protons have moved from object A to object B. (b) Complete Table 4.1 to show how the density of the new liquid changes on different planets
D Protons have moved from object B to object A. ( ) and on the Moon.
Ë Table 4.1

4. ed
X is a light metal ball suspended by a nylon thread. When a positively-charged rod is placedd Mass of Gravitational Volume of Weight of Density of
Planet
near it, X is attracted to the charged rod, as shown in the diagram. Which of the following new liquid field strength new liquid new liquid new liquid
is possible? Earth 100 g 10 N kg−1 10 cm3
1 X is negatively charged. er to topple over when disturbed than
(ii) The inverted conical flask in Figure 5.5 is easier
Moon 1.6 N kg−1 5 cm3
2 X is positively charged. the identical inverted flask in Figure 5.4.
3 X is neutral. + Mars 3.7 N kg−1 0.25 g cm−3
+
+ empty sand Jupiter 24.9 N kg−1 5000 cm3 2.49 N
+
stopper
+ (c) The gravitational field strength, g, depends on the mass of a planet and the distance from its
X + centre of gravity. It is given by the formula:
+
6.67 × 10–11 × mass of planet
g=
Á Figure 5.4 Á Figure 5.5 (radius of planet)2
A 1 only B 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only ( )
© 2013 Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore) Private Limited Mass, Weight and Density 37
© 2013 Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore) Private Limited Static
cEElectricity 151

40 Worksheet 5 © 2013 Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore) Private Limited

(d) On a particularly hot day in Singapore, the temperature of th

the tap water reaches its highest
value. Calculate the flow rate of water that would al
possible value allow the heater to obtain a water
temperature of 40°C when the power is switched to 2 kW, on this hot day.

Self-directed learning WORK ON IT!

In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant

Work On It! is an enhanced self-diagnostic section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

tool at the end of each worksheet. It will help Learning Objective Multiple-
Choice
Question(s)

Structured
Free-
Response
Textbook
Section(s)

you identify concepts that still need working (a) Give an account of the rise in the
temperature of a substance in terms
of an increase in its internal energy.
–
12(c)(i),
12(c)(ii)
1(d) 11.1

on. In addition, it matches each question to (b) Define the terms heat capacity and
specific heat capacity.
– 2(a) – 11.1

the relevant learning outcome and Textbook (c) Recall and use the formula thermal
energy = mass × specific heat
capacity × temperature change to
solve problems.
1, 2, 3, 4
2(b), 3, 4,
5, 6
3 11.1

section. This matching gives you the option (d) Give an account of melting/
solidification and boiling/ 7(b), 12(b), 11.2
condensation as processes of – 1(c)

of building your understanding by topical thermal energy transfer without a

change in temperature.
12(c)(ii) 11.3

(e) Distinguish between boiling and

revision. (f)
evaporation.

Define the terms latent heat and

–

–
1, 10

8(a)(i), 9(a)
–

–
11.5

11.4
specific latent heat.

(g) Recall and use the formula thermal 8(a)(ii), 8(b),

energy = mass × specific latent heat 3 8(c), 9(b), 2(c), 2(d) 11.4
to solve problems. 11(b)

(h) Explain, in molecular terms, what 11.2

latent heat of fusion and latent heat – 7(b), 12(b) 1(c)
of vaporisation are. 11.3

(i) Draw and explain a temperature−time 7(a), 11(a), 1(a), 1(b), 11.2
–
graph, including a cooling curve. 12(a) 2(a), 2(b) 11.3

98 Worksheet 11 © 2013 Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore) Private Limited

ii

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 Handling information and solving problems
Data-based questions in the worksheets present information and problems in
real-life contexts. You will evaluate, interpret data and solve interesting problems
applicable to everyday situations.

Data-Based Question
3. 17 identical small boats are placed side by side in a lake. When a strong wind blows, the boats
are displaced as a wave travels in the direction shown in Figure 13.7.
f
(c) (i) The object is now moved to a distance of 2 from the lens. In the space provided, draw
aw direction of 'wave'

the ray diagram to locate the image position and size. D E F L M N

C G K O
I
B H J P Q
A

16 m
6.2 m 6.6 m
water

seabed
(ii) Describe the type of image formed. ÁFigure 13.7

(iii) State the magnification.

The time taken for the wave to travel from boat A to boat Q is 8 s.
(iv) State one use for this type of lens arrangement.
(a) State the position(s) of the
(i) crest(s).
Data-Based Question
2. Based on the working principle of an antique camera, a student designs a very simple camera
era
he
(Figure 12.23) using a thin converging lens with a focal length of 10 cm. The position of the (ii) trough(s).
converging lens can be adjusted over a length of 5 cm. A film is situated at the back of the
camera. The nearest possible distance between the film and the lens is d.

(b) Determine the amplitude of the wave.

converging film
lens

(c) (i) Calculate the frequency of the wave.

camera
5 cm d

ÁFigure 12.23

(a) The group of people in Figure 12.23 is far away from the camera. When the lens is adjusted
ted
to distance d from the film, the sharpest image is produced. State the value of d.

1 1 1 (ii) Find the wavelength of the wave.

(b) The lens forms an image on the film according to the relationship u + =
v f

where u = distance between the object and the optical centre;

v = distance between the image and the optical centre;
f = focal length of the lens.
h v
The height of the image hi is given by the formula i =
ho u © 2013 Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore) Private Limited Waves 131
where ho = height of the object.

© 2013 Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore) Private Limited Light 121

Answer It Right!
Answer It Right! guides you on how to interpret questions, so you understand
exactly what a question is asking for. As you go through the pointers and
accompanying worked examples, you will pick up the secrets to answering
questions well.
Theme

Theme 3: Light, Waves and Sound

me 3: Answer It Right!

Answer It Right!
Go through the following worked examples. Use the tips provided to help you answer
questions well.
Answer
Worked Example 1
As the particles in the warmer microprocessor gain thermal energy and vibrate more vigorously, they collide
Electromagnetic waves such as visible light are transverse waves, while sound waves are longitudinal
waves. with the neighbouring particles in the cooler heat sink. Hence, thermal energy is transferred from the

microprocessor to the heat sink.

(a) State one difference between a transverse wave and a longitudinal wave.

The term “state” requires a short answer with no explanation. z Since the question specifically asks you to describe heat conduction by particles, you must refer to heat
conduction in your answer.
z Stating a correct fact does not mean you have answered the question. For example, the sentence
Answer “Air particles in the warmer region of the heat sink rise,” is factually correct. However, this sentence
A transverse wave travels in a direction perpendicular to the direction of wave vibration, while a longitudinal describes the convection process, and not the conduction process, so even though particles are
mentioned, the question is not answered.
wave travels in a direction parallel to the direction of wave vibration.
(b) The diagram below shows a simplified cross-sectional diagram, showing the components within the
(b) Electromagnetic waves are used in the broadcasting of television programmes. A particular casing of a desktop computer. In addition to the heat sink, two small fans are installed near the
television channel broadcasts its television programmes using electromagnetic waves of frequency top and the bottom of the computer casing to help maintain a cool internal environment.
1.81 w 108 Hz. If the speed of light is 3.00 w 108 m s−1, calculate the wavelength of the
electromagnetic waves. (top)
computer casing
Answer
v = f × Q
(back) (front)
3.00 × 108 = 1.81 × 108 × Q
Q = 1.66 m
fan
Wavelength = 1.66 m other components

z Your numerical answer should be expressed as a decimal with the appropriate number of microprocessor
significant figures.
z Unless otherwise specified in the question, you should not write your answer in terms of a fraction.
z When you are asked to calculate a physical quantity, your final answer should include both the numerical
magnitude and the unit. In this case, the magnitude “1.66” and the unit “m” should be included. fan
z You should also inspect your answer and ask yourself whether the numerical value is reasonable.
Radio waves are much longer than light waves. So if your answer is in μm, double-check your working (bottom)
to see if you have used the correct order of magnitude.

Explain how installing the two fans as shown can help to maintain a cool environment in the interior
(c) When sound waves from a loudspeaker travel in air, they produce a series of regions of of the computer.
compressions and rarefactions, caused by the vibration of air molecules.
When asked to “explain” something, you need to write more than facts or definitions that you have
compressions wave direction memorised. Your answer needs to include some reasoning or reference to a theory. You will need to link
loudspeaker the facts with the situation described in the question.

vibrating
diaphragm rarefactions ear

© 2013 Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore) Private Limited Light, Waves and Sound 99

© 2013 Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore) Private Limited Thermal Physics 65

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 Contents

THEME 1: GENERAL PHYSICS

Answer It Right! 1

Chapter 1 Measurement Worksheet 1 All topics 5

Chapter 2 Kinematics Worksheet 2A 2.1 Distance and Displacement 11

2.2 Speed, Velocity and Acceleration
2.3 Displacement–Time Graphs
Worksheet 2B 2.2 Speed, Velocity and Acceleration 15
2.3 Velocity–Time Graphs
2.4 Acceleration due to Gravity

Chapter 3 Forces Worksheet 3 All topics 23

Chapter 4 Mass, Weight and Worksheet 4 All topics 33

Density

Chapter 5 Turning Effect of Forces Worksheet 5 All topics 39

Chapter 6 Energy, Work and Power Worksheet 6 All topics 45

Chapter 7 Pressure Worksheet 7 All topics 55

THEME 2: THERMAL PHYSICS

Answer It Right! 63

Chapter 8 Temperature Worksheet 8 All topics 67

Chapter 9 Kinetic Model of Matter Worksheet 9 All topics 71

Chapter 10 Transfer of Thermal Worksheet 10 All topics 77

Energy

Chapter 11 Thermal Properties Worksheet 11 All topics 87

of Matter

iv

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 THEME 3: LIGHT, WAVES AND SOUND

Answer It Right! 99

Chapter 12 Light Worksheet 12A 12.1 Reflection of Light 103

12.2 Refraction of Light
12.3 Total Internal Reflection
Worksheet 12B 12.4 Refraction by Thin Lenses 115
12.5 Ray Diagrams for Thin Converging
Lenses

Chapter 13 Waves Worksheet 13 All topics 123

Chapter 14 Electromagnetic Worksheet 14 All topics 133

Waves

Chapter 15 Sound Worksheet 15 All topics 137

THEME 4: ELECTRICITY AND MAGNETISM

Answer It Right! 147

Chapter 16 Static Electricity Worksheet 16 All topics 151

Chapter 17 Current Electricity Worksheet 17 All topics 161

Chapter 18 D.C. Circuits Worksheet 18A 18.1 Series Circuits 169

18.2 Parallel Circuits
18.3 Resistors in Series and Parallel
Worksheet 18B 18.4 Potential Dividers 175
18.5 Input Transducers

Chapter 19 Practical Electricity Worksheet 19 All topics 179

Chapter 20 Magnetism Worksheet 20 All topics 189

Chapter 21 Electromagnetism Worksheet 21 All topics 197

Chapter 22 Electromagnetic Worksheet 22A 22.1 Electromagnetic Induction 207

Induction 22.2 Alternating Current Generators
Worksheet 22B 22.3 Transformers 211
22.4 Cathode-Ray Oscilloscopes
v

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(S)PMWB_Frontmatter.indd vi 8/22/12 1:35 PM
 Theme 1: Answer It Right!
Theme 1: General Physics
Answer It Right!
Go through the following worked examples. Use the tips provided to help you answer
questions well.

Worked Example 1
A car travels along a straight road from rest. The velocity of the car at various intervals is recorded and
tabulated as shown below.

Velocity/m s−1 0.00 8.50 15.00 20.00 23.00 24.00

Time/s 0.0 2.0 4.0 6.0 8.0 10.0

(a) Plot a graph of velocity against time for the car from time t = 0.0 s to time t = 10.0 s, using a best
fit curve.

Answer

Velocity/m s–1

24.00

22.00

20.00

18.00

16.00

14.00

12.00

10.00

8.00

6.00

4.00

2.00

0.00 Time/s
0.0 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0 6.0 7.0 8.0 9.0 10.0

© 2013 Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore) Private Limited General Physics 1

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 • Remember to label both the vertical axis and the horizontal axis with the correct physical quantity and
its unit. In this example, the vertical axis and horizontal axis are labelled “Velocity/m s−1” and “Time/s”
respectively.
• Check whether you need to start the graph from the origin, i.e. at (0,0). In this example, the initial
velocity is 0.00 m s−1 at time t = 0.0 s, so you should mark your scales for the vertical axis and
horizontal axis from the origin.
• Plan carefully to determine suitable scales for the two axes, and such that your plotted graph fills at
least half of the graph paper.
• Plot all the points of the graph carefully and clearly using small crosses. (Contrast this to sketching a
graph, where no points are plotted and no actual values are necessary.)
• For more tips on graph plotting, go to Answer It Right! (pages 147 to 149).

(b) From the graph plotted in (a), estimate the acceleration of the car at time t = 5.0 s.

• When asked to “estimate” the value of a physical quantity, you should provide an answer (measured or
calculated) of reasonable magnitude, using approximated information.
• Here, the acceleration of the car is found by determining the gradient of the best fit graph at time
t = 5.0 s.

Answer
Velocity/m s–1
(7.5,24.00)
24.00

22.00

20.00

18.00

16.00

14.00

12.00

10.00

8.00
(1.0,8.00)

6.00

4.00

2.00

0.00 Time/s
0.0 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0 6.0 7.0 8.0 9.0 10.0

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 (24.00 – 8.00)
At t = 5.0 s, gradient = = 2.5
(7.5 – 1.0)
∴ The acceleration at time t = 5.0 s is 2.5 m s−2.

Bear in mind to draw the tangent to the curve at the correct point. A large triangle should be used to
determine the gradient. The hypotenuse of this triangle is the tangent to the curve.

Worked Example 2
A box is pulled along a rough horizontal surface at constant velocity with a force of 15 N.

box moving at constant velocity

15 N
box
rough horizontal surface

(a) On the diagram, draw an arrow to indicate the frictional force on the horizontal surface that acts
on the box. Label this frictional force R.

Answer

box moving at constant velocity

15 N
box
rough horizontal surface R

• When drawing an arrow to show how a force acts on a body, remember that the arrow should originate
from the point where the force acts. The arrow should be attached to the body, and not ‘float’ in the
diagram. Give the arrow an appropriate label, and according to what is asked by the question.
• In this example, you are asked to draw an arrow to indicate the frictional force on the horizontal
surface. Thus, the arrow should lie along the horizontal surface, and the direction of the arrow should
be opposite to the motion of the box.

© 2013 Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore) Private Limited General Physics 3

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 (b) Determine the value of the frictional force.

Answer
Since the box is moving at constant velocity, the resultant force on the box is zero.
Frictional force = pulling force
= 15 N

(c) The box is then pulled along the surface with a force of 40 N, over a distance of 100 m in
2.5 minutes. Determine the power of the 40 N force.

Answer

Time taken = 2.5 min × 60 = 150 s

work done
Power =
time
W
P=
t
F×s
=
t
(40 × 100)
=
150
= 26.7 W

When converting the time from minutes to seconds, take note that 2.5 minutes is not equal to 250
seconds. Likewise, 2 minutes 50 seconds is not equal to 2.5 minutes.

(d) Suggest a method of reducing the frictional force between the box and the horizontal surface.

“Suggest” means that there could be more than one possible answer. You may also need to apply your
general knowledge (not found in textbooks) to answer the question.

Answer
Small wheels or rollers can be attached to the bottom of the box to reduce the frictional force. / A lubricant

can be applied to the surface to reduce the frictional force.

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 Name: ( )

Chapter 1: Measurement
Class: Date:

Worksheet 1
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions

1. The diagram shows a pair of vernier calipers used to measure the diameter of a ball. What is the
diameter of the ball?

cm 0 1 2 3 4 5

0 5 10

A 1.14 cm
B 1.34 cm
C 2.14 cm
D 2.24 cm ( C )

2. The diagram shows the reading on a pair of vernier calipers. What is the reading shown?

3 4 cm

0 10

A 0.07 cm
B 3.37 cm
C 3.42 cm
D 4.47 cm ( C )

3. Which instruments are most suitable for taking accurate measurements of the diameter of an iron
nail and the internal diameter of a test tube?

Diameter of an iron nail Internal diameter of a test tube

A Micrometer screw gauge Metre rule
B Micrometer screw gauge Vernier calipers
C Metre rule Micrometer screw gauge
D Metre rule Vernier calipers ( B )

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 4. The diagram shows a simple pendulum. The bob
of the pendulum is released at X. If the pendulum
takes 6.4 s to make ten oscillations, how long will
it take to swing from X to Y?

A 0.16 s B 0.32 s C 0.64 s D 6.4 s ( A )

Working/Explanation
Period T = 6.4 = 0.64 s
10
Since the motion from X to Y is exactly a quarter of an oscillation,
time taken to swing from X to Y = 0.64 = 0.16 s
4

5. The diagram shows a simple pendulum. Which of the

following statements about the period of the pendulum
is/are not true?

1 It is the time taken for the bob to swing from

Q to P and back to Q.
2 It is independent of the mass of the bob.
3 It increases as the length of the pendulum increases. P R
Q

A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only ( A )

Section B: Structured Questions

1. (a) State the SI unit of length. Metre

(b) The diameter of the Earth is about 10 Mm, while the diameter of an atom is 0.5 nm. Express
the diameters of the Earth and the atom in metres.
Diameter of the Earth = 10 Mm = 10 × 106 m = 1 × 107 m
Diameter of the atom = 0.5 nm = 5 × 10–10 m

(c) How many atoms, when lined up next to each other, make up the diameter of the Earth?

Number of atoms = 1 × 10–10

7

5 × 10
= 2 × 1016

6 Worksheet 1 © 2013 Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore) Private Limited

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 2. A student measures the diameter of a garden hose using a pair of vernier calipers (Figure 1.1).

0 10 20 30 40 50 60 70 80 90 100mm

0 10 0.1 mm

20 30

0 10 ◀ Figure 1.1

(a) Write down the reading of the diameter of the garden hose.

Diameter d = 2.16 cm

(b) Describe one precaution you need to take when using vernier calipers to measure length.

Check for zero error by checking that the zero mark on the main scale coincides with the zero mark

on the vernier scale when the outside jaws touch each other.

(c) Describe briefly how you can improve the accuracy of the student’s measurement.

Obtain several readings of the diameter by taking measurements at various points along the hose.

Then, take the average value of the readings.

3. Table 1.1 shows some readings of a micrometer screw gauge. Complete the table by stating
the readings obtained before and after correcting the zero errors.
▼ Table 1.1
Readings of micrometer screw gauge
Corrected readings for the following zero errors:

5 0
0
mm 0
mm
0 45
Observation Uncorrected
reading datum line datum line
thimble scale thimble scale
Zero mark on thimble scale Zero mark on thimble scale
is below datum line, i.e. zero is above datum line, i.e.
error = +0.02 mm zero error = –0.03 mm

0 5
0 0.97 0.95 1.00
mm mm mm
45

mm

0 20
15 1.12 1.10 1.15
mm mm mm
10
mm

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 4. A student checks the accuracy of an antique clock (Figure 1.2).
He uses a digital stopwatch to find the period of the clock’s pendulum. XI XII I

II III IV
(a) If X and Y are the two extreme positions of each oscillation,

XI
VIII
state the path of one complete oscillation. V VI VII

X → Y → X or Y → X → Y

(b) His timings for two separate measurements of 20 oscillations

are 35.70 s and 34.98 s. Calculate the average period of the
clock’s pendulum. X Y

Average timing t for 20 oscillations = 35.70 + 34.98 = 35.34 s

2
t 35.34 ▲ Figure 1.2
Average period T of pendulum = = = 1.77 s
20 20

(c) Using the terms “increases”, “decreases” or “remains unchanged”, state the effect (if any)
on the period of the pendulum when
(i) a heavier pendulum bob is used: Remains unchanged ;
(ii) the number of oscillations is increased: Remains unchanged ;
(iii) a smaller angle of swing is used: Remains unchanged ;
(iv) a longer pendulum is used: Increases .

Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. There are various ways to measure the average diameter of a wire.

(a) With the aid of a diagram, describe how you would determine the average diameter of a long
wire using only a pencil and a ruler.

w
1 2 3 4 5 67 n

Wind the wire tightly around the pencil with as many turns as possible. Ensure the turns touch each
other (i.e. no gaps in between), but do not overlap. Measure the width w using the ruler. The average
diameter d of the long wire is given by the formula d = w .
n

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 (b) Suppose you are given a metre rule, a tape measure, a pair of vernier calipers and a
micrometer screw gauge.
(i) If the average diameter of the long wire in (a) is found to be 0.47 mm, which of these
instruments would you use to confirm your result? Explain your answer.
Micrometer screw gauge. It has a precision of 0.01 mm.

(ii) If the wire is about 70 cm long, which of these instruments would you use to confirm its
length?
Metre rule / tape measure

Data-Based Question
2. A student is given a square, steel plate of known density 7500 kg m–3. Using measuring instruments,
he attempts to derive the density of the steel plate. Table 1.2 shows the dimensions of the steel
plate he has measured.
▼ Table 1.2

Length of steel plate/cm Width of steel plate/cm Mass of steel plate/g

30.0 30.0 651.2

The student then uses a micrometer screw gauge to measure the thickness of the steel plate.
Figure 1.3(a) shows the zero reading of the micrometer screw gauge. Figure 1.3(b) shows the
reading of the thickness of the steel plate.

5
10

0 0 0
5

0 45

40

▲ Figure 1.3(a) ▲ Figure 1.3(b)

(a) What is the thickness of the steel plate?

Zero error = +0.04 mm
Reading in Figure 1.3(b) = 0.50 + 0.48 = 0.98 mm
Thickness h of steel plate = 0.98 – (+0.04) = 0.94 mm

(b) Using the values in Table 1.2, calculate the volume of the steel plate. Give your answer in
cubic centimetres.
Given: length l of steel plate = 30.0 cm
width w of steel plate = 30.0 cm
Thickness h of steel plate = 0.94 mm = 0.094 cm
Volume = l × w × h
= 30.0 × 30.0 × 0.094
= 84.6 cm3

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 (c) (i) State the formula for density. (Hint: Think of a unit of density such as kg m–3 or g cm–3.)

Density = mass
volume

(ii) Calculate the density of the steel plate correct to two significant figures. Give your
answer in kg m–3.
Volume of steel plate = 84.6 cm3 = 84.6 × 10–6 m3 = 8.46 × 10–5 m3
Mass of steel plate = 651.2 g = 0.6512 kg

Density of steel plate = mass

volume
= 0.6512 –5
8.46 × 10
≈ 7700 kg m–3 (correct to two significant figures)

(d) Suggest one possible reason why the density of the steel plate derived by the student
differs so greatly from its known density.
The steel plate does not have uniform thickness. Thus, the thickness measured would not be

accurate if measured at only one point on the steel plate.

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response
(a) Show understanding that all physical
quantities consist of a numerical – – – 1.2
magnitude and a unit.

(b) List the seven base quantities and their

SI units. – 1(a) 2(c) 1.2

(c) Use prefixes and symbols to indicate

very large or very small SI quantities. – 1(b) 2(b) 1.2

(d) Show an understanding of how the

sizes of objects, such as an atom
and the Earth, can range in orders of – 1(c) – 1.3
magnitude.

(e) Describe how to measure a variety

of lengths using the appropriate
instruments (e.g. tape measure, metre 1, 2, 3 2, 3 1, 2(a), 2(d) 1.3
rule, vernier calipers, micrometer screw
gauge).

(f) Describe how to measure a short period

of time with appropriate accuracy, using 4, 5 4 – 1.4
appropriate instruments.

10 Worksheet 1 © 2013 Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore) Private Limited

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 Name: ( )

Chapter 2: Kinematics
For topics
2.1 Distance and
Class: Date: Displacement
2.2 Speed, Velocity and
Acceleration

Worksheet 2A 2.3 Displacement–Time

Graphs

Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions

1. A man takes 20 s to walk briskly due east for 10 m and then due west for 12 m. What are the
average speed and average velocity of the man during the 20 s? (Take due east to be the positive
direction.)

Average speed Average velocity

A 0.1 m s−1 −0.1 m s−1
B 1.1 m s−1 0.1 m s−1
C 1.1 m s−1 −0.1 m s−1
D 1.1 m s−1 1.1 m s−1 ( C )

Working/Explanation

Average speed = total distance travelled = 10 + 12 = 1.1 m s−1

total time taken 20

Average velocity = total displacement = 10 – 12 = –0.1 m s−1

total time taken 20

2. When an object is accelerating, which of the following has to change?

1 The speed at which the object is moving
2 The velocity at which the object is moving
3 The force applied to the object
A 1 only B 2 only C 3 only D 1, 2 and 3 ( B )

3. A man walks at a velocity of 3 m s−1 before accelerating at a rate of 2 m s−2 for 4 s. What is his
velocity at the end of the 4 s?
A 10 m s−1 B 11 m s−1 C 14 m s−1 D 24 m s−1 ( B )

Working/Explanation

a= v–u
∆t
v–3
2=
4
v = 11 m s−1

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 4. A car’s journey is described in the table. Part of journey Motion
Which of the following displacement–time
graphs shows the motion of the car for the First part Constant velocity
whole journey? Second part Not moving
Third part Accelerates

A Displacement B Displacement

0 Time 0 Time

C Displacement D Displacement

0 Time 0 Time ( A )

Section B: Structured Questions

1. (a) (i) Define velocity.

Velocity is the rate of change of displacement.

(ii) State what is meant by uniform acceleration.

Uniform acceleration occurs when the change (increase or decrease) in the velocity of an object

for each unit of time is the same.

(b) A cyclist starts from rest and accelerates at 1.5 m s−2. Calculate the amount of time taken
for his velocity to reach 2.25 m s−1.
Given: initial velocity u = 0 m s−1
acceleration a = 1.5 m s−2
final velocity v = 2.25 m s−1
Using a = v – u where t = time taken,
t
v – u 2.25 – 0
t= = = 1.5 s
a 1.5

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 2. (a) Define speed.

Speed is the distance moved per unit time.

(b) Is speed a scalar or vector quantity? Explain your answer.

Scalar quantity. It has magnitude only.

(c) A man leaves Singapore at 8.00 a.m. for Kuala Lumpur, which is 384 km away. If he reaches
his destination at 4.00 p.m., calculate his average speed in
(i) km h–1; (ii) m s–1.

Average speed = total distance travelled Average speed = 48 km h−1

total time taken
= 48 × 1000 = 13 m s−1
= 384 = 48 km h−1 60 × 60
8

Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. Figure 2.1 shows the displacement–time graph s/m

of an object.
(a) Determine the velocity of the object during the 5
first 3 s.
The gradient of the displacement–time graph gives t/s
0
the velocity. 3 10 12 15
For the first 3 s,

gradient = (5 – 0) = 1.67
(3 – 0) b
▲ Figure 2.1
⬖ Velocity of object during the first 3 s is 1.67 m s . −1

(b) Determine the velocity of the object from t = 3 s to t = 10 s.

From t = 3 s to t = 10 s, the displacement–time graph has zero gradient.
⬖ Velocity of object from t = 3 s to t = 10 s is 0 m s−1.

(c) Determine the velocity of the object from t = 10 s to t = 15 s.

From t = 10 s to t = 15 s,

gradient = (0 – 5) = −2.5
(12 – 10)
⬖ Velocity of object from t = 10 s to t = 15 s is −2.5 m s−1.

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 (d) Determine the acceleration of the object at t = 11 s.

From t = 10 s to t = 15 s, the object is moving at a constant negative velocity.

⬖ At t = 11 s, acceleration = 0 m s−2

(e) Determine the value of b.

From t = 12 s to t = 15 s,

gradient = (b – 0)
(15 – 12)

−2.5 = (b – 0)
(15 – 12)
b = −2.5 × 3 = −7.5

(f) Find the distance travelled in the first 12 s.

Distance travelled = 5 + 5 = 10 m

(g) State the displacement at t = 12 s.

At t = 12 s, displacement s = 0 m

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) Understand and distinguish between scalar

– 2(b) – 2.1
and vector quantities.

(b) Distinguish between speed and velocity. 1 1(a)(i), 2(a) – 2.2

distance travelled
(c) Find average speed using time taken . 1 2(c) – 2.2

(d) State what uniform acceleration is and

calculate the value of acceleration using 2, 3 1(a)(ii), 1(b) – 2.2
change in velocity
.
time taken

(e) Plot and understand a displacement–time

4 – 1 2.3
graph.

(f) Deduce information about motion from the

4 – 1 2.3
shape of a displacement–time graph.

14 Worksheet 2A © 2013 Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore) Private Limited

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 Name: ( )

Chapter 2: Kinematics
For topics
2.2 Speed, Velocity
Class: Date: and Acceleration
2.3 Velocity–Time
Graphs

Worksheet 2B 2.4 Acceleration due

to Gravity

Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions

1. A cyclist riding at a velocity of 5 m s–1 braked with uniform deceleration and travelled 3 m before
she came to a stop. How long did she take to stop?
A 0.6 s B 1.2 s C 1.33 s D 3.0 s ( B )

Working/Explanation
Sketch a velocity–time graph. Velocity/m s−1
Displacement = area under v–t graph
5
3=1×t×5
2
t = 1.2 s

0 Time/s
t

2. Which of the following velocity–time graphs shows the motion of a piece of paper dropping vertically
through air?
A Velocity B Velocity

0 Time 0 Time

C Velocity D Velocity

0 Time 0 Time ( C )

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 3. A car’s journey is described in the table. Part of journey Motion
Which of the following velocity–time graphs
First part Accelerates from rest
shows the motion of the car for the
whole journey? Second part Constant velocity
Third part Decelerates to rest

A Velocity B Velocity

0 Time 0 Time

C Velocity D Velocity

0 Time 0 Time

( A )

4. Which of the following graphs shows a moving object undergoing increasing deceleration?
A Velocity B Velocity

0 Time 0 Time

C Velocity D Velocity

0 Time 0 Time ( B )

5. A stone is thrown upwards into the air. v/m s−1

The velocity–time graph of the stone
during the first 2 s of its motion is shown.
20
What is the acceleration of the stone
at its maximum height? 10

t/s
0
1 2 3

A 10 m s−2 B 20 m s−2 C 30 m s−2 D 40 m s−2 ( A )

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 6. The graph below shows how the velocity of an object changes with time.

v/m s−1
25

t/s
0 5 10

−25

Which of the following graphs shows how the acceleration of the object varies with time?
A a/m s−2 B a/m s−2

t/s
0 t/s
0

C a/m s−2 D a/m s−2

t/s
t/s 0
0
( B )

Section B: Structured Questions

1. Figure 2.2 shows the velocity–time graph for Velocity/m s–1

the first 125 s of the journey of a lorry.
35
(a) During the journey of the lorry, describe 30
what happens to 25
(i) the velocity of the lorry; 20
15
It increases until it reaches a constant 10
5
velocity of 25 m s−1.
0 Time/s
0 20 40 60 80 100 120
(ii) the acceleration of the lorry. ▲ Figure 2.2

It decreases to zero.

(b) Determine the maximum velocity of the lorry in km h−1.

Maximum velocity = 25 m s−1
25 × 10–3
= = 90 km h−1
1
60 × 60

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 2. (a) Complete Table 2.1 by sketching the correct velocity–time graphs of an object in motion.

▼ Table 2.1

Motion of object Velocity–time graph

(i) Object is moving with constant acceleration.
v

(ii) Object is moving with zero acceleration.

v

(iii) Object is moving with increasing

acceleration. v

(b) A ball is thrown upwards vertically. The initial velocity of the ball is 20 m s−1. The ball takes
2 s to reach the maximum height.
(i) Draw the velocity–time graph for the first two seconds of its motion. (Assume that air
resistance is negligible.)

v/m s–1

20

10

0 t/s
1 2 3

(ii) Using the graph in (b)(i), calculate the acceleration due to gravity.
For the first 2 s,

gradient = (0 – 20) = −10

(2 – 0)
Taking upwards to be the positive direction, acceleration due to gravity is 10 m s−2
(downwards).

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 3. Figure 2.3 shows the velocity–time graph of a car travelling a straight path.

v/m s–1

15

10

5
A B C D

0 t/s
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
▲ Figure 2.3

(a) Determine the acceleration in each of the four phases A, B, C and D.

For phase A, acceleration = 10 – 0 = 5 m s−2

2–0
For phase B, acceleration = 0 m s−2

For phase C, acceleration = 15 – 10 = 2.5 m s–2

8–6
0 – 15
For phase D, acceleration = = –3.75 m s–2
12 – 8
[Note: For phase D, the minus sign indicates deceleration.]

(b) Determine the total distance travelled.

Total distance travelled = area under v–t graph

= 1 (2 × 10) + (4 × 10) + 1 (2)(10 + 15) + 1 (4 × 15)

2 2 2
= 10 + 40 + 25 + 30
= 105 m

(c) Calculate the average speed for the whole journey.

Average speed = total distance travelled
total time taken

= 105
12
= 8.75 m s–1

4. Air is removed from a tall jar to create a vacuum. A feather and a coin that are released together
from the top of the jar reach the bottom of the jar at the same time.
(a) Describe the motion of the two falling objects.

In the absence of air resistance inside the tall jar, the velocity of the two falling objects increases

at the same rate (by 10 m s–1 for every second). In other words, the two falling objects undergo a

constant acceleration of 10 m s–2 (acceleration of free fall).

© 2013 Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore) Private Limited Kinematics 19

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 (b) Sketch the velocity–time graph of the two falling objects.
v/m s−1

30

20

10

0 t/s
1 2 3

Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. Cars A and B are in a race. The velocity–time graph v/m s−1

in Figure 2.4 shows the motion of both cars during 20 car A

the race. Both cars are at the same starting position
at t = 0. 15 car B

10

t/s
0
▶ Figure 2.4 20 40 60 80

(a) Describe the motion of cars A and B up until the time when their velocities become constant.

Both cars are at rest before they take off. For the first 20 s, car B has a higher acceleration than

car A. The velocity of car B becomes constant at t = 20 s, while the velocity of car A becomes

constant at t = 40 s.

(b) Calculate the distance travelled by both cars at t = 40 s.

Distance travelled = area under v–t graph

At t = 40 s, distance travelled by car A = 1 (40 × 20) = 400 m

2

At t = 40 s, distance travelled by car B = 1 (20 × 15) + (20 × 15) = 450 m

2

(c) Determine the distance separating both cars at t = 40 s. State which car is in the lead.
At t = 40 s, distance separating both cars = 450 − 400 = 50 m
Car B is leading.

(d) (i) Describe the motion of cars A and B from t = 40 s onwards.

Car A moves at a constant speed of 20 m s−1, while car B moves at a constant speed of

15 m s−1.

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 (ii) Calculate the time when both cars are at the same position again.
v/m s−1

20 20t' − 15t' = 50
car A
15 5t' = 50
car B t' = 10 s
Both cars are at the same position
again when t = 40 + 10 = 50 s.
0 t/s
40 t'

Data-Based Question
2. Figure 2.5 shows an athlete training to achieve maximum distance in the long jump. The objective
of the approach run is for the athlete to achieve the ideal velocity before he takes off.

◀ Figure 2.5

Table 2.2 shows how the horizontal velocity of the athlete changes from the start of his approach
run to the moment he takes off.
▼ Table 2.2

Time/s 0 1 2 3 4 5 6
Velocity/m s –1
0.0 0.7 2.7 6.1 8.6 9.4 9.9

(a) On the grid provided, plot the velocity–time graph for the athlete.
v/m s−1
(4.15,10.0)
10.0

9.0

8.0

7.0

6.0

5.0

4.0

3.0

2.0

1.0

(1.25,0.0)
0.0 t/s
1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0 6.0 7.0 8.0 9.0 10.0
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 (b) Estimate his maximum acceleration.

Maximum acceleration occurs between t = 2 s and t = 3 s.

Between t = 2 s and t = 3 s, the instantaneous acceleration is ∆v = (10.0 – 0.0) = 3.4 m s−2

∆t (4.15 – 1.25)

(c) Estimate the distance the long jumper runs before he takes off.

Distance travelled = area under v–t graph

Since there are approximately 32 squares under the graph, distance travelled ≈ 32 m

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(g) Understand examples of non-uniform

4 2(a)(iii) – 2.2
acceleration.

(h) Plot and understand a velocity–time graph. 3 1, 2, 4(b) 1, 2 2.3

(i) Deduce information about motion from the 1, 2, 3, 4,

shape of a velocity–time graph. 1, 2(b)(ii), 3 1, 2 2.3
5, 6

(j) Determine displacement by calculating

– 3(b) 1(b), 2(c) 2.3
area under a velocity–time graph.

(k) State that the acceleration of free fall

near the Earth’s surface is constant, at 5 2(b)(ii) – 2.4
approximately 10 m s−2.
(l) Describe the motion of free-falling bodies
with or without air resistance, and 2 4 – 2.4
understand what terminal velocity is.

22 Worksheet 2B © 2013 Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore) Private Limited

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 Name: ( )

Chapter 3: Forces
Class: Date:

Worksheet 3
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions

1. In which of the following is F the resultant force?

A B C D

F F F F

( D )

2. The diagram below shows two forces acting at right angles to each other.

3N

4N

Which of the following shows the resultant force?

A B C D

7N 7N 5N 5N

( C )

Working/Explanation
For forces acting at right angles to each other, we can use the
Pythagoras’ Theorem to find the magnitude of the resultant force.
5N
Resultant force = 冪32 + 42 = 5 N 3N
[Note: The tip-to-tail method is used to find the resultant force.
Hence, in the diagram drawn, the 3 N force has shifted.] 4N

3. Which of the following is/are possible when an object experiences two equal and opposite forces,
as shown below?
1 The object remains stationary. F F
object
2 The object accelerates.
3 The object moves at constant speed.
A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3 ( C )

© 2013 Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore) Private Limited Forces 23

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 4. Two forces are applied to a block of mass 0.25 kg in the directions shown below. Assuming no
friction is present, what is the acceleration of the block?

15 N 12 N
0.25 kg

A 12 m s–2 B 48 m s–2 C 60 m s–2 D 108 m s–2 ( A )

Working/Explanation
Resultant force F = 15 − 12 = 3 N
Using F = ma,
F
a=
m
3
= = 12 m s–2
0.25

5. Two unequal forces act on a moving object as shown below. What is a possible effect of these
two forces acting on the moving object?
direction of motion
1 The object accelerates.
2 The object decelerates.
force 1 force 2
3 The object stops moving and does not move again. object

A 3 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only ( B )

6. The diagram shows a car of mass 1000 kg travelling at a uniform speed of 12 m s−1.

resistive force
forward driving force
to motion

If the forward driving force is 2000 N, what is the magnitude of the resistive force to motion that
acts on the car?
A 0N B 2000 N C 3000 N D 12 000 N ( B )

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 7. A forward force F acts on a block moving on a rough surface. A frictional force f acts in the opposite
direction. If F is equal in magnitude to f, the block will
A undergo constant acceleration.
B undergo constant deceleration.
C move forward with constant velocity.
D move in the opposite direction with constant velocity. ( C )

8. The diagram below shows three forces acting on an object Q.

Which of the following forces, if added above, will result in object Q being at equilibrium?
A B C D

( A )

9. The diagram shows a box resting on the floor.

The following forces are at work. box

FBE
FBE: Gravitational force acting on the box by the Earth
FFB: Contact force acting on the floor by the box FFB
FBF: Contact force acting on the box by the floor
FEB: Gravitational force acting on the Earth by the box FBF

FEB

Which of the following pairs show action–reaction forces at work?

1 FBE and FBF 2 FBE and FEB 3 FFB and FBF 4 FFB and FEB

A 1 and 2 only
B 2 and 3 only
C 3 and 4 only
D 1 and 3 only ( B )

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 10. A 12 N force acts on a 1 kg mass and a 3 kg mass
as shown. Which of the following pairs of forces
12 N
is correct?
1 kg 3 kg

Force of 1 kg mass Force of 3 kg mass

acting on 3 kg mass acting on 1 kg mass
A 3N 9N
B 9N 3N
C 3N 3N
D 9N 9N ( D )

Working/Explanation
Using F = ma,
F 12
a= =
m 1+3
= 3 m s−2
Force exerted by 1 kg mass on 3 kg mass = 3 × 3 = 9 N
According to Newton’s Third Law of Motion (for every action, there is an equal and opposite
reaction), force exerted by 3 kg mass on 1 kg mass = 9 N

Section B: Structured Questions

1. Figures 3.1 to 3.4, drawn to scale (1 cm : 2 N), each show a 3 N force and 4 N force acting on an
object. Find the resultant force when the two forces act
(a) in the same direction; (b) in opposite directions;

3N 4N 3N 4N

▲ Figure 3.1 ▲ Figure 3.2

7N 1N
Resultant force = 3 + 4 = 7 N to the right Resultant force = 4 – 3 = 1 N to the right
(c) at right angles; (d) at angles to each other.
3N
3N
5N
90°
60° 6.1 N
37° 25°
4N
4N
▲ Figure 3.3 ▲ Figure 3.4

Resultant force = 5 N at an angle of Resultant force = 6.1 N at an angle of

θ = 37° to the 4 N force θ = 25° to the 4 N force

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 2. Figure 3.5 shows a bob of weight 40 N suspended by a string at P. The bob is pulled to one side
by a spring balance, which registers a reading of 30 N. With the aid of a diagram, determine the
magnitude and direction of the tension in the string acting on the bob.
Using the parallelogram method (scale 1 cm : 10 N),
resultant force of weight and force exerted by spring balance
= 50 N at an angle of 37° to the vertical (downwards).
∴ Tension in string = 50 N at an angle of 37° to the vertical (upwards). P

30 N string
spring balance

37°

50 N

40 N
40 N
▲ Figure 3.5

3. Two forces F1 and F2 act on a small bead P as shown in Figure 3.6 (scale 1 cm : 1 N). A third force
F3 acts on P so that P is in equilibrium. Find the magnitude and the direction of F3.

F2
1 cm F1 and
of F 1
ultant
res

F2

1 cm
▲ Figure 3.6

Using the parallelogram method,

resultant force = 5.4 N at an angle of 22° to the horizontal (upwards).
Since F3 acts such that P is in equilibrium,
F3 = 5.4 N at an angle of 22° to the horizontal (downwards).

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 4. (a) Write down (in symbols) the equation relating the resultant force F, mass m and acceleration
a of a body.
F = ma

(b) A trolley of mass 3 kg is pulled by a constant force on a frictionless surface.

(i) If the acceleration of the trolley is 2 m s–2, calculate the resultant force.
F = ma
=3×2=6N

(ii) If the force applied is 3 N, calculate the acceleration of the trolley.

F
a= m
3
= = 1 m s–2
3

(c) When the trolley in (b) is pushed along a different surface with a force of 6 N, it moves
with a constant speed of 0.40 m s−1. When the trolley is pushed along the surface
with a force of 15 N, describe and explain what happens in terms of the acceleration of
the trolley.

When the force of 15 N is applied, the resultant force F = 15 − 6 = 9 N. Using Newton’s Second Law
F 9
of Motion, acceleration a = = = 3 m s–2. The trolley moves with constant acceleration.
m 3

5. A car is travelling at a constant speed of 20 m s−1 along a road with a frictional force of 500 N.
(a) (i) State the resultant force acting on the car. 0N

(ii) State the driving force of the car. 500 N

(b) When the speed is 20 m s−1, the car engine is switched off.
(i) State and explain what happens to the motion of the car when its engine is
switched off.

When the engine is switched off, the car has no driving force. Only the 500 N frictional force acts

on the car. This resultant opposing force causes the car to decelerate until it eventually stops.

(ii) Given that the car has a mass of 400 kg, calculate the deceleration of the car.
F = ma
−500 = 400a
a = −1.25 m s−2
∴ The deceleration of the car is 1.25 m s−2.

(iii) Calculate the speed of the car 4 s after its engine is switched off.
v–u
a= ∆t
v – 20
−1.25 = 4
v = 15 m s−1
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 6. (a) Give one example each of how friction can act as a constructive force and a destructive
force.

Friction can act as a constructive force that enables us to walk. Friction can act as a destructive

force in the moving parts of machines, causing wear and tear.

(b) Figure 3.7 shows a 2 kg box being pushed by an external force F of 10 N along a rough
tabletop. This causes the box to move at constant speed.
constant speed

F = 10 N ◀ Figure 3.7
rough tabletop

friction f = 10 N
(i) There is another horizontal force acting on the box in Figure 3.7. Name this force.
Friction

(ii) On Figure 3.7, draw the other horizontal force. Include its direction and magnitude.

(iii) If F is increased to 20 N, calculate the acceleration produced.

By Newton’s Second Law,

resultant force = F – f = ma
F–f
a=
m
20 – 10
= 2
= 5 m s–2 (towards the right)

Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. A metal box attached to a small parachute is dropped from a helicopter. The parachute opens
shortly after the metal box is dropped.
(a) Explain, in terms of the forces acting, why
(i) the velocity of the metal box increases immediately after being dropped;

When the metal box (attached to the parachute) is first released from rest, no air resistance

acts on the box. The resultant force acting on the box is the weight W of the box (downwards).
W mg
At the moment of release, the initial acceleration of the box is a = m = m = g, where m is the

mass of the metal box and g is the acceleration of free fall. This explains why the velocity of the

box increases immediately after being dropped.

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 (ii) the metal box reaches uniform velocity after a short time.
As the parachute opens, the air resistance R acting upwards opposes the weight W of

the box. The downward acceleration a = W – R is now lower than g. As the velocity increases,
m
the air resistance R increases proportionally, until R = W. As a result, a = W – R = 0, which
m

means the box has reached uniform velocity.

(b) The total force opposing the motion of the metal box and parachute at a particular instant
during their fall is 30 N. The combined mass of the box and parachute is 5 kg.
(i) Calculate the resultant force acting on the box and parachute. (Take g = 10 m s–2)
Given: opposing force (air resistance) R = 30 N
combined mass m = 5 kg
acceleration of free fall g = 10 m s−2
By Newton’s Second Law of Motion,
resultant downward force F = W – R
= mg – R = (5)(10) – 30 = 20 N

(ii) Briefly describe the motion of the box and parachute at this instant.
At the instant when F = 20 N, the box is still accelerating downwards at a rate of 4 m s–2.

(F = ma ⇒ 20 = 5a ∴ a = 4 m s−2)

Data-Based Question
elastic bungy cords
2. The G-Max Reverse Bungy (Figure 3.8) is
a thrilling ride at Clarke Quay in Singapore.
A specially designed open-air reinforced
reinforced steel capsule
steel capsule, which seats up to three
passengers, is attached by two 15 m bungy
cords to two towers. Each tower is 35 m high.
electromagnetic lock
At the start of each ride, the cords are tightened
and then released, catapulting the capsule as high
as 60 m! ▲ Figure 3.8

Just before releasing the capsule, the cords are stretched 20 m to a length of 35 m each. The
elastic force Fe on each cord is given by the following formula (Hooke’s Law):

Fe = α × e

where α = proportionality constant (in N m–1);

e = extension (in m).

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 Chapter 4: Mass, Weight and Density
Name: ( )

Class: Date:

Worksheet 4
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions

1. Mass is the amount of

A space between the particles in a body. B gravitational force acting on a body.
C substance in a body. D charge in a body. ( C )

2. An aeroplane cruises at normal speed. Upon flying into turbulent (unstable) air, it suddenly drops
downwards vertically. Passengers in the aeroplane who are not wearing seat belts will
A hit the seats in front of them.
B hit the ceiling of the aeroplane.
C be pushed against the back of their seats.
D be pushed down into their seats. ( B )

3. An astronaut conducts an experiment in outer space by throwing a bowling ball upwards. Which of
the following statements is correct?
A It is easier to throw the bowling ball upwards in outer space than on Earth.
B It is easier to throw the bowling ball upwards on Earth than in outer space.
C It is as difficult throwing the bowling ball upwards in outer space as it is on Earth.
D The bowling ball is heavier in outer space. ( A )

4. A paperweight is placed on a newton balance A and then on a beam balance B. What does each
balance measure?
balance A balance B

Balance A Balance B
A Mass Mass
B Mass Weight
C Weight Mass
D Weight Weight ( C )
paperweight
paperweight

5. The weight of an object on the Moon is 34 N. What is the weight of the object on Earth?
(Take gEarth = 10 N kg−1; gMoon = 1.7 N kg−1)
A 5.8 N B 3.4 N C 20 N D 200 N ( D )

Working/Explanation
Weight WMoon of object on Moon = mgMoon where m = mass of object
WMoon 34
m= = = 20 kg
gMoon 1.7
Weight WEarth of object on Earth = mgEarth = 20 × 10 = 200 N

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 6. Which block, P, Q, R or S, is made of the densest material?

Block Mass/g Length/cm Breadth/cm Height/cm

A P 360 6 4 3
B Q 480 5 4 4
C R 600 5 5 3
D S 800 10 5 3 ( C )

Working/Explanation
mP 360
Density of block P = = 6 × 4 × 3 = 5.0 g cm−3
vP
mQ 480
Density of block Q = = 5 × 4 × 4 = 6.0 g cm−3
vQ
mR 600
Density of block R = = 5 × 5 × 3 = 8.0 g cm−3
vR
mS 800
Density of block S = = 10 × 5 × 3 = 5.3 g cm−3
vS

7. The table shows the results of an experiment in which a solid object is placed in three
different liquids.

Liquid Density of liquid/kg m−3 Observation

Mercury 14 000 The object floats.
Seawater 1100 The object floats.
Paraffin 700 The object sinks.

What is the density of the object?

A Exactly 700 kg m−3 B Between 700 kg m−3 and 1100 kg m−3
C Exactly 1100 kg m−3 D Between 1100 kg m−3 and 14 000 kg m−3 ( B )

Section B: Structured Questions

1. Explain the following observations.

(a) The mass of an apple is the same on Earth and on the Moon.
Since mass is the amount of matter in a body, the mass of the apple is not affected by its location.

(b) The weight of an apple is different on Earth and on the Moon.

Weight is the result of gravitational force acting on a body. Since the gravitational field strength on

Earth is greater than that on the Moon, the weight of the apple is greater on Earth than on the Moon.

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 2. (a) (i) Distinguish between mass and inertia.

Mass is the amount of matter in a body, while inertia is the reluctance of a body to change its

state of rest or motion.

(ii) Explain which has more inertia, a person or a truck.

The greater the mass of a body, the greater its inertia. A truck has more mass, therefore it has

more inertia than a person.

(b) In many countries, it is mandatory for vehicles to be fitted with seat belts, in order to protect
passengers in the event of an accident. Explain why.
When a vehicle comes to a sudden stop, the passenger’s body continues to move forward due to

inertia. In the event of an accident, the seat belt prevents the passenger’s body from being thrown

forward, decreasing the risk of injury or death.

passenger
(c) Figure 4.1 shows a truck transporting a passenger
and logs of wood. Ropes are used to secure the logs of
logs to the truck. If the ropes come loose and wood

the moving truck comes to a sudden halt, explain ropes

why the passenger in front of the logs is in danger
of becoming seriously injured. ▲ Figure 4.1

If the truck stops suddenly, the logs of wood in the truck will continue to move forward due to inertia.

If the ropes securing the logs to the truck come loose, the logs can slide forward, causing serious

injury to the passenger.

1
3. (a) A man has a mass of 70 kg. The gravitational field strength on the Moon is of that on Earth.
6
The gravitational field strength on Jupiter is 2.64 times greater than that on Earth. Find his
weight on the Moon and on Jupiter. (Take gEarth = 10 m s−2)
Using W = mg,
weight on Earth = 70 × 10 = 700 N
1
weight on the Moon = 6 × 700 = 117 N

weight on Jupiter = 2.64 × 700 = 1850 N

(b) Explain whether it would be easier for a man to lift a 10 kg box on Earth or on the Moon.

Since the gravitational field strength on the Moon is lower than that on Earth, the weight of the box

will be lower on the Moon. Thus, it would be easier for the man to lift the box on the Moon.

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 4. (a) Define the density of a substance.
The density of a substance is its mass per unit volume.

(b) Given that a wooden cube of length 10 cm has a mass of 600 g, calculate the density of the
wood in g cm–3.
mass
Density =
volume
600
= 10 × 10 × 10 = 0.6 g cm–3

(c) Iron has a density of 7900 kg m–3. Calculate the volume of 2 kg of iron.
mass
Volume =
density
2
= = 2.5 × 10–4 m3
7900

(d) Given that the density of air is 1.25 kg m−3, calculate the mass of air in an empty room of size
6 m × 5 m × 3 m.
Mass = density × volume
= 1.25 × (6 × 5 × 3) = 112.5 kg

5. (a) A copper ball has a mass of 1 kg. Calculate the radius of the ball, given that the density of
copper is 8900 kg m–3.
Given: mass m of copper ball = 1 kg
density ρ of copper = 8900 kg m–3
Let the radius of the copper ball be r.
4 3 mass
Volume of copper ball = πr =
3 density
1
= = 1.12 × 10–4 m3
8900
(3)(1.12 × 10–4)
r3 = 4π

r = 2.99 × 10–2 m

(b) An empty beaker has a mass of 88 g. When 20 cm3 of mercury is poured into the beaker, the
total mass of the beaker and mercury is 360 g. Calculate the density of mercury in g cm−3
and kg m−3.
Mass of mercury = 360 − 88 = 272 g
mass 272
Density of mercury = = = 13.6 g cm−3 = 13.6 × 103 kg m−3
volume 20

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 Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. (a) Explain why a piece of expanded polystyrene feels much lighter than a piece of lead of equal
volume.
mass
The density of the expanded polystyrene is much lower than that of lead. Since density =
volume

and the volumes of the expanded polystyrene and lead are equal, the mass of the piece of expanded

polystyrene is much lower than that of the piece of lead. A lower mass means a smaller weight,

therefore the piece of expanded polystyrene feels much lighter than the piece of lead.

(b) Air is made up of about 80% nitrogen and 20% oxygen by volume. The densities of air and
oxygen are 1.29 kg m–3 and 1.43 kg m–3 respectively. Find the density of nitrogen.
Given: density of air = 1.29 kg m−3
density of oxygen = 1.43 kg m−3
Consider 1 m3 of air, which comprises 0.2 m3 of oxygen and 0.8 m3 of nitrogen.
Mass of 1 m3 of air = 1.29 kg
Mass of 0.2 m3 of oxygen = density × volume = 1.43 × 0.2 = 0.29 kg
Mass of 0.8 m3 of nitrogen = 1.29 − 0.29 = 1 kg
mass 1
∴ Density of nitrogen = = = 1.25 kg m−3
volume 0.8

Data-Based Question
2. Dr. X has developed a new liquid. The volume of this new liquid changes when placed in different
surroundings (e.g. on different planets).
(a) State how the mass of the liquid is affected on different planets.
The mass of the liquid is the same on different planets.

(b) Complete Table 4.1 to show how the density of the new liquid changes on different planets
and on the Moon.
▼ Table 4.1

Mass of Gravitational Volume of Weight of Density of

Planet
new liquid field strength new liquid new liquid new liquid
Earth 100 g 10 N kg−1 10 cm3 1N 10 g cm–3

Moon 100 g 1.6 N kg−1 5 cm3 0.16 N 20 g cm–3

Mars 100 g 3.7 N kg−1 400 cm3 0.37 N 0.25 g cm−3

Jupiter 100 g 24.9 N kg−1 5000 cm3 2.49 N 0.02 g cm–3

(c) The gravitational field strength, g, depends on the mass of a planet and the distance from its
centre of gravity. It is given by the formula:
6.67 × 10–11 × mass of planet
g=
(radius of planet)2

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 (i) Suggest why the gravitational field strength is different on different planets.

From the formula for the gravitational field strength, g, of a planet, we can see that g depends

on the mass and radius of the planet. Since planets have different masses and sizes, their

gravitational field strengths are different.

(ii) The radius of the Earth is 6.4 × 106 m and its mass is 6.0 × 1024 kg. Calculate Earth’s
gravitational field strength using the formula given.
6.67 × 10–11 × 6.0 × 1024
g= = 9.77 N kg–1
(6.4 × 106)2

(iii) To find the mass of a planet, scientists estimate its radius and calculate its mass by
using the given formula for g. If the radius of Jupiter is estimated to be 7.1 × 107 m, find
its mass using the data in Table 4.1.
6.67 × 10–11 × mass of Jupiter
gJupiter =
(radius of Jupiter)2
gJupiter × (radius of Jupiter)2
Mass of Jupiter =
6.67 × 10–11
24.9 × (7.1 × 107)2
=
6.67 × 10–11
= 1.9 × 1027 kg

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) Define mass. 1 1(a), 2(a)(i) 2(a) 4.1

(b) Define gravitational field. 3 1(b), 3(b) – 4.1

(c) Define gravitational field strength g. – – 2(c) 4.1

(d) Differentiate between mass and weight. 4 1 – 4.1

(e) Recall and apply the formula weight =

mass × gravitational field strength to 5 3(a) 2(b) 4.1
solve problems.

(f) Define inertia. 2 2 – 4.2

(g) Recall and apply the formula

mass 6, 7 4, 5 1, 2(b) 4.3
density = to solve problems.
volume

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 Name: ( )

Chapter 5: Turning Effect of Forces

Class: Date:

Worksheet 5
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions
1. The diagram shows a non-uniform tree trunk with a weight of 1000 N. It rests horizontally on two
supports at Q and S. The centre of the mass of the tree trunk is at R. What is the minimum
downward force that must be applied at point P to lift the tree trunk off the support at S?

P R

Q S

1000 N

4.0 m 3.0 m 2.0 m 3.0 m

A 500 N B 750 N C 1000 N D 1250 N ( B )

Working/Explanation
Taking moments about Q,
FP × 4.0 = 1000 × 3.0
FP = 750 N

2. The diagram shows a thin irregular-shaped piece of aluminium

x
sheet of uniform thickness. It hangs freely from a nail at
position X. An iron block is attached to the aluminium sheet. A
Which position, A, B, C or D, is most likely to be the centre
B
of gravity of the set-up?
C
aluminium sheet
D
( D )
iron block

3. The diagram shows two egg-shaped objects X and Y.

Objects X and Y each have a piece of lead embedded
lead
within, in the positions shown.
plastic shell
Which of the following correctly describes the types of
equilibrium for objects X and Y? Y
X
Object X Object Y
A Stable Unstable
B Stable Neutral
C Unstable Stable
D Unstable Neutral ( C )

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 4. The diagram shows a toy bird pivoted on a support
and in stable equilibrium. When designing the toy bird,
A
the manufacturer needs to plan the position of its
centre of gravity. Which position, A, B, C or D, B
should the centre of gravity be?
C

( D )

Section B: Structured Questions

1. (a) Suppose you are supplied with a plane mirror (Figure 5.1), a concave mirror (Figure 5.2),
a convex mirror (Figure 5.3) and three small rubber balls. On Figures 5.1 to 5.3, indicate
where you would place the balls to illustrate the three kinds of equilibrium. Also, state the
type of equilibrium in each case: stable, unstable or neutral.

▲ Figure 5.1 ▲ Figure 5.2 ▲ Figure 5.3

Neutral equilibrium Stable equilibrium Unstable equilibrium

(b) Explain the following observations.

(i) The base of a Bunsen burner is designed to be large and heavy.

Having a large base ensures that the vertical line through the centre of gravity of the object lies

within the base of the object when it is tilted. Having a heavy base ensures that the centre of

gravity is low. Therefore, the large and heavy base of the Bunsen burner makes it very stable.

(ii) The inverted conical flask in Figure 5.5 is easier to topple over when disturbed than
the identical inverted flask in Figure 5.4.

empty sand

stopper

▲ Figure 5.4 ▲ Figure 5.5

By filling the conical flask with sand and inverting it, the centre of gravity of the conical flask is

shifted upwards. A high centre of gravity coupled with a small base area makes the inverted

flask with sand more unstable and easier to topple over.

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 2. (a) Figure 5.6 shows a balanced uniform A B
beam that is supported at its centre.
Find the ratio of mass A to mass B. 30 cm 40 cm

Taking moments about the pivot,

▲ Figure 5.6
anticlockwise moment of A = clockwise moment of B
mA g × 30 = mB g × 40 where mA = mass of A and mB = mass of B
mA : mB = 4 : 3

(b) Figure 5.7 shows a 1 m long beam of R

2 kg
negligible mass pivoted at P. A mass of
P Q
2 kg rests on the beam, at 60 cm from P.
At Q, the beam rests on a support that support
60 cm
exerts a force R on the beam. Calculate the
▲ Figure 5.7
magnitude of R. (Take g = 10 N kg−1)

Taking moments about P,

anticlockwise moment of R = clockwise moment of W where W = weight of 2 kg mass
R × 100 = (2)(10) × 60
∴ R = 12 N

3. (a) Define centre of gravity.

The centre of gravity of an object is the point through which the whole weight of the object appears to

act for any orientation of the object.

(b) A 300 g walking stick is placed on a 100 g

pivot and balanced by a 100 g mass,
as shown in Figure 5.8. Calculate the
distance of the centre of gravity of the
stick from the pivot. 15 cm ▲ Figure 5.8

Let the distance of the centre of gravity of the stick from the pivot be d.
The weight of the walking stick acts at its centre of gravity on the side of the pivot opposite of the
100 g mass.
Taking moments about the pivot,
(0.3)(10) × d = (0.1)(10) × 15
d = 5 cm

4. Figure 5.9 shows a person supporting a book

between his fingers and thumb.
0.08 m 0.10 m
If the point of contact is at the corner of the book
and the weight W of the book is 1 N, calculate
the moment of the force provided by the
W =1N
(a) weight W of the book about the point of
contact; ▲ Figure 5.9

Clockwise moment provided by W = W × d

= 1 × 0.08
= 0.08 N m

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 (b) person to support the book.

Taking moments about the point of contact,

anticlockwise moment provided by person = clockwise moment of W
= 0.08 N m

5. (a) Figure 5.10 shows a heavy uniform 3.0 m

plank of length 3.0 m supported by
two forces F1 and F2. Calculate the 0.25 m 0.50 m
F1
ratio .
F2

F1 weight of plank F2
▲ Figure 5.10

The centre of gravity is at the centre of the plank (at the 1.5 m point).
Taking moments about the centre of gravity of the plank,
F1 × (1.50 − 0.25) = F2 × (1.50 − 0.50)
F1 1.00
= = 0.8
F2 1.25

(b) Figure 5.11 shows a uniform 1 m plank XY of weight

200 N hinged to a wall at X. A 500 N force acts F

downwards on the plank 20 cm from X. The plank is 1m

held horizontally by a force F acting upwards from Y. 20 cm
Calculate the magnitude of force F.
Y X
The weight of the plank (200 N) acts downwards 0.5 m from
the pivot at X. 200 N 500 N
Taking moments about X,
F × 1.0 = (200 × 0.5) + (500 × 0.2)
▲ Figure 5.11
F = 200 N

Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. (a) Explain the moment of a force and state its SI unit.

The moment (or turning effect) of a force is the product of the force and the perpendicular distance

from the line of action of the force to the pivot. The SI unit of the moment of a force is the newton

metre (N m).

(b) State the Principle of Moments.

The Principle of Moments states that when a body is in equilibrium, the sum of clockwise moments

about any pivot is equal to the sum of anticlockwise moments about the same pivot.

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 (c) Figure 5.12 shows the same force F being
(position B)
applied to a metal rod at positions A, B and F
F (position C)
C on separate occasions to lift a large stone. metal
rod
large
State the position, A, B or C, in which force F stone
small stone
exerts the largest moment about the small
stone. Give a reason for your answer. F ▲ Figure 5.12
(position A)

Position B. At position B, the perpendicular distance of the line of action of the force to the pivot

(small stone) is the longest, resulting in the largest moment about the pivot.

(d) Figure 5.13 shows an angler holding a stiff 30 cm 90 cm

fishing rod (of negligible mass) in a horizontal
position to support a fish of mass 3 kg. F

Calculate the force F needed to keep

the rod in the horizontal position. supporting lifting
(Take g = 10 N kg−1) hand hand

3 kg
Taking moments about the supporting hand, ▲ Figure 5.13
F × 0.3 = (3 × 10) × (0.3 + 0.9)
F = 120 N

Data-Based Question
2. Cranes such as the one in Figure 5.14 are used
to move heavy loads across large distances. working
radius
The maximum load a crane can carry depends
on its working radius, i.e. the maximum length load
jib
of the jib at a specific angle. A crane operator
can refer to the data in Table 5.1 to find out the
30°
maximum load a crane can lift for a particular
working radius at an angle of 30°.

▲ Figure 5.14
▼ Table 5.1

Working radius/m 14 20 28 36
Maximum load/N 900 630 450 350

(a) Using the data in Table 5.1, deduce the maximum moment provided by the crane.
Maximum moment = F × d
= 630 × 20 × cos 30° = 10 910 N m

[Note: Each working radius and corresponding maximum load in Table 5.1 should give the same
maximum moment.]

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 (b) Suppose the crane has a minimum working radius of 8 m. Calculate the maximum load the
crane can carry when its working radius is at the minimum length.
maximum moment
Maximum load =
working radius(cos 30°)

= 10 910 = 1575 N
8(cos 30°)

(c) State why it is important that the crane operator works within the load specified.

To prevent the crane from toppling

(d) In Table 5.2, fill in the missing values for the working radius and the maximum load when
the jib is horizontal.
▼ Table 5.2

Working radius/m 14 20 28 36
Maximum load/N 779 546 390 303

[Note: Table 5.2 is filled using the maximum moment of the crane calculated in (a).
For example, moment = F × d
moment 10 910
⇒F= = = 779 N]
d 14

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response
(a) State the moment of a force as a
measure of the turning effect of
– – 1(a) 5.1
a force, and relate it to everyday
examples.
(b) State the formula moment of a force
1(c), 1(d),
(or torque) = force × perpendicular 2, 3(b), 4(a),
1 2(a), 2(b), 5.1
distance from the pivot, and use it to 5
2(d)
solve problems.
(c) State the Principle of Moments for a
– – 2(c) 5.2
body in equilibrium.
(d) Use the Principle of Moments to 2, 3(b), 4(b),
1 1(d) 5.2
solve problems. 5
(e) Explain what is meant by the centre
2 3(a) – 5.3
of gravity of a body.
(f) Describe the relationship between
the position of the centre of gravity of 3, 4 1 – 5.4
an object and its stability.
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 Name: ( )

Chapter 6: Energy, Work and Power

Class: Date:

Worksheet 6
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions

1. The diagram below shows the side view of a roller coaster track. The car is released from
position P.
P

Which of the following statements is/are true?

1 The total energy is the same at each of the three positions shown.
2 The kinetic energy of the car is greater at Q than at R.
3 The gravitational potential energy of the car is greater at R than at P.
A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3 ( B )

2. A boy drops a ball from a height. Ignoring the effects of air resistance, the total energy is

1
ball

A greatest at point 1. B greatest at point 2.

C greatest at point 3. D the same at all three points. ( D )

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 3. An arrow is shot vertically upward with an initial speed of 12 m s−1. What is the maximum
height the arrow can reach? (Take g = 10 N kg−1)
A 7.2 m B 72 m C 144 m D Cannot be
determined ( A )

Working/Explanation

Using the Principle of Conservation of Energy, when the arrow reaches its maximum height, the gain
in gravitational potential energy of the arrow is equal to the loss in the kinetic energy of the arrow.
mgh = 1 mv2
2
m(10)h = 1 m(12)2
2
h = 7.2 m

4. A 2 kg box slides from the top to the bottom of a ramp. Given that the speed of the box is
10 m s−1 at the bottom of the ramp, calculate the total amount of energy lost to the surroundings.
(Take g = 10 N kg−1)

10 m

6m

8m

A 20 J B 80 J C 100 J D 120 J ( A )

Working/Explanation

Initial gravitational potential energy of box = mgh

= 2 × 10 × 6
= 120 J
Kinetic energy when box reaches bottom of ramp = 1 mv2
2
1
= (2)(10)2
2
= 100 J
Energy lost to surroundings = 120 − 100 = 20 J

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 5. An 80 kg man walks up a flight of steps to reach a height of 4 m in 16 seconds. Calculate the
minimum power required by the man. (Take g = 10 N kg−1)
A 20 W B 80 W C 200 W D 5120 W ( C )

Working/Explanation

Work done = F × s
= (80 × 10) × 4
= 3200 J
Minimum power required = W
t
3200
=
16
= 200 W

6. A box is pushed 10 m along a horizontal surface by a force of 8 N. The frictional force opposing
the motion is 6 N. How much of the work done is converted to thermal energy and kinetic energy?

8N

6N

Thermal energy/J Kinetic energy/J

A 20 60
B 60 20
C 60 80
D 60 140 ( B )

Working/Explanation

Total amount of thermal energy and kinetic energy = work done = F × s

= 8 × 10
= 80 J
Amount of thermal energy = 6 × 10
= 60 J
The rest of the work is used for the movement of the box.
∴ Amount of kinetic energy = 80 − 60 = 20 J

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 Section B: Structured Questions

1. Complete Table 6.1 with the correct forms of energy.

▼ Table 6.1

Forms of energy Sources of energy

(a) Kinetic energy All objects in motion
(b) Nuclear energy Atomic bombs and nuclear reactors
(c) Light energy The Sun, fires, fluorescent lamps and
light-emitting diodes (LEDs)
(d) Electrical energy Dry cells
(e) Potential energy
(i) Chemical potential energy Fuels (such as oil, wood and coal), electric cells,
food and explosives
(ii) Gravitational potential energy Waterfalls and raised objects

(iii) Elastic potential energy Stretched or compressed objects

2. Figure 6.1 shows a simple pendulum set into oscillation in a vacuum, with P and S as the
two extreme positions of the oscillation. R is the lowest or equilibrium position, while Q is an
intermediate position between P and R.

S P
R Q

▲ Figure 6.1

(a) Describe the energy changes that occur as the pendulum oscillates from P to Q to R to S.

The pendulum has maximum gravitational potential energy at either of the two extreme positions P

and S, where it is momentarily at rest (i.e. zero kinetic energy). As it swings downwards from P to

Q, its gravitational potential energy is converted into kinetic energy as its speed increases. At Q,

the pendulum possesses both kinetic energy and gravitational potential energy. When it reaches R,

the kinetic energy of the pendulum is at the maximum. As it swings upwards from R to S, its kinetic

energy is converted into gravitational potential energy. At S, it has only gravitational potential energy.

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 (b) In an ideal situation, the pendulum will oscillate forever. State how the Principle of
Conservation of Energy can be used to explain this.
In an ideal situation, the gravitational potential energy of the pendulum will convert into only kinetic

energy as the pendulum swings downwards, and vice versa as it swings upwards. Since the total

amount of energy is conserved, no energy is lost from the pendulum and it oscillates forever.

3. A 1 kg ball is dropped from an 80 m high building. Assuming that no energy is lost to air
resistance, complete Table 6.2. (Take g = 10 N kg−1)
▼ Table 6.2

Gravitational
Kinetic energy Speed of Total energy
Height of ball/m potential energy
of ball/J ball/m s−1 of ball/J
of ball/J
80 800 0 0.00 800

60 600 200 20.0 800

40 400 400 28.3 800

20 200 600 34.6 800

0
(just before the
0 800 40.0 800
ball strikes the
floor)

4. An object of mass 1 kg at rest falls through a height of 5 m before hitting the ground.
(Take g = 10 m s–2)
(a) Calculate the initial gravitational potential energy of the object.
Ep = mgh
= 1 × 10 × 5 = 50 J

(b) (i) Assuming that air resistance is negligible, state the gain in kinetic energy when the
object hits the ground. (Derive your answer without calculation.)
50 J

(ii) Explain how you derived the answer to (b)(i).

According to the Principle of Conservation of Energy, energy is neither created nor destroyed,

but converted from one form to another. Since air resistance is negligible, the loss in the initial

gravitational potential energy of the falling object equals the gain in kinetic energy.

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 (c) Find the maximum speed of the object just before it hits the ground.
By the Principle of Conservation of Energy,
loss in initial gravitational potential energy = gain in kinetic energy

mgh = 1mvmax2
2
vmax = 冪2gh = 冪2 × 10 × 5
= 10 m s−1

5. A student of mass 50 kg walks up a flight of stairs of vertical height 2 m in ten seconds.

(a) Calculate the power of the student if the work done by him in walking up the flight of stairs
is 1200 J.
W
P=
t
1200
= = 120 W
10

(b) Calculate the gain in gravitational potential energy of the student when he reaches the
top of the flight of stairs. (Take g = 10 N kg–1)
Ep = mgh
= 50 × 10 × 2 = 1000 J

(c) Suggest why the gain in gravitational potential energy is different from the work done by
the student.
Some of the work done by the student has been converted to thermal energy due to friction.

6. 20 000 kg of rice is raised in a grain elevator through a vertical distance of 10 m in 80 seconds.

(a) Calculate the gain in gravitational potential energy of the 20 000 kg of rice.
Given: mass m of rice = 20 000 kg
vertical distance h = 10 m
time t = 80 s
Ep = mgh
= (20 000)(10)(10)
= 2.0 × 106 J

(b) After the rice is lifted by a height of 10 m, a force of 5 × 104 N is used to move the
rice across a horizontal distance. Given that the work done by the force is 345 kJ, calculate
the distance moved.

Using W = F × s,
W
s =
F
345 × 103
=
5 × 104
= 6.9 m

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 7. A wooden box of mass 10 kg is subjected to different types of motion.
(a) The box is dragged at constant speed through a horizontal distance of 3 m on a rough
surface. If the average frictional force between the box and the surface is 50 N,
calculate the work done by the applied force.
At constant speed, applied force Fa = frictional force = 50 N
Work done by Fa = Fa × s
= 50 × 3
= 150 J

(b) The box is carried in a lift from level 1 to level 10 of a building. If the vertical distance
between two levels is 3 m, calculate the work done on the box. (Take g = 10 m s–2)
Total vertical distance h = 9 × 3 = 27 m
Work done on box = mgh
= 10 × 10 × 27
= 2700 J

8. A dam situated 600 m above a hydroelectric power station supplies water at a rate of
4.00 × 103 kg s–1 to drive the generators.
(a) Assuming the power station is 100% efficient, calculate the amount of electrical
power generated.
E
Using P = where E = gravitational potential energy converted into kinetic energy,
t
mgh
P=
t
4.00 × 103 × 10 × 600
=
1
= 2.4 × 10 J s–1
7

= 24 MW

(b) If the power station is 90% efficient, calculate the amount of electrical power generated.
useful energy output
Efficiency = × 100%
total energy input
In 1 s,
useful energy output
90 = 7
× 100
2.4 × 10
Useful energy output in 1 s = 2.16 × 107 J
∴ P = 21.6 MW

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 Section C: Free-Response Questions
1. A 2 kg box is initially at rest at the bottom of a smooth slope. Figure 6.2 shows the box being
pulled up the slope by a 26 N force at a speed of 8 m s–1. The distance moved by the box along
the slope is 4 m.

frictionless surface
–1
s
8m

4m

26 N
2 kg 30°
(at rest)
▲ Figure 6.2

(a) Calculate the

(i) work done by the 26 N force;

Work done = force × distance

= 26 × 4
= 104 J

(ii) gain in kinetic energy of the box;

1 2
Gain in kinetic energy = mv
2
1
= × 2 × 82
2
= 64 J

(iii) gain in gravitational potential energy of the box (take g = 10 m s−2).

Gain in gravitational potential energy = mgh

= 2 × 10 × 4 sin 30°
= 40 J

(b) State and explain the significance of the values obtained in (a)(i), (a)(ii) and (a)(iii).
The sum of energy in (a)(ii) and (a)(iii) is equal to the work done in (a)(i). This shows that the work

done by the applied force is completely converted to the kinetic energy and gravitational potential

energy of the box. Energy is conserved.

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 Data-Based Question
2. top reservoir

head gates

turbines
and pipes

tunnel lower reservoir

◀ Figure 6.3

Figure 6.3 shows the layout of a pumped storage power station. Water collects in the lower
reservoir, and is pumped up to the top reservoir (62 m above) at night, when the demand for
power is low. When there is an increased demand for power, head gates are opened, releasing the
water in the top reservoir. The water then rushes down the tunnel to turn the turbines, which drive
m
powerful generators. The flow rate of the water is given by (unit: kg s–1). The useful output power
t
of the generators is 35 MW.
(a) State the energy changes that take place when water rushes from the top reservoir to the
lower reservoir.

Gravitational potential energy is converted into kinetic energy. The kinetic energy is then converted

into electrical energy.

(b) The generator is 55% efficient. Calculate the total power of the falling water.

useful energy output

Using efficiency = × 100%
total energy input
In 1 s, useful energy output = 35 MJ
35 × 106
55 = × 100
total energy input
Total energy input in 1 s = 64 × 106 J
∴ Total power of water = 64 MW

(c) Calculate the rate of water flow when the head gates are opened.

Assume that 100% of the gravitational potential energy is converted to kinetic energy.
Since power = 64 MW,
gravitational potential energy converted every second = 6.4 × 107 J
6.4 × 107
In 1 s, mgh = 6.4 × 107 J ⇒ m =
gh
6.4 × 107
=
10 × 62
= 1.03 × 105 kg
∴ Rate of water flow = 1.03 × 105 kg s−1

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 (d) Suggest one advantage of the type of power station shown in Figure 6.3.

It generates electricity without causing pollution.

(e) State one way of improving the efficiency of the power station.
Reduce the friction in the turbines.

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook, to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) Identify different forms of energy. 1 1 2(a) 6.1

(b) State the Principle of Conservation of

Energy and use the principle to solve 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 2, 3, 4(b) 1(b) 6.1
problems.

(c) Use the formula efficiency =

energy converted to useful output energy
total energy input – 8(b) 2(b), 2(e) 6.1
to calculate the efficiency of an
energy conversion.

(d) State and use the formula

work done = force × distance moved
5, 6 6(b), 7(a) 1(a)(i) 6.2
in the direction of the force
to solve problems.

(e) State and use the formula kinetic

1 3, 4 3, 4(c) 1(a)(ii) 6.2
energy Ek = mv2 to solve problems.
2

(f) State and use the formula 3, 4(a), 5(b),

gravitational potential energy 3, 4 6(a), 7(b), 1(a)(iii), 2(c) 6.2
Ep = mgh to solve problems. 8(a)

(g) State and use the formula

work done 5 5(a), 8(a) – 6.3
power = to solve problems.
time taken

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 Chapter 7: Pressure
Name: ( )

Class: Date:

Worksheet 7
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions

1. The diagram shows a manometer filled with water air

gas supply

connected to a gas supply. What is the pressure

of the gas?

A 8 cm of water more than atmospheric pressure

8 cm
B 12 cm of water more than atmospheric pressure
C 8 cm of water less than atmospheric pressure water
D 12 cm of water less than atmospheric pressure 4 cm ( A )

2. The diagram shows a simple mercury barometer.

The height of the mercury column is h. Which of vacuum
the following will cause h to change?
1 Evaporation of mercury from the mercury reservoir mercury
2 Changes in the gravitational field strength
3 Replacing mercury with water h

A 3 only
B 1 and 2 only
C 2 and 3 only mercury
reservoir
D 1, 2 and 3 ( C )

3. The diagram shows a force f of 10 N

10 N
supporting the weight W of a 1500 kg 1500 kg
load on a hydraulic press. Both pistons piston
area a piston area A
are of negligible weight. Calculate piston (10 cm2)
area A. (Take gravitational field strength
g = 10 N kg−1)

A 15 cm2 B 150 cm2 C 1500 cm2 D 15 000 cm2 ( D )

Working/Explanation

Let the pressure below the left and right Force W exerted by 1500 kg load
pistons be pL and pR respectively. = mg = 1500 × 10 = 15 000 N
pL = pR ∴ A = 15 000 × 10 = 15 000 cm2
10
f
=W⇒A=W×a
a A f

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 4. Two cylinders placed on the ground are made of the same material but are of different sizes. The
larger cylinder exerts a pressure of 18 Pa on the ground. The weight of the larger cylinder is six
times greater than that of the smaller cylinder, while its base area is four times larger than that of
the smaller cylinder. What is the pressure exerted by the smaller cylinder on the ground?
A 12 Pa B 18 Pa C 1.5 Pa D 27 Pa ( A )

Working/Explanation
Let the weight and base area of the smaller cylinder be W and a respectively. The weight and
base area of the larger cylinder are 6W and 4a respectively.

Pressure exerted by larger cylinder = 6W = 18 Pa

4a

∴ Pressure exerted by smaller cylinder = W = 18 × 4 = 12 Pa

a 6

Section B: Structured Questions

1. (a) Define pressure. What is the SI unit of pressure?

Pressure is the force acting per unit area. SI unit: pascal (Pa)

(b) (i) A rhinoceros weighing 20 kN stands on the ground. If each of its four feet has an area of
200 cm2 in contact with the ground, calculate the average pressure (in N cm–2) exerted
on the ground by each foot.
Given: area AR of one foot = 200 cm2
weight WR of rhinoceros = 20 kN
WR 3
Weight F exerted on the ground by each foot = = 20 × 10 = 5 × 103 N
4 4

Average pressure p exerted by each foot = F = 5 × 10 = 25 N cm–2

3

AR 200
(ii) A person weighs 600 N. He exerts a pressure on the ground that is equal to the average
pressure exerted by one foot of the rhinoceros in (b)(i). Calculate the area the person is
standing on.
Given: weight WP of person = 600 N
WP 600
Area AP the person is standing on = = = 24 cm2
p 25

2. A marine biologist dives in the sea to observe marine life. Given that the density of seawater ρ
is 1025 kg m–3, gravitational field strength g is 10 N kg–1 and atmospheric pressure p0 is
1.01 × 105 Pa,
(a) calculate the pressure acting on the marine biologist when he is
(i) at the surface of the sea;
At the surface of the sea, pressure p1 acting on marine biologist = atmospheric pressure p0
= 1.01 × 105 Pa

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 (ii) 5 m below the surface of the sea.

At sea depth h = 5 m,
pressure p2 acting on marine biologist = hρg + p0
= (5)(1025)(10) + (1.01 × 105) = 1.52 × 105 Pa

(b) calculate the difference in pressure exerted on the marine biologist when he is at the sea
surface and when he is 5 m below the sea surface.

Difference in pressure = hρg = 5 × 1025 × 10

= 5.13 × 104 Pa

120 N
3. Figure 7.1 shows a hydraulic press.
The small piston and the large piston have load
large piston
areas of 20 cm2 and 300 cm2 respectively. small piston
A student applies a force of 120 N on the
small piston to lift a load placed on the
oi l
large piston. Calculate the
◀ Figure 7.1

(a) pressure exerted on the liquid by the small piston;

Given: force F1 exerted on small piston = 120 N

area A1 of small piston = 20 cm2
F1
Pressure p1 exerted on liquid by small piston = = 120 = 6 N cm−2
A1 20

(b) pressure exerted on the large piston;

Pressure p2 exerted on large piston = p1 = 6 N cm−2

(c) total weight lifted by the student.

Given: area A2 of large piston = 300 cm2

Force F2 exerted on large piston = p2A2 = (6)(300) = 1800 N
∴ Total weight lifted = 1800 N

4. (a) A meteorologist makes an observation of a mercury barometer. He states that “The mercury
barometric height is 76.0 cm.” What does his statement mean?
The atmospheric pressure is equivalent to the pressure due to a column of mercury with a vertical

height of 76.0 cm.

(b) Calculate the atmospheric pressure in Pa, based on the meteorologist’s observation in (a).
(Take density of mercury ρ = 13 600 kg m–3; gravitational field strength g = 10 N kg–1)

Atmospheric pressure p0 = hρg

= (76.0 × 10–2)(13 600)(10)
= 1.03 × 105 Pa

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 5. (a) Figure 7.2 shows a simple mercury barometer. O
The height of the mercury column is h cm. vacuum
What is the pressure (in Pa) at points O, P and Q
in terms of h? (Take density of mercury
mercury
ρ = 13 600 kg m–3; gravitational field strength
g = 10 N kg–1) P
h cm
pO = 0 Pa
h
cm
4
pP = 3h × 10–2 × 13 600 × 10 = 1020h Pa
4 Q
pQ = hρg = h × 10 × 13 600 × 10 = 1360h Pa
–2

▲ Figure 7.2

(b) Explain three advantages of using mercury over water in a barometer.

A much shorter tube is required for mercury since mercury has a much higher density than water.

It is easier to observe the height of the mercury since mercury is opaque and water is transparent

and colourless. A more accurate measurement can be obtained with mercury as the space above

the mercury column resembles a vacuum more closely. This is because mercury is less volatile than

water and mercury vapour will enter the space above the mercury column at a slower rate.

6. Figure 7.3 shows an inflated balloon that has just been

attached to the left arm of a mercury manometer.
(a) What will happen to the mercury level in the manometer
immediately after the balloon is attached? Explain your answer.
The mercury level in the right arm will rise while the mercury level in the left

arm will sink. This is because the air pressure in the balloon is higher than

the atmospheric pressure. The excess force pushes the mercury level in the

left arm down, causing the mercury level in the right arm to move up.

▲ Figure 7.3

(b) Describe what would happen to the mercury level if there was a small hole in the balloon.
The mercury level in the left arm would rise and the mercury level in the right arm would sink until the

mercury in both arms of the manometer reached the same level.

(c) Suggest how the manometer set-up could be adjusted in order for the pressure in the balloon
to produce a larger difference in liquid level.
Replace the mercury with another liquid of lower density.

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 7. (a) Figures 7.4 and 7.5 each show a mercury manometer connected to a large vessel containing
neon gas. If the atmospheric pressure p0 is 760 mm Hg, calculate the pressure p of the neon
gas in the vessels in Figures 7.4 and 7.5.
p0

A p0
h = 10 cm
neon (at neon (at
pressure p) h = 5 cm
pressure p)
B C B C

◀ Figure 7.4 ◀ Figure 7.5

In Figure 7.4, In Figure 7.5,

p = pC (since C is at the same level as B) p0 = pB (since C is at the same level as B)
= p0 + pressure due to column AC p0 = p + pressure due to mercury column AB
= 760 mm Hg + 100 mm Hg p = p0 − pressure due to mercury column AB
= 860 mm Hg = 760 mm Hg – 50 mm Hg
= 710 mm Hg

(b) Name one use of the manometer other than in the measurement of gas pressure.
The manometer can be used to compare the densities of immiscible liquids.

8. Three rectangular blocks X, Y and Z are made of different materials of densities 2.00 g cm–3,
5.00 g cm–3 and 10.00 g cm–3 respectively. The side of block X resting on a flat, horizontal surface
has an area of 2 cm2. If the height of block X is 10 cm and g = 10 N kg–1, calculate the
(a) weight of block X;

Given: density ρX of block X = 2.00 g cm–3

area AX of side of block X resting on surface = 2 cm2
height hX of block X = 10 cm
Mass MX of block X = ρXAXhX = (2.00)(2)(10) = 40 g = 40 × 10–3 kg
Weight WX of block X = MXg = (40 × 10–3)(10) = 0.4 N

(b) pressure exerted by block X on the surface in Pa;

AX = 2 cm2 = 2 × 10–4 m2
WX
Pressure pX = = 0.4 = 2000 Pa
AX 2 × 10–4

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 (c) heights of blocks Y and Z if the pressure exerted by blocks X, Y and Z on the surface is
the same.
Consider a block of density ρ, height h, Given: density ρY of block Y = 5.00 g cm–3
mass m, weight W and volume V resting = 5000 kg m–3
on its base of area A. density ρZ of block Z = 10.00 g cm–3
weight W = 10 000 kg m–3
Since the pressure exerted by all three blocks
is the same, pX
height hY of block Y = ρ g
Y
area A 2000
=
5000 × 10
Using p = F , = 0.04 m
A
pressure p = W pX
A height hZ of block Z = ρ g
= mg
Z
since W = mg 2000
A =
10 000 × 10
(ρV )g
= since m = ρV = 0.02 m
A
(ρAh)g
= since V = Ah
A
= ρhg

∴h= p
ρg

Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. (a) State one factor (other than liquid depth and gravitational field strength) that affects the
pressure in a liquid.
Density of the liquid

(b) With the aid of a diagram, describe how a column of mercury can be used to measure
atmospheric pressure.
• Fill a 1 m long glass tube with mercury completely.
• With the open end of the tube covered, invert the tube vacuum
into a trough of mercury. Then, uncover the open end.
• Atmospheric pressure acts on the surface of the mercury
in the trough and supports the mercury column of a mercury
certain height in the tube.
• When the mercury level in the tube has stabilised, use a h
metre rule to measure the height h of the mercury level
from the surface of the mercury in the trough.
• h is a measure of the atmospheric pressure.
mercury

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 (c) Calculate the height of a water column (density = 1.0 g cm–3) that would exert the same
pressure as a 20 cm high mercury column (density = 13.6 g cm–3).
Given: density ρ1 of water = 1.0 g cm–3
density ρ2 of mercury = 13.6 g cm–3
height h2 of mercury column = 20 cm
Let the height of the water column be h1. Since the water column and the mercury column
exert the same pressure,
h1ρ1g = h2ρ2g
hρg hρ 20 × 13.6
∴ h1 = 2 2 = 2 2 = = 272 cm
ρ1g ρ1 1.0

Data-Based Question
2. Civil engineers help to build structures such as bridges. They need to choose strong but cost-
effective materials when constructing a bridge. Figure 7.6 shows a bridge supported by five circular
pillars. The weight of the bridge is 2 × 106 N.
bridge

4.5 m supporting pillar ◀ Figure 7.6

Table 7.1 shows two types of materials that could be used to make the supporting pillars.
▼ Table 7.1

Maximum pressure that the raw

Raw material Material cost/$ m–3
material can support/N m–2
High-grade concrete 500 000 150
Reinforced steel 5 000 000 400

(a) Assuming the pillars are evenly spaced, how much weight does each pillar support?
Since we assume that the pillars are evenly spaced, we also assume that the weight of the
bridge is evenly distributed over the five pillars.
6
∴ Weight W supported by each pillar = 2 × 10 = 4 × 105 N
5
(b) Calculate the minimum cross-sectional area of each pillar needed to support the bridge
when using
(i) high-grade concrete;
Let Ac be the minimum cross-sectional area of each high-grade concrete pillar.
Given: maximum pressure pc supported by high-grade concrete = 5 × 105 N m–2
F
Using A = p ,
W
AC = p
C
5
= 4 × 105 = 8 × 10–1 m2
5 × 10

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 (ii) reinforced steel.
Let AS be the minimum cross-sectional area of each reinforced steel pillar.
Given: maximum pressure pS supported by reinforced steel = 5 × 106 N m–2
F
Using A = p ,
W
AS = p
S
5
= 4 × 106 = 8 × 10–2 m2
5 × 10

(c) Calculate the total volume of material needed to make all five pillars if
(i) high-grade concrete is used;
Volume of high-grade concrete needed = 5ACh
= 5 × 8 × 10–1 × 4.5
= 18 m3
(ii) reinforced steel is used.
Volume of reinforced steel needed = 5ASh
= 5 × 8 × 10–2 × 4.5
= 1.8 m3

(d) Based on the costs of the materials and your earlier calculations, recommend the material
you would use to build the pillars. Explain your recommendation.
Cost of building pillars using high-grade concrete = 18 × 150 = $2700
Cost of building pillars using reinforced steel = 1.8 × 400 = $720
Thus, to support the same weight, reinforced steel is cheaper.
Recommended material: reinforced steel

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) Explain what pressure means in

– 1(a) – 7.1
terms of force and area.

(b) Recall and use the formula 1(b), 3(a),

force 3, 4 2 7.1
pressure = to solve problems. 3(c), 8
area

(c) Describe and explain how pressure is

3 3 – 7.2
transmitted in hydraulic systems.

(d) Use the formula pressure due to a 2, 4(b), 5(a),

liquid p = hρg to solve problems. 2 1(a), 1(c) 7.2
8(c)

(e) Describe how the height of a liquid

column may be used to measure
2 4(a), 5(b) 1(b) 7.3
atmospheric pressure (i.e. how a
barometer works).

(f) Describe how a manometer

1 6, 7 – 7.3
measures pressure difference.

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 Theme 2: Answer It Right!
Theme 2: Thermal Physics
Answer It Right!
Go through the following worked examples. Use the tips provided to help you answer
questions well.

Worked Example 1
A 300 W electric heater is used to heat a copper block of mass 500 g for two minutes. The specific heat
capacity of copper is 400 J kg−1 °C−1.

(a) Define the term specific heat capacity.

The term “define” requires you to state the meaning of specific heat capacity.

Answer
Specific heat capacity is defined as the amount of thermal energy required to increase the temperature of

a unit mass (e.g. 1 kg) of a substance by 1 K or 1°C.

Write only the answer required by the question. Any additional explanation of how specific heat capacity
depends on the nature or type of substance is not required.

(b) Assuming no heat is lost to the surroundings, calculate the increase in temperature of the copper
block after two minutes.

• The term “calculate” means that a numerical answer is expected.

• Your working should be clear and in a sufficient number of steps, including stating the formula used.

Answer

Given: mass m of copper block = 500 g = 0.5 kg

specific heat capacity c of copper = 400 J kg−1 °C−1
power P provided by electric heater = 300 W
time t = 2 min × 60 = 120 s

Make sure that the units of the physical quantities that you use in your calculations are consistent. The
specific heat capacity of copper has the unit J kg−1 °C−1, therefore we need to convert the unit of the mass
of the copper block from g to kg. Likewise, the unit of time needs to be converted from min to s.

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 Pt = mc(∆␪)
300 × 120 = 0.5 × 400 × (∆␪)
∆␪ = 180°C
⬖ Increase in temperature = 180°C

Ensure the following are given:

• Correct formula, i.e. Pt = mc(∆␪);
• Correct values substituted into the formula, i.e.
300 × 120 = 0.5 × 400 × (∆␪);
• Correct answer with unit, i.e. 180°C.

Worked Example 2
A microprocessor is a microchip that resides in desktop computers. As the microprocessor performs
computational tasks, it generates heat. To prevent damage to the microprocessor, the heat produced
is conducted away using a device called a heat sink.

metal heat sink

microprocessor

(a) Describe, in terms of particles, how thermal energy is conducted away from the microprocessor by
the heat sink.

• When you encounter the term “describe”, you need to write down the important points relating to the
context or situation mentioned in the question. This includes describing how a particular event occurs
or how to carry out a certain experiment.
• In contrast, if you are asked to “discuss”, you need to write a critical account (organise your answer
as an argument). For example, if you are asked to “discuss the factors that affect the rate at which
thermal energy is transferred from the microprocessor”, your discussion should include not just a list
of the factors, but also, perhaps, a commentary on which factor plays a greater role in heat loss.

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 Answer
As the particles in the warmer microprocessor gain thermal energy and vibrate more vigorously, they collide

with the neighbouring particles in the cooler heat sink. Hence, thermal energy is transferred from the

microprocessor to the heat sink.

• Since the question specifically asks you to describe heat conduction by particles, you must refer to heat
conduction in your answer.
• Stating a correct fact does not mean you have answered the question. For example, the sentence
“Air particles in the warmer region of the heat sink rise,” is factually correct. However, this sentence
describes the convection process, and not the conduction process, so even though particles are
mentioned, the question is not answered.

(b) The diagram below shows a simplified cross-sectional diagram, showing the components within the
casing of a desktop computer. In addition to the heat sink, two small fans are installed near the
top and the bottom of the computer casing to help maintain a cool internal environment.

(top)
computer casing

(back) (front)

fan
other components

microprocessor

fan

(bottom)

Explain how installing the two fans as shown can help to maintain a cool environment in the interior
of the computer.

When asked to “explain” something, you need to write more than facts or definitions that you have
memorised. Your answer needs to include some reasoning or reference to a theory. You will need to link
the facts with the situation described in the question.

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 Answer

The heat generated by the components within the computer is conducted to the surrounding air. When the

surrounding air gains heat, it expands, becomes lower in density and rises, transferring heat to the top of

the internal space within the casing. The fan nearer the top of the computer draws the hot air out of the

computer, dissipating the heat to the surroundings. The fan at the bottom of the computer draws in cooler,

denser air from the surroundings into the computer. Thus, the fans help to maintain a cool environment in

the interior of the computer.

Worked Example 3
A beaker containing 0.2 kg of water is heated using a Bunsen burner until the water in the beaker comes
to a boil. The water is then left at room temperature. Thermal energy is transferred from the hot water
to the surroundings by radiation, as shown by a hand that feels warmth when brought close to the outer
surface of the beaker.

(a) List two other processes by which thermal energy can be transferred from the hot water to
the surroundings.

• When you are asked to “list”, there is usually no need to provide supporting statements or detailed
calculations. A short answer will do.
• Since the question asks for only two processes of thermal energy transfer to the surroundings, you only
need to provide two processes in your answer.

Answer
Conduction and convection

(b) The outer surface of the beaker is painted black and the experiment is repeated. State and explain
whether the water in the beaker will cool down faster.

“State and explain” suggests that you need to both provide a short answer to the question, and offer an
explanation to support your statement.

Answer
The water will cool down faster as black surfaces are better emitters of heat by radiation.

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 Chapter 8: Temperature
Name: ( )

Class: Date:

Worksheet 8
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions
X – X0
1. The general equation used to define the Celsius scale of temperature is  °C = × 100°C,
X100 – X0
where X is the physical property of a thermometric substance. Which of the following statements
is false?
A For a mercury-in-glass thermometer, X is the volume of the mercury.
B For a resistance thermometer, X0 is the resistance of the wire at ice point.
C The equation works on the assumption that the physical property of the thermometric
substance changes proportionally with the temperature.
D X100 and X0 are the physical property at the steam point and ice point respectively. ( A )

2. The resistance of a piece of platinum wire in melting ice and boiling water is 800 Ω and 910 Ω
respectively. What is the temperature when the resistance is 1000 Ω?
A 55°C B 110°C C 182°C D 222°C ( C )

Working/Explanation
Given: resistance in melting ice R0 = 800 Ω When resistance R is 1000 Ω,
R – R0
resistance in boiling water R100 = 910 Ω temperature  = × 100
R100 – R0
= 1000 – 800 × 100
910 – 800
= 182°C

Section B: Structured Questions

1. In nuclear power plants, resistance thermometers are used to measure temperatures.

(a) A resistance thermometer has a resistance of 1000 Ω at ice point (0°C) and 2000 Ω at steam
point (100°C). The thermometer, when placed in water in a nuclear reactor core, has a
resistance of 4070 Ω. What is the temperature of the water in the nuclear reactor core?
Let the temperature of the water in the nuclear reactor core be .
R – R0
= × 100 = 4070 – 1000 × 100 = 307°C
R100 – R0 2000 – 1000

(b) If the water in the nuclear reactor core in (a) reaches a temperature of 325°C, what would be
the resistance of the resistance thermometer?
R – R0
= × 100
R100 – R0
R – 1000
325 = × 100 ⇒ R = 4250 Ω
2000 – 1000

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 2. (a) A millivoltmeter attached to a thermocouple reads 10.0 mV when the cold junction is immersed
in ice (0°C) and the hot junction in steam (100°C). When the hot junction of the thermocouple
is placed in a warm liquid, the millivoltmeter reads 4.8 mV. What is the temperature of the
warm liquid?

For a thermocouple thermometer, e.m.f. ε ∝ temperature difference ∆.

∆
Therefore, ε is constant.
 – 0 100 – 0
= where  = temperature of warm liquid
4.8 10.0
100
∴ = × 4.8 = 48°C
10.0
(b) In another thermocouple thermometer, an e.m.f. of 4.6 mV is generated when the hot junction
is in boiling water and the cold junction is in melting ice. If the hot junction is placed in a
boiling liquid of temperature 300°C, what would be the e.m.f. generated?
300 – 0 100 – 0
= where ε = e.m.f. generated by boiling liquid
ε 4.6
4.6
∴ε = × 300 = 13.8 mV
100

Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. (a) State the main steps involved in setting up a Celsius temperature scale, using a liquid
contained in a narrow glass tube.

Ensure that the liquid is a suitable thermometric substance that varies continuously with

temperature. Begin the process of calibration by recording the lengths of the liquid column at the ice

point and steam point. Complete calibration by dividing the interval between the two fixed points into

100 equal parts to obtain a scale.

(b) Give two examples of physical properties, other than the example in (a), that vary continuously
with temperature.
Electrical resistance of a piece of metal, electromotive force produced by a thermocouple

(c) A column of thermometric liquid measures 2 cm in length when immersed in pure melting
ice and 30 cm when placed in a liquid of temperature 25°C. What is the length of the liquid
column at steam point?
Given: l0 = 2 cm l − l0
= × 100
l = 30 cm l100 − l0
30 − 2
 = 25°C 25 =
l100 − 2
× 100

∴ l100 = 114 cm

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 Data-Based Question
2. A student sets up three temperature scales using three identical columns containing liquids
X, Y and Z of the same mass. In the process, he records the variation of length L of all three
liquid columns with temperature. Figure 8.1 shows the values of L at different temperatures.

Length L/cm
Y
17

15
Z
13

X
5
4 ◀ Figure 8.1

Temperature/°C
0 100

(a) State the column lengths LX, LY and LZ for liquids X, Y and Z respectively at the two fixed points
of 0°C and 100°C.
2 5
(i) At 0°C, LX = cm; at 100°C, LX = cm
4 17
(ii) At 0°C, LY = cm; at 100°C, LY = cm
(iii) At 0°C, LZ = 13 cm; at 100°C, LZ = 15 cm

(b) What is the increase in column length for liquids X and Y when the temperature rises from 0°C
to 100°C?
Increase in column length for liquid X = 5 – 2 = 3 cm

Increase in column length for liquid Y = 17 – 4 = 13 cm

(c) Comparing the results for liquids X and Y, explain why liquid Y is more suitable as a
thermometric substance.
For the same increase in temperature, liquid Y shows a greater increase in length than liquid X.

Thus, liquid Y is more sensitive to small changes in temperature and can be calibrated to better

precision.

[Note: For liquid Y, a smaller temperature interval of 7.7°C is measured by a 1 cm change in column
100°C
length (i.e. = 7.7°C cm–1), whereas for liquid X, a bigger temperature interval of 33°C is
13 cm
100°C
measured by a 1 cm change in column length (i.e. = 33°C cm–1). Thus, liquid Y can be
3 cm
calibrated to better precision.]
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 (d) Liquids X and Y expand uniformly with temperature. This is represented by the two straight
lines in Figure 8.1. The formula L = Aq + B can be used to express the length L of the liquid
column. In the formula, q is the temperature, and A and B are constants.
(i) Calculate the values of A and B for liquids X and Y.
Let constants A and B for liquid X be Let constants A and B for liquid Y be A Y and BY
A X and BX respectively. respectively.
Using L = Aq + B, Using L = Aq + B,
at 0°C, 2 = A X(0) + BX at 0°C, 4 = A Y (0) + BY
∴ BX = 2 ∴ BY = 4
At 100°C, 5 = A X(100) + BX At 100°C, 17 = A Y (100) + BY
5−2 17 − 4
∴ AX = ∴ AY =
100 100
= 0.03 = 0.13
Therefore, A X is 0.03 and BX is 2. Therefore, A Y is 0.13 and BY is 4.
[Note: Alternatively, students can find the gradient and L-intercept from the graph. They can then
substitute these values into the general equation for a straight line, y = mx + c. The values of A and B
can be found by comparing the general equation with corresponding values in L = Aq + B.]

(ii) Using the values you obtained in (d)(i), at which temperatures do the column lengths for
liquids X and Y theoretically become zero?
Let the temperature of liquid X be qX. Let the temperature of liquid Y be qY .
When the column length for liquid X is zero, When the column length for liquid Y is zero,
0 = AXqX + BX 0 = A Y qY + BY
BX 2 BY 4
∴ qX = – =– = –67°C ∴ qY = – =– = –31°C
AX 0.03 AY 0.13
[Note: In practice, the column length cannot be zero. This is because all liquids are matter and
must occupy space. Thus, this formula is not valid at very low temperatures.]

(e) Explain why liquid Z is not a suitable thermometric substance for the temperature range of
0°C to 100°C.
It does not expand uniformly over the temperature range.

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) Explain how a physical property that 8.1

changes with temperature is used to 1, 2 1, 2 1, 2
construct a temperature scale. 8.2

(b) Describe how a liquid-in-glass

thermometer is calibrated and
explain why we need fixed points, 1 – 1(a), 1(c), 2 8.2
such as the ice point and steam
point, for calibrating a thermometer.

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 Chapter 9: Kinetic Model of Matter
Name: ( )

Class: Date:

Worksheet 9
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions

1. Which of the following statements concerning the Brownian motion of smoke particles is/are true?
1 It is due to the random bombardments of smoke particles by invisible air molecules.
2 It is due to the vibration of smoke particles at a specific temperature.
3 It is due to the strong attractive forces between gas molecules and smoke particles.
A 1 only B 1 and 3 only C 1 and 2 only D 2 and 3 only ( A )

2. According to the kinetic model of gases, the pressure of a fixed mass of a gas in a container of
fixed capacity decreases because the
1 average speed of the gas molecules decreases.
2 gas molecules bombard the container walls less frequently.
3 temperature of the gas decreases.
Which statement(s) is/are correct?
A 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3 ( D )

3. For a fixed mass of gas at constant volume, it is observed that the gas pressure increases with
temperature. Which of the following statements may explain this observation?
1 The molecules collide with the container walls more frequently.
2 The molecules collide with one another more frequently.
3 The molecules combine into bigger molecules before colliding with the walls of the container.
A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3 ( A )

4. A partially inflated balloon is placed in a bell jar. The attached vacuum pump is turned on for
several minutes. The volume of the balloon increases. What pressure changes occur within the bell
jar and within the balloon?
bell jar
balloon

airtight seal

metal table

to vacuum pump to vacuum pump

Pressure change in the bell jar Pressure change in the balloon

A Decrease Decrease
B Increase Increase
C Increase Decrease
D Decrease Increase ( A )

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 Section B: Structured Questions

1. Distinguish between the three states of matter — solid, liquid and gas — in terms of the
(a) movement of molecules;

In a solid, the molecules vibrate about fixed positions as they are held together by strong

intermolecular forces. In a liquid, the attractive forces are less strong than in a solid. Thus, the

molecules are free to move about within the liquid. In a gas, the molecules move randomly at high

speeds and completely fill up any available space due to negligible forces of attraction between them.

(b) arrangement and spacing between molecules.

In a solid, the molecules are closely packed together, usually in a regular pattern, and occupy minimal

space. In a liquid, the molecules are arranged randomly, with no regular pattern. The molecules are

spaced only slightly further apart than the molecules in a solid. In a gas, the molecules are very far

apart and randomly occupy any available space.

2. The Brownian motion of smoke particles in a glass cell is observed using a microscope.
(a) Draw and describe the typical path of a smoke particle in the glass cell.

The smoke particle moves jerkily along a random path.

(b) The temperature in the glass cell is raised.

(i) What is the effect on the motion of the air molecules in the glass cell?

The air molecules move faster and more vigorously.

(ii) State the evidence that supports your answer to (b)(i). Explain your answer.
The smoke particles move and change direction faster and more vigorously. This is because the

air molecules now move faster and bombard the smoke particles more vigorously and frequently.

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 3. A fixed mass of gas is enclosed in a vessel with a movable piston (Figure 9.1). The volume
occupied by the gas is 1000 cm3 and the pressure of the gas is 2.5 × 105 Pa.
(a) The gas is compressed using the piston. What is
the new volume of the gas if its new pressure is
5.0 × 106 Pa? Assume that the temperature of the movable piston
gas remains constant.
Given: initial volume V1 = 1000 cm3 gas
initial pressure p1 = 2.5 × 105 Pa vessel
final pressure p2 = 5.0 × 106 Pa
p1V1 = p2V2 where V2 = final volume ▲ Figure 9.1
p1V1 2.5 × 105 × 1000
∴ V2 = = = 50 cm3
p2 5.0 × 106

(b) Using the kinetic model of gases, explain why the pressure of the fixed mass of gas increases
when its volume is reduced at constant temperature.
The pressure exerted by a gas is caused by the bombardment of its molecules on the walls of the

vessel. At constant temperature, the average speed of the molecules remains the same. When the

volume is reduced, the number of gas molecules per unit volume is increased. So, the frequency of

collisions of the gas molecules with the inner walls of the vessel is increased, causing the pressure

to increase.

4. An experiment is performed to investigate the relationship between the diffusion speed of bromine
gas and its temperature. Table 9.1 shows the data collected.
▼ Table 9.1

Temperature/°C 283 293 303 313 323

Time taken to diffuse through
305 300 295 290 285
10 cm of air/s

(a) What is the diffusion speed of the bromine gas at 313°C in cm s−1?
v= d
t
10
= = 3.45 × 10−2 cm s−1
290
(b) From the data, what conclusion can you draw about the relationship between the diffusion
speed of bromine gas and the temperature?
The speed of diffusion of bromine gas increases with temperature.

(c) Explain your answer to (b) in terms of the energy of bromine gas molecules.
When the temperature is increased, the average kinetic energy of the bromine gas molecules

increases. This increases their average speed and thus increases the speed of diffusion of the

bromine gas.

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 Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. Figure 9.2 shows a fixed mass of air trapped in a cylinder with a smooth piston. The initial
temperature of the air is 25°C.
cylinder

piston

trapped air

flame

◀ Figure 9.2

(a) The cylinder is heated and the temperature of the trapped air rises. The piston is observed
to move outwards. Using the kinetic model of gases, account for the increase in volume of
the trapped air.
Upon heating, the molecules in the trapped air gain kinetic energy and move faster. The molecules

collide more violently and more frequently with the cylinder walls and the piston, and thus the

pressure of the trapped air increases. This causes the piston to move outwards and thus the volume

of the trapped air increases.

(b) The piston continues to move outwards and finally stops when a steady temperature of 90°C
is reached. State how the following physical quantities of the heated air have changed when
the piston stops moving at 90°C, compared to the initial temperature of 25°C. Complete
Table 9.2, using the terms “increased”, “decreased” or “unchanged” for each answer.

▼ Table 9.2

Physical quantity Change

Average intermolecular distance Increased

Air pressure Unchanged

Average kinetic energy of the air molecules Increased

Rate of collisions between the air molecules and the piston Decreased

Average size of the air molecules Unchanged

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 Data-Based Question
2. Pneumatics is a scientific field that studies the effects and use of pressurised gas on mechanical
motion. When designing a pneumatic system, engineers must ensure that the gas pressure does
not become so high that it bursts the pneumatic cylinder. Figure 9.3 shows a pneumatic system
with a steel pneumatic cylinder.

pneumatic cylinder

piston
movement force

◀ Figure 9.3
compressed gas

(a) Give a possible reason for using gas in the pneumatic cylinder instead of liquid.

Gas is used instead of liquid so that, should a sudden large force be exerted on the piston, the

pneumatic cylinder would be less likely to burst. This is because gas is compressible whereas liquid

is incompressible. Thus, the gas pressure would be low enough for the cylinder to remain intact,

whereas liquid pressure would be dangerously high and damaging to the cylinder.

(b) A sample of the gas used in the pneumatic cylinder in Figure 9.3 is tested in the laboratory.
It is trapped in a very strong container with a movable piston. Figure 9.4 shows the test
results recorded in a pressure–volume graph.

Pressure/MPa

30

25

20

15

10 ◀ Figure 9.4

Volume/m3
0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5

(i) The pneumatic cylinder can take a maximum pressure of 20 MPa. Using the test data
in Figure 9.4, estimate the minimum volume to which the gas can be compressed in the
pneumatic cylinder.
0.15 m3

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 (ii) Calculate the gas pressure in the pneumatic cylinder when the volume of the gas is
0.6 m3.

According to the pressure–volume relationship of a gas,

p1V1 = p2V2
(30)(0.1) = (p2)(0.6)
p2 = 5 MPa

(iii) State two assumptions that you have made in your answers to (b)(i) and (b)(ii) with
respect to the sample of gas tested in the laboratory.
Assumption 1: The sample of gas must have the same mass as the gas in the pneumatic

cylinder.

Assumption 2: The sample of gas must be at the same temperature as the gas in the pneumatic

cylinder.

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) Distinguish between solids, liquids

and gases in terms of their physical – 1(a) 2(a) 9.1
properties.

(b) Describe the molecular structure of

solids, liquids and gases. – 1 – 9.2

(c) Deduce from the Brownian motion

experiment that particles are in 1 2 – 9.2
continuous motion.

(d) Describe how the motion of particles

is affected by temperature. – 2(b), 4 1(b) 9.2

(e) Explain how the pressure of a gas is

related to its molecular motion. 2 – 1(b) 9.3

(f) Describe the effects of changes in

pressure, volume and temperature of 3, 4 3(b) 1(a) 9.3
a gas.

(g) Solve problems related to the effects

of changes in pressure, volume and – 3(a) 2(b) 9.3
temperature of a gas.

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 Chapter 10: Transfer of Thermal Energy
Name: ( )

Class: Date:

Worksheet 10
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions
1. What are processes 1 and 2?
Process 1: Transfer of thermal energy caused by a difference in fluid density
Process 2: Transfer of thermal energy from an energetic atom or molecule to a less energetic atom
or molecule when they collide

Process 1 Process 2
A Evaporation Conduction
B Conduction Radiation
C Convection Conduction
D Convection Radiation ( C )

2. Why are solids better conductors of heat than liquids?

A The particles in solids are not free to move about.
B The particles in solids are arranged more closely together.
C The particles in solids vibrate faster.
D The particles in solids move more randomly. ( B )

3. Which types of surfaces are good absorbers and poor emitters of radiation?

Good absorbers Poor emitters

A Black and shiny Black and dull
B White and shiny White and shiny
C Black and dull Black and dull
D Black and dull White and shiny ( D )

4. A heating coil at the bottom of a rice cooker heats the base of a rice pot. The rice pot is filled with
a mixture of uncooked rice and water. What are the main processes by which the following heat
transfers take place?

Transfer of heat from heating Transfer of heat inside

coil to base of rice pot rice pot mixture
A Conduction Convection
B Convection Conduction
C Radiation Convection
D Conduction Radiation ( A )

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 5. A car was painted black while a second car was painted white. Both cars were left in the Sun to
dry. The black paint dried more quickly than the white paint. Which property of black paint makes
it dry more quickly?
A It is a better conductor of heat. B It is a better absorber of heat.
C It is a better insulator of heat. D It is a better reflector of heat. ( B )

6. A person sits in front of a campfire. What is/are the main process(es) by which thermal energy is
transferred to the person?
A Radiation only B Convection and radiation only
C Conduction and radiation only D Conduction, convection and radiation ( A )

7. Why is the ice not completely melted yet, even though

the water at the surface is already boiling?
A Ice is a poor radiator of heat. steam
B Convection cannot occur in water. boiling water
C The metal gauze prevents heat from glass test tube
melting the ice. metal gauze
D Water is a poor conductor of heat. ( D )
ice
Bunsen burner

Section B: Structured Questions

1. Hot coffee in a plastic foam cup cools down via three methods of thermal energy transfer to the
surroundings.
(a) State these three methods.

Conduction, convection and radiation

(b) Of the three methods in (a), which one of them enables

(i) thermal energy to be transferred most quickly from the hot coffee to a person’s hand
placed above it? Explain your answer.
Radiation. It does not require a material medium (such as air) to transfer thermal energy.

(ii) the coffee below the liquid surface to cool down, after heat is lost from the coffee
surface to the air above? Assume that no heat is lost through the plastic foam cup.
Explain your answer.
Convection. When heat is lost from the surface, the coffee at the surface contracts and

becomes more dense than the surrounding coffee. Thus, it sinks. Coffee from the lower region

rises as it is hotter and less dense. The difference in the densities of the coffee sets up a

convection current, allowing the rest of the coffee to cool down.

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 2. Figure 10.1 shows an electric kettle.
plastic handle

polished body

heating element

▲ Figure 10.1

(a) Explain the function of the polished kettle surface.

The polished surface is shiny and therefore a poor emitter of infrared radiation. This reduces the

rate at which thermal energy is lost from the kettle to the surroundings, thus reducing the amount of

electrical energy and time required to boil the water.

(b) Explain why the heating element is positioned near the bottom of the kettle.
When the kettle is switched on, the water near the heating element is heated, expands, becomes

less dense than the water above and therefore rises. The cooler, denser water in the upper part of

the kettle sinks to replace the heated water. In turn, the cooler, denser water gets heated by the

heating element. The cycle repeats, setting up a convection current, and thus all the water above the

heating element gets heated.

(c) Explain why plastic is used to make the handle of the kettle.

Plastic is a poor conductor of heat. It protects the user from the heat generated by the kettle.

3. Explain the following phenomena in terms of thermal energy transfer.

(a) Birds usually fluff up their feathers in cold weather.

Birds fluff up their feathers to trap air. The air, which is a poor conductor of heat, provides a layer of

insulation. This minimises the loss of thermal energy from the birds’ bodies to the cold surroundings

and helps keep them warm.

(b) The surface of a black car is hotter than that of a white car when both cars are parked under
direct sunlight for several hours.

Black surfaces are better absorbers of infrared radiation than white surfaces. The surface of the

black car gains thermal energy at a faster rate than the surface of the white car and thus becomes

hotter.

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 4. During the day, the land is higher in temperature than the sea. At night, the land becomes lower in
temperature than the sea.
(a) State the main process by which heat is transferred from the land and sea surfaces to the air
directly above them.
Conduction

(b) During the day, a sea breeze blows from the sea towards the land, while at night, a land
breeze blows from the land towards the sea. State and explain the process of heat transfer
that forms these breezes.

Convection. During the day, the air above the land heats up faster than the air above the sea surface.

The warmed air above the land expands, becomes less dense and therefore rises. The cooler air

above the sea moves towards the land to replace the warmer air, giving rise to a convection current.

The movement of the air from the sea to the land forms the sea breeze. At night, the air above the

land cools down faster. The air above the sea is warmer and less dense than the air above the land,

and therefore rises. The cooler air above the land moves towards the sea to replace the warmer air,

giving rise to the reverse convection current. The movement of the air from the land to the sea forms

the land breeze.

5. (a) State and describe the molecular mechanism that allows copper to conduct heat quickly.

The process of free electron diffusion allows thermal energy to be transferred quickly. When heated,

the free electrons in copper gain kinetic energy and move at great speeds towards cooler regions,

where they collide with copper atoms, making them vibrate more vigorously. The greater average

kinetic energies of the electrons and the copper atoms in the cooler regions means that the heat has

been conducted.

(b) Figure 10.2 shows a safety lamp used by miners in the nineteenth century. The lamp was
designed to prevent explosions caused by flammable gases such as methane in mines.

copper gauze

brass pillar
glass cover

oil

▲ Figure 10.2

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 A safety feature of the lamp is the copper gauze. Suggest how the copper gauze helps to
prevent explosions when methane gas is present. (Hint: Methane gas will burn only if the
surrounding air reaches its ignition temperature.)

If methane gas is present, it will enter the lamp through the copper gauze. Once it reaches the flame

at the other side of the gauze, the methane gas will burn. However, the heat generated will be rapidly

conducted away by the copper gauze, thereby preventing the methane gas outside the lamp from

reaching the ignition temperature and causing an explosion.

6. Figure 10.3 shows a refrigerator.

cooling unit

liquid coolant in pipes

metal
pump fins

▲ Figure 10.3

(a) Thermal energy is transferred from the refrigerator to the cooling unit. Explain how cold air
circulates in the refrigerator.
The air at the top becomes colder and denser than the air at the lower part of the refrigerator, and

sinks. The warmer air at the lower part of the refrigerator, being less dense, rises towards the cooling

unit and the process is repeated. Thus, a convection current is formed, allowing cold air to circulate

in the refrigerator.

(b) When the refrigerator door is opened for a short time, some of the cold air inside the refrigerator
is replaced by the warmer air outside. Explain why there is little effect on the temperature of
the contents in the lower part of the refrigerator.

The warm air that moves into the refrigerator is less dense and thus rises to the top of the

refrigerator. The colder air at the top continues to sink towards the contents, therefore keeping them

cool.

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 7. Figure 10.4 shows a household hot water system.

cistern hot water tap

R
hot water

P hot water tank

cold water

boiler
Q
water

burner

▲ Figure 10.4

(a) State the process by which the heated water rises from the boiler to the hot water tank.

Convection

(b) Name the pipe (P or Q) through which the heated water rises from the boiler to the hot water
tank. Explain your answer.
Pipe P. As the water in the boiler is heated, it expands and becomes less dense. Hence, it rises

towards pipe P and flows through it into the hot water tank.

(c) Explain why pipe R is connected to the lower half, and not the upper half, of the hot water
tank.
This connection keeps the cold, denser water from pipe R below the hot water in the hot water tank,

thus minimising heat loss by convection from the hot water to the cold water.

(d) Describe the function of pipe S.

In the event that the temperature of the water in the hot water tank becomes too high and causes a

large expansion of the hot water, pipe S allows the water to overflow into the cistern.

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 Section C: Free-Response Questions
1. Explain how the principle of thermal energy transfer is used in the following everyday applications.
(a) Cooking pots and pans are usually made of aluminium or stainless steel.
Aluminium and stainless steel are good conductors of heat. Thus, thermal energy from stoves is

transferred quickly through the cooking pots or pans to cook the food.

(b) Sawdust is used to cover ice blocks to keep them frozen.

Sawdust is an insulator and it traps air, which is also an insulator. This slows down the rate at which

thermal energy is transferred from the surroundings to the ice blocks, preventing them from melting

quickly.

(c) Potatoes are wrapped in aluminium foil before they are placed in a barbecue pit.

The aluminium foil helps to cook the potatoes faster as aluminium is a good heat conductor.

Thermal energy is transferred quickly through the aluminium foil to cook the potatoes. Aluminium foil

is shiny and therefore a poor emitter of infrared radiation. It slows down the rate at which thermal

energy is lost from the potatoes, thus keeping them hot for a longer time after they are removed from

the barbecue pit.

2. A pot of water is heated on an electric stove, as shown in Figure 10.5.

wooden handle

metal pot

◀ Figure 10.5

(a) Although both metal and wood conduct heat, metal is a much better conductor of heat than
wood. Discuss this in terms of thermal energy transfer at the molecular level.

In both metal and wood, the atoms or molecules that are heated vibrate vigorously. Thermal energy

is transferred when they collide with neighbouring atoms or molecules, making them vibrate more

vigorously. This process of atomic or molecular vibration is slow. In metal, an additional, much faster

mechanism of thermal energy transfer takes place — free electron diffusion. The free electrons in

metal gain kinetic energy upon heating. They move at great speeds towards the cooler regions.

As the electrons move, they collide with the atoms in the cooler regions, making them vibrate even

more vigorously. Thus, metal is a much better conductor of heat than wood.

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 (b) With the aid of a labelled diagram, describe the process of convection by which the water in
the pot is heated.

convection current pot

water

heat

As the water at the bottom of the pot is heated, it expands. The expanded water is less dense than
the surrounding water and therefore it rises. Since the water in the upper part of the pot is cooler, it
is denser and therefore it sinks. The difference in densities of water in the upper and lower parts of
the pot sets up a convection current. This current is responsible for transferring heat in the process
of convection.

Data-Based Question
3. In the construction of modern houses, many kinds of materials are used. These materials are
used to build structures such as the walls, roof and windows. Most of these materials, such as
fibreglass and wood, are poor conductors of heat (insulators).
(a) In terms of comfort and energy efficiency, state and explain whether you would choose a material
of higher or lower thermal conductivity to build the walls, roof and windows of a house.

A material of lower thermal conductivity. It greatly reduces the rate of conduction between the interior

and the exterior of the house, thus helping to maintain the desired temperature inside the house.

(b) Table 10.1 lists the thermal conductivities of some materials. The thermal conductivity λ of
a material indicates how well it can conduct heat. The higher λ is, the higher the rate of heat
conduction.
▼ Table 10.1

Material Thermal conductivity λ/W m–1 K–1

Expanded polystyrene foam 0.012
Air 0.024
Soft wood 0.10
Rubber 0.20
Brick 0.60
Glass 0.80
Aluminium 205
Copper 385

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 Explain which material in Table 10.1 is most suitable to be used to fill the gap between the
inner and outer walls of houses.

Expanded polystyrene foam. It has the lowest thermal conductivity (λ = 0.012 W m–1 K–1).

(c) The rate of heat transfer through a wall is given by the following formula (provided the wall is
of constant thickness):
Q λ A∆θ
= where Q = thermal energy (in J);
t d
t= time taken (in s);
λ= thermal conductivity (in W m–1 K–1);
A= area (in m2);
∆θ = difference in temperature (in °C);
d= wall thickness (in m).
Calculate the minimum thickness (in mm) of a glass window of area 2 m2 needed to prevent the
heat entering through the window from exceeding 2500 J s−1. (Take the outside temperature
to be 30°C and the inside temperature to be 27°C).

Given: λ = 0.80 W m–1 K–1

A = 2 m2
∆θ = 3°C
t=1s
Qmax = 2500 J where Qmax is the maximum amount of heat loss that cannot be exceeded

Let the minimum thickness of the glass window be dmin.

λ A∆θ t
dmin =
Qmax
0.80 × 2 × 3 × 1
=
2500

= 0.00192 m = 1.92 mm

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 WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) Show an understanding that thermal

energy is transferred from a region
– – 3(c) 10.1
of higher temperature to a region of
lower temperature.

(b) Describe how energy transfer occurs

1, 2 5(a) 2(a) 10.2
in solids at the molecular level.

(c) Describe convection in fluids (liquids 1(b)(ii), 2(b),

and gases) in terms of density 1 4(b), 6, 7(b), 2(b) 10.3
changes.
7(c)

(d) Explain energy transfer of a body by

radiation and state the factors that
3, 5 1(b)(i), 2(a) – 10.4
affect the rate of energy transfer by
radiation.

(e) Describe how the concept of thermal

energy transfer by conduction, 1, 2, 3,
4, 5, 6, 7 1, 2, 3 10.5
convection and radiation applies to 4, 5, 6, 7
everyday life.

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 Name: ( )

Chapter 11: Thermal Properties of Matter

Class: Date:

Worksheet 11
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions
1. 2400 J of energy is used to heat up a 3 kg copper block from 20°C to 22°C. What are the specific
heat capacity of copper and the heat capacity of the copper block?

Specific heat capacity Heat capacity

of copper/J kg−1 °C−1 of copper block/J °C−1
A 400 1200
B 400 2400
C 2400 1200
D 2400 2400 ( A )

Working/Explanation
Given: thermal energy used Q = 2400 J
mass m = 3 kg
change in temperature ∆␪ = 22 – 20 = 2°C

Let the specific heat capacity and heat capacity be c and C respectively.
Using Q = mc(∆␪),
Q 2400
c= = = 400 J kg–1 °C–1
m(∆␪) 3 × 2
Q 2400
C= = = 1200 J °C–1
∆␪ 2

2. A student places a 300 g brass block at 100°C in an insulated cup of water at 25°C. The final
temperature of the water and the block is 35°C. What is the mass of the water in the cup? (Take
specific heat capacity of brass = 380 J kg–1 K–1; specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg–1 K–1)
A 0.74 kg B 0.074 kg C 0.18 kg D 0.018 kg ( C )

Working/Explanation
Given: mass mb of brass block = 300 g = 0.3 kg
specific heat capacity cb of brass = 380 J kg–1 K–1
change in temperature ∆θb of brass block = 100 – 35 = 65 K
specific heat capacity cw of water = 4200 J kg–1 K–1
change in temperature ∆θw of water = 35 – 25 = 10 K

Let the mass of the water be mw.

Assuming that all the heat lost by the brass block is gained by the water,
mbcb(∆θb) = mwcw(∆θw)
m c (∆θ )
mw = b b b = 0.3 × 380 × 65 = 0.18 kg
cw(∆θw) 4200 × 10

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 3. Calculate the total time taken for a 100 W heater to heat 2 kg of ice at –20°C to water at 30°C.
(Take specific heat capacity of ice = 2100 J kg–1 °C–1; specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg–1 °C–1;
specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 340 000 J kg–1)
A 33 min B 67 min C 133 min D 169 min ( D )

Working/Explanation
Given: mass m of ice = 2 kg
power P = 100 W
specific heat capacity ci of ice = 2100 J kg−1 °C−1
specific heat capacity cw of liquid water = 4200 J kg−1 °C−1
specific latent heat of fusion lf of ice = 340 000 J kg−1
Amount of thermal energy needed to heat ice from –20°C to 0°C
= mci(∆θ) = 2 × 2100 × (0 – (–20)) = 84 000 J
Amount of thermal energy needed to completely melt ice
= mlf = 2 × 340 000 = 680 000 J
Amount of thermal energy needed to heat water from 0°C to 30°C
= mcw(∆θ) = 2 × 4200 × (30 – 0) = 252 000 J
Total amount of thermal energy needed to heat ice at –20°C to water at 30°C
= 84 000 + 680 000 + 252 000 = 1 016 000 J
Let the time taken for the ice at –20°C to become water at 30°C be t.
Assuming that all the heat produced by the heater is used to heat ice at –20°C to water at 30°C,
Pt = 1 016 000 J
∴ Time t = 1 016 000 = 10 160 s = 169 min
100

4. A 1 kg piece of iron undergoes three different processes, P, Q and R, involving energy change.
P: It is heated from 15°C to 30°C.
Q: It is lifted vertically through a height of 2 m.
R: It is brought to rest from an initial speed of 10 m s–1.
Which of the following shows the processes arranged in order of increasing energy change? (Take
specific heat capacity c of iron = 460 J kg–1 °C–1; acceleration due to free fall g = 10 m s–2)
A PQR B QPR C PRQ D QRP ( D )

Working/Explanation
Given: c = 460 J kg–1 °C–1 For R, velocity v1 while travelling = 10 m s–1
g = 10 m s–2 and velocity v2 at rest = 0 m s–1
Kinetic energy while travelling
For P, temperature change ∆θ = 30 – 15 = 15°C
1 1
Increase in thermal energy = mv12 = (1 × 102) = 50 J
2 2
= mc(∆θ) = 1 × 460 × 15 = 6.9 × 103 J
Kinetic energy at rest
For Q, height h = 2 m 1 1
= mv22 = (1 × 02) = 0 J
Increase in gravitational potential energy 2 2
= mgh = 1 × 10 × 2 = 20 J
∴ Decrease in kinetic energy = 50 – 0 = 50 J

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 Section B: Structured Questions

1. (a) State four differences between boiling and evaporation.

Boiling occurs at a fixed temperature, whereas evaporation occurs at any temperature. Boiling takes

place throughout the liquid, whereas evaporation takes place only at the liquid surface. During boiling,

bubbles are formed in the liquid, whereas during evaporation, no bubbles are formed. Boiling requires

an external thermal energy source, whereas evaporation does not require one.

(b) Using the kinetic model of matter, explain why the evaporation of a liquid causes its temperature
to fall.

The molecules in a liquid move randomly at different speeds and therefore have different kinetic

energies. At the liquid surface, the liquid molecules that have enough energy to overcome the

atmospheric pressure and the attractive forces of other liquid molecules escape into the atmosphere.

The less energetic molecules are left behind. The average kinetic energy of the molecules in the liquid

decreases, and thus the average temperature of the liquid falls.

2. (a) State the meaning of the terms heat capacity and specific heat capacity.
Heat capacity is the amount of thermal energy required to raise the temperature of a substance by

1 K (or 1°C). Specific heat capacity is the amount of thermal energy required to raise the temperature

of a unit mass (e.g. 1 kg) of a substance by 1 K (or 1°C).

(b) A huge metal block of mass 10 kg is initially at a temperature of 30°C. A 500 W heater is
placed in a narrow cavity inside the block. Within 6.3 minutes, the temperature of the metal
rises to 80°C. Calculate the
(i) thermal energy supplied by the heater;

Given: power P = 500 W

time t = 6.3 min = 6.3 × 60 s = 378 s
Thermal energy Q supplied by the heater = Pt
= 500 × 378 = 189 000 J = 1.89 × 105 J
(ii) specific heat capacity of the metal.

Given: mass m = 10 kg
change in temperature ∆θ = 80 – 30 = 50°C
Assuming all the thermal energy supplied by the heater is absorbed by the block,
Q = mc(∆θ)
Q
∴ Specific heat capacity c of metal =
m(∆θ)
1.89 × 105
= = 378 J kg–1 °C–1
10 × 50

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 3. An electric kettle has a power rating of 25 W. Calculate the
(a) quantity of thermal energy it generates in 2 s;
Given: power P = 25 W
time t = 2 s
Quantity of thermal energy generated Q = Pt
= 25 × 2 = 50 J

(b) rise in temperature of 150 g of water if the electric kettle is switched on for 5 min. (Take
specific heat capacity of water = 4 J g–1 K–1)
Given: mass m = 150 g
time t = 5 min = 5 × 60 s = 300 s
specific heat capacity c of water = 4 J g–1 K–1
Assuming all the thermal energy supplied by the kettle is used to heat the water,
Pt = mc(∆θ)
Pt
∴ Rise in temperature ∆θ =
mc
25 × 300
= = 12.5 K
150 × 4

4. A 100 W heater is switched on for 5 min to heat a metal block of mass 1 kg.
(a) Calculate the amount of thermal energy supplied by the heater during the 5 min.
Given: power P = 100 W
time t = 5 min = 5 × 60 s = 300 s
Amount of thermal energy supplied = Pt
= 100 × 300 = 30 000 J

(b) During the 5 min of heating, the temperature of the metal block rises from 22°C to 65°C.
Calculate the amount of thermal energy absorbed by the metal block. (Take specific heat
capacity of the metal = 380 J kg–1 °C–1)
Given: mass m = 1 kg
change in temperature ∆θ = 65 – 22 = 43°C
specific heat capacity c of metal = 380 J kg–1 °C–1
Amount of thermal energy absorbed by metal block = mc(∆θ)
= 1 × 380 × 43 = 16 340 J

(c) Calculate the amount of thermal energy lost to the surroundings during the 5 min.
Amount of thermal energy lost to surroundings = Pt – mc(∆θ)
= 30 000 – 16 340 = 13 660 J

5. An experiment is carried out to determine the specific heat capacity of an unknown metal, using a
1 kg block of the metal (Figure 11.1). The heater is switched on for 500 s. The following readings
are obtained:
low d.c. thermometer
voltage supply V
Change in thermometer reading = 50°C
A
Ammeter reading = 5 A
Voltmeter reading = 8 V
heater

◀ Figure 11.1

metal block

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 (a) Calculate the specific heat capacity of the unknown metal. (Hint: Use the formula power
P = current I × voltage V. You will learn more about this formula in Chapter 19.)
Given: mass m = 1 kg
time t = 500 s
rise in temperature ∆θ = 50°C
current I = 5 A
voltage V = 8 V
Let the specific heat capacity of the metal be c.
Assuming that all the heat supplied by the heater is absorbed by the metal block,
IVt = mc(∆θ)
IVt
∴c=
m(∆θ)
5 × 8 × 500
= = 400 J kg–1 °C–1
1 × 50
(b) State why it is not advisable to take the thermometer reading immediately after switching off
the current.

If the thermometer reading is taken immediately after switching off the current, there will not be sufficient

time for the heat to be evenly distributed throughout the metal block to give a final steady temperature.

6. An object of mass 20 g is subjected to processes 1 and 2 in the sequence shown.

Process 1: It is heated in a boiling water bath until its temperature reaches 100°C.
Process 2: The object is then placed in an insulated container of 0.10 kg of water at 30°C. The final
temperature of the mixture is 35°C.
(a) Calculate the specific heat capacity of the object.
(Take specific heat capacity of water = 4200 J kg–1 °C–1)

Given: mass mo of object = 20 g = 0.02 kg

change in temperature ∆θo of object = 100 – 35 = 65°C
mass mw of water = 0.10 kg
change in temperature ∆θw of water = 35 – 30 = 5°C
specific heat capacity cw of water = 4200 J kg–1 °C–1
Let the specific heat capacity of the object be co.
Assuming all the heat lost by the object is gained by the water,
moco(∆θo) = mwcw(∆θw)
mwcw(∆θw)
co =
mo(∆θo)
0.10 × 4200 × 5
= = 1600 J kg–1 °C–1
0.02 × 65

(b) In process 1, the initial temperature of the object when it is placed in the boiling water bath is
16°C. Calculate the amount of thermal energy needed to raise the temperature of the object
to 100°C.
Given: change in temperature ∆θo of object = 100 – 16 = 84°C
Amount of thermal energy Q needed
= moco(∆θo)

= (0.02) (0.100.02
× 4200 × 5
× 65 )(84) (from (a), c o =
0.10 × 4200 × 5
0.02 × 65 )
= 2700 J

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 7. Figure 11.2 shows the heating curve Temperature/°C
of water.
100
(a) State the portion of the graph B C
that shows when the water is 75
(i) purely liquid;
50
AB
25
(ii) a mixture of liquid and
A
steam. 0 Time/min
BC ▲ Figure 11.2

(b) Explain why there is no temperature change in portion BC of the graph although heat is
supplied to the water.
Boiling occurs in portion BC. The thermal energy supplied is used by the escaping water molecules

to overcome the attractive forces of other water molecules and the force of atmospheric pressure.

Since none of the thermal energy supplied is converted to internal kinetic energy, there is no change

in temperature during boiling.

8. A heater with a power rating of 500 W is completely enclosed within a block of ice at 0°C. The
heater is switched on for ten minutes. The specific latent heat of fusion of ice is 3.4 × 105 J kg–1.
(a) (i) Explain what is meant by the term specific latent heat of fusion.
Specific latent heat of fusion is the amount of thermal energy required to change a unit mass

(e.g. 1 kg) of a substance from the solid state to the liquid state, or vice versa, without a change

in temperature.

(ii) Calculate the mass of ice that melts after ten minutes.

Given: power P = 500 W

time t = 10 min = 10 × 60 s = 600 s
specific latent heat of fusion lf = 3.4 × 105 J kg–1
Assuming that all the thermal energy used to melt the ice is provided by the heater,
Pt = mlf
Pt
∴ Mass of ice that melts m =
lf
500 × 600
= = 0.88 kg
3.4 × 105

(b) Calculate the latent heat of fusion required to melt 3 kg of ice.

Latent heat of fusion Lf = mlf

= 3 × 3.4 × 105
= 1.02 × 106 J

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 9. A hot water tank uses a 10 kW heater to change 100 kg of water at 100°C into steam at the same
temperature. The specific latent heat of vaporisation of water is 2.2 × 106 J kg–1.
(a) Explain what is meant by the statement “The specific latent heat of vaporisation of water is
2.2 × 106 J kg–1”.
The amount of thermal energy needed to change 1 kg of water from liquid to vapour, or vice versa,

is 2.2 × 106 J at the constant temperature of 100°C.

(b) Calculate the mass of steam produced in two hours, assuming that no heat is lost to the
surroundings.

Given: power P = 10 kW = 1 × 104 W

time t = 2 h = 2 × 60 × 60 s = 7200 s
specific latent heat of vaporisation lv = 2.2 × 106 J kg–1
Assuming no heat is lost to the surroundings,
heat supplied by heater = heat used to produce steam
Pt = mlv
Pt
∴ Mass m of steam produced =
lv
1 × 104 × 7200
= = 32.7 kg
2.2 × 106

10. Figure 11.3 shows an experiment that investigates the evaporation of ether. Ether is a volatile
liquid, i.e. it has a high evaporation rate.

air from
pump

ether water

wooden support

▲ Figure 11.3

After air is pumped into the ether for some time, the film of water freezes. Explain this
phenomenon.
As air is pumped into the ether, the bubbles formed increase the surface area from which the liquid can

evaporate, resulting in an increased evaporation rate. Since evaporation causes cooling, the increased

evaporation rate results in an increased rate of cooling. Thermal energy is conducted from the film of water

through the base of the conical flask to the cooled ether. At the same time, the insulating wooden support

and surrounding air minimise the rate of thermal energy gain by the film of water from its surroundings.

Eventually, the temperature of the film of water drops to 0°C and the water freezes.

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 11. Figure 11.4 shows how the temperature Temperature/°C
of a substance changes when a heater 225
supplies thermal energy to it at a rate F
200
of 600 J per minute.
(a) State the portion of the graph 175
that shows when the substance is 150
boiling. D E
125
DE 100

75
B C
50
25
A
0 Time/min
0 5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40 45
▲ Figure 11.4

(b) Given that the substance has a mass of 10 g, calculate the specific latent heat of vaporisation
of the substance.
600
Given: power P = 600 J min–1 = J s–1 = 10 J s–1
60
mass m = 10 g = 0.01 kg

Since boiling occurs over portion DE of the graph,

time t taken for 10 g of substance to convert from liquid to gaseous state = 15 min
= 15 × 60 s = 900 s
Let the specific latent heat of vaporisation of the substance be lv.
Assuming that all the thermal energy provided by the heater is used to boil off 10 g of the substance,
Pt = mlv
Pt
∴ lv =
m
10 × 900
= = 9 × 105 J kg–1
0.01

12. Figure 11.5 shows how the temperature changes as Temperature/°C

heat is supplied to ice at –10°C until the ice becomes
water at 20°C.
20 D

(a) State the portion of the graph that shows when

10
the water exists as a mixture of solid and liquid.
B C
BC
0 Time/min

–10
(b) Explain why there is no temperature change in A ▲ Figure 11.5
portion BC of the graph although thermal energy
is absorbed by the ice.

Portion BC represents melting. The thermal energy absorbed by the ice is used to break the bonds

between its molecules. Since none of the thermal energy supplied is converted to internal kinetic

energy, there is no change in temperature during melting.

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 (c) Write down either “gain in internal potential energy” or “gain in internal kinetic energy” as the
cause of the
(i) temperature increase in portion AB: Gain in internal kinetic energy ;

(ii) change in state in portion BC: Gain in internal potential energy ;

(iii) temperature increase in portion CD: Gain in internal kinetic energy .

Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. Figure 11.6 shows the cooling curve of molten wax.
(a) State the portion of the graph
Temperature/°C
that shows when the wax is
(i) purely solid;
70 P
RS
60
(ii) a mixture of solid and liquid; Q R
50

QR 40
S

30
(iii) purely liquid. 0 5 10 15 20 25 30 Time/min

▲ Figure 11.6
PQ

(b) State the freezing point of wax.

50°C

(c) Explain why there is no temperature change in portion QR of the graph although thermal
energy is released from the molten wax.

Portion QR represents freezing. Thermal energy is released as intermolecular bonds are formed

between the liquid wax molecules that come together to form solid wax. This thermal energy is lost

by the liquid wax to the surroundings. Since the average kinetic energy of the molecules remains

unchanged, there is no temperature change in portion QR.

(d) State the point (P or Q) at which the wax has higher internal energy. P

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 2. Water that is initially at 25°C is heated using a 1 kW heater. The graph in Figure 11.7 shows how
the mass of the water changes over time. The water starts to boil at A and the heater is switched
off at B.
Mass/kg

1.1
A
1.0

0.9
B
0.8

0.7

0.6

0.5 Time/s
0 100 200 300 400 500 600 700 800 900 1000

▲ Figure 11.7

(a) In the grid below, draw the corresponding temperature–time graph of the water.
Temperature/°C

120
A B
100

80

60

40

20

0 Time/s
0 100 200 300 400 500 600 700 800 900 1000

(b) Calculate the amount of thermal energy provided by the heater for the period of time the water
is boiling.
Given: power P = 1 kW = 1000 W
From Figure 11.7, time t = 850 – 350 = 500 s
Amount of thermal energy Q = Pt
= 1000 × 500 = 5 × 105 J
(c) Calculate the specific latent heat of vaporisation of the water.
From Figure 11.7, mass m of water converted from liquid to gas = 1.0 − 0.8 = 0.2 kg
Assuming that all the thermal energy from the heater is used to convert 0.2 kg of water from liquid to gas,
Q = mlv
Q 5 × 105
lv = = = 2.5 × 106 J kg–1
m 0.2

(d) State and explain if the calculated value in (c) is likely to be higher or lower than the actual value.
Higher. In practice, some of the thermal energy supplied by the heater will be lost to the

surroundings. The amount of thermal energy supplied by the heater will thus be greater than the

actual amount of thermal energy used to boil off the 0.2 kg of water.

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 Data-Based Question
3. Charles investigates an instant water heater. Table 11.1 lists the parameters of his experiment.

▼ Table 11.1

Parameters of experiment on heater Values

Power (three adjustable settings) 1 kW, 2 kW and 3 kW
Flow rate of water (controlled by water tap) 0.0 kg s−1 to 0.1 kg s−1
Maximum temperature that water is allowed to 50°C
reach before power is cut off automatically
Specific heat capacity of water 4200 J kg–1 °C–1
Range of temperature of tap water in Singapore 24°C (coldest) to 34°C (hottest)

(a) On a particularly cold day in Singapore, the temperature of the tap water reaches its lowest
possible value. Calculate the maximum temperature of water which can be obtained by the
heater when the water flow rate is at its maximum, on this cold day.

Consider the flow of water in 1 s.

Given: power P = 3 kW = 3000 W
mass m of water = 0.1 kg
time t = 1 s
specific heat capacity c of water = 4200 J kg–1 °C–1
temperature θi of tap water = 24°C
Let the maximum temperature obtained by heater be θmax.
Assuming all the heat supplied by the heater is gained by the tap water,
Pt = mc(∆θ)
Pt = mc(θmax − θi)
3000 × 1 = 0.1 × 4200 × (θmax − 24)
3000 × 1
θmax = + 24
0.1 × 4200
= 31°C

(b) State and explain what will happen to the temperature of the water in (a) if Charles reduces
the flow rate of water.
The temperature of the water that emerges from the heater will be higher than 31°C. This is because

when the flow rate is reduced, a smaller amount of water will be heated by the same amount of

thermal energy every second.

(c) State three factors that would contribute to the automatic cut off of the power supply when
the water has been heated to its maximum temperature.

Heater power setting, water flow rate and initial temperature of water

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 (d) On a particularly hot day in Singapore, the temperature of the tap water reaches its highest
possible value. Calculate the flow rate of water that would allow the heater to obtain a water
temperature of 40°C when the power is switched to 2 kW, on this hot day.
Consider the flow of water in 1 s.
Given: power P = 2 kW = 2000 W
time t = 1 s
specific heat capacity c of water = 4200 J kg–1 °C–1
temperature θi of tap water = 34°C
temperature θh obtained by heater = 40°C
Assuming all the heat supplied by the heater is gained by the tap water,
Pt = mc(∆θ)
Pt = mc(θh − θi)
2000 × 1 = m × 4200 × (40 – 34)
2000 × 1
m=
4200 × (40 – 34)
= 0.079 kg
∴ The flow rate of water is 0.079 kg s–1.

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) Give an account of the rise in the

12(c)(i),
temperature of a substance in terms – 1(d) 11.1
12(c)(ii)
of an increase in its internal energy.

(b) Define the terms heat capacity and

– 2(a) – 11.1
specific heat capacity.

(c) Recall and use the formula thermal

energy = mass × specific heat 2(b), 3, 4,
1, 2, 3, 4 3 11.1
capacity × temperature change to 5, 6
solve problems.

(d) Give an account of melting/

solidification and boiling/ 7(b), 12(b), 11.2
condensation as processes of – 1(c)
thermal energy transfer without a 12(c)(ii) 11.3
change in temperature.

(e) Distinguish between boiling and

– 1, 10 – 11.5
evaporation.

(f) Define the terms latent heat and

– 8(a)(i), 9(a) – 11.4
specific latent heat.

(g) Recall and use the formula thermal 8(a)(ii), 8(b),

energy = mass × specific latent heat 3 8(c), 9(b), 2(c), 2(d) 11.4
to solve problems. 11(b)

(h) Explain, in molecular terms, what 11.2

latent heat of fusion and latent heat – 7(b), 12(b) 1(c)
of vaporisation are. 11.3

(i) Draw and explain a temperature−time 7(a), 11(a), 1(a), 1(b), 11.2
–
graph, including a cooling curve. 12(a) 2(a), 2(b) 11.3

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 Theme 3: Light, Waves and Sound

Theme 3: Answer It Right!

Answer It Right!
Go through the following worked examples. Use the tips provided to help you answer
questions well.

Worked Example 1
Electromagnetic waves such as visible light are transverse waves, while sound waves are longitudinal
waves.

(a) State one difference between a transverse wave and a longitudinal wave.

The term “state” requires a short answer with no explanation.

Answer

A transverse wave travels in a direction perpendicular to the direction of wave vibration, while a longitudinal

wave travels in a direction parallel to the direction of wave vibration.

(b) Electromagnetic waves are used in the broadcasting of television programmes. A particular
television channel broadcasts its television programmes using electromagnetic waves of frequency
1.81 × 108 Hz. If the speed of light is 3.00 × 108 m s−1, calculate the wavelength of the
electromagnetic waves.

Answer
v=f×λ
3.00 × 108 = 1.81 × 108 × λ
λ = 1.66 m
Wavelength = 1.66 m

• Your numerical answer should be expressed as a decimal with the appropriate number of
significant figures.
• Unless otherwise specified in the question, you should not write your answer in terms of a fraction.
• When you are asked to calculate a physical quantity, your final answer should include both the numerical
magnitude and the unit. In this case, the magnitude “1.66” and the unit “m” should be included.
• You should also inspect your answer and ask yourself whether the numerical value is reasonable.
Radio waves are much longer than light waves. So if your answer is in µm, double-check your working
to see if you have used the correct order of magnitude.

(c) When sound waves from a loudspeaker travel in air, they produce a series of regions of
compressions and rarefactions, caused by the vibration of air molecules.
compressions wave direction

loudspeaker

vibrating
diaphragm rarefactions ear

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 (i) If the distance between a rarefaction and the nearest compression is 0.6 m, calculate the
wavelength of the sound waves.

Answer
Wavelength = (distance between a rarefaction and the nearest compression) × 2
= 0.6 × 2
= 1.2 m

(ii) The frequency of the sound waves is 2.80 × 102 Hz. Show that the speed of sound in air is much
slower than that of light in air. (Take the speed of light in air to be 3.00 × 108 m s−1.)

• As the question requires you to “show”, you will need to apply the relevant mathematical
formula (in this instance, the formula for speed of sound), and make an inference based on the
calculated value(s). You will need to state clearly the terms that you use in your calculations.
• You will need to show all the steps.

Answer
v=f×λ
where v = speed
= (2.80 × 102) × 1.2
f = frequency
= 336 m s−1
λ = wavelength
336 m s−1 < 3.00 × 108 m s−1
Thus, the speed of sound in air is much slower than that of light in air.

Worked Example 2
(a) Define the term refractive index of water.

Answer
The refractive index of water is defined as the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light

in water.

• As the question requires the definition of the refractive index of water, it is not enough just to
write the definition of the refractive index of a medium in general. The phrase “speed of light
in water” should be included, instead of “speed of light in a medium”.
• Avoid vague statements like “refractive index is a comparison between how light moves in vacuum
and how light moves in a medium”, that do not give enough detail.

(b) The diagram below shows a light ray from a light source at the bottom of a water tank.

air

water 35°

light
source

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 (i) Deduce whether the light ray will undergo total internal reflection when it reaches the water–air
boundary. For the water–air boundary, the critical angle is 48.5°.

When you are asked to “deduce” or “predict” something, you need to link or connect the information
given in the question in a logical manner.

Answer
The angle of incidence of the light ray is 55° (90° – 35° = 55°), which is greater than the critical angle

of the water–air boundary (48.5°). Thus, the light ray will undergo total internal reflection when it

reaches the water–air boundary.

(ii) On the diagram, draw the path of the light ray after it reaches the water–air boundary.

Answer

air

water 35°

55°

light
source

• Your answer should be drawn neatly and accurately. Start the reflected light ray where the
incident light ray touches the water–air boundary. It should not be a ‘floating’ line.
• Include appropriate and accurate labels, such as the angle of reflection. Add an arrowhead to
indicate clearly the direction of travel of the light ray after it undergoes total internal reflection.

Worked Example 3
The diagram below shows the paths of two light rays, A and B, from a faraway object passing through
a converging lens, L.
L

B
A

principal axis

1 cm

1 cm Scale: 1 cm represents 2 cm.

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 (a) Determine the focal length of the converging lens.

“Determine” means you cannot find the answer directly by inspection. You need to calculate the answer
using given or measured values.

Answer
Since 1 cm in the diagram represents 2 cm in actual length,
Scaled focal length in the diagram = 3 cm
Focal length of the converging lens = 6 cm

• You need to know that the focal length of a converging lens is the distance between the focal
point and the optical centre, and take a direct measurement of this length from the scaled
drawing provided.
• Be careful when reading values from a diagram or a graph; reading the unit of the scale correctly
is important in this type of question. The scale used for the principal axis in the diagram is in the unit
of centimetre (cm) and not metre (m). Therefore, your answer for the focal length should be in
centimetres (cm).
• Take note of the scale used in the diagram: 1 cm on the diagram represents 2 cm in actual length.
It is important to convert your answer to the correct numerical value (from 3 to 6) using the scale
provided.

(b) On the diagram, draw an arrow to indicate the position of the image and label it with the
letter Z.

Answer
L

B
A

principal axis

1 cm

1 cm Scale: 1 cm represents 2 cm.

• Draw the image neatly and accurately, and label it with the letter Z.
• The arrow should point downwards to indicate that the image is inverted.

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 Chapter 12: Light
Name: ( )
For topics
12.1 Reflection of Light
Class: Date: 12.2 Refraction of Light
12.3 Total Internal
Reflection

Worksheet 12A
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions
1. The diagram shows a ray of light incident on mirror M1 and reflected onto mirror M2 at an angle of
incidence of 60°. What is the angle of reflection at mirror M1?
M1

60
M2

A 20° B 30° C 60° D 90° ( B )

2. A light ray strikes mirror M at an angle of 30° and is reflected. What is the angle of incidence at
mirror M'?
M

60
30

M'

A 20° B 30° C 60° D 90° ( B )

3. A person is standing 15 cm in front of a plane mirror. If the mirror is moved at a speed of 10 cm s–1
towards the person, how fast does the virtual image appear to move towards the person?

A 10 cm s–1 B 15 cm s–1 C 20 cm s–1 D 25 cm s–1 ( C )

Working/Explanation
At t = 0 s, distance of virtual image from person = 15 + 15 = 30 cm
At t = 1 s, distance of mirror from person = 15 – 10 = 5 cm;
distance of virtual image from person = 5 + 5 = 10 cm
⬖ Distance moved by virtual image towards person in 1 s = 30 − 10 = 20 cm
⇒ Speed at which virtual image appears to move towards person = 20 cm s–1

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 4. Which of the following statements about the laws of reflection is correct?
A The sum of the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection is 90°.
B When the angle of incidence is greater than 42°, total internal reflection occurs.
C The incident ray and reflected ray should be on different sides of a mirror.
D The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. ( D )

5. The diagram shows the path of a ray of light incident on the boundary between a liquid and air. What
is the refractive index of the liquid?
sin 60°
A
sin 50°
sin 30° 60
B air
sin 50°
sin 60° 50 liquid
C
sin 40°
D sin 40° ( C )
sin 60°

6. A ray of light is refracted at the boundary between optical media A and B, as shown in the diagram.
Which of the following statements is true?

A Medium A has a smaller refractive index than B. medium A

B Medium A is optically denser than medium B.
medium B
C Light travels at a lower speed in medium B.
D When the direction of the light ray is reversed,
the refracted ray bends towards the normal. ( B )

7. A ray of light travels from air into glass. The refractive index of the glass is 1.5. Which of the
following pairs could be values of the angle of incidence and angle of refraction?

Angle of incidence Angle of refraction

A 21.5° 20.0°
B 10.0° 60.0°
C 60.0° 35.3°
D 80.0° 53.3° ( C )

Working/Explanation
sin i
By definition, refractive index n =
sin r
sin i sin 60.0°
For Option C, = = 1.5
sin r sin 35.3°

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 8. A ray of light in air is incident on a semicircular block of glass at P
point P, as shown in the diagram on the right. OP is the radius of air
the semicircular block. Which of the following diagrams show(s)
the possible path(s) of the ray when it enters the block? glass

1 2

3 4

A 1 only B 2 and 3 only C 1, 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, 3 and 4 ( C )

Section B: Structured Questions

1. (a) Define the terms
(i) normal;
It is an imaginary line perpendicular to the surface at the point of incidence.

(ii) angle of incidence;

It is the angle between the incident ray and the normal.

(iii) angle of reflection.

It is the angle between the reflected ray and the normal.

(b) Using a labelled diagram, show what is meant by (i) incident ray; (ii) normal; (iii) reflected ray;
(iv) angle of incidence; (v) angle of reflection.

normal
incident ray reflected ray

angle of incidence angle of reflection

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 (c) State the relationship between angle of incidence and angle of reflection.
The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.

2. (a) List three characteristics of an image formed in a plane mirror.

The image is of the same size as the object. / It is upright. / It is virtual. / It is laterally inverted. /

Its distance from the mirror is equal to the distance of the object from the mirror.

(b) Two large letters Y and Z are placed at different positions in front of a plane mirror. On Figure
12.1, construct a ray diagram to locate the position of the image of
(i) Y as seen by the eye, including the image of Y;
(ii) Z as seen by the eye, including the image of Z.

Z
▲ Figure 12.1

3. Figure 12.2 shows an optician’s eye chart fixed 0.5 m behind the eyes of a patient. The plane mirror
is placed 3.0 m in front of the patient. The eye chart contains letters that have been printed to
appear laterally inverted.

3.0 m 0.5 m

optician's
eye chart

▲ Figure 12.2

(a) Explain the advantage of using a plane mirror in optical testing.

The distance of the image of the eye chart behind the mirror is equal to the distance of the eye chart

in front of the mirror. Hence, the letters on the eye chart appear further than they actually are, and

the room need not be very long.

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 (b) Determine the distance of the virtual image of the eye chart from the patient’s eyes.
Distance of virtual image from patient’s eyes = 3.0 + 3.0 + 0.5 = 6.5 m

(c) The optician arranges some letters in boxes as shown below, facing the plane mirror.

N O I T A C U D E

Write down the word that the patient reads in the plane mirror, in the boxes below.

E D U C A T I O N

4. (a) X and Y stand in front of a plane mirror as shown in Figure 12.3. They see each other’s
reflection in the mirror. X is stationary while Y starts moving along the dotted line in the
direction of the arrow. Construct a ray diagram to show the furthest point on the dotted line
at which Y is still able to see the reflection of X in the plane mirror. Label the point.

furthest point Y is
X Y
able to see X

i r

plane mirror
▲ Figure 12.3

(b) A person stands at point P as shown in Figure 12.4.

Construct a ray diagram in Figure 12.4 to determine 3
which pin(s) (numbered 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5) can be seen
in the mirror by the person. Include labels of the pin
images that can be seen. P 1 2 4

5
Pins that can be seen:
Pins 4 and 5 mirror

5
4

▲ Figure 12.4

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 5. Using the home-made periscope shown in Figure 12.5, an observer is able to look over a wall at an
object marked O.
O'

O•
45°
45°

45°
45°
I
▲ Figure 12.5

(a) State the value of angle α. Explain why each mirror is positioned at angle α.

α = 45°. This is to position each mirror in such a way that the angle between the incident and

reflected rays is 90°, thus allowing light rays from object O to reach the observer’s eye.

(b) On Figure 12.5, construct a ray diagram to locate the image of object O as seen by the eye.
Indicate the values of the angles of incidence and reflection.

6. (a) Complete the ray diagram in Figure 12.6 to show how the direction of light changes when it
travels from air into a glass block, and back into the air. Label the normal, incident ray, angle
of incidence, refracted ray, angle of refraction and emergent ray.
air glass block air

emergent ray

refracted
normal ray
r normal
i

incident ray

▲ Figure 12.6

(b) Define angle of refraction.

The angle between a refracted ray and the normal

(c) State the angle of incidence that will allow light to pass through the glass block without being
refracted. 0°

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 (d) State the relationship between the angle of incidence i and the angle of refraction r for light
travelling from air to another optical medium such as glass.

The ratio of the sine of the angle of incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is a constant.

7. (a) “Diamonds are optically denser than water”. State what this statement suggests about the
relative speed of light in these two optical media.
The speed of light is slower in diamonds than in water.

(b) For a light ray that passes from a vacuum into a diamond, write down the formula that relates the
refractive index of the diamond to the speeds of light in the vacuum and in the diamond.

speed of light in vacuum

Refractive index of diamond =
speed of light in diamond

(c) Show how the speed of light in diamond is related to the angle of incidence i and the angle of
refraction r of a ray of light travelling from a vacuum into a diamond.

Let the speed of light in vacuum and in the diamond be c and vd.
c sin i
Refractive index n = v = sin r
d
c sin i
Therefore, the equation v = sin r relates the speed of light in diamond to angles i and r.
d

(d) Given that the speed of light in vacuum is 3.0 × 108 m s–1, calculate the speed of light in a
diamond of refractive index 2.4.
c
n= v
d
3 × 108
2.4 = vd
vd = 1.25 × 108 m s−1

8. A ray of light is incident on the surface of water at normal

an angle of 60°, as shown in Figure 12.7. The
refractive index of water is 1.33. incident ray

(a) Calculate the angle of refraction. 60°

air
sin i
n = sin r water
sin 60° 40.6°
1.33 = sin r

r = sin−1 ( sin1.3360° ) = 40.6° refracted ray

▲ Figure 12.7

(b) On Figure 12.7, complete the ray diagram, including labels. Indicate the value of the angle
of refraction.

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 9. Figure 12.8 shows a light ray entering a glass
block from the air. The refractive indices of
D C
glass and air are 1.50 and 1.00 respectively.
13.2°
(a) (i) Calculate the angle of refraction at
edge AB of the glass block. glass
block air
At edge AB, 13.2°
i = 90° − 70° = 20°
sin i A
n = sin r B
70°
sin 20°
1.50 = sin r
sin 20°
⬖ Angle of refraction r = sin−1 ( )
1.50
▲ Figure 12.8
= 13.2°

(ii) Determine the angle of incidence at edge DC of the glass block.

At edge DC,
angle of incidence i = r = 13.2° (alternate angles)

(b) On Figure 12.8, complete the ray diagram to show how the light ray enters and emerges from
the glass block. Indicate the values of the angle of refraction at edge AB and the angle of
incidence at edge DC of the glass block.

10. Figure 12.9 shows light passing from air to glass. The refractive index of glass is 1.5.
(a) Find angles α and β.
sin i air glass
n= β 50°
sin r
sin α
1.5 =
sin 40°
α = sin−1(1.5 × sin 40°) = 74.6° 40°

β = 90°– 40° = 50° α 40°

74.6°

(b) Determine the critical angle of light travelling

from the glass to the air. ▲ Figure 12.9

1
sin c =
n
1
sin c =
1.5
c = 41.8°

(c) Using your answers from (a) and (b), complete the path of the ray until it emerges into the air
again, on Figure 12.9. Indicate the values of the angle of total internal reflection and angle of
incidence within the glass block, and the angle of refraction of the emergent ray.
[Note: Since angle β is greater than the critical angle, total internal reflection occurs. By the principle
of reversibility, the ray emerges with an angle of refraction of 74.6° in air.]

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 11. (a) “The critical angle of a given plastic and air interface is 44°”. Explain what this statement
means.

The angle of incidence in the plastic medium is 44° for which the angle of refraction in the air

is 90°.

(b) Find the refractive index of the plastic.

1
n =
sin c
1
= = 1.44
sin 44°

(c) Figure 12.10 shows two light rays, AB and AE, travelling in a plastic medium and meeting
a spherical air bubble trapped within the plastic medium. The centre of the bubble is
labelled C.

trapped air bubble

A C
B

plastic

▲ Figure 12.10

Assuming the angle of incidence outside the trapped air bubble is smaller than the critical
angle, answer parts (i) to (iii).
(i) On Figure 12.10, complete the path of ray AE in the air bubble.
(ii) Ray AB continues along its path as ray BD in the bubble. Draw the path of ray BD beyond
point D.
(iii) State how the path of ray BD within the bubble would be affected if the bubble contained
water instead of air. (Given: refractive index of air < refractive index of water < refractive
index of plastic)
Ray BD would bend away from the normal by a smaller angle.

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 Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. (a) State the two conditions necessary for total internal reflection to occur.

The light ray must travel from an optically denser medium to an optically less dense medium.

The angle of incidence in the optically denser medium must be greater than the critical angle.

(b) Figure 12.11 shows a light ray entering one end of an optical fibre. Complete the ray diagram
to show the path of the light ray in the optical fibre.

▲ Figure 12.11

light ray

(c) State three advantages of the use of optical fibres over copper wires in telecommunications.

Optical fibres can carry much more information over long distances than copper wires. Optical fibres

are lighter than copper wires. Optical fibres transmit information much faster than copper wires of

equivalent lengths.

(d) An optical fibre comprises a core of a high refractive index and an outer coat of a lower
refractive index. Explain why.
This is so that even when the optical fibre is bent, light rays entering the fibre will still be internally

reflected at the boundary between the refractive core and outer coat.

Data-Based Question
2. Figure 12.12 shows the longitudinal cross-section of an optical fibre. The optical fibre has a very
thin glass core with a diameter of 15 µm. The refractive index ng of the glass in this core is 1.65.

The glass core is enclosed in plastic cladding of a lower refractive index. Depending on the size of
the angle of incidence θi at A, light can be totally internally reflected at the boundary between the
core and the cladding. A ray of light will be totally internally reflected at A if θi is greater than the
critical angle θc.
A
plastic cladding

θi
15 µm
15
µm
2 glass core

▲ Figure 12.12

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 (a) Table 12.1 shows the angles of incidence θi and the corresponding angles of refraction ␪r for
light travelling from the glass core into the plastic cladding at A.
▼ Table 12.1

Angle of
incidence θi 61.20° 61.25° 61.30° 61.35° 61.40° 61.45°

Angle of
refraction θr 85.7° 86.1° 86.5° 87.0° 87.5° 88.3°

(i) Explain what is meant by the term critical angle.

The critical angle between two media is defined as the angle of incidence in the optically denser

medium for which the angle of refraction in the optically less dense medium is 90°.

(ii) Plot a graph of θi against θr on a piece of graph paper. You should obtain a slight curve.

(iii) From the graph, deduce the value of the critical angle ␪c for light at the boundary between
the glass and the plastic cladding. 61.49°

[Note: θc will be the value of θi for the value θr = 90°.]

(iv) Suggest how a straight-line graph can be obtained instead of a curve.

Calculate the values of sin θi and sin θr . Plot a graph of sin θi against sin θr to get a straight-line

graph.

(b) The optical fibre is 1.5 m long. A light ray enters the middle of the glass core from air at an
angle of incidence of 45°. Calculate the number of total internal reflections that will take
place before the light emerges at the other end of the optical fibre.

Let the angles of incidence and refraction at the air–glass interface be i and r respectively.
sin i
Refractive index n = A
sin r
sin 45°
1.65 =
sin r
15
␮m
r = sin−1 ( sin1.6545° ) = 25.38° i
r 2

a
Let the horizontal distance between the
left end of the optical fibre and A be a.
opposite
Using = tan 25.38°,
15 adjacent
2
= tan 25.38°
a

a= ( tan 7.5
25.38°
) µm
One total internal reflection occurs for a length of 2a.
total length of optical fibre – a
⬖ Total number of total internal reflections = +1
2a

=
(1.5 × 106) – ( tan 7.5
25.38° )
+ 1 = 47 441
7.5
2 × ( tan 25.38° )

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 WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) Understand the terms used for

1(a), 1(b),
reflection: normal, angle of incidence, 1, 2, 4 – 12.1
2(a), 4(b)
angle of reflection.

(b) State that, for reflection, the angle

of incidence is equal to the angle of
1(c), 2(b), 3,
reflection, and apply this principle 1, 2, 3, 4 – 12.1
4, 5
to construct ray diagrams and solve
problems.

(c) Understand the terms used for 6(a), 6(b),

refraction: normal, angle of incidence, 6, 8 6(c), 8, 9, – 12.2
angle of refraction. 11(c)

(d) Recall the relationship 6(d), 7(c), 8,

sin i = constant and solve problems. 5, 7 2(b) 12.2
sin r 9, 10(a)

(e) Define refractive index of a medium in

terms of ratio of the speed of light in – 7 – 12.2
vacuum to that in the medium.

(f) Explain the terms critical angle and 10(b), 10(c),

8 1(a), 2(a) 12.3
total internal reflection. 11

(g) Identify the main ideas in total internal

reflection, apply them to the use of 1(b), 1(c),
– – 12.3
optical fibres and state the advantages 1(d), 2
of using them.

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 Name: ( )

Chapter 12: Light

For topics
12.4 Refraction by Thin
Class: Date: Lenses
12.5 Ray Diagrams for
Thin Converging

Worksheet 12B Lenses

Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions

1. A light source S is adjusted so that its image coincides

with itself, as shown in the diagram. What is the focal
length of the convex lens?
S plane mirror
A 15 cm
B 20 cm
C 35 cm
D 55 cm 20 cm ( A )
35 cm

Working/Explanation
When passing through a convex lens, light rays parallel to the principal axis will converge at the
focal point. The distance between the optical centre of the convex lens and the focal point gives
the focal length of 15 cm (= 35 cm – 20 cm).

2. The diagram shows a point light source P placed in front of a thin converging lens L. It forms an
image at point Q. If the light source P is moved to P', at which point, A, B, C or D, will the image
be likely to form?
L
B

A C
P'
P F F Q

D
( C )

3. A convex lens is positioned to focus light rays from a distant object. The image formed by the lens is
1 the same size as the object.
2 inverted.
3 real.
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 3 only
D 1, 2 and 3 ( C )

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 4. The diagram shows an object placed in front of a thin converging lens L. If F is the focal point,
at which point is the base of the image formed?

object
A B C D
2F F F 2F
( C )

L
5.
image
P Q R S

2F F F 2F

The diagram shows a thin converging lens L. To produce an image in the position shown, an object
would have to be placed
A between P and Q. B at Q.
C between Q and R. D between R and S. ( C )

6. A thin converging lens of focal length 10 cm forms a real, inverted and magnified image of an
object placed at a distance u from the lens. What is a possible value of u?
A 10 cm B 15 cm
C 20 cm D 30 cm ( B )

Section B: Structured Questions

1. Figures 12.13 and 12.14 each show parallel beams of light from distant points incident on a thin
converging lens. The focal point is labelled F. On Figures 12.13 and 12.14,
(a) complete the paths of the parallel beams of light after they pass through the thin converging
lens;
(b) show the focal length clearly.
lens

F
principal axis

▲ Figure 12.13

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 lens

F
principal axis

▲ Figure 12.14

For each of Questions 2 to 6, construct a ray diagram to locate the image formed by a thin
converging lens, and complete the table provided. Figure 12.15 and Table 12.2 have been done
as examples for you.

Example: Given that the object distance u = ∞, complete Figure 12.15 and Table 12.2.
parallel rays lens
from a distance

v=f

F F

image

▲ Figure 12.15
▼ Table 12.2

Type of image Image distance (v ) Image location Use

Inverted, real and Opposite side of Object lens of a
v=f
diminished the lens telescope

2. Given that the object distance u > 2f, complete Figure 12.16 and Table 12.3.
lens

object
2F F F 2F

image

f < v < 2f

▲ Figure 12.16
▼ Table 12.3

Type of image Image distance (v ) Image location Use

Inverted, real and Opposite side of
diminished f < v < 2f Camera
the lens

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 3. Given that the object distance u = 2f, complete Figure 12.17 and Table 12.4.
lens

object
2F F F 2F

image

v = 2f

▲ Figure 12.17

▼ Table 12.4

Type of image Image distance (v ) Image location Use

Inverted, real and Opposite side of Photocopier making
same size v = 2f the lens same-sized copy

4. Given that the object distance f < u < 2f, complete Figure 12.18 and Table 12.5.
lens

object
2F F F 2F

image

v > 2f

▲ Figure 12.18
▼ Table 12.5

Type of image Image distance (v ) Image location Use

Inverted, real and Opposite side of Projector
magnified v > 2f
the lens

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 5. Given that the object distance u = f, complete Figure 12.19 and Table 12.6.
lens

image at
infinity

2F object F F 2F

▲ Figure 12.19

▼ Table 12.6

Type of image Image distance (v ) Image location Use

Upright, virtual, To produce a parallel
Image at infinity Same side of
magnified beam of light, as in
the lens
a spotlight

6. Given that the object distance u < f, complete Figure 12.20 and Table 12.7.
lens

image

2F F F 2F

object

▲ Figure 12.20

▼ Table 12.7

Type of image Image distance (v ) Image location Use

Upright, virtual, Image behind Same side of Magnifying glass
magnified the object the lens

7. (a) State what is meant by the focal length of a converging lens.

It is the distance between the optical centre and the focal point of the converging lens.

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 (b) (i) Complete the ray diagram in Figure 12.21 to locate the image formed by a thin diverging
lens.
(ii) Describe the image formed in Figure 12.21.
Virtual, upright and diminished

lens

F image
object
F

▲ Figure 12.21

Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. An object is placed a distance from a thin converging lens, as shown in Figure 12.22. The focal
length is f.

object

2F F F 2F

image

▲ Figure 12.22

(a) (i) On Figure 12.22, draw rays from the object to locate the position of the image.
(ii) Describe the type of image formed.
Inverted, magnified, real

(iii) State one use for such a lens arrangement.

Projector

(b) On Figure 12.22, complete the paths of the two rays to show their path through the lens to
the image formed.

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 f
(c) (i) The object is now moved to a distance of 2 from the lens. In the space provided, draw
the ray diagram to locate the image position and size.

image

2F F object F 2F

(ii) Describe the type of image formed. Virtual, magnified, upright

(iii) State the magnification. 2×

(iv) State one use for this type of lens arrangement. Magnifying glass

Data-Based Question
2. Based on the working principle of an antique camera, a student designs a very simple camera
(Figure 12.23) using a thin converging lens with a focal length of 10 cm. The position of the
converging lens can be adjusted over a length of 5 cm. A film is situated at the back of the
camera. The nearest possible distance between the film and the lens is d.

converging film
lens

camera
5 cm d

▲ Figure 12.23

(a) The group of people in Figure 12.23 is far away from the camera. When the lens is adjusted
to distance d from the film, the sharpest image is produced. State the value of d.

10 cm

1 1 1
(b) The lens forms an image on the film according to the relationship u + =
v f

where u = distance between the object and the optical centre;

v = distance between the image and the optical centre;
f = focal length of the lens.
h v
The height of the image hi is given by the formula i =
ho u
where ho = height of the object.

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 (i) If the group of people is 3 m away from the lens, calculate the distance the lens should
be placed from the film to produce a sharp image.
1 1 1
+ =
u v f
1 1 1
+ =
300 v 10
v = 10.3 cm

(ii) A man in the group is 2 m tall. Calculate the height of the image of this man on the film.
v 10.3
Magnification = =
u 300
v 10.3
Height of image of man hi = × ho = × 200 = 6.9 cm
u 300

(c) (i) Calculate the minimum distance the group of people must be in front of the lens to
produce a sharp image on the film.
1 1 1 [Note: In (a), when the group of people is very far from the
+ =
u v f camera, the distance between the lens and film to form a sharp
1 1 1 image is the shortest possible length of 10 cm. As the group
+ =
u 15 10 moves towards the camera, the distance between the lens and
u = 30 cm film needs to increase for the image to remain sharp. Therefore,
for u to be the minimum, v must be the maximum i.e. 15 cm.]

(ii) Calculate the height of the image of the 2 m tall man when he is at the minimum possible
distance from the lens.
v 15
Magnification = = = 0.5
u 30 v
Height of image of man hi = × ho = 0.5 × 200 = 100 cm
u

(iii) Suggest what can be done to obtain a smaller image when the man is at the minimum
possible distance from the lens.
Use a lens with a shorter focal length.

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(h) Describe how a beam of light behaves

when it passes through a thin 2 1, 7(b) – 12.4
converging or diverging lens.

(i) Define the term focal length for a thin

1 7(a) – 12.4
converging lens.

(j) Draw ray diagrams to illustrate how

real and virtual images are formed by 3, 4, 5, 6 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 1, 2 12.5
a thin converging lens.

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 Chapter 13: Waves
Name: ( )

Class: Date:

Worksheet 13
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions
1. Which of the following shows correct examples of transverse and longitudinal waves?

Transverse Longitudinal
A Sound X-rays
B Infrared Water waves
C Radio waves Light
D Gamma rays Sound ( D )

2. The diagram shows a long spring pulled backwards and pushed forwards to produce a wave.
spring moved
backwards and
forwards

What type of wave is this, and what is a good example of it?

Type of wave Example

A Longitudinal Radio wave
B Longitudinal Sound wave
C Transverse Sound wave
D Transverse Radio wave ( B )

3. The diagram shows a rope wave moving from left to right. What is the direction of motion of points
X and Y immediately after the positions shown?
direction of wave

X Y

X Y
A Up Up
B Up Down
C Down Up
D Down Down ( C )

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 4. The diagram shows the displacement−time Displacement /cm
graph of a particle as a transverse wave
passes through. If the speed of the wave is 5
15 cm s–1, what is its wavelength?
A 0.03 m 0 Time/s
B 0.06 m 0.20 0.40 0.60 0.80
C 0.04 m
D 6.0 m ( B ) –5

Working/Explanation
Given: speed v = 15 cm s–1 = 15 × 10−2 m s−1
period T = 0.40 s
Using v = f λ,
v
wavelength λ =
f
1
= vT (since f = )
T
= 15 × 10−2 × 0.40
= 0.06 m

5. The diagrams show the displacement–time graph and the displacement–distance graph of a wave.
Displacement/cm Displacement/cm

10 10

0 Time/s 0 Distance/m
1.5 3.0 4.5 6.0 4.0 8.0 12.0

–10 –10

What is the speed of the wave?

A 3.3 cm s−1 B 1.6 m s−1 C 2.0 m s−1 D 2.7 m s−1 ( D )

Working/Explanation
From the displacement–time graph, period T = 3.0 s.
1
f= where f = frequency of the wave,
T
1
⬖f=
T
1
= Hz
3.0
From the displacement–distance graph, wavelength λ = 8.0 m.
v = f λ where v = speed of the wave,
1
⬖v= × 8.0
3.0
= 2.7 m s−1

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 6. A series of water waves in a ripple tank is travelling at 2.0 cm s–1. If two complete waves pass a
fixed point each second, what is the wavelength of each wave?

A 4.0 cm B 2.0 cm C 1.0 cm D 0.5 cm ( C )

Working/Explanation
Given: speed v = 2.0 cm s–1
frequency f = 2 waves per second = 2 Hz
v
Wavelength λ =
f
2.0
=
2
= 1.0 cm

Section B: Structured Questions

1. A wave travels through a string. Figure 13.1 shows the profile of the string at an instant.
direction of wave

▲ Figure 13.1

(a) State whether the wave is transverse or longitudinal.

Transverse

(b) State the difference between transverse and longitudinal waves.

Transverse waves travel perpendicular to the direction of vibration, whereas longitudinal waves travel

parallel to the direction of vibration.

(c) State a common characteristic of transverse and longitudinal waves.

Both types of waves transfer energy from one point to another without physically transferring the

medium the waves travel in.

(d) Give one example each of transverse and longitudinal waves.

Example of transverse waves: light waves

Example of longitudinal waves: sound waves

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 2. Figure 13.2 shows a wave produced on a spring.

λ
A

▲ Figure 13.2

(a) Define the wavelength and amplitude of a wave.

The wavelength of a wave is the shortest distance between any two points on the wave that are in

phase. The amplitude of a wave is the maximum displacement of a point on the wave from its rest

position.

(b) On Figure 13.2, indicate the amplitude and wavelength of the wave, labelling them A and λ
respectively.

(c) The wave has a wavelength of 20 cm. If the wave travels from the left to the right at a speed
of 0.83 m s–1, calculate its frequency.

Given: speed v = 0.83 m s–1

wavelength λ = 20 cm = 20 × 10–2 m
v = f λ where f = frequency of the wave
v 0.83
∴f= = = 4.2 Hz
λ 20 × 10–2

3. Figures 13.3 and 13.4 show a wave travelling through section AB at t = 0 s and t = 2 s respectively.
wave direction wave direction

12 m 12 m

A B A B

time = 0 s time = 2 s
▲ Figure 13.3 ▲ Figure 13.4

(a) (i) State what is meant by the period of a wave.

The period of a wave is the time taken to produce one complete wave.

(ii) Determine the period of the wave in Figures 13.3 and 13.4.

Time taken to travel half a wavelength = 2 s

∴ Period T of wave = time taken to travel one wavelength = 4 s

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 (b) Calculate the speed of the wave.
d
Since the wave travels half a wavelength (4 m) in 2 s and using v = ,
t
4
speed of wave v = = 2 m s–1
2

4. Figure 13.5 shows the displacement–distance graph of a wave.

Displacement/cm

P
30

15

0 Distance/m
0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5 5.0 5.5 6.0
–15

–30
Q
▲ Figure 13.5

(a) What is the amplitude of the wave? 30 cm

(b) What is the wavelength of the wave? 4.0 m

(c) The period of the wave is 0.50 s.

(i) What is its frequency?

Given: period T = 0.50 s

1
f= where f = frequency of the wave
T
1
∴f= = 2.0 Hz
0.50

(ii) Point P represents the position of a wave particle at time t = 0 s. Describe the motion that
the particle undergoes for the next 0.375 s.

The particle moves down past the rest position until it reaches maximum displacement in the

negative direction. It then moves up and reaches the rest position at t = 0.375 s.

(iii) On Figure 13.5, mark the position of the particle in (c)(ii) at t = 3.25 s. Label this
position Q.
3.25
[Note: At t = 3.25 s, number of oscillations = = 6.5. Therefore, at t = 3.25 s, the
0.50
displacement of the particle is −30 cm.]

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 5. The end of a rope is attached to a wall, while its free end is moved up and down rapidly.

(a) The rope wave has a wavelength of 2 cm and an amplitude of 1 cm. Draw a labelled,
full-scale diagram of the wave at an instant. Your diagram should show at least two
complete waves.

A = 1 cm

λ = 2 cm

(b) The rope wave in (a) travels from left to right at a speed of 0.40 m s−1.

(i) Calculate the frequency of the wave.

Given: speed v = 0.40 m s–1
wavelength λ = 2 cm = 2 × 10–2 m
v = f λ where f = frequency of the wave
v 0.40
∴f= = –2 = 20 Hz
λ 2 × 10

(ii) Calculate the period of the wave.

1
f= where T = period of the wave
T
1 1
∴T= = = 0.05 s
f 20

(iii) Draw the displacement–time graph of a particle in the wave. Your graph should show
displacement over a time interval of at least two periods.

Displacement/cm

0 Time/s
0.025 0.050 0.075 0.100

–1

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 Section C: Free-Response Questions
1. (a) A ripple tank is used to generate water waves of wavelength 0.5 cm.
(i) If the dipper of the ripple tank vibrates with a frequency of 2 Hz, what is the speed of
the waves?
Given: wavelength λ = 0.5 cm
frequency f = 2 Hz
∴ Speed v = f λ
= 2 × 0.5
= 1.0 cm s–1

(ii) The frequency is adjusted to 2.5 Hz. What is the new wavelength?
From (i), v = 1.0 cm s–1
Using v = f λ and given that f is adjusted to 2.5 Hz,
v
∴ λ=
f
1.0
=
2.5
= 0.4 cm

(b) On the same axes, draw the displacement–distance graphs of two water waves with the same
wavelength but with one of the waves having an amplitude twice that of the other. Your graph
should show at least two waves.
Displacement

2A
A
0 Distance
λ 2λ
–A
–2A

(c) On another set of axes, draw the displacement–time graphs of two water waves with the same
amplitude but with one of the waves having a period twice that of the other. Your graph should
show displacement over a time interval of at least one period.

Displacement

0 Time
t 2t 3t 4t

–A

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 2. A ripple tank is used to produce water waves and is illuminated from above. Light refracts through
the convex and concave surfaces of the waves and forms a series of bright and dark zones
respectively on a screen placed under the tank (Figure 13.6).
brightest strips darkest strips
(crests) (troughs)

top view

dipper

◀ Figure 13.6
region A region B

(a) (i) State the definition of the term wavefront.

A wavefront is an imaginary line on a wave that joins all adjacent points that are in phase.

(ii) Describe how each of the bright and dark zones indicates a set of neighbouring
wavefronts.
A bright zone indicates a set of wavefronts near a crest. A dark zone indicates a set of

wavefronts near a trough.

(b) State the number of wavelengths in region A and region B.

(i) Region A: 4 (ii) Region B: 10

(c) The dipper is moving up and down at a frequency of 2 Hz. Calculate the speeds of the waves
in region A and region B, given that their wavelengths are 5.5 mm and 2.0 mm respectively.
Using v = f λ,
In region A ⇒ Given: frequency f = 2 Hz
wavelength λ = 5.5 mm
v = 2 × 5.5
= 11.0 mm s–1
In region B ⇒ Given: frequency f = 2 Hz
wavelength λ = 2.0 mm
v = 2 × 2.0
= 4.0 mm s–1

(d) Using the information in (c), discuss the changes (if any) that occur in the wavelength, speed
and frequency of the waves as they move from region A to region B.
As the waves move from region A to region B, their wavelength shortens from 5.5 mm to 2.0 mm.

According to the formula v = f λ, their speed decreases from 11 mm s–1 to 4.0 mm s–1.

Their frequency remains unchanged as the frequency of the dipper does not change.

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 Data-Based Question
3. 17 identical small boats are placed side by side in a lake. When a strong wind blows, the boats
are displaced as a wave travels in the direction shown in Figure 13.7.
direction of 'wave'

D E F L M N
C G K O
B H J P
A I Q

16 m
6.2 m 6.6 m
water

seabed
▲ Figure 13.7

The time taken for the wave to travel from boat A to boat Q is 8 s.

(a) State the position(s) of the

(i) crest(s).
The parts of the wave at E and M

(ii) trough(s).
The parts of the wave at A, I and Q

(b) Determine the amplitude of the wave.

6.6 – 6.2
Amplitude of wave =
2
= 0.2 m

(c) (i) Calculate the frequency of the wave.

8
Period T =
2
=4s
1
Frequency f of wave =
T
1
=
4
= 0.25 Hz

(ii) Find the wavelength of the wave.

Wavelength λ = distance between two consecutive troughs

= 16
2
=8m

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 (iii) Using the answers to (c)(i) and (c)(ii), calculate the speed of the wave.
v = fλ
= 0.25 × 8
= 2 m s−1

(d) State whether the wave is transverse or longitudinal.

Transverse

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) Describe wave motion using

4(c)(ii),
vibrations in ropes and springs, or 2, 3 3(a) 13.1
4(c)(iii)
waves in a ripple tank.

(b) Show an understanding that waves

transfer energy without the transfer – 1(c) – 13.1
of matter.

(c) Define, with reference to waves, the 2(a), 2(b),

terms speed, frequency, wavelength, 3, 4(a), 4(b), 1(b), 1(c),
period and amplitude. – 4(c)(i), 5(a), 2(b), 3(b), 13.2
5(b)(ii), 3(c)(i), 3(c)(ii)
5(b)(iii)

(d) Define the term wavefront. – – 2(a) 13.2

(e) Recall and apply the relationship

1(a), 2(c),
velocity = frequency × wavelength to 4, 5, 6 2(c), 5(b)(i) 13.2
2(d), 3(c)(iii)
solve problems.

(f) State the differences and similarities

between a transverse wave and
1, 2 1 3(d) 13.1
a longitudinal wave, and provide
appropriate examples of each.

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 Name: ( )

Chapter 14: Electromagnetic Waves

Class: Date:

Worksheet 14
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions

1. A television station transmits radio waves of frequency 180 MHz. What is the wavelength of these
radio waves?
A 1.7 m B 1.7 × 106 m C 6.0 × 10–1 m D 6.0 × 10–7 m ( A )

Working/Explanation
Given: frequency f of radio waves = 180 × 106 Hz
speed v of radio waves = 3.0 × 108 m s−1 (same as the speed of light)
v 3.0 × 108
Wavelength λ = f = = 1.7 m
180 × 106

2. Which of the following correctly lists three components of the electromagnetic spectrum in order
of increasing wavelength?
A Gamma rays, microwaves, visible light
B Radio waves, ultraviolet radiation, X-rays
C Ultraviolet radiation, infrared radiation, microwaves
D Visible light, gamma rays, radio waves ( C )

3. Which statements about the uses of electromagnetic radiation are correct?

1 Microwaves are used for communication.
2 Ultraviolet radiation is used to sterilise food.
3 Gamma rays are used in cancer treatment.
A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2 and 3 ( D )

Section B: Structured Questions

1. Figure 14.1 shows the seven colours of visible light, arranged in order of wavelength and frequency.

Violet Indigo Blue Green Yellow Orange Red

▲ Figure 14.1

(a) Fill in each empty box in Figure 14.1 with the missing colours.

(b) Of the three colours you filled in, which has the
(i) longest wavelength? Yellow (ii) highest frequency? Blue

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 2. (a) State two properties of radio waves.
Radio waves are transverse waves. They travel at the speed of light (3.0 × 108 m s–1) in vacuum.

(b) A radio station broadcasts at a frequency of 88 MHz. What is the wavelength of the radio
waves?
Given: frequency f of radio waves = 88 × 106 Hz
speed v of radio waves = 3.0 × 108 m s−1 (same as the speed of light)
v = fλ
v 3.0 × 108
λ= = = 3.4 m
f 88 × 106

3. People who work in the presence of ionising electromagnetic radiation are required to wear devices
called film badges. These devices are used to monitor the amount of exposure to ionising radiation.

(a) Name two types of radiation that cause ionisation.

X-rays, gamma rays

(b) Describe some of the possible harmful effects on the human body due to prolonged exposure
to ionising radiation.
Ionising radiation can damage human proteins and DNA. It can cause abnormal cell division,

leading to cancer. A pregnant woman who is exposed to ionising radiation is at risk of giving birth

to a deformed baby.

Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. Figure 14.2 shows the main components of the electromagnetic spectrum in ascending order of
frequency.

Radio waves Microwaves A Visible light B X-rays C

▲ Figure 14.2

(a) What are the names of the missing components A, B and C?

A: Infrared radiation B: Ultraviolet radiation C: Gamma rays

(b) State one application for each of the components A, B and C.

A: ear thermometer

B: germicidal lamps for sterilisation in hospitals

C: cancer treatment

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 (c) Name the characteristic of electromagnetic waves that helps them to travel from the Sun to
the Earth.
They can travel through vacuum.

(d) Explain why electromagnetic and water waves are both classified as transverse waves.
The waves travel in a direction perpendicular to the direction in which the waves oscillate.

Data-Based Question
2. A welder joins pieces of metal together by melting the parts that touch, and allowing them to
solidify together. In the process, some pockets of air may get trapped in the welded portion. These
air pockets are not desirable as they behave as internal cracks, weakening the welded metal.

Radiographic Testing is a method used to inspect the welded metal for hidden cracks. It uses
high-frequency electromagnetic waves to penetrate the welded metal. The amount of radiation
emerging from the opposite side of the welded metal is then detected and measured using a piece
of film. In Radiographic Testing, the wavelengths of the types of radiation used fall in the range of
less than 10 nm.

welded view of negative

metal film (developed film)
weakened high-
high-frequency waves
frequency waves

high-frequency
wave generator

▲ Figure 14.3
Figure 14.3 shows the film developed as a negative. The darker patches on the film have been
exposed to a higher amount of radiation. These darker patches indicate the presence of air
pockets in the welded metal, as the air pockets have allowed a greater amount of radiation to
pass through the welded metal.

(a) If a type of electromagnetic radiation used in Radiographic Testing has a wavelength of 1 nm,
calculate its frequency.

Given: wavelength λ = 1 nm = 1 × 10⫺9 m

speed v = 3.0 × 108 m s⫺1
v = fλ
3.0 × 108 = f × 1 × 10⫺9 m
f = 3 × 1017 Hz

(b) Before carrying out Radiographic Testing, the welder examines the welded surface for
unevenness. If necessary, he grinds the welded surface to obtain a smooth finish. Explain
why this step is needed.
If the welded surface is uneven, the resulting different depths in the surface would be captured on

the film as light and dark patches. The dark patches could be mistaken as trapped air pockets in

the metal.

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 (c) Name the possible types of electromagnetic waves that can be used for Radiographic
Testing.
X-rays and gamma rays

(d) State one property of the electromagnetic waves listed in your answer to (c). Explain how
this property makes them suitable for use in Radiographic Testing.
The electromagnetic waves are of sufficiently high frequencies and therefore have sufficient

energies to penetrate through the metal.

(e) Describe what the film would look like if the type of radiation used were infrared radiation.
Explain your answer.
The film would not darken at all. This is because infrared radiation does not have a sufficiently high

frequency to penetrate the metal. Thus, the film would not be exposed to the radiation.

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) State the properties of 1(c), 1(d),

– 2(a) 14.1
electromagnetic waves. 2(d)

(b) Describe the main components of the

1, 2 1, 2(b) 1(a), 2(a) 14.1
electromagnetic spectrum.

(c) State the applications of

3 – 1(b), 2(c) 14.2
electromagnetic waves.

(d) Describe the effects of absorbing

– 3 2(b), 2(e) 14.2
electromagnetic waves.

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 Name: ( )

Chapter 15: Sound

Class: Date:

Worksheet 15
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions
1. Which of the following correctly describes the natures of sound, light and radio waves?

Sound waves Light waves Radio waves

A Longitudinal Transverse Longitudinal
B Longitudinal Transverse Transverse
C Transverse Longitudinal Longitudinal
D Transverse Longitudinal Transverse ( B )

2. The table below shows how the speed of sound varies in substances of different densities.

Speed of sound in Density of substance/

Substance
substance/m s–1 kg m–3
Air (gas) 330 1.29
Oxygen (gas) 320 1.43
Aluminium (metal) 5100 2710
Iron (metal) 5000 7870
Lead (metal) 1200 11 300

From the information in the table, what conclusion can you draw about the speed of sound?
A The speed of sound increases as the density of the substance increases.
B The speed of sound is greater in substances of low density.
C The speed of sound is greater in metals than in gases.
D The speed of sound in a metal increases with the density of the metal. ( C )

3. When a sound wave travels from the air into a glass window, which of the following happens?
A The speed of the sound wave increases.
B The speed of the sound wave decreases.
C The frequency of the sound wave increases.
D The frequency of the sound wave decreases. ( A )

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 4. A guitar plays a louder note but at a lower pitch as compared to a violin. Which of the following
is correct?

Violin’s amplitude Guitar’s frequency

A Higher Higher
B Higher Lower
C Lower Higher
D Lower Lower ( D )

5. The voice frequencies of a man and a woman are f and 1.1f respectively. If the speed of the
man’s voice is 330 m s−1, what is the speed of the woman’s voice?

A 270 m s−1 B 278 m s−1 C 300 m s−1 D 330 m s−1 ( D )

6. Person P and person Q stand between two large walls as shown below.

P Q

600 m 200 m 400 m

Person Q makes a loud clap. Person P then hears two echoes. Calculate the time interval between
the echoes. (Take speed of sound = 330 m s−1)

A 1.2 s B 3.2 s C 4.8 s D 7.2 s ( A )

Working/Explanation
Given:
distance dL travelled by sound from person Q via left wall to person P = 200 + 600 + 600
= 1400 m
distance dR travelled by sound from person Q via right wall to person P = 400 + 400 + 200
= 1000 m
speed of sound v = 330 m s−1
d
Using v = ,
t
dL d
tL = and tR = R
v v
Time interval between the two echoes = tL − tR
dL dR 1400 1000
= − = − 330 = 1.2 s
v v 330

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 Section B: Structured Questions
1. A sound wave comprises a series of compressions and rarefactions.
(a) State what are meant by compressions and rarefactions in a sound wave.

Compressions are regions where the pressure is higher than the surrounding pressure. Rarefactions

are regions where the pressure is lower than the surrounding pressure.

(b) State the distance, in terms of wavelength, between

(i) two consecutive compressions or two consecutive rarefactions;

One wavelength

(ii) the centre of a compression and the centre of the nearest rarefaction.

Half a wavelength

2. A bell is struck by a hammer.

(a) Briefly describe how sound is produced by the bell.

When the hammer strikes the bell, the bell vibrates and thus produces sound.

(b) Describe how the sound travels through air to reach the ear of the person striking the bell.

The vibrating bell causes layers of air particles around it to shift. This causes a series of alternate

high-pressure regions (compressions) and low-pressure regions (rarefactions) to travel outwards and

propagate through air to reach the ear of the person. The direction of vibration of the air particles is

parallel to the direction in which the sound wave travels — sound travels as a longitudinal wave.

3. In an experiment, a ringing electric bell is suspended inside a bell jar by a thin string. A vacuum
pump is then used to draw air out of the bell jar.
(a) When the vacuum pump is not switched on, the ringing of the bell can be heard. When the
vacuum pump is switched on, the loudness of the bell decreases until only a very faint sound
can be heard. Explain this observation.
Sound waves need a medium to travel in. The vibrations of the ringing bell cause air particles in the

bell jar to vibrate. The air in the bell jar thus provides the medium to transmit the sound waves from

the ringing bell to the bell jar. The sound waves are then transmitted from the bell jar through the

surrounding air to our ears. The removal of the air reduces the number of air particles in the bell jar.

Thus, the sound waves are transmitted from the bell to the bell jar with decreasing effectiveness and

the loudness of the bell decreases. The faint sound indicates that the bell jar still contains some air.

This is because the vacuum pump does not create a complete vacuum inside the bell jar.
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 (b) Describe and explain what will happen if the electric bell is not suspended by the string, but
rests on the base supporting the bell jar instead.
There will not be a significant reduction of the loudness of the bell even when the air is removed by

the vacuum pump. Since the electric bell is in direct contact with the base, the sound waves are

propagated directly through the base to the air surrounding the bell jar.

4. (a) A train screeches to a halt. Explain why a distant observer sees the train stopping before
hearing the screech.
Light travels at a faster speed than sound. Therefore, the light reflected from the train can reach our

eyes earlier than the sound waves can reach our ears.

(b) During World War II, the train services that transported food from Malaya to Singapore were
disrupted. This caused grave concern among the people of Singapore that food shortages
would arise. To check if the trains were coming, many people would place their ears on the
railway tracks at the time of the day when the trains were scheduled to set off from Malaya.
Explain the science behind this method of train detection.
Sound travels much faster through solids than through air. The particles in the solid railway tracks

were packed much more closely together than the particles in air, and thus sound waves could travel

through the tracks much faster. By placing their ears on the tracks, the people could hear the train

coming before seeing it or hearing it through the air.

5. (a) Describe how an echo is formed.

An echo is formed when a sound is reflected off hard, flat and large surfaces.

(b) A pulse of sound is sent downwards into the sea. An echo from the seabed is received 0.3 s
after the pulse is sent. If the speed of sound in water is 1500 m s–1, determine the depth of
the sea.

Given: time t for sound to travel to and back from seabed = 0.3 s
speed v of sound in water = 1500 m s–1
Let the depth of the sea be d.
2d
v=
t
v t 1500 × 0.3
d= = = 225 m
2 2

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 6. In an attempt to determine the speed of sound in air, observer A stands 500 m from observer B in
an open space. Observer A starts the experiment by firing a flashgun towards the sky. Observer B
starts the stopwatch when he sees the flash and stops the stopwatch when he hears the sound of
the gun. They repeat the experiment three times and the timings recorded are 1.51 s, 1.55 s and
1.50 s.

(a) Calculate the average speed of sound in air.

1.51 + 1.55 + 1.50
Average time taken = = 1.52 s
3
distance 500
Average speed of sound in air = = = 329 m s–1
time 1.52

(b) Suggest why the observers A and B should not stand 100 m apart for this experiment.

The human reaction is not fast enough. A distance of 100 m is too close and would not allow

observer B to react promptly to start and stop the stopwatch. It is even possible that he would see

the flash and hear the sound simultaneously.

7. A person with a starting pistol stands at one end of a large field, while a second person with a
stopwatch stands at the opposite end of the field. When the pistol is fired, the second person sees
the flash from the pistol and starts his stopwatch. When he hears the sound of the pistol, he stops
the stopwatch. The time recorded by the stopwatch is 2.0 s and the distance between the two
people is 660 m.

(a) Calculate the speed of sound from the readings of the above experiment.

Given: time t = 2.0 s

distance d = 660 m
d 660
Speed of sound v = = = 330 m s−1
t 2.0

(b) Explain the assumption made about light in the calculation in (a).

It is assumed that the time taken for light to travel 660 m is negligible compared to that for sound.

This is because the speed of light is very much higher than the speed of sound in air.

(c) State one factor that may affect the results of the experiment.

The presence of wind

(d) Suggest two ways of improving the results of this experiment.

Repeat the experiment several times, compute the values of the speed of sound for each experiment

and find the average value. Let the two people exchange positions and repeat the experiment.

The average speed obtained from the experiments would cancel the effect of wind on the speed of

sound in air.

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 8. (a) Two properties that are used to distinguish one musical sound from another are pitch and
loudness. State the physical characteristic of sound waves to which
(i) pitch is related: Frequency ; (ii) loudness is related: Amplitude .

(b) A student tries to produce notes of higher frequency by blowing a trumpet harder. Discuss
whether he will succeed.
He will not succeed. Only the amplitude of the note will be affected, but the frequency remains the

same. He will only succeed in producing louder notes.

9. The approximate range of frequencies that the average human ear can detect is 20 Hz to
20 000 Hz.
(a) Dogs can detect ultrasound. Explain what this means.
Dogs can detect sound of frequencies above 20 000 Hz.

(b) One application of ultrasound is medical diagnosis, where images of internal body parts are
obtained. Describe how ultrasound is used to obtain the images of internal body parts.
A transmitter sends ultrasound pulses into the body. The time taken for the ultrasound pulses to be

reflected from the surface of the internal body part, and received, is measured. The depth of the

reflecting surface within the body can then be derived to form an image of the internal body part.

10. Figure 15.1 shows ultrasound being ultrasound ultrasound

receiver source
used to study an unborn baby.
ultrasound
beam

▶ Figure 15.1

(a) Describe how the vibrations of the source produce waves of ultrasound and how these waves
are transmitted through the body tissues to the receiver.
The source vibrates, pushing and pulling on the molecules of the body tissue next to it. When layers

of the molecules of the body tissue are pushed close together, a compression or region of high

pressure is formed. When the layers of the molecules are pulled apart, a rarefaction or region of low

pressure is formed. The molecules of the body tissue vibrate in a direction parallel to the propagation

of the ultrasound, and so the ultrasound is transmitted as a longitudinal wave through the body

tissues. When the sound wave hits the denser body tissues, it is reflected back through the body

tissues and detected by the receiver.

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 (b) Ultrasound used in medicine has a frequency that is about 100 times higher than the maximum
frequency that can be heard by humans (which is 20 000 Hz). Calculate the approximate
wavelength of ultrasound when it is transmitted in the human body. (Take speed of ultrasound
in the human body = 1500 m s–1)
Given: frequency f of ultrasound used in medicine = 100 × 20 000 = 2 × 106 Hz
speed v of ultrasound in human body = 1500 m s−1
Using v = f where λ is the approximate wavelength of ultrasound in the human body,
v
λ=
f
1500
= = 0.00075 m = 7.5 × 10−4 m
2 × 106

Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. The sounds produced by two tuning forks are detected by a microphone. Their waveforms are
displayed on the screen of an oscilloscope. Figure 15.2 shows the two waveforms of displacement
against time (for a fixed setting of the time-base knob of the oscilloscope).

same
height

tuning fork A tuning fork B

▲ Figure 15.2

(a) State and explain the conclusion that can be drawn about the loudness of the sounds produced
by the tuning forks.
The loudness of the sounds produced by the tuning forks is equal because both waveforms have the

same amplitude.

(b) State which tuning fork produces sound of a higher frequency. Show how you derive your
answer by calculating the ratio of the frequency of the sound produced by tuning fork A to the
frequency of the sound produced by tuning fork B.
From the waveforms shown, the period of sound produced by tuning fork B is twice that of the
sound produced by tuning fork A.
i.e. TB = 2TA
1
Since period T = where f = frequency,
f
1 1
fB = and fA =
TB TA
fA TB
= = 2 (since TB = 2TA)
fB TA
∴ fA:fB = 2:1
Therefore, tuning fork A produces sound of a higher frequency.

(c) On Figure 15.2, draw the expected waveform if

(i) tuning fork A were struck twice as hard;
(ii) tuning fork B were struck half as hard.
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 Data-Based Questions
2. A student places a sound detector on soil type A, 300 m from an explosive source (Figure 15.3).
explosive sound
source detector

soil type A

soil type B

▲ Figure 15.3

(a) The sound detector records two distinct pulses of sound after the explosive source is
detonated. The first pulse takes 0.15 s to reach the detector and the second pulse takes
0.94 s. Calculate the speed of sound in air and in soil type A.

Since sound travels in solids faster than in air, the first pulse takes 0.15 s to travel 300 m through
soil type A to the detector, while the second pulse takes 0.94 s to travel 300 m through the air to
the detector.
d
Using v = ,
t
300
Speed of sound in air = = 319 m s–1
0.94
300
Speed of sound in soil type A = = 2000 m s–1
0.15

(b) A faint third sound is detected 0.30 s after the explosion. It is believed that there is another
layer (soil type B) below soil type A and that this layer reflects the sound to the detector. With
the aid of a diagram, determine the depth of soil type A.
explosive sound
source detector
150 m 150 m

soil type A d
a a

soil type B

Distance travelled by sound in soil type A for 0.30 s = v × t

= 2000 × 0.30
= 600 m
2a = 600
a = 300 m
3002 = d 2 + 1502
∴ d = 260 m

[Note: Students need to recall Pythagoras’ theorem to solve part (b).]

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 3. Figure 15.4 shows a ship as it moves from positions A to F above a seabed. At each spot, the ship
transmits sound pulses to the seabed to determine its depth profile. The speed of the sound pulses
in the seawater is 1500 m s−1.

A B C D E F

▲ Figure 15.4

Figure 15.5 shows the time interval between each transmitted pulse and the reflected pulse
received by the ship. Each thick line represents the transmitted pulse, while each thin line
represents the corresponding reflected pulse.
Intensity

position position position position position position

A B C D E F

Time/s
0 0.4 0.8 1.2 1.6 2.2 2.4 3.0 3.2 3.4 4.0 4.2

▲ Figure 15.5

(a) Based on the data in Figure 15.5, calculate the depth of the seabed at each of the positions
A to F.

Let the time interval between each transmitted pulse and the reflected pulse received by the
ship be t, and the depth be d.
2d vt
v= ⇒d=
t 2
1500(0.4  0)
At position A, d = = 300 m
2
1500(1.2  0.8)
At position B, d = = 300 m
2
1500(2.2  1.6)
At position C, d = = 450 m
2
1500(3.0  2.4)
At position D, d = = 450 m
2
1500(3.4  3.2)
At position E, d = = 150 m
2
1500(4.2  4.0)
At position F, d = = 150 m
2

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 (b) On Figure 15.6, draw the rough depth profile of the seabed. Clearly label the depth of the
seabed for each of the positions A to F.
surface of water
A B C D E F

150 m 150 m
300 m 300 m 450 m 450 m
distance
from
surface

◀ Figure 15.6

(c) Calculate how long it takes to detect an echo from the seabed if the depth is 60 m.
Given: depth d = 60 m
2d
Using v = ,
t
2d
t =
v
2 × 60
= = 0.08 s
1500

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) Describe how sound is generated by

– 2(a), 10(a) – 15.1
vibration.

(b) Describe the mechanism by which 1, 2(b), 3(a),

1 – 15.1
sound propagates. 10(a)

(c) Explain that sound needs a medium

for transmission and that the speed
2, 3, 5 3, 4 – 15.2
of sound differs in solids, liquids and
gases.

(d) Describe a method for determining

– 6, 7 2(a) 15.2
the speed of sound in air.

(e) Relate the loudness and pitch of a

sound to the amplitude and frequency 4 8 1 15.5
of the sound wave respectively.

(f) Explain how an echo is formed

and describe the use of echoes in 6 5 2(b), 3 15.3
measuring distances.

(g) State what ultrasound is and describe

how ultrasound is used in quality – 9, 10 – 15.4
control and prenatal scanning.

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 Theme 4: Answer It Right!
Theme 4: Electricity and Magnetism
Answer It Right!
Go through the following worked examples. Use the tips provided to help you answer
questions well.

Worked Example 1
A student conducts an experiment to investigate how the potential difference of a metallic conductor
varies with the current flowing through it. He records the readings in the table below.

Current/mA 5.0 15.0 20.0 25.0 30.0 40.0

Potential difference/V 0.15 0.65 0.85 0.95 1.20 1.65

(a) Plot a graph of potential difference/V against current/mA of the metallic conductor.

Answer
Potential difference/V

2.00

1.75

1.50

1.25

1.00

0.75

0.50

0.25

0.00 Current/mA
0.0 5.0 10.0 15.0 20.0 25.0 30.0 35.0 40.0 45.0 50.0

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 • Avoid using scales that are difficult to construct or use e.g. scales that increase in multiples of 3
or 7. Some examples of useful scales increase in multiples of 1, 2, 5 or 10.
• After plotting all the points on graph paper, analyse the points to decide if they follow the trend of
a straight line or a smooth curve. In this example, a best fit straight line should be drawn as the
points follow the trend of a straight line.
• While a best fit line or curve need not pass through all the plotted points, you should ensure that there
is an equal number of points above and below the line or curve. Do not join adjacent points with a
series of straight lines in an attempt to link all the points.
• Recall the other tips on graph plotting in Answer It Right! (pages 1 to 3).

(b) The student wants to find out the resistance of the metallic conductor from the graph in (a).
(i) Determine the gradient of the graph in (a).

Answer

Potential difference/V

2.00

(45.0,1.825)
1.75

1.50

1.25

1.00

0.75

0.50

(6.0,0.25)
0.25

0.00 Current/mA
0.0 5.0 10.0 15.0 20.0 25.0 30.0 35.0 40.0 45.0 50.0

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 (1.825 – 0.25)
Gradient =
(45.0 – 6.0)

= 0.0404

• When you determine the gradient of a straight-line graph, draw the triangle as large as possible, with
the hypotenuse of the triangle greater than half the length of the graph.
• To calculate the gradient, use the x-values and y-values of points on the best fit line, and clearly label
these points on the graph. Do not use the points you plotted or the values given in the table.

(ii) Determine the resistance of the metallic conductor.

Take note of the units used. While the p.d. is measured in its SI unit (volt), the current is measured
in a decimal sub-multiple (milliampere) of its SI unit (ampere). We need to multiply the value of the
gradient by 1000 in order to obtain the correct resistance in its SI unit (ohm).

Answer

Resistance of metallic conductor = gradient × 1000

= 0.0404 × 1000
= 40.4 Ω

Worked Example 2
A filament lamp lights up when it is connected to a source of electrical energy in a closed electric circuit.

(a) Explain what is meant by conventional current flow.

Answer

Current is the rate of flow of electric charge. Conventional current flows from the positive terminal of an

electrical energy source to the negative terminal around a complete electric circuit, and is opposite to the

direction of electron flow.

Your answer may be considered wrong if you include an incorrect statement in your answer, even if it is
accompanied by a correct statement. For example, “conventional current flows from the negative terminal
to the positive terminal” is a wrong statement. Make sure you understand and phrase your Physics
concepts correctly when answering questions.

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 (b) Sketch the characteristic I–V graph of a filament lamp.

When you are asked to sketch a graph, be aware of any notable features. Examples of features of a graph
include its shape, whether it passes through the origin, the positions of its x-intercept and y-intercept,
the presence of an asymptote (a line that a curve gets closer to but never reaches) or discontinuity at a
particular value.

Answer

I /A

V/V

Worked Example 3
An electron beam is directed into a magnetic field that points out of the plane of the paper. With the aid
of a diagram, describe and explain how the path of the electron beam changes as it enters the magnetic
field.

Your diagram should be clear and include labels of important features required for your answer.

Answer

Y
magnetic field
directed out of
plane of paper
electron beam

The electron beam experiences an upward force perpendicular to its direction of motion when it enters the magnetic
field, as determined by Fleming’s left-hand rule. The electron beam is therefore deflected upwards in the direction
indicated by Y in the diagram.

It is often useful to include labels in your diagram that you can easily refer to in your explanation, such as the
letter Y in this example. This results in fewer words being used and helps prevent confusion.

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 Chapter 16: Static Electricity
Name: ( )

Class: Date:

Worksheet 16
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions
1. What is the SI unit of electric charge?
A Ohm B Newton C Coulomb D Ampere ( C )

2. A neutral conducting ball is placed near a negatively-charged conducting ball.

neutral
negatively-charged
conducting
conducting ball
ball

Which of the following is likely to happen?

A The neutral ball moves towards the charged ball and attaches to it.
B The neutral ball moves away from the charged ball.
C Both balls move towards each other and then move away from each other
after they touch.
D The charged ball moves away from the neutral ball. ( C )

3. Why does object A become negatively charged after it is rubbed with object B?
A Electrons have moved from object A to object B.
B Electrons have moved from object B to object A.
C Protons have moved from object A to object B.
D Protons have moved from object B to object A. ( B )

4. X is a light metal ball suspended by a nylon thread. When a positively-charged rod is placed
near it, X is attracted to the charged rod, as shown in the diagram. Which of the following
is possible?
1 X is negatively charged.
2 X is positively charged.
3 X is neutral. +
+
+
+
+
X +
+

A 1 only B 3 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only ( C )

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 5. Shoppers sometimes experience tiny electric shocks in air-conditioned shopping malls. This is
because the air in the shopping malls is
A wet. B dry.
C filled with electrons. D filled with protons. ( B )

Section B: Structured Questions

1. Table 16.1 shows objects 1 and 2 charged to various extents. Both objects are brought near each
other. Complete the table with either “attract” or “repel”.

▼ Table 16.1

Observation:
Charged object 1 Charged object 2
Charged objects 1 and 2 _______________.
+3 C +3 C repel
+2 C +1 C repel
−1 C +1 C attract
−1 C −4 C repel

2. A negatively-charged metal sphere is suspended by an insulating thread. When a large, negatively-

charged conductor is brought near, the sphere is deflected, as shown in Figure 16.1.

negatively-charged
metal sphere large, negatively-
charged conductor

insulating stand

▲ Figure 16.1

(a) Explain the deflection of the metal sphere using the concept of the electric field.
As the negatively-charged metal sphere lies within the influence of the electric field of the negatively-

charged large conductor, it experiences an electric force that repels it from the large conductor,

causing it to deflect away.

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 (b) Draw the correct electric field pattern
(i) of a positive charge (Figure 16.2);

▲ Figure 16.2

(ii) of a negative charge (Figure 16.3);

▲ Figure 16.3

(iii) between a positive charge and a negative charge (Figure 16.4);

▲ Figure 16.4

(iv) between two positive charges (Figure 16.5).

▲ Figure 16.5

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 3. Figure 16.6 shows a negatively-charged polythene strip brought near a suspended pith ball.

negatively-charged
polythene strip
bent glass rod

pith ball

wooden stand

▲ Figure 16.6

(a) If the pith ball moves away from the approaching polythene strip, state what could be concluded
about the type of charge on the pith ball. Explain your answer.
The pith ball is negatively charged. Like charges repel, therefore the pith ball is repelled by and

moves away from the negatively-charged polythene strip.

(b) If the pith ball moves towards the approaching polythene strip, discuss if this means that the
pith ball is positively charged. Explain your answer.
The pith ball could be positively charged or neutral. Unlike charges attract, so the pith ball, if

positively charged, will move towards the negatively-charged polythene strip. If the pith ball is neutral,

the electrons in it will be repelled to its left side. The positively-charged right side of the pith ball will

be attracted to the negatively-charged polythene strip.

4. Figure 16.7 shows a negatively-charged polythene strip brought near (but not touching) an
uncharged metal sphere S.

+ – metal sphere S

+ –
negatively-charged
polythene strip + –

insulating stand

▲ Figure 16.7

(a) On Figure 16.7, draw the charge distribution (if any) on metal sphere S.

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 (b) With the polythene strip still in position, the right side of metal sphere S is touched by a
person’s hand. Describe what happens.
When the person’s hand touches metal sphere S, the negative charges (electrons) on metal sphere S

flow to the earth. Metal sphere S becomes positively charged.

(c) The polythene strip is now removed. Draw the final charge distribution on metal sphere S.
+

+ +
metal sphere S

insulating stand

5. A conducting sphere is suspended by a cotton string. It is placed between two metal plates.
One plate is earthed and the other is connected to a high-voltage supply. The sphere is displaced
as shown in Figure 16.8.

+
+
+
+
plate X

▲ Figure 16.8

(a) When the sphere is displaced, it moves towards and touches plate X. Explain this.
Induction occurs when the electrons in the sphere are attracted to the positive charges on plate X.

The electrons move to the left side of the sphere. The negatively-charged left side of the sphere is

then attracted to the positively-charged plate X.

(b) The sphere moves away from plate X after touching it. Explain this.
When the sphere touches plate X, electrons from the sphere are transferred to plate X. As a result,

the sphere becomes positively charged and is repelled away from plate X, which is also positively

charged.

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 6. Figure 16.9 shows metal spheres A and B on insulating supports touching each other. Describe
how the two spheres can be charged with equal but opposite charges using a glass rod and a
piece of silk. (Hint: When glass and silk are rubbed together, electrons transfer from the glass to
the silk.)

A B

▲ Figure 16.9

Rub the glass rod and piece of silk together. Electrons are transferred from the surface of the glass rod to

the piece of silk, resulting in the glass rod becoming positively charged. Bring the positively-charged glass

rod near sphere A. This causes the electrons in both spheres to be attracted to the end of sphere A nearest

to the glass rod. This results in spheres A and B having excess negative and positive charges respectively.

With the glass rod still in place, pull sphere B away from sphere A. Remove the glass rod. Spheres A and

B now have an equal number of opposite charges, with sphere A negatively charged and sphere B positively

charged.

7. In countries like Australia where the climate is dry, the build-up of static electricity in petrol stations
could lead to accidents. During the refuelling of a vehicle, a motorist may re-enter his vehicle.
As the motorist slides over the vehicle seat, the friction between his clothes and the seat causes
a build-up of static electricity on his body. When he leaves his vehicle and touches the fuel
dispenser, his body is discharged. A spark may form, igniting the fuel vapour at the fuel dispenser.

(a) Charged particles transfer from the vehicle seat to the motorist’s body, causing the build-up
of static electricity on the motorist’s body. Name these charged particles.
Electrons

(b) Motorists are advised that if they re-enter their vehicles during refuelling, they should touch
a metal surface (e.g. a metal part of the vehicle) before touching the fuel dispenser.
Explain why.

Touching a metal surface discharges the body of the motorist by earthing. No charges remain on the

motorist’s body, which in turn is not discharged at the fuel dispenser. This prevents the ignition of fuel

vapour at the fuel dispenser.

(c) Suggest why the risk of such accidents in Singapore is low.

Singapore has a climate of high humidity. Any charges on the body are quickly discharged by the water

vapour in the surrounding air.

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 8. Singapore has one of the highest rates of lightning activity in the world. On average, 171 thunderstorm
days (days on which thunder is heard) are recorded annually by the Meteorological Services Division
of the National Environment Agency of Singapore.

Figure 16.10 shows the distribution of thunderstorm days in a particular year. As thunder is caused
by lightning, Figure 16.10 is indicative of the rate of lightning activity.
Number of thunderstorm days

25

20

15

10

0 Month
Jan Feb Mar Apr May Jun Jul Aug Sep Oct Nov Dec
▲ Figure 16.10

(a) Suppose you are organising a soccer tournament in an open field in Singapore. State the two
months in which the tournament should be held to reduce the risk of soccer players getting
struck by lightning.
January and February

(b) The occurrence of thunderstorm days shown in Figure 16.10 reflects the rate of lightning
activity over the year. The high rate of lightning activity for most of the year is due to highly
charged clouds. Explain how the high moisture content of the air in Singapore causes the
formation of these highly charged clouds.

The high moisture content of the air means that there is a large number of water molecules in the air.

These water molecules rise when warmed. As they rise, they rub against air particles and become

charged by friction. When a large number of charged water molecules condense to form clouds, the

charges of these water molecules accumulate to form highly charged clouds.

(c) Describe the type of charge movement that occurs between a charged storm cloud and the
tip of a lightning conductor on a building during a lightning strike, given that the base of the
cloud is negatively charged.
The lightning conductor provides a path of least resistance for charges to flow. Negative charges flow

from the storm cloud to the ground through the conductor instead of the building.

(d) Explain why the likelihood of getting struck by lightning is greater in an open field than in a
built-up area.

In an open field, there are no tall structures. A person in an open field is closest to the charged storm

cloud. He is a better conductor of electricity than air. Thus, he is more likely to get struck by lightning.

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 Section C: Free-Response Questions
1. The oil drop experiment was first performed in 1909 by scientists Robert Millikan and Harvey Fletcher.
In the experiment, a potential difference is applied across a parallel pair of horizontal metal plates
(Figure 16.11). A uniform electric field is created in the space between the two charged plates.

A fine mist of oil droplets is sprayed through a nozzle into the space between the plates. As the oil is
sprayed, some oil drops become electrically charged by friction with the nozzle. The charged oil drops
can be made to rise and fall by controlling the voltage across the plates.
+ + + + + + + + + + + + + + +

– – – – – – – – – – – – – – – –
▲ Figure 16.11

(a) On Figure 16.11, draw the electric field pattern between the two charged plates. Assume the
oil drop has no effect on the electric field pattern.

(b) The oil drop is suspended in the space between the two charged plates.

(i) State the charge on the suspended oil drop. Explain your answer.
The oil drop is negatively charged. The electric field lines (arrows) show the downward direction

in which a small positive charge would move. The weight of the oil drop acts downwards.

An upward electric force acts on the oil drop to counter its weight, causing it to be suspended.

This can happen only if the oil drop is negatively charged instead of positively charged.

(ii) State and explain what will happen to the oil drop if the air surrounding it is moist.
The oil drop will gradually fall to the bottom plate. As water is a good conductor of electricity,

the water vapour around the oil drop will discharge the oil drop. Hence, the upward electric

force that counters the weight of the oil drop will weaken, causing the oil drop to fall to the

bottom plate.

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 Data-Based Question
2. A photocopier uses static electricity to make copies of documents. Figure 16.12 shows the metal
drum of a photocopier being rotated near a highly charged corona wire. This results in the entire
surface of the drum being positively charged.

charged corona wire

selenium-coated drum

▲ Figure 16.12

(a) The material used to coat the drum, selenium, is a photoconductor. Explain what this means.

This means that selenium only conducts electricity in the presence of light.

(b) A picture of a large letter “E” is placed on a sheet of clear glass above the drum. An intense
beam of light is shone on the picture. The picture then reflects the light onto the drum. The
grey area on Figure 16.13 shows the part of the drum that receives less light.

×× ×
×××××
×
×
×× ×

▲ Figure 16.13

(i) On Figure 16.13, draw the new distribution of the positive charges on the drum.

(ii) Explain your answer to (b)(i).

When light is shone onto the picture, the darker areas (i.e. “E”) reflect less light onto the drum.

The corresponding regions on the drum remain insulating, and the positive charges remain on

the surface of the drum. The lighter areas of the picture (i.e. outside of “E”) reflect more light

onto the drum. The corresponding regions on the drum become conducting and are discharged.

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 (c) (i) As the drum continues to rotate, toner powder from a toner cartridge is attracted to the “E”
on the drum. State if the toner powder is positively charged or negatively charged.

Negatively charged

(ii) After the toner powder has been attracted onto the “E” on the drum, a sheet of paper is
passed over the drum surface. The toner powder that is attracted from the drum onto the
sheet of paper is then fused by heat to the paper. State if the sheet of paper is positively
charged or negatively charged.

Positively charged

(d) Explain why the photocopier operates more effectively in an air-conditioned room in which
the surrounding air is dry.

In order for photocopying to take place effectively, electric charges must remain on the surfaces of

the drum, toner powder and sheet of paper. The air in the air-conditioned room contains fewer water

molecules that can discharge these charged objects (drum, toner powder and paper).

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) State that charge is measured in

1 – – 16.1
coulombs (C).

(b) State that like charges repel and 1, 2(a), 3,

2, 4 1(b), 2(c) 16.1
unlike charges attract. 4(a), 5

(c) State what an electric field is. – 2(a) 1(b) 16.3

(d) Draw electric field patterns. – 2(b) 1(a) 16.3

(e) Describe and explain how

electrostatic charging of insulators 3 6, 7(a), 8(b) – 16.1
occurs.

(f) Describe the process of electrostatic 3(b),

2, 4 2(b), 2(d) 16.2
charging of conductors by induction. 4, 5, 6

(g) Describe situations in which

electrostatic charging may be 5 7, 8 – 16.4
dangerous.

(h) Describe how electrostatic charging

is used in photocopiers and other – – 2 16.4
applications.

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 Chapter 17: Current Electricity
Name: ( )

Class: Date:

Worksheet 17
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions
1. A cell has an e.m.f. of 2.0 V. This means that the cell supplies
A 2.0 coulombs of charge per second.
B 2.0 amperes per second.
C 2.0 newtons per coulomb of charge it delivers.
D 2.0 joules of electrical energy per coulomb of charge it delivers. ( D )

2. Which of the following circuits can be used to find the resistance of lamp Q?
A B C D

V A A V A
lamp Q lamp Q lamp Q

lamp Q
V A V
( D )

3. Which of the following graphs correctly shows the characteristic V–I graph of a conductor that obeys
Ohm’s law?
A V B V C V D V

0 I 0 I 0 I 0 I
( A )

4. The voltage–current graphs of four electrical devices are shown below. Which of the graphs shows the
resistance increasing as the current increases?
A Voltage B Voltage C Voltage D Voltage

0 Current 0 Current 0 Current 0 Current

( B )

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 5. How much charge flows through the circuit in one minute?

12 V

6Ω

A 2C B 72 C C 120 C D 1440 C ( C )

Working/Explanation
Given: time t = 60 s
p.d. V = 12 V
resistance R = 6 Ω

(V) (12)
Q = It = R (t) = 6 (60) = 120 C

6. 12 J of electrical energy is converted to other forms of energy when 4 C of charges flow across a
3 Ω resistor. What is the potential difference across the resistor?
A 1V B 3V C 9V D 16 V ( B )

Working/Explanation
Given: work done W = 12 J
charge Q = 4 C
W 12
V= Q = 4 =3V

7. Dry cells are arranged in series in a circuit. The e.m.f. of each dry cell is 2 V. If 2 J of work is done
to drive 0.2 C of charge around the circuit, how many dry cells are in the circuit?
A 2 B 4 C 5 D 10 ( C )

Working/Explanation
Given: work done W = 2 J
charge Q = 0.2 C
e.m.f. ε = 2 V
W 2
Resultant e.m.f. εR = Q = 0.2 = 10 V
ε 10
Number of dry cells = εR = 2 = 5

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 Section B: Structured Questions
1. (a) State what is meant by current. Write down the SI unit of current.
Current is the rate of flow of electric charge through a given cross-section of a conductor. Its SI unit is

the ampere (A).

(b) Figure 17.1 shows an experiment that illustrates

long insulating thread
the relationship between moving charges
and electric current. conducting sphere S
metal plate A
metal plate B
The uncharged conducting sphere S is initially
suspended between plates A and B. Sphere S
is then moved to touch plate A. + –
d.c. supply galvanometer
▲ Figure 17.1
(i) Explain what happens to sphere S when it touches plate A.

Electrons in sphere S are attracted to and flow to the positively-charged plate A. Therefore,

sphere S becomes positively charged.

(ii) When released from plate A, sphere S is observed to be strongly repelled by plate A and
strongly attracted to plate B. Explain why.

Since plate A and sphere S are positively charged, they repel each other. As plate B is negatively

charged, it attracts the positively-charged sphere S.

(iii) Eventually, sphere S is seen moving back and forth between plates A and B, and touching
them alternately. The galvanometer shows current flowing in one direction. Explain this.
When sphere S touches plate B, electrons are transferred from plate B to sphere S. Sphere S

is then repelled from plate B and swings to plate A. The process of transferring electrons from

plate B to plate A repeats continuously, causing current to flow in one direction in the circuit.

(iv) State the direction of conventional current in this circuit. From plate A to plate B

2. (a) Define the

(i) electromotive force (e.m.f.) of a dry cell and state its SI unit;
The e.m.f. of a dry cell is the work done by the cell in driving a unit charge around a complete

circuit. Its SI unit is the volt (V).

(ii) potential difference (p.d.) across a component in a circuit and state its SI unit.
The p.d. across a component in a circuit is the work done to drive a unit charge through the

component. Its SI unit is the volt (V).

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 (b) (i) The e.m.f. of a dry cell is 1.5 V. Calculate the amount of non-electrical energy converted
by the cell to electrical energy to drive 0.3 C of charge around a circuit.

Given: e.m.f. ε = 1.5 V

charge Q = 0.3 C

W
Using ε = where W = work done (amount of non-electrical energy converted to electrical energy),
Q
W = εQ
= 1.5 × 0.3 = 0.45 J

(ii) A p.d. of 240 V applied across an electric heater drives 4.0 × 103 C of charge through the
heating coil of the heater. Calculate the amount of electrical energy converted by the
heating coil to heat energy.

Given: p.d. V = 240 V

charge Q = 4.0 × 103 C

W
Using V = where W = work done (amount of electrical energy converted to heat energy),
Q
W = VQ
= 240 × 4.0 × 103 = 9.6 × 105 J

3. Figures 17.2 to 17.4 show the characteristic I–V graphs of three ohmic and non-ohmic conductors.
The three conductors are a filament lamp, a semiconductor diode and a piece of pure metal at a
constant temperature.
(a) Identify the conductor each graph corresponds to. Pure metal at a
Filament lamp constant temperature
(i) Conductor: (ii) Conductor:
I/A
I/A

V/V

V/V
▲ Figure 17.2 ▲ Figure 17.3

(iii) Conductor: Semiconductor diode

I/A

~mA

V/V
~␮A

▲ Figure 17.4

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 (b) (i) State what is meant by the term ohmic conductor.

An ohmic conductor is a conductor in which the current passing through it is directly proportional

to the potential difference across it, provided that physical conditions (such as temperature)

remain constant.

(ii) State which of the three conductors in (a) is an ohmic conductor.

The pure metal at a constant temperature

4. A potential difference of 12 V applied across an ohmic device drives a current of 0.5 A through it.
Calculate the
(a) resistance of the device;

Given: p.d. V = 12 V
current I = 0.5 A
V 12
Resistance R = = 0.5 = 24 Ω
I

(b) new current flowing through the device if the potential difference applied across it is changed
to 48 V.

Given: p.d. V = 48 V
From (a), resistance R = 24 Ω.

V
Using R = ,
I

I=
V 48
= =2A
R 24

5. (a) Write down the formula (in symbols) relating the following quantities of a conductor:
resistance (R), length (l), cross-sectional area (A) and resistivity (ρ) of the material used to
l
R=ρ
make the conductor. A

(b) The resistance of a 2 m long constantan wire is 10 Ω. A 4 m long constantan wire has a
cross-sectional area that is twice as large as that of the 2 m long wire. Calculate the resistance
of the 4 m long constantan wire.

Let the resistance, length and cross-sectional l1 l

By definition, R1 = ρ and R2 = ρ 2 .
area of the A1 A2
• 2 m long wire be R1, l1 and A1 respectively; Dividing R2 by R1,
• 4 m long wire be R2, l2 and A2 respectively. R2 l A
= 2 × 1
R1 A2 l1
Given: R1 = 10 Ω l2 A1
R2 = × × R1
l1 =2m A2 l1
l2 =4m A
= 4 × 1 × 10
A2 = 2A1 2A1 2
= 10 Ω

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 Section C: Free-Response Questions
1. Figure 17.5 shows the relationship between the V/V
potential difference across the filament of a lamp 6
and the current flowing through it.
(a) State what is meant by the electrical 5

resistance of a component and write down 4

the formula for electrical resistance.
3
The electrical resistance R of a component is
2

the ratio of the potential difference V across 1

it to the current I flowing through it, 0 I/A

0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7
V
i.e. R = .
I ▲ Figure 17.5

(b) (i) Calculate the resistance of the filament when the current is 0.3 A.

From Figure 17.6, when current I = 0.3 A, p.d. V = 1 V.

V 1
Resistance R = = = 3.3 Ω
I 0.3

(ii) Calculate the resistance of the filament when the current is 0.6 A.

From Figure 17.6, when current I = 0.6 A, p.d. V = 4 V.

V 4
Resistance R = = = 6.7 Ω
I 0.6

(c) Explain why the answers to (b)(i) and (b)(ii) are different.
When the temperature of a metallic conductor increases, its electrical resistance increases. As

the current flowing through the filament increases, the heating effect of the current causes the

temperature of the filament to increase, and therefore the resistance of the filament increases.

Data-Based Question
2. A bulb type produced by a light bulb manufacturer is rated 60 W, 240 V. The temperature of
the bulb filament is 2600°C when a current of 0.25 A flows through it. Based on the requests
of its customers, the manufacturer has produced another bulb type: one that is longer-lasting.
The material used to make the filaments of both bulb types, A and B, is tungsten (resistivity at
2600°C = 7.9 × 10–7 Ω m).
(a) Calculate the resistance of a 60 W, 240 V bulb at 2600°C. (Both bulbs will have this
resistance.)

V 240
R= = = 960 Ω
I 0.25

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 (b) If a tungsten wire is 0.14 m long and has the same resistance as the 60 W, 240 V bulb at
2600°C, calculate its diameter.

l
Using R = ρ A ,
l
( 0.14 )
A = ρ R = (7.9 × 10–7) 960
l d
Since A = ρ R and A = π( 2 ) ,
2

d 0.14
π( 2 ) = (7.9 × 10 )( 960 ) ⇒ d = 1.21 × 10
2
–7 –5
m

(c) Complete Table 17.1. (Assume that the resistivity for both bulb types is 7.9 × 10−7 Ω m.)

Table 17.1

Bulb type A Bulb type B

Resistance 960 Ω 960 Ω
Diameter 0.0121 mm 0.0129 mm
Length 0.14 m 0.159 m

(d) (i) Figure 17.6 shows the filaments of bulb types A and B. Identify which bulb type each
filament belongs to.

A
Bulb type:

B
Bulb type:

▲ Figure 17.6

(ii) Explain how the filaments of bulb types A and B can have the same resistance.
l
Since R = ρ A and both filaments have the same resistivity, they can have the same resistance

if the ratio of length of each filament to its cross-sectional area is the same.

(iii) State and explain which is the longer-lasting bulb type.

The longer-lasting bulb type is bulb type B. Its filament has the larger mass and the larger

cross-sectional area, thus it has the larger heat capacity. As a result, it takes a longer time to

fuse (i.e. the filament takes a longer time to burn out).

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 WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) Define current and state its SI unit. – 1(a) – 17.1

(b) Differentiate between conventional

– 1(b) – 17.1
current and electron flow.

(c) Apply the formula

charge = current × time 5 – – 17.1
to solve problems.

(d) Draw electric circuit diagrams. – – – 17.1

(e) Define electromotive force (e.m.f.)

1, 6, 7 2 – 17.2
and potential difference (p.d.).

(f) State the SI unit of e.m.f. and p.d. – 2(a) – 17.2

(g) Calculate the e.m.f. when a few

7 – – 17.2
sources are arranged in series.

(h) Define resistance and apply the

p.d V 1(a), 1(b),
formula resistance R = 4 4 17.3
current I 2(a)
to solve problems.

(i) Describe an experiment to determine

2 – – 17.3
resistance.

(j) State Ohm’s Law. 3 3(b)(i) – 17.3

(k) Understand and draw the

characteristic I-V graphs of ohmic 3, 4 3(a), 3(b)(ii) – 17.3
and non-ohmic conductors.

(l) Describe the relationship between

the resistance of a metallic – – 1(c) 17.3
conductor and its temperature.

(m) Apply the relationship of the

proportionality of resistance to the 2(b), 2(c),
– 5 17.4
length and cross-sectional area of a 2(d)
wire to solve problems.

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 Name: ( )

Chapter 18: D.C. Circuits

For topics
18.1 Series Circuits
Class: Date: 18.2 Parallel Circuits
18.3 Resistors in Series
and Parallel

Worksheet 18A
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions
1. Two identical bulbs are connected in parallel. Which of the following is correct?

2V
Current through Potential difference
each bulb across each bulb 4A

A 4A 2V
B 4A 1V
C 2A 2V
D 2A 1V ( C )

2. Three resistors, R1, R2 and R3, of equal

A1
resistance R are connected in a circuit. How
will the readings on ammeters A1 and A2 be
R2
affected when switch S is closed? R3
R1
Reading on A1 Reading on A2
A2 S
A Increases Increases
B Decreases Increases
C Increases Decreases
D Decreases Decreases ( C )

Working/Explanation

When switch S is open, the effective resistance Ropen = R1 + R2 = 2R.

When switch S is closed, the effective resistance Rclosed = R1 + R + R
2 3
(1 1
)
–1
= 1.5R.
∴ Rclosed < Ropen
V V
By definition, R = I ⇒ I = R
V
When switch S is open, current through A1 = R
open
V
When switch S is closed, current through A1 = R
closed
Since Rclosed < Ropen, the current through A1 increases when switch S is closed.
When switch S is closed, the current through A2 is halved as the current is split into two branches.

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 12 V
3. What is the resistance of resistor R?
A 1Ω 1A
B 2Ω 6Ω
C 3Ω 2Ω
D 6Ω R ( C )

Working/Explanation
V V
By definition, R = . Current flowing through 2 Ω resistor =
I R
p.d. across 6 Ω resistor = IR = 1 × 6 = 6 V 6
= =3A
p.d. across 2 Ω resistor = 12 – 6 = 6 V 2
Current flowing through resistor R = 3 – 1 = 2 A
V 6
∴ Resistance of resistor R = = =3Ω
I 2

Section B: Structured Questions

1. Figure 18.1 shows an electric circuit.

(a) Calculate the ammeter reading I. V1 = 4 V V2 = ?
I=? A
V1 V V
I= where R1 is the resistance of
R1
the 4 Ω resistor
4W 2W
4
= =1A
4 ▲ Figure 18.1
(b) Calculate the voltmeter reading V2.
V2 = IR2 where R2 is the resistance of the 2 Ω resistor
=1×2=2V

2. Figure 18.2 shows two resistors connected to an 8 V e.m.f. source. 8V

(a) Calculate the currents I1 and I2 flowing

through the 4 Ω resistor and 2 Ω resistor
respectively. A
I1
4W
Let the resistances of the 4 Ω and 2 Ω resistors
be R1 and R2 respectively.
V
Using R = ,
I 2W
I2
V 8
I1 = = =2A
R1 4 ▲ Figure 18.2
V 8
I2 = = =4A
R2 2

(b) Find the ammeter reading.

Current I through ammeter = I1 +I2
=2+4=6A
∴ The ammeter reading is 6 A.

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 3. (a) Figure 18.3 shows an electric circuit with three resistors of resistances 1 Ω, 2 Ω and 3 Ω.
(i) Find the effective resistance R1 2Ω
between points b and c.
a b c
1 1 1 1Ω
= 
R1 2 3
3Ω
R1 = 1.2 Ω
▲ Figure 18.3

(ii) Find the effective resistance R2 between points a and c.

R2 = 1 + 1.2
= 2.2 Ω

(b) Find the effective resistance RT in 2W 3W

Figure 18.4.
1 1 1 2W
= 
RT 2 + 3 2
▲ Figure 18.4
RT = 1.4 Ω

(c) Find the effective resistance RT in 1W 2W

Figure 18.5. 0.125 W

(1 1
)
–1
2W 3W
RT = 1 + 2 + 2 + 3 + 0.125
RT = 2 Ω ▲ Figure 18.5

4. Figure 18.6 shows a circuit in which a voltmeter is 10 V

placed across a 12 Ω resistor. The p.d. across the 12 Ω
resistor is 4.0 V. The voltmeter has three different
ranges: 0 to 3.0 V, 0 to 6.0 V and 0 to 30 V. The best
range for use in this circuit is 0 to 6.0 V.
12 Ω 18 Ω
A B

Figure 18.6
(a) Explain why V

(i) using the voltmeter with a range of 0 to 3.0 V is unsuitable;

The p.d. across the resistor is expected to be higher than 3.0 V. A voltmeter with this range will

not be able to detect the p.d.

(ii) using the voltmeter with a range of 0 to 30 V is unsuitable.

Although the p.d. in the circuit is within this range, the range is too large and will not allow the

voltmeter to be sensitive enough to detect small changes in p.d.

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 (b) (i) Calculate the current in the 12 Ω resistor.

V = IR
V 10
I = = = 0.33 A
R 12 + 18

(ii) Calculate the p.d. between A and B in Figure 18.6.

p.d. VAB between A and B = p.d. across 18 Ω resistor + p.d. across 12 Ω resistor
= e.m.f. of cell
= 10 V

5. Find the resistance of resistor R if the e.m.f. of the source is 10 V (Figure 18.7).

2Ω
I=5A

3Ω
10 V R

▲ Figure 18.7

(1 1)
–1
p.d. across parallel resistors = IRT = 5 × 2 + 3 =6V
p.d. across resistor R = 10 – 6 = 4 V
V 4
R= = = 0.8 Ω
I 5

Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. (a) State the formula for calculating the effective resistance of
(i) n resistors in series;
R = R1 + R2 + ...... + Rn

(ii) n resistors in parallel;

1 1 1 1
= + + ...... +
R R1 R2 Rn

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 (b) A student is provided with three resistors of resistances 2 Ω, 3 Ω and 4 Ω respectively. Draw
diagrams to show how he may use these resistors to produce an effective resistance of
(i) 9 Ω;
2Ω 3Ω 4Ω

(ii) 0.92 Ω;
2Ω

3Ω

4Ω

(iii) 4.3 Ω.

2Ω
3Ω
4Ω

Data-Based Question
2. (a) The circuit in Figure 18.8 shows resistors R1 and R2, and a lamp L connected to a 24 V supply.
Table 18.1 lists the values of the current flowing through all three components. The lamp L
has a resistance of 2.0 Ω. Find the resistances of R1 and R2.

24 V ▼ Table 18.1

Electrical
Current/A
component
R1
R1 4.0

R2
R2 2.0
L L 6.0
▲ Figure 18.8

p.d. across lamp L = IRL = 6.0 × 2.0 = 12.0 V

p.d. across R1 = p.d. across R2 = 24.0 –12.0 = 12.0 V
12.0
R1 = 4.0 = 3.0 Ω
12.0
R2 = 2.0 = 6.0 Ω

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 (b) Find the magnitude of the currents I1, I2 I2
20 W
and I3 in the circuit in Figure 18.9.
1W

( 1 1
)
–1
Effective resistance RT = R1 + R + R
2 3 30 W

( )
1 1 –1
I1 I3
= 1 + 20 + 30 = 13 Ω
V 3
I1 = = = 0.23 A
RT 13
30
I2 = × 0.23 A = 0.138 A
20 + 30
I3 = 0.23  0.138 = 0.092 A 3V
▲ Figure 18.9

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) State that for a series circuit, the

current at every point is the same,
– – – 18.1
and apply this principle to solve
problems.

(b) State that for a series circuit,

the sum of the p.d. across each
component is equal to the p.d. 3 4(b)(ii), 5 2(a) 18.1
across the whole circuit, and apply
this principle to solve problems.

(c) State that for a parallel circuit, the

current from the source is the sum
1, 2, 3 2(b) 2(b) 18.2
of currents in each branch, and apply
this principle to solve problems.

(d) State that for a parallel circuit, the

p.d. across each branch is the same,
1 – – 18.2
and apply this principle to solve
problems.

(e) Calculate the effective resistance of 18.1

2 3, 4(b)(i), 5 1, 2(b)
resistors in series and in parallel. 18.2

(f) State and apply relevant formulae

for current, potential difference and
resistance in series and parallel 1, 2(a), 4(b),
2, 3 2 18.3
circuits, including R = V , to solve 5
I
problems involving whole circuits.

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 Chapter 18: D.C. Circuits
Name: ( ) For topics
18.4 Potential Dividers
Class: Date: 18.5 Input Transducers

Worksheet 18B
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions
1. Resistors X and Y act as a potential divider to control
the speed of a motor M. What is the function of this X
potential divider?
A To vary the current through X Y M motor
B To vary the e.m.f. of the battery
C To vary the p.d. across the motor
D To vary the resistance of the motor ( C )

2. The diagram shows a light-dependent resistor in a circuit that

is exposed to outdoor conditions. This circuit can be used for
A switching on the lamp in the presence of daylight.
B switching on the lamp when it begins to get dark.
C charging the battery in sunlight.
D making the lamp flash on and off continuously. ( A )

Section B: Structured Questions

1. Figure 18.10 shows a theoretical potential divider circuit.

Derive the following equations:
R1 V1
R1 R2
(a) V1 = ( V
R1 + R2 0 ) (b) V2 = ( V
R1 + R2 0 )
V0
V1 = IR1 V2 = IR2
V R V R R2 V2
(
1 2
) 1
(
= R +0 R R1 = R +1 R V0
2
) ( ) (
= R +0 R R2 = R +2 R V0
1 2 1 2
)
▲ Figure 18.10

2. (a) “Thermistors and light-dependent resistors (LDRs) can be used as input transducers.” Explain
the meanings of the terms in italics.

Thermistors are temperature-sensitive resistors with resistances that vary with temperature. LDRs

are light-sensitive resistors with resistances that decrease when the amount of light falling on them

increases, and vice versa. Input transducers are electronic devices that convert non-electrical energy

such as heat and light into electrical energy.

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 (b) The circuit in Figure 18.11 shows an LDR
connected in series to detect a very small
light source. Explain what is observed on mA
the milliammeter when the LDR is covered
and uncovered.
▲ Figure 18.11
When the LDR is covered, no light falls on it and its resistance becomes very high. As current is

inversely proportional to the resistance in a circuit, very little or no current flows and the milliammeter

indicates a very low or zero reading. When the LDR is uncovered, light from the source falls on it and

its resistance decreases. A current flows and the milliammeter indicates a higher reading.

(c) The circuit in Figure 18.12 shows a common

thermistor connected in series to detect
the surrounding temperature. The resistance of
mA
this thermistor decreases as its temperature
increases. It is placed near a heat source.
Explain what happens to the milliammeter ▲ Figure 18.12
reading as the temperature of the thermistor
rises.
The common thermistor has a very high resistance at low temperatures. As current is inversely

proportional to the resistance in a circuit, very little or no current flows at low temperatures and the

milliammeter initially indicates a very low or zero reading. As the temperature rises, the resistance

of the thermistor decreases, thus the current increases accordingly and the milliammeter reading

increases.

Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. Input transducers such as common thermistors and LDRs are used with variable resistors (such as
rheostats) to create simple automatic alarm systems. (Note: The resistance of common thermistors
decreases as temperature rises.)
(a) Design and draw a circuit that allows a lamp to light up when the environment is
(i) bright and hot. The circuit should include a cell, common thermistor, LDR and lamp.

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 (ii) cold. There should be a way to adjust the sensitivity of the circuit. The circuit should include
a cell, common thermistor, rheostat and lamp.

(iii) bright and cold. There should be a way to adjust the sensitivity of the circuit. The circuit
should include a cell, common thermistor, LDR, rheostat and lamp.

(b) For the circuit in (a)(iii), explain how the rheostat should be adjusted to make the circuit less
sensitive to changes in light and temperature.

The rheostat should be adjusted to a higher resistance. As a result, the resistances of the thermistor

and LDR will need to increase and decrease respectively to greater degrees in order to apply a

sufficiently large p.d. across the thermistor.

Data-Based Question
2. (a) Figure 18.13 shows a 4700 Ω resistor connected in series with a 12 V power supply and an
LDR. The LDR has a resistance of 3300 Ω.
(i) Calculate the current flowing through the LDR.
V 4700 W
Current I through LDR =
R
12 12 V
=
4700 + 3300
3300 W
= 0.0015 A

(ii) Calculate the voltage across the LDR. Figure 18.13

Voltage V across LDR = IR

= 0.0015 × 3300 = 4.95 V

(iii) Describe and explain how the voltage across the LDR changes as the light falling on it
increases.

As the light falling on the LDR increases, the resistance of the LDR decreases. As the voltage

across the LDR is proportional to the resistance of the LDR, the voltage across the LDR

decreases as more light falls on the LDR.

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 (b) Figure 18.14 shows a battery of e.m.f. 3.0 V connected in series with a 200 Ω resistor and
a common thermistor. Figure 18.15 shows how the resistance of the thermistor varies with
temperature.

3.0 V Resistance/W
A 1000

800
V
600
200 W
400
▲ Figure 18.14

200

0 Temperature/°C
Figure 18.15 0 20 40 60 80 100

Determine the ammeter and voltmeter readings when the temperature of the thermistor
is 30°C.

From Figure 18.15, resistance RTH of thermistor at 30°C = 400 Ω

Effective resistance R of circuit = 400 + 200 = 600 Ω
V 3.0
Current I = = = 0.005 A
R 600
p.d. V across thermistor = IRTH = 0.005 × 400 = 2.0 V
Thus, the ammeter and voltmeter readings are 0.005 A and 2.0 V respectively when the
temperature of the thermistor is 30°C.

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(g) Describe how a variable potential 1(a)(ii),

1 1 18.4
divider (potentiometer) works. 1(a)(iii)

(h) Explain how thermistors and LDRs

are used as input transducers in 2 2(a) 1, 2(a)(iii) 18.5
potential dividers.

(i) Describe how thermistors and light-

dependent resistors (LDRs) work and – 2(b), 2(c) 1, 2 18.5
solve problems involving them.

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 Chapter 19: Practical Electricity
Name: ( )

Class: Date:

Worksheet 19
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions

1. An electric heater uses 60 kJ of electrical energy in five minutes. What is the power rating of the
heater?
A 720 kW B 12 kW C 1.2 kW D 200 W ( D )

Working/Explanation
Given: electrical energy E consumed by heater = 60 kJ = 60 × 103 J
time t = 5 min × 60 = 300 s
E=P×t
E 60 × 103
P= = = 200 W
t 300

2. Which of the following is the most suitable fuse rating for a 3000 W, 240 V electric water heater?
A 3A B 5A C 10 A D 13 A ( D )

Working/Explanation
Given: power P = 3000 W The fuse of an electrical appliance should have
voltage V = 240 V a rating that is slightly higher than the current
drawn by the electrical appliance under normal
Using P = VI, operating conditions. Thus, the most suitable
P fuse rating is 13 A.
I=
3000
= = 12.5 A
V 240

3. An electric fan is rated 60 W, 240 V. What is the cost of using the fan for one whole day, given that one
unit of electricity costs $0.25?
A $0.06 B $0.36 C $1.00 D $54.00 ( B )

Working/Explanation
Given: power P = 60 W = 0.060 kW
voltage V = 240 V
Energy consumed in one day (in kWh) = P × t = 0.060 × 24 = 1.44 kWh
Cost of using fan for one day = 1.44 × $0.25 = $0.36

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 4. The outer metal casing of an electrical appliance is often earthed. Which of the following
statements is not true about the earthing of the metal casing?
A It allows current to pass through when the appliance is operating normally.
B It prevents the user from getting an electric shock.
C It allows the current to flow to the earth when there is leakage of charge.
D It involves connecting an earth wire to the metal casing. ( A )

5. A light bulb is connected across a live wire and a neutral wire in a circuit. What happens to the bulb
if the live wire and the neutral wire are interchanged?
A The bulb will not light up.
B The bulb will not be as bright.
C The bulb will blink at constant intervals.
D The bulb will work normally. ( D )

Section B: Structured Questions

kettle
1. Figure 19.1 shows an electric kettle that has
an operating voltage and current of 240 V and
10 A respectively.
live
mains neutral heating
element
earth
Figure 19.1

(a) Describe briefly how the electric kettle works.

The heating element in an electric kettle is usually made of nichrome wire, which has high resistivity.

The heating element heats up rapidly when an electric current passes through it. The surrounding

water is heated by conduction and convection.

(b) The kettle is connected to the mains supply through the live and neutral wires, as shown in
Figure 19.1. State the meaning of the terms
(i) live;

The live wire, which is connected at a high voltage (or potential) to the mains supply, delivers

current to the kettle.

(ii) neutral.

The neutral wire, which is connected at zero voltage (or potential) to the mains supply,

completes the circuit by providing a return path to the mains supply for the current.

(c) Under normal operating conditions, state the current in the

(i) live wire: 10 A ; (ii) neutral wire: 10 A ;

(iii) earth wire: 0A .

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 2. Figure 19.2 shows a filament bulb. glass bulb

filament

lead-in wires

bayonet cap
tungsten coil
Figure 19.2 connections to lamp

(a) State the energy changes that occur when the bulb is used.
Electrical energy is converted to heat energy and light energy.

(b) Explain why the tungsten filament is coiled instead of straight in the filament lamp.
A coiled filament has a longer length compared to a straight filament, therefore the coiled filament will

generate more heat and glow more brightly.

A
3. Figure 19.3 shows a 13 A fused (safety) plug.
B
X

C Y

Z
Figure 19.3

(a) Complete Table 19.1 with the correct information relating to terminals A, B and C in the
three-pin plug.

Table 19.1

Terminal Wire connected to the terminal Colour of wire

A Earth Yellow and green
B Live Brown
C Neutral Blue

(b) Name the component that is connected between X and Y.

Cartridge fuse

(c) Name the component labelled Z.

Cord grip

(d) One of the hazards of electricity is damaged insulation. Briefly describe the hazard of damaged
insulation.
Damaged insulation occurs when the insulating material surrounding a cable cracks or wears out,

exposing the conducting wires inside. The conducting wires of the live wire, which are of high voltage,

can cause severe electric shocks if touched. Also, if the neutral or earth wires touch the exposed live

wire, a short circuit may result and a fire may occur.

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 4. Singapore depends heavily on natural gas for her energy needs. However, natural gas is a
non-renewable resource that will eventually be depleted. The government is exploring the use of
renewable energy sources to replace natural gas.

In Table 19.2, state one significant disadvantage of using each of the following alternative energy
sources in Singapore, as compared to using natural gas.

Table 19.2

Energy Source Disadvantage

(a) Wind power It is not consistent in supply as it depends on wind conditions.

(b) Hydroelectric To harness hydroelectric power, a large dam is needed. Singapore does not
power have enough space.

(c) Solar power It is not consistent in supply as it is affected by weather conditions.

(d) Nuclear power There is a risk of harmful radioactive waste leaking into the environment.

5. Figure 19.4 shows a household circuit Air conditioner

comprising an air conditioner (2000 W, 200 V) 2000 W, 200 V
and a lighting unit (400 W, 200 V) connected
in parallel to a 200 V mains supply.

Lighting unit
400 W, 200 V

fuse
200 V

▲ Figure 19.4

(a) The fuse rating used in the circuit is 10 A. With the aid of calculations, explain whether this fuse
rating is suitable. If it is not suitable, suggest a suitable fuse rating.

Current through air conditioner = P = 2000

V 200
= 10 A

Current through lighting unit = P = 400

V 200
=2A
Total current = 10 + 2 = 12 A
The current drawn by the circuit (12 A) exceeds the fuse rating (10 A). Therefore, the fuse will blow
even during normal operation and is unsuitable for this circuit.
Suitable fuse rating = 13 A

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 (b) State two advantages of using a circuit breaker instead of a fuse to protect the appliances.

A circuit breaker can be reset easily if a current surge occurs, while a fuse has to be replaced.

A circuit breaker responds immediately if a current surge occurs, while a fuse takes a longer time to

react to a current surge.

6. A student is planning to replace a 25 W, 240 V light bulb in his garden with a solar energy
garden lamp of equal brightness. The 25 W light bulb is switched on daily from 7 p.m. to 7 a.m.
To build the solar lamp, he needs to buy solar cells. Each solar cell is capable of generating
a voltage of 4.5 V and a current of 0.1 A. The solar cells are connected in series. The solar lamp
works by storing the energy from the Sun in the day and then releasing the stored energy as light
energy at night.
(a) Calculate the power (in kW) generated by each solar cell.

Given: voltage V = 4.5 V

current I = 0.1 A
Power P = IV
= 0.1 × 4.5 = 0.45 W = 0.00045 kW

(b) Calculate the amount of energy (in kWh) that is consumed by the 25 W light bulb from 7 p.m.
to 7 a.m. daily.

Given: time t = 12 h
power P = 25 W = 0.025 kW
E = Pt
= 0.025 × 12 = 0.3 kWh

(c) Determine the number of solar cells needed to operate the solar lamp.

Number of solar cells needed = 240

4.5
= 53.3
≈ 54

Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. (a) Explain what is meant by an electric kettle having a rating of 3000 W, 240 V.

It means that the energy used by the electric kettle is 3000 J per second if the voltage supply is 240 V.

(b) For the electric kettle in (a), calculate the

(i) current flowing through its heating element;

Given: power P = 3000 W

voltage V = 240 V
I=P
V
3000
= = 12.5 A
240

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 (ii) amount of heat it produces in ten minutes;
Given: time t = 10 min × 60 = 600 s
E = Pt
= 3000 × 600 = 1.8 × 106 J

(iii) resistance of its heating element;

R=V
I
= 240 = 19.2 Ω
12.5

(iv) cost of using the kettle to heat water for ten minutes, given that 1 kWh costs 24¢.
Energy consumed (in kWh) = P × t
= 3 × 10 = 0.5 kWh
60
Cost of using kettle for 10 min = 0.5 × $0.24 = $0.12

2. Figure 19.5 shows part of the electrical installation of a household refrigerator.

refrigerator
to mains
supply fuse X

▲ Figure 19.5

(a) Identify the two wires labelled X and Y. Explain your answer.

X is the live wire as it has a fuse connected to it. The fuse is needed to cut off the high voltage

supplied by the live wire to the refrigerator in the event of a short circuit. Y is the neutral wire as it is

at zero volts and therefore does not require a fuse.

(b) State the wire to which a switch should be connected. Explain your answer.

A switch should be connected to the live wire X. This will allow the high voltage provided by the mains

supply to be disconnected from the refrigerator.

(c) State the purpose of the fuse. Briefly describe how the fuse works.
A fuse is a safety device that protects the refrigerator and wiring against excessive current flow. It is

a short and thin piece of wire. When the current passing through the fuse is greater than its rated

value, the fuse becomes hot, melts and breaks the circuit.

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 (d) (i) To prevent electric shocks, a third wire is usually added to electrical appliances. Name this
wire and briefly describe how it is connected in the appliance.

The third wire is the earth wire. This is a low-resistance wire that is usually connected between

the metal casings of electrical appliances and the earth.

(ii) Suppose that the wire in (d)(i) is connected to the circuit of the refrigerator in Figure 19.5.
Describe the events that occur when an electrical fault causes the metal casing of the
refrigerator to become live.

The large current caused by the electrical fault is conducted away by the earth wire to the earth.

The flow of the large current from the live wire, through the metal casing, to the earth wire

creates a short circuit. The fuse blows and the electrical supply to the refrigerator is cut off.

Data-Based Questions
3. An experiment is carried out to determine how the power dissipated by the heating coil of an
electric kettle varies with voltage. The values of the power are calculated by using recorded values
of voltage and current. The data is recorded in a graph (Figure 19.6).

P/W
40

35

30

25

20

15

10

0 V/V
▶ Figure 19.6 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14

(a) In the space below, draw a diagram of the circuit that allows the data in Figure 19.6 to
be obtained.

(b) (i) Using Figure 19.6, describe how the power dissipated varies with voltage.
The power dissipated initially increases with voltage until a maximum value is reached, before it

decreases.

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 (ii) State the maximum power that can be dissipated by the heating coil.

39 W

(iii) Determine the current flowing through the heating coil when the maximum power is
reached.
From Figure 19.6, when P = 39 W, V = 6.0 V.
Using P = IV,
I=P
V
I = 39 = 6.5 A
6.0
(c) The wire that supplies current to the heating coil is thick, while the heating coil is made of thin
wire. Explain why.

The wire that supplies current to the heating coil carries a large current, which can result in a large

amount of heat produced. Therefore, the wire used is thick to minimise the amount of heat produced.

As a thin wire has a larger resistance, it can produce more heat when a current passes through it.

Thus, the heating coil is made of thin wire.

4. The use of electricity significantly increases the level of comfort in our homes. Imagine what daily
life would be like if there were no electrical power to operate our air conditioners, light bulbs,
heaters and television sets. In spite of its numerous benefits, electricity has its hazards and must
be handled with care in order to avoid injury and death.
Figure 19.7 shows a boy using electrical appliances in a dangerous manner.

25 W, 240 V 25 W, 240 V

outlet of 240 V

60 W, 240 V
10 W, 240 V

1.5 kW, 240 V

100 W, 240 V
Figure 19.7

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 (a) State two electrical hazards found in Figure 19.7.

The overloaded sockets and the damp conditions

(b) State the number of electrical appliances connected to each socket.

Three appliances to each socket

(c) The schematic diagram for the electrical appliances in Figure 19.7 is shown in Figure 19.8.

bulb 1 (25 W, 240 V)

bulb 2 (25 W, 240 V)

hair dryer (1.5 kW, 240 V)

radio (10 W, 240 V)

television set (100 W, 240 V)

electric fan (60 W, 240 V)

240 V
▲ Figure 19.8

(i) Calculate the total current flowing through the circuit, given that a potential difference
of 240 V is supplied.

Using P = IV, I = P ITV = 100 = 0.42 A

V 240
Ibulb 1 = 25 = 0.10 A = Ibulb 2 Ifan = 60 = 0.25 A
240 240
Ihair dryer = 1500 = 6.25 A
240 Itotal = 0.10 + 0.10 + 6.25 + 0.04
Iradio = 10 = 0.04 A + 0.42 + 0.25
240
= 7.16 A

(ii) Given that the maximum safe current the circuit can carry is 5 A, explain if it is advisable to
plug in all these appliances.
It is not advisable to plug in too many appliances to the circuit as this will cause the current

flowing through the circuit to exceed the maximum safe limit of 5 A. This may lead to the

overheating of wires in the circuit and start a fire.

(d) If the body resistance of the boy in the bathtub is 500 Ω, calculate the current that will flow
through him if the water overflows and touches the exposed live wire on the bathroom floor.
I = V = 240 = 0.48 A
R 500

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 WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) Describe how electricity can be

converted into thermal energy by
– 1(a), 2 1(a), 3(c) 19.1
household appliances such as
electric kettles.

(b) Recall and apply the formulae P = VI 1(b)(i),

5(a), 6(a),
and E = VIt. 1, 2, 3 1(b)(ii), 3, 19.2
6(b)
4(c)(i)

(c) Calculate the cost of using electrical

3 – 1(b)(iv) 19.2
appliances in units of kWh.

(d) Discuss the cost, conversion

efficiency and environmental effects
– 4 – 19.3
of using renewable and non-
renewable energy sources.

(e) State how the use of electricity can

– 3(d) 4 19.4
be hazardous.

(f) Explain the function of fuses and 2(a), 2(c),

circuit breakers. 2 5 19.5
2(d)(ii)

(g) Explain why metal cases should be

earthed and double insulation is 4 – – 19.5
important.

(h) Define the terms live, neutral and 1(b), 1(c), 2(a), 2(b),
earth. 5 19.5
3(a) 2(d)

(i) Describe the wiring in a mains plug,

– 3 – 19.5
and the safety mechanisms in place.

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 Name: ( )

Chapter 20: Magnetism

Class: Date:

Worksheet 20
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions

1. It can be deduced that a piece of metal is a magnet if

A a piece of copper wire is attracted to it.
B both ends of a compass needle are attracted to it.
C a magnet is attracted to it.
D one end of a compass needle is repelled by it. ( D )

2. Which of the following is an example of induced magnetism?

A The north poles of two magnets repel each other, but a north pole attracts a south pole.
B A bar magnet that swings freely comes to rest pointing in the North–South direction.
C A bar magnet loses its magnetism if it is dropped repeatedly.
D A bar magnet attracts a piece of soft iron. ( D )

3. A magnet is placed near an iron rod, as shown below.

magnet

S
X
iron rod Y

Indicate the magnetic poles at positions X and Y.

Pole induced at X Pole induced at Y

A N S
B N N
C S S
D S N ( A )

4. A piece of metal is magnetised by stroking it with a magnet. When the magnet moves in the
direction indicated, which poles are produced at X and at Y?

X Y magnet
A N N N

B N S
X metal Y
C S S
D S N ( B )

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 5. Three plotting compasses are placed close to a solenoid plotting compasses
carrying a current. How many compass needles will not
change direction if the current through the solenoid is
reversed? (Ignore the effect of the Earth’s magnetic field.)
A 0 B 1
C 2 D 3 ( A )

6. Plotting compasses 1 and 2 are placed within the magnetic

field of a bar magnet. Which of the following shows the
1
directions of the two compasses?

N S

A B C D

1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
( A )

Section B: Structured Questions

1. (a) State four properties of magnets.

All magnets attract magnetic materials. All magnets have two poles. When suspended freely, all

magnets come to rest in the N–S direction. Like poles of magnets repel, while unlike poles attract.

(b) In Figures 20.1 and 20.2, identical-looking bars A and B are placed in different positions.

A B

attraction no attraction

B A

▲ Figure 20.1 ▲ Figure 20.2

(i) State which bar, A or B, is a magnet. A

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 (ii) Explain the answer to (b)(i).

Magnetic strength is concentrated at the ends (poles) of magnets. Thus, in Figure 20.1, the end

of bar A must be either an N pole or S pole, as it attracts bar B. In Figure 20.2, the end of bar B

does not attract bar A as bar B is not a magnet. Also, the centre of bar A (a magnet) has weak

magnetic strength and therefore is unable to attract bar B.

2. A magnet is used in an experiment to identify which of two metal specimens, A and B, are iron or
steel. The S poles of bar magnets are used to attract metal specimens A and B. The other
ends of metal specimens A and B are then used to attract soft iron tacks. Figures 20.3 and 20.4
show the different degrees to which the metal specimens continue to attract the soft iron tacks,
after the bar magnets are removed.

S A A S B B
bar magnet bar magnet
removed removed

▲ Figure 20.3 ▲ Figure 20.4

(a) Identify metal specimens A and B.

A: Iron B: Steel

(b) State and explain which metal specimen is a hard magnetic material.
Metal specimen B. It is less easily magnetised (and therefore picks up fewer tacks). When the bar

magnet is removed, metal specimen B retains its magnetism for a longer time (and thus continues to

attract the soft iron tacks).

(c) Explain why hard magnetic materials are commonly used to make strong permanent magnets.
Hard magnetic materials retain their magnetism for a long time.

3. (a) State what is meant by the term magnetic induction.

Magnetic induction is the process by which an object made of a magnetic material becomes a magnet

when it is near or in contact with a magnet.

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 (b) Figure 20.5 shows the direction in which a compass needle initially points. A student then
places a steel ruler at position X, between a permanent magnet and the compass.

N
X S N

S
compass needle permanent magnet
before deflection
▲ Figure 20.5

(i) When the steel ruler is placed at position X, the compass needle deflects. Explain why.

When the steel ruler is placed between the permanent magnet and the compass, the end of

the steel ruler that is nearer the permanent magnet becomes an induced north pole, while the

other end becomes an induced south pole. This is due to magnetic induction by the permanent

magnet. Since the end of the steel ruler nearer the compass needle is a south pole, it repels

the south pole of the compass needle, causing it to deflect.

(ii) With the steel ruler remaining in position X, it is observed that the compass needle
continues to be deflected even when the permanent magnet is removed. Briefly describe
an electrical method of demagnetising the steel ruler.
Place the steel ruler inside a solenoid in the East–West direction. Connect the solenoid to

an alternating current (a.c.) supply. With the alternating current still flowing in the solenoid,

withdraw the steel ruler slowly out of the solenoid. The ruler is demagnetised.

4. Figure 20.6 shows a magnet placed A B N S

close to a magnetic material.
magnetic material magnet
▲ Figure 20.6

The magnet is then removed and the magnetic material is brought near a compass. The N pole of
the compass needle points towards end B, but is repelled by end A of the magnetic material.
(a) State what the magnetic material is likely to be made of.

Steel

(b) Explain the answer to (a).

When the magnet is placed nearby, end B of the magnetic material is induced to become an S pole.

Even after the magnet is removed, the magnetic material retains its magnetism, and end B attracts

the N pole of the compass needle. Thus, the magnetic material must be steel, which is a hard

magnetic material that retains its magnetism.

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 5. (a) State what is meant by magnetic shielding.

Magnetic shielding is the method of creating a region or space that is free of magnetic fields by

means of an iron sheet or a closed loop of soft magnetic material (usually iron).

(b) Figure 20.7 shows one method of magnetic shielding.

X

N Y S

▲ Figure 20.7

(i) State the material X used. Explain why it is used in this method.
Iron. Iron is a soft magnetic material, which makes it easily permeable to magnetic fields

(i.e. the magnetic field lines can pass through iron easily). Thus, it can divert the magnetic fields.

(ii) On Figure 20.7, mark with the letter Y, a position where sensitive instruments such as
analogue watches can be placed, to protect them from the effects of magnetic fields.

(iii) Draw the magnetic field pattern on Figure 20.7.

Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. (a) State what is meant by the term magnetic field.

A magnetic field is the region surrounding a magnet, in which a body of magnetic material experiences

a magnetic force.

(b) Draw the magnetic field patterns of the magnets in Figures 20.8 to 20.11.
(i)

S N S N

▲ Figure 20.8

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 (ii)

N S S N

▲ Figure 20.9

(iii)

N S

S N

▲ Figure 20.10

(iv)

N N

S S

▲ Figure 20.11

(c) With the aid of a diagram, describe a general method that can be used to confirm that the
magnetic field patterns drawn in (b) are correct. Include the materials needed.

Materials: bar magnets, plotting compass, plain paper

Procedure:
1. Place the plotting compass such that it touches one pole of a bar magnet. Mark the positions of
the ends, S and N, of the compass needle using pencil dots 1 and 2 respectively.
2. Shift the compass so that the S end of the compass needle is exactly over dot 2. Mark the new
position of the N end with a third dot 3.
3. Repeat step 2 until the plotting compass reaches another magnetic pole.
4. Join the dots that have been plotted on the paper. This will give a field line of the magnetic field.
5. Use steps 1 to 3 to plot other field lines on both sides of the magnets.

1
N S

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 Data-Based Question
2. Figure 20.12 shows a piece of recording tape from a cassette (Figure 20.13) being passed under
the recording head of a tape recorder. An alternating current is passed through the coil. The tape
is coated with a permanent magnetic material that becomes magnetised by the recording head.

coil

recording
head

direction of
tape movement tape

▲ Figure 20.12 ▲ Figure 20.13

(a) (i) Explain how the tape becomes magnetised.

The tape is magnetised by induction as the recording head is an electromagnet.

(ii) Figure 20.12 shows that sections of the tape are magnetised in opposite directions.
Explain this.
The current in the coil changes directions as the tape is passed under the recording head.

The change in current direction causes a change in the direction of the magnetic field of the

recording head.

(iii) State the reason for coating the tape with permanent magnetic material.

Permanent magnetic material is used to ensure that the information recorded on the tape is not

easily changed by any external magnetic source.

(b) Three specimen materials are tested using the apparatus shown in specimen
Figure 20.14. The test is to assess if they are suitable materials for
making the recording head.

When current passes through the coil in Figure 20.14, the specimen iron nails
materials pick up iron nails. When the circuit is opened, some of
the nails fall off. Table 20.1 shows the results.
▲ Figure 20.14

Table 20.1

Number of nails left on the specimen

Specimen material Number of nails picked up
after the circuit is opened
A 20 18
B 30 0
C 30 20

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 (i) State and explain which specimen is more suitable for making the recording head.

Specimen material B is more suitable. It is a soft magnetic material (easy to magnetise and

easy to demagnetise). Thus, it can respond quickly and effectively to changes in the direction of

the alternating current to magnetise the tape.

(ii) State a problem that may arise if the current supplied by the battery in Figure 20.14
is weak.

When the current flowing through the coil is weak, the magnetic force created by the

electromagnet will be weak. This will reduce the number of nails picked up, causing the results

to be less conclusive.

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) State the properties of magnets. 1 1 – 20.1

(b) Describe magnetic induction. 3(a), 3(b)(i),

2, 3 2(a)(i), 2(a)(ii) 20.2
4(b)

(c) Describe methods of magnetisation 2(a)(ii),

and demagnetisation. 4, 5 3(b)(ii) 20.3
2(b)(ii)

(d) Draw the magnetic field patterns of

– 5 1(a), 1(b) 20.4
interacting magnets.

(e) Describe how to plot the magnetic

field lines of a magnet using a 6 – 1(c) 20.4
compass.

(f) Distinguish between temporary

magnets (e.g. iron) and permanent 2(a)(iii),
– 2, 4, 5(b)(i) 20.5
magnets (e.g. steel) in terms of their 2(b)(i)
properties and uses.

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 Chapter 21: Electromagnetism
Name: ( )

Class: Date:

Worksheet 21
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions

1. A charged particle is situated in a region of space. It experiences a force only when it is in motion.
Therefore, it can be deduced that the region of space is located within
A both an electric field and a gravitational field.
B both a magnetic field and an electric field.
C both a magnetic field and a gravitational field.
D a magnetic field only. ( D )

2. The diagram shows a beam of electrons approaching a magnetic field. What is the effect of the
magnetic field on the electrons?
magnetic field

beam of electrons

A They are deflected downwards.

B They are deflected upwards.
C They are deflected into the plane of the paper.
D They are deflected out of the plane of the paper. ( D )

3. A positive charge is directed into a magnetic field. What is the direction of force acting on the
positive charge?

positive
charge

A Into the plane of the paper

B Out of the plane of the paper
C Upward
D Downward ( C )

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 4. Three pairs of parallel wires have currents flowing through them in the directions shown below.

X Y Z

What type of force does each pair of wires experience?

X Y Z
A Attraction None Repulsion
B Attraction Repulsion Attraction
C Repulsion Attraction Repulsion
D None Attraction None ( B )

5. A long wire is wrapped around two wooden rods. A large current is passed through the wire in the
direction shown. In which two pairs will the wires attract each other?

J K wooden
rods
L M

wire

First pair Second pair

A J and K K and M
B J and K L and M
C J and L K and M
D J and L L and M ( B )

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 6. Two copper rods X and Y are connected to a d.c. power supply. Two identical aluminium rods that
are light in weight are placed resting across copper rods X and Y.

copper rod X

d.c. supply

copper rod Y

aluminium rods

What will happen immediately after the aluminium rods are placed across copper rods X and Y?
A Both the aluminium rods will move to the right.
B Both the aluminium rods will move to the left.
C The aluminium rods will move towards each other.
D The aluminium rods will move away from each other. ( C )

7. A magnet is suspended freely near an electromagnet.

electromagnet

d.c. supply N S
magnet

In which direction will the N pole of the magnet move once the d.c. supply is switched on?
A Up
B Down
C Right
D Left ( A )

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 Section B: Structured Questions

1. (a) Figures 21.1 and 21.3 each show a steady electric current flowing through a long, straight
wire, but in different directions. Sketch the respective magnetic field lines in Figures 21.2
and 21.4.
(i) current
(flowing out of paper)

wire

paper
paper

3-D view top view

▲ Figure 21.1 ▲ Figure 21.2

(ii) current
(flowing into paper)

wire

paper
paper

top view
3-D view
▲ Figure 21.3 ▲ Figure 21.4

(b) Explain why the magnetic field lines nearer the wire should be drawn closer together.

To show that the strength of the magnetic field is stronger nearer the wire

(c) Name the method used to determine the direction of the magnetic field lines in the answer
to (a).
Right-hand grip rule

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 2. (a) Sketch the magnetic field patterns for the solenoids in Figures 21.5 and 21.6. Label the
magnetic poles.
(i) (ii)

S N N S

▲ Figure 21.5 ▲ Figure 21.6

(b) Suggest three ways to increase the magnetic field strength of a solenoid.

Increasing the current, increasing the number of turns per unit length of the solenoid and using a soft

iron core within the solenoid

3. A circuit breaker is a safety device that cuts off the electrical supply when the current flow is too
large. Figure 21.7 shows a circuit breaker when the current in a circuit is below the safety limit.

safety bar with spring

interrupt point soft iron latch

current flow solenoid

▲ Figure 21.7

(a) Describe what happens in the circuit breaker when the current flow exceeds the safety limit.
When the current flow exceeds the safety limit, the large current causes the solenoid to become a

strong electromagnet, which then attracts the soft iron latch. This releases the spring and results in

the safety bar being pushed outwards. The interrupt point opens, breaking the circuit.

(b) Explain why soft iron is used to make the latch.

Soft iron is easily magnetised and demagnetised. Hence, the soft iron latch becomes an induced

magnet easily when it is attracted by the magnetised solenoid. Also, the soft iron latch is able to

return to its unmagnetised state in normal operating conditions when the solenoid is demagnetised.

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 4. (a) (i) Figure 21.8 shows a proton moving into a magnetic field region. The magnetic field is
directed into the plane of the paper. Draw the path of the proton in the magnetic field.

magnetic field
directed into
plane of paper

proton

▲ Figure 21.8

(ii) Figure 21.9 shows an electron moving into the same magnetic field region. Draw the path
of the electron in the magnetic field.

magnetic field
directed into
plane of paper

electron

▲ Figure 21.9

(b) Suggest two ways in which the direction of the forces acting on the proton and electron inside
the magnetic fields in (a) can be reversed.
Reverse the direction of the current (i.e. the proton and electron should enter the magnetic field from

the right). Reverse the direction of the magnetic field.

5. Figure 21.10 shows a rigid wire coil mounted

on an axle between two permanent magnets.
Current is flowing through the coil in the direction
shown. N S N S
(a) On Figure 21.10, draw an arrow to show the
direction of movement of the coil when the
current flows through it.
in ut
(b) Name the method used to determine nt
rr e ent
o
the direction of movement of the coil cu urr
c
in (a). ▲ Figure 21.10

Fleming’s left-hand rule

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 (c) Draw and label the missing components (not shown in Figure 21.10) required for the coil to
rotate continuously.
wires to the coil
split rings

carbon brush carbon brush

d.c. supply

6. An important application of the force that acts rectangular coil

on a current-carrying rectangular coil in a
magnetic field is the d.c. motor. B magnet
C
(a) On Figure 21.11, label the following parts:
(i) Split-ring commutator
(ii) Carbon brushes A
split-ring
commutator D
(b) State the functions of the split-ring
commutator and the carbon brushes.
The split-ring commutator reverses the carbon brushes
battery switch
direction of the current in the coil whenever the
rheostat
commutator changes contact from one brush
▲ Figure 21.11
to the other. The carbon brushes allow the

moving parts (split rings) to be in contact with

the non-moving part (d.c. supply).

(c) On Figure 21.11, draw the forces acting on arms AB and CD of the coil.

(d) State the direction of movement of the coil if the polarity of the magnet is reversed.
Clockwise

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 Section C: Free-Response Questions
axle
1. Figure 21.12 shows a mini motor with
P
copper wire wound around magnetic N
Q
material X (this is known as the armature). N S N S
The two ends of the armature, P and Q, S
become opposite magnetic poles when armature (copper wire wound
carbon brush around magnetic material X)
current flows through the wire. The armature
is free to rotate about an axle between carbon brush
two permanent magnets.
d.c. split-ring commutator
supply

▲ Figure 21.12

(a) The armature is rotating in an anti-clockwise direction. On Figure 21.12, indicate the magnetic
poles at P and Q.

(b) On Figure 21.13, draw the position of the armature when the split-ring commutator breaks
contact with the carbon brushes. Indicate ends P and Q.

N S N S
P Q

▲ Figure 21.13

(c) State what causes the armature to continue rotating when the current is not flowing in
the coil.
The momentum of the armature

(d) On Figure 21.14, draw the position of the armature when the split-ring commutator makes
contact with the carbon brushes again. Indicate ends P and Q. Also indicate the magnetic
poles at ends P and Q when the current is flowing in the coil again.

N S S Q N S

▲ Figure 21.14

(e) Suggest the most suitable material for X. Explain your answer.
The most suitable material is soft iron. Iron can be magnetised and demagnetised easily to produce

strong magnetic poles at precise intervals to make a strong motor.

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 Data-Based Question
2. Figure 21.15 shows a thin brass rod resting across aluminium rods A and B. The two aluminium
rods are connected to a d.c. supply X. An electromagnet (powered by d.c. supply Y) is placed
directly above the brass rod.
electromagnet

d.c. supply Y
aluminium rod A
aluminium rod B
brass rod

switch S
d.c. supply X
▲ Figure 21.15

(a) On Figure 21.15, indicate the direction of the current through the brass rod when switch S is
closed.

(b) Explain why the brass rod moves when switch S is closed.
When switch S is closed, the current flows through the brass rod, producing a circular magnetic

field around the brass rod. This circular magnetic field interacts with the magnetic field of the

electromagnet, resulting in a net force that acts on the brass rod, causing it to move.

(c) State the direction in which the brass rod moves when switch S is closed.
The brass rod will move to the open ends of the two aluminium rods.

(d) Suggest three ways to make the brass rod move faster.
Increase the current flowing in the electromagnet to increase the magnetic field strength of the

electromagnet.

Increase the number of coils of the electromagnet to increase the magnetic field strength of the

electromagnet.

Increase the current flowing through the brass rod to increase the magnetic field strength around the

brass rod.

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 WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) Draw the pattern of the magnetic

field caused by currents in straight
wires and solenoids, and state the
7 1, 2 2(d) 21.1
effect of changing the magnitude or
direction of a current on the magnetic
field.

(b) Describe how the magnetic effect

of a current is applied in a circuit – 3 – 21.1
breaker.

(c) Describe experiments that

demonstrate the force acting on
a current-carrying conductor in a
– – 2(b), 2(d) 21.2
magnetic field, including the effect of
reversing the direction of the current
or magnetic field on the force.

(d) Describe experiments that

demonstrate the force acting on
a beam of charged particles in a
1 4 – 21.2
magnetic field, including the effect of
reversing the direction of the current
or magnetic field on the force.

(e) Deduce the relative directions of 4(a), 5(a),

force, magnetic field and current 2, 3 5(b), 6(c), 2(c) 21.2
using Fleming’s left-hand rule.
6(d)

(f) Explain the magnetic field patterns

between parallel current-carrying
conductors and relate these patterns 4, 5, 6 – – 21.2
to the forces that exist between the
conductors.

(g) Explain how a current-carrying coil

in a magnetic field experiences a
– 5, 6 – 21.3
turning effect, and how this effect
can be increased.

(h) Discuss how the turning effect of a

current-carrying coil in a magnetic
– 5, 6 – 21.3
field is used in a simple electric
motor.

(i) Describe how a split-ring commutator

works in a two-pole, single-coil motor, 5(c), 6(a),
– 1 21.3
and the effect of winding the coil 6(b)
around a soft iron cylinder.

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 Chapter 22: Electromagnetic Induction
Name: ( ) For topics
22.1 Electromagnetic
Class: Date: Induction
22.2 Alternating Current
Generators

Worksheet 22A
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions

1. In all four diagrams below, the coil of wire is part of a complete circuit. Which of the diagrams correctly
shows the direction of the induced current when the magnet is moved as indicated?
A direction of B direction of
induced current induced current

bar magnet bar magnet

N coil of wire N coil of wire

direction of direction of
motion of magnet motion of magnet

C direction of D direction of
induced current induced current

bar magnet bar magnet

S coil of wire S coil of wire

direction of direction of
motion of magnet motion of magnet ( A )

2. A magnet mounted on a rotating spindle is placed near a coil of wire which is connected to
a galvanometer.

N S

Which of the following graphs shows how the galvanometer needle deflection θ varies with time t?
A θ B θ C θ D θ

t t t t

( B )

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 3. The graph on the right shows the voltage produced by Voltage/V
a simple a.c. generator over time. The a.c. generator 2
is rotating at constant speed. 0 Time/ms
10 20 30 40
–2

The rotation speed of the a.c. generator is then changed and a new graph is obtained as shown below.

The new graph shows that the a.c. generator is now Voltage/V
rotating at 2

A four times its initial speed. 0 Time/ms

10 20 30 40
B half its initial speed. –2
C double its initial speed.
D a fourth of its initial speed. ( B )

Section B: Structured Questions

1. Figure 22.1 shows a coil of wire wound around a piece of soft iron. A magnet is rotated in the
gap in the soft iron. When the magnet rotates, the lamp connected to the coil glows. The magnet
takes 0.20 s to make one complete revolution.
coil
soft iron

magnet
N lamp
axis of S
rotation

▲ Figure 22.1

(a) Explain why an e.m.f. is produced in the coil when the magnet rotates.

When the magnet rotates, the coil experiences a changing magnetic field. This induces an e.m.f.

(electromotive force) in the coil.

(b) On the axes provided below, sketch a graph to show how the e.m.f. produced in the coil varies
with time. Mark a scale along the time axis, in terms of the period of rotation T.
E.m.f.

0 Time
T T 3T 2T
0
2 2

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 (c) Suggest two changes that will increase the size of the e.m.f. produced. (Hint: The parts of the
apparatus shown in Figure 22.1 may be altered.)

Increasing the number of turns of the coil around the soft iron. Increasing the speed of rotation of the

magnet.

Section C: Free-Response Questions

1. (a) You are provided with a solenoid, a centre-zero galvanometer, a bar magnet and some connecting
wires. With the aid of a diagram, describe how you would demonstrate the ability of a changing
magnetic field to induce an e.m.f. in a circuit.
Set up the circuit shown in the diagram. When the bar
magnet is moved into the solenoid, the galvanometer solenoid (a coil of wire)
needle deflects in one direction. When the bar magnet
is withdrawn, the galvanometer needle deflects in the N S
opposite direction. When the bar magnet is inside the
solenoid, there is no deflection. This shows that when bar magnet
there is relative movement between the magnet and the
solenoid, causing a change in the magnetic flux in the
solenoid, an induced e.m.f. is generated. The induced
e.m.f. drives a current round the circuit, causing the galvanometer
galvanometer needle to deflect.

(b) State three factors that affect the magnitude of the induced e.m.f.
The speed at which the magnet is moved into the solenoid or out of the solenoid, the strength of the

magnet and the number of turns in the solenoid

(c) Explain how the Principle of Conservation of Energy applies to the phenomenon of electro-
magnetic induction. (Hint: Recall what you learnt in Chapter 6: Energy, Work and Power.)

The work done in overcoming the repulsion or attraction when the magnet is moved into the solenoid

or withdrawn from the solenoid is converted into electrical energy in the induced current.

rotation
Data-Based Question
2. (a) Figure 22.2 shows a simple a.c. generator.
N S
Label the following in Figure 22.2:
(i) Slip rings
(ii) Carbon brushes
slip rings
resistor R

carbon brushes

▲ Figure 22.2

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 (b) Explain briefly how the simple a.c. generator works, including a sketch of the output voltage
against time.

Output voltage When the axle is rotated mechanically, the rectangular coil
rotates between the poles of two permanent magnets. As
the coil rotates, it cuts across the magnetic field lines. The
change of magnetic flux creates an induced e.m.f. and therefore
Time an induced current in the coil. The rotating slip rings are in
continuous sliding contact with the carbon brushes, and transfer
the induced current to the external circuit. A current is driven
through the external circuit with an electrical load (resistor R).
The direction of the current changes every half revolution, i.e.
the output voltage or current is alternating over time.

(c) Suppose the frequency of the rotation of the coil is doubled. Explain how the maximum output
voltage will change with time.

Doubling the frequency of rotation will double the maximum output voltage and will double the

frequency of the output voltage (i.e. the period will be halved).

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(a) Deduce from experiments that an

e.m.f. can be induced by a changing
magnetic field, and that the direction
of the induced e.m.f. opposes the 1, 2 1(a), 1(c) 1, 2(c) 22.1
change that produces it. List the
factors that alter the magnitude of
the induced e.m.f.

(b) Describe how a simple alternating

current generator works and sketch 3 1(b) 2 22.2
its output voltage against time graph.

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 Chapter 22: Electromagnetic Induction
Name: ( ) For topics
22.3 Transformers
Class: Date: 22.4 Cathode-Ray
Oscilloscopes

Worksheet 22B
Section A: Multiple-Choice Questions

1. A 240 V a.c. mains supply is connected to a transformer. What is the current flowing in the
primary coil?
A 0.1 A
B 0.5 A
C 2.5 A 240 V 400 2000 2400 Ω
turns turns
D 5.0 A

( C )

Working/Explanation
Vs Ns
=
Vp Np
NV
Vs = s p = 2000 × 240 = 1200 V
Np 400
Vs 1200
Is = = = 0.5 A
R 2400
IpVp = IsVs
IsVs 0.5 × 1200
Ip = = = 2.5 A
Vp 240

2. The diagram shows the important parts of a C.R.O. What change in voltage results in the position
of the spot on the screen moving towards the top?

+V2 top
+V1

+
screen
–

– + bottom

A Decreasing V1
B Increasing V1
C Increasing V2
D Making V1 and V2 equal ( C )

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 3. The diagram shows a trace on an oscilloscope
set at 5 V cm–1 on the vertical axis.
position of
trace when
no p.d. is
applied

1 cm
What is the maximum value of the potential
1 cm
difference being measured?
A 1.5 V B 4.0 V C 7.5 V D 80 V ( C )

Section B: Structured Questions

1. Figure 22.3 shows Faraday’s iron ring experiment.

iron ring switch S

P

battery
G coil B coil A

▲ Figure 22.3

(a) State what happens to coil A when switch S is closed.

A magnetic field will be set up around coil A due to the current flowing through it.

(b) Describe what is observed in the galvanometer when switch S is closed and a current starts to
flow in coil A.
The galvanometer shows a deflection to one side momentarily.

(c) State what the galvanometer shows when the current in coil A is flowing steadily.
The galvanometer does not show any deflection.

(d) If switch S is now opened, describe what happens to the galvanometer reading when
(i) the current decreases rapidly to zero in coil A;
The galvanometer shows a deflection in the opposite direction momentarily.

(ii) there is no more current flowing in coil A.

The galvanometer does not show any deflection.

(e) State a conclusion that can be deduced from the above experiment.
An induced current flows in the galvanometer (shown by the deflection) only when the current in coil A

is changing by closing and opening switch S.

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 2. The primary coil of a transformer is connected to a 240 V a.c. mains supply. The voltage of the
secondary coil is used to operate a lamp rated 60 W, 12 V.

(a) State and explain if the transformer is used as a step-up or step-down transformer.

Step-down transformer. The output voltage of 12 V at the secondary coil is smaller than the input

voltage of 240 V at the primary coil.

(b) Determine the ratio of the number of turns in the primary coil to that in the secondary coil.

Given: primary input voltage Vp = 240 V

secondary output voltage Vs = 12 V
Np Vp 240 20
= = =
Ns Vs 12 1
Hence, Np : Ns = 20 : 1, where Np : Ns is the ratio of the number of turns in the primary coil to that in
the secondary coil.

(c) If there are 1000 turns in the primary coil, calculate the number of turns in the secondary coil.

Given: Np = 1000
Np N 1000
From (b), = 20 ⇒ Ns = p = = 50 turns
Ns 20 20

laminated core
3. Figure 22.4 shows a step-up transformer.
secondary
(a) On Figure 22.4, label the following: primary
coil
coil
(i) Primary coil
(ii) Secondary coil ~
(iii) Laminated core

▲ Figure 22.4

(b) Given that the input voltage is 12 V and the output voltage is 240 V, calculate the current in
the primary coil if the current in the secondary coil is 0.04 A (assume 100% efficiency).

Given: primary input voltage Vp = 12 V

secondary output voltage Vs = 240 V
current in secondary coil Is = 0.04 A
Let the current in the primary coil be Ip.
Assuming 100% efficiency, IpVp = IsVs
IsVs 0.04 × 240
Ip = = = 0.8 A
Vp 12

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 4. The input voltage of a transformer is 240 V. The primary coil has 400 turns and the secondary coil
has ten turns. Find the output current at the secondary coil when there is a current of 1 A flowing
in the primary coil.

Given: Vp = 240 V
Np = 400
Ns = 10
Ip = 1 A
Vs Ns
=
Vp Np
Ns 10
∴ Vs = × Vp = × 240 = 6 V
Np 400
Assuming 100% efficiency, VpIp = VsIs
Vp Ip 240 × 1
∴ Output current Is = = = 40 A
Vs 6

5. Figure 22.5 shows an oscilloscope trace of an alternating input voltage. The time-base is set at
50 ms per division.

▲ Figure 22.5

(a) Determine the period of the input signal.

Time for 5 oscillations = 10 × 50 = 500 ms
500
Period T = = 100 ms
5

(b) Calculate the frequency of the input signal.

From (a), T = 100 ms = 0.1 s
1 1
Frequency f = = = 10 Hz
T 0.1

(c) The time-base is set to 10 ms per division. In the grid below, draw the new waveform displayed
on the screen.

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 6. Figure 22.6 shows a C.R.O. with the time-base switched off and the gain set at 5 V/div.

Y' fluorescent
screen

electron gun electron beam

▲ Figure 22.6

(a) Describe what is seen on the screen when

(i) Y' is connected to the negative terminal and Y is connected to the positive terminal of
a 15 V battery;
The electron beam will be deflected downwards, causing a spot of light to be observed on the

screen at a distance of 3 div below O.

(ii) an a.c. supply (50 Hz, 40 V) is connected across Y'Y.

A vertical line will be seen on the screen, spanning 16 div, i.e. the peak-to-peak voltage of the

alternating voltage.

(b) If the time-base is switched on with a period of 0.04 s, sketch the corresponding waveforms
for (a)(i) and (a)(ii). Indicate the number of divisions.

For (a)(i), For (a)(ii),

8 div

3 div

one horizontal line below two complete cycles for

the centre line 50 Hz a.c.

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 Section C: Free-Response Questions
1. Figure 22.7 shows an electrical supply system from a power station to a factor y.

cable of resistance R
I load
power
station P0 V0 V factory

I
▲ Figure 22.7

(a) The electrical power P0 generated by the power station is 3100 W. It is delivered to the factory
through power cables at a p.d. V0 of 50 kV. Calculate the current I flowing in the cables.
Given: P0 = 3100 W
V0 = 50 × 103 V
Using P0 = IV0,
Po 3100
I= = = 0.062 A
Vo 50 × 103

(b) If the resistance R of one cable is 75 Ω, calculate the total power loss in the two cables.
In series, total resistance of the two cables RT = R + R = 75 + 75 = 150 Ω
Power loss in cables = I2RT
= (0.062)2(150)
= 0.577 W

(c) Suggest how the power loss in (b) during transmission can be reduced.
P0
Transmit the power at high voltage so that the current I = V0 is low (since P0 is a constant).

The power loss in the cables (= I2RT) can then be minimised.

Data-Based Questions
2. Figure 22.8 shows a simple transformer with terminals A, B, C and D.

A C
1000 200
turns turns
B D

▲ Figure 22.8

(a) A 100 V a.c. supply is connected across AB and a current of 2 A flows through AB.
(i) Calculate the voltage across CD.
Given: Ns = 200
Np = 1000
Vp = 100 V
Vs Ns
=
Vp Np
Ns 200
∴ Vs = × Vp = × 100 = 20 V
Np 1000
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 (ii) Calculate the maximum current flowing through CD.
Vp Ip 100 × 2
VpIp = VsIs ⇒ Is = = = 10 A
Vs 20

(b) The 100 V a.c. supply is disconnected from AB and connected to CD instead.
(i) Calculate the voltage across AB.
Vs Ns N 1000
= ⇒ Vs = s × Vp = × 100 = 500 V
Vp Np Np 200

(ii) Assuming the current flowing through CD is also 2 A, calculate the maximum current
flowing through AB.
Vp Ip 100 × 2
VpIp = VsIs ⇒ Is = = = 0.4 A
Vs 500

(iii) Suggest and discuss what can be done to allow a higher current to flow in the primary
coil at CD.

The primary coil at CD must be made of thicker wire to lower its resistance. This allows a higher

current to flow through the primary coil, while ensuring that the coil does not overheat and burn

because of the higher current.

3. Figure 22.9 shows the voltage transmission of electric power from a power plant to various
consumers.
500 000 V

transmission 60 000 V
22 000 V line
5000 V 240 V
power
plant
industrial commercial residential
consumer consumer consumer
transformer A transformer B transformer C transformer D

▲ Figure 22.9

In Singapore, there are three major power plants owned by the company Singapore Power. These
three power plants are Senoko Power, Tuas Power and Power Seraya with estimated power
outputs of 2500 MW, 1200 MW and 2700 MW respectively.
(a) Calculate the total power output (in W) when the three power plants are in full operation.
Total power output = 2500 + 1200 + 2700
= 6400 MW = 6400 × 106 W = 6.4 × 109 W

(b) Suppose the power plant in Figure 22.9 is Senoko power plant. Find the currents flowing in
the primary and secondary coils of transformer A, which is operating at 100% efficiency.
For Senoko power plant, output power P = 2500 MW
P 2500 × 106
Using P = IpVp ⇒ Ip = = = 1.136 × 105 A
Vp 22 000
P 2500 × 106
At 100% efficiency, P = IsVs ⇒ Is = = = 5000 A
Vs 500 000

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 (c) Complete Table 22.1 with the correct values.
Table 22.1

Transformer Primary voltage Vp Secondary voltage Vs Turns ratio

A 22 000 V 500 000 V 22.7
B 500 000 V 60 000 V 0.120
C 60 000 V 5000 V 0.0833
D 5000 V 240 V 0.0480
Vs N
[Hint: Students can recall the formula = s to find the values in the last column.]
Vp Np
(d) Briefly describe what information the turns ratio tells us.

It tells us whether the transformer is a step-up or step-down transformer. A turns ratio of greater than

1 means step-up, while a turns ratio of less than 1 means step-down.

(e) Based on the turns ratio, state which transformer(s) is/are step-up and which transformer(s)
is/are step-down.
Step-up transformer(s): A

Step-down transformer(s): B, C, D

WORK ON IT!
In the table below, circle the question(s) that you have answered incorrectly. Revisit the relevant
section(s) in the textbook to strengthen your understanding of the key concept(s).

Question(s)
Textbook
Learning Objective Multiple- Free-
Structured Section(s)
Choice Response

(c) Describe the structure of a simple 2(b)(iii), 3(d),

transformer and explain how it works. – 1, 2(a), 3(a) 22.3
3(e)

(d) Solve problems by applying the 2(a), 2(b)(i),

2(b), 2(c),
V N 1 2(b)(ii), 3(b), 22.3
formulae s = s and VpIp = VsIs. 3(b), 4
Vp Np 3(c)

(e) Describe the energy loss in cables

and explain the advantages of high – – 1 22.3
voltage power transmission.

(f) Describe the applications of a

– 5, 6(b) – 22.4
cathode-ray oscilloscope.

(g) Interpret cathode-ray oscilloscope

2, 3 5, 6(a) – 22.4
displays to solve related problems.

218 Worksheet 22B © 2013 Marshall Cavendish International (Singapore) Private Limited

(S)PMWB_22B.indd 218 8/22/12 1:34 PM