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Multiple Choices Exercises 2022

General Chemistry (HCMC University of Technology)

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VIETNAM NATIONAL UNIVERSITY – HO CHI MINH CITY

UNIVERSITY OF TECHNOLOGY

ASSOC. PROF. HUYNH KY PHUONG HA

DR. NGUYEN MINH KHA

MULTIPLE CHOICE EXERCISES

FOR GENERAL CHEMISTRY

HO CHI MINH CITY, 2021

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CHAPTER 1. ATOMIC STRUCTURE

1.1 Choose the correct statements:

1) The atoms which have the same atomic number Z and different mass number A are
called isotopes.

2) Atomic nuclei of isotopes of the same element have different numbers of neutrons.

3) The atomic weight of an element in the periodic table is the average of atomic weights
of the isotopes in ratios that exist in nature.

4) Except for the most abundant isotope of an element, all other isotopes are radioactive.

a) 1 b) 1, 2 c) 1, 4 d) 1, 2, 3

1.2 The atomic weight of the 2H isotope is determined by:

a/The weights of one proton and one neutron.

b/The weights of one electron and one neutron.

c/ The weight of one electron.

d/The weight of one proton.

1.3 Choose the correct answer about the properties of isotopes of an element:

a/Isotopes of the same element have the same chemical and physical properties.

b/Atoms with the same nuclear charge and the same mass number are called isotopes.

c/Isotopes of the same element have the same number of neutrons and the same number
of protons.

d/ Isotopes of the same element occupy the same cell in the periodic table of elements.

1.4 Choose the correct statement:

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a/Atoms with the same nuclear charge and the same mass number are called isotopes.

b/For each element, the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is fixed, but the
number of neutrons can vary, which is an isotopic phenomenon.

c/Atoms with the same mass number, but different number of protons in the nucleus, are
called isotopes.

d/Isotopes of the same element have the same physical and chemical properties.

1.5 Choose the most correct and complete answer:

1. Isotopes consist of atom with the same atomic number (Z) but difference mass
numbers (A).
2. The atomic weight of an element is the average of the atomic weight of the
isotopes according to the ratio of these isotopes in nature.
3. The only difference in structure between the isotopes is the different number of
neutrons.
4. Except for the most abundant isotope of an element, all other isotopes are
radioactive.
a/1 b/1 and 2 c/1 and 4 d/1, 2 and 3

1.6 Choose the incorrect statement about the Bohr model of the atom that is applied to
hydrogen atom or hydrogen-like ions (i.e., ion with only 1 electron)
a/ When moving in the Bohr orbit, the energy of an electron does not change.

b/ An electron of mass m, which is moving with speed v in a Bohr orbit of radius r, has a
magnitude of the angular momentum is given by: mvr = nh/2.

c/Electron only absorbs or emits radiation when moving from one orbit to another.

d/ The emitted radiation has a wavelength  is equal to:  = |Einitial - Efinal|/h.

1.7 The wavelength of the radiation emitted by the hydrogen atom follows the formula:
1/ = RH (1/n12 – 1/n22). If n1 = 1 and n2 = 4, the radiation corresponds to the transition
of an electron:
a/From orbit 4 to orbit 1, the radiation belongs to the Lyman series.

b/ From orbit 1 to orbit 4, the radiation belongs Lyman series.

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c/ From orbit 1 to orbit 4, the radiation belongs Balmer series.

d/ From orbit 4 to orbit 1, the radiation belongs Balmer series.

1.8 Radiation with the minimum wavelength of a hydrogen atom is emitted when an
electron:
a/ Falls from infinity (n = ) to orbit 1 (n = 1).

b/ Jumps from orbit 1 to orbit 2.

c/ Jumps from orbit 1 to infinity.

d/ Falls from orbit 2 to orbit 1.

1.9 Choose the incorrect statements:

1) The energy of AOs in the n layer always greater than that in the (n-1) layer.

2) Azimuthal quantum number ℓ determines the shape and name of the atomic
orbital.

3) Magnetic quantum number mℓ has values from n to –n.

4) Azimuthal quantum number has values from 0 to n-1.

a) 1 and 2. b) 1 and 3.

c) 1, 2 and 3. d) 1, 3 and 4.

1.10 Choose the incorrect statement:

a) Principal quantum number n has a positive integer value and the maximum value
is 7.
b) Azimuthal quantum number ℓ (i.e., corresponding to a value of the principal
quantum number n) is always less than n.
c) The energy of electron and the average distance between the nucleus and the
electron increase with increasing n.

d) The formula 2n2 indicates the maximum number of electrons that can be in the nth
electron shell of an atom in the periodic table.

1.11 The principal quantum number n and azimuthal quantum number ℓ respectively
determine:

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a. The orientation and shape of the atomic orbital.

b. The shape and orientation of the atomic orbital.
c. The energy of electrons and the orientation of the atomic orbital.
d. The energy of electrons and the shape of the atomic orbital.
1.12 The magnetic quantum number mℓ determines:

a) The shape of the atomic orbital. b) The size of the atomic orbital.

c) The orientation of the atomic orbital. d) The energy of electrons.

1.13 Choose the incorrect statement. The magnetic quantum number mℓ:

a) Determines the orientation of the atomic orbital in space.

b) Determines the number of atomic orbitals in a subshell.

c) Has values from ℓ to - ℓ.
d) Determines the energy of a subshell.
1.14 Choose the incorrect statement:

a. The principal quantum number n may have positive integer values (e.g., 1, 2, 3,...),
determining the energy of electrons and the size of the atomic orbital. The greater
n is, the higher energy of the electron and the larger size of the atomic orbital are.
In multielectron atoms, electrons with the same n value form an electron shell and
they have the same energy.
b. The azimuthal quantum number ℓ has values from 0 to n-1. It describes the shape
of electron cloud and the energy of atomic electron. Electrons which have the
same values of n and ℓ form an electron subshell and they have the same energy.
c. The magnetic quantum number mℓ may have values from -ℓ to +ℓ. It defines the
orientation of atomic orbitals in a magnetic field.
d. The spin quantum number ms defines the characteristic of an electron and has
only two values -1/2 and +1/2.
1.15 Choose the correct statement. An atomic orbital is

1) The wave function describes the state of an electron in an atom and it is defined by
the three quantum numbers n, ℓ and mℓ.

2) The surface with equal electron density of the electron cloud.

3) The orbital motion of electrons in an atom.

4) The energy state of an electron in an atom.

5) The space within which the electrons of an atom move.

a) 1 and 5 b) 1, 2 and 3 c) 1 d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.

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1.16 Choose the incorrect statement:

a) The magnetic quantum number mℓ has values from –n to n.

b) The azimuthal quantum number ℓ has values from 0 to n-1.

c) The principal quantum number n determines the size of the atomic orbital.

d) The azimuthal quantum number ℓ determines the configuration and name of the
atomic orbital.

Regulations of the construction of the atom electron layer

1.17 Which one is not acceptable in the quantum mechanical atomic model?

a) In the ground state, electrons occupy energy levels from low to high, respectively.
b) In an atom, there are at least 2 electrons with the same 4 quantum numbers.

c) The azimuthal quantum number ℓ defines the name and shape of the atomic orbital.

d) In each subshell, electrons make arrangement to have the maximum number of

single electrons.

1.18 The distribution of electrons in a carbon atom in the stable state is:

1s2 2s2 2p2

Based on:

a) Aufbau principle and Hund’s rule.

b) Aufbau principle, Pauli exclusion principle, Hund’s rule and Klechkowski’s

rule.

c) Aufbau Principle, Pauli exclusion principle and Hund’s rule.

d) Hund’s and Klechkowski’s rules.

1.19 Which set of quantum numbers represents the outermost electrons in an atom with
Z = 30?

a) n = 3, ℓ = 2, mℓ = -2, ms = +1/2 b) n = 4, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 0, ms = +1/2 and -1/2

c) n = 3, ℓ = 2, mℓ = +2, ms = -1/2 d) n = 4, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 1, ms = +1/2 and -1/2

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1.20 Which sets of the three quantum numbers are acceptable?

1) n = 4, ℓ = 3, mℓ = -3 2) n = 4, ℓ = 2, mℓ = +3

3) n = 4, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 0 4) n = 4, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 0

a) 1, 3, 4 b) 1, 4 c) 2, 3, 4 d) 3, 4

1.21 Which sets of the three quantum numbers are acceptable?

1) n = 4, ℓ = 3, mℓ = -3 2) n = 4, ℓ = 2, mℓ = +3

3) n = 4, ℓ = 1, mℓ = 2 4) n = 4, ℓ = 0, mℓ = 0

a) 1, 3, 4 b) 1, 4 c) 2, 3, 4 d) 3, 4

1.22 Names of the orbitals correspond to n = 5, ℓ = 2; n = 4, ℓ = 3; n = 3, ℓ = 0

respectively:

a) 5d, 4f, 3s b) 5p, 4d, 3s c) 5s, 4d, 3p d) 5d, 4p, 3s

1.23 Orbital 3px is defined by the following quantum numbers:

a) only n, ℓ, and mℓ b) only n and mℓ

c) only ℓ and mℓ d) n, ℓ, mℓ, ms

1.24 Which of the following atom or ion does the outermost electron configuration 3s23p6
represent:

a) X (Z = 17) b) X (Z = 19) c) X- (Z = 17) d) X+ (Z = 20)

1.25 Determine the maximum number of electrons and the principal quantum number n
of L and N -shells:

a) L-shell:18 e, n = 3; N-shell: 32 e, n = 4

b) L-shell: 8 e, n = 2; N-shell: 32 e, n = 4

c) L-shell: 8 e, n = 2; N-shell: 18 e, n = 3

d) L-shell: 18 e, n = 3; N-shell: 32 e, n = 5

1.26 The last electron of an S atom (Z = 16) has the set of quantum numbers
(conventionally, electrons fill into orbitals in the order of mℓ from +ℓ to -ℓ):
a) n = 3, ℓ = 2, mℓ = -2, ms = +1/2 b) n = 3, ℓ = 2, mℓ = +2, ms = -1/2

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c) n = 3, ℓ = 1, mℓ = -1, ms = +1/2 d) n = 3, ℓ = 1, mℓ = +1, ms = -1/2

1.27 Choose the appropriate magnetic quantum number mℓ of an electron in an atom

which has n = 4, ℓ = 2 and ms = -1/2.

a) -2 b) 3 c) -3 d) -4

1.28 The valence electron configuration of Co3+ ion (Z = 27) in the ground state is:

a) 3d6 (no single electrons) b) 3d44s2 (exist single electrons)

c) 3d6 (exist single electrons) d) 3d44s2 (no single electron)

1.29 Determine the valence electron configuration of the atom which has position in the
periodic table is 47:

a) 4d105s2 5p1 b) 4d95s2 c) 4d105s1 d) 4d10.

1.30 The valence electron configuration of Fe3+ ion (Z= 26) in the ground state is:

a) 3d44s1 b) 3d34s2 c) 3d6 d) 3d5

1.31 The electron configuration of Cu2+ ion (Z = 29) in the ground state is:

a) 1s22s22p63s23p63d94s0 b) 1s22s22p63s23p63d74s2

c) 1s22s22p63s23p63d84s1 d) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s0

1.32 Choose the correct statements. The 1s orbital of the H atom is spherical, that is:

1) The probability of finding the 1s electron of H atom is the same in all directions in
space.

2) The distance between the 1s electron and the H nucleus is always constant.

3) The 1s electron moves only in the space inside the sphere.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1, 2, 3

1.33 Choose the correct statements. In the same atom:

1) The radius of 2s orbital is larger than of 1s orbital.

2) The 2s atomic orbital (AO) is greater in the energy of electrons than the 1s AO.

3) The maximum probability of finding an electron of 2px AO is along the x-axis.

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4) The 2pz AO is greater in the energy of electrons than the 2px AO.

a) 1, 2, 3 b) 4

c) 2, 3, 4 d) 3, 4

1.34 Electrons have the same principal quantum number, which are least affected by
shielding effect:

a) f electrons b) s electrons c) p electrons d) d electrons

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CHAPTER 2. PERIODIC LAW AND SYSTEM OF

CHEMICAL ELEMENTS
2.1. Choose the incorrect statements:
1) The nuclear charge of any elements is equal to its ordinal number in the periodic
table

2) The property of molecules, particles and compounds change periodically as the

nuclear charge increases

3) In the periodic table, group VIIIB does not have the most elements

4) Period is a row of elements, beginning with an alkali metals and ending with a
noble gas

a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) No wrong statement

2.2. Choose the incorrect statement below about the periodic table:
a) The elements in the same main group have the resemble properties

b) The elements in the same period have the resemble properties

c) The elements in the same main group have the reducing increases from top to
bottom

d) The elements in periodic table are arranged as the nuclear charge increases

2.3. Choose the correct statement:

<The ordinal number of group is equal to the total number of outer electrons=. This
principle is:

a.
Right to all groups.
b.
Wrong to all groups.
c.
Right to the main groups, except Hydro at group 7A and Heli.
d.
Right to the sub groups, except group VIIIB.
2.4. Along period 4, which elements are at the stable state and have 3 single electrons:
a) V, Ni, As b) V, Co, Br c) V, Co, As d) Mn, Co, As

2.5. The position of element in periodic table has the electron structure
1s22s22p63s23p63d54s2
Is:

7. Period 4, group VIIB, cell 23 b) Period 4, group VIIB, cell 25

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7. Period 4, group VIIA, cell 25 d) Period 4, group VB, cell 25

2.6. Fe (Z = 26), Co (Z = 27) and Ni (Z = 28) belong to group VIIIB, so they have:
a) The same valence electrons structure

b) The number of valence electrons is equal to the group’s ordinal number

c) The same outer electrons

d) The same valence electrons

2.7. Choose the incorrect statement about the elements of group VIA:
a) Probably have the highest oxidation-number is +6

b) The lowest oxidation-number is -2

c) Most of elements are metals

d) The outer electrons structure is ns2np4.

2.8. Choose the correct statements. Electron structure of 2 elements of group VIB and
VIA of period 4 is (respectively):
1) 1s22s22p63s23p63d44s2 2) 1s22s22p63s23p63d54s1

3) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s24p4 4) 1s22s22p63s23p63d104s14p5

a) 1, 3 b) 2, 3 c)1, 4 d) 2, 4

2.9. Choose the correct statements. Which element below does not have d orbitals:
a) Sn ( Z = 50) b) V ( Z = 23 ) c) Pd ( Z = 46 ) d) Zn ( Z = 30)

2.10. Determine the element in periodic table, which has the outer electrons structure is
4d105s2
a) Period 5, group IIA, cell 50 b) Period 4, group IIB, cell 48

c) Period 5, group IIB, cell 48 d) Period 5, group IIB, cell 50

2.11. Choose the correct statement. The valence electrons of:

a) atom Br (Z= 35) is 4s24p5 b) atom Sn (Z=50) is 3d24s1

c) atom Ti (Z = 22) is 5s2 d) atom Sr (Z=38) is 4d105s2

2.12. Given these atoms: Ca (Z=20), Fe (Z=26), Cd (Z=48), La(Z=57). Two ions have
the same shell electron configuration with the nearest inert gas
a) Ca2+, Cd2+ b) Ca2+, Cd2+ c) La3+, Fe3+ d) Ca2+, La3+

2.13. Choose the correct statement:

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a) The maximum positive oxidation number of an atom is always equal to the order of the
subgroups of that atom
b) The maximum positive oxidation number is always equal to the number of electron of
the outer layer of that atom
c) The maximum positive oxidation number is always equal to the number of electrons in
the valence subclass of that atom
d) The maximum positive oxidation number of atoms from group VA is +5

2.14. Atom have the outer layer configuration of 3d54s1 is located in the periodic table
and had some characteristics as follows:
a) Period 4, group VIB, position 24, nonmetal, the maximum positive oxidation number
is +6
b) Period 4, group VIB, position 24, metal, the maximum positive oxidation number is
+6, the minimum negative oxidation number -1
c) Period 4, group VIB, position 24, metal, the maximum positive oxidation number is +6
d) Period 4, group VB, position 24, metal, the maximum positive oxidation number is +6

2.15. Group has the largest electronegativity in the periodic table is:
a) Group IIIA b) Group VIIA

c) Group VIA d) Group IA

2.16. Atom A has the electron configuration of the last subshell is 4p3. A must be:
a) In Group IIIA, the maximun positive oxidation number is +3 and no negative
oxidation number.
b) In Group IIIB, the maximun positive oxidation number is +3 the minimum
negative oxidation number is -3.
c) In Group VB, the maximun positive oxidation number is +5 the minimum
negative oxidation number is -3.
d) In Group VA, the maximun positive oxidation number is +5 the minimum
negative oxidation number is -3.

2.17. Atom has the electron configuration of the outer layer is 4s2 is located:
a) At Group IIA. b) Have strong metallicity.

c) Has the oxidation number +2 is the d) All 3 answers is not surely correct
most stable

2.18. Choose the correct circumstances:

Atom A at period IV, group VIA. Atom A has:

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a) Z = 34, nonmetal. b) Z = 24, metal.

c) Z = 24, nonmetal. d) Z = 34, metal

2.19. Choose the correct circumstances

Atom B at period IV, group VIIB. Atom B has:

a) Z = 25, metal. b) Z = 24, metal.

c) Z = 26, nonmetal. d) Z = 25, nonmetal.

2.20. In these following statements, the incorrect statement is:

In the same period in order from left to right, we have:

1) Electron layer increases. 2) Non-metallic decreases.

3) The metallicity increases. 4) Non-metallic increases.

a) 1,2,4 b) 4 c) 1 d) 1,2,3

2.21. Choose the incorrect statement:

a) In a primary group, electronegativity decreases from top to bottom.
b) In a secondary group, atom radius increases from top to bottom.
c) In the small period (except inert gas), atom radius decreases from left to right.
d) Metallicity decreases and non-metallic increases from left to right in the small period
(except inert gas).

2.22. In a primary group of the periodic table, the oxidation properties of the atom when
going from top to bottom changed in the way of:
a) Increase. b) Decrease. c) Unchange. d) Unidentify.

2.23. In a secondary group of the periodic table, the metallicity of the atom when going
from top to bottom changed in the way of:
a) Unchange. b) Increase. c) Decrease. d) Unidentify

2.24. Choose the correct statement:

a) In the same period, the radius of the Atom in the primary group increase from the
beginning to the end of the period.

b) In the small period, the electronegativity increase from the left to the right.
c) Atoms in group IA easy to receive 1 electron to create Anion.

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d) In the periodic table, period III has a secondary group

2.25. The ion radius in group VIA bigger than the ion radius with the same electron of
the atom of group VIIA (in the same period) because atoms in group VIA have:
a) Smaller atomic mass. b) Smaller nuclear charges

c) Smaller electron affinity. d) Smaller electronegativity.

2.26. Choose the correct statement:

a) Ion radius is always smaller than atom radius.
b) Ions of atoms in the same period have the same radius.
c) In the chain of ions with the same electron, ion have the bigger oxidation number is
smaller in size.
d) In the same period, from the left to the right, the atom's radius of the element stand
behind is always smaller than the one's stand in front.

2.27. Choose the correct statement. Line of atoms Ca (Z = 20), Al (Z = 13), P (Z = 15),
K (Z = 19) in order of the radius R increase:
a) RP < RAl < RCa < RK b) RP < RAl < RK < RCa

c) RAl < RP < RK < RCa d) RK < RCa < RP < RAl

2.28. Ionization energy of Hydrogen is the energy need to provided to take electron
from:
a) Layer 1 (n = 1) to Layer 2 b) Layer 1 to Layer 7

c) Layer 1 to Infinity d) From Infinity to Layer 1

2.29. Choose the incorrect statement. The changing in the first Ionization energy (I1) in
groups in order of increase number of atoms is explained by:
a) In primary group, I1 decrease because the increase in barrier effect.
b) In secondary group, I1 increase because increase nuclearotic charges and
infiltration effect of electrons ns.
c) In secondary group, I1 decrease because the decrease in infiltration effect of
electron ns.
d) In primary group, I1 decrease because the increase in atomic mass.

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2.30. Choose the correct statement:

Compared the first ionization energy I1 of N (Z = 7) and O (Z = 8):
a) I1(N) < I1(O) because in the same period, when going from left to right I1 increase.

b) I1(N) > I1(O) because N has the semi-saturated configuration of the subshell 2p.

c) I1(N)  I1(O) because the last electron of N and O are both belong to the subshell
2p.

d) Cannot Compare.

2.31. Given these atoms: Ne (Z = 10), Na (Z = 11) and Mg (Z = 12). Choose the correct
statement:
a) I1 (the first ionization energy) of Mg is smaller than I1 of Ne.
b) I1 of Mg is smaller than I1 of Na.
c) I2 ( the second ionization energy) of Na is smaller than I2 of Ne.
d) I2 of Mg is bigger than I2 of Na.
2.32. Choose the correct circumstance. The first ionization energy (I1) of these atoms
with electron configurations 1s22s22p4 (1), 1s22s22p3 (2), 1s22s22p6 (3) and
1s22s22p63s1 (4) increase in the direction of:
a) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4 b) 3 → 2 → 1 → 4

c) 4 → 1 → 2 → 3 d) 4 → 3 → 2 → 1

2.33. Choose the correct statement. Electron affinity of the atom:

a) The energy is released (-) or received (+) when combined into atomic electron gas
without any stimulation.
b) is the cost of energy needed to add more electrons combined into neutral atoms.
c) increased steadily in one period from left to right.
d) have the value equal the first ionization energy (I1) of that atom.
2.34. Choose the correct statement:
a) The electronegativity of metal is bigger than the electronegativity of nonmetal.
b) In the primary groups, the electronegativity increase from top to bottom.
c) In a period, alkali metals have the smallest electronegativity.
d) The more differences about electronegativity of A and B then the bonding of A –
B the less polar distribution.
2.35. Based on electronegativity:
Atom H C N O

Electronegativity 2.1 2.5 3.0 3.5

In four covalent bonds below, which bond have the most polar distribution?

a) C – H b) N – H c) O – H d) C – O

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CHAPTER 3. CHEMICAL BONDING AND STRUCTURE

OF MOLECULES
3.1 Bonding energy, bonding length, valence angle

3.1. Choose the incorrect statement. Cl – O bond in ion sequence ClO-, ClO2-, ClO3-
and ClO4- with approximate length: 1,7; 1,64; 1,57 and 1,42 A0. By this inferred from
sequence ion according to:
a) Ion durability increase b) Bonding energy increase.

c) Ion durability decrease. d) The bonding order increase.

3.2. Choose the incorrect statement:

1) The bond length is the distince between two nucleus of a molecule in the bonding
(angstrom unit)
2) The bonding energy is the amount of energy needs to break the bonding (J/mol or
cal/mol unit)
3) Bond angle is a feature quantity for all kind of molecules.
4) All chemical bonds have electrical nature.
5) Polarization of a molecule equal to the total polarizations of all the bonds in that
molecule
a) 1, 3, 5 b) 3,5 c) 3, 4, 5 d) none are incorrect.

3.2 Ionic bond

3.3. Find the incorrect statement about ionic compound:
a) High melting point. b) Distributed into ion when dissolved in
water.
c) Conducted in crystalline condition. d) Conducted in solid condition.
3.4. The difference between Ionic bond and covalent bond in basic feature is:
a) Not saturated and not oriented. b) Not high in polarization.

c) Present in most of the chemical d) (a) and (b) are correct.

compound.

3.3 Covalent bond

3.3.1 Valence bond theory (VB)

3.5. The maximum covalency of an atom is decided by:

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a) The number of valence atomic orbitals b)The number of valence

electrons.

c) The number of unpaired electrons in stimulated condition. d) All are correct

3.6. Which compound is capable of dimerizing?

a) NO2 b) SO2 c) O3 d) CO2

3.7. Choose the incorrect statement:

a) In covalent bond,  bond is the most stable bond.
b) Covalent bond is formed based on 2 mechanisms: give- take and pairing.
c)  bond is the bonding forming based on the overlapping of atom orbitals
located on the axis that connects two nuclei.
d) The orientation of covalent bond is determined by the hybridization of the
central atom that forms the bond
3.8. Choose the incorrect statement. Based on the Valence Bond Theory (VB),:
a) Covalent bond is formed by the pairing of 2 electrons with opposite spins, note
that there is the overlapping of 2 atomic orbitals.
b) Covalent bond is more stable when the overlapping area of atomic orbitals is
bigger.
c) The number of covalent bond in an atom of one molecule is equal to the number
of valence orbitals that it participates in overlapping.
d) Nitrogen has 5 covalent bonds in HNO3.
3.9. Find the correct statement:
a) Localized covalent bond is the bond whose 2 electrons are localized on many atoms
b) Covalent bond is greatly polarized
c) Localized covalent bond is the bond whose 2 electrons are localized on 2 atoms.

d) In covalent bond, electrons belong to the molecules and they are combined into
molecular orbitals.
3.10. Based on the Valence Bond theory (VB), the number of valence electrons and the
maximum number of covalent bonds that nitrogen can have in its compounds
alternately are:
a) 3, 3 b) 5, 4 c) 5, 5 d) 5, 3

3.11. According to the hybridized theory, orbitals taken part in the hybridization need to
have:
a) The same in energy level.
b) Same shape.

c) Nearly the same in energy level and adequate electron density

d) Hybridized orbitals take all axis as symmetric axis.

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3.12. Choose the correct statement: Based on the hybridized theory of atomic orbitals,
we have:
a) Hybridization usually does not relate to molecular geometry.

b) Sp hybridization is formed by combining 1 orbital s and 1 orbital p (of the same

atom), resulting in 2 sp hybridized orbitals distributing symmetrically with an
angle of 1800.

c) Sp2 hybridization is formed by combining 1 orbital s and 2 orbitals p (of the same
atom), resulting in 3 sp3 hybridized orbitals distributing symmetrically with an
angle of 109,280.

d) Sp3 hybridization is formed by combining 1 orbital s and 3 orbitals p (of the same
atom), resulting in 4 sp3 hybridized orbitals distributing symmetrically with an
angle of 1200.

3.13. The sp3 hybridization of central atom in these ions: SiO 44- - PO43- - SO42- - ClO4-
decreases due to:
a) The difference in energy between the electron subshells 3s and 3p increases.
b) The size of central atom taken part in hybridizing increase.
c) The energy of atomic orbitals (AO) taken part in hybridizing increases.
d) All are incorrect
3.14. 4 sp3 hybridized orbitals of molecule CH 4 have
a) Same shape but different energy level and orientation.
b) Same shape and energy level but different orientation.
c) Same shape, energy level and orientation with hybrid angle of 109o28’.
d) Equally in energy level, but different shape and orientation.
3.15. In ion NH2-, hybridization type of nitrogen atom and geometric structure of ion
NH2- are:
a) sp3 and angled b) sp2 and trigonal planar

c) sp and linear d) sp2 and angled

3.16. Nitrogen in NF3 molecule is sp3 hybridized, so molecule NF3 has:

a) trigonal planar configuration, bond angles are 120 o

b) tetrahedral configuration, bond angles are 109o28

c) Polarized and trigonal pyramidal configuration

d) Nonpolar and trigonal pyramidal configuration

3.17. Among these particles, which one is tetrahedral? (Given that N (Z=7), S (Z=16),
Xe (Z=54))
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a) NH4+ b) SF4 c) XeF4 d)

SO2Cl2

3.18. Choose the correct answer about the structure of molecule NH 3:

a) Polarized and trigonal planar b) Polarized and tetrahedral

c) Nonpolar and trigonal planar d) Polarized and trigonal pyramidal

3.19. The hybridization of the C atoms of �㔶�㔻2 = �㔶 = �㔶�㔻 − �㔶�㔻3 following the order
from left to right is:
a) �㕠�㕝2 , �㕠�㕝, �㕠�㕝2 , �㕠�㕝3 b) �㕠�㕝, �㕠�㕝2 , �㕠�㕝2 , �㕠�㕝3
c) �㕠�㕝2 , �㕠�㕝2 , �㕠�㕝2 , �㕠�㕝3 d) �㕠�㕝2 , �㕠�㕝, �㕠�㕝2 , �㕠�㕝
3.20. Choose the correct statement. The �㔶�㔻3 − �㔶�㔻2 − �㔶�㔻3 molecule has the
characteristics that:
a) All 3 C atoms are not hybridized b) All 3 C atoms are hybridized
�㕠�㕝2
c) All 3 C atoms are hybridized sp d) All 3 C atoms are hybridized �㕠�㕝3
3.21. Arrange the following covalent compounds in the order of increasing the bond
angle:
1/ �㔶�㔻4 2/ ý�㔻3 3/ �㔻2 þ
a) 1,2,3 b) 2,1,3 c) 3,2,1 d) 3,1,2
3.22. Choose the correct statement:
a) Both �㔶þ2 and �㕆þ2 have linear structure
b) Both �㔶�㔻4 �㕎�㕛�㕑 ý�㔻4+ are tetrahedral
c) Both CO32- and SO32- have flat structure
d) Both H2O and BeCl2 have angled structure
3.23. A SO2 molecule which has the valence angle OSO equal to 119 05 has:
a) Angled structure, bond order 1.33, p electrons localized on 3 carbons
b) Angled structure, bond order 1.5, p electrons localized on 3 carbons
c) Trigonal structure, bond order 1, no �㔋 bonding
d) Angled structure, bond order 2, p electrons localized on 2 carbons
3.24. Among these molecules, which has dipole moment equal to 0? H2, H2S, CO2, NH3,
H2O, SO2 (given that H (Z = 1), C (Z = 6), O (Z = 8), N (Z = 7) and S (Z = 16))
a) H2, H2S b) CO2, NH3 c) H2O, SO2 d) H2, CO2

3.25. Choose the correct statement using the MO method:

1) MO method states that inside the molecules, there are no atomic orbitals existed but
molecular orbitals.
2) Molecule is a consistent combination of atomic nuclei and electrons, the state of
electrons is characterized by molecular waves function.
3) Electrons of an atom are only exerted by the force of its nuclei.

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4) Molecular orbitals are formed by the linear combination of atomic orbitals, the number
of MO born is equal to the number of AO participated in the combination.
a)1,2 and 3 b) 1,2 and 4 c) 2 and 4 d) 1 and 2
3.26. Choose the incorrect statement about the MO method:
a) Electrons in the molecule are affected by all nuclei in that molecule.
b) Electrons are disposed in the molecule following the same rules as in the multi-
electron atoms (except Cleskovski rule)
c) Bonding MOs have higher energies than the initials AOs
d) Besides bonding and antibonding MOs, there are non-bonding MOs.
3.27. Based on MO theory, among these molecules H 2, H2- and H22-, which one has the
most stable bond? Which one is paramagnetic? Which one does not exist? (The
answer is followed the order of questions)
a) H2, H22-, H2- b) H2, H2-, H22-
c) H22-, H2-, H2 d) H2-, H2, H22-
3.28. Given that charge of the nucleus of Be, F, N and Li is alternately 4,9,7 and 3.
Which one does not exist in practical?
a) N2 b) Li2 c) Be2 d) F2
3.29. Choose the correct statement. Adding electrons into antibonding MOs results in:
a) Decreasing length and increasing energy of the bond
b) Increasing length and decreasing energy of the bond
c) Decreasing length and decreasing energy of the bond
d) Increasing length and increasing energy of the bond
3.30. Compare the bond order of N2, CO and CN-:
a) The bond order of CO is the highest
b) The bond order of CN- is the highest
c) The bond order of N2 is the highest
d) All are equal
3.31. Length of the bonds in NO, NO+ and NO- particles in the increasing order is:
a) NO < NO- < NO+ b) NO+ < NO < NO- c) NO- < NO < NO+ d) NO < NO+ < NO-
3.32. Choose the right case:
Stability of the bonds in NO, NO+, NO- particles in the increasing order is:
a) NO < NO+ < b) NO < NO- < NO+ c) NO- < NO < NO+ d) NO+ < NO < NO-
NO-
3.33. Based on MO theory, the bond order of CO, CN- and NO+ is alternately:
a) 1;2;3 b) equal to 3
c) 2;2,5;3 d) equal to 2
3.34. Given that C (Z=6) and N (Z=7). Electron configuration of �㔶ý 2 is: (z is the
bonding axis)
a) (s)2(s*)2(z)2(x,y)4 b) (s)2(s*)2 (x)2 (z)2(y)2

c) (s)2(s*)2 (x,y)4 (z )2 d) (s)2(s*)2 (x,y)4 (z )1(x*)1

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3.35. Choose the correct statement. Based on MO method, electron configuration of

BN molecule is: (z is the bonding axis)
a) (slk)2(s*)2(xlk)2(ylk)1(zlk)1 b) (slk)2(xlk)2 (s*)2 (ylk)2

c) (xlk)2(ylk)2(slk)2(s*)2 d) (slk)2(s*)2(zlk)2 (xlk)1(ylk)1

3.36. Choose the best statement:

a) The bond order of þ2 is smaller than the bond order of þ2+
b) The bonding energy of O2+ is greater than the bonding energy of O 2.
c) The bond of O2 is longer than the bond of O2+
d) All above are true

3.37. Arrange the Na +, Al3+, Cs+ and Mg2+ cations in the order of increasing
polarization:
a) Na+ < Cs+ < Mg2+ < Al3+ b) Cs+ < Na+ < Mg2+ < Al3+

c) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < Cs+ d) Mg2+ < Al3+ < Na+ < Cs+

3.38. Arrange the VCl3, VCl2, VCl4 and VCl5 compounds in the order of increasing
covalency in its bond:
a) VCl2 < VCl3 < VCl4 < VCl5 b) VCl5 < VCl4 < VCl3 < VCl2

c) VCl3 < VCl4 < VCl2 < VCl5 d) VCl4 < VCl2 < VCl3 < VCl5

3.39. Arrange the following molecules in the order of increasing the polarization of
negative ions:
1. NaF 2. NaCl 3. NaBr 4. NaI

a) NaF, NaBr, NaI, NaCl b) NaI, NaBr, NaCl, NaF

c) NaF, NaCl, NaBr, NaI d) NaF, NaCl, NaI, NaBr

3.40. Among these molecules: HF, NH3 and H2S, which has the hydrogen bond?
a) Only HF b) Only NH3 c) HF, NH3 d) All of three
3.41. Choose the right statement:
a) The bond between 2 nonmetals is always a covalent bond.
b) The bond between 2 metals is an ionic bond
c) The bonding between metals and nonmetals is always an ionic bond.
d) Compounds which have oxygen and nitrogen always have the hydrogen bond
3.42. Choose the correct statement:
a) Compounds which contain F and O always has hydrogen bond

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b) External hydrogen bond increases the boiling temperature of the compound.

c) Compound which has the hydrogen bond with water can always dissolve in water with
any proportion.
d) Hydrogen bond is formed only when the compound is solid.
3.43. According to the band theory, diamond is insulating because:
a) In the crystal of diamond, valence band is full of electrons, restricted band has E
higher than 3eV
b) Restricted band is located between valence band and conduction band of diamond
c) The bond between C atoms in the crystal of diamond is the stable covalent bond
d) The paired overlapping between the sp3 hybridized atomic orbitals of the C atoms
makes the valence band of diamond become saturation.

3.44. Choose the incorrect statement:

a) Solid I2 sublimate easily because I2 has a covalent lattice.
b) Sodium chloride is hard to melt because sodium chloride has an ionic lattice.
c) Diamond is hard to melt because diamond has a covalent lattice.
d) Copper is a good conductor because it has a metallic lattice.
3.45. Choose the correct statement:
a) Graphite is insulating because it is a nonmetal.
b) The crystal of sodium chloride is conducting because it contains ions.
c) Diamond is nonconducting because restricted band has the energy higher than 3eV
d) Semiconductors have the conduction band and valence band overlapping each other.
3.46. Among these molecules: CO2, SO2, NH3 and He, which is the most difficult to
liquefy?
a) He b) CO2 c) NH3 d) SO2
3.47. Arrange these molecules: NH3, H2S and H2O in the order of increasing the boiling
point:
a) H2S < H2O < NH3b) H2S < NH3 < H2O c) NH3 < H2S < H2Od) NH3 < H2O <
H2 S
3.48. Arrange these molecules: HCl, HBr, H2 and BaCl2 in the order of decreasing the
boiling point:
a) HCl > BaCl2 > HBr > H2 b)H2 > HCl > BaCl2 > HBr
c) HCl > HBr > BaCl2 > H2 d) BaCl2 > HBr > HCl > H2
3.49. Among these substances H2O, H2S, H2Se, H2Te (O, S, Se, Te have the electron
configuraton alternately 2s22p4, 3s23p4, 4s24p4, 5s25p4), the boiling point is:
a) Increasing from H2O to H2Te
b) Decreasing from H2O to H2Te
c) H2O > H2S < H2Se < H2Te (the boiling point of H2S is lowest)
d) H2O < H2S > H2Se > H2Te (the boiling point of H2S is highest)
3.50. Calcium chloride and cadmium chloride are ionic compounds. Ion Ca2+ (the
outermost electron shell is 3s23p6) and ion Cd2+ (the outermost electron shell is
4s24p6) have the same size. Choose the right statement:

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a) The melting point of two substances is approximately equal because they are made of
ions which have the same charge and the same size.
b) The melting point of CaCl2 is higher than CdCl2 because CaCl2 has the higher ionic
property.
c) The melting point of CaCl2 is lower than CdCl2 because CaCl2 is lighter than CdCl2.
d) The melting point of CaCl2 is lower than CdCl2 because Ca2+ is more polarized than
Cd2+.
3.51. Choose the correct statement:
a) SO2 dissolves in water more than CO2 because SO2 has the molecular weight greater
than CO2.
b) SO2 dissolves in water more than CO2 because SO2 has the dipole moment different
from 0, CO2 has the moment equal to 0.
c) SO2 and CO2 both hardly dissolve in water because both are covalent compounds, but
water can only dissolve ionic compounds.
d) SO2 và CO2 both easily dissolve in water because both contain the polarized bond.
3.52. Choose the correct statement:
a) Only ionic compounds dissolve in water.
b) Covalent compounds do not dissolve in water.
c) Compounds which have small lattice energy can hardly dissolve in water.
d) Covalent compounds which have small molecules and the hydrogen bond with water
dissolve easily in water.
3.53. Choose the incorrect statement:
a) Ethylamine (C2H5NH2) and ethyl alcohol dissolve in water because they can create the
hydrogen bond with water.
b) Toluene (C6H5CH3) hardly dissolves in water because it is a hydrocarbon.
c) C2H5-O-C2H5 dissolve more than C6H14 because it is polarized.
d) Compounds which can create the hydrogen bond with water dissolve in water with any
proportion.
3.54. Choose the correct statement:
Among the compounds at the form H 2X of these elements: O, S, Se, Te:
a) H2Te has the highest melting point because it has the highest molecular weight.
b) H2O has the highest melting point because it has the hydrogen bond.
c) They have the approximate melting point because they have similar molecular
structure.
d) Cannot compare because they have the different polarization.
3.55. Arrange these substances: C6H14, CH3-O-CH3 and C2H5OH in the order of
increasing the solubility in water:
a) CH3-O-CH3 < C6H14 < C2H5OH b) C6H14 < C2H5OH < CH3-O-CH3
c) C2H5OH < CH3-O-CH3 < C6H14 d) C6H14 < CH3-O-CH3 < C2H5OH

3.56. Among these substances: AlCl3, BCl3, KCl và MgCl2, which one has the most
covalent property? Which one has the most ionic property? (Given that Al (Z = 13), B
(Z= 5), K (Z = 19), Mg (Z = 12); the answer follows the order of questions)

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a) AlCl3 ; KCl b) BCl3 ; KCl c) KCl ; BCl3

d) MgCl2 ; AlCl3

3.57. In the following chemical bondings, which has the smallest bonding energy?
a) Ion b) Covalence c) Van der Walls d) Hydrogen

3.58. Choose the correct statement:

1) Covalent bonding is the strongest one so it can create the hardest compound like
diamond.

2) Van Der Walls bonding also exists inside a finite molecule (Ex: C2H5OH).

3) Covalent bonding is weaker than ionic bonding so all ionic bondings having the high
covalence is less durable and melting at the considerably low temperature. Ex: FeCl 2 has
the melting point 672oC, boiling temperature1026oC, where as FeCl3 has the melting
point 307,5oC and boiling temperature 316oC.

4)All types of chemical compound are formed from at least one of three types of strong
bonding, ionic, covalent and metallic bonding.

a) 1 and 4 b) 1, 2 and 4 c)3 and 4 d) 4

3.59. Among these substances H2, RbF, NaCl and NH3, which has the highest % of
ionic property, which has the smallest % of ionic property in bonding ?( results in
order of above ):
a) H2, RbF b) RbF, H2 c) NaCl, NH3 d) RbF, NH3

3.60. Select the incorrect statement:

a)Chemical oxygen number is the agreed quantity with the completely receiving
or giving covalent electron of atom hypothesis or be stimulated into the single condition.

b) The maximum covalency of an atom is equal to the valent obitan number

participating in hybridization.

c) Ionic bonding has unsaturated, indirection, polarize property.

d) The property of covalent bonding: direction, saturated, polarize or not.

3.61. Select the incorrect statement about ionic compound:

a) Having the high melting point.

b) Conducting electricity in crystal condition.

c) Dividing into ions when dissolved in water.

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d) conducting electricity in melting condition.

3.62. Which is the main bonding in CH3OH?

a) Ionic bonding. b) Covalent bonding. c)Hydrogen d) Metallic bonding.
bonding.

3.63. Select the incorrect answer:

a) NaCl has ionic bonding b) Besides ionic bonding, KCl also has
Van der Walls bonding
c) HCl has covalent bonding d) NH3 has external hydrogen bonding
3.64. Select the incorrect answer:
a) All hydrogen bonding and Van der Walls bonding are weak, internal.

b) Covalent bonding and ionic bonding have electricity nature.

c) Inter-molecules hydrogen bonding will increase the boiling temperature of

liquid.

d) Metallic bonding is the undetermined space one.

3.65. Among these 4 compounds: BaF2, CaCl2, CF4, HF, whose bond has the strongest
ionic property?
a) CaCl2 b) BaF2 c) CF4 d) HF

3.66. Among these covalent bonds: H-F, H-Br, H-I, H-Cl, which is the most polarized?
a) H-F b) H-I c) H-Cl d) H-Br

3.67. The outermost layer configuration of atom A is 2s 2 2p6. Select the wrong answer:
a) A is noble atom in atmosphere condition.
b) A is solid in normal condition.

c) A is in second cycle and VIII A subgroup.

d) The final atom in second cycle.

3.68. Select the correct statement:

1) Van der Walls interactive force between neutral molecules is explained by three
effects: direction effect, induction effect, diffusion effect.

2) Electronegativity is not an atomic constant number but it depends on many factors

such as valent condition, oxidative number of atom, components of compound and so on.
Hence, we must say that the electronegativity of one element is defined in specific
condition.

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3) Containing hydrogen bonding, water has a special structure, relatively spongy;

therefore ice water is lighter than water

a) 2 b) 1, 2 c) 1, 3 d) All are correct

3.69. In contrast to NaCl, LiI dissolve more in alcohol, less in water, has low melting
point. The reason is:
a) Bonding in LiI atom has much covalent property vice versa of bonding in NaCl
molecule has much ionic property.
b) The radius of Ion Li+ is smaller than ion Na+, whereas the radius of I- is larger than
ion Cl-.
c) The energy of LiI ' s crystal system is greater than the NaCl ' s one.
d) Both reason a and b are correct.

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CHAPTER 4. THERMAL EFFECT OF THE PROCESS

CHEMISTRY
4.1. Determine the enthalpies of formation burning 1 mole methane in this reaction
below:
CH4(g) + 2O2 (g) = CO2 (g) + 2H2O (l)

We know the standard enthalpies of formation of CH 4 (g), CO2 (g) and H2O (l) are,
respectively:

-74,85; -393,51; -285,84 ( kJ/mol).

a) –604,5 kJ b) 890.34 kJ c) –890,34 kJ d) 604,5 kJ

4.2. The amount of heat released of burning 3g metal Mg by O 2(g) that create MgO(s)
is 76 kJ in standard condition. The standard enthalpy of formation (kJ/mol) of
MgO(s): (Mg = 24g/mol)
a) +608kJ b) +304kJ c) –608kJ d) –304kJ

4.3. Follow these value of  in the similar condition of these reaction:

(1) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) = 2SO3(g) H = -196 kJ

(2) 2S(s) + 3O2(g) = 2SO3(g) H = -790 kJ

Let calculate the value  in the same condition of this reaction S(s) + O2(g) = SO2(g)

a) H = -594 kJ b) H = -297 kJ c) H = 594 kJ d) H = 297 kJ

4.4. Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation CH3OH liquid, we know that:
C (s) + O2 (g) = CO2 (g) Ho1 = -94 kcal/mol

H2 ½ + 1/2O2 (g) = H2O (l) Ho2 = -68,5 kcal/mol

CH3OH (l) + 1½ O2 (g) = CO2 (g) + 2H2O Ho3 = -171 kcal/mol

(l)

a) +60 kcal/mol b) –402 kcal/mol c) +402 kcal/mol d) –60 kcal/mol

4.5. Choose right answer. Burning coal by oxide, we have 33g of CO2, release 70,9
kcal in the standard condition. Therefore, the standard enthalpy of formation of
cacbondioxide is:
(kcal/mol).

a) -70,9 b) -94,5 c) 94,5 d) 68,6

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4.6. We know:
2NH3 (g) + 5/2O2 (g) → 2NO (g) + 3H2O (g)

of,298 (kJ/mol) -46,3 0 +90,4 -241,8

The enthalpy of formation of the above reaction is:

a) –452 kJ b) 452 kJ c) +406,8 kJ d) –406,8 kJ

4.7. With these 2 reactions:

(1) A + B = C + D 1 (2) E + F = C + D 2

We can establish a formula of computing a reaction A + B = E + F:

a) 3 – 1 - 2 b) 3 = 1 + 2 c) 3 – 2 - 1 d) 3 = -1 -2

4.8. Establishing a formula of computing an enthalpy of formation of reaction B → A

that using enthalpies of formation below:
A → C 1

D → C 2

B → D 3

a) 0 = 1 - 2 + 3 b) 0 = 3 + 2 - 1

c) 0 = 2 - 1 - 3 d) 0 = 1 + 2 + 3

4.9. Establishing a formula of computing an enthalpy of formation of reaction B → A

that using enthalpies of formation below:
A → C 1

C → D 2

B → D 3

a) 0 = 3 - 1 - 2 b) 0 = 3 + 2 - 1

c) 0 = 2 - 1 - 3 d) 0 = 1 + 2 + 3

4.10. In those enthalpies of formation (H) of reactions, the values of heat combustion
are:

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1) C (s) + 1/2O2 (g) = CO (g) o298 = -110,55 kJ

2) H2 (g) + 1/2O2 (g) = H2O (l) o273 = - 571,20 kJ

3) H2 (g) + 1/2O2 (g) = H2O (g) o298 = -237,84 kJ

4) C (s) + O2 (g) = CO2 (g) o298 = -393,50 kJ

a) 4 b) 2,4 c) 1,2,3,4 d) 2

4.11. Given that the standard enthalpies of formation of B2O3 (s), H2O (l),CH4 (s) and
C2H2 (g) in turn are: -1273,5 ; -285,8; -74,7 ; +2,28 (kJ/mol).The one that is the
easiest to be decomposed is:
a) H2O b) CH4 c) C2H2 d) B2O3

4.12. Choose right answer: In the standard condition, we have a reaction: ½ H2 (g) + ½
O2 (g) = H2O (l) release an amount of heat is 245,17kJ. Then we deduce that:
a) The standard heat of combustion of H 2 is –245,17kJ/mol.
b) The standard enthalpy of formation of water (liquid) is –245,17kJ/mol.
c) The enthalpy of reaction is –245,17kJ/mol.
d) All of the answers above are right.
4.13. The standard enthalpy of reaction is equal to:
a) The total enthalpies of products minuses the total enthalpies of reactants
b) The total heat of combustion of reactants minuses the total heat of combustion of
products
c) The total bonding energies of the reactants minuses the total bonding energies of
the products
d) All of the answers above are right.
4.14. The standard enthalpy of formation of CO2 is the enthalpy change of the reaction:
a) Cdiamond + O2 (g) = CO2 (g) at 0oC, specific pressures of O2 and CO2 are equal
to 1 atm

b) Cgraphite + O2 (g) = CO2 (g) at 25oC, specific pressures of O2 and CO2 are
equal to 1 atm

c) Cgraphite + O2 (g) = CO2 (g) at 0oC, the total pressure is 1atm

d) Cgraphite + O2 (g) = CO2 (g) at 25oC, the total pressure is 1atm

4.15. For reaction:N2 (g) + O2 (g) = 2NO (g) with o298,react = +180,8 kJ.
At standard condition at 25oC, we receive 1mol of CO from the reaction above is:

a) The released heat is 180,8 kJ. b) The absorbed heat is 180,8 kJ.

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c) The released heat is 90,4 kJ. d) The absorbed heat is 90,4 kJ.

4.16. Choose the right answer: the strong exothermic reaction is:
a) It is not spontaneous at any values of temperature.
b) It is spontaneous at the low temperature
c) It is spontaneous at the high temperature if the change of entropies is positive
d) It is spontaneous at the high temperature if the change of entropies is negative
4.17. Choose the right answer.The magnitude o298 of one reaction is:
a) Depend on the way of writing the stoichiometric coefficient of reaction equation
b) Depend on the temperature when the reaction occurs
c) Depend on the process of the reaction
d) All of them are wrong
4.18. One reaction has H = -200 kJ.mol-1.Base on this information we can conclude
that
a) Release b) Fast rate c) It is d) a, b, c are right
heat spontaneous

4.19. Choose the right answer:

a) The enthalpy of formation of one reaction measured in an isobaric condition is
equal to the change of enthalpy,the ehthalpy of formation of one reaction
measured in an isochor condition is equal the change of internal energy network
b) Hreact> 0 when reaction releases heat
c) Ureact< 0 when reaction absorbes heat
d) The enthalpy of formation of one reaction does not depend on the
condition30diopathressue), states of reactants and products.
4.20. Choose the right answer:
a)  of one chemical process when network transfers from the first state ( I) to the
second state by many ways has the characteristics:
b) Follow the way of carrying out the process
c) Does not follow the way of carrying out the process
d) We can know about the direction of happening of the process at many different
temperatures
e) B and C are right
4.21. Which factors do not affect to the state function:
1. Pressure (p) 2. Enthalpy 3. Work (A) 4. Heat (Q) 5.
(H) Temperature
(t)

a) 1, 2 & 3 b) 2, 3 & 4 c) 3 & 4 d) 1, 2, 3 & 4

4.22. Choose the right definition of the Hess’s law:

a) Heat effect of chemical process just depends on the essences and states of the
reactants and products, not depend on the path of the process
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b) Heat effect of isobaric or isochor of the chemical process just depends on the
essences of the reactants and products, not depend on the path of the process.
c) Heat effect of isobaric of the process just depends on the essences and states of the
products,reactants,not depend on the path of the process.
d) Heat effect of isochor or isobaric of the chemical process just depends on the
essences and states of the reactants and products, not depend on the path of the
process.
4.23. For reaction:Fe 2O3(s) + 3CO(g) = 2Fe(s) + 3CO2(g) at the given condition has
298 = -6.8 kcal. Compute the U298 (kcal) of the reaction: (R  2.10-3 kcal/mol.K)
a) +6.8 b) –8.6 c) –6.8 d) –5.0

4.24. Determine the difference between the heat effect of isobaric and isochor of the
reaction below at 25oC:
C2H5OH (l) + 3O2 (g) = 2CO2(g) + 3H2O (l) (R = 8.314 J/mol.K)

a) 4539J b) 2270J c) 1085J d) 2478J

4.25. In isochor condition, the exothermic reaction is:

a) Work A < 0 b) U < 0 c) H < 0 d) U > 0

4.26. In isobaric condition, at a determined temperature, the reaction:

A(s) + 2B(g) = C(g) + 2D(g) released heat.Therefore:

a) U < H b) U = H c) U > H d) Do not enough data to
compare

4.27. A system absorbs an amount of energy in a form of heat is 200kJ. An internal

energy of system increases 250kJ. On the process above, the value of system’s work
is:
a) 350 kJ, system yields work b) 50 kJ, system receive work

c) 50 kJ, system yields work d) -50 kJ, system receive work

4.28. The change of internal energy U when a systems turn from the first state (I) to
the second state (II) by many different ways has a property:
a) Unchanged because work A and heat Q are constant.
b) Change because work A and heat Q change on the path.
c) Unchanged and equal to Q-A with the conservative law.
d) Incomputable because each way has the different Q and A.
4.29. One system increases internal energy (U2 > U1), when it turns from 1st state to 2nd
state in isobaric condition.In this process, system releases heat ( < 0), so system:
a) Yield work b) Receive work

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c) Does not exchange work d) Unpredictable

4.30. Choose the right answer:

For the reaction: NO (g) + ½ O 2 (g) = NO2 (g)

The reaction happens in a hermetic vessel with a con32diopavolumn,after that, the

reaction is turned back to the old temperature.The process is:

a) Isobaric,isothermal b) Isochor

c) Isochor,isothermal d) Isobaric,isochor

4.31. In an isochor condition, an exothermal reaction is the reaction that:

a) Work A < 0 b) U < 0 c) H < 0 d) U > 0

4.32. In a cycle, system receives a work which is 2 kcal.Find a work that system
exchanges:
a) -2 kcal b) +4 kcal c) +2 kcal d) 0

4.33. Choose a wrong answer:

a) The 1st principle of thermodynamic is essentially a conservative law
b) Heat only transfers from the entity which has higher temperature to the entity
which has lower temperature
c) Heat effect of reaction is an amount of heat which is released or absorbed of that
reaction
d) The change of enthalpy of one process does not change by temperature
4.34. Consider a reaction: NO½ + 1/2O2(g) → NO2(g) o298= -7,4 kcal. The reaction
happens in a hermetic vessel with a con32diopavolumn, then the reaction is turned
back to the first temperature. The system is:
a) Isolated b) Hermetic system c) Hermetic d) Isolated system and
system and homogeneous system and homogeneous
heterogeneous

4.35. Choose wrong answer:

a) Isolated system does not exchange substances, energies in a form of heat and work
with the surroundings
b) Hermetic system does not exchange substances and work, but can exchange heat
with the surroudings
c) Thermalportion system does not exchange substances and heat, but can exchange
work with the surroudings
d) Non isolated system is limitless, can exchange substances and work with the
surroudings.

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CHAPTER 5. SECOND LAW OF THERMODYNAMICS

5.1. Choose the false statement:
The Second law of thermodynamics can be stated as follow:
a) Heat cannot spontaneously flow from a colder location to a hotter location.
b) Work can be completely transferred into heat and vice versa.
c) There cannot be a process where heat is taken from an object to be transferred into
work without revising.
d) Cannot have the permanent engine type 2.
5.2. Choose the correct statement:
a) ΔS depend on the distance.
b) The property of Entropy is intensity; its value does not depend on the quantity.
c) In the natural processes, we always have: dSóQ/T ( <== with reversible process,
<>= with irreversible process)
d) Entropy represents the chaotic level of the particles in a system. The smaller the
chaotic levels of the particles are, the greater the value of the entropy is.
5.3. Choose the correct statement:
1) Entropy of a pure compound in a complete status, with an absolute of zero temperature
equivalents to zero.
2) At absolute 0�㕜 C, ΔS in many processes of changing the statuses of complete crystal
are all equivalent to zero.
3) In open system, all natural processes accompanies with the increasing of entropy.
4) Entropy of a liquid substance may be smaller than entropy of a solid substance.
a) 1 b) 1,2 c) 1,2,3 d) 1,2,3,4
5.4. A substance with a high temperature status:
a) Entropy grows larger b) Entropy grows smaller.
c) constant entropy d) Amongst a, b, c, correct with a specific
substance.
5.5. With the similar condition, which of the following substance has the highest
entropy?
substance (1): O substance (2): substance (3): O3
(k) O2(k) (k)
a) substance 1 b) substance 2 c) substance 3 d) unknown
5.6. The modification of entropy from status A to status B with 5 different paths (see
diagram) has the following characteristics:

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a) S are similar for 5 lines b) Each line has a different S

c) a, b, c is incorrect d) S of line 3 is the smallest because it is the
shortest
5.7. The process transforms solid status into liquid status:
a) H < 0, S > 0 b) H > 0, S > 0 c) H < 0, S < 0 d) H > 0, S <
0
5.8. Choose the correct sentence. Reaction: 2A (g) + B (l) = 3C (s) + D (g):
a) S = 0 b) S > 0 c) S < 0 d) Unknown
5.9. Among reactions:
N2 + O2 = 2NO (1)
2CH4 = C2H2 + 2H2 (2)
2SO2 + O2 = 2SO3 (3)
All the substances are gas. Arrange S in increasing value:
a) 1,2,3 b) 2,1,3 c) 3,1,2 d) 2,3,1
5.10. Among reaction:
N2 (g) + O2 (g) = 2NO (g) (1)
KClO4 (s) = KCl (s) + 2O2 (g) (2)
C2H2 (g) + 2H2 (g) = C2H6 (g) (3)
Choose the reaction has the largest S and the smallest S
a) 1, 2 b) 2, 3 c) 2, 3 d) 3, 1
5.11. Determine the process has S < 0:
a) O2 (g) → 2O (g) b) 2CH4(g) + 3O2(g) → 2CO(g) + 4H2O(g)
c) NH4Cl(s) → NH3(g) + HCl(g) d) N2(kg25oC,1atm) → N2 (g,0oC,1atm)
5.12. With 3 reactions:
H2O (l) → H2O (g) (1) S1
2Cl (g) → Cl2 (g) (2) S2
C2H2 (g) + H2 (g) → C2H4 (g) (3) S3
Choose the correct statement about S1 , S2 and S3 :

a) S1 > 0 , S2 < 0 , S3 < 0. b) S1 < 0 , S2 < 0 , S3 > 0.

c) All of S are positive. d) All of S are negative.

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5.13. Choose the correct statement about entropy of the below substances:
1) SoH 2O (l)> SoH 2O (g) 2) SoMgO(s)<SoBaO(s) 3) SoC3H8(g) > SoCH4(g)
4) SoFe(s)< So H2(g) 5) SoCa(s) >SoC3H 8(g) 6) SoS(s)< Sos (l)
a) 1,2,3,4 b) 2,3,4,6 c) 2,3,6 d)1,2,3,5,6
0 0
5.14. Calculate S (J/mol.K) of the reaction at 25 C: SO2 (g) + ½ O2 (g) = SO3 (g) with
the standard entropy at 250 C of SO2 (g), O2 (g) and SO3 (g) are 248, 205 and 257
(J/mol.K), respectively.
a) –93.5 b) 93.5 c) 196 d) –196

5.15. Which the following factors are state functions?

1. Pressure (p) 2. Heat capacity at a 3. Heat (Q) 4. Entropi (S)
constant pressure (G)

a) 1, 2 & 4 b) 2, 3 & 4 c) 3 & 4 d) 1, 2, 3 & 4

5.16. Choose the correct answer.

A reaction in a given condition G < 0 is:

a) idiopathically occurrent in the b) able to occur idiopathically in the real.

real.

c) in equilibrium. d) not occurrent.

5.17. The reaction cannot occur for all the temperature values if the temperature at
which the reaction have:
a)  < 0 ; S > 0 b)  > 0 ; S > 0 c)  < 0 ; S < 0 d)  > 0 ; S < 0

5.18. Choose the most adequate answer.

The reaction can occur indiopathically in case:

a)  < 0 ; S > 0 b)  > 0 ; S > 0 c)  < 0 ; S < 0 d)  > 0 ; S < 0

 > 0 ; S > 0  < 0 ; S < 0  > 0 ; S > 0  < 0 ; S > 0

 > 0 ; S < 0  < 0 ; S > 0  > 0 ; S < 0  < 0 ; S < 0

5.19. Choose the correct answer. The endothermic reaction:

a) cannot occur for all the temperature values.

b) can occur at the low temperatures.

c) can occur at the high temperatures if entropy fluctuation is positive.

d) can occur at the high temperatures if entropy fluctuation is negative.

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5.20. In identified condition, the strong endothermic reaction A → B can conduct to the
last. It can be concluded that:
a) S > 0 and the temperature which conduct the reaction must be high enough.

b) The reaction B → A in the same condition as answer a has G > 0.

c) The reaction B → A can conduct at the low temperatures and has S < 0.

d) All the answers are correct.

5.21. The reaction 3O2(g) → 2O3(g) in standard conditions has H° 298 = 284.4 kJ,
S°298 = -139.8 J/mol.K. Given that entanpi fluctuation and entropi fluctuation of the
reaction are little variation with the temperature. Which the answer is in accordance
with the process of reaction?
a) At the high temperature, the reaction occurs idiopathically.

b) At the low temperature, the reaction occurs idiopathically.

c) The reaction occurs for all the temperature values.

d) The reaction does not occur for all the temperature values.

5.22. Choose the correct answer.

Given that the general reaction aA + bB → cC + dD has °298 < 0.

a) The reaction occurs for all the temperature values.

b) At the high temperature, the direction of reaction still depends on S.

c) The reaction cannot occur at the normal temperature.

d) The reaction just occurs at the high temperature.

5.23. Choose the correct answer.

Given that at 0°C, melting process of ice in atmospheric pressure has G = 0. At 383K,
melting process of ice in this pressure has G which is:

a) G > 0 b) G = 0

c) G < 0 d) not determined due to other factors

5.24. Choose the correct answer.

Given that at -51°C, melting process of H2Te in atmospheric pressure has G = 0. At
200K, melting process of H2Te in this pressure has G which is:

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a) G > 0 b) G =0

c) G < 0 d) not determined due to other factors

5.25. Calculate the change S when 1 mol of steam condense to water at 100°C, 1 atm.
Given that evaporation heat of water at 100°C is 549 cal/g.
a) S = -26.5 cal/mol.K b) S = 26.5 cal/mol.K

c) S = 1.44 cal/mol.K d) S = -1.44 cal/mol.K

5.26. Choose the most suitable answer.

Giving reaction 2Mg(s) + CO2(g) → 2MgO(s) + Cgraphit. This reaction has standard
thermal effect H°298 = -822.7 kJ. In terms of chemical thermodynamics, this reaction
can: (given that S°298 (J/mol.K) của Mg(s), CO2(g), MgO(s) and Cgraphit are 33, 214, 27
and 6, respectively)

a) occur at high reaction. b) occur idiopathically for all the temperatures.

c) The temperature does not contribute d) not occur idiopathically at the high
much. temperatures.

5.27. Choose the most adequate answer.

The reaction can occur idiopathically when:

1) H < 0 (very negative), S < 0, to 2) H < 0, S > 0.

(normal).

3) H > 0 (very high), S > 0, to (normal). 4) H > 0, S > 0, to (high).

a) 1 and 2 are b) 1, 2, 3, 4 are true c) 1, 2 and 4 are true d) 2, 4 are true

true

5.28. Most reactions which occur at high temperatures have:

a) negative entropy fluctuation. b) positive entropy fluctuation.

c) negative enthanpy fluctuation. d) positive enthanpy

fluctuation.

5.29. Choose the correct answers:

In terms of chemical thermodynamics:

1) Most reaction diopathiccur completely idipathic when G° < -40 kJ.

2) Reactions cannot occur idipathically in real when G° > 40 kJ.

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3) Reactions cannot occur idipathically in real when G° > 0.

4) Most reactions have standard isobaric potential in the range -40 kJ < G° < 40 kJ
which occur idiopathically reversible in real.

a) 1,2,4 b) 3,4 c) 1,3,4 d) 1,2,3,4

5.30. Choose the wrong answer.

a) The reaction which has G° < 0 can occur idopathically.

b) The reaction which has G° > 0 cannot occur idiopathically.

c) The reaction which emits much heat can occur at the normal temperature.

d) The reaction which have entapi fluctuation and entropi fluctuation are positive
can occur at high temperatures.

5.31. Choose the wrong answer.

a) The reaction which emits much heat can occur idiopathically at the normal
temperature.

b) The reaction which absorbs much heat just can occur idiopathically at the high
temperature.

c) The reaction which almost does not emit or absorb heat but increase entropi can
occur idopathically at the normal temperature.

d) The reaction which absorbs much heat but increase entropi can occur idiopathically
at the normal temperatures.

5.32. To predict reaction which can occur completely idiopathic at the normal
temperatures, we can rely on sign of below quantities:
1) G° < 0 2) G° < -40 kJ 3) H° < 0 with ° is high

a) 2 b) 1, 2, 3 c) 2, 3 d) 1, 3

5.33. Choose the incorrect statement:

Standards may indicate probable reaction ca occur spontaneously with thermodynamic is:

a) Ho< 0, So> 0 b) Enforcement against external pressure A > 0

c) G0< 0 d) Equilibrium constant K greater than 1

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5.34. Reaction CaCO3 (s) → CaO (s) + CO2 (g) is strongly enthodermic. Review mark
o, So, Go of this reaction at 25 °C.
a) Ho< 0; So< 0 ; Go< 0 b) Ho< 0; So> 0 ; Go> 0

c) Ho> 0; So> 0 ; Go< 0 d) Ho> 0; So> 0 ; Go> 0

5.35. Choose right case:

Base on mark of Go298 of 2 following reactions:

PbO2 (s) + Pb (s) = 2PbO (s) Go298< 0

SnO2 (s) + Sn (s) = 2SnO (s) Go298> 0

Oxidation state of sustainable positive for metals Lead(Pb) and Zinc(Zn) is:

a) Lead(+2), Zinc(+2)
b) Lead(+4), Zinc(+2)
c) Lead(+2), Zinc(+4)
d) Lead(+4), Zinc(+4)
5.36. Reaction H2O2 (l) → H2O (l) + ½ O2 (g) exothermal, so this reaction:
a) H < 0; S > 0 ; G > 0 cannot occur spontaneously at room temperature

b) H < 0; S > 0 ; G < 0 can occur spontaneously at room temperature.

c) H > 0; S < 0 ; G < 0 can occur spontaneously at room temperature.

d) H > 0; S > 0 ; G > 0 cannot occur spontaneously at room temperature.

5.37. Choose the incorrect statement:

1) It can be concluded immediately that the reaction does not occur spontaneously when
Go of this reaction is greater than 0.

2) It can be concluded immediately that the reaction is not spontaneous when Go of the
reaction is greater than 0 at the conditions under consideration.

3) A spontaneous system always increases entropy.

4) Only reactions with Gorxn < 0 occur spontaneously in fact.

a) 1,3 and 4 b) 1 and 3 c) 1 and 4 d) 3

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CHAPTER 6. CHEMICAL BALANCE AND OCCUR TO

EXTENT OF CHEMICAL PROCESS
6.1 Basic concepts, Effect of law volume in the balance, The equilibrium constant

6.1. Choose the right statement:

For one-dimensional reaction, reaction rate is:

a) Not change over time

b) Decreases with time until equal a non-zero constant.
c) Increase with time
d) Decrease with time until zero
6.2. Reversible reaction is:
a) reaction can occur according to the following direction or reverse direction depending
on reaction conditions.
b) reaction occur simultaneously in 2 opposite directions in the same condition

c) reaction occurs until no reagents

d) statement a and b are correct

6.3. Choose the right statement about balance system

a) balancing system is the ratio of constituents do not change when we change other
conditions

b) balancing system is system have temperature and pressure determine

c) system in equilibrium is the system has the status parameter values (to, P, C…) do not
change over time.

d) There are not any right statements.

6.4. Which of the following conclusions is true when there is a reversible reaction with
Go< 0:
a) equilibrium constant of the reaction is greater than 0

b) equilibrium constant of the reaction is greater than 1

c) equilibrium constant of the reaction is less than 1

d) equilibrium constant of the reaction is less than 0

6.5. Giving reaction: aA (l) + bB (g) ⇌ cC (g) + dD(l), with equilibrium constants,
choose the right statement:
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a) G = Go + RTlnKc, when G = 0 so Go = -RTlnKc

b) equilibrium constant is calculated by the expression:

CCc ô CDd
KC =
C Aa ô CBb
with CA, CB, CC and CD is the concentration at the time in reviewed.

c) reaction always have KP = KC(RT)n with n =nproducts -nreactants of all substances not
depend on their survival status.

d) all three statements above are wrong.

6.6. Assuming that the system is in equilibrium, which of the following reactions is
considered complete?
a) FeO (s) + CO (g) = Fe (s) + CO2 (g) Keq = 0.403

b) 2C (s) + O2 (g) = 2CO (g) Keq = 1x1016

c) 2 Cl2 (g) + 2 H2O (g) = 4 HCl (g) + O2 (g) Keq = 1.88 x 10-15

d) CH3CH2CH2CH3 (g) = CH3CH(CH3)2 (g) Keq = 2.5

6.7. A reversible reaction occurring within a solution A + B ⇌ C + D. The

equilibrium constant of the given conditions is 200. The solution has the following
concentration CA = CB = 10-3M, CC = CD = 0.01M. The state of the system at these
conditions is:
a) Shifting forwards.

b) Shifting backwards.

c) At equilibrium.

d) Cannot be redicted.

6.8. Reaction CaCO3 (s) ⇌ CaO (s) + CO2 (g) has the equilibrium constant of Kp =
PCO2. The gaseous pressures of CaCO3, CaO are not present in the expression Kp
because:
a) The gaseous pressures of CaCO3 and CaO are equal to 1 atm.

b) The gaseous pressure of solid is negligible.

c)The gaseous pressure of solid does not depend on temperature.

d) The gaseous pressures of CaCO 3 and CaO are constant at specific temperatures.
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6.9. The reaction CO2 (g) + H2 (g) ⇌ CO (g) + H2O (g) is given. When this
reaction reaches the equilibrium, the amounts of reactants and products are 0g4 mol
CO2, 0g4 mol H2, 0g8 mol CO and 0.8 mol H2O in a closed container with the volume
of 1 liter. Kc of the above reaction is:
a) 8 b) 6 c) 4 d) 2

6.10. Choose the correct statement: the reaction A (aq) + B (aq) ⇌ C(aq) + D (aq) is
given
The initial concentration of A, B, C, D are 1.5 mol/l. When equilibrium is reached, the
concentration of C is 2 mol/l. The equilibrium constant Kc of this system is:

a) Kc = 1.5 b) Kc = 2.0 c) Kc = 0.25 d) Kc = 4

6.11. Choose the correct statement:

The reaction H2 (k) + ½ O2 (k) H2O (k) has Go298 = -54.64 kcal.

Calculate Kp at standard conditions. Given that R = 1.987 cal/mol.K.

a) Kp = 40.1 b) Kp = 1040.1 c) Kp = 10-40.1 d) Kp = -40.1

6.12. At specific temperature, the reaction: S (s) + O2 (g) ⇌ SO2 (g) has the equilibrium
constant KC = 4.2x1052. Calculae the equilibrium constant K’C of the reaction SO2
(g) ⇌ S (s) + O2 (g) at the same temperature.
a) 2.38x1053 b) 2.38x10-53 c) 4.2x10-52 d) 4.2x10-54

6.2 Factors affect to the equilibrium constant of the system.

6.13. Choose the correct statement:

1) Changing the external pressure does not change the equilibrium of the reaction
that has the total mol of gaseous reactants equals the total mol of gaseous products.

2) When temperature increases, the equilibrium of any reaction will shift the side of
endothermic reaction.

3) When pressure decreases, the equilibrium of any reaction will shift to the side that
has more gaseous molecules.

4) When a system reaches its equilibrium, the amount of addition substance will not
affect the equilibrium.

a) 1, 2 and3 b) 1 c) 2 and 3 1, 3 and4

6.14. Choose the correct statement:

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1) When a system is at equilibrium, if we change one factor (pressure, temperature,

concentration), equilibrium will shift to the side that resist these changes.

2) When temperature increases, equilibrium will shift to the side of exothermic reaction;
when temperature decreases, equilibrium will shift to the side of endothermic reaction.

3) Equilibrium constant of a reaction is a constant quantity at aspecific temperature.

4) When an amount is added (reactants or products) to the equilibrium state, equilibrium

will shift to the side that reduces the amount of the substance added.

a) 1 and 3 b) 1, 3 and 4 c) 1 and 4 d) 1 and 2

6.15. Choose the correct statement:

Reaction A (g) B (g) + C (g) at 300oC has Kp = 11.5, at 500oC has Kp = 33

So the above reaction is:

a) adiabatic. b) endothermic. c) isothermal. d)exothermic.

6.16. A spontaneous reaction that has G0< 0. Assuming that the enthalpy change and
entropy change do not depend on temperature, when temperature increases
equilibrium constant Kp will:
a) increase b) decrease c) not change d) cannot be concluded

6.17. Which side will the equilibrium of the reaction H2 (g) + Cl2 (g) ⇌ 2HCl (g)
shift toif the pressure of the system increases?
a) Forwards b)Backwards c) Will not shift. d) Cannot be
concluded.

6.18. Given the equilibrium CO2 (g) + H2 (g) CO (g) + H2O (g)
Find the equilibrium constant Kc knowing that when equilibrium is reached 0.4mol
CO2; 0.4 mol H2; 0.8 mol CO and 0.8 mol H2O are obtained in a 1 liter flask. If the
volume of the system is compressed, how will the equilibrium shift?

a) Kc = 8 ; forwards b) Kc = 8 ; backwards

c) Kc = 4 ; forwards d) Kc = 4 ; unchange

6.19. Examine the reaction: CH3COOH + C2H5OH ⇌ CH3COOC2H5 + H2O Kc= 4

The equilibrium constant of the hydrolysis reaction of CH3COOC2H5 is:

a) K’C = 1/4 b) K’C = 1/2 c) K’C = KC d) K’C = -KC

6.20. Choose the best solution:

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Given a reaction :

N2 (g) + O2 (g) 2NO (g) H þ 0.

To maximize the amount of NO we need to:

a) Increase pressure and decrease b) Increase temperature

temperature

c) Increase pressure and temperature d) Decrease pressure

6.21. Given the reaction:

2SO2(g) + O2gk) 2SO3(g) have < 0

To obtain more SO3, the most ideal solution is to:

1. Decrease temperature. 2. Increase pressure. 3. Add O2.

a) Solution 1only b) Solution 1 and 2 c) Three of the above d) Solution 1 and 3

only solutions only

6.22. Choose the correct answer:

Which factor will increase the efficient of the reaction:

CaCO3(s) CaO (s) + CO2 (g), > 0

a) Temperature b) Pressure c) Temperature d) Concentration of

decreases increases increases CO2increases

6.23. Reaction N2(g) + O2(g) = 2NO(g), > 0 Are at equilibrium state reaction
efficiency will increase when applying the following measures:
1) Use a catalyst. 2) Use pressure.

3) Increase temperature. 4) Reduce pressure of the reaction.

a) 1 & 2 b) 1 & 3 c) 1, 3 & 4 d) 3

6.24. Select the correct sentence:

Review system equilibrium CO (g) + Cl2 (g) COCl2 (g),< 0

Changes in any balance below lead to diversion services under the forward direction:

a) Increase in b) Reduce the volume of the reaction vial system by

temperature pressure

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c) Decreased the d) Increased concentration COCl2

pressure
6.25. Decomposition reaction of ester distribution: acid ester + water acid +
alcohol
To increase reaction efficiency (balance transfer services under the forward direction), we
can use any of the 3 measures following measures:

1. Use more water

2. decomposition in the base environment

3. alcohol:

a) Be used only measures 1 b) Be used only measures 2

c) Be used only measures 3 d) Be used only measures 4

6.26. Reactions:
(1) N2 (g) + O2 (g) 2NO (g) o> 0

(2) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g) o< 0

(3) MgCO3 (s) MgO (s) + CO2 (g) o> 0

What should reaction with the use of high temperature and low pressure to balance
transfer services under the forward direction.

a) Reaction (1)

b) Reaction (2)

c) Reaction (3)

d) Reaction (1)& (2)

6.27. Are the reactions below in equilibrium state at 25 OC.

N2 (g) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2 NO (g) H0þ 0. (1)

N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2 NH3 (g) H0ü 0. (2)

MgCO3 (s) ⇌ CO2 (g) + MgO (s) H0þ 0. (3)

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I2 (g) + H2(g) ⇌ 2HI (g) H0ü 0 (4)

Any equilibrium of the reaction according to the most strongly shifted forward
direction while simultaneously lowering the temperature and increasing the pressure of
the general:

a) Reaction 2 b) Reaction 1 c) Reaction 3 d) Reaction 4

6.28. Select the correct case:

View the balance: 2NO2(g) N2O4(g) o298= -14kcal

(Brown) (colorless)

In four cases below, the color of NO2 will lose:

a) Heat to 373K. b) Cooled to 273K c) increased d) keep at

pressure 298K.

6.29. Choose the correct statement:

The exothermicreactionbelow has reachedequilibrium state:

2 A(g) + B(g) ⇌ 4D (g)

To Shift the balance of the reactionaccording to createadditionalproduct trends, some of

the followingmeasures have been used:

1) Increase 2) Add chemicals D 3) Decreased reaction volume

temperture

4) Decrease 5) Add chemicalsA 6) Increased reaction volume

tenperture

a) 1, 3, 5 b) 4,5,6 c) 2,3 d) container volume

reduction

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CHAPTER 7. REACTION RATE AND CHEMICAL

MECHANISM
7.1. Choose the correct answer. For reaction: 2A (g) + B(g) → C (g)
reaction rate expressions is:

a) v = k.CA2.CB

b) v = k. Cc

c) v = k.CAm.CBn, with m and n are those values are from the empirical
finding.

d) v = k.CAm.CBn, with m and n are those values find the equation of the
reaction is from.

7.2. Dinitrogen oxide reaction dispersants have general diagram:

2N2O (g) → 2N2 (g) + O2 (g) v = k[N2O]

People thought that the two-step reaction experienced Primary:

Step 1: N2O → N2 + O Step 2: N2O + O → N2 + O2

So, below any expressed orally consistent with data on:

a) Dinitrogen oxide reaction dispersants have motor learning by

showing significant 2.

b) Step 1 is the number of molecules may form molecules

c) Oxygen atoms are catalysts of the reaction.

d) Step 2 is the step determines the reaction rate.

7.3. Choose the wrong statement:

For reaction aA + bB = cC + dD Where v = kCAmCBn.

The order of the reaction:

1. By (n + m) 2. Rarely greater than 3 3. By (c+d) – (a+b)

4. fractions can be 5. By a + b

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a) 2 & 3 b) 3 & 4 c) 3 & 5 d) 2, 3 & 5

7.4. Select the correct statement:

Reaction 2A + B → 2C expressions have the reaction speed is v = k.CA2.CB, therefore:

a) Reaction other 3. b) Reaction on the reaction is complex.

c) The order of the reaction is calculated directly d) a& c are correct.

billion coefficient equal quantity of substances
participating in the reaction and by 3.

7.5. Reaction 2A + 2B + C → D + E have the following characteristics:

* [A], [B] constant, [C] double, reaction rate v constant.

* [A], [C] constant, [B] double, reaction rate v double.

* [A], [B] are double, reaction rate v increase 8 times.

All three experiments at the same temperature

Expression of the reaction rate v according to the concentration of A, B, C are:

a) v = k[A][B][C] b) v = k[A][B]2 c) v = k[A]2[B][C] d) v = k[A]2[B]

7.6. Given the reaction: CH3Br (aq) + OH- (aq) → CH3OH (aq) + Br – (aq). Known
that: reaction rate increased 2 times as [OH-] increased to 2 times ([CH3Br] constant).
reaction rate increased 3 times as [CH 3Br] increased to 3 times ([OH-] constant).

Write the expression of reaction rate:

a) v = k[CH3Br] b) v = k[CH3Br][OH -] c) v = k[OH -] d) v = k[CH3Br]2[OH -]

7.7. Giving reaction with A + 2B = C firs position with [A] and first position with
[B] is conducted at constant temperature
a) If [A], [B], and [C] are doubled if the reaction velocity increased 8 times and the
response is simple reaction

b) If [A] and [B] are doubled if the reaction velocity increased 4 times and the response is
simple reaction

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c) If [A] double and triple [B], reaction rate increased 6 times and this reaction is
complex reaction

d) If [A] and [B] triple, reaction rate increased 6 times and this reaction is simple reaction

7.8. Giving reaction: 2NO (g) + O2 (g) = 2NO2 (g)

Empirical expression of the reaction rate isv = d[NO2]/dt = k [NO]2[O2].

It can be concluded that

a) Primary reaction to O2and secondary reaction to NO.

b) Level of reaction is calculated directly from the stoichiometry coefficient of the
material
c) Reaction have general third level
d) Reaction rate above is the average velocity of the reaction.
Correct conclusion is:

a) 1, 2 and 3 b) 1,3 and 4 c) 1 and 3 d) 1,2,3 and 4

7.9. Choose wrong answer, Reaction rate constant is:

a) not depend on the catalyst b) not depend on the concentration of reactants

c) depend on temperature c) depends on the activation energy of the reactants

7.10. Select the incorrect answer:

The rate constant of the reaction nA + mB = AnBm

a) depends on the concentration of CA and CB.

b) is constant during the isothermal reaction.

c) is the rate of reaction when CA = CB = 1 mol.

d) changes when there is catalyst present.

7.11. In a reversible reaction:

a) Exothermic reaction has E*t < E*n b) Exothermic reaction has E*t ó E*n

c) Endothermic reaction has E*t < E*n d) Endothermic reaction hasE*t ó

E*n

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7.12. The reaction rate of homogeneous gas increases when concentration increases is
because:
a) Increases the frequency of collisions b) Increases the entropy of the
between particles. reaction.

d) Reduces the activation energy of the c) Increases the rate constant of the
reaction. reaction.

7.13. Choose the correct statement:

The main reason the reaction rate increases when temperature increases is:

a) Increases the frequency of collisions between particles.

b) Reduces the activation energy of the reaction.

c) Increases the entropy of the system.

d) Increase the number of collisions between particles that have higher energy than
the activation energy.

7.14. An increase in temperature has an effect on a reversible reaction:

a) just increase the rate of the endothermic direction.

b) just increase the rate of the exothermic direction.

c) Increases the rates in both the endothermic and exothermic directions, causing the
system to quickly reach a new equilibrium state.

d) Equally increase the rates of both the endothermic and exothermic directions, so the
equilibrium state does not change.

7.15. As the temperature goes up, the reaction rate increases because a rise in
temperature:
a) causes G < 0.

b) decreases the activation energy .

c) mainly increases the number of intermolecular collisions.

d) increases the energy of the particles in the system.

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7.16. How does a catalyst affect the equilibrium of an exothermic reaction?

a) Make the reaction quickly reach the equilibrium.

b) increases the energy of the particles in the system.

c) Make such a reaction happen completely.

d) Increases the yield of the forward reaction.

7.17. How do catalysts affect the equilibrium state of a reaction?

a) Do not affect the equilibrium state.

b) Shift the equilibrium in the direction of the reverse reaction.

c) Shift the equilibrium in the direction of the forward reaction.

d) Increases the equilibrium constant of the reaction.

7.18. Does Ho of the reaction depend on the catalyst?

a) Yes, because the catalyst is involved in the reaction.

b) No, because the catalyst is only involved in the intermediate phase of the reaction and
is recovered after the reaction. Products and reactants remain the same as without the
catalyst.

c) Yes, because the catalyst reduces the required temperature for the reaction to occur.

d) Yes, because the catalyst reduces the activation energy of the reaction.

7.19. Choose the correct properties of the catalyst.

A catalyst speeds up a chemical reaction by the following properties:

1) Causes the G of the reaction more negative.

2) Increases the reaction rate of the reaction by lowering its activation energy.

3) Increases the rate of a reaction by increasing the velocity of the particles.

4) Changes the G of the reaction from positive to negative.

a) 1, 2, and 3 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 and 4 d) 2

7.20. Choose the incorrect statement about a catalyst:

a) Does not change the thermodynamic properties of the reaction.

b) Only has catalytic effects with a determined reaction.

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c) Reduces the activation energy of the reaction.

d) Changes the equilibrium constant of the reaction.

7.21. Choose the incorrect statement:

The reaction rate is faster when:

a) The activation energy of the reaction is greater.

b) The activation entropy is greater.

c) The number of effective collisions between reactant molecules is higher.

d) The reaction temperature is greater.

7.22. Choose the correct statement

The reaction rate of a heterogeneous reaction:

a) Increases with an increase of the surface area.

b) Increases with stirring for all reactions.

c) Determines only by the chemical interactions of the reactants themselves.

c) Depend on the surface area and not on the reactant concentration.

7.23. Choose the correct statements. The dissociation rate of a solid metal in an acidic
solution will:
1) Decrease with decreasing reaction temperature.

2) Increases with increasing metal particle size.

3) Decreases with decreasing reaction pressure.

4) Increase with increasing acidity.

a) 1, 2, and 4 b) 1, 3, and 4 c) 1, 2, and 3 d) 1 and 4

7.24. Choose the most correct and complete answer:

There are some reactions with G < 0 but in reality the reaction still does not
occur. So, which of the following methods can be used to make the reaction happen:

1. Use catalyst 2. Increase temperature

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3. Increase concentration of 4. Crush solid reactants

reactants

a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) 1, 2, and 4 d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

7.25. Choose the most complete answer.

To increase the rate of heterophase reactions involving solids, one of the following
methods can be used:

1/ Increase temperature. 2/ Use catalyst.

3/ Increase concentration of reactants. 4/ Reduce the concentration of

reaction products on the surface of
5/ Crush solid reactants.
solid reactants.

a) All methods. b) 1, 2, 3, 5.

c) 1, 2, 3. d) 1, 2 3, 4.

7.26. The reaction CO (g) + Cl2 (g) → COCl2 (g) is a simple reaction. If increase the
concentration of CO from 0.1 M to 0.4 M and concentration of Cl2 from 0.3 M to 0.9
M, how does affect to the rate of reaction?
a) Increase 3 times b) Increase 4 times c) Increase 7 times d) Increase 12
times

7.27. A reaction ends after 3 hours at 20oC. Which temperature does the reaction end
after 20 min? Given that the temperature coefficient of the reaction is 3.
a) at 30oC b) at 40oC c) at 50oC d) at 60oC

7.28. At 100°C, a reaction was terminated after 3 h. The temperature coefficient of the
reaction is 3. When the reaction temperature is increased to 120 oC, the reaction time
will be:
a) 20 min. b) 60 min. c) 9 hours. d) 3 hours.

7.29. Reversible reaction A2 (g) + B2 (g) ⇌ 2AB (g)

There are temperature coefficients  of the forward and reverse reactions are 2 and 3,
respectively. Which direction does the equilibrium shift when the temperature is
increased and from that deduce the sign of Ho of the forward reaction?

a) Reverse b) Reverse c) Forward d) Forward

direction, H0 < 0 direction, H0 > 0 direction, H0 < 0 direction, H0 >
0

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CHAPTER 8. SOLUTION
Definition of solution, concentration, solubility, and equivalent mass

8.1. M is the molar mass of KMnO4. The equivalent mass of KMnO4 is:
a) M/1 b) M/3 c) M/5 d) Depends on the reaction

8.2. In the reaction: Al2(SO4)3 + 2NaOH = Na 2SO4 + 2[Al(OH)2]2SO4

The equivalent masses of Al2(SO4)3 and NaOH are: (Given that the molar masses of
Al2(SO4)3 and NaOH are 342g and 40g, respectively)

a) 342g ; 40g b) 171g ; 40g c) 57g ; 20g d) 114g; 40g

8.3. In the reaction: 2MnO2 + O2 + 4KOH = 2K2MnO4 + 2H2O

The equivalent masses of MnO2 and O2 are: (Given that the molar masses of MnO2 and
O2 are 87g and 32g, respectively)

a) 43.5g; 16g b) 87g ; 16g c) 43.5g ; 8g d) 21.75g ; 8g

8.4. In the reaction:

2KAl(SO4)2.24H2O + 4NaOH = 2Na2SO4 + [Al(OH)2]2SO4 + K2SO4 + 48H2O

The equivalent masses of KAl(SO4)2.24H2O and NaOH are: (Given that the molar
masses of KAl(SO4)2.24H2O and NaOH are 690g and 40g, respectively)

a) 690g ; 40g b) 345g ; 40g c) 172,5g ; 20g d) 230g; 40g

8.5. In the reaction: MnO2 + 4HClconcentrated, hot = MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O

The equivalent masses of MnO2 and HCl are: (Given that the molar masses of MnO2
and HCl are 87g and 36.5g, respectively)

a) 43.5g; 36.5g b) 21.75g; 18.25g c) 87g; 35.5g d) 21.75g; 35.5g

8.6. Choose the correct statement. The solubility of a substance in water is:
1) The maximum number of milliliters of a slightly soluble gas that can
disolve in 100g of water at the given conditions.

2) The maximum number of grams of solute dissolves in 100ml of water at

the given conditions.

3) The maximum number of moles of sparingly soluble solid electrolyte

dissolves in 1 liter of water at the given conditions.

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a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1, 2, 3

8.7. Choose the correct statement:

1) The solubility of most sparingly soluble substances decreases as the temperature
of the solution increases.

2) The solubility of a sparingly soluble substance depends only on its nature and
the temperature.

3) The solubility of any sparingly soluble salt is always increased by the presence
of a soluble salt that contains a common ion.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) There is
no correct
statement.

8.8. Choose the incorrect statements:

1) A dilute solution is unsaturated because its concentration of solute is low.

2) A solution is the homogenous system.

3) The composition of a compound is deterministic, but the composition of a solution

can vary.

4) A saturated solution is the concentrated solution.

a) 1, 3 b) 2, 4 c) 2, 3 d) 1, 4

8.9. Solution X has a percent concentration C%, molar concentration CM, density d
(g/ml), molar mass of X is M, s is the solubility in g/100g H2O. The incorrect
equation is:
a) s = 100. C%/(100- C%) b) CM = 10 C%.d/M

c) C% = CM. M/(10.d) d) C% = 100.s / (100-s)

8.10. Choose the correct statements:

1) The molar fraction concentration is the number of mass fractions (in grams) of the
solute or solvent in a solution.

2) The equivalent concentration or normality of a solution is defined as the number of

moles of solute in 1 liter of solution.

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3) The equivalent concentration of a substance in a solution can be lower than its molar
concentration.

4) Molality is the measure of the number of moles of solute in one liter of solution.

5) It is necessary to know the density of the solution when converting the percent
concentration to the molar or equivalent concentration.

6) The density of a substance is the mass (in grams) of 1 cm3 of that substance.

a) 1, 2, 5, 6 b) 1, 5, 6 c) 5, 6 d) 3, 5, 6

8.11. Choose the correct answer:

To prepare 100 ml of 10-4 N H2SO4 solution, the volume of 2.10-2 N H2SO4 solution must
be taken as:

a) 0.5 ml b) 1 ml c) 2 ml d) 0.25 ml

8.12. Calculate the volume of solution (liters) of 4M HCl required to make 1 liter of
0.5M HCl solution.
a) 0.125 lit b) 0.0125 lit c) 0.875 lit d) 12.5 lit

Laws of dilute solution

8.13. Choose the correct statement.

a) A liquid boils at the temperature at which the saturated vapor pressure of the
liquid is equal to the surrounding atmospheric pressure.

b) When a substance A is dissolved in liquid B, the saturated vapor pressure of B

increases.

c) Water always boils at 100oC.

d) The boiling point of saltwater boils is lower than that of pure water.

8.14. Choose the incorrect statement.

a) At the same temperature, the saturated vapor pressure of the solvent in solution is
inversely related to the solute concentration.

b) The relative decrease in the saturated vapor pressure of the solvent in solution is equal
to the molecular concentration of the solute, i.e., the ratio of the numbers of solute and
solvent molecules (or, what is the same thing, the ratio of the numbers of gram-
molecules).

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c) The crystallization temperature of the solvent in solution is inversely related to the

molar concentration of the solution.

d) The saturated vapor pressure of a molecularly dilute solution is directly proportional to

the molecular concentration of the solute.

8.15. Choose the incorrect statement.

a) The boiling point is defined as the temperature at which the saturated vapor
pressure of a liquid is equal to the surrounding atmospheric pressure.

b) At the same external pressure, the boiling point of a solution containing a

nonvolatile solute is always higher than that of the pure solvent.

c) The freezing point of the pure solvent is always lower than that of solutions.

d) The saturated vapor pressure of the solvent in the solution is always lower than
that of the pure solvent at any particular temperature.

8.16. Choose the correct statement.

a) The relative decrease in the saturated vapor pressure of the solvent in solution is
equal to the mole fraction of the solvent in the solution.

b) At the same temperature, the saturated vapor pressure of the solvent in the
solution is always lower than that of the pure solvent.

c) The saturated vapor pressure of the solvent in the solution is directly proportional
to the mole fraction of the solute in the solution.

d) The saturated vapor pressure of a molecularly dilute solution is independent of the

nature of the solute.

8.17. Choose the correct answer. The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at
which:
a) The saturated vapor pressure of the liquid is equal to the surrounding atmospheric
pressure.

b) The saturated vapor pressure of the liquid is 760 mmHg.

c) The saturated vapor pressure of the liquid is higher than 760 mmHg.

d) The saturated vapor pressure of the liquid is lower than 760 mmHg.

8.18. Choose the correct description about the factor k in the formula Raoult’s 2nd law,
i.e., ∆T = kCm:

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a) k is a constant that depends on the solute concentration, temperature, and the

solvent’s nature.

b) k is a constant that depends on temperature and the solvent’s nature.

c) k is a constant that depends only on the solvent’s nature.

d) k is a constant that depends on both the solute’s and solvent’s natures.

8.19. Choose the correct answer. At a constant atmospheric pressure, the concentration
of a dilute solution, which has a nonvolatile solute and does not form a solid solution
with the solvent, is greater, the solution has:
1) a higher boiling temperature.

2) a lower boiling temperature.

3) a lower freezing temperature.

a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1 and 3

8.20. Dissolve 5 grams of each substance, i.e., C6H12O6, C12H22O11 and C3H5(OH)3, in
500 grams of water. According to the increasing boiling point of the solution, which
order is correct: (given C = 12, O = 16 and H = 1) (the above substances do not
evaporate)
a) C12H22O11 < C6H12O6 < C3H5(OH)3 b) Unable to arrange

c) C3H5(OH)3 < C6H12O6 < C12H22O11 d) C12H22O11 < C3H5(OH)3< C6H12O6

8.21. Calculate the saturated vapor pressure of water in a solution containing 5g of

solute dissolved in 100g of water at 25°C. Given that pure water has a saturated vapor
pressure of 23.76mmHg at this temperature and the molecular mass of the solute is
62.5g.

a) 23,4mmHg b) 0,34mmHg c) 22,6mmHg d) 19,0mmHg

8.22. At 25oC, the saturated vapor pressure of pure water is 23.76mmHg. When 2.7mol
of glycerin is dissolved in 100mol of H 2O at the above temperature, the drop in
saturated vapor pressure of the solution is equal to:

a) 23,13mmHg b) 0,64mmHg c) 0,62mmHg d)23,10mmHg

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8.23. Compare the boiling points of solutions of CH3OH (t1), CH3CHO (t2) and
C2H5OH (t3), which contain B grams of solute in 1000g of water: (given that these
substances also evaporate with water)
a) t3 > t2 > t1 b) t1 > t2 > t3 c) t2 > t1 > t3 d) Not enough data to
compare.

8.24. An aqueous solution of a non-electrolyte solute boils at 373.52 K. The molality

concentration of this solution is: ( Ks = 0.52 oC/m):
a) 0,01 b) 1,0 c) 10 d) 0,1

8.25. In 200g of solvent contains A g of glucose with molecular mass M. The molal
freezing point depression constant of the solvent is kf. The equation describing the
change in freezing point from pure solvent to solution is:

a) Tf = 5kf.(A/M) b) Tf = kf.(A/M) c) Tf = 1/5kf.(A/M) d) Tf = kf.A

8.26. An aqueous solution of a non-electrolyte volatile solute boils at 100.26°C. The

molality concentration of this solution is: (given that the molal boiling point elevation
constant of water is kb = 0.52)
a) 0,75 b) 1 c) 0,5 d) Not enough data to
calculate

8.27. Dissolve 0.4g of an organic compound X in 25g of acetic acid. The solution begins
to solidify at 16.15 oC. Given that pure acetic acid freezes at 16.60 oC and the
compound X forms a solid solution with acetic acid. The molal freezing point
depression constant of acetic acid is 3.6 oC/m. Calculate the molecular mass of X.
a) 228g b) 256g c) 128g d) Not enough data to
calculate

8.28. Choose the correct statements:

1) The osmotic pressure of a solution is equal to the pressure exerted by the solute if it is
an ideal gas, occupying a volume equal to the volume of the solution at the same
temperature.

2) The osmotic pressure is proportional to the temperature of the solution.

3) The osmotic pressure of an electrolyte and a non-electrolyte solution at the same

temperature and at the same molar concentration is different.

4) Van’t Hoff’s law, i.e., for osmotic pressure, is correct for solutions at any
concentration.

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5) The osmotic pressure is expressed as the gram-equivalent concentration of the

solution.

a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 3, 5 c) All are correct d) Only statement 4

is wrong

8.29. The mathematical expression of Raoult's 2nd law has the form:
a) t = k.Cm (Cm is molality b) t = k.CM (CM is molar
concentration). concentration)

c) t = kCN (CN is equivalent mass d) t = kC (C is percentage

concentration) concentration)

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CHAPTER 9. DISSOCIATION OF SOLUTION

Dissociation of solution, degree of dissociation (), dissociation constant (K)

9.1. An average electrolyte at 25oC has the degree of dissociation  with:

a) 0.03<<0.3 at a solution concentration of 0.1 N

b) 0.03<<0.3 at a solution concentration of 1 N

c) 0.03<<0.3 at a solution concentration of 0,1M

d) 0.03<<0.3 at a solution concentration of 1M

9.2. Choose the correct statements:

1) Only ionic compounds dissociate when they dissolve in water.

2) The dissociation constant is not changed when varying the concentration.

3) The dissociation constant is a factor that depends on the natures of the electrolyte and
solvent, and the temperature.

4) The dissociation constant is an equilibrium constant that obeys the Guldberg-Waage’s

law of mass action.

a) 2, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 4 c) 1, 3, 4 d) All are correct.

9.3. The dissociation ability in aqueous solution occurs in compounds with nonpolar
covalent bonds (1), strongly polar covalent (2), ionic (3), and weakly polar covalent
bonds (4), changes in the order:
a) (1) < (2) < (3) < (4) b) (1) > (2) > (3) > (4)

c) (1) < (2) < 4) < (3) d) (1) < (4) < (2) < (3)

9.4. In 0.1 M HF solution, 8% HF is dissociated. Which value is the dissociation

constant of HF?
a) 7.0x10-4 b) 7.0x10-2 c) 6.4x10-2 d) 6.4x10-4

9.5. Choose the correct statements:

1) The degree of dissociation () increases with increase in concentration of the
electrolyte.

2) The degree of dissociation () cannot be more than 1.

3) The degree of dissociation increases with increase in temperature.

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4) A weak electrolyte is a substance that has  < 0.03.

a) All are correct b)1, 2, 3 c) 3, 4 d) 2, 3

9.6. Choose the correct comment. The degree of dissociation () of an electrolyte:
a) Increases with increase in temperature and decrease in concentration.

b) Increases with decrease in temperature and increase in concentration.

c) Is a constant at a given temperature.

d) Is independent with concentration.

9.7. Choose the incorrect statement.

a) The degree of dissociation () of a weak electrolyte becomes larger as its
dissociation constant is greater.

b) If a weak electrolyte at a concentration of 0.01M has a degree of dissociation of

0.01, its degree of dissociation will be greater than 0.01 at a concentration of
0.001M.

c) The degree of dissociation of a weak electrolyte is always less than 1.

d) When a strong acid is added to a solution of a weak acid, the degree of

dissociation of the weak acid increases.

9.8. The dissociation solution AB2 has the isotonic coefficient i = 1.84. The degree of
dissociation  of this substance in solution is:
a) 0.44 b) 0.84 c) 0.42 d) 0.28

9.9. Dissolve 155 mg of a monofunctional organic base (M = 31) in 50 ml of water, the

resulting solution has a pH = 10. The degree of dissociation of this base is:
a) 5% b) 0.1% c) 1% d) 0.5%

9.10. Give a solution with 0.5 mole of KNO 3 in 500g of water. Under the same pressure
conditions, the freezing point of the above solution is 3.01oC lower than that of water.
The molal freezing point depression constant of water is 1.86 oC/m. The apparent
degree of dissociation of KNO3 in the above solution is:
a) 52.0% b) 61.8% c) 5.2% d) 6.2%

9.11. Choose the correct statement.

Under the same conditions, the electrolyte solution compared with the molecular
solution has:

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a) The saturated vapor pressure is lower and the boiling point is higher.

b) The saturated vapor pressure is higher and the boiling point is higher.

c) The freezing point is higher, the saturation vapor pressure is higher.

d) The saturation vapor pressure is lower, the freezing point is higher.

9.12. Dissolve 0.585 grams of NaCl in 1 liter of H2O. The osmotic pressure of this
solution at 25°C is: (Given that MNaCl = 58.5 g/mol, R = 0.082 lit.atm/mol. K, and  =
1)
a) 0.488 atm b) 0.244 atm c) 0.041 atm d) 0.0205 atm

9.13. Choose the incorrect statement:

1) Only strong electrolytes need to use activity (a) to replace concentration in the

equation of the law of mass action.

2) As diluting the solution, the activity coefficient (f) increases.

3) Weak electrolyte solutions always have an activity coefficient (f) of 1.

a) 1, 2, 3 b) 1, 2 c) 2, 3 d) 1, 3

9.14. Choose the incorrect statement:

a) The activity of a substance is its apparent molar concentration in solution.

b) The ionic activity depends on the ionic strength of the solution.

c) The dissociation constant varies with the concentration of the ion.

d) The concentration of the ion in solution is usually less than its activity.

9.15. Choose the correct answer. Aqueous solutions of C6H12O6, NaCl, and MgCl2,
Na3PO4 are dilute. Given that they have the same molality concentration and the
degree of dissociation of NaCl, MgCl2 and Na3PO4 are all equal to 1. According to
the order of the above solutions, how is the drop in saturated vapor pressure of water?
a) Equal b) Discrease c) Increase d) There are no
rules.

9.16. Which arrangement of 0.01 M solutions of the substances given below is

consistent with decreasing osmotic pressure? Salts are completely saturated.
a) CaCl2 – NaCl – CH3COOH – C6H12O6 b) CH3COOH – NaCl– C6H12O6 -
CaCl2

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c) C6H12O6 - CH3COOH– NaCl - CaCl2 d) CaCl2 - CH3COOH– C6H12O6 –

NaCl

9.17. Choose correct statement.

The dissolution process of KOH crystals in water occurs with the entropy changes in
phase transition (Strans) and solvation (Ssol) as follows:

a) Strans > 0, Ssol < 0 b) Strans < 0, Ssol < 0

c) Strans < 0, Ssol > 0 d) Strans > 0, Ssol > 0

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CHAPTER 10. ION BALANCE OF ACID-BASE

Acid-base theories

10.1. Choose the most correct and complete statement. According to Brønsted–Lowry
theory (also called proton theory of acids and bases), amphoteric substances in the
following substances are: NH4+, CO32-, HCO3-, H2O, HCl:
a) HCO3- and CO32- b) HCO3- and H2O c) HCO3-, H2O and d) NH4+ and
HCl HCl

10.2. Choose the correct statement:

Give the following substances: CH3COOH, H2PO4-, NH4+. According to proton theory,
the conjugate acid-base pairs derived from them are:

a) CH3COOH2+/CH3COOH; CH3COOH/CH3COO-; H3PO4/H2PO4- ; H2PO4-/PO43- ;

NH4+/NH3;

b) CH3COOH2+/CH3COO-; CH3COOH/CH3COO-; H3PO4/H2PO4- ; H2PO4-/HPO42- ;

NH4+/NH3;

c) CH3COOH2+/CH3COOH; CH3COOH/CH3COO-; H3PO4/H2PO4- ; H2PO4-/HPO42- ;

NH52+/NH4+

d) CH3COOH2+/CH3COOH; CH3COOH/CH3COO-; H3PO4/H2PO4- ; H2PO4-/HPO42-;

NH4+/NH3;

10.3. Choose the right answers. Which one is wrong?

1/ Conjugated base of a strong acid is a weak base, and vice versa.
2/ For conjugate acid-base pairs NH +4 /NH 3 in water solution have: K NH 4+ .K NH 3 = K a , K a
is an ion multiplication of water.
3/ Dissociation constant of NH 3 in water solution is 1.8 10-5, therefore K NH 4+ = 5.62x10-10
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) None
10.4. According to the proton affinity of NH 3 and HCl solvens, what are the properties
of CH3COOH in these solvens?
a) Base property in HCl, acid property in b) Base property in both solvens
NH 3
c) Base property in NH 3 , acid property in d) Acid property in both solvens
HCl
10.5. Giving these reactions:
1) MgCl2 + 6H2O = MgCl2.6H2O
2) BH3 + NaH = Na[BH4]
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3) Ni2+ + 4NH3 = [Ni(NH3)4]2+

The acids and bases in these reactions above base on the electron theory (Lewis Theory)
are:
a) acid: H2O, BH3 and NiCl2 ; base: MgCl2, NaH and NH3
b) acid: MgCl2, BH3 and NiCl2 ; base: H2O, NaH and NH3
c) acid: MgCl2, NaH and NiCl2 ; base: H2O, BH3 and NH3
d) acid: MgCl2, BH3 and NH3 ; base H2O, NaH and NiCl2

Acid, base dissociation constant, solubility, multiple of ion in water, pH of solution.

10.6. Choose the right answers:
1) According to proton theory, dissociation constant of acid, base has the same
property with hydrolysis constant.
2) Dissolubility and dissociation have the same property.
3) According to proton theory, dissociation and hydrolysis have the same property.
4) Dissociation constant of acid, dissociation of base, and multiple of tính tan are
balance constant based on Guldberg – Waage’s law.
a) 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 4 c) 1, 3, 4 d) All are right
10.7. Choose the right statements:
1) The weaker the acid is, the higher the pK a is.
2) A weak base solution have smaller pH when the pK a is bigger.
3) The higher the base is, the higher the pK a is.
4) Between pKa and pKb of H2PO4-, there is a relationship presented by the equation:
pKa + pKb = -lgKn
a) 1, 3, 4 b) 2,3 c) 1, 2, 4 d) 1, 2
10.8. When dissolving H3PO4 into water, H+; HPO42-; H2PO4-; PO43- ions exist in the
solution. These molecules are arranged in the order:
a) PO43- < HPO42- < H2PO4- < H+ b) H+ < PO43- < HPO42- < H2PO4-
+ - 2- 3-
c) H < H2PO4 < HPO4 < PO4 d) H+ < H2PO4- < HPO42- < PO43-

10.9. The amount of H+ ion in 1 liter solution, which the pOH=13, is:
a) 6.023x1010 b) 6.023x1022 c) 6.023x1023 d) 6.023x1013

10.10. Which solution does it have an unchanged of pH when diluting 2 times (with f =1)
a) solution consists of NH4OH and NaOH b) solution consists of HCl and NaCl
c) solution consists of CH3COOH and d) solution consists of NH4OH and NH4Cl
HCl

10.11. Choose the right statement:

How does the pH of water change when adding 0,01 mol NaOH into 100 liter water?
a) increase 3 times b) increase 4 times c) decrease 4 times d) decrease 3 times
unit unit unit unit

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10.12. Giving 4 solutions have:

1) HCl & NaCl 2) CH3COOH & 3) NH4Cl & NH3 4) CH3COOH & NH3
CH3COONa
In these 4 solutions, which are used to be a buffer solution are
a) 1, 2, 3 b) 2, 3 c) 1, 3, 4 d) 2, 3, 4

10.13. Which one is wrong?

1) Buffer solution has a certain and nearly unchanged pH value when diluting the
solution.
2) Base is created from a weak base solution and saline of it with a weak acid.
3)
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) None
Acid is created from a weak acid solutin and saline of it with a strong base.

10.14. Giving 4 solutions:

1) CH3COOH + CH3COONa mixed 1:1
2) CH3COOH + NaOH mixed base on mol propotion 1:1
3) CH3COOH + NaOH mixed base on mol propotion 2:1
4) HCl + NH3 mixed base on mol propotion 1:1
In these 4 solutions, which solutions are used to be buffer solutions?
a) 1, 3 and 4 b) 1 and 3 c) all of them d) 1

10.15. Giving 4 solutions:

1) CH3COOH + CH3COONa mixed base on mol propotion 1: 1

2) HCl + NH3 mixed base on mol propotion 0,5: 1
3) CH3COOH + NaOH mixed base on mol propotion 2: 0,1
4) CH3COOH + NaOH mixed base on mol propotion 1: 2
In these 4 solutions, which solutions are used to be buffer solutions?
a) 1, 3 and 4 b) 1 and 3 c) 1, 2 d) 1, 2 and 4
10.16. Which solution does the pH is almost unchanged when diluting 2 times by water?

1. CH3COONH4 2. HCl & NaCl 3. NH4Cl & NH3 4. CH3COONa &

CH3COOH
a) 3 b) 1, 3, 4 c) 2, 3, 4 d) 2, 3

10.17. Choose the right statement:

Acid CH 3 COOH has pK a =4.75. To have buffer system axetat having pH = 4.75 needs:
1) Mix (V/2) cm3 CH3COOH 0.1M + V cm3 CH3COONa 0.05M
2) Mix V cm3 CH3COOH 0.1M + V cm3 CH3COONa 0.1M
3) Mix 2V cm3 CH3COOH 0.1M + V cm3 CH3COONa 0.2M
a) 2 b) 1,2, 3 c) 1, 3 d) 1,2
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10.18. pH property of solution has NH 4OH 0.3 M and NH4Cl 0.1M

(Kb of NH4OH: 1.8x10-5):
a) 9.26 b) 4.74 c) 4.26 d) 9.73

10.19. CH3COOH 0,1N solution has dissociation measure at  = 0.01. Therefore, given
that the acid solution has the pH:
a) 13 b) 1 c) 3 d) 11
10.20. What is pKa of HA acid, if the pH mole of HA acid 0.15N solution is 2.8?
a) 4.78 b) 3.42 c) 4.58 d) 2.33
10.21. What is pKa of HA acid, if the pH mole of HA acid 0.0015N solution is 2.9?
a) 2.90 b) 2.30 c) 2.98 d) 2.18
10.22. Calculate the pH of boric acid 0.1M solution if pKa1, pKa2 and pKa3 in turn are
9.24; 12.74 and 13.80, respectively.
a) 5.00 b) 5.08 c) 5.12 d) 6.77
10.23. What is the pH of the final solution when 50ml of 0.1N NaOH is added to 50ml of
0.1N HF. Given that the dissociation constant of HF acid is 1x10-3,18.
a) 8.1 b) 5.9 c) 6.1 d) 7.9
10.24. What is the pH of the final solution if 50ml of 0.1N NaOH is disolved into 50ml of
0.2N HF. Knew that the dissociation constant of HF acid is 1x10-3,18.
a) 3.18 b) 2.88 c) 3.48 d) 2.24
10.25. Knew that the dissociation constant of NH4OH base is 1x10-4.75. Pour 50ml of
0.1N HCl into 80ml of 0.1N NH4OH, calculate the pH of the final solution?
a) 4.55 b) 9.45 c) 4.75 d) 9.25
10.26. Calculate the pH in the solution of these 2 following conditions:
1) Pour 50ml of 0.1N CH3COOH into 50ml of 0.1N NaOH
2) Pour 50ml of 0.15N CH3COOH into 50ml of 0.1N NaOH
a) (1) 10.23 ; (2) 5.06 b) (1) 8.88 ; (2) 4.46
c) (1) 8.73 ; (2) 5.06 d) (1) 8,73 ; (2) 4.46
10.27. Rearrange the order of the solutions below in ascending of pH: H2SO4, CH3COOH,
HCl, Na2CO3. Note: these solutions have same molar concentration.
a)H2SO4 < HCl < CH3COOH < Na2CO3 b)Na2CO3 < CH3COOH < HCl = H2SO4
c)H2SO4 = HCl < CH3COOH < Na2CO3 d)Na2CO3 < CH3COOH < HCl < H2SO4

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CHAPTER 11. ION BALANCE OF SPARINGLY

SOLUBLE ELECTROLYTE
11.1. Compare the solubility (S) of Ag2CrO4 and CuI at the same temperature, given
that they are both slightly soluble and have the same solubility:
a) SAg2CrO4 > SCuI b) SAg2CrO4 = SCuI
c) SAg2CrO4 < SCuI d) SAg2CrO4 << SCuI
11.2. Choose the correct statement.
Assume that the solubility of Ag2CrO4 and CuI both are T = 1x10-11.96. Therefore,
a) [Ag+] = [CrO42-] > [Cu+] = [I-] b) [Ag+] > [CrO42-] = [Cu+] = [I-]
c) Can not compare d) [Ag+] > [CrO42-] > [Cu+] = [I-]
11.3. 50ml of 1x10-4M Ca(NO3)2 solution is mixed with 50ml of 2x10-4M SbF3 solution.
Calculate the product [Ca 2+] [F-]2. Is CaF2 soluble? Given that the solubility of CaF2
is T = 1x10-10.4.
a) 1x10-10.74, no precipitation b) 1x10-9.84, precipitation happens
-11.34
c) 1x10 , no precipitation d) 1x10-80, no precipitation
11.4. Adding NO3- ion into AgCl solution:
a) Increase the solubility of AgCl b) The solubility of AgCl unchanged
c) Decrease the solubility of AgCl d) All three cases can all be occurred
11.5. Choose the correct statement.
Slowly pour 0,1M (NH4)2SO4 solution into 1 litter of solution consists 0,0001 ion gram
Ba2+ and 1 ion gram Sr2+.
a) BaSO4 precipitates first b) SrSO4 precipitates first
c) Both precipitations will appear at the same
d) No precipitation
Knowing the pT of BaSO4 and SrSO4 in turn are 9.97 and 6.49; respectively
11.6. Mix these following solutions:
1) 100ml of 10-4M AgNO3 solution and 100ml of 10-5M HCl solution
2) 100ml of 10-4M AgNO3 solution and 100ml of 10-4M NaCl solution
3) 100ml of 10-4M AgNO3 solution and 100ml of 10-6M HCl solution
Which mixture will create AgCl? Given that the solubility of AgCl is T = 10 -9.6
a)Only mixture (1) b) Only mixture (2)
c)Mixture (1) and (2) d) Mixture (1), (2) and (3)
11.7. NaOH is gradually added into the 0,02M Cu(NO 3)2 solution until Cu(OH)2 forms.
Known that the solubility of Cu(OH)2 is 2x10-20. Hence, the pH value at which the
precipitation starts forming is:
a) 9 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
11.8. Choose the correct value: Given that the solubility of Fe(OH) 3 at 25oC is 1x10-37.6.
Precipitation will start forming within the 0,1M FeCl 3 solution when the pH of the
solution reaches:
a) 1.8 b) >1.8 c) <1.8 d) >12.2
11.9. In which solutions, BaCO3 will desolve the most? BaCl2, Na2CO3, NaCl or pure
water?

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a) BaCl2 b) NaCl c) Na2CO3 d) H2O

11.10. Which case corresponds to an unsaturated solution of an difficultly dissolved
electrolyte AmBn?
a) [An+]m[Bm-]n < TAmBn b) [An+]m[Bm-]n = TAmBn
c) [An+]m[Bm-]n > TAmBn [ d) [An+][Bm-] > TAmBn

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CHAPTER 12. ION EXCHANGE REACTION AND ITS

EQUILIBRIUM CONSTANT
12.1. Choose the correct answer.
Mixing the same bortion of below acid solutions and base solutions, which pair will
create a solution with neutral or regarded as neutral?
1. KOH + H2SO4 2. NaOH + CH3COOH 3. NH3 + CH3COOH
4. NH3 + HCl 5. NaOH + NaHCO3 6. Ba(OH)2 + HCl
a) 1,3,6 b) 1,3,5 c) 1,6 d) 1,3,5,6
12.2. Select the false statement:
1) In one solution, strong acid and strong base can coexist
2) Ion exchange reaction occurs when forming substance or substances dissociation little
less solute
3) Ion exchange reactions occur with greater speed
4) Thermal effects of neutralization reactions between strong acids and strong bases may
vary depending on the type of acids and bases used
a) 1 b) 3 c) 1,3 & 4 d) 1& 3
12.3. Giving the ion exchange reation below:
NH4Cl + Na2S + H2O ⇌ NH3.H2O + NaHS + NaCl
Determine the equilibrium constant of the reaction:
a)1x10-4.76 b) 1x10-11.98 c) 1x1011.98 d) 1x104.76
Note: The dissociation constants of the H 2S acid in turn are 1x10-7.2 and 1x10-14,
respectively; dissociation constant of NH3.H2O is 1x10-4.76;
12.4. Calculate the equilibrium constant of the reaction:
2NaH2PO4 + 3Ca(CH3COO)2 ⇌ Ca3(PO4)2 + 2NaCH3COO + 4CH3COOH
a)1x10-9.51 b) 1x109.51 c) 1x109.98 d) 1x10-9.98
Note: The pH of Ca3(PO4)2 is 29; pK2, pK3 of H3PO4 are 7.21 and 12.28, respectively.
12.5. Calculate the equilibrium constant of the ion exchange reaction below:
Na2[Ni(CN)4] + H2S NiS + 2HCN + 2NaCN
a) 1x10-14.78 b) 1x1014.78 c) 1x10-0.78 d) 1x100.78
Given that the unstable constant of [Ni(CN) 4]2- ion is 1x10-31. The solubility of NiS is
1x10-19, the electrolytic dissociation acid constant of HCN is 1x10-9.21 and the electrolytic
dissociation acid constants of H2S in turn are 1x10-7.2 and 1x10-14.
12.6. In which following directions: Orange Metyl, Phenolphtalein;title of HCl solution
and NaOH solution are the same knowing the pH color change of these two directions
are 3.1 – 4.4 and 8.3 – 10.0; respectively (Ka of CH3COOH is 1.74x10-5 )
a) Metyl orange b) Phenolphtalein c) Both d) None of direction is suitable

12.7. Given that the acid constants in aqueous solution are Ka (HCN) = 6.2x10-10 ; Ka
(HNO2) = 4x10-4
In aqueous solution, which Bronsted bases is the strongest in water: CN- ; OH- ; NO2-
a) CN- b) OH- c) NO2- d) not identified

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12.8. Choose the correct answer:

AgI + NaCl = AgCl + NaI
1) Reaction occurs entirely at the forward direction
2) reversible reaction because Go298,rxn in the range from –40kJ to +40 kJ.
3) Practically, AgI is insoluble in the solution because the ratio of I-/Cl- is too small.
4) reaction occurs only inverse.
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3, 4 d) 4
Given that pT of AgCl and AgI respectively are 9,75 and 16,08
12.9. Choose the correct answer. The solubility of the electrolytic dissociation
substance, which is slightly soluble in water at the certain temperature, increases
when adding abnormal ion, it can be:
1) ionic force of the solution increased to reduce the activity coefficients
2) The abnormal ion recreates the precipitation by connecting to the electrolytic
dissociation ion.
3) The abnormal ion recreates the weak electrolysis dissociation substance by connecting
to that electrolytic dissociation ion which is mention in the question.
a) 1 b) 2 & 3 c) 1 & 2 d) 1, 2 & 3
12.10. Choose the wrong answer: the hydrolysis of a salt grow when
a) the weak acid which recreates it has the electrolysis b) the solution is weak.
dissociation constant is small
c) the equilibrium constant is small. d ) its base creator is weak
12.11. Choose the right answer.
1) KNO3: neutral environment, no ion hydrolyzed.
2) NaClO4: base environment, anion is hydrolyzed.
3) NH4CH3COO: neutral environment, cation and anion are hydrolyzed.
4) Fe2(SO4)3: neutral environment, no ion hydrolyzed.
a) 1, 3 b) 1, 2 & 3 c) 1 & 2 d) 3 & 4
12.12. The all 3 solutions are consists of NH 4Cl have the concentration C1 < C2 < C3. The
solution which hydrolysis most is:
a) The solution C1. b) The solution C2.
c) The solution C3. d) All 3 solutions have the same hydrolysis

12.13. Hydrolysis does not occur with the salt from:

a) weak acid and strong base b) strong acid and weak base
c) weak acid and weak base d) strong acid and strong base
12.14. In this chemical, which chemicals limited hydrolysis of Cr2(SO4)3:
1) HCl 2) NaHCO3 3) NaH2PO4
4) Na2CO3 5) NH4Cl 6) Al2(SO4)3
a) 1, 5 & 6 b) 1, 2, 3, 5 & 6 c) 1, 2 & 6 d) 2, 3 &4
12.15. Adding which of these substances below into the solution will increase or decrease
the electrolysis of the salt:
1)Na2CO3 2) HCl 3)NH4NO3 4) Ca(CH3COO)2 5)NaCl 6) BaCl2
a) Increase: Na2CO3 ; Ca(CH3COO)2; BaCl2 Decrease: NH4NO3 ; HCl
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b) Increase: Na2CO3 ; Ca(CH3COO)2 Decrease: NH4NO3 ; HCl

c) Increase: Na2CO3 ; Ca(CH3COO)2 Decrease: NH4NO3 ; HCl ; BaCl2
d) Increase: Na2CO3 Decrease: NH4NO3 ; HCl ; BaCl2
12.16. Choose the incorrect statement:
1) A substance that is sparingly soluble will precipitate when the product of its ions
concentration (with an exponent equal to the number of atoms in its molecular formula) is
exactly the same as the solubility product constant.
2) It is possible to dissolve a sparingly soluble solid by adding into solution an ion that
can form with the ion of the insoluble solid to another less soluble or less electrolytic
solid.
3) Bases with dissociation constants less than 1x10-7 cannot exist in appreciable amounts
as molecules in the solution in the presence of strong acids.
4) Aqueous solutions of salts formed from acids and bases of equal strength are always
neutral.
a) 1, 3, 4 b) 1, 3 c) 1, 2, 4 d) 3, 4
12.17. Which salt completely base hydrolysis:
1. AgNO3 2. BaCl2 3. AlCl3 4. K3PO4
5. FeCl2 6. FeCl3 7. CuCl2 8. MgSO4
a) 3, 6 b) 3, 5, 6 c) 3, 5, 6, 7 d) 3, 5, 6, 7, 8

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CHAPTER 13. ELECTROCHEMISTRY

13.1. Given the ion-exchange reaction
K2Cr2O7 + FeSO4 + H2SO4 → Cr2(SO4)3 + Fe2(SO4)3 + K2SO4 + H2O
equilibrium the reaction if the equilibrium system of K2Cr2O7 is 1, The equilibrium
system H2SO4 and Fe2(SO4)3 are respectively:
a) 7, 3 b) 7, 6 c) 5, 3 d) 4, 5
13.2. Choose the right answer:
3Cl2 + I- + 6OH- = 6Cl- + IO3- + 3H2O
a) Cl2 is reductant, I- is oxidized b) reductant is Cl2, I- is the
oxidized
-
c) The oxidized is Cl2, I
d) Cl2 is reduced, I- is oxidizer.
13.3. Giving these following values:
1) o (Ca2+/Ca) = - 2.79 V 2) o (Zn2+/Zn) = - 0.764 V
3) o (Fe2+/Fe) = - 0.437 V 4) o (Fe3+/Fe2+) = + 0.771 V
These substances are arranged in the order of the increasing of oxidizing
properties:
a) Fe3+ < Fe2+ < Zn2+ < Ca2+ b) Ca2+ < Zn2+ < Fe2+ < Fe3+
c) Zn2+ < Fe3+ < Ca2+ < Fe2+ d) Ca2+ < Zn2+ < Fe3+ < Fe2+
13.4. How the potential of copper change when dilute muoái Cu2+ solution of the
electrode down 10 times:
a) decrease 29.5 b) decrease 59 mV c) Incease 29.5 mV d) increase 59 mV
mV
13.5. A Ag electrode dip in AgNO 3 solution, how the potential of the electrode change
when: 1) Added HCl (AgCl is recipitate)
2) Added NaOH (Ag2O is recipitate)
3) Added water (diluted)
a) Increase for all 3 circumstances. b) Reduce for all 3 circumstances.
c) Unchange for all 3 circumstances. d) Only reduce for the first 2
circumstances.
13.6. Choose the right answer:
1) Cell is a device which change the chemical energy of the oxidation-reduction reaction
into electrical energy.
2) Electrolysis is the process change the electrical energy of direct current into chemical
energy.
3) Cell is a process change chemical process of a oxidation-reuction reaction into
electrical energy.
4) The Processes occur in cell and electrolytic tank opposite.
a) 1, 2 & 4 b) 2 & 4 c) 1 & 3 d) 2 & 3
13.7. Choose the correct answer:
The electrode potential of an electrode may change when one of the factors changes:

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a) Salt concentration of the metal which make electrode; temperature.

b) The surface of contact between metal and solution; salt concentration of metal which
make electrode.
c) Salt concentration of the metal which make electrode; temperature; strange salt
concentration.
d) Salt concentration of the matal which make electrode; Strange salt concentration.
13.8. For th hydro electrode, when changing the concentration of H+, the oxidizing
propertise of the electrode change. So when reducing the concentration of H+ then:
a) The oxidazing propertise of H + b) Oxidizing propertise of H+ increase
increase because  increase. because  reduce.
c) Reducibility of H2 increase because  d) Reducibility of H2 increase because
reduce.  increase.
13.9. Choose the incorrect statement:
a) Overpotential depends on the nature of the electricity release substance on electrode,
the nature and surface state of the electrode.
b) The metal made the electrode has more positive potential, it has a stronger reducing
property.
c) The electromotive force of the cell depends on the concentraitons of oxidizers and
reductants.
d) The electromotive force of the cell depends on environment temperature.
13.10. Choose the wrong staement. Given that Ganvanic element included standard
hydrogen electrode (1) and H2 electrode (Pt) dip in HCl solution 0,1M (2). At a
particualr temperature, this element has:
a) Electrode potential of the electrode (2) reduce when the concentration of
HCl solution reduce.
b) The electromotive reduce when delute the solution in the electrode (2)
c) Electrode (1) become positive electrode
d) Oxidize process occur on electrode (2)
13.11. Choose the right circumstance:
Giving electrode process: MnO4- + 8H+ + 5e = Mn2+ + 4H2O
Nerst equation of the given process is:
a)  = o + (0,059/5). lg([MnO4-].[H+]8/[Mn2+])
b)  = o + 0,059. lg([MnO4-].[H+]8/[Mn2+])
c)  = o + (0,059/5). lg([Mn2+])/[MnO4-].[H+]8)
d)  = o + (0,059/5). lg([MnO4-].[H+]8/[Mn2+][H2O]4)
13.12. Choose the right writting:
Schemical of the cells working base on oxidation-reduction reactions are:
Sn (s) + Pb(NO3)2 (aq) = Sn(NO3)2 (aq) + Pb (s)
HCl (aq) + Zn(s) = ZnCl2(daq) + H2 (g)

a) (-) Sn  Sn(NO)2  Pb(NO3)2  Pb (+)

(-) H2(Pt)  HCl  ZnCl2  Zn (+)

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b) (-) Sn  Sn(NO3)2  Pb(NO3)2  Pb (+)

(-) Zn ZnCl2  HCl  H2(Pt) (+)
c) (-) Pb  Pb(NO3)2  Sn(NO3)2  Sn (+)
(-)H2(Pt)  HCl  ZnCl2  Zn (+)
d) (-) Pb  Pb(NO3)2  Sn(NO3)2  Sn (+)
(-) Zn ZnCl2  HCl  H2(Pt) (+)
13.13. Choose the right answer.
Given ganvanic element created by electrode (1) (included a Ag bar dip in AgNO 3
solution 0.001N) and electrode (2) (included a Ag bar dip in AgNO3 solution 0.1N). This
element has:
a) Reduction process occurs on b) Electrode (1) is c) Electrode (2) is
electrode (1). positive electrode. vanished.
d) In the outer circuit the electron goes from electrode (1) to electrode (2).
13.14. How the electromotive of Ganvanic Zn element  Zn2+ (1M)  Ag+ (1M)  Ag
when increase the concentration of Zn2+ and Ag+ a same times. Given that the
oxidation-reduction potential of Zn2+ / Zn and Ag+ / Ag are –0,763V and 0,799V,
respectively.

a) Unchange b) Increase c) Reduces d) Undentify

13.15. Choose which one of these following reactions can occur in reality:
1) 2MnCl2 (aq) + 2Cl2 (g) + 8H2O = 2HMnO4 (aq) + 14HCl (aq)
2) K2Cr2O7 (aq) + 14HCl (aq) = 3Cl2 (g) + 2CrCl3 (aq) + 2KCl (aq) + 7H2O
3) MnO2 (s) + 4HCl (aq) = MnCl2 (aq) + Cl2 (g) + 2H2O
Given following standard reduction potentials:
MnO4- + 8H+ + 5e- = Mn2+ + 4H2O 0 = +1,51 V
Cl2 (k) + 2e- = 2Cl- 0 = 1,359 V
Cr2O72- + 14H+ + 6e- = 2Cr3+ + 7H2O 0 = 1,33 V
MnO2(r) + 4H+ + 2e- = Mn2+ + 2H2O 0 = 1,23 V
a) 2, 3 b) 2 c) 1, 2, 3 d) No reaction at all.
13.16. Knew the reaction chain of these oxidation-reduction pairs, there is the order (sort
by the ascending of 0):
Zn2+/ Zn 2H+/ H2 Cu2+/ Cu Ag+/ Ag 0

Which reaction will happen spontanously ?

a) Zn + 2H+ → Zn2+ + H2 b) Cu + 2H+ → Cu2+ + H2
c) Zn + 2Ag+ → 2Ag + Zn2+ d) both a and c are correct
13.17. Knew some standard reduction potentials below:
Fe3+ + e = Fe2+ o = +0.77V
Ti4+ + e = Ti3+ o = - 0.01 V
Ce4+ + e = Ce3+ o = + 1.14 V
In these reactions:
1) Fe3+ + Ti3+ ⇌ Fe2+ + Ti4+
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2) Ce4+ + Ti3+ ⇌ Ce3+ + Ti4+

3) Ce3+ + Fe3+ ⇌ Ce4+ + Fe2+
Which reaction will happen spontanously?
a) 1 b) 1 and 2 c) 2 d) 1, 2 and 3
13.18. Choose the right answer:
The reduction potential of these pairs Br2/2Br-, Fe3+/fe2+, Cu2+/Cu, MnO4-/Mn2+,
Sn4+/Sn2+ in turn is equal to 1,07V, 0,77v, 0,34V, 1,52V, 0,15V. Brom can oxide:
a) Fe2+ to Fe3+ b) Fe2+ to Fe3+ and Sn2+ to Sn4+
2+ 4+
c) Sn to Sn d) Fe2+ to Fe3+, Sn2+ to Sn4+ and Cu to Cu2+
13.19. Knew two cells which have the corresponding symbols and:
(-)ZnZn2+Pb2+Pb(+) E1 = 0.63V
(-)PbPb Cu Cu(+)
2+ 2+ E2 = 0.47V
Therefore, of (-)ZnZn Cu Cu(+) cell will be:
2+ 2+

a) –1.1V b) 1.1V c) 1.1V d) –0.16V

13.20. Choose the correct answer:
Knew the reduction potential of these reduction reactions:
Fe + e = Fe2+
3+
o = 0.77 V
I2 + 2e = 2I- o = 0.54 V
Therefore, the reduction reaction 2 Fe2+ + I2 = 2 Fe3+ + 2 I- has the feature:
a) Eo = -0.23 V; the reaction does not happen spontaneously.
b) Eo = -1.00 V; the reaction does not happen spontaneously.
c) Eo = 1.00 V; the reaction happens spontanously.
d) Eo = 0.23 V; the reaction happens spontaneously.
13.21. Knew the electromotive force of two Ganvanic compounds below in the standard
condition:
(-) Zn (r)  Zn2+ (dd)  Pb2+ (dd)  Pb (r) (+) Eo = 0.637V
(-) Pb (r)  Pb2+ (dd)  Ag2+ (dd)  Ag (r) (+) Eo = 0.925V
In these values below, which is the value of the electromotive force of the Ganvanic
compounds below ?
(-) Zn (r)  Zn2+ (dd)  Ag+ (dd)  Ag (r) (+) Eo = ?
a) 1.562V b) -1.562V c) -0.288V d) 0.288V
13.22. Fe is dissolved in the H2SO4 weak solution. Which is the strongest reaction ?
a) Only pure axit sunfuric is present b) Ion Ag+ is present
c) Ion Mg2+ is present d) Ion Al3+ is present
13.23. Calculate the standard reduction potentials of both Cu2+/Cu+ (1) when ion I- is
present and Fe3+/Fe2+ when ion OH- is present. Knew that the standard reduction
potentials of Cu2+/Cu+ and Fe3+/Fe2+ in turn are 0.153V and 0.77V.
a) (1) 0.859V, (2) –0.558V b) (1) –0.859V, (2) 0.558V
d) (1) 0.43V, (2) –0.279V c) Unable to calculate because of the unknown of the
concentration of I- and OH-
13.24. Knew that o (Sn4+/Sn2+) = 0.15 V. Determine the value of [Sn4+]/ [Sn2+] when the
power of this electrode is equal 0.169 V. Given that (2.303 RT / F) = 0.059.

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a) 4.41 b) 2.00 c) 2.49 d) 3.5

13.25. The solution which consists of NaCl and Na2SO4 is electrolysized by dissoluble
electrodes, the electrolysis process in anode happens in the order:
a) Cl-, H2O, SO42- b) Cl-, H2O, SO42- c) Cl- , SO42-, H2O d) H2O, Cl-,
SO42-
13.26. CuSO4 solution is electrolysized in the water and electrolysized inertly with [Cu2+]
= [H+]. Choose the correct statement. If the phenomenon is ignored, it can be said
that:
a) First, in cathode, Cu precipitates, the Cu2+ concentration decreases to some point, then
H2 exits; in anod, O2 exits.
b) In cathode, Cu precipitates and H2 exits simultaneous; in anod, O2 exits
c) First, in cathode, Cu precipitates, the Cu2+ concentration decreases to some point, then
H2 exits; in anode, O2 exits because of the electrical release of SO42-.
d) In cathode, Cu precipitates, when the Cu2+ concentration is no longer left in the
solution, then H2 exits; in anod, O2 exits.
13.27. The solution which consists of NaCl and Na2SO4 is electrolysized by dissoluble
electrodes, the electrolysis process in anod happens in order:
a) SO42-, Cl-, H2O. b) Cl-, H2O, SO42- c) Cl-, SO42-, H2O d) H2O, Cl-, SO42-
13.28. When the NaCl solution is electrosized by inert electrodes with diaphragm, in
anod, what will be created ?
a) NaOCl and Cl2 b) NaOH and H2 c) NaOCl and H2 d) NaOH and Cl2

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APPENDIX:

STANDARD THERMODYNAMIC PROPERTIES OF CHEMICAL SUBSTANCES

∆Hfo (250C)
So (250C) ∆Gfo (250C) Cp (250C)
No. Substance kJ/mol
J/mol K kJ/mol J/mol K

1 H (g) 217,96 114,60 203,26 20,78

2 H2 (g) 0,00 130,57 0,00 28,82

3 H+ (aq) 0,00 0,00 0 0,00

4 H3O+ (aq) -285,83 69,91 -237,18 75,29

5 Li (s) 0,00 29,12 0,00 24,77

6 Li(g) 159,37 138,66 126,69 20,79

7 L+ (aq) -278,49 13,40 -293,31 68,60

8 LiH (s) -90,54 20,01 -68,37 27,87

9 Li2O (s) -597,94 37,57 -561,20 54,10

10 LiF (s) -615,97 35,65 -587,73 41,59

11 LiCl (s) -408,61 59,33 -384,39 47,99

12 LiBr (s) -351,21 74,27 -342,00

13 LiI (s) -270,41 86,78 -270,29 51,04

14 Na (s) 0,00 51,21 0,00 28,24

15 Na (g) 107,32 153,60 76,79 20,79

16 Na+ (aq) -240,12 59,0 -261,90 46,4

17 Na2O (s) -414,22 75,06 -375,48 69,12

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18 NaOH (s) -425,61 64,46 -379,53 59,54

19 NaF (s) -573,65 51,46 -543,51 46,86

20 NaCl (s) -411,15 72,13 -384,15 50,50

21 NaBr (s) -361,06 86,82 -348,98 51,38

22 NaI (s) -287,78 98,53 -286,06 52,09

23 NaNO3 (s) -467,85 116,52 -367,07 92,88

24 Na2S (s) -364,8 83,7 -349,8

25 Na2SO4 (s) -1387,08 149,58 -127,23 128,20

26 NaHSO4 (s) -1125,5 113,0 -992,9

27 Na2CO3 (s) -950,81 101,7 -851,1 87,61

28 NaHCO3 (s) -1130,68 134,98 -1044,49 112,30

29 K (s) 0 64,18 0 29,58

30 K (g) 89,24 160,23 60,62 20,79

31 K+ (s) -252,38 102,5 -283,27 21,8

32 KO2 (dd) -284,93 116,7 -293,4 77,53

33 K2O2 (s) -494,10 102,10 -425,10

34 KOH (s) -424,76 78,90 -379,11 64,90

35 KF (s) -567,27 66,57 -537,77 49,04

36 KCl (s) -436,75 82,59 -409,16 51,30

37 KClO3 (s) -397,73 143,10 -296,25 100,25

38 KBr (s) -393,80 95,90 -380,66 52,30

39 KI (s) -327,90 106,32 -324,89 52,93

40 KMnO4 (s) -837,20 171,71 -737,70 117,57

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41 K2CrO4 (s) -1403,70 200,12 -1295,80 145,98

42 K2Cr2O7 (s) -2061,50 291,20 -1881,90 219,24

43 Rb (s) 0,00 76,78 0,00 31,06

44 Rb (g) 80,88 169,98 53,09 20,79

45 Rb+ (aq) -251,17 121,50 -283,98

46 RbCl (s) -435,35 95,90 -407,82 52,38

47 RbBr (s) -394,59 109,96 -381,79 52,84

48 RbI (s) -333,80 118,41 -328,86 53,18

49 Cs (s) 0,00 85,23 0,00 32,17

50 Cs (g) 76,06 175,49 49,15 70,79

51 Cs+ (aq) -258,28 133,05 -292,02 -10,50

52 CsF (s) -553,50 92,80 -525,50 51,09

53 CsCl (s) -443,04 101,17 -414,55 52,47

54 CsBr (s) -405,81 113,05 -391,41 52,93

55 CsI (s) -346,60 123,05 -340,58 52,80

56 Be (s) 0,00 9,50 0,00 16,44

57 Be (g) 324,30 136,16 286,60 20,79

58 BeO (s) -609,60 14,14 -580,30 25,52

59 Mg(s) 0,00 32,68 0,00 24,89

60 Mg (g) 147,70 148,54 113,13 20,79

61 Mg2+ (aq) -466,85 -138,10 -454,80

62 MgO (s) -601,70 26,94 569,45 37,15

63 MgCl2 (s) -641,32 89,62 -591,82 71,38

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64 MgSO4 (s) -1284,90 91,60 -1170,70 96,48

65 Ca (s) 0,00 41,42 0,00 25,31

66 Ca (g) 178,20 154,77 144,33 20,79

67 Ca2+ (aq) -542,83 -53,10 -553,58

68 CaH2 (s) -186,20 42,00 -147,20

69 CaO (s) -635,09 39,75 -604,05 42,80

70 CaS (s) -482,40 56,50 -477,40 47,40

71 Ca(OH)2 (s) -986,09 83,39 -898,56 87,49

72 CaF2 (s) -1219,60 68,87 -1167,30 67,03

73 CaCl2 (s) -795,80 104,60 -748,10 72,59

74 CaBr2 (s) -682,80 130,00 -663,60

75 CaI2 (s) -533,50 142,00 -528,90

76 Ca(NO3)2 (s) -938,39 193,30 -743,20 149,37

77 CaC2 (s, calcite) -59,80 69,96 -64,90 62,72

78 CaCO3(s, calcite) 1206,92 92,90 1128,84 81,88

79 CaCO3 (s, aragontile) -1207,13 88,70 -1127,80 81,25

80 CaSO4 (s) -1434,11 106,90 -1321,86 99,66

81 CaSiO3 (s) -1634,94 81,92 -1549,66 85,27

CaMg(CO3)2 (s,
82 dolomite) -2326,30 155,18 -2163,40 157,53

83 Sr (s) 0,00 52,30 0,00 26,40

84 Sr(g) 164,40 164,51 130,90 20,79

85 Sr2+ (aq) -545,80 -32,60 -559,48

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86 SrCl2 (s) -828,90 114,85 -781,10 75,60

87 SrCO3 (s) -1220,00 97,10 -1140,10 81,42

88 Ba (s) 0,00 62,80 0,00 28,07

89 Ba (g) 180,00 170,24 146,00 20,79

90 Ba2+ (aq) -537,64 9,60 -560,77

91 BaCl2 (s) -858,60 123,68 -810,40 75,14

92 BaCO3 (s) -1216,30 112,10 -1137,60 85,35

93 BaSO4 (s) -1370,20 132,20 -132,30 101,75

94 Sc (s) 0,00 34,64 0,00 25,52

95 Sc (g) 377,80 174,68 336,06 22,09

96 Sc3+ (aq) -614,20 -255,00 -586,60

97 Ti (s) 0,00 30,63 0,00 25,02

98 Ti (g) 469,90 180,19 425,10 24,43

99 TiO2 (s, rutile) -944,70 50,33 -889,50 55,02

100 TiCl4 (s) -804,20 252,30 -737,20 145,18

101 TiCl4 (g) -763,20 354,80 -762,80 95,40

102 Cr (s) 0,00 23,77 0,00 23,35

103 Cr (g) 396,60 174,39 351,80 20,79

104 Cr2O3 (s) -1139,70 81,20 -1058,10 118,74

105 CrO42- (aq) -881,15 50,21 -727,75

106 Cr2O72- (aq) -1490,30 261,90 -1301,10

107 W (s) 0,00 32,64 0,00 24,27

108 W (g) 894,40 173,84 807,10 21,31

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109 WO2 (s) -589,69 50,54 -533,92 56,11

110 WO3 (s) -842,87 75,90 -764,08 73,76

111 Mn (s) 0,00 32,01 0,00 26,32

112 Mn (k) 280,70 238,50 173,59 20,79

113 Mn2+ (aq) 220,75 -73,60 -228,10 50,00

114 MnO (s) -385,22 59,71 -362,92 45,44

115 MnO2 (s) -520,03 53,05 -465,17 54,14

116 MnO4- (aq) -54,14 191,20 -447,20 -82,00

117 Fe (s) 0,00 27,28 0,00 25,10

118 Fe (g) 416,30 180,38 370,70 25,68

119 Fe2+ (aq) -89,10 -137,70 -78,90

120 Fe3+ (aq) -48,50 -315,90 -4,70

121 Fe0.947O (s, wustite) -266,27 57,49 -245,12 48,12

122 Fe2O3 (s, hematite) -824,20 87,40 -742,50 103,85

123 Fe3O4 (s, magnetite) -1118,40 146,40 -1015,50 143,43

124 Fe(OH)3 (s) -823,00 106,70 -696,50

125 FeCO3 (s) -740,57 93,10 -666,72 82,13

126 Fe(CN)63- (aq) 561,90 270,30 729,40

127 Fe(CN)64- (aq) 455,60 95,00 695,10

128 Co (s) 0,00 30,04 0,00 24,81

129 Co (g) 424,70 179,41 380,30 23,02

130 Co2+ (aq) -58,20 -113,00 -54,40

131 Co3+ (aq) 92,00 -305,00 -134,00

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132 CoO (s) -237,94 52,97 -214,22 55,23

133 CoCl2 (s) -312.50 109.16 -269.80 78.49

134 Ni (s) 0,00 29,87 0, 00 26,07

135 Ni (g) 420,70 182,08 384,50 25,36

136 Ni2+ (aq) -54,00 -128,90 -45,60

137 NiO (s) -239,70 37,99 -211,70 44,31

138 Pt (s) 0,00 41,63 0,00 25,86

139 Pt(k) 565,30 192,30 520,50 25,53

140 PtCl62- (aq) -668,20 219,70 -482,70

141 Cu (s) 0,00 33,15 0, 00 24,44

142 Cu (g) 338,32 166,27 298,61 20,79

143 Cu+ (aq) 71,67 40,6 49,98

144 Cu2+ (aq) 64,77 -99,60 65,49

145 CuO (s) -157,30 42,63 -129,70 42,30

146 Cu2O (s) -168,60 93,14 -146,00 63,64

147 CuCl (s) -137,20 86,20 -119,88 48,50

148 CuCl2 (s) -220,10 108,07 -175,70 71,88

149 CuSO4 (s) -771,36 109,00 -661,90 100,00

150 Cu(NH3)42+ (aq) -348,50 373,60 -111,07

151 Ag (s) 0,00 42,55 0, 00 25,35

152 Ag (g) 284,55 172,89 245,68 20,79

153 Ag+ (aq) 105,58 72,68 77,11 21,80

154 AgCl (s) -127,07 96,20 -109,81 50,79

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155 AgNO3 (s) -124,39 140,92 -33,48 93,05

+
156 Ag(NH3) 2 (aq) -111,29 245,20 -17,12

157 Au (s) 0,00 47,40 0, 00 25,42

158 Au (g) 366,10 180,39 326,30 20,79

159 Zn (s) 0,00 41,63 0, 00 25,40

160 Zn (g) 130,73 160,87 95,18 20,79

161 Zn2+ (aq) -153,89 -112,10 -147,06 46,00

162 ZnO (s) -348,28 43,64 -318,32 40,25

163 ZnS (s, sphalerite) -205,98 57,70 -201,29 46,00

164 ZnCl2 (s) -415,05 111,46 -369,43 71,34

165 ZnSO4 (s) -982,80 110,50 -871,50 99,20

2+
166 Zn(NH3) 4 (aq) -533,50 301,00 -301,90

167 Hg (l) 0,00 76,02 0, 00 27,98

168 Hg (g) 61,32 174,85 31,85 207,79

169 HgO (s) -90,830 70,290 -58,56 44,06

170 HgCl2 (s) -224,300 146,000 -178,60

171 Hg2Cl2 (s) -265,220 192,500 -210,78

172 B (s) 0,000 5,860 0, 00 11,09

173 B (g) 562,700 153,340 518,18 20,80

174 B2H 6 (g) 35,600 232,000 86,60 56,90

175 B5H 9 (g) 73,200 275,810 174,90 96,78

176 B2O3 (s) -1272,770 53,970 -1193,70 62,93

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177 H3BO3 (s) -1094,330 88,830 969,02 81,38

178 BF3 (g) -1137,000 254,010 -1120,35 50,46

179 BF4 (aq) -1574,900 180,000 -1486,90

180 BCl3 (g) -403,760 289,990 -388,74 62,72

181 BBr3 (g) -205,640 324,130 -232,47 67,78

182 Al (s) 0,000 28,330 0,00 24,35

184 Al3+ (aq) -531,000 -321,700 -485,00

185 Al2O 3 (s) -16575,700 50,920 -1582,30 79,04

186 AlCl 3 (s) -704,200 110,670 -628,80 91,84

187 Ga (s) 0,000 40,880 0,00 25,86

188 Ga (g) 277,000 168,950 238,90 25,36

189 Tl (s) 0,000 64,180 0,00 26,32

190 Tl (g) 182,210 180,850 147,44 20,79

191 C (s, graphite) 0,000 5,740 0,00 8,53

192 C (s, diamond) 1,895 2,377 2,90 6,11

193 C (g) 716,682 157,990 671,29 20,84

194 CH4 (g) -74,810 186,150 -50,75 35,31

195 C2H 2 (g) 226,730 200,830 209,20 43,93

196 C2H 4 (g) 52,260 219,450 68,12 43,56

197 C2H 6 (g) -84,680 229,490 -32,89 52,63

198 C3H 8 (g) -103,850 269,910 -24,49 73,00

199 n–C4H 10 (g) -124,730 310,030 -15,71 97,50

200 C4H 10 (g, isobutane) -131,600 294,640 -17,97 96,80

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201 n–C5H 12 (g) -146,440 348,400 -8,20 120,00

202 C6H 6 (g) 82,93 269,20 129,66 81,60

203 C6H 6 (l) 49,03 172,80 124,50 136,00

204 CO (g) -110,52 197,56 -137,15 29,14

205 CO2 (g) -393,51 213,63 -394,36 37,11

206 CO2 (l) -413,80 117,60 -385,98

207 CS2 (l) 89,70 151,34 65,27 75,70

208 CS2 (g) 117,36 237,73 67,15 45,40

209 H2CO3 (aq) -699,65 187,40 -623,08

210 HCO3- (aq) -691,99 91,20 -586,77

211 CO 32− (aq) -677,14 -56,90 -527,81

212 HCOOH (l) -424,72 128,95 -361,42 99,04

213 HCOOH (aq) -425,43 163,00 -372,30

214 HCOO- (aq) -425,55 92,00 -3151,00 -87,90

215 HCHO (g) -108,57 218,66 -102,55 35,40

216 CH3OH (l) -238,66 126,80 -166,35 81,60

217 CH3OH (g) -200,66 239,70 -162,01 43,89

218 CH3OH (aq) -245,93 133,10 -175,31

219 H2C2O4 (s) -827,20 117,00

220 HC2O −4 (aq) -818,40 149,40 -698,34

221 C2O 24− (aq) -825,10 45,60 -673,90

222 CH3COOH (l) -484,50 159,80 -390,00 124,30

223 CH3COOH(g) -432,25 282,40 -374,10 66,50

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224 CH3COOH (aq) -485,76 178,70 -396,46

225 CH3COO- (aq) -486,10 86,60 -369,31 -63,00

226 CH3CHOH (l) -192,30 160,20 -128,12

227 C2H5OH (l) -227,69 160,70 -174,89 111,46

228 C2H5OH (g) -235,10 282,59 -168,57 65,44

229 C2H5OH (aq) -288,30 148,50 -181,64

230 CH3OCH3 (g) -184,05 266,27 -112,67 64,39

231 CF4 (g) -925,00 261,50 -879,00 61,09

232 CCl4 (l) -135,44 216,40 -65,28 131,75

233 CCl4 (g) -102,90 309,74 -60,62 83,30

234 CHCl3 (g) -103,14 295,60 -70,37 65,69

235 COCl2 (g) -218,80 283,53 -204,60 57,66

236 CH2Cl2 (g) -92,47 270,12 -65,90 50,96

237 CH3Cl (g) -80,83 234,47 -57,40 40,75

238 CBr4 (s) 18,80 212,50 47,70 144,30

239 CH3l (l) -15,50 163,20 13,40 126,00

240 HCN (g) 135,10 201,67 124,70 35,86

241 HCN (aq) 107,10 124,70 119,70

242 CN- (aq) 150,60 94,10 172,40

243 CH3NH2 (g) -22,97 243,30 32,09 53,10

244 CO(NH2)2 (s) -333,51 104,49 -197,44 93,14

245 Si (s) 0,00 18,83 0,00 20,00

246 Si (g) 455,60 167,86 411,30 22,25

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247 SiC (s) -65,30 16,61 -62,80 26,86

248 SiO2 (s, quartz) -910,94 41,84 -856,67 44,43

249 SiO2 (s, cristobalite) -909,48 42,68 -855,43 44,18

250 Ge (s) 0,00 31,09 0,00 23,35

251 Ge(g) 376,60 335,90 167,90 30,73

252 Sn (s, white) 0,00 51,55 0,00 26,99

253 Sn (s, gray) -2,09 44,14 0,13 25,77

254 Sn (g) 302,10 168,38 267,30 21,26

255 SnO (s) -285,80 56,50 -256,90 44,31

256 SnO2 (s) -580,70 52,30 519,60 52,59

257 Sn(OH)2 (s) -561,10 155,00 -491,70

258 Pb (s) 0,00 64,81 0,00 26,44

259 Pb (g) 195,00 161,90 175,26 20,79

260 Pb2+ (aq) -1,70 10,50 -24,43

261 PbO (s, yellow) -217,32 68,70 -187,91 45,77

262 PbO (s, red) -218,99 66,50 -188,95 45,81

263 PbO2 (s) -277,40 68,60 -217,36 64,64

264 PbS (s) -100,40 91,20 -98,70 49,50

265 PbI2 (s) -175,48 174,85 -173,64 77,36

266 PbSO4 (s) -919,94 148,57 -813,21 103,21

267 N2 (g) 0,00 191,50 0,00 29,12

268 N (g) 472,70 153,19 455,58 20,79

269 NH3 (g) -46,11 192,34 -16,48 35,06

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270 NH3 (l) -80,29 111,30 -26,50

271 NH +4 (aq) -132,51 113,40 -79,31 79,90

272 N2H4 (l) 50,63 121,21 149,24 98,87

273 NO (g) 90,25 210,65 86,55 29,84

274 NO2 (g) 33,18 239,95 51,29 37,20

275 NO +2 (aq) -104,60 123,00 -32,20 -97,50

276 NO 3− (aq) -205,00 146,40 -108,74 -86,60

277 N2O (g) 82,05 219,74 104,18 38,45

278 N2O4 (g) 9,16 304,18 97,82 77,28

279 N2O5 (s) -43,10 178,20 113,80 143,10

280 HNO2 (g) -79,50 254,00 -46,00 45,60

281 HNO3 (l) -174,10 155,49 -80,76 109,87

282 NH4 NO3 (s) -365,56 151,08 -184,02 139,30

283 NH4 Cl (s) -314,43 94,60 -202,97 84,10

284 (NH4)2SO4 (s) -1180,85 220,10 -901,90 187,49

285 P (s, white) 0,00 41,09 0,00 23,84

286 P (s, red) -17,60 22,80 -12,10 21,21

287 P (g) 314,64 163,08 278,28 20,79

288 P2 (g) 144,30 218,02 103,70 32,05

289 P4 (g) 58,91 279,87 24,47 67,15

290 PH3 (g) 5,40 210,12 13,40 37,11

291 H3 PO4 (s) -1279,00 110,50 -1119,2 106,06

292 H3 PO4 (l) -1288,34 158,20 -1142,54

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293 H2PO −4 (aq) -1296,29 90,4 -1130,28

2−
294 HPO 4 (aq) -1292,14 -33,50 -1089,15

295 PO 34− (aq) -1277,40 -222,00 -1018,70

296 PCl3 (g) -287,00 311,67 -267,80 71,84

297 PCl5 (g) -374,90 364,47 -305,00 112,80

298 As (s, gray) 0,00 35,10 0,00 24,64

299 As (g) 302,50 174,10 261,00 20,79

300 As2 (g) 222,20 239,30 171,90 35,00

301 As4 (g) 143,90 314,00 92,40

302 As4O6 (s) -1313,94 214,20 -1152,530 191,29

303 Sb (s) 0,00 45,69 0,000 25,33

304 Sb (g) 262,30 180,16 222,100 20,79

305 Bi (s) 0,00 54,74 0,000 25,52

306 Bi (g) 207,10 186,90 168,200 20,79

307 O2 (g) 0,00 205,03 0,000 29,36

308 O(g) 249,17 160,95 231,760 21,91

309 OH − (aq) -229,99 -10,75 -157,240 -148,50

310 H2O (l) -285,83 69,91 -238,180 75,29

311 H2O (g) -241,82 188,72 -288,590 35,58

312 H2O2 (l) -187,78 109,60 -120,420 89,10

313 H2O2 (aq) -191,17 143,90 -134,300

314 S (s, rhombic) 0,00 31,80 0,000 22,64

315 S (s, monoclinic) 0,30 32,60 0,096

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316 S (g) 278,80 167,71 238,280 23,67

317 S8 (g) 102,30 430,87 49,660 156,44

318 H2S (g) -20,63 205,68 -33,560 34,23

319 H2S − (aq) -39,70 121,00 -27,830

320 HS − (aq) -17,60 62,80 12,080

321 SO (g) 6,26 221,84 -19,870 30,17

322 SO2 (g) -296,83 284,11 -300,190 39,87

323 SO3 (g) -395,72 256,65 -371,080 50,67

324 H2 SO3 (aq) -608,81 232,20 -537,810

−
325 HSO 3 (aq) -626,22 139,70 -527,730

326 SO 3− (aq) -635,50 -29,00 -486,500

327 H2SO4 (l) -813,99 156,90 -690,100 138,91

328 HSO −4 (aq) -887,34 131,80 -755,910 -84,00

329 SO −4 (aq) -909,27 20,10 -744,530 -293,00

330 SF8 (g) -1209,00 291,71 -1105,400 97,28

331 Se (s, white) 0,00 42,44 0,000 25,36

332 Se (g) 227,07 176,61 187,060 20,82

333 F2 (g) 0,00 202,67 0,00 31,30

334 F(g) 78,99 158,64 61,940 22,74

335 F − (aq) -332,63 -13,80 -278,79 -106,70

336 HF (g) -271,10 173,67 -273,20 29,13

337 HF (aq) -320,08 88,70 -296,82

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338 XeF4 (s) -261,50

339 Cl2 (g) 0,00 222,96 0,00 33,91

340 Cl (g) 121,68 165,09 105,71 21,84

341 Cl − (aq) -167,16 56,60 -131,23 -136,40

342 HCl (g) -92,31 186,80 -95,30 29,12

343 CIO − (aq) -107,10 42,00 -36,80

344 CIO2 (g) 102,50 256,73 120,50 41,97

345 CIO −2 (aq) -66,50 101,30 17,20

346 CIO 3− (aq) -103,97 162,30 -7,95

347 CIO −4 (aq) -129,33 182,00 -8,52

348 SnO2 (s) -580,70 52,30 -519,60 52,59

349 Sn(OH)2 (s) -561,10 155,00 -491,70

350 Pb (s) 0,00 64,81 0,00 26,44

351 Pb (g) 195,00 161,90 175,26 20,79

352 Pb2+ (aq) -1,70 10,50 -24,43

353 PbO (s, yellow) -217,32 68,70 -187,91 45,77

354 PbO (s, red) -218.99 66.50 -188.95 45.81

355 PbO2 (s) -277,40 68,60 -217,36 64,64

356 PbS (s) -100,40 91,20 -98,70 49,50

357 Pbl2 (s) -175,48 174,85 -173,64 77,36

358 PbSO4 (s) -919,94 148,57 -813,21 103,21

359 N2 (g) 0,00 191,50 0,00 29,12

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360 N (g) 472,70 153,19 455,58 20,79

361 NH3 (g) -46,11 192,34 -16,48 35,06

362 NH3 (aq) -80,29 111,30 -26,50

363 NH +4 (aq) -132,51 113,40 -79,31 79,90

364 N2H4 (l) 50,63 121,21 149,24 98,87

365 N2H4 (aq) 34,31 138,00 128,10

366 NO (g) 90,25 210,65 86,55 29,84

367 NO2 (g) 33,18 239,95 51,29 37,20

368 NO −2 (aq) -104,60 123,00 -32,2 -97,50

369 NO 3− (aq) -205,00 146,40 -108,74 -86,60

370 N2O (g) 82,05 219,74 104,18 38,45

371 N2O4 (g) 9,16 304,18 97,82 77,28

372 N2O5 (s) -43,10 178,20 113,80 143,10

373 HNO2 (g) -79,50 254,00 -46,00 45,50

374 HNO3 (l) -174,10 155,49 -80,76 109,87

375 NH4Cl (s) -314,43 94,60 -202,97 84,10

376 (NH4)2SO4 (s) -1181,85 220,10 -901,90 187,49

377 P (s, white) 0,00 41,09 0,00 23,84

378 P (s, red) -17,60 22,80 -12,10 21,21

379 P (g) 314,64 163,08 278,28 20,79

380 P2 (g) 144,30 218,02 103,70 32,05

381 P4 (g) 58,91 279,87 24,47 67,15

382 PH3 (g) 5,40 210,12 13,40 37,11

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383 H3PO4 (s) -1279,00 100,50 -1119,20 106,06

384 H3PO4 (aq) -1288,34 158,20 -1142,54

−
385 H2PO 4 (aq) -1296,29 90,40 -1130,28
2−
386 HPO 4 (aq) -1292,14 -33,50 -1089,15
3−
387 PO 4 (aq) -1277,40 -222,00 -1018,70

388 PCl3 (g) -287,00 311,67 -267,80 71,84

389 PCl5 (g) -374,90 364,47 -305,00 112,80

390 As (s, gray) 0,00 35,10 0,00 24,64

391 As (g) 302,50 174,10 261,00 20,79

392 As2 (g) 222,20 239,30 171,90 35,00

393 As4 (g) 143,90 314,00 92,40

394 AsH3 (g) 66,44 222,67 68,91 30,07

395 Cl2O (g) 80,30 266,10 97,90 45,40

396 HClO (aq) -120,90 142,00 -79,90

397 ClF3(g) -163,20 281,50 -123,00 63,85

398 Br2 (l) 0,00 152,23 0,00 75,69

399 Br2 (g) 30,91 245,35 3,14 36,02

400 Br2 (aq) -2,59 130,50 3,93

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