Pharmacology & Therapeutics

Multiple Choice Questions

1. A drug is a weak base so that some molecules are ionized and some are non-ionized.
Which factor effects the diffusion of the drug across cell membranes?
a) Both ionized and non-ionized
b) The ionized molecules diffuse faster
c) The non-ionized molecules diffuse faster
d) Depends on the particular drug
e) Depends on the cell type

2. Which of the following routes of drug administration will allow the best control of a
required dose (i.e. concentration in blood)?
a) Intravenous injection
b) Intramuscular injection
c) Subcutaneous injection
d) Oral administration
e) Intravenous infusion

3. A female 75 years of age presents with a 6 month history of pain in her right knee,
which is worse with prolonged walking or stairs. She has no relevant past history.
Physical examination reveals a small effusion and crepitus on movement. Her BMI is
32. You consider prescribing diclofenac sodium, a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory
agent. Which one of the following statements about diclofenac sodium is correct?
a) It has no analgesic properties
b) It only inhibits COX II enzymes
c) It does not affect platelet aggregation
d) It inhibits both Cox I and Cox II isoenzymes
e) It does not reduce renal blood flow in the normal kidneys

4. Which one of the following is the mechanism responsible for bacterial resistance to
penicillin?
a) Ability of bacteria to produce an acid media
b) Bacterial production of lysozymes
c) Alteration of penicillin binding proteins
d) Increased metabolism of penicillin
e) Increased renal excretion of penicillin

5. A 60 years of age male suffers from glaucoma is complaining of severe pain over the
eyes, accompanied by headache. On examination it was found that the intraocular

1
 pressure of the eye was about 35 mmHg (normal range of 10-21 mmHg).Which of the
following agents is the most useful in lowering the patient's intraocular pressure?
a) Atropine
b) Carbachol
c) Pilocarpine
d) Scopolamine
e) Acetylcholine

6. You are the surgical house officer seeing a man aged 57 years in pre-admission clinic
who is due to have a partial thyroidectomy in 10 days' time for a solitary nodule. He is
generally fit, but takes aspirin 150mg daily without prescription "because the papers
say it prevents heart attacks and strokes". There are no abnormalities to find on
examination. You advise him to stop the aspirin 7 days before his planned surgery. How
will the effect of aspirin be corrected during this period?
a) Drug dissociation from cyclo-oxygenase binding sites
b) Drug dissociation from thrombin binding sites
c) Regeneration of cyclo-oxygenase within platelets
d) Restoration of calcium levels in platelets
e) Synthesis of new platelets

7. Allopurinol helps in the gout by

a) Inhibition of urate crystal phagocytosis.
b) Increasing renal excretion of uric acid
c) Inhibition of leukotriene B4 formation.
d) Prevention of leukocyte migration.
e) Reducing uric acid synthesis.

8. H1 receptor antagonists are first line drugs for management of all of the following
conditions EXCEPT
a) Urticaria
b) Allergic Rhinitis
c) Hay fever
d) Bronchial asthma
e) Atopic dermatitis

9. One of the following H1 receptor antagonist has arrhythmogenic potential:

a) Terfenadine
b) Fexofenadine
c) Cetirizine
d) Loratadine
e) Acrivastine

10. A male patient of 26 year was given ethambutol in combination with isoniazid and
ethambutol for the treatment of tuberculosis. Which organ\ system should be monitored
for adverse effects during ethambutol treatment?
a) Bone marrow

2
 b) Eyes
c) Kidney
d) Liver
e) Central Nervous System.

11. An increase in dose of a drug is required by the patient for producing the desired
therapeutic effect. This phenomenon is called
a) Physiological antagonism.
b) Insensitivity.
c) Tolerance.
d) Cummulation
e) Anaphylaxis

12. In the absence of other drugs, pindolol causes an increase in heart rate. However, by
presence of highly effective beta stimulants pindolol causes a dose dependant reversible
decrease in heart rate therefore, pindolol is probably:
a) An irreversible antagonist.
b) A physiological antagonist
c) A chemical antagonist
d) A spare receptor antagonist
e) A mixed agonist antagonist

13. A patient was diagnosed as a case of pulmonary embolism. His physician started him on
warfarin to provide anticoagulation. Now he is complaining of heart burn. Which of the
following is the most appropriate drug for this patient?
a) Cimetidine
b) Ranitidine
c) Famotidine
d) Omeprazole
e) Fluconazole

14. All of the following regarding local anesthetics are true EXCEPT:
a) Local anesthetics reversibly block impulse conduction along nerve axons and other
excitable membranes.
b) They block the voltage-gated sodium channels in the perpheral nerves.
c) The fibres to be blocked first are the smaller B and C fibres.
d) The anesthetic effect of the agents with long duration of action can be decreased by
adding a vasoconstictor agent.
e) Vasoconstrictor agents like epinephrine retard the removal of drug from the injection site.

15. All of the following drugs are active against nematodes. Which one is a neuromuscular
blocking agent that causes release of acetylcholine and inhibition of cholinesterase?
a) Mebendazole
b) Pyrantal pamoate
c) Niclosamide

3
 d) Piperazine
e) Praziqantel

16. Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen-receptor modulator that acts therapeutically as an

estrogen agonist in bone and as an estrogen antagonist in:
a) Liver.
b) Breast.
c) Uterus.
d) Ovary.
e) Brain.

17. A woman aged 39 years who has been smoking 2 packs of cigarettes daily for the last 20
years has also been taking combined oral contraceptives during this same period. She
has an increased risk of developing
a) adrenal failure
b) breast cancer
c) polycystic ovarian disease
d) thromboembolism
e) thyroid dysfunction

18. Correct statements about the mini-pill include all EXCEPT:

a) it is called the mini-ill because it contains a relatively low dose of progestin
b) a common side effect of progestin-only pills is spotting, or breakthrough bleeding
c) its major mechanism of action is to change the character of cervical and vaginal mucus
d) ovulation does not usually occur if the mini-pill is taken correctly
e) it carries a lower efficacy rate compared to combined oral contraceptives

19. Following antimalarial drug treatment, a patient develops haemolytic anaemia. Which
ONE of the following drugs is MOST LIKELY involved?
a) Chloroquinine
b) Quinine
c) Pyrimethamine
d) Mefloquine
e) Primaquine

20. Luminal amoebiasis may be treated by:

a) Diloxanide furoate
b) Pyrimethamine
c) Emetine
d) Na-Stibogluconate
e) Melarsoprol
21. Which of the following best describes the drug absorption following oral
administration?
a) It occurs through passive diffusion only
b) It occurs through lipid diffusion only

4
 c) Non-polar lipid soluble drugs are absorbed more readily than polar water-soluble
drugs
d) Peptides are well absorbed following oral administration
e) It occurs predominantly in the large intestines

22. The clearance of a drug

a) Is always affected by renal function
b) Is always constant over the concentration range
c) Is dependent on the blood flow for drugs with low extraction ratio
d) Is the volume of plasma from which the drug is totally eliminated per unit time
e) Includes elimination by hepatic metabolism except for drugs with high first pass
metabolism

23. A female patient of 60 years is diagnosed to be suffering from Alzheimer's disease. She
is taking an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that enters the CNS and is approved for use
in this disease. Which of the following drug is the patient most likely receiving?
a) Tacrine
b) Neostigmine
c) Edrophonium
d) Ambenonium
e) Pyridostigmine

24. 35 years of age, male patient arrives to the emergency room with complaints of severe
throbbing headache and distress. He is sweating profusely and informs the house officer
on duty that he was diagnosed 6 months ago to be having stage 2 essential hypertension
but he had not taking any medicine since then. On examination, his pulse was 115/min
and BP 200/140mmHg. ECG findings showed no signs of ischemia. The house officer
considers prescribing intravenous beta blocker to lower the BP. Which of the following
preexisting conditions would be the most important contraindication to the safe use of
this drug?
a) Mild heart failure
b) Pheochromocytoma
c) Peripheral vascular disease
d) Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus
e) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
25. Which of the following drug is most suitable for use in cardiac failure in order to reduce
preload?
a) Digoxin
b) Furosemide
c) Dobutamine
d) Hydralazine
e) Sodium nitroprusside
26. Regarding the thiazide diuretics, which of the following adverse effect is encountered
due to volume depletion when the dose is increased?
a) Hyponatremia
b) Hypercalcemia

5
 c) Hyperuricemia
d) Hyperglycemia
e) Metabolic acidosis

27. In order to reduce the intracranial pressure in a patient with neurological disease, an
intravenous diuretic that is an osmotically active agent that is filtered by the glomerulus
but not reabsorbed was prescribed by the neurophysician. Which of the following
disease must be ruled out in past medical history before administration of the advised
treatment?
a) Glaucoma
b) Liver failure
c) Hypertension
d) Diminished renal function
e) Congestive cardiac failure

28. A 26 year-old female has taken an over-dose of an acidic drug. What pharmacological
principle should be followed to increase the rate of excretion?
a) Acidify the urine
b) Alkalinize the plasma
c) Alkalinize the urine
d) Increase the pKa of the drug
e) Reduce acidity of the stomach

29. A 60 years old male with acute anterolateral MI having severe chest pain, dyspnea, and
is restless. His BP is 140/90, HR is 100/min and respiratory rate is 35/min. Chest has
bilateral crepts. Beside Glyceral Trinitrate (GTN), which of the following drugs is likely
to benefit him for his dyspnea?
a) Verapamil
b) Dopamine
c) Morphine
d) Dobutamine
e) None of the above

30. The most likely mechanism of antihypertensive action of thiazide diuretics in the long-
term is:
a) Reduction of circulating blood volume
b) Reduction of cardiac output
c) Decreased sympathetic tone
d) Reduction in total peripheral vascular resistance
e) Decrease of atrioventricular conduction velocity

31. Optimal treatment of mild iron deficiency anemia associated with pregnancy is
a) A high fiber diet
b) Parental iron dextran injections
c) Packed red blood cells

6
 d) Ferrous sulphate tablets
e) Folic acid supplements

32. A 50 years old man with familial hypertriglyceridemia is treated with Simvastatin.
Which of the following is the primary mechanism of action of this drug?
a) Binding of bile acids in the intestine
b) inhibition of hepatic VLDL secretion
c) stimulation of HDL production
d) inhibition of HMG-CoA Reductase
e) stimulation of lipoprotein lipase

33. A 62-year-old white male complains of left thigh and leg pain and swelling which are
exacerbated by walking. One week earlier the patient had a cardiac catheterization
procedure performed. The patient is currently vacationing, and has spent the last 28
hours in a car. Which of the following drugs, which might be prescribed in this
instance, works by inhibiting the enzyme epoxide reductase?
a) Dipyridamole
b) Heparin
c) Streptokinase
d) t-PA
e) Warfarin

34. A 43 year old patient with Hodgkin’s disease. He develops acute cardiomyopathy on a
combination therapy including doxorubicin, vinblastine, vincristine, etoposide and
prednisone. Which of the following drug is most likely to cause this complication?
a) Etoposide
b) Vincristine
c) Prednisone
d) Vinblastine
e) Doxorubicin

35. A 69-year-old woman was diagnosed with bone metastases. Recently she had developed
severe pain and was hospitalized for further treatment. Which of the following
analgesics is most appropriate for managing this patient?
a) Acetaminophen
b) Diclofenac
c) Codeine
d) Morphine
e) Aspirin

36. A 20-year-old man with a history of tonic clonic seizures is brought to ER, after
experiencing a sustained seizure. His brother believes that he stopped his antiepileptic
drugs on his own several weeks ago, because he has been seizure-free for 1 year. On
physical examination reveals gingival hyperplasia and hirsutism. Based on this finding,
what is the most possible drug he took?

7
 a) Phenobarbital
b) Carbamazepine
c) Diazepam
d) Phenytoin
e) Valproate Acid

37. A patient is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a generalized

tonic-clonic seizure. In the emergency department, the patient has a prolonged seizure
with rhythmic contractions of all four limbs. Which of the following would be most
appropriate pharmacotherapy?
a) Carbamazepine
b) Diazepam
c) Ethosuximide
d) Phenytoin
e) Valproic acid

38. Which drug would be most beneficial for a 28-year-old woman with schizo-affective
disorder and sleeping difficulty?
a) Ariprazole
b) Chlorpromazine
c) Haloperidol
d) Risperidone
e) Ziprasidone

39. Opioid agonists like loperamide and diphenoxylate can be used for diarrhea because
they can
a) Improve inflammation in the large intestine.
b) Decrease rectal tone.
c) Increase osmotic pressure in the lumen of large intestine
d) Reduce abnormal peristalsis.
e) Kill bacteria in the large intestine.

40. One of the following is a SERM with no estrogenic effects on endometrial tissue which
can be used in lieu of hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for the prevention of
osteoporosis in a 56 yr old post menopausal woman.
a) Clomiphene
b) Danazol
c) Mifepristone
d) Raloxifene
e) Tamoxifen

41. Hepatic biotransformation reactions that unmask or introduce a functional group (-

OH,- NH2, -SH) are :
a) Conjugation reactions
b) Phase I metabolism
c) Phase II metabolism

8
 d) Synthetic reactions
e) Glucuronidation

42. An unusual drug response caused by genetic differences in metabolism of drugs or by

immunologic mechanism which is infrequently observed in most patients is :
a) Tachyphylaxis
b) Hyper reactive response
c) Tolerance
d) Hypo reactive response
e) Idiosyncratic response

43. Muscarinic cholinoceptor agonist can cause vasodilatation by:

a) Release of histamine
b) Increased activity of nor epinephrine
c) Direct action of acetylcholine on endothelium
d) Release of nitric oxide
e) By inhibition of cAMP 2nd messenger system

44. Common features between penicillins and cephalosporins are:

a) About 10% of people allergic to penicillins are allergic to cephalosporins
b) Each member of both the groups is beta lactamase resistance
c) Similar in structure but differ in mode of action as bactericidal
d) Both are effective as first line treatment for pseudomonal infection
e) Both can be given in a patient with bleeding disorder

45. About anti-tuberculous drugs:

a) Isoniazid works by inhibiting the formation of mycolic acid in cell wall of
mycobacterium tuberculosis
b) Isoniazid is used on its own for control of active tuberculosis
c) Prevalence of resistance to multidrug therapy is around 50%
d) Single drug therapy may result in treatment failure because of longer duration and
patient’s non-adherence
e) Streptomycin is an effective first line oral drug

46. Zileuton is useful in treatment of asthma because it :

a) Inhibits prostaglandin biosynthesis
b) Inhibits leukotriene synthesis
c) Inhibits leukotriene receptors
d) Inhibits phosophodiesterase enzyme

9
 e) Inhibits 1,2 – lipoxygenase

47. A patient suffering from end stage renal disease presents with severe anemia, the most
likely cause is :
a) Deficient iron diet
b) Decreased red cell half life
c) Reduced erythropoietin production
d) Repeated blood testing
e) Tendency towards gastrointestinal bleeding

48. A 15 years old boy presented with fever and headache along with rash on palms and
soles of feet. He was camping last week end. On investigations he was diagnosed as
Rocky Mountain spotted fever (rickettsial diseased). Durg of choice is:
a) Streptomycin
b) Ciprofloxacin
c) Doxycycline
d) Erythromycin
e) Bacitracin

49. Peripheral blood smear of a 72 years old lady showed increased MCV, hyper segmented
nuetrophills , megaloblasts. The most probable diagnosis is :
a) Anemia associated with chronic renal disease
b) Bone marrow hyperplasia
c) Pernicious anemia
d) Iron deficiency anemia
e) Hemolytic anemia

50. A 56 years old lady had a temporary loss of vision with dizziness that lasted for
approximately 10 mins. Which of the following would be the outpatient prophylactic
regimen for this patient two days after these symptoms:
a) Anistreplase
b) Clopidogrel
c) Abciximab
d) Heparin
e) Streptokinase
51. A 35 year old asthmatic patient is having mild to moderate hypertension. He may be
best managed by cardio selective β blockers :
a) Atenolol
b) Nadolol
c) Propranolol
d) Pildolol

10
 e) Timolol

52. A 20 year old patient is suffering from acute attack of malaria. His blood film has
shown plasmodium vivax parasite. He got chloroquine for this attack but avoid future
relapses of such attack. We must be given:
a) Mefloquine
b) Quinine
c) Primaquine
d) Pyrimethamine – sulfadoxine
e) Proguanil

53. A 45 year old female undergone gallbladder surgery. After surgery she developed
paralytic ileus and for this patient put on parenteral feeds for 8 days. A nurse observer
surgical wounds and I/V sites began to ooze small and constant amount of blood. Which
of the following is the appropriate treatment for this patient?
a) Ticlodipine
b) Factor VIII
c) Vitamin K
d) Folic acid
e) Urokinase

54. Following stimulates the secretion of insulin except

a) Stimulation of β2 adrenergic receptors
b) Stimulation of α2 adrenergic receptors
c) Fatty acids
d) Amino acids
e) All of the above

55. Vitamin B12 is a required cofactor for the following reaction:

a) Conversion of homocysteine to methionine
b) Conversion of methylmelonyl Co-A to succinyl Co-A
c) Conversion of 5-methyl tetrahydrofolate to tetrahydrofolate
d) Conversion of met hemoglobin to hemoglobin
e) All of the above

56. Which of the following statements regarding bronchodilating mechanism of action of

theophyline is correct?
a) Its stimulate CAMP phosphodiestrase
b) It is an adrenosine receptor agonists
c) It does not cause the BBB
d) It blocks the release acetylcholine in the bronchial tree
11
 e) It inhibits cyclic AMP phosphodiestrase

57. For the treatment of Giardiasis the first drug of choice is:
a) Tetracycline
b) Metronidazole
c) Clindamycine
d) Tinidazol
e) Vancomycin

58. Following aminoglycosides has the broadest antimicrobial spectrum

a) Tobramycin
b) Amikacin
c) Kanamycin
d) Netilmycin
e) Gentamycin

59. All of the drugs should be avoided or used as reduced dosage in patients who have
impaired renal function except:
a) Digoxin
b) Suxamethonium
c) Gentamycin
d) Methotrexate
e) D – Tubucurarine

60. A bus driver comes in to asthma clinic complaining that he is sneezing constantly has
burning and watery eyes he has these symptoms every? Which of the following drug is
more appropriate?
a) Salbutamol
b) Dimenhydrenate
c) Fexofenadine
d) Cetrizine
e) Terbutaline

61. A patient with SLE is receiving glucocorticoids therapy. She should consequently
receive supplement therapy with which of the following:
a) Ca++
b) Carotene
c) Iron
d) Folate
e) Vitamin B12

12
62. A 48 year old male with AIDS now develops blurring of vision in his right eye,
examination reveals lesion on the retina. The most accurate therapy would be , to give”
a) Zidovudine
b) Amantadine
c) Acyclovir
d) Vidarabine
e) Gancyclovir

63. Which of the following drug has a major action on cerebral vasculature?
a) Verapamil
b) Nifedipine
c) Amlodipine
d) Nimodipine
e) Diltiazem

64. Which of the following is used as 1st line drug in acute status epilepticus?
a) Phenytoin
b) Carbamazepine
c) Benzodiazepines
d) Phenobarbital
e) Ethosuximide

65. Which of the following is used as 1st line drug for treatment of absence seizures?
a) Lomotrigine
b) Phenytoin
c) Ethosuximide
d) Vigabatrin
e) Levetiracetam

66. Which of the following drug causes Stevens-Jhonson syndrome?

a) Benzodiazepine
b) Gabapentin
c) Lamotrigine
d) Valproic acid
e) Phenytoin

67. Which of the following drug is associated with an increased risk of deep venous
thrombosis?
a) Oral contraceptives
b) Ramipril
c) Naproxen
d) Salfasalazine
e) Methotrexate

68. Which of the following drug is associated with congenital heart disease?

13
 a) Phenytoin
b) Acetaminophen
c) Phenobarbital
d) Prednisone
e) Penicillin

69. A patient is advised to take anti-coagulant, warfarin, orally. The anticoagulant activity
can be monitored by checking
a) APTT
b) Platelet count
c) PT
d) Clothing time
e) Bleeding time

70. Which of the following agents used to treat gout could actually increase the frequency
of acute gouty attacks during initial therapy?
a) Sulfinpyrazone
b) Allopurinol
c) Colchicine
d) Probenecid
e) Indomethacin

71. Ondansetron, a drug used to control vomiting has the following mechanism of action:
a) Monoclonal antibody to TNF
b) Long acting somatostatin analogue
c) 5HT3 antagonist
d) PGE analog
e) Inhibit H+/K+ ATPase

72. Which of the following is contraindicated in anuria?

a) Acetazolamide
b) Mannitol
c) Furosemide
d) Hydrochorthiazide
e) Spironolactone

73- Drugs following zero order kinetics:

a) Have narrowmargin of safety.
b) Have variable half-life
c) Are rapidly excreted
d) Are rapidly metabolised
e) Metabolizing enzymes become saturated

14
74- A loading dose is initially required for the drugs that:
a) Have a large therapeutic index
b) Are rapidly excreted from body
c) Have extensive binding with tissues/proteins
d) Have a weak pharmacological activity
e) Are rapidly absorbed.

75- A drug which binds to receptor competes with and prevents binding of other drugs is
known as
a) Antagonist
b) Pharmacological antagonist
c) Antagonist to drug
d) Competitive antagonist
e) Two drugs have equal affinity

76- Partial Agonist possess which one of the following properties

a) Affinity
b) Both affinity and intrinsic activity
c) Produce less response on binding with receptor
d) Affinity but less intrinsic activity
e) Has intrinsic activity

77- Drug metabolism does mostly occur in one of the following sites:
a) Skin
b) Lungs
c) Liver
d) Kidney
e) Wall of intestine

78- Acetylcholine is metabolized by which enzyme at synaptic cleft

a) Acetylcholinesterase
b) Pseudocholinesterase
c) Esterase
d) Enzyme protein in nature
e) Enzyme which breakdown acetylcholine

79- Cardiac muscle in heart (ventricles) contain which type of autonomic receptors
15
 a) Muscarinic
b) M2
c) Beta receptors
d) Β1 receptors
e) Autonomic

80- Among choline esters used clinically which drug has susceptibility to cholinesterase
enzyme.
a) Acetylcholine
b) Methacholine
c) Carbachol
d) Bethanicol
e) Physostigmine

81- Oximes if given early can reverse the toxicity of

a) Echothiopate
b) physostigmine
c) Parathion
d) Mushroom poisoning.
e) Neostigmine

82- A patient aged 32 years had abdominal surgery due to acute intestinal obstruction, he
was shifted to ward. Next day house officer noted that bowl sounds are absent patient
was suffering from paralytic ileus. Which of the following parasympathomimetic drug
is preferred
a) Neostigmine
b) Physostigmine
c) Acetylcholine
d) Ecothiopate
e) Amebonium

83- Atropine toxicity causes

a) Dehydration
b) Hallucination
c) Hypertension
d) Hyperthermia
e) Tachycardia
84- Drug of choice in motion sickness
a) Scopolamine
b) Atropine
c) Ipratropium bromide
d) Cyclopentolate
e) Promethazine

85- One of the important adverse effect produced by salbutamol is

a) Tachycardia

16
 b) Uterine relaxation
c) Bronchodilatation
d) Tremors
e) Alteration of blood glucose level

86- Corticosteroids are used in asthma because they cause

a) Bronchodilatation
b) Mast cell stabilization
c) Anti-inflammatory effect
d) Inhibit release of mediators.
e) Leukotriene pathway inhibition.

87- Macrolides are drug of choice against

a) Gram + ve organisms
b) Anthrax
c) Corynaebacterial infections
d) Staphylococcal infections
e) Streptococcal infections

88- Cause of Clindamycin induced diarrhea and colitis is

a) Pseudomonas
b) Clostridium difficile
c) Overgrowth of pathogenic bacteria
d) Destruction of normal bacterial flora
e) Increase motility of gut

89- Aminoglycosides are not absorbed orally because they

a) Have large molecular weight
b) Are polar in nature
c) Lipid insoluble
d) Have difficulty in crossing membranes.
e) Are excreted by the kidneys.

90- A patient was transported by ambulance to the emergency department because he has
taken potentially lethal dose of aspirin. Which drug would be helpful, if not life-saving,
adjunct to manage severe aspirin poisoning?
a) Acetaminophen
b) N-acetylcysteine
c) Oxygen inhalation
d) Sodium bicarbonate
e) Alkalinize the urine

91- If a patient with allergic symptoms prefer to take first generation antihistamine what
will be the annoying symptom hindering his work

17
 a) Orthostatic hypotension
b) Tachycardia
c) Dry mouth
d) constipation
e) Sedation

92- The purgative not preferably prescribed to pregnant women is

a) Castor oil
b) Lactulose
c) Sorbital
d) Sodium phosphate
e) Bulk laxative

93- Negative feed-back for auto regulation of nor-adrenaline release is mediated by:
a) Beta 1 presynaptic receptor
b) Beta 2 postsynaptic receptor
c) Alpha 1 postsynaptic receptor
d) Alpha 2 presynaptic receptor
e) D1 receptor

94- Disadvantages of nasal decongestants are all of the following Except:

a) Rebound congestion
b) Necrosis of nasal mucosa
c) Hypertension
d) Hypotension
e) Vasoconstriction

95- Chromoglycate sodium:

a) Should be administered I/V in status asthamaticus
b) Prevents potassium efflux from mast cells.
c) Contains steroid nucleus in its structure.
d) Is useful only for prophylaxis of asthma attacks.
e) Is a bronchodilator.

96- Which of the following antiarrhythmic drugs is the least depressant of AV conduction
of cardiac impulse:
a) Procainamide
b) Encainide
c) Lignocaine
d) Amiodarone
e) Propranolol

97- Which of the following anti-malarials is used as radical curative for plasmodium
vivax/ovale malarial infections:
a) Quinine
b) Primaquine

18
 c) Proguanil
d) Amodiaquine
e) Chloroquine

98- The drug of choice against all superficial ringworm infections (dermatophyte) is:
a) Nystatin
b) Amphotericin-B
c) Flucytosine
d) Griseofulvin
e) Amphotericin- A

99- Pethidine as compared to Morphine:

a) Is a mixed agonist/antagonist
b) Does not suppress cough centre
c) Has less oral bioavailability
d) Is more depressant of respiration
e) Has good taste.

100- Cimetidine as compared to Ranitidine:

a) Has less anti-androgen effects
b) Causes less drug interactions
c) Causes more CNS effects
d) Has longer duration of action.
e) Is rapidly excreted by kidneys.

19