1. What is the mechanism through which IT governance affects firm performance?

a. IT governances impacts IT-Business Alignment, and IT-Business Alignment

impacts Firm Performance.
b. IT-Business Alignment influences IT Governance, and IT Governance influences Firm
Performance.
c. IT-Business Alignment influences Firm Performance, and Firm Performance
influences IT Governance.

2. If a company has a well functioning IT steering committee, the company is more likely to
achieve IT-Business alignment?
1 / 1 point
True
False

3. IT governance leads to?

1 / 1 point
a. IT and business alignment about the new products to introduce.
b. IT and business alignment about how business processes should work.
c. IT and business alignment about which new markets to enter.
d. All of the above.

4. IT governance includes choices about?

1 / 1 point
a. What key IT decisions need to be made.
b. Who makes these decisions?
c. How these decisions are made?
d. All of the above.

5. If a company is primarily interested in IT-enabled innovation and differentiation, the

_________ is the most appropriate decision making structure.
1 / 1 point
a. Business Monarchy
b. IT Monarchy
c. Feudal
d. All of the above.

6. An IT investment approval process is used to describe:

1 / 1 point
a. The business and IT alignment of a new project.
b. The financial cost-benefit analysis for a new project.
c. The risk associated with a new project.
d. All of the above.

7. What is a key managerial IT governance decision?

1 / 1 point
a. IT Infrastructure strategy
b. IT Architecture
c. IT Principle
8. If a company competes on the basis of differentiation, then the CIO should ideally report
to the ____________.
1 / 1 point
a. CEO
b. CFO
c. COO
d. None of the above.

9. The IT steering committee is a key IT governance decision making structure. The

primary role of this decision making structure is to:
1 / 1 point
a. Define IT architecture standards.
b. Define IT principles.
c. Specify the Service Level Agreements for the IT organization.
d. All of the above.

10. In the replication operating model, firms share data across different business units?
1 / 1 point
True
False

11. The rationalized data/optimized core stage of the enterprise IT architecture would be
appropriate for a firm operating with the replication model?
1 / 1 point
True
False

12. A distinctive feature of the rationalized data/optimized core stage of the enterprise IT
architecture is:
1 / 1 point
a. Standardized infrastructure across the organization.
b. IT applications to meet specific users' needs.
c. Standardized business processes across the organization.
d. Experiments to meet local needs.

13. A distinctive governance mechanism in the rationalized data /optimized core stage of
enterprise IT architecture is:
1 / 1 point
a. Business case.
b. IT standards committee.
c. Enterprise-wide process owners.

14. In which operating model do firms standardize business processes and share data across
business units?
1 / 1 point
a. Diversification.
b. Unification.
 c. Coordination.
d. Replication.

15. The evolution of enterprise IT architecture follows this sequence.

1 / 1 point
a. Application Silo, Standardized Technology, Rationalized Data/Optimized Core,
Modular Architecture.
b. Application Silo, Rationalized Data/Optimized Core, Standardized Technology,
Modular Architecture.
c. Application Silo, Standardized Technology, Modular Architecture, Rationalized
Data/Optimized Core.
d. Application Silo, Modular Architecture, Standardized Technology, Rationalized
Data/Optimized Core.

16. A distinctive feature of the modularity stage of the enterprise IT architecture is:
1 / 1 point
a. Standardized infrastructure across the organization.
b. IT applications to meet specific users' needs.
c. Standardized business processes across the organization.
d. Experiments to meet local needs.

17. The key strategic implication of the rationalized data / optimized core stage of enterprise
IT architecture is?
1 / 1 point
a. Local optimization.
b. Operational efficiency.
c. Speed to market.
d. All of the above.

18. This type of estimate requires understanding of the work packages (units of work) that
have to be executed to complete the project.
1 / 1 point
a. Order of Magnitude Estimate.
b. Budget Estimate.
c. Definitive.

19. In calculating the environmental complexity factor, if a factor (e.g., stability of

requirements) has higher assigned value then that factor increases the environmental
complexity factor:
1 / 1 point
True
False

20. IT systems often create strategic benefits. Strategic benefits are generally ________.
1 / 1 point
a. Tangible.
b. Intangible.
21. In the use case method a complex actor has higher impact on the final use case point
compared to a less complex use case.
1 / 1 point
True
False

22. In the use case point method of software cost estimation, a higher/larger number for the
productivity factor means the developer takes more time to code one use case point, thus
the developer is less productive:
1 / 1 point
True
False

23. IT systems often create intangible benefits. These intangible benefits are reflected in the
__________ of the firm?
1 / 1 point
a. Balance sheet.
b. Market value.

24. An IT system is implemented, even when it has a negative NPV, because the system
allows other follow on projects. This is an example of _________ ?
1 / 1 point
a. Deferral.
b. Staging.
c. Growth option.

25. Process improvement projects are appropriately evaluated using __________ .

1 / 1 point
a. NPV based business case.
b. Real Options analysis.

26. Large system implementations often require cooperation customers and/or supplier? This
is an example of _______________ risk.
1 / 1 point
a. Development.
b. Organizational.
c. Market.

27. An IT system is being implemented as it has a positive NPV. However, during system
development, regulations change and the project no longer has a positive NPV. The real
options approach would suggest _________ ?
1 / 1 point
a. Continue with the project, as project termination may hurt the morale of the project
team.
b. Terminate the project and reallocate resources to a more profitable project.

28. Transformation projects are appropriately evaluated using __________ .

1 / 1 point
 a. NPV based business case.
b. Real Options analysis.

29. Project Management is about doing the right projects, whereas Portfolio Management is
about doing projects right.
1 / 1 point
True
False

30. An innovation focused firm spends more on __________ compared to the average firm.
1 / 1 point
a. Firm wide infrastructure
b. Transactional systems
c. Informational systems
d. Strategic systems

31. Information Technology Portfolio Management is more important for firms that:
1 / 1 point
a. Execute one large project every year.
b. Execute multiple projects in a given year.

32. Strategic systems are about?

1 / 1 point
a. Providing aggregated information for decision making.
b. Performing core business processes of the firm cost effectively.
c. Providing competitive advantage or reducing competitive disadvantage.
d. All of the above.

33. Which element of the IT investment portfolio is about the long-term strategy of the firm?
1 / 1 point
a. Firm wide infrastructure
b. Transactional systems
c. Informational systems
d. Strategic systems

34. In the service center approach to IT chargeback, IT units offer services for a price where
the price is set to recover the IT unit's costs of providing the service.
1 / 1 point
True
False’

35. The main advantage of the service center approach to IT chargeback is __________.
1 / 1 point
a. The simplicity of the approach.
b. The incentives for users to consume IT services prudently.
c. The incentives for the IT unit to be as efficient as possible.
d. All of the above.
36. If the IT and the user organizations understand IT costs because of the IT chargeback
system in place, then the IT chargeback system is likely to lead to better IT decisions.
1 / 1 point
True
False

37. In the profit center approach to IT chargeback, IT units offer services for a price where
the price is set based on the market price for the same service.
True
False

38. If the IT chargeback system suggests that the IT organization has been continuously
reducing the price for an IT service and the price charged compares favorably with the
market price for the service, then the IT chargeback system is likely to lead to a higher
reputation for competence for the IT organization.
1 / 1 point
True
False

39. If users believe that leaning to use the new information system is going to cost significant
time and effort on their part, it is rational on their part to resist the implementation of the
new system.
1 / 1 point
True
False

40. In the demand driven model of user adoption, if a user believes that many other users are
adopting the new system, they are less likely to themselves adopt the new system.
1 / 1 point
True
False

41. Top management support is more important in information systems implementations

when task interdependence is low than when task interdependence is high.
1 / 1 point
True
False

42. If users have invested significant time and effort to learn and master using the current
system, they are more likely to resist the implementation of a new system:
1 / 1 point
True
False

43. In the supply driven model of user adoption, institutions that remove knowledge barriers
reduce the adoption of new systems.
1 / 1 point
 True
False

44. Users find it easier to learn from and solve problems with the help of peers and
coworkers than with help form external consultants and the internal help desk.
1 / 1 point
True
False

45. The evolutionary approach uses ______ to implement a new system.

1 / 1 point
a. Firm milestone
b. Flexible milestones

46. The role of management in the learning approach to implementing a new system
emphasizes:
1 / 1 point
a. Providing clear purpose, scope, and resources to implement the new system.
b. Creating an environment where new capabilities are developed and knowledge is
shared.

47. In the learning approach to implementing a new system, users are more likely to learn to
use the new system from ____________________.
1 / 1 point
a. External consultants and power users.
b. Self discovery and from peers.

48. The use of outsiders and new management team is more appropriate for the
implementation of ___________.
1 / 1 point
a. Evolutionary change.
b. Revolutionary change.

49. In what deliverable does a PM identify phases & deliverables, create WBS, estimate
tasks, create dependencies, and assign people to tasks?
1 / 1 point
a. Work Plan
b. Triple Constraint
c. Critical Path

50. Which of the following diagrams can be used to document a business process?
1 / 1 point
a. Swim-lane diagram
b. Flow charts
c. All of the above

51. What diagram includes a system, external entities, processes, boundaries, inputs, and
outputs?
 1 / 1 point
a. Swim-lane diagram
b. Context diagram

52. What are the four phases of SDLC methodology in order?

1 / 1 point
a. Analyze, Plan, Design, Implement
b. Plan, Analyze, Design, Implement
c. Plan ,Design, Analyze, Implement

53. What differentiates RAD from Waterfall?

1 / 1 point
a. Prototyping
b. Iteration

54. What differentiates Agile from Waterfall?

1 / 1 point
a. Iteratively delivers features via sprints
b. Clearly defined phases with deliverables

55. In what phase(s) of SDLC does an ideal Business Analyst contribute?

1 / 1 point
a. Plan
b. Analyze
c. Design
d. Implement
e. All of the above

56. In what phase(s) is a System Request document introduced?

1 / 1 point
a. Plan
b. Analyze
c. Design
d. Implement

57. What does a feasibility analysis focus on?

1 / 1 point
a. Time
b. Money
c. Quality
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

58. In what phase of SDLC methodology does Organizational Readiness occur?

1 / 1 point
a. Plan
b. Analyze
c. Design
 d. Implement
e. All of the above

59. What phase of the SDLC results in a System Proposal?

1 / 1 point
a. Plan
b. Analyze
c. Design
d. Implement

60. Which of the following is NOT a desirable quality of a good requirement?

1 / 1 point
a. Necessary
b. Consistent
c. Multiple

61. Which of the following is a good sample syntax for writing a good requirement.
a. [Condition] [Subject] [Action] [Object] [Constraint]
b. [Subject] [Condition] [Action] [Object] [Constraint]

62. Which of the following is a good sample syntax for writing a good requirement.
1 / 1 point
a. [Subject] [Action] [Subject] [Value]
b. [Condition] [Action or Constraint] [Value]

63. Functional requirements are usually discussed with subject-matter experts.

1 / 1 point
True
False

64. Non-functional requirements are usually discussed with developers.

1 / 1 point
True
False

65. Which traceability method identifies the gold-plating example given at the beginning of
the module video?
1 / 1 point
a. Forward Traceability
b. Backward Traceability

66. In what phase of SDLC methodology do we write use cases?

1 / 1 point
a. Plan
b. Analyze
c. Design
d. Implement
67. In a use case, what level of detail has exhaustive, numbered steps with data flows?
1 / 1 point
a. Fully-dressed
b. Casual
c. Briefs

68. What are the two major types of relationships among use cases?
1 / 1 point
a. <<extend>> <<include>>
b. <<exclude>> <<include>>

69. When balancing DFDs and ERDs, what will data stores & some external entities become
in an ERD?
1 / 1 point
a. Entities
b. Attributes

70. When balancing DFDs and ERDs, what will data flows become in an ERD?
1 / 1 point
a. Entities
b. Attributes

71. What are the elements of a DFD?

1 / 1 point
a. Process, data flow, data store, external entity
b. Actor, boundary, data

72. What differentiates a context diagram from a process flow diagram?

1 / 1 point
a. Context diagram depicts data flows, sequences of events are not depicted. Process
flow depicts the process. Non-data elements are included. Sequence matters.
b. Process flow diagram depicts data flows, sequences of events are not depicted. Context
diagram depicts the process. Non-data elements are included. Sequence matters.

73. What DFD type focuses on the business and business activities?
1 / 1 point
a. Physical DFD
b. Logical DFD

74. How can a DFD be decomposed into a primitive?

1 / 1 point
a. Through structured english, decision tree, or decision table
b. Through structured english, decision tree, or context table

75. Business Process Model and Notation includes which of the following components?
1 / 1 point
a. A start event, sequence flow, task, gateway "decision", and end event
b. A boundary, external entities, inputs, and outputs
76. What refers to the maximum number of times an instance in one entity can be associated
with instances in the related entity?
1 / 1 point
a. Modularity
b. Cardinality

77. What type of entity instances store attributes that are common to one or more entity
subtypes?
1 / 1 point
a. Supertype
b. Subtype

78. What type of entity instances may inherit common attributes from its entity supertype?
1 / 1 point
a. Supertype
b. Subtype

79. In Object-Oriented Programming, an object is kind of person, place, event, or thing about
which we want to capture.
a. True
b. False

80. An application for a fast food chain models each user with a class. Any user can apply a
5% off coupon code when ordering a meal above $10 (represented by a class labelled
User), however users that pay a monthly fee can also apply a 10% off coupon code when
ordering any menu item from the store and are represented by a subclass of User labeled
specialUser. Is this an example of inheritance?
1 / 1 point
a. Yes
b. No

81. Which of the following is false?

1 / 1 point
a. It is usually much easier to restructure a UML diagram than restructure code.
b. In a sequence diagram, the program is represented visually by an 'actor' that sends
'messages' to the objects throughout the time of the interaction.
c. In a state machine diagram, various states of an object in a program are
represented by arrows throughout the diagram.

82. Which of the following is true about acquisition strategies?

1 / 1 point
a. If a firm does not fully understand how to develop or implement a software system, it
is often more effective to outsource that system to a vendor.
b. In the long run, it is usually more cost-effective to develop new software in-house.
c. One of the drawbacks to outsourcing software development is that it is harder to
control the quality of the design and ensure that it meets the necessary
requirements.
83. Which is the best way to describe an Alternative Matrix?
1 / 1 point
a. Since it considers every technical criteria for a system with a corresponding weight, the
resulting scores of an Alternative Matrix for a given system determine which alternative
is objectively the best decision for the firm to make as it is comprehensive of every factor
going into that system's development.
b. The scores of an Alternative Matrix should only be considered as a factor in the
decision-making process for a firm, and should be weighed against other external
criteria by an experienced leader responsible for the system's development.

84. Online retailers frequently implement systems that recommend other products to
customers based on their previous purchase history, what time of year they made the
purchase, what other customers frequently bought in addition to the customers purchase,
and other data relating to the purchase. This is an example of:
1 / 1 point
a. Business Intelligence Architecture
b. Operational Architecture

85. The best implementation might be a human implementation of a physical process.

1 / 1 point
True
False

86. Which of the following is the definition of "scope creep"?

1 / 1 point
a. When ERP management locks a firm into one ecosystem, resulting in all data being
managed under the same vendor.
b. When additional features are requested during the implementation phase of a
project, thus increasing the cost and time required to complete said project.

87. The Business Analyst is involved with preparing the technology during the migration
plan.
1 / 1 point
True
False

88. The Maintenance phase in the SDLC described in this course is the longest and costliest
phase.
1 / 1 point
True
False

89.