Prelim Exam

Chemical Rxn Eng

March 04.2022
I. Underline the best answer
1. Differential method for analysing the kinetic data is used
a. for testing complicated mechanisms. c. when rate expressions are very simple.
b. when the data are scattered. d. none of these
2. A first order reaction has a rate constant of 1.00 s-1. What is the half life of the reaction?
a. 1.38 c. 0.0055
b. 1 d. 0.6931
3. Variables affecting the rate of homogeneous reactions are
a. pressure and temperature only.
b. temperature and composition only.
c. pressure and composition only.
d. pressure, temperature and composition.
4. The reaction in which the rate equation corresponds to a stoichiometric equation, is called a/an
__________ reaction.
a. Elementary c. parallel
b. non-elementary d. autokinetic
5. In case of the irreversible unimolecular type, first order reaction, the fractional conversion at any
time for constant volume system as compared to variable volume system is
a. More c. Same
b. Less d. either (a) or (b), depends on other factors
6. For a zero order reaction, the concentration of product increases with the
a. increase of reaction time. c. Total pressure
b. increase in initial concentration. d. Decrease in total pressure
7. A catalyst inhibitor
a. lessens its selectivity.
b. may be useful for suppressing undesirable side reactions.
c. is added in small quantity during the catalyst manufacture itself.
d. all(a), (b) and (c).
8. What is the order of a chemical reaction whose rate is deter-mined by the variation of one
concentration term only ?
a. Zero b. First c. Second d. Third
9. The fractional volume change between no conversion and complete conversion, for the isothermal
gas phase reaction, 2A→ R, is
a. 0.5 b. -0.5 c. 1 d. 1.5
10. For a homogeneous reaction of nth order, the dimension of the rate constant is given by
a. l/(time)n c. (concentration)n-1/(time)
1-n
b. (concentration) /(time) d. none of these
11. The rate of the chemical reaction A→ B doubles as the concentration of A i.e.., CA is doubled. If rate
of reaction is proportional to CAn, then what is the value of n for this reaction ?
a. 0.5 b. 1 c. 0 d. 2
1
12. An elementary reaction, 2 A + C  D, is second order in A and first order in C. The rate of
disappearance of A is 2.5 x 10-1 M/s when the concentrations of A, C, and D are all 1.00 M. What is
the rate constant for the reaction?
a. 1.38 x108 M-2s b. 0.0055 x108 M-2s-1 c. 1 x108 M-s-1 d. 2.5 x108 M-2s-1
13. Dinitrogen tetroxide reacts with carbon dioxide as shown below

N 2 O4 g   2CO2 g   2CO2 g   2NO2 g 

If N2O4 reacts at a rate of 22M/s, what is the rate of NO formation?
a. 22M/s b. 11M/s c. 5.5 M/s d. None of these

14. If A  B+ 30kJ, which of the following is true.

a. ∆H=30kJ b. the products have more energy c. All of these d. None of these

15. For the reaction AB, ∆H=30kJ, which of the following is true.
a. A B+30kJ b. the products have more energy c. All of these d. None of these

16. For the elementary reaction: 2A + B  2S, 2 liters of solution containing 9 molar A is mixed with 1 liter of
solution containing 9.3 molar B . If 50% of the limiting reactant is consumed, what will be the value of C A?
a. 3 moles/liter b. 4.5 moles/liter c. 1.55 moles/liter d. 2.25 moles/liter

17. For the reaction A + B  2C, when CA is doubled the rate doubles; when CA and CB are both doubled, the
rate increases to almost 2.8 times. The rate equation is
.0.5 2
a. ( rC) = kCACB b. ( rB) = kCACB c. ( -rA) = kCACB d. (- rA) = kCACB

18. When the reaction time is a function of conversion and not of initial concentration, the order of the reaction
is.
a. zero-order b. first-order c. second-order d. third-order

19. Dust particles suspended in the air inside unheated grain elevators can sometimes react explosively because
the dust particles have a:
a. High kinetic energy b. High activation energy
c. Catalytic effect on the reaction d. Large surface area for the reaction

20. Consider the reaction A B D. Which of the following is a possible rate law for the reaction
a. Rate=k [A] b. rate= k [B] c. rate= k [D] d. rate= k [B] [D]

21. Which of the following will surface area have an effect on the rate of reaction
a. between two gases b. a solid and a gas c. between two gases d. None of these
22. Concentration plays an important role in reactions according to the collision theory of chemical reactions.
This is because as the concentration of the reactants increases,
a. the frequency of the molecules colliding increases
b. striking each other faster by being in closer contact at any given point in time
c. All of these d. None of these
23. Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding effect of temperature based on collision
theory?
a. at higher temperatures molecules have more vibrational energy
b. raising the temperature increases the number of collisions
c. raising the temperature can result in rearrangement of atoms within the reactant molecules.
d. All of these e. None of these

2
24. Which of the following is not true regarding catalyst
a. In autocatalysis, a reaction product is itself a catalyst
b. Enzymes are catalysts
c. Catalyst can provide a different reaction mechanism to occur with a lower activation energy
d. All of these e. None of these
25. Which of the following is not true regarding Arrhenius equation
a. shows the dependence of the rate constant k of chemical reactions on the temperature T and activation
energy Ea,
b. decreasing the activation energy will result in an increase in rate of reaction.
c. First proposed by Svante Arrhenius d. None of these
26. Which of the following is not true regarding the effect of increasing pressure on the rate of reaction of reacting
gases?
a. increasing the pressure, decreases the volume between molecules
b. increasing the pressure, increases the number of collisions between reactants
c. the activity of a gas is inversely proportional to the partial pressure of the gas
d. similar to the effect of increasing the concentration of a solution.
27. The reaction between nitric oxide and chlorine is believed to proceed via a two-step mechanism:
NO + Cl2 → NOCl2 (fast)
NOCl2 + NO →2NOCl (slow)
2NO + Cl2 → 2NOCl2
Which of the following rate law is correct?

a. rNOCl  kNO2 Cl 2  b. rNOCl  kNOCl2  c. rNOCl  kNO2 d. rNOCl  kNO2 Cl 2 2
2 2 2 2

28. Consider the following reaction: 2H2O2(aq) → 2 H2O(t) + O2(g)

When 1.0 g of KI is added to the H2O2, bubbles of O2 are produced at an increased rate. When the reaction is
complete, the mass of KI is 1.0 g. The KI is a
a. Product b. Catalyst c. Reactant d. Reaction Intermediate

29. The fractional volume change of the system for the isothermal gas phase reaction, 3A→ B , between no
conversion and complete conversion is
a. 2/3 b. -2/3 c. 2.0 d. -2.0
30. Consider the following factors:
I. Concentration of reactants II. Temperature of reactants. III. Surface area of reactants.
The factors that affect the rate of a chemical reaction between two gases are
a. I and II only b. I and III only c. II and III only. d. I, II, and III
31. The rate constant of a chemical reaction decreases by decreasing the
a. pressure b. concentration of reactants c. temperature d. duration of reaction
dCR
32. Reaction rate equation for the reaction. R + 2S→ C+B 
is  kC R CS2
dt
If S is present in large excess, what is the order of this reaction?
a. Zero b. One c. Two d. Three
33. The reaction between oxygen and organic material is a/an __________ reaction.
a. Exothermic b. Endothermic c. Biochemical d. Photochemical

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34. With decrease in temperature, the equilibrium conversion of a reversible endothermic reaction
a. decreases b. increases c. remains unaffected d. increases linearly with temperature
35. Specific rate constant for a second order reaction
a. is independent of temperature b. varies with temperature.
c. depends on the nature of the reactants d. both (b) and (c).
36. For a zero order chemical reaction, the
a. half-life period is directly proportion to the initial concentration of the reactants.
b. plot of products concentration with time is a straight line through the origin.
c. products concentration increases linearly with time.
d. all (a), (b) and (c)
37. The excess energy of reactants in a chemical reaction required to dissociate into products is termed as the
__________ energy.
a. activation b. potential c. binding d. threshold
38. For a solid catalysed chemical reaction, the effectiveness of solid catalyst depends upon the __________
adsorption.
a. physical b. chemical c. both (a) and (b) d. neither (a) nor (b)
liter
39. The dimensions of rate constant for reaction 3A→ B are; k  mole h  Therefore the reaction
order is
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
40. If the time required to complete a definite fraction of reaction varies inversely as the concentration of the
reactants, then the order of reaction is
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
41. When a candle C20H42 burns, the following reaction occurs:
2C20H42(s) + 61O2(g)  40CO2 + 42H2O(g)
If the rate of production of CO2 is 0.49 g/min, what is the rate of oxygen consumption?
a. 0.24 g/min b. 0.27 g/min c. 0.36 g/min d. 0.54 g/min
42. Which of the following properties could best be monitored in order to determine the reaction rate of the
above burning candle?
a. mass of C20H42 b. pressure of H2O c. surface area of C20H42 d. concentration of C20H42
43. A first order irreversible reaction, A → B is carried out separately in a constant volume as well as in a variable
volume reactor for a particular period using the same initial concentration. It signifies that __________ in the
two reactors.
a. both conversion as well as concentration are same
b. conversion in both will be the same but concentrations will be different
c. both the conversion as well as concentrations will be different
d. none of these.
44. A reaction in which one of the products of reaction acts as a catalyst is called a/an __________ reaction.
a. Catalytic b. Autocatalytic c. Photochemical d. none of these
45. Which of the following will favor the reverse reaction in a chemical equilibrium reaction ?
a. Increasing the concentration of one of the reactants.
b. Increasing the concentration of one or more of the products.
c. Removal of at least one of the products at regular interval.
d. None of these.

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46. In a/an __________ reactor, there is exchange of heat with the surroundings with sizeable temperature
variation.
a. Adiabatic b. Isothermal c. non-adiabatic d. none of these.
47. If a solid-gas non-catalytic reaction occurs at very high temperature, the rate controlling step is the
__________ diffusion.
a. Film b. ash layer c. Pore d. none of these
48. For a gaseous phase reaction, rate of reaction is equal to KCACB. If the volume of the reactor is suddenly
reduced to l/4th of its initial volume, then the rate of reaction compared to the original rate will be __x
a. 8 b. 16 c. 1/8 d. 1/16
49. In a reversible chemical reaction having two reactants in equilibrium, if the concentration of the reactants are
doubled, then the equilibrium constant will
a. remain the same b. be halved c. also be doubled d. become one fourth
50. The addition of a catalyst to a reaction provides an alternative mechanism with
a. Lower activation energy and lower reaction rate b. Lower activation energy and higher reaction rate
c. Higher activation energy and lower reaction rate d. Higher activation energy and higher reaction rate
51. The effect of increasing pressure on the gaseous equilibrium of the reaction
2A+3B → 3S+2D indicates that
a. pressure has no effect b. backward reaction is favoured
c. forward reaction is favoured d. none of these.
52. When a catalyst increases the rate of forward reaction, the value of rate constant
a. Increases b. Decreases c. remain same d. becomes infinite
53. Which combination of factors will affect the rate of the following reaction?
Zn(s) + 2HCl (aq) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
a. Temperature and surfaces only b. Temperature and concentration only
b. Concentration and surface area only c. Temperature, concentration, and surface area
54. Which of the following factors affect the rates of both homogeneous and heterogeneous reactions
I. Nature of reactants II. Presence of a catalyst
III. Temperature of system IV Concentration of reactants
a. I and IV only b. II and III only c. II, III and IV only d. I, II, III and IV
55. When all the limiting reactant is consumed in the reaction, the operational yield __________ the relative
yield.
a. is greater than b. is smaller than c. Equals
d. can be either greater or smaller than (depends on the type of reaction)
56. An untreated sugar cube does not burn when held over a lighted match. A sugar cube coated with cigarette
ash readily ignites and burns. All of the cigarette ash remains after the reaction. The factor that caused this
change in rate is the
a. Nature of reactants b. Presence of a catalyst
c. Increase in surface area d. Increase in concentration
57. Catalyst carriers
a. have very high selectivity b. increase the activity of a catalyst c. inhibit catalyst poisoning
d. provide large surface area with a small amount of active material
58. Consider the following Reaction: HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → H2O(1) + NaCl (aq) The rate of this reaction could be
determined by monitoring the change of concentration of :
+ + -
a. H b. Na c. Cl d. H2O

5
 59. Consider the following reaction: Zn(s) + 2HCl (aq) → ZnCl 2(aq) + H 2(g)
o
Solid zinc was added to 1.0 M HCl. In 20.0 s. the temperature of the container increased by 0.05 C and 25.00
ml of H2 was produced. The rate of this reaction was:
o
a. 0.5 C b. 1.0 M HCl/s c. 1.25 ml H2/s d. 0.050 mol HCl/s
60. The rate of a chemical reaction can be expressed in
a. Grams/mole. b. Energy consumed/mole
c. volume of gas/ unit time d. moles formed/ l soln
61. At 30oC a 25.0 mL sample of bleach decomposes producing 50.0 mL of oxygen gas in 80 seconds. The rate of
oxygen formation can be determined by the expression
a. 50.0 mL/80s b. 50.0 mL/30oC c. 25.0 mL/80s d. 25.0 mL/30oC

62. In a multi-step reaction, how can you tell from the reaction coordinate diagram what the rate determining step is?
a. The step with the highest activation energy
b. The step with the most stable intermediate product
c. The step with the least stable intermediate product
d. The step whose transition state has the highest energy
63. What is the difference between rate and the rate constant?
a. The rate is independent of temperature whereas the rate constant, according to the Arrhenius equation, is
strongly dependent on temperature.
b. The rate of a reaction depends on the concentrations of reactants, whereas the rate constant is
concentration-independent and measures the intrinsic reactivity of a reaction.
c. They are the same d. None of these
64. What does the difference between the height of the products and that of the reactants on a reaction coordinate
diagram represent?
a. The free energy change of the reaction
b. The rate of the reaction
c. The rate constant
d. Absolutely nothing; the choice of height is arbitrary
65. What is initial rate?
a. Zero, there can be no rate when time equals zero for a reaction
b. The rate of a reaction measured near the end of the reaction
c. The rate of a reaction measured at a time as close to zero as possible
d. None of these
66. What is meant by the total rate of a reaction?
a. The forward rate of the reaction b. The reverse rate of the reaction
c. The sum of the forward and reverse rates of the reaction d. None of these
67. Which of the following will surface area have an effect on the rate of reaction
a. between two gases b. a solid and a gas c. between two gases d. None of these
68. Concentration plays an important role in reactions according to the collision theory of chemical reactions. This is
because as the concentration of the reactants increases,
a. the frequency of the molecules colliding increases
b. striking each other faster by being in closer contact at any given point in time
c. All of these d. None of these
69. Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding effect of temperature based on collision theory?
a. at higher temperatures molecules have more vibrational energy
b. raising the temperature increases the number of collisions
c. raising the temperature can result in rearrangement of atoms within the reactant molecules.
d. None of these

6
70. Which of the following is not true regarding catalyst
a. In autocatalysis, a reaction product is itself a catalyst
b. Enzymes are catalysts
c. Catalyst can provide a different reaction mechanism to occur with a lower activation energy
d. All of these e. None of these
71. Which of the following is not true regarding the effect of increasing pressure on the rate of reaction of reacting
gases?
a. increasing the pressure, decreases the volume between molecules
b. increasing the pressure, increases the number of collisions between reactants
c. the activity of a gas is inversely proportional to the partial pressure of the gas
d. similar to the effect of increasing the concentration of a solution.
72. The rate constant of a chemical reaction decreases by decreasing the
a. pressure b. concentration of reactants c. temperature d. duration of reaction
73. Which of the following will favor the reverse reaction in a chemical equilibrium reaction?
a. Increasing the concentration of one of the reactants.
b. Increasing the concentration of one or more of the products.
c. Removal of at least one of the products at regular interval.
d. None of these.
74. Rate determining step in a reaction consisting of a number of steps in series is the __________ step.
a. Fastest b. Slowest c. Intermediate d. can't be predicted
75. Catalyst carriers
a. have very high selectivity b. increase the activity of a catalyst
c. provide large surface area with a small amount of active material d. inhibit catalyst poisoning.
76. The rate constant of a reaction depends on
a. Initial concentration b. Time of reaction c. Temperature d. Extent of reaction
77. The minimum energy that must be possessed by molecules in order to enter into chemical reaction
a. Kinetic energy b. Potential energy c. Threshold energy d. Activation energy
78. Which of the following will always increase the rate of a chemical reaction?
a. An increase in temperature b. An increase in pressure
c. A decrease in pressure d. An increase in concentration of reactants
79. An increase in temperature increases the rate of a chemical reaction by what means?
a. Decreasing activation energy b. Increasing collision energy
c. Increasing pressure d. Increasing the concentration of reactants
80. Which of these is true regarding the transition state theory:
a. There is a thermodynamic equilibrium between the transition state and the state of the reactants at the top of
the energy barrier
b. The rate of chemical reaction is proportional to the concentration of the particles in the high energy state.
c. All of these d. None of these
81. In an exothermic chemical reaction, the reactants compared to the products have
a. higher temperature b. more energy c. less energy d. same energy
82. At 25oC, a certain reaction is able to produce 0.80 moles of product per minute. At what rate might the product be
produced at 15oC?
a. 1.6 moles/minute b. 0.40 moles per minute c. 0.20 moles/minute d. 0.80 moles/minute
83. The reason why a catalyst increases the rate of reaction is that, it
a. increases the activation energy b. decreases the energy barrier for reaction.
c. decreases the molecular collision diameter d. none of these
84. The place on the enzyme where catalysis occurs________
a. Hotspot b. Binding Site c. Active Site d. All of these
85. Study of chemical kinetics is the easiest in the case of __________ reactions.
a. Reversible b. Irreversible c. All of these d. None of these

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86. The rate at which a chemical substance reacts is proportional to its
a. equivalent weight b. active mass c. molecular weight d. none of these
87. Which one of the following graphs shows the correct relationship between concentration and time for a reaction that
is second order in [A]?

a. b. c. d.
88. The graph shown below depicts the relationships between concentration and time for the following chemical
reaction: A C. The slope of this line is equal to_____

a. -k b. -1/k c. k d. ln[A]o
89. Arrhenius equation represents graphically the variation between the __________ and temperature
a. rate of reaction b. frequency factor c. activation energy d. rate constant
90. What plot generates a straight line for a zero order reaction with positive slope?
a. 1 / [A] versus time b. ln [A] versus time c. XA versus time d. [A] versus time

II. Problem solving ( 5 pts each)

1. The elementary reaction 2A  2R + S takes place isothermally in a constant-volume
experimental reactor. Starting with initial pressure of 10 atm of 80% pure A the pressure
increases by 1 atm in 10 minutes. What is the total pressure after 10 minutes if feed is
introduced at 10 atm, 10% of which are inerts?
a. 11.23 atm b. 10.23atm c. 12.23 d. 10.32atm

2. The rate constant of a chemical reaction increases by 100 times when the temperature is
increased from 400 °K to 500 °K. Assuming transition state theory is valid, the value of E/R is
a. 8987°K b. 9210°K c. 8764°K d. 8621°K

3. The reaction A + 1.5 B  3R takes place in a constant volume reactor where feed is introduced
at 10 atm consisting of 4 atm A, 5 atm B, and 1 atm inerts. If 75% of the limiting reactant is
reacted in 10 minutes, what would be the total pressure?
a.11.625 atm b.1 0.755 atm c. 11.25 atm d. 11.125 atm

4. The reaction A  2R + S takes place isothermally in a constant-volume experimental reactor. Starting

with a mixture of 10 atm A and 2 atm inert, the initial pressure increases by 25% in 8 minutes. If the
same is introduced in an isothermal variable-volume batch reactor, what is the fractional change in
volume after 10 minutes?
a. 0.306 b. 0.35 c. 0.25 d. 0.40

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 Midterm Exam Part 1

April 13.2022

I. Write the letter of the best answer

1. A first order irreversible reaction, A → B is carried out separately in a constant volume as well as in a variable
volume reactor for a particular period using the same initial concentration. It signifies that __________ in the two
reactors.
a. both conversion as well as concentration are same
b. conversion in both will be the same but concentrations will be different
c. both the conversion as well as concentrations will be different
d. none of these.

2. In flow reactors, the performance equations interrelate the rate of reaction to the
a. feed rate b. extent of reaction. c. reactor volume d. all (a), (b) and (c).

3. A stirred tank reactor compared to tubular-flow reactor provides

a. more uniform operating conditions.
b. permits operation at the optimum temperature for a long reaction time.
c. higher overall selectivity for a first order consecutive reaction.
d. all (a), (b) and (c)

4. A chemical reaction, A 3B, is conducted in a constant pressure vessel. Starting with pure A, the volume of the reaction
mixture increases 3 times in 6 minutes. The fractional conversion is
a. 0.33 b. 0.5 c. 1 d. Data is insufficient, can’t be predicted

5. The most unsuitable reactor for carrying out reactions in which high reactant concentration favors high yields is
a. backmix reactor b. plug flow reactor c. batch d. PFR in series

6. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to space velocity of flow reactors.
-1
a. The unit of space velocity is (time) .
-1
b. The space velocity of 3 hr means that three reactor volumes of feed at specified conditions are being fed into the
reactor every hour
-1
c. The space velocity of 3 hr means that one third reactor volume of feed at specified conditions are being fed into
the reactor
d. none of these.
7. A batch reactor is suitable for
a. achieving low percent conversion of reactants into products.
b. large scale gaseous phase reactions.
c. liquid phase reactions.
d. obtaining uniform polymerisation products in highly exothermic reactions.

8. The following statements describe the continuously stirred single-batch reactors, except one.
a. No feed is introduced and no product is drawn out during reaction time
b. Concentration of reactants is uniform throughout the reactor volume
c. Concentration of reactants vary as a function of time
d. Feed is introduced as product is drawn out

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 e. There is shutdown time between reaction time

9. The following statements describe plug-flow reactors except one

a. Feed is introduced simultaneously as product is drawn out
b. Concentration of reactants is not uniform throughout the reactor volume
c. Concentration of reactants vary as a function of time
d. Volumetric feed rate may not necessarily be equal to the volumetric product draw-out rate.

10. Which of the following is not always a valid assumption for an ideal Plug Flow Reactor
a. There is no axial mixing of fluid inside the vessel (in the direction of the flow)
b. The density of the flowing fluid is constant
c. There is complete radial mixing of fluid
d. The flow through the vessel, both, input and output, is continuous
e. The point concentration of reactant is constant.
11. When fluid density is constant which of the following is/are valid
a. t batch   k  t batchv  k b. t plugflow   plugflow c. tbatchvk  t plugflow
d. All of these e. None of these
12. Which of the following is/are valid for all conditions
a. t batch   k  t batchv  k b. t plugflow   plugflow
c. tbatchvk  t plugflow d. t batch  k  t plugflow
13. Which of the following reactors is the formula for space time applicable   t  t s
a. Single-Batch reactor b. Plug-Flow reactor c. Back-Mix reactor

d. All of these e. None of these

14. A reactor is generally termed as an autoclave, when it is a

a. high pressure batch reactor c. high pressure tubular reactor.

b. atmospheric pressure tank reactor d. atmospheric pressure CSTR

15. In flow reactors, the performance equations interrelate the rate of reaction to the
a. feed rate b. reactor volume c. extent of reaction d. all of these
16. A high space velocity means that a given
a. reaction can be accomplished with small reactor. b. conversion can be obtained with a high feed rate.
c. both (a) and (b) d. none of these.
17. In a/an ________ reactor, there is exchange of heat with the surroundings with sizeable temperature variation.
a. Adiabatic b. Isothermal c. Non-adiabatic d. None of these
18. Pick out the wrong statement.
a. In a batch reactor, which is exclusively used for liquid phase reactions; temperature pressure and
composition may vary with time.
b. In a semi-batch reactor, one reactant is charged batch-wise, while the other reactant is fed
continuously.
c. In a continuous flow reactor, uniform concentration can be maintained throughout the vessel in a
well agitated system.
d. In a continuous flow reactor, both the reactants and the products flow out continuously.
19. An autothermal reactor is
a. most suitable for a second order reaction.
b. most suitable for a reversible reaction.
c. completely self-supporting in its thermal energy requirements.

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 d. isothermal in nature.
20. In an ideal tubular-flow reactor
a. there is no mixing in longitudinal direction.
b. mixing takes place in radial direction.
c. there is a uniform velocity across the radius.
d. all (a), (b) and (c).
21. Which of the following is the most suitable for very high pressure gas phase reaction ?
a. Batch reactor b. Tubular flow reactor c. Stirred tank reactor d. Fluidised bed reactor

22. The following statements describe the continuously stirred single-batch reactors, except one.
a. No feed is introduced and no product is drawn out during reaction time
b. Concentration of reactants is uniform throughout the reactor volume
c. Concentration of reactants vary as a function of time
d. Feed is introduced as product is drawn out

23. The half-life of a material undergoing a first-order decay is

a. proportional to the initial concentration b. proportional to the square-root of initial concentration
c. not dependent on the initial concentration d. dependent on initial concentration
24. The following statements describe plug-flow reactors except one
a. Feed is introduced simultaneously as product is drawn out
b. Concentration of reactants is not uniform throughout the reactor volume
c. Concentration of reactants vary as a function of time
d. Volumetric feed rate may not necessarily be equal to the volumetric product draw-out rate.

25. A plug-flow reactor is characterised by

a. high capacity b. presence of axial mixing c. presence of lateral mixing
d. constant composition and temperature of reaction mixture

26. For a tubular reactor with space time τ and residence time t, the following statement holds good
a. τ and t are always equal b. τ = t , when the fluid density changes in the reactor
c. τ = t , for an isothermic tubular reactor in which the density of the process fluid is constant

d. τ = t , for a non-isothermal reactor

27. A chemical reaction, A  3B, is conducted in a constant pressure vessel. Starting with pure A, the
volume of the reaction mixture increases 3 times in 6 minutes. The fractional conversion is
a. 0.5 b. 0.33 c. 0.25 d. 1

28. If the time required to complete a definite fraction of reaction varies inversely as the concentration of the
reactants, then the order of reaction is
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
29. For an isothermal variable volume batch reactor, the following relation is applicable for a first order
irreversible reaction.
11
 C Ao  d 
a. XA = k tb.  x A  k c. -ln(1 - XA) = kt d. εAln (1 - XA) = kt
1   A x A  dt 
30. A first order reaction requires two equal sized CSTR. The conversion is______
a. less when they are connected in series
b. more when they are connected in series.
c. more when they are connected in parallel
d. same whether they are connected in series or in parallel

CHEMICAL REACTION ENGINEERING

Quiz #1 Jan 31.2022
Choose the best answer
1. Which of the following will surface area have an effect on the rate of reaction
b. between two gases b. a solid and a gas c. between two gases d. None of these
2. Concentration plays an important role in reactions according to the collision theory of chemical
reactions. This is because as the concentration of the reactants increases,
d. the frequency of the molecules colliding increases
e. striking each other faster by being in closer contact at any given point in time
f. All of these d. None of these
3. Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding effect of temperature based on
collision theory?
e. at higher temperatures molecules have more vibrational energy
f. raising the temperature increases the number of collisions
g. raising the temperature can result in rearrangement of atoms within the reactant molecules.
h. All of these e. None of these
4. Which of the following is not true regarding catalyst
e. In autocatalysis, a reaction product is itself a catalyst
f. Enzymes are catalysts
g. Catalyst can provide a different reaction mechanism to occur with a lower activation energy
h. All of these e. None of these
5. If A  B+ 30kJ, which of the following is true.
b. The products have less energy b. the products have more energy
c. All of these d. None of these
6. For the reaction AB, ∆H=30kJ, which of the following is true.
b. A B+30kJ b. the products have more energy c. All of these d. None of these
7. Which of the following is not true regarding Arrhenius equation
e. shows the dependence of the rate constant k of chemical reactions on the temperature T and
activation energy Ea,
f. decreasing the activation energy will result in an increase in rate of reaction.
g. First proposed by Svante Arrhenius d. First proposed by van’t Hoff
8. Which of the following is not true regarding the effect of increasing pressure on the rate of
reaction of reacting gases?
e. increasing the pressure, decreases the volume between molecules
f. increasing the pressure, increases the number of collisions between reactants
g. the activity of a gas is inversely proportional to the partial pressure of the gas
h. similar to the effect of increasing the concentration of a solution.
12
9. The fractional volume change of the system for the isothermal gas phase reaction, A→ 3B ,
between no conversion and complete conversion is
a. 2/3 b. -2/3 c. 2.0 d. -2.0
10. The fractional volume change of the system for the isothermal gas phase reaction, 3A→ B ,
between no conversion and complete conversion is
a. 2/3 b. -2/3 c. 2.0 d. -2.0
11. A catalyst
a. initiates a reaction b. lowers the activation energy of reacting molecules.
c. is capable of reacting with any one of the reactants d. All of these
12. The rate constant of a chemical reaction decreases by decreasing the
a. pressure b. concentration of reactants c. temperature d. duration of reaction
13. The reaction between oxygen and organic material is a/an __________ reaction.
a. Exothermic b. Endothermic c. Biochemical d. Photochemical
14. Specific rate constant for chemical reaction
a. is independent of temperature b. varies with temperature.
c. depends on the nature of the reactants d. both (b) and (c).
15. The excess energy of reactants in a chemical reaction required to dissociate into products is
termed as the __________ energy.
a. activation b. potential c. binding d. threshold
16. Fractional conversion __________ with increase in pressure for ammonia synthesis reaction :
N2(g) + 3H2(g) = 2NH3(g).
a. increases b. decreases c. remains unchanged d. unpredictable from the data
17. A reaction in which one of the products of reaction acts as a catalyst is called a/an __________
reaction.
a. Catalytic b. Autocatalytic c. Photochemical d. none of these
18. Which of the following will favor the reverse reaction in a chemical equilibrium reaction ?
a. Increasing the concentration of one of the reactants.
b. Increasing the concentration of one or more of the products.
c. Removal of at least one of the products at regular interval.
d. None of these.
19. In a/an __________ reactor, there is exchange of heat with the surroundings with sizeable
temperature variation.
a. Adiabatic b. Isothermal c. non-adiabatic d. none of these.
20. In a reversible chemical reaction having two reactants in equilibrium, if the concentration of the
reactants are doubled, then the equilibrium constant will
a. remain the same b. be halved c. also be doubled d. become one fourth
21. The effect of increasing pressure on the gaseous equilibrium of the reaction
2A+3B → 3S+2D indicates that
a. pressure has no effect b. backward reaction is favoured
c. forward reaction is favoured d. none of these.
22. When a catalyst increases the rate of forward reaction, the value of rate constant
a. Increases b. Decreases c. remain same d. becomes infinite
23. The rate of a chemical reaction is almost doubled for every 10°C rise in temperature. The rate
will increase __________ times, if the temperature rises from 10 to 100°C.
a. 256 b. 512 c. 112 d. 612
24. Catalyst carriers
a. have very high selectivity b. increase the activity of a catalyst
13
 c. provide large surface area with a small amount of active material
d. inhibit catalyst poisoning.
25. A catalyst inhibitor
a. lessens its selectivity b. may be useful for suppressing undesirable side reactions.
c. is added in small quantity during the catalyst manufacture itself d. all of these.
26. The minimum energy that must be possessed by molecules in order to enter into chemical
reaction
a. Kinetic energy b. Potential energy c. Threshold energy d. Activation energy
27. Which of the following will always increase the rate of a chemical reaction?
a. An increase in temperature b. An increase in pressure
c. A decrease in pressure d. An increase in concentration of reactants
28. An increase in temperature increases the rate of a chemical reaction by what means?
a. Decreasing activation energy b. Increasing collision energy
c. Increasing pressure d. Increasing the concentration of reactants
29. For an effective collision to take place, there must be
a. Sufficiently hard collision b. No products present
c. Correctly oriented collision d. High pressure
30. Which of the following is guaranteed to slow down the rate of a chemical reaction?
a. Increasing the temperature b. Decreasing the concentration of reactants
c. Increasing the pressure d. Decreasing the temperature
Ea

In the Arrhenius equation; k  Ae

RT
31. the frequency factor is_____
a. A b. k c. e d. Ea
32. In an exothermic chemical reaction, the reactants compared to the products have
b. higher temperature b. more energy c. less energy d. same energy
33. The reason why a catalyst increases the rate of reaction is that, it
a. increases the activation energy b. decreases the energy barrier for reaction.
c. decreases the molecular collision diameter d. none of these
34. Photochemical reaction is __________ light
a. accompanied with emission of b. initiated by
c. catalysed by d. used to convert heat energy into
35. Study of chemical kinetics is the easiest in the case of __________ reactions.
a. Reversible b. Irreversible c. All of these d. None of these
36. The rate at which a chemical substance reacts is proportional to its
a. equivalent weight b. active mass c. molecular weight d. none of these
37. The reaction in which the rate equation corresponds to a stoichiometric equation, is called a/an
__________ reaction
a. non-elementary b. Elementary c. Parallel d. Auto kinetic
38. Arrhenius equation represents graphically the variation between the __________ and temperature
a. rate of reaction b. frequency factor c. activation energy d. rate constant

39. The increase in the rate of reaction with temperature is due to

a. increase in the number of effective collisions b. decrease in activation energy.
c. increase in the average kinetic energy of the reacting molecules. d. none of these.
40. In spontaneou s reactions, ΔG is
a. negative b. positive c. Zero d. None of these
41. The tendency of a reaction, whether physical or chemical is:
14
 a. toward a state of minimum energy, or low enthalpy
b. toward a state of maximum disorder, or high entropy.
c. All of these d. none of these
42. The change of enthalpy in a chemical reaction (i.e. the heat of reaction at constant pressure) is
independent of the pathway between the initial and final states.”
a. Hess’s Law b. Gibb’s free energy c. Law of Mass Action d. Le’ Chatelier’s Principle
43. “For a reaction that has a pair of reactive intermediates or reactants that interconvert rapidly,
each going irreversibly to a different product, the product ratio will depend both on the difference
in energy between the two conformers and the free energy of the transition state going to each
product. “
a. Curtin-Hammett Principle b. Le Chatelier’s Principle
c. Law of Mass Action d. Hess Law
44. Formulated the Law of mass action.
a. Peter Waage b. Cato Guldberg c. All of these d. None of these
45. The number of molecules of the reactants taking part in a single step of the reaction tells about
a. Molecularity of reaction b. Mechanism of reaction c. Order of reaction d. All of these
46. What is meant by the total rate of a reaction?
a. The forward rate of the reaction
b. The reverse rate of the reaction
c. The sum of the forward and reverse rates of the reaction
d. None of these
47. What is the difference between rate and the rate constant?
a. The rate of a reaction depends on the concentrations of reactants, whereas the rate constant
is concentration-independent and measures the intrinsic reactivity of a reaction.
b. The rate is independent of temperature whereas the rate constant, according to the Arrhenius
equation, is strongly dependent on temperature.
c. They are the same. d. None of these
48. What does the difference between in the height of the products and that of the reactants on a
reaction coordinate diagram represent?
a. The rate of the reaction b. The free energy change of the reaction
c. The rate constant d. Absolutely nothing; the choice of height is arbitrary
49. Which species is placed on the left in a reaction coordinate diagram?
a. Products b. Intermediates c. Reactants d. Transition states
50. What type of catalyst is in the same phase as the reagents?
a. Homogeneous b. Heterogeneous c. Spiked d. Trenchant

Chemical Reaction Engg

End Term Quiz #1 , Reactors Design

1. A continuously stirred tank reactor (CSTR) with a working volume of 10,000 liters is used for the production of
Baker’s yeast. If the instantaneous concentration of the Biomass in the vessel were 42.45 gram/liter, Determine:
a.) The specific growth rate (μs) of the yeast in order to maintain a daily production of 2 metric ton.
a. 8.33 g/liter.h b. 8.33 mg/liter.h c. 8.33 kg/liter.h d. 0.833 g/liter.h
b.) The daily molasses consumption if the residual sugar in the outgoing broth is 0.5% Glucose (wt/lvol.). The
over-all reaction for aerobic fermentation is expressed as:
a. 9.48 mt/day b. 474.0 kg/day c. 47.40 kg/day d. 47.40 mt/day
0.556 C6H12O6 + 0.301 NH3 + 1.43 O2 = 0.301 C6H10O3N + 2.283 H2O + 1.532 CO2
15
 NOTE: C6H10O3N is the empirical formula for Biomass. Molasses contains 51.2%FS

2. One million liters beer containing 10% v/v ethanol is required to produce AHA.
Applicable data:
Fermentation efficiency= 85% based on fermentable sugar. Distillation Eff=97%; Dehydration =98%
% alcohol AHA=99.9% v/v; Fermentable sugar in molasses = 48%; SG of molasses=1.44;
Cycle time for each reactor = 38 h; net volume of reactors = 550,000 liters
a. Compute the number of fed batch reactors needed
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
b. Compute the mt of molasses required per day
a. 381 mt b. 281 mt c. 38 mt d. 290 mt

3. Design an anaerobic wastewater treatment required to treat the vinasse/slops coming out from the
previous problem. Using the following data.
COD=100,000 mg/L; methane reactor loading rate=2.5 kg COD /m3.d; COD removal efficiency=65%;
Biogas generation=0.45 m3 biogas/kg COD removed.
Determine the following
a. Reactor Hydraulic Retention Time , days
a. 20 days b. 30 days c. 15 days d. 40 days
b. Number of methane reactors required assuming each reactor has a net volume capacity of
10,000m3.
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
c. Volume of biogas produced/day
a. 48,825 m3/d b. 50,825 m3/d c. 55,025 m3/d d. 58,825 m3/d

Prelim Quiz #2 Feb 2.2021

Write the letter of the best answer

1. What is an intermediate?
a. A substance that speeds up the rate of a reaction without being changed.
b. A substance that is both created and consumed during a chemical reaction that does not appear
in the overall balanced reaction.
c. A reactant d. A product
2. In a multi-step reaction, how can you tell from the reaction coordinate diagram what the rate
determining step is?
e. The step with the highest activation energy
f. The step with the most stable intermediate product
g. The step with the least stable intermediate product
h. The step whose transition state has the highest energy
3. What is meant by the total rate of a reaction?
a. The forward rate of the reaction b. The reverse rate of the reaction
c. The sum of the forward and reverse rates of the reaction d. None of these
4. Which of the following will surface area have an effect on the rate of reaction
c. between two gases b. a solid and a gas c. between two gases d. None of these
16
5. Which of the following is not true regarding the effect of increasing pressure on the rate of reaction of
reacting gases?
i. increasing the pressure, decreases the volume between molecules
j. increasing the pressure, increases the number of collisions between reactants
k. the activity of a gas is inversely proportional to the partial pressure of the gas
l. similar to the effect of increasing the concentration of a solution.
6. Which of these is true regarding the transition state theory:
d. There is a thermodynamic equilibrium between the transition state and the state of the
reactants at the top of the energy barrier
e. The rate of chemical reaction is proportional to the concentration of the particles in the high
energy state.
f. All of these d. None of these
7. Postulated the transition state theory.
a. Arrhenius b. vant’ Hoff c. Eyring d. Enstein
8. In an exothermic chemical reaction, the reactants compared to the products have
c. higher temperature b. more energy c. less energy d. same energy
9. At 25oC, a certain reaction is able to produce 0.80 moles of product per minute. At what rate might the
product be produced at 15oC?
a. 1.6 moles/minute b. 0.40 moles per minute c. 0.20 moles/minute d. 0.80
moles/minute
10. The place on the enzyme where catalysis occurs________
a. Hotspot b. Binding Site c. Active Site d. All of these
11. Which one of the following graphs shows the correct relationship between concentration and time for a
reaction that is second order in reactant [A]?

a. b. c. d.
12. The graph shown below depicts the relationships between concentration and time for the following
chemical reaction: 2A C. The slope of this line is equal to_____

a. -k b. -1/k c. k d. ln[A]o

13. Which of the following is true regarding MAXWELL-BOLTZMAN DISTRIBUTION?

a. gaseous molecules are not all traveling at the same speed
b. gaseous molecules all traveling at the same speed
c. large portion of gases possess higher energy as temperature increases
d. a and b d. a and c
14. Which of the following is the first step in heterogeneous catalysis?
a. desorption b. diffusion c. absorption d. reaction

17
15. Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding effect of temperature based on collision
theory?
a. at higher temperatures molecules have more vibrational energy
b. raising the temperature increases the number of collisions
c. raising the temperature can result in rearrangement of atoms within the reactant molecules.

d. All of these e. None of these

16. For a solid catalysed chemical reaction, the effectiveness of solid catalyst depends upon the __________
adsorption.
a. physical b. chemical c. both (a) and (b) d. neither (a) nor (b)
17. ________explains the mechanism of catalysis
a. Activated complex theory b. Collision theory c. Thermodynamics d. All of these e. None
of these
18. Effective diffusivity (DE) in a catalyst pellet is related to molecular diffusivity (DN) and Knudsen diffusivity
(DK) as
a. DE = DM + DK b. DE = DM . DE c. DE = DN/DE d. 1  1  1
DE DN DK
19. If a solid-gas non-catalytic reaction occurs at very high temperature, the rate controlling step is the
__________ diffusion.
a. Film b. ash layer c. Pore d. none of these

20. Which of the following is not a chemical step in a fluid solid catalytic reaction ?
a. Surface chemical reaction b. Adsorption c. Desorption d. None of these

21. For the elementary reaction: 2A+B  2S ; CAo= 8 mols/liter, CBo= 6 mols/liter, CSo= 2mols/liter
If 75% of the limiting reactant is reacted after 5 minutes, what will be the values of CA

a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 1
22. Which of the following collisions models is/are accepted as true?
a. Reactions occur when molecules undergo collisions
b. Not all collisions are effective
c. Collisions are effective only when molecules have sufficient energy d. All of these
23. The plot of 1/T vs Ln k is useful because it allows the determination of
a. Activation energy b. Activation temperature c. Reaction order d.
All of these

24. Based on experiments, gas molecules collisions per second must be around_____ in order to react.
a. 1030 b. 1020 c. 1010 d.106
25. Which of the following is/are considered as experimental facts?
a. Only 1 out of 1030 collisions lead to reaction.
b. Gas-phase reactions has a rate of reaction of around 10-4 M/s
c. All of these d. None of these
26. Knudsen principle applies to______
a. Gases b. Liquids c. Liquids and gases d. Solids and liquid

18
27. The adhesion of atoms or ions to a surface
a. Adsorption b. Absorption c. Sorption d. Diffusion
28. Which of the following steps is the first step in heterogeneous catalysis?
a. Diffusion b. Adsorption c. reaction d. deosrption
29. Developed the relationship between catalytic activity and particle size.
a. Thiele b. Freundlich c. Knudsen d. Breuner-Emmett-Teller

30. Formulated the theory that aims to explain the physical adsorption of gas molecules on a solid surface
a. Thiele b. Freundlich c. Knudsen d. Breuner-Emmett-Teller
31. Formulated the theory on the means of diffusion that occurs when the scale length of a substance is
comparable or smaller than the mean free path of the particles involed.
a. Thiele b. Freundlich c. Knudsen d. Breuner-Emmett-Teller
32. Which of the following is true?
a. Not all surface atoms are effective for catalysis
b. Many gaseous reactions can be catalyzed on an appropriate solid surfaces
c. All of these d. None of these
33. What is an intermediate?
a. A substance that is both created and consumed during a chemical reaction that does not appear
in the overall balanced reaction.
b. A substance that speeds up the rate of a reaction without being changed.
c. A reactant d. A product
34. Which of the following is a property of a mechanism?
a. Each elementary step represents more than one collision.
b. The sum of the elementary steps must equal the overall balanced equation.
c. The mechanism gives approximately the same rate law as determined by experiment.
d. The mechanism is experimentally determined.
35. What is the limit on the number of elementary steps in a mechanism?
a. 3 b. 4 c. There is no limit. d. 5

36. For a series of reaction A 

k1
B 
k2
C
Where k1<<<k2 the reaction system can be approximated as
a. A  B
k1
b. A 
k1
C c. A  k1
B c. A k2
C A 
k1
B 
k2
C

37. Zymase, a collective term for yeast enzyme is a mixture of how many different enzymes?.
a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. a. 10 e. 12
38. Which of the following is true regarding enzymes?
a. All proteins are enzyme b. b. All enzymes are proteins c. All of these d. None of
these
39. The mechanism of enzymatic action involves
a. Slow degradation of the enzyme to form enzyme-substrate complex
b. Temporary union of enzyme with substrate
c. Resistance to deactivation by high temperature
d. Rapid degradation of the enzyme to forma n enzyme-substrate complex

40. Which of these could cause denaturing of enzymes?

a. Temperature b. pH c. All of these d. None of these

19
41. Which of the following is the best evidence for the lock and key theory of enzyme action?
a. Compounds similar in structure to the substrate inhibit enzyme activity
b. Enzymes are found in living organisms and speed up certain reactions
c. Enzymes speed up reactions by definite amounts
d. Enzymes determine the direction of a reaction
42. A substrate binds to its enzyme at a location called the __________ site.
a. coenzyme b. substrate c. active d. apoenzyme
43. Denaturation of an enzyme refers to the
a. improper arrangement of the enzyme in a metabolic pathway
b. loss of the enzymes proper shape c. formation of the enzymes proper shape
c. formation of a new isozyme for that enzyme
44. Which of the following is true regarding denaturing of enzymes?
a. Change in shape b. Loss of biological properties c. All of these d. None of these

45. Which line on the graph represents a catalyzed reaction?

a. Blue b. Red c. Red and Blue d. None of these

46. Which of the major class number of enzyme does oxidoreductases belong?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

47. Which of the following is true regarding mechanism?

a. Achieve the goal by breaking up the over-all chemical equation into a series of elementary steps
b. An elementary step is written to mean a single collision
c. All of these d. None of these
48. Which of the following is true regarding mechanism?
a. Must agree with the experimental rate law
b. It can always be proven absolutely
c. All of these d. None of these
49. Which of the following is not true regarding elementary reactions?
a. Can be reversible b. Can be unimolecular c. Always irreversible
d. None of these e
50. Which of the following is not true regarding elementary reactions?
a. The molecularity of a process tells how many molecules are involved in the process.
b. The rate law for a given step in the mechanism can be written from the equation of the elementary
reactions
c. All of these d. None of these
51. Which of the following is not true regarding multistep mechanism?
a. One of the steps will be slower than all others
b. The over-all reaction cannot occur faster than the rate determining step
c. All of these d. None of these

52. Which of the following intermediate products is the rate-determining step?

a. I1 b. I2 c. All of these d. None of these

20
53. The reaction between nitric oxide and chlorine is believed to proceed via a two-step mechanism:
NO + Cl2 → NOCl2 (fast)

NOCl2 + NO →2NOCl (slow)

2NO + Cl2 → 2NOCl2

54. Which of the following rate law is correct.

 kNO Cl 2   kNOCl2   kNO Cl 2 
c. rNOCl  kNO d. NOCl 2
2 2 2 2
r r r
a. NOCl2 b. NOCl 2 2

55. Consider the reaction A B D. Which of the following is a possible rate law for the disappearance of
A.
b. (-rA)=k [A] b. (-rA)=k [B] c. (-rA)= k [D] d. (-rA)= k [B] [D]

56. Which of the following will surface area have an effect on the rate of reaction
a. between two gases b. a solid and a gas c. between two gases d. None of these
dC
is  dt  kC R CS
R 2

57. Reaction rate equation for the reaction. R + 2S→ C+B

If S is present in large excess, what is the order of this reaction?
a. Zero b. One c. Two d. Three
liter
k
58. The dimensions of rate constant for reaction 3A→ B are; moleh
Therefore the reaction order is
a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3
59. In the rate law (Rate = kA), what does the A stand for?
a. The products in the rate determining step b. Any of the reactants
c. The reactants in rate determining step d. The products
60. What does the m stand for in the rate law equation?
a. Concentration of product b. Rate c. Concentration of reactant d. Reaction order
d. Number of moles

Midterm Quiz #1 Reactor Design

July 9.2021

II. Write the letter of the best answer

31. A first order irreversible reaction, A → B is carried out separately in a constant volume as well as in a variable
volume reactor for a particular period using the same initial concentration. It signifies that __________ in the two
reactors.
B
a. both conversion as well as concentration are same
b. conversion in both will be the same but concentrations will be different
c. both the conversion as well as concentrations will be different
d. none of these.

32. In flow reactors, the performance equations interrelate the rate of reaction to the

21
 b. feed rate c. extent of reaction.
c. reactor volume d. all (a), (b) and (c).
D

33. A stirred tank reactor compared to tubular-flow reactor provides

e. more uniform operating conditions.
f. permits operation at the optimum temperature for a long reaction time.
g. higher overall selectivity for a first order consecutive reaction.
h. all (a), (b) and ©
D

34. A chemical reaction, A 3B, is conducted in a constant pressure vessel. Starting with pure A, the volume of the reaction
mixture increases 3 times in 6 minutes. The fractional conversion is
b. 0.33 b. 0.5 c. 1 d. Data is insufficient, can’t be predicted
C

35. The most unsuitable reactor for carrying out reactions in which high reactant concentration favors high yields is
a. backmix reactor b. plug flow reactor c. batch d. PFR in series
A

36. Pick out the wrong statement pertaining to space velocity of flow reactors.
-1
e. The unit of space velocity is (time) .
-1
f. The space velocity of 3 hr means that three reactor volumes of feed at specified conditions are being fed into the
reactor every hour
-1
g. The space velocity of 3 hr means that one third reactor volume of feed at specified conditions are being fed into
the reactor
h. none of these.
C

37. A batch reactor is suitable for

a. achieving low percent conversion of reactants into products.
b. large scale gaseous phase reactions.
c. liquid phase reactions.
d. obtaining uniform polymerisation products in highly exothermic reactions.
C

38. The following statements describe the continuously stirred single-batch reactors, except one.
a. No feed is introduced and no product is drawn out during reaction time
b. Concentration of reactants is uniform throughout the reactor volume
c. Concentration of reactants vary as a function of time
d. Feed is introduced as product is drawn out

e. There is shutdown time between reaction time

39. The following statements describe plug-flow reactors except one

a. Feed is introduced simultaneously as product is drawn out
22
 b. Concentration of reactants is not uniform throughout the reactor volume
c. Concentration of reactants vary as a function of time
d. Volumetric feed rate may not necessarily be equal to the volumetric product draw-out rate.

40. Which of the following is not always a valid assumption for an ideal Plug Flow Reactor
f. There is no axial mixing of fluid inside the vessel (in the direction of the flow)
g. The density of the flowing fluid is constant
h. There is complete radial mixing of fluid
i. The flow through the vessel, both, input and output, is continuous
j. The point concentration of reactant is constant.
C
41. When fluid density is constant which of the following is/are valid
b. t batch   k  t batchv  k b. t plugflow   plugflow c. tbatchvk  t plugflow
D. All of these e. None of these
D
42. Which of the following is/are valid for all conditions
b. t batch   k  t batchv  k b. t plugflow   plugflow
c. tbatchvk  t plugflow d. t batch  k  t plugflow
D
43. Which of the following reactors is the formula for space time applicable   t  t s
a. Single-Batch reactor b. Plug-Flow reactor c. Back-Mix reactor

d. All of these e. None of these

44. A reactor is generally termed as an autoclave, when it is a

a. high pressure batch reactor c. high pressure tubular reactor.

b. atmospheric pressure tank reactor d. atmospheric pressure CSTR

45. In flow reactors, the performance equations interrelate the rate of reaction to the
b. feed rate b. reactor volume c. extent of reaction d. all of these
D
46. A high space velocity means that a given
b. reaction can be accomplished with small reactor. b. conversion can be obtained with a high feed rate.
C. both (a) and (b) d. none of these.
C
47. In a/an ________ reactor, there is exchange of heat with the surroundings with sizeable temperature variation.
b. Adiabatic b. Isothermal c. Non-adiabatic d. None of these
C
48. Pick out the wrong statement.
e. In a batch reactor, which is exclusively used for liquid phase reactions; temperature pressure and
composition may vary with time.
f. In a semi-batch reactor, one reactant is charged batch-wise, while the other reactant is fed
continuously.
23
 g. In a continuous flow reactor, uniform concentration can be maintained throughout the vessel in a
well agitated system.
h. In a continuous flow reactor, both the reactants and the products flow out continuously.
C

49. An autothermal reactor is

e. most suitable for a second order reaction.
f. most suitable for a reversible reaction.
g. completely self-supporting in its thermal energy requirements.
h. isothermal in nature.
C

50. In an ideal tubular-flow reactor

c. there is no mixing in longitudinal direction.
d. mixing takes place in radial direction.
e. there is a uniform velocity across the radius.
f. all (a), (b) and (c).
D

51. Which of the following is the most suitable for very high pressure gas phase reaction ?
a. Batch reactor b. Tubular flow reactor c. Stirred tank reactor d. Fluidised bed reactor

52. The following statements describe the continuously stirred single-batch reactors, except one.
a. No feed is introduced and no product is drawn out during reaction time
b. Concentration of reactants is uniform throughout the reactor volume
c. Concentration of reactants vary as a function of time
d. Feed is introduced as product is drawn out

53. The half-life of a material undergoing a first-order decay is

a. proportional to the initial concentration b. proportional to the square-root of initial concentration
c. not dependent on the initial concentration d. dependent on initial concentration
D
54. The following statements describe plug-flow reactors except one
a. Feed is introduced simultaneously as product is drawn out
b. Concentration of reactants is not uniform throughout the reactor volume
c. Concentration of reactants vary as a function of time
d. Volumetric feed rate may not necessarily be equal to the volumetric product draw-out rate.

55. A plug-flow reactor is characterised by

b. high capacity b. presence of axial mixing c. presence of lateral mixing
g. constant composition and temperature of reaction mixture
24
c

56. For a tubular reactor with space time τ and residence time t, the following statement holds good
a. τ and t are always equal b. τ = t , when the fluid density changes in the reactor
c. τ = t , for an isothermic tubular reactor in which the density of the process fluid is constant

d. τ = t , for a non-isothermal reactor

57. A chemical reaction, A  3B, is conducted in a constant pressure vessel. Starting with pure A, the
volume of the reaction mixture increases 3 times in 6 minutes. The fractional conversion is
a. 0.5 b. 0.33 c. 0.25 d. 1
D

58. If the time required to complete a definite fraction of reaction varies inversely as the concentration of the
reactants, then the order of reaction is
b. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3

59. For an isothermal variable volume batch reactor, the following relation is applicable for a first order
irreversible reaction.
C Ao d
a. XA = k t b.  x A  k c. -ln(1 - XA) = kt d. εAln (1 - XA) = kt
1  A x A  dt 

60. A first order reaction requires two equal sized CSTR. The conversion is______
a. less when they are connected in series
b. more when they are connected in series.
c. more when they are connected in parallel
d. same whether they are connected in series or in parallel

III. Problems

25
 3
1. Three plug flow reactors (PFR's) of 4, 5 & 6 m volumes are arranged in three branches as shown below in the
figure.

If the total feed rate is 300 tons/hr, then for the same conversion in each branch, the feed rate through branch III should be

__________ tons/hr.
a. 100 b. 120 c. 150 d. 225

2. In a batch reactor having a volume of 1000 liters and operating isothermally, 70% of a liquid reactant is
converted in 25 minutes. The reaction is represented by the equation A  R
What is the size of a plug-flow reactor to effect the same conversion and capacity if the downtime between
batches for batch reactor is 30 minutes?
a. 455 liters b. 500 liters c. 1000 liters d. 1025 liters

3. For the liquid phase zero order irreversible reaction A→ B, the conversion of A in a CSTR is found to be 0.3 at a
-1 -1
space velocity of 0.1min . What will be the conversion for a PFR with a space velocity of 0.2 min ? Assume that
all the other operating conditions are the same for CSTR and PFR.
a. 0.15 b. 0.30 c. 0.60 d. 0.90

4. The reaction 2A  2R + S takes place isothermally in a variable-volume experimental reactor. Starting with a
mixture of 80% A and 20% inerts, and total initial pressure of 10 atm, a 50% conversion is attained in 10
minutes.
What space time is needed to effect the same conversion in a plug-flow reactor?
a. 22.28 minutes b. 10.00 minutes c. 11.28 minutes d. 11.50%

5. Find the percent conversion of a two-back-mix reactor in series with the following data:
(-rA) = kCA2; k = 0.5L/mol-h; vo= 100 L/h; V1= 100L; V2= 200L; CAo= 1 mol/L
a. 50.90% b. 26.80% c. 73.20% d. 49.10%

26
 . Problem Solving
1. Three fed- batch reactors each with net volume of 300,000 liters has been designed to produce anhydrous ethanol.
Data: Fermentation efficiency= 85% based on fermentable sugar. Dehydration-Distillation Eff=95%; Percent alcohol in
beer is 10%; Fermentable sugar in molasses = 50%; Bx/SG of molasses=85/1.44; Cycle time for each reactor = 36
h
a. What is the maximum capacity of the plant in terms of liters AHA (99.9% v/v) per day?
a. 52,432 lit b. 57,057 lit c. 45,680 lit d. 61,000 lit
 300,000 lit beer   0.10 lit alc   24  1 
Production ` 3 reactors  0.95     57,057
 reactor   lit beer   36  0.999 
b. What is the tons molasses required (nearest value)?
 57,057 L alc  1  1  mt FS  mt mol 
Molasses         219 .44
 day  0.95  0.85  644  0.50 mt FS 
a. 219.44 mt b. 206 mt c. 280 mt d. 189 mt

c. What is the volume of beer distilled?

a. 600 m3 b. 706.59 m3 c. 831.28 m3 d.510.51 m3
 300,000 lit beer   24   57,057  1  1 
Beer Distlled ` 3 reactors    600,000 L or     600,000 
 reactor   36   0.999  0.95  0.10 

d. What is the volume of mixing water required?

3 3 3 3
a. 600 m b. 457 m c. 480 m d. 189 m
 219 .44 
Mixing Water  600     447 .61 m
3

 1.44 

e. What is the liters distillery wastes (spent lees plus slops) per liter of AHA produced?
a. 11.5 b. 9.52 c. 11.05 d. 11.5
600,000  57,057
Distillery wastes   9.52
57,057

Write the letter of the best answer

1. Materials which microorganisms are grown in the laboratory

a. Nutrients b. Substrates c. Enzymes d. Culture media

2. Hydrolysis of one mole of sucrose gives

a. 1 mole of glucose and 1 mole of galactose b. 1 mole of glucose and 1 mole of fructose
c. 2 moles of glucose d. 1 mole of mannose and 1 mole of glucose

3. Yeasts commonly reproduce by

a. Budding b. Fission c. Sporulation d. None of these
4. Sporulation is
a. Asexual b. Sexual c. All of these d. None of these
5. Yeasts are considered
a. Motile b. Non-motile c. All of these d. None of these
6. Yeasts are
a. Eukaryotes b. Prokaryotes c. All of these d. None of these
7. Fermentation is
a. Aerobic b. Anaerobic c. All of these d. None of these
8. Yeasts reproduction is
a. Aerobic b. Anaerobic c. All of these d. None of these
9. Yeast mass is relatively ______% protein.
a. 75 b. 50 c. 20 d. 36

27
10. Yeast mass is relatively ______% nitrogen.
a. 75 b. 50 c. 20 d. 6
11. Yeast mass is relatively ______ cells per mg.
a. 50 million b. 50 billion c.1 billion d. 0.5 billion
12. Which of the following is true?
a. Yeast can easily switch from fermentation to respiration
b. A new yeast cell (daughter or bud) can divide to produce 10 to 33 daughters before reaching the age of senescence .
c. All of these d. None of these
13. Defined the maximum life span of yeast
a. Hayflick b. Crabtree c. All of these d. None of these
14. Which of these is true regarding Crabtree effect?
a. Yeast produces more ethanol at high glucose concentrations rather than producing biomass even in aerobic conditions
b. Aeration inhibits fermentation process
c. All of these d. None of these
15. Meiosis is
a. Asexual b. Sexual c. All of these d. None of these
16. Which of the following is true regarding Hayflick Limit Theory?
a. less fed animals live longer b. human cells ability to divide is limited to approximately 50-times
c. All of these d. None of these
o o
17. Bacteria which grow over the temperature range of 30 C and 40 C.
a. Psychrophiles b. Hydrophiles c. Mesophiles d. Thermophiles

18. Which of these is 100% alcohol by volume?

a. Anhydrous alcohol b. Absolute alcohol c. All of these d. None of these

19. Absolute by definition is ______% alcohol by volume.

a. 100 b. 99.3 c. 94.5 d. 96.9

20. Volume percent of gasoline added to anhydrous alcohol for denaturing.

a. 1% b. 2 % c. 3% d. 4%

21. Denatured anhydrous alcohol by definition is at least ______% alcohol by volume.

a. 100 b. 99.3 c. 94.5 d. 96.9

22. Rectified spirit by BIR definition is ______% alcohol by volume.

a. 100 b. 99.3 c. 94.5 d. 96.9

23. Proof is
a. %v/v alcohol x 2 b. % v/v alcohol/ 2 c. %v/v alcohol d. % mass alcohol

24. Maximum % v/v moisture for denatured bioethanol fuel.

a. 0.5 b. 0.05 c. 1.5 d. 5

25. Compared to gasoline, which of the following statements is NOT true

a. Ethanol has lower calorific per unit volume b. Ethanol has lower calorific per unit mass

c. Ethanol has lower density d. All of these

26. Standard method of analysis used in determining the percent moisture in fuel ethanol.

28
 a. Gas chromatography b. Karl Fischer Titration d. All of these d. None of these

27. Standard method of analysis used in determining the percent alcohol in fuel ethanol.
a. Gas chromatography b. Karl Fischer Titration d. All of these d. None of these

28. The standard pH range of fuel ethanol is

a. 5.5-8.0 b. 6.5-9.0 c. 8.5-9.5 d. 8.5-10.0

29. The standard density of anhydrous fuel ethanol is nearest to

a. 0.77 b. 0.78 c. 0.79 d. 0.80

30. Which of the following could yield around 70-80 liters of AHA per ton substrate?
a. Sugar cane b. molasses c. cassava tubers d. sweet potato

31. The ideal minimum molasses storage capacity for fuel ethanol plant in term of monthly alcohol production capacity.
a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 5 months

32. The ideal minimum alcohol storage capacity for fuel ethanol plant in term of monthly production capacity.
a. 1 month b. 2 months c. 3 months d. 5 months

33. Provided around the alcohol and molasses storage tanks in order to ensure non-spillage to the surrounding area of their
content should any untoward incident happens.
a. Security wall b. bund wall c. all of these d. none of these

34. The standard height of a bund wall must be less than_______.

a. 5 meters b. 6.5 feet c. 1.5 meters d. 15 feet
35. Bund Volume must not be less than the ______% of the biggest tank
a. 25 b. 110 c. 175 d. 200
36. Or (refer to previous problem) or ______% of total volume whichever is higher.
a. 25 b. 110 c. 175 d. 200
37. Distance of wall from nearest tank must be ______.
a. > 0.75 m b. < 0.75 m c. <0.50 m d. > 0.50 m
38. Standard loading time for alcohol to trailers is usually set at around _______.
a. 30 minutes b. 60 minutes c. 1.5 hours d. 2 hours
39. Which of the following is true?
a. Yeast can easily switch from fermentation to respiration
b. A new yeast cell (daughter or bud) can divide to produce 10 to 33 daughters before reaching the age of senescence .
c. All of these d. None of these

40. The separation of water from ethanol using molecular sieve is based on the principle of ______
a. Affinity b. Molecular size c. All of these d. None of these
41. Attemperator is also known as ______
a. Desuperheater b. Economizer c. Deaearator d. Preheater.

42. Typical river water is low in _________.

a. Silica b. Iron c. All of these d. None of these

43. Practical primary water treatment needed for river water to be used for cooling tower make-up.
a. Clarification b. Softening c. Ion exchange d. RO

44. The equilibrium water adsorption capacity of molecular sieve resin is around _____ % of its weight.

29
 a. 10 b. 20 c. 25 d. 30

45. Molecular sieve dehydrates under________.

a. Pressure b. Vacuum c. Both d. None of these

46. Which of the following equipment maintains vacuum inside the dehydrating column during regeneration?
a. Vacuum pump b. Condenser c. All of these d. None of these

47. Tubes of falling film type heat exchangers are installed__________.

a. Horizontally b. Vertically c. Both of these d. None of these

48. Capacity of typical fermenter recirculating pumps is usually _________ the capacity of beer transfer pumps.
a. Equal b. Twice c. Half d. None of these
49. Standard method of determining moisture in AHA
a. Karl Fischer b. Gas chromatogram c. All of these d. None of these

50. Which of the following is true regarding Hayflick Limit Theory?

a. less fed animals live longer b. human cells ability to divide is limited to approximately 50-times
b. All of these d. None of these

51. One million liters beer containing 10% v/v ethanol is to required to produce AHA.
Applicable data:
Fermentation efficiency= 85% based on fermentable sugar. Distillation Eff=97%; Dehydration =98%
% alcohol AHA=99.9% v/v; Fermentable sugar in molasses = 48%; SG of molasses=1.44;
Cycle time for each reactor = 38 h; net volume of reactors = 550,000 liters

c. Compute the number of fed batch reactors needed

a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
 38h 
 
 1,000,000 L beer  cycle  reactor 
Number of reactors `     2.88say 3reactors
 d  24 h  550,000 L beer 
 d 
 
d. Compute the mt of molasses required per day
a. 447.75 b. 380.59 c. 323.50 d. 333.51
 1,000,000 L beer  0.10 L ethanol  rmt FS  rmt mol  1  380 .59 mt
molasses `     
 d  L beer  644 L ethanol  0.48 FS  0.85  d

52. Design an anaerobic wastewater treatment required to treat the vinasse/slops coming out from the
previous problem. Using the following data.
COD=100,000 mg/L; methane reactor loading rate=2.5 kg COD /m3.d; COD removal efficiency=65%;
Biogas generation=0.45 m3 biogas/kg COD removed.

30
Determine the following
d. Reactor Hydraulic Retention Time , days
e. Number of methane reactors required assuming each reactor has a net volume capacity of
10,000m3.
f. Volume of biogas produced/day

a. Reactor Hydraulic Retention Time , days

a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40
b. Number of methane reactors required assuming each reactor has a net volume capacity of
10,000m3.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
c. Volume of biogas produced, m3/day
a. 26,467 b. 43,000 c. 35,000 d. 25,075

Solution:

 100,000 mg COD  kg   1000 L  

3

a. HRT `  6   

m3 .d
  40days
  10 mg   m  2.5 kg COD 
3
L vinasse

 1,000,000 L beer   1,000,000 L beer  0.10 L ethanol    904,845 L

0.97 0.98 
L AHA
Vinasse Volume `    
b.  d   d  L beer   0.999 L ethanol  d
 904,845 L   m3 
V     40    36,200 m 3
 d   1000 L 
3
36,200 m
number of reactors  3  3.62  4 reactors
10,000 m
reactor

c. Biogas Produced
  C x biogas yield 
A A

 904,845 L vinasse  100,000 mg COD  kg   0.45m 3 biogas  26,467 m 3

3

   6  0.65  

 d  L vinasse  10 mg   kg COD removed  d

31