CAD/CAM &

AUTOMATION
[Multiple Choice
Questions]

UNIT No-01 Name of Unit: COMPUTER

GRAPHICS
Q.1 Which coordinate system is a device-dependent coordinate system?

A World Coordinate System

B Model Coordinate System

C User Coordinate System

D Screen Coordinate System

Answe D
r

Q.2 Which of the following is the default coordinate system?

A User Coordinate System

B World Coordinate System

C Screen Coordinate System

D None of the above

Answe B
r

Q.3 When every entity of a geometric model remains parallel to its initial position,
the transformation is called as

A User Coordinate System

B World Coordinate System

C Screen Coordinate System

D None of the above

Answe B
r

Q.4 In which type of projection, actual dimensions and angles of objects and therefore
shapes cannot be preserved?

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 A User Coordinate System

B World Coordinate System

C Screen Coordinate System

D None of the above

Answe B
r

Q.5 The matrix representation for translation in homogeneous coordinates is

A User Coordinate System

B World Coordinate System

C Screen Coordinate System

D None of the above

Answe B
r

Q.6 The matrix representation for scaling in homogeneous coordinates is

A P’=S*P

B P’=R*P

C P’=dx+dy

D P’=S*S

Answe A
r

Q.7 The two-dimensional rotation equation in the matrix form is

A P’=T+P

B P’=S*P

C P’=R*P

D P’=dx+dy

Answer C

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Q.8 What is the use of homogeneous coordinates and matrix representation?

A To treat all 3 transformations in a consistent way

B To scale

C To rotate

D To shear the object

Answer A

Q.9 If point are expressed in homogeneous coordinates then the pair of (x,
y) is represented as

A (x’, y’, z’)

B (x, y, z)

C (x’, y’, w’)

D (x’, y’, w)

Answer D

Q.10 For 2D transformation the value of third coordinate i.e. w (or h) =?

A 1

B 0

C -1

D Any value

Answer A

Q.11 We can combine the multiplicative and translational terms for 2D into a
single matrix representation by expanding

A 2 x 2 matrix into 4x4 matrix

B 2 x 2 matrix into 3 x 3

C 3 x 3 matrix into 2 x 2

D Only c

Answer B

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Q.12 The general homogeneous coordinate representation can also be written as

A (h.x, h.y, h.z)

B (h.x, h.y, h)

C (x, y, h.z)

D (x,y,z)

Answer B

Q.13 In homogeneous coordinates value of ‘h’ is consider as 1 & it is called…..

A Magnitude Vector

B Unit Vector

C Non-Zero Vector

D Non-Zero Scalar Factor

Answer D

Q.14 Which co-ordinates allow common vector operations such as translation, rotation,
scaling and perspective projection to be represented as a matrix by which the
vector is multiplied?

A vector co-ordinates

B 3D co-ordinates

C affine co-ordinates

D homogenous co-ordinates

Answer D

Q.15 In Coordinates, a points in n-dimensional space is represent by (n+1) coordinates.

A Scaling

B Homogeneous

C Inverse transformation

D 3D Transformation

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 Answer B

Q.16 A translation is applied to an object by D

A Repositioning it along with straight line path

B Repositioning it along with circular path

C Only b

D All of the mentioned

Answer A

Q.17 We translate a two-dimensional point by adding

A Translation distances

B Translation difference

C X and Y

D Only a

Answer D

Q.18 The translation distances (dx, dy) is called as

A Translation vector

B Shift vector

C Both a and b

D Neither a nor b

Answer C

Q.19 In 2D-translation, a point (x, y) can move to the new position (x’, y’) by
using the equation

A x’=x+dx and y’=y+dx

B x’=x+dx and y’=y+dy

C X’=x+dy and Y’=y+dx

D X’=x-dx and y’=y-dy

Answer B
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Q.20 The two-dimensional translation equation in the matrix form is

A P’=P+T

B P’=P-T

C P’=P*T

D P’=P

Answer A

Q.21 -------is a rigid body transformation that moves objects without deformation.

A Rotation

B Scaling

C Translation

D All of the mentioned

Answer C

Q.22 A straight line segment is translated by applying the transformation equation

A P’=P+T

B Dx and Dy

C P’=P+P

D Only c

Answer A

Q.23 Polygons are translated by adding to the coordinate position of each vertex and the
current attribute setting.

A Straight line path

B Translation vector

C Differences

D Only b

Answer D

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Q.24 To change the position of a circle or ellipse we translate

A Center coordinates

B Center coordinates and redraw the figure in new location

C Outline coordinates

D All of the mentioned

Answer B

Q.25 The basic geometric transformations are

A Translation

B Rotation

C Scaling

D All of the mentioned

Answer D

Q.26 A two dimensional rotation is applied to an object by

A Repositioning it along with straight line path

B Repositioning it along with circular path

C Only b

D Any of the mentioned

Answer C

Q.27 To generate a rotation , we must specify

A Rotation angle θ

B Distances dx and dy

C Rotation distance

D All of the mentioned

Answer A

Q.28 The rotation axis that is perpendicular to the xy plane and passes through the pivot
point is known as
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 A Rotation

B Translation

C Scaling

D Shearing

Answer A

Q.29 Positive values for the rotation angle θ defines

A Counter clockwise rotations about the end points

B Counter clockwise translation about the pivot point

C Counter clockwise rotations about the pivot point

D Negative direction

Answer C

Q.30 The original coordinates of the point in polar coordinates are

A X’=r cos (Ф +ϴ) and Y’=r cos (Ф +ϴ)

B X’=r cos (Ф +ϴ) and Y’=r sin (Ф +ϴ)

C X’=r cos (Ф -ϴ) and Y’=r cos (Ф -ϴ)

D X’=r cos (Ф +ϴ) and Y’=r sin (Ф -ϴ)

Answer B

Q.31 From the following, which one will require 4 matrices to multiply to get the final
position?

A Rotation about the origin

B Rotation about an arbitrary Point

C Rotation about an arbitrary line

D Scaling about the origin

Answer B

Q.32 Rotation is simply---------object w.r.t origin or centre point.

A Turn

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 B Shift

C Compression

D Drag element

Answer A

Q.33 A line AB with end point A (2,3) & B (7,8) is to be rotated about origin by
300 in clockwise direction. Determine the coordinates of end points S of
rotated line.

A (3.232, 2.598)

B (5.232, 3.598)

C (3.232, 1.298)

D (3.232, 1.598)

Answer D

Q.34 An ellipse can also be rotated about its center coordinates by rotating

A End points

B Major and minor axes

C Only a

D None

Answer B

Q.35The transformation that is used to alter the size of an object is

A Scaling

B Rotation

C Translation

D Reflection

Answer A

Q.36 Scaling of a polygon is done by computing

A The product of (x, y) of each vertex

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 B (x, y) of end points

C Center coordinates

D Only a

Answer D

Q.37 We control the location of a scaled object by choosing the position is

known as…………………………….

A Pivot point

B Fixed point

C Differential scaling

D Uniform scaling

Answer B

Q.38 If the scaling factors values sx and sy are assigned to the same value then………

A Uniform rotation is produced

B Uniform scaling is produced

C Scaling cannot be done

D Scaling can be done or cannot be done

Answer B

Q.39 If the scaling factors values Sx and Sy are assigned to unequal values then

A Uniform rotation is produced

B Uniform scaling is produced

C Differential scaling is produced

D Scaling cannot be done

Answer C

Q.40 The objects transformed using the equation P’=S*P should be

A Scaled

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 B Repositioned

C Both a and b

D Neither a nor b

Answer C

Q.41 If the scaling factors values Sx and Sy < 1 then

A It reduces the size of object

B It increases the size of object

C It stunts the shape of an object

D None

Answer A

Q.42If the value of Sx=1 and Sy=1 then

A Reduce the size of object

B Distort the picture

C Produce an enlargement

D No change in the size of an object

Answer D

Q.43 The polygons are scaled by applying the following transformation.

A X’=x * Sx + Xf(1-Sx) & Y’=y * Sy + Yf(1-Sy)

B X’=x * Sx + Xf(1+Sx) & Y’=y * Sy + Yf(1+Sy

C X’=x * Sx + Xf(1-Sx) & Y’=y * Sy – Yf(1-Sy)

D X’=x * Sx * Xf(1-Sx) & Y’=y * Sy * Yf(1-Sy)

Answer A

Q.44 Reflection is a special case of rotation.

A True

B False

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 Answer B

Q.45 If two pure reflections about a line passing through the origin are
applied successively the result is

A Pure rotation

B Quarter rotation

C Half rotation

D True reflection

Answer A

Q.46 What is the determinant of the pure reflection matrix?

A 1

B 0

C -1

D 2

Answer C

Q.47 Which of the following is NOT true?

Image formed by reflection through a plane mirror is

of same
A size

B same orientation

C is at same distance from the mirror

D virtual

Answer B

Q.48 Which of the following represents shearing?

A (x, y) → (x+shx, y+shy)

B (x, y) → (ax, by)

C (x, y) → (x cos(θ)+y sin(θ), -x sin(θ)+y cos(θ))

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 D (x, y) → (x+shy, y+shx)

Answer D

Q.49 If a ‘3 x 3’ matrix shears in X direction, how many elements of it are ‘1’?

A 2

B 3

C 6

D 5

Answer B

Q.50 If a ‘3 x 3’ matrix shears in Y direction, how many elements of it are ‘0’?

A 2

B 3

C 6

D 5

Answer D

Q.51 Shearing is also termed as

A Selecting

B Sorting

C Scaling

D Skewing

Answer D

Q.52 Shearing and reflection are types of translation.

A True

B False

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 Answer B

Q.53 Which of this is compulsory for 2D reflection?

A Reflection plane.

B Origin

C Reflection axis

D Co-ordinate axis.

Answer C

Q.54Two successive translations are

A Multiplicative

B Inverse

C Subtractive

D Additive

Answer D

Q.55 Two successive translations are commutative.

A True

B False

Answer A

Q.56 General pivot point rotation can be expressed as

A T(zr,yr).R(θ).T(-zr,-yr) = R(xr,yr,θ)

B T(xr,yr).R(θ).T(-xr,-yr) = R(xr,yr,θ)

C T(xr,yr).R(θ).T(-xr,-yr) = R(zr,yr,θ)

D T(xr,yr).R(θ).T(-xr,-yr) = R(zr,yr,θ)

Answer B

Q.57 Which of the following is NOT correct (A, B and C are matrices)

A A∙B = B∙A

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 B A∙B∙C = (A∙B) ∙C = A∙ (B∙C)

C C(A+B) = C∙A + C∙B

D 1A=A1

Answer A

Q.58 Reflection about the line y=0, the axis, is accomplished with the
transformation matrix with how many elements as ‘0’?

A 8

B 9

C 4

D 6

Answer D

Q.59 Which transformation distorts the shape of an object such that the transformed
shape appears as if the object were composed of internal layers that had been
caused to slide over each other?

A Rotation

B Scaling up

C Scaling down

D Shearing

Answer D

Q.60 Transpose of a column matrix is

A Zero matrix

B Identity matrix

C Row matrix

D Diagonal matrix

Answer C

Q.61 Reversing the order in which a sequence of transformations is performed may affect
the transformed position of an object.

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 A True

B False

Answer A

Q.62 How many minimum numbers of zeros are there in ‘3 x 3’ triangular matrix?

A 4

B 3

C 5

D 6

Answer B

Q.63 The object space or the space in which the application model is defined is called

A World co-ordinate system

B Screen co-ordinate system

C World window

D Interface window

Answer A

Q.64 What is the name of the space in which the image is displayed?

A World co-ordinate system

B Screen co-ordinate system

C World window

D Interface window

Answer B

Q.65 What is the rectangle in the world defining the region that is to be displayed?

A World co-ordinate system

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 B Screen co-ordinate system

C World window

D Interface window

Answer C

Q.66 The window opened on the raster graphics screen in which the image
will be displayed is called

A World co-ordinate system

B Screen co-ordinate system

C World window

D Interface window

Answer D

Q.67 The process of mapping a world window in World Coordinates to the

Viewport is called Viewing transformation.

A True

B False

Answer A

Q.68 Panning is a technique in which users can change the size of the area
to be viewed in order to see more detail or less detail.

A True

B False

Answer B

Q.68 Drawing of number of copies of the same image in rows and columns
cross the interface window so that they cover the entire window is called

A Roaming

B Panning

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 C Zooming

D Tiling

Answer D

Q.70 By changing the dimensions of the viewport, the and of the objects being displayed
can be manipulated.

A Number of pixels and image quality

B X co-ordinate and Y co-ordinate

C Size and proportions

D All of these

Answer C

Q.71 Co-ordinates are ranging according to the screen resolution.

A True

B False

Answer A

Q.72 Any convenient co-ordinate system or Cartesian co-ordinates which can be

used to define the picture is called

A spherical co-ordinates

B vector co-ordinates

C viewport co-ordinates

D world co-ordinates

Answer D

Q.73 The transformation of perspective projection must include, where d is the

distance between the centers of projection to the projection plane.

A D

B 1/d

C -d

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 D -1/d

Answer D

Q.74 An area on a display device to which a window is mapped is called a………….

A Window

B Viewpoint

C Pixel

D None of the above

Answer B

Q.75 A Pixel is

A a computer program that draws picture

B A picture stored in secondary memory

C The smallest resolvable part of a picture

D All of the above

Answer C

Q.76 A system that automates the drafting process with interactive computer graphics
is called

A Computer Aided Engineering (CAE)

B Computer Aided Design (CAD)

C Computer Aided Manufacturing (CAM)

D Computer Aided Instruction (CAI)

Answer B

Q.77 In which type of projection, actual dimensions and angles of objects

and therefore shapes cannot be preserved?

A Orthographic

B Isometric

C Perspective

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 D None of the above

Answer C

Q.78 Coordinate of □ABCD is WCS are: lowermost corner A(2,2) & diagonal corner are
C(8,6). W.r.t MCS. The coordinates of origin of WCS system are (5,4). If the axes of
WCS are at 600 in CCW w.r.t. the axes of MCS. Find new vertices of point A in MCS.

A (4.268, 6.732)

B (5.268, 6.732)

C (4.268, 4.732)

D (6.268, 4.732)

Answer A

Q.79 A triangle A with vertices P (50, 40), Q (100, 60) & R (70, 80) is to be
scaled by using scale factors Sx =0.5 & Sy = 0.7 about point P, Find CT
Matrix.

A 0.5 0 0
[ 0 0.7 0]
001

B 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 0 ]
001

C 0.5 0 25
[ 0 0.7 12]
001

D 0.7 0 25
[ 0 0.5 12]
001

Answer C

Q.80 A line AB with end points A (2, 1) & B (7, 6) is to be moved by 3 units in x-direction
& 4 units in y-direction. Calculate new coordinates of points B.

A (10, 2)

B (2, 10)

C (10, 10)

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 D (10, 5)

Answer C

CAD/CAM & AUTOMATION [Multiple Choice Questions] UNIT No-02

Name of Unit: GEOMETRIC MODELING
Q.1. For generating Coons patch we require

A A set of grid points on surface

B A set of control points

C Four bounding curves defining surface

D Two bounding curves and a set of grid control points

Answer C

Q.2. In a 2-D CAD package, clockwise circular arc of radius, 5, specified from P1
(15,10) to P2 (10,15)will have its center at

A (10, 10)

B (15, 10)

C (15, 15)

D (10, 15)

Answer A

Q.3. In the following geometric modelling techniques which are not three-
dimensional modelling?

A Wireframe modelling

B Drafting

C Surface modelling

D solid modelling

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 Answer B

Q.4. In the following three-dimensional modelling techniques. Which do not

require much computer time and memory?

A Surface modelling

B Solid modelling

C Wireframe modelling

D All of the above

Answer C

Q.5. In the following geometric modelling techniques. which cannot be used for
finite element analysis:

A Wireframe modelling

B Surface modelling

C Solid modeling

D none of the above

Answer D

Q.6. In the following geometric primitives. which is not a solid entity of CSG modelling:

A Box

B Cone

C Cylinder

D Circle

Answer D

Q.7. Which of the following is not an analytical entity?

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 A Line

B Circle

C Spline

D Parabola

Answer C

Q.8. Which of the following is not a synthetic entity?

A Hyperbola

B Bezier curve

C B-spline curve

D Cubic spline curve

Answer A

Q.9. Which one of the following does not belong to the family of conics?

A Parabola

B Ellipse

C Hyperbola

D Line

Answer D

Q.10 The number of tangents required to describe cubic splines is

.
A 2

B 1

C 3

D 4

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 Answer B

Q.11 The shape of Bezier curve is controlled by

.
A Control points

B Knots

C End points

D All the above

Answer A

Q.12 The curve that follows a convex hull property is:

.
A Cubic spline

B B-spline

C Bezier curve

D Both (b) and (c)

Answer B

Q.13 The degree of the Bezier curve with n control points is

.
A n+1

B n-1

C n

D 2n

Answer A

Q.14 The degree of the B-spline with varying knot vectors

.
A Increases with knot vectors

B Decreases with knot vectors

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 C Remains constant

D none of the above

Answer A

Q.15 The number of non-coincidental points required to define the simplest surface are
.
A 4

B 3

C 2

D 5

Answer B

Q.16 The number of tangents required to describe cubic splines is

.
A 2

B 1

C 3

D 4

Answer B

Q.17 The tensor product technique constraints surfaces by two curves.

.
A 2

B 1

C 3

D 4

Answer B

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Q.18 In the bezier curve, the curve is always to first and last segments of the
. polygon

A normal

B parallel

C tangent

D none of the above

Answer C

Q.19 The unit vector in the direction of the line is defined as .

.
A tangent vector+length of the line

B tangent vector-length of the line

C tangent vector/length of the line

D length of the line/tangent vector

Answer C

Q.20 From the following, which is an axisymmetric surface?

.
A Plane Surface

B Ruled Surface

C Surface of Revolution

D All of the above

Answer C

Q.21 curves allow local control of the curve

.
A Analytical

B Hermite cubic spline

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 C Beizer

D B-Spline

Answer D

Q.22 To determine the coefficients of the equation – two end-points and the two
. tangent vectors. This statement is true for which of the following

A B-spline curve

B Hermite Cubic Spline Curve

C Beizer curve

D none of the above

Answer B

Q.23 In synthetic curves, second-order continuity yields

.
A a position continuous curve

B a slope continuous curve

C a curvature continuous curve

D none of the above

Answer C

Q.24 Mathematically, the ellipse is a curve generated by a point moving in space such
. that at any position the sum of its distances from two fixed points (foci) is
constant and equal to

A the major diameter

B the minor diameter

C semi major diameter

D semi-minor diameter

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 Answer A

Q.25 When a smooth curve is approximated through the data points, then the curve
. is known as

A interpolant curve

B approximation curve

C pitch curve

D data curve

Answer B

Q.26 In Beizer Curve, the curve follows

.
A the control points

B the shape of the defining polygon

C the defining points

D none of the above

Answer B

CAD/CAM &
AUTOMATION [Multiple Choice Questions] UNIT No-02
Name of Unit: GEOMETRIC MODELING
Q.27 In Beizer Curve, the flexibility of the shape would increase with
.
A decrease in the number of vertices

B increase in the number of vertices

C decrease in control points

D none of the above

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 Answer B

Q.28 The number of control points can be added or subtracted in .

.

A Bezier curve

B B-spline curve

C Cubic spline curve

D all of the above

Answer B

Q.29 The degree of the curve is independent of the number of control points in .
.
A Hermite cubic spline curve

B Bezier curve

C B-spline curve

D Hyperbola

Answer C

Q.30 The is used to create a surface using curves that form closed boundaries.
.
A ruled Surface

B plane Surface

C coons patch

D surface of Revolution

Answer C

Q.31 B-rep and C-Rep are the methods of

.
A solid modeling

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 B surface modeling

C wireframe modeling

D 2D modeling

Answer A

Q.32 Which kind of model can store information about geometry

.
A Solid model

B Surface model

C Wireframe model

D none of the above

Answer A

Q.33 From the following, which method is also called as the Building Block Approach?
.
A Cellular Decomposition

B Spatial Occupancy Enumeration

C Generalized Sweeps

D Constructive Solid Geometry

Answer D

Q.34 Structuring and combining the primitives of the solid model in the graphics
. database, is achieved by the use of…..

A FEA

B transformations

C boolean operations

D none of the above

Answer C

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Q.35 The data representation of CSG objects is represented by
.
A a binary tree

B a boolean operation

C a primitive

D none of the above

Answer A

Q.36 is an extension of the wireframe model with additional face information added.
.
A CSG

B B-rep

C Loft

D none of the above

Answer B

Q.37 For 3D modeling of automobile body styling, which of the following is a

. preferred technique?

A Constructive Solid Geometry

B Pure Primitive Instancing

C Boundary Representation

D Spatial Occupancy Enumeration

Answer C

Q.38 Which of the following uses a number of two-dimensional profiles for generating
. a three-dimensional object?

A Tweaking

B Lofting

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 C Filleting

D none of the above

Answer B

Q.39 To create a hollow part, which of the following command would be most efficient?
.
A Extrude

B Sweep

C Shell

D Revolve

Answer C

Q.40 The curve is defined as the locus of a point moving with _ degree of freedom
.
A 0

B 1

C 2

D 3

Answer B

Q.41 Write parametric equation of line having end points P1(3,5,8) and P2 (6,4,3).
.
A [3 5 8]+u[3 -1 -5]

B [3 5 8]+u[3 1 5]

C [3 8 5]+u[3 -1 -5]

D [3 5 8]+u[-3 1 5]

Answer A

Q.42 Find the tangent vector of line having end points P1(3,5,8) and P2 (6,4,3)

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. A 3i+j-5k

B 3i-j-5k

C 3i-j+5k

D -3i-j-5k

Answer B

Q.43 Find coordinates of points on line having end points P1(3,5,8) and P2 (6,4,3) at
. u=0.25

A [3.75 4.25 6.25]

B [3.25 4.25 6.25]

C [3.75 4.75 6.75]

D [4.25 3.75 6.25]

Answer C

Q.44 Two lines are parallel when

.
A P1 X P2=0

B P1 . P2=0

C P1 = P2

D P1+ P2=0

Answer A

Q.45 Two lines L1 and L2 having Parametric equations are P1=[3 4 7]+u[2 2 -6] and
. P2=[1 5 -2]+u[1 4 2]. Tangent vector for line L1

A 2i+2j-6k

B 2i+2j+6k

C 2i-2j-6k

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 D 6-2j-2k

Answer A

Q.46 For Q 45, Tangent vector for line L2

.
A i+4j-k

B 2i+4j+k

C i-4j-2k

D i+4j+2k

Answer D

Q.47 For Q 45, Lines are perpendicular?

.
A True

B False

Answer B

Q.48 Parametric equation for circle

.
A X=x+Rcosu; Y=y+Rsinu; Z=z

B X=Rcosu; Y=Rsinu; Z=z

C X=x+Rsinu; Y=y+Rcosu; Z=z

D X=Rsinu; Y=y+Rcosu; Z=z

Answer A

Q.49 Center point of circle

.
A [x1+x2]/2; [y1+y2]/2; [z1+z2]/2

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 B [x1-x2]/2; [y1-y2]/2; [z1-z2]/2

C [x1-x2]; [y1-y2]; [z1-z2]

D [x2-x1]; [y2-y1]; [z2-z1]

Answer A

Q.50 A circle is represented by center point [5,5] and radius 6 units. Find the
. parametric equation of circle and determine the various points on circle in first
quadrant if increment in angle by 45o

A 9.24,9.24

B 9.42,9.42

C 9,9

D 11,5

Answer A

Q.51 A circle is passing through two end points A[6,4] and B[10,10]. Find center point
. of circle

A 7,8

B 8,8

C 8,7

D 7,7

Answer C

Q.52 For Q 51, find radius of circle

.
A 3

B 3.6

C 4

D 3.5

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 Answer B

Q.53 For Q 51, find coordinates of point on circle at u=0

.
A 11.6, 7

B 7, 11

C 11, 7

D 11.5, 7.5

Answer A

Q.54 Find parametric equation for X-coordinates of hermite cubic spline curve having
. end points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]

A -5u3+8u2+u+1

B 5u3+8u2+u+1

C 8u3-5u2-u+1

D 8u3+5u2+u+1

Answer A

Q.55 Find parametric equation for Y-coordinates of Hermite cubic spline curve having
. end points P0[4,4]; P1[8,5]

A 2u3-3u2+2u+4

B 3u3-2u2-2u-4

C 2u3-3u2-2u-4

D 2u3+3u2+2u+4

Answer A

Q.56 C0 continuity refers to

.
A Common tangent

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 B Common curvature

C Common point

D Common normal

Answer C

Q.57 C‘ continuity refers to

.
A Common tangent

B Common curvature

C Common point

D Common normal

Answer B

Q.58 C” continuity refers to

.
A Common tangent

B Common curvature

C Common point

D Common normal

Answer A

Q.59 Which of the following is not a method to describe a curve mathematically?

.

A Explicit form

B Laplace form

C Implicit form

D Parametric form

Answer B

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Q.60 When the curve passes through all the data points, then the curve is known as
.

A approximation curve

B pitch curve

C data curve

D interpolant curve

Answer D

Q.61 When a smooth curve is approximated through the data points, then the curve is known
. as

A approximation curve

B pitch curve

C data curve

D interpolant curve

Answer A

Q.62 Synthetic curve pass through defined data points and thus can be represented by
.

A polynomial equations

B exponential equations

C partial differential equations

D differential equations

Answer A

Q.63 Mathematically, the ellipse is a curve generated by a point moving in space such that at
. any position the sum of its distances from two fixed points (foci) is constant and
equal to

A the major diameter

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 B the minor diameter

C semi major diameter

D semi-minor diameter

Answer A

Q.64 The parabola is defined mathematically as a curve generated by a point that moves
. such that its distance from the focus is always__________the distance to the directrix

A larger than

B smaller than

C equal to

D none of the above

Answer C

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Q.65 In synthetic curves, zero-order continuity yields
.

A a position continuous curve

B a slope continuous curve

C a curvature continuous curve

D none of the above

Answer A

Q.66 In synthetic curves, first-order continuity yields

.

A a position continuous curve

B a slope continuous curve

C a curvature continuous curve

D none of the above

Answer B

Q.67 In synthetic curves, second-order continuity yields

.

A a position continuous curve

B a slope continuous curve

C a curvature continuous curve

D none of the above

Answer C

Q.68 The B-spline curve has a

.

A first-order continuity

B second-order continuity

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 C zero-order continuity

D none of the above

Answer B

Q.69 To determine the coefficients of the equation – two end-points and the two tangent
. vectors. This statement is true for which of the following?

A B-spline curve

B Hermite Cubic Spline Curve

C Beizer curve

D none of the above

Answer B

Q.70 The Bezier curve is smoother than the Hermite cubic spline because it has _________ order
. derivatives.

A lower

B higher

C lower and higher both

D none of the above

Answer B

Q.71 In the bezier curve, the curve is always________to first and last segments of the polygon
.

A normal

B parallel

C tangent

D none of the above

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 Answer C

Q.72 ________curves allow local control of the curve.

.

A Analytical

B Hermite cubic spline

C Beizer

D B-Spline

Answer D

Q.73 In Beizer Curve, the curve follows __________

.

A the control points

B the shape of the defining polygon

C the defining points

D none of the above

Answer B

Q.74 In Beizer Curve, the flexibility of the shape would increase with _______ of the polygon.
.

A decrease in the number of vertices

B increase in the number of vertices

C decrease in control points

D none of the above

Answer B

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Q.75 The degree of the curve is independent of the number of control points in _____
.

A Hermite cubic spline curve

B Bezier curve

C B-spline curve

D Hyperbola

Answer C

Q.76 In modeling of a tabulated cylinder, the plane of the curve is _______

.

A along the curve

B normal to the curve

C along the axis of the cylinder

D perpendicular to the axis of the cylinder

Answer D

Q.77 The ___________ is used to create a surface using curves that form closed boundaries
.

A ruled Surface

B plane Surface

C coons patch

D surface of Revolution

Answer C

Q.78 ________ command gives an array of object in 3D modeling

.

A Extrude

B Revolve

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 C Pattern

D All of the above

Answer C

Q.79 To create a hollow part, which of the following command would be most efficient
.

A Extrude

B Sweep

C Shell

D Revolve

Answer C

Q.80 A cylinder can be created by drawing a rectangular shape using the ________ tool.
.

A revolve

B sweep

C extrude

D all of the above

Answer A

Q.81 For 3D modeling of automobile body styling, which of the following is a preferred
. technique

A Constructive Solid Geometry

B Pure Primitive Instancing

C Boundary Representation

D Spatial Occupancy Enumeration

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 Answer C

CAD/CAM & AUTOMATION

[Multiple Choice Questions] UNIT No-03
Name of Unit: FEA
Q.1 What is the full form of FEA

A Fracture Element Analysis

B Finite Element Analysis

C Future Electronic Analysis

D None of the above

Answer B

Q.2 From the following, which type of element is not two dimensional?

A Tetrahedron

B Quadrilateral

C Parallelogram

D Rectangle

Answer A

Q.3 For truss analysis, which type of elements is used?

A Triangle

B Parallelogram

C Rectangle

D Bar

Answer D

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Q.4 To solve the FEM problem, it subdivides a large problem into smaller, simpler parts that
are called

A static elements

B dynamic elements

C infinite elements

D finite elements

Answer D

Q.5 The art of subdividing the structure into a convenient number of smaller elements is
known as

A discretization

B assemblage

C continuum

D traction

Answer A

Q.6 The sum of the shape function is equal to

A 0

B 0.5

C 1

D 2

Answer C

Q.7 A triangular plane stress element has how many degrees of freedom?

A 3

B 4

C 5

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 D 6

Answer D

Q.8 Number of displacement polynomials used for an element depends on .

A nature of element

B type of an element

C degrees of freedom

D nodes

Answer C

Q.9 On gathering stiffness and loads, the system of equations is given by

A KQ=F

B KQ≠F

C K=QF

D K≠QF

Answer A

Q.10 The finite element method is mostly used in the field of

A structural mechanics

B classical mechanics

C applied mechanics

D engineering mechanics

Answer D

Q.11 In FEA, the sub domains are called as .

A particles

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 B molecules

C elements

D none

Answer C

Q.12 The numbers of node for 1 D element are

A 1

B 2

C 3

D 0

Answer B

Q.13 Finite element analysis deals with .

A approximate numerical solution

B non-boundary value problems

C Laplace equations

D All of the above

Answer A

Q.14 Stiffness matrix depends on

A material

B geometry

C both material and geometry

D none of the above

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 Answer C

Q.15 Example of 2-D Element is .

A bar

B triangle

C hexahedron

D tetrahedron

Answer B

Q.16 For 1-D bar elements if the structure is having 3 nodes then the stiffness matrix formed
is having an order of

A 2*2

B 3*3

C 4*4

D 6*6

Answer B

Q.17 To find the nodal displacements in all parts of the element, are used.

A shape function

B node function

C element function

D coordinate function

Answer A

Q.18 The nature of loading at various locations and other surfaces conditions called

A friction

B traction

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 C boundary condition

D surfacing

Answer C

Q.19 The truss element can resist only

A surface force

B axial force

C point load

D none of the above

Answer B

Q.20

The truss element can deform only in the

A vertical direction

B horizontal direction

C inclined direction

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 D axial direction

Answer D

Q.21 Example for one – Dimensional element is .

A triangular element

B brick element

C truss element

D axisymmetric element

Answer C

Q.22 The determinant of an element stiffness matrix is always

A 3

B 2

C 1

D 0

Answer D

Q.23 How many nodes are there in a 3-D brick element?

A 3

B 6

C 8

D 9

Answer C

Q.24 From below, choose the condition for the axisymmetric element.

A Symmetric about axis

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 B Boundary conditions are symmetric about an axis

C Loading conditions are symmetric about an axis

D All the above

Answer D

Q.25 Axis-Symmetric element is Element

A 1D

B 2D

C 3D

D 4D

Answer B

Q.26 is/are the phase/s of finite element method

A Pre-processing

B Solution

C Post Processing

D None

Answer C

Q.27 The minimum number of dimensions are required to define the position of a point in
space is.

A 3

B 4

C 1

D 2

Answer A

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Q.28 The finite element methods can be applied in ---------areas.

A thermal

B soil and rock mechanics

C vibration

D all of the above

Answer D

Q.29 If the structure is more complex in order to simplify the model, we need to
subdivide the structure into substructures. These substructures are termed as.

A elements

B modules

C links

D models

Answer B

Q.30 Which of the following is not a method for calculation of the stiffness matrix?

A The minimum potential energy principle

B Galerkin's principle

C Weighted residual method

D Inverse matrix method

Answer D

Q.31 ………….is defined as the ratio of the largest dimension of the

element to the smallest dimension.

A Element depth ratio

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 B Mode shape ratio

C Aspect ratio

D None of the above

Answer C

Q.32 …………..are used to express the geometry or shape of the element

A Mode shapes

B Shape functions

C Natural curves

D None of the above

Answer B

Q.33 When a thin plate is subjected to loading in its own plane only, the condition is
called _ .

A plane stress

B plane strain

C zero stress

D zero strain

Answer A

Q.34 The characteristic of the shape function is

A the shape function has a unit value at one nodal point and zero value at
the other nodes

B the sum of the shape function is equal to one

C both a & b

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 D None of the above

Answer C

Q.35 The points in the entire structure are defined using the coordinates system is known
as .

A local coordinates system

B natural coordinates system

C global coordinate system

D none of the above

Answer C

Q.36 The applications of the Finite Element Method in two-dimensional analyses are .

A stretching of plates

B gravity of dams

C axisymmetric shells

D all of the above

Answer C

Q.37 If the body is in a state of equilibrium then the energy is minimum. This statement
is considered in .

A inverse matrix method

B weighted residual method

C Galerkin’s principle

D the minimum potential energy principle

Answer D

Q.38 Which of the following is true for the stiffness matrix (K)?

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 A K is a banded matrix

B K is un-symmetric

C K is an un-banded matrix

D none of the above

Answer A

Q.39 The actual thickness of plane strain element is .

A very large

B very small

C assumed by software

D any of the above

Answer A

Q.40 Which of the following is not an FEA package?

A ANSYS

B Nastran

C Abaqus

D AutoCAD

Answer D

Q.41 Which of the following module of FEA is used to determine natural frequency?

A Static analysis

B Thermal analysis

C Modal analysis

D All of the above

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 Answer C

Q.42 For thermal analysis, the field variable is

A stress

B strain

C displacement

D Temperature

Answer D

Q.43 In FEA of a fluid mechanics problem, we need to find …….

A stress distribution

B heat flux distribution

C pressure distribution

D all of the above

Answer C

Q.44 Crack propagation problems come under category.

A steady-state problems

B eigenvalue problems

C transient problems

D any of the above

Answer C

Q.45 In penalty approach, rigid support is considered as a spring having stiffness.

A zero

B very small

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 C very large

D infinite

Answer D

Q.46 How many nodes are there in a tetrahedron element?

A 3

B 4

C 5

D 6

Answer B

Q.47 How many nodes are there in a hexahedron element?

A 4

B 6

C 8

D 10

Answer C

Q.48 How many nodes are there in a tetrahedron with curved sides element?

A 6

B 8

C 10

D 12

Answer C

Mechanical Engineering, MMIT, Pune

Q.49 If the size of the elements is small, the final solution is expected to be accurate.

A more

B less

C depends on other factors

D can't say

Answer A

Q.50 In truss analysis, the reactions can be found by using the equation .

A R=KQ+F

B R=KQ-F

C R=K+QF

D R=K-QF

Answer B

CAD/CAM & AUTOMATION [Multiple Choice Questions] UNIT No-04

Name of Unit: CAM
Q.1 CAD/CAM is the relationship between

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 A science and engineering

B manufacturing and marketing

C design and manufacturing

D design and marketing

Answer C

Q.2 Which two disciplines are tied by a common database?

A documentation and geometric modeling

B CAD and CAM

C drafting and documentation

D none of the mentioned

Answer B

Q.3 The term that is used for geometric modelling like solid modelling, wire frame
modelling and drafting is known as

A software package

B operating system

C application software

D none of the mentioned

Answer A

Q.4 The software that is used to control the computer’s work flow, organize its data
and perform housekeeping functions is known as

A operating software

B graphics software

C application software

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 D programming software

Answer A

Q.5 During the execution of a CNC part program block NO20 GO2 X45.0 Y25.0
R5.0 the type of tool motion will be

A circular Interpolation – clockwise

B circular Interpolation – counter clockwise

C linear Interpolation

D rapid feed

Answer A

Q.6 n an NC machining operation, the tool has to be moved from point (5, 4) to point (7, 2)
along a circular path with centre at (5, 2). Before starting the operation, the tool is at (5,
4). The G and N codes for this motion are

A N010 GO3 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

B N010 GO2 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

C N010 GO1 X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

D N010 GOO X7.0 Y2.0 I5.0 J2.0

Answer B

Q.7 The tool of an NC machine has to move along a circular arc from (5, 5) to (10, 10) while
performing an operation. The centre of the arc is at (10, 5). Which one of the following
NC tool path command performs the above mentioned operation?

A N010 GO2 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5

B N010 GO3 X10 Y10 X5 Y5 R5

C N010 GO1 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5

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 D N010 GO2 X5 Y5 X10 Y10 R5

Answer A

Q.8 Match the following:

NC code Definition
P. M05 1. Absolute coordinate system
Q. G01 2. Dwell
R. G04 3. Spindle stop
S. G09 4. Linear interpolation

A P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1

B P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2

C P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1

D P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Answer C

Q.9 In a CNC program block, N02 GO2 G91 X40 Z40……, GO2 and G91 refer to

A circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction and

incremental dimension

B circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction and absolute dimension

C circular interpolation in clockwise direction and incremental dimension

D circular interpolation in clockwise direction and absolute dimension

Answer C

Q.10 Numerical control

A applies only to milling machines

B is a method for producing exact number of parts per hour

C is a method for controlling by means of set of instructions

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 D None of the mentioned

Answer C

Q.11 Computer will perform the data processing functions in

A NC

B CNC

C DNC

D None of the mentioned

Answer B

Q.12 Control loop unit of M.C.U is always

A a hardware unit

B a software unit

C a control unit

D none of the mentioned

Answer A

Q.13 The repeatability of NC machine depends on

A control loop errors

B mechanical errors

C electrical errors

D none of the mentioned

Answer B

Q.14 Rotation about Z-axis is called………….

A a-axis

B b-axis

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 C c-axis

D none of the mentioned

Answer C

Q.15 Rotation of spindle is designated by one of the following axis:

A a-axis

B b-axis

C c-axis

D none of the mentioned

Answer D

Q.16 he linking of computer with a communication system is called………..

A networking

B pairing

C interlocking

D assembling

Answer A

Q.17 The process of putting data into a storage location is called

A reading

B writing

C controlling

D hand shaking

Answer B

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Q.18 The process of copying data from a memory location is called

A reading

B writing

C controlling

D hand shaking

Answer A

Q.19 CNC machining centres do not include operations like

A milling

B boring

C welding

D tapping

Answer C

Q.20 Feed is measured in units of

A length/revolution

B degree/revolution

C length

D velocity

Answer A

Q.21 he depth that the tool is plunged into the surface is called as

A feed

B depth of cut

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 C depth of tool

D working depth

Answer B

Q.22 In CNC systems multiple microprocessors and programmable logic controllers work

A in parallel

B in series

C one after the other

D for 80% of the total machining time

Answer A

Q.23 Which of the following is not the advantage of CNC machines?

A Higher flexibility

B Improved quality

C Reduced scrap rate

D Improved strength of the components

Answer D

Q.24 In how many ways CNC machine tool systems can be classified?

A 2

B 3

C 4

D 5

Answer B

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Q.25 Point-to-point systems are used for

A reaming

B parting

C grooving

D facing

Answer A

Q.26 In part programming, interpolation is used for obtaining trajectory.

A helicoidal

B pentagonal

C triangular

D zig-zag

Answer A

Q.27 For CNC machining skilled part programmers are needed.

A True

B False

Answer A

Q.28 An absolute NC system is one in which all position coordinates are referred to one
fixed origin called the zero point.

A True

B False

Answer A

Q.29 In , the coordinates are mentioned in the program with respect to one reference point

A Incremental System

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 B Absolute System

C Datum System

D Screen Coordinates System

Answer B

Q.30 ……… is a group of words or coded instruction for the NC/CNC system to
execute a particular movement.

A Sequence

B Address

C Code

D Block

Answer D

Q.31 Each coded instruction in a set of instructions is called as……

A Words

B Alphabet

C Numbers

D Format

Answer A

Q.32 In , the coordinates are mentioned in the program with respect to one Previous point.

A Incremental System

B Absolute System

C Datum System

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 D Screen Coordinates System

Answer A

Q.33 G00 Preparatory code is used for

A Rapid Travel Execution

B Rapid Travel Positioning

C Rapid Travel sequencing

D Rapid clockwise interpolation

Answer B

Q.34 In a CNC program block, N05 GO1 G91 G33 X20 Z-40……, G33 refer to

A Peck Drilling

B Counter Boring

C Thread Cutting

D Grooving

Answer C

Q.35 In CNC Program M03 is refer to……

A Spindle ON in Clockwise rotation

B Spindle ON in Counter Clockwise rotation

C Spindle OFF in Clockwise rotation

D Spindle OFF in Counter Clockwise rotation

Answer A

Q.36 In CNC Program M98 is refer to……

A CANCEL Subroutine

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 B Call Sub-Program

C Call Subroutine

D CANCEL Sub-Program

Answer B

Q.37 In a CNC program block, N05 GO1 G91 G33 X20 Z-40 K5……, K refer to

A Depth of cut

B Pitch

C Multiple Threading Cycle

D Feed

Answer B

Q.38 A CNC Lathe is usually a machine tool with Z axes is…..

A Line Joining origin and vertical movement

B Line perpendicular to Y axis

C Both A & B

D Line Joining Chuck centre & tail stock centre

Answer D

Q.39 B rotational axis is rotation about Axis.

A X

B Y

C Z

D C

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 Answer A

Q.40 Secondary Linear Axes U,V & W are ……… to X,Y & Z-axis.

A Perpendicular

B Parallel

C Rotational

D All of the above

Answer B

Q.41 ……… are also called as parametric subroutines

A Micro

B Macro

C Sub Macro

D Sub Micro

Answer B

Answer A

Q.43 Incremental dimension in circular interpolation in X-axis is denoted by

A J

B I

C K

D None of the above

Answer B

Q.44 Repetitive CNC machine operations conveniently performing and execute with
one command instead of programming of series of individual move called …..

A Common Cycle

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 B Incremental Programming

C Canned Cycle

D None of the above

Answer C

Q.45 In CNC programming …….. is commonly used canned cycle for Stock removal cycle

A G71

B G72

C G73

D G74

Answer D

Q.46 ……… is the origin of the coordinate system which is defined by manufacturer they
cannot be changed

A Blocking Point

B machine Zero Point

C Start Point

D Program Zero point

Answer B

Q.47 To indicate the position of the workpiece ly & easily machine zero pint should be
displaced to another point on the workpiece called…

A Workpiece zero Point

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 B machine Zero Point

C Start Point

D Program Zero point

A Answer

Q.48 XY Plane Selection in CNC machining is done by…..

A G16

B G17

C G18

D G19

Answer B

Q.49 The distance of a given tool tip from the surface of workpiece is known as…..

A Tool length

B Tool length offset H

C Cutter radius

D Compensation

Answer B

Q.50 In CNC machining tool radius compensation turning the left mode ON programming
contour done by

A G40

B G41

C G42

D G43

Answer B

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Q.51 Maximum spindle speed limitation code in CNC Machine

A G90

B G91

C G92

D G93

Answer C

Q.52 Which of the following code is used to return to a reference point?

A G23

B G28

C G14

D G19

Answer B

Q.53 The following code will produce dwell for a specified time…

A G18

B G65

C G45

D G04

Answer D

Q.54 Which of the following code will give point to point movement?

A G00

B G01

C G56

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 D G94

Answer A

Q.55 Which rule implement for axes Nomenclature?

A Left-hand rule

B Right-Hand Rule

C Thumb Rule

D None of the above

Answer B

Q.56 Automatic tool change in CNC Machine code

A M05

B M06

C M07

D M09

Answer B

Q.57 Full form of MCU is…………

A Machine computer unit

B Machine control universal

C Machine control unit

D None of the above

Answer C

Q.58 The machine tool, in which calculation and setting of the operating conditions like depth
of cut, feed, speed are done during the machining by the control system itself, is called

Mechanical Engineering, MMIT, Pune

 A Computer Numerical Control System

B Direct Numerical Control System

C Machining Center System

D Adaptive Control System

Answer D

Q.59 In which machine we get feedback?

A Lathe machine

B NC machine

C CNC machine

D Milling machine

Answer C

Q.60 Which machine's spindle is used to horizontal work?

A UMC

B VMC

C HMC

D DNC

Answer C

Q.61 What is the full form of ATC?

A Automatic tool changer

B Arranged tool changer

C Automatic tool controller

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 D Arranged tool controller

Answer A

Q.62 In which system we get feedback?

A Open-loop system

B Machine control system

C Closed-loop system

D None of the above

Answer C

Q.63 How many maximum tools can ATC hold?

A 60

B 80

C 90

D 100

Answer B

Q.64 In the CNC machine which device used to hold the workpiece?

A Automatic pallet changer

B Automatic work part positioner

C A & B both

D None of the above

Answer C

Q.65 In a CAD package, mirror image of a 2D point P (5, 10) is to be obtained about a line
which passes through the origin and makes an angle of 45° counterclockwise with the X-
axis. The coordinates of the transformed point will be

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 A (7.5, 5)

B (10, 5)

C (7.5, -5)

D (10, -5)

Answer B

Q.66 NC contouring is an example of

A Continuous path positioning

B Point-to-point positioning

C Absolute positioning

D Incremental positioning

Answer A

Q.67 With reference to NC machines, which of the following statements is wrong

A Both closed-loop and open-loop control systems are used

B Paper tapes, floppy tapes and cassettes are used for data storage

C Digitizers may be used as interactive input devices

D Post processor is an item of hardware

Answer C

Q.68 In finish machining of an island on a casting with CNC milling machine, an end mill with
10 mm diameter is employed. The corner points of the island are represented by (0, 0), (0,
30), (50, 30) and (50, 0). By applying cutter radius right compensation, the trajectory of the
cutter will be

A (-5, 0), (-5, 35), (55, 35), (55,-5), (-5,-5)

B (0,-5), (55,-5), (55, 35), (-5, 35), (-5,-5)

C (5, 5), (5, 25), (45, 25), (45, 5), (5, 5)

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 D (5, 5), (45, 5), (45, 25), (5, 25), (5, 5)

Answer A

Q.69 The lost motion in CNC machine tool is on account of

A Backlash in gearing

B Wind-up of drive shafts

C Deflection of machine tool members

D All the above

Answer A

Q.1. From following, the alternative name for RP is ________

A Additive Manufacturing

B Layer Manufacturing

C Direct CAD Manufacturing

D All of the above

Answer D

Q.2. Input of RP data is ______

A CAM data

B CAPP data

C CAD data

D All of the above

Answer C

Q.3. In the ___________ process, one starts with a single block of solid material larger than the final
size of the desired object and material is removed until the desired shape is reached.

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 A Subtractive process

B Additive process

C Formative process

D All of above

Answer A

Q.4. __________ is one where mechanical forces or restricting forms are applied on a material so
as to form it into the desired shape

A Subtractive process

B Additive process

C Formative process

D All of above

Answer C

Q.5. Which of the following is not subtractive process?

A Milling

B Stereo-lithography

C Sawing

D EDM

Answer B

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 CAD/CAM & AUTOMATION [Multiple Choice Questions

UNIT No-05
Name of Unit: Advance Manufacturing Method
Q.6. Which of the following process is not formative process?

A Bending

B Plastic injection molding

C Selective Laser Sintering

D Forging

Answer C

Q.7. Choose the correct sequence to generate prototype

A 3D CAD data - CAD solid model - STL file - RP prototype

B CAD solid model - 3D CAD data - RP prototype - STL file

C STL file - 3D CAD data - CAD solid model - RP prototype

D 3D CAD data - STL file - CAD solid model - RP prototype

Answer A

Q.8. Which of the following can not be the input of CAD solid model?

A Physical mockup

B 2D surface data

C Tooling

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 D 3D CAD data

Answer C

Q.9. Full form of STL is _____

A Straight-lithography

B Streto-lithography

C Stereo-lithography

D Straight-lipsography

Answer C

Q.10. For rapid prototyping 3D CAD model should be converted into______file

A SGC

B SLA

C STL

D SLS

Answer C

Q.11. Process of converting STL file model in to layers is called________in RP

A chopping

B slicing

C cutting

D trimming

Answer B

Q.12. Support structures are required for ______

A thin portions

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 B thick portions

C overhanging portions

D all of the above

Answer C

Q.13. The STL files translate the part geometry from a CAD system to________

A CNC machine

B VMC machine

C RP machine

D CAPP machine

Answer C

Q.14. Slicing a part is easier in ______

A B-rep method

B STL method

C CSG method

D PRT method

Answer B

Q.15. STL file converts curved surfaces into_______

A Polygons

B Lines

C Surfaces

D None of the above

Answer A

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Q.16. Which of the following is not Liquid-based RP system?

A Stereolithography Apparatus (SLA)

B Laminated Object Manufacturing (LOM)

C Solid Ground Curing (SGC)

D Solid Object Ultraviolet-Laser Printer (SOUP

Answer B

Q.17. Full form of FDM is_______

A Fixed Development Modelling

B Fusion Development Modelling

C Fused Deposition Modelling

D Focused Deposition Modelling

Answer C

Q.18. Full form of MJM is______

A Multi Joint Modelling

B Multi Jet Modelling

C Muted Jet Modelling

D Mitred Jet Modelling

Answer B

Q.19. Which of the following is not Solid-based RP system?

A Laminated Object Manufacturing (LOM)

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 B Paper Lamination Technology (PLT)

C Electron Beam Melting (EBM)

D Fused Deposition Modeling (FDM)

Answer C

Q.20. Laminated Object Manufacturing (LOM) is developed by_______

A Stratasys

B CAM-LEM

C Kira Corporation

D Cubic Technologies

Answer D

Q.21. Which of the following is not Powder-Based RP system?

A Selective Laser Sintering (SLS)

B Solid Object Ultraviolet-Laser Printer (SOUP)

C Electron Beam Melting (EBM)

D Direct Metal Deposition (DMD)

Answer B

Q.22. Which of the following RP system is not developed by 3D systems?

A Selective Laser Sintering (SLS)

B Multi-Jet Modeling System (MJM)

C Paper Lamination Technology (PLT)

D Stereolithography Apparatus (SLA)

Answer C

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Q.23. Which of the following is used as base material in Stereolithography (SLA) process?

A Thermoplastics , Metals powders

B Thermoplastics , Eutectic metals.

C Titanium alloys

D Photopolymer

Answer D

Q.24. Which of the following is used as base material in Electron Beam Melting (EBM) process?

A Titanium alloys

B Photopolymer

C Various materials

D Paper

Answer A

Q.25. Which of the following is used as base material in Selective laser sintering (SLS)?

A Photopolymer

B Thermoplastics, Metal powders

C Titanium alloys

D Various materials

Answer B

Q.26. Which of the following advantage does not possess by the rapid prototyping process over
the traditional prototyping process?

A It consumes less time

B Gives better quality

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 C Reduces product launch time

D It's cheaper

Answer D

Q.27. STL file format is represented by interaction of ______

A lines and hexagons

B lines and rectangles

C lines and triangles

D lines and circles

Answer C

Q.28. Which material possess the maximum strength?

A ABS

B PLA

C Nylon

D INF

Answer C

Q.29. Which material can be efficiently used as a support material?

A ABS

B PLA

C Nylon

D INF

Answer D

Q.30. Which material gives finest surface finish in RP?

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 A ABS

B PLA

C Nylon

D INF

Answer B

Q.31. Which materials possess highest melting temperature?

A ABS

B PLA

C Nylon

D INF

Answer C

Q.32. Which file format cannot be converted into STL file format?

A .prt

B .sld

C .dwg

D .stp

Answer C

Q.33. STL files contains ______

A mass properties of the model

B geometrical data

C drawing data

D all of the above

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 Answer B

Q.34. In STL files when chord length decrease then accuracy _______

A increase

B decrease

C may increase or may decrease

D remains constant

Answer A

Q.35. Which of the following is least important in design during rapid prototyping?

A Machine size

B Tolerance

C Material

D CAD software

Answer B

Q.36. Drilling, milling and threading are examples of which kind of processes?

A Additive manufacturing

B Subtractive manufacturing

C Formative manufacturing

D None of the above

Answer B

Q.37. Which of the following is not an example of additive manufacturing?

A Fused-deposition-modeling

B Electron beam machining

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 C SLS

D Injection molding

Answer D

Q.38. In 4D printing, which one is the fourth dimension?

A Time

B Material

C Sound

D Light

Answer A

Q.39. Which of the following is not a data interfacing format?

A STL

B SLC

C LEAF

D RP

Answer D

Q.40. Which of the following is a data interfacing format?

A HP/GL

B ACER

C ASUS

D IBM

Answer A

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Q.41. STL consists of an unordered list of _______ facets representing the outside skin of an
object.

A linear

B triangular

C square

D hexagonal

Answer B

Q.42. STL file consists of which of the following format?

A ASCII

B Binary

C Both A & B

D Neither A nor B

Answer C

Q.43. STL files plague several problems as they contain no _______ data

A geographical

B analytical

C topological

D all of the above

Answer C

Q.44. In laminated object manufacturing (LOM), which of the following cutting strategy is
preferable?

A Directional scanning

B Zigzag tool paths

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 C Contouring and spiral paths

D Boundary cutting tool paths

Answer D

Q.45. A tessellated model is said to be valid if there are ________

A no missing facets

B no degenerate facets

C no overlapping facets

D all of the above

Answer D

Q.46. Among the following, which one is the last step in Data Processing for Rapid Prototyping?

A Model slicing

B Part orientation

C Tool path generation

D Support generation

Answer C

Q.47. Among the following, which one is the earliest step in Data Processing for Rapid
Prototyping?

A Model slicing

B Part orientation

C Tool path generation

D Support generation

Answer B

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Q.48. What type of inner structure makes the smoothest model in RP?

A Higher resolution

B Larger polygons

C Lower resolution

D None of the above

Answer A

Q.49. What type of inner structure can be used to reduce the printing time of the model in RP?

A Higher resolution

B Smaller polygons

C Lower resolution

D None of the above

Answer C

Q.50. Which of the following is an optional section of IGES format?

A Start section

B Global section

C Terminate section

D Flag section

Answer D

Q.51. Which one is NOT related to rapid prototyping definition?

A Layer by layer

B Physical model

C From 3D CAD data

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 D Production line

Answer D

Q.52. Which one of the processes is NOT using a laser?

A FDM

B SLA

C SLS

D LOM

Answer A

Q.53. Which of the following is the process in the RP cycle?

A Post-processing

B Transfer to machine

C Pre-processing

D All of the above

Answer D

Q.54. Which of the following is one of the design process steps?

A Build

B Concept

C Pre-processing

D Transfer to machine

Answer B

Q.55. What is the format for the prototyping machine file?

A .prt

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 B .slt

C .stl

D .iges

Answer C

Q.56. Which CAD software cannot be used to create data for the prototyping machine?

A CREO

B CATIA

C NX Unigraphics

D Adobe Illustrator

Answer D

Q.57. Which one of the process is subtractive prototyping?

A 5 axis CNC Milling

B Fused Deposition Modeling

C Multi-Jet Modeling

D Stereolithography Apparatus

Answer A

Q.58. From the following, in which process, the input material is in solid form?

A SLA

B SLS

C FDM

D MJM

Answer C

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Q.59. Which of the process, the input material is in liquid form?

A LOM

B SLS

C FDM

D MJM

Answer D

Q.60. Which of the process, the input material is in powder form?

A LOM

B SLS

C FDM

D MJM

Answer B

Q.61. Which material is NOT available for LOM process?

A Paper

B Plastic

C Metal

D Glass

Answer D

Q.62. Which of the process is using the extrusion concept?

A SLA

B SLS

C FDM

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 D MJM

Answer C

Q.63. Which of the following is the process of the pre-processing stage?

A Remove support

B Checking 3D CAD data

C De-powdering loose material

D Dip in a binder to strengthen the part

Answer B

Q.64. A computer model of a part design on a CAD system is called which of the following?

A Computer Prototype

B Geometric Prototype

C Solid Prototype

D Virtual Prototype

Answer D

Q.65. Machining is never used for rapid prototyping because it takes too long.

A True

B False

Answer B

Q.66. In the context of rapid prototyping and additive manufacturing, tessellation refers to the
process of slicing the CAD model of the part into layers.

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 A Droplet Deposition Manufacturing

B Used-Deposition Modeling

C Laminated-Object Manufacturing

D Stereolithography

Answer D

Q.67. Which of the following RP technologies uses powders as the starting material?

A Droplet Deposition Manufacturing

B Fused-Deposition Modeling

C Selective Laser Sintering

D Stereolithography

Answer C

Q.68. Which of the following RP technologies uses molten material as the starting material?

A Three-Dimensional Printing

B Fused-Deposition Modeling

C Stereolithography

D Selective Laser Sintering

Answer C

Q.69. Which one of the following RP technologies uses solid sheet stock as the starting material?

A Droplet deposition manufacturing

B Fused-deposition modeling

C Laminated-Object Manufacturing

D Selective Laser Sintering

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 Answer C

Q.7 Which of the following are examples of appropriate applications of additive manufacturing in
0. the actual production of parts and products?

A Castings made in small quantities

B Plastic parts in small batch sizes

C Mass-produced metal parts

D Special textile products

Answer B

Q.7 Which of the following are problems with the current rapid prototyping and
1. additive manufacturing technologies?

A Limited material variety

B Inability to convert a solid part into layers

C Poor machinability of the starting material

D The inability of the designer to design the part

Answer A

Q.7 Of all of the current material addition rapid prototyping technologies, which one is the most
2. widely used?

A Ballistic particle manufacturing

B Selective laser sintering

C Solid ground curing

D Stereolithography

Answer D

Q.7 Which one of the following is not a rapid indirect tooling method?
3.

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 A Vacuum Casting

B Investment Casting

C Laser-Engineered Net Shaping

D Injection molding

Answer C

Q.7 Which one of the following is not a direct rapid tooling method?
4.

A LOM Composite

B Direct AIM (ACES Injection Molding)

C Sand Molding

D Injection molding

Answer D

Q.75. In the process of Selective Laser Sintering, raw material used is in the form of ______

A machining wax

B foam core

C powder

D rubber

Answer C

Q.76. In Selective Laser Sintering, laser light is also being used.

A True

B False

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 C

Answer A

Q.77. Explicit support structures are not required in Selective Laser Sintering (SLS).

A True

B False

Answer A

Q.78. Which of the following process is suitable for making injection molding tools?

A SL

B SLS

C EBM

D FDM

Answer B

Q.79. Which one of the following is not Extrusion-Based RP Systems?

A Fused Deposition Modelling (FDM)

B 3D Printing

C Sheet Lamination (Laminated Object Manufacturing (LOM))

D Electron Beam melting (EBM)

Answer D

Q.80. Which of the following is the firststep of the rapid prototyping process?

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 A 3D Modeling

B Data Conversion

C Building

D Postprocessing

Answer A

Q.81. Which of the following is the last step of the rapid prototyping process?

A 3D Modeling

B Data Conversion

C Building

D Postprocessing

Answer D

Q.82. In STL files Euler’s rule for solids can be written as

A No. of faces – No. of edges + No. of vertices = 3 x No. of bodies

B No. of faces – No. of edges + No. of vertices = No. of bodies

C No. of faces – No. of edges + No. of vertices = 2 x No. of bodies

D No. of faces – No. of edges + No. of vertices = 4 x No. of bodies

Answer C

Q.83. Which of the following is a stage of Product Life Cycle?

A Introduction stage

B Growth stage

C Mature stage

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 D All of the above

Answer D

Q.84. In “Product Life Cycle” a stage represents rapid growth of product sale known
as_____.

A Saturation stage

B Mature stage

C Growth stage

D Introduction stage

Answer C

Q.85. In “Product Life Cycle” a stage represents a new and previously unknown product
for buyers known as_____.

A Mature stage

B Introduction stage

C Decline stage

D None of the above

Answer B

Q.86. In “Product Life Cycle” a stage in which buyers move on to other products and sales
drop is known as_____.

A Growth stage

B Introduction stage

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 C Mature stage

D Decline stage

Answer D

Q.87. In “Product Life Cycle” in _______ stage market becomes saturated

A Mature stage

B Growth stage

C Decline stage

D Introduction stage

Answer A

Q.88. The technology life cycle concerned with the time and cost of developing the
technology

A True

B False

Answer A

Q.89. The time duration of useful life of any product is known as a product's life cycle.

A True

B False

Answer B

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Q.90. The technology is defined as the sophistication of a plant ,any equipment or any
machine etc

A True

B False

Answer B

CAD/CAM & AUTOMATION [Multiple Choice Questions

UNIT No-06
Name of Unit: Robotics and Automation
Q.1. ____ is a manufacturing philosophy in which different parts are manufactured in a small batch
or group based on similarities

A Production technology

B Group technology

C Flexible manufacturing system

D None of the above

Answer B

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Q.2. Which layout is mostly used for batch type of production?

A Product layout

B Process layout

C In line layout

D None of the above

Answer B

Q.3. In which layout manufacturing is done according to machine arrangement

A GT layout

B Product layout

C Process layout

D Hybrid layout

Answer C

Q.4. In which layout manufacturing is done according to product's characteristics?

A Process layout

B GT layout

C Product layout

D Both A & B

Answer D

Q.5. From the following which is type of coding system?

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 A OPITZ coding system

B 3 system

C The MICLASS system

D All of the above

Answer D

Q.6. From the following in which coding method supplementary code and form code are used?

A 3 system

B The MICLASS system

C OPITZ coding system

D The DICLASS system

Answer C

Q.7. ____ is a collection of parts which have similar characteristics

A Part family

B Mono family

C GT family

D Poly family

Answer A

Q.8. From the following which is the step of machine cell design?

A Divide parts into part families

B Select type of machine cell

C Prepare a composite part

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 D All of the above

Answer D

Q.9. Cellular manufacturing is not a application of thought of group technology.

A True

B False

Answer A

Q.1 Form which of the following is the objective of cellular manufacturing.

0.

A Reduced manufacturing lead time

B Increased in quality

C Reduced setup time

D All of the above

Answer D

Q.11. ____ is a highly automated group of GT machine cell.

A Flexible manufacturing system

B Group technology

C Automated system

D None of the above

Answer A

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Q.12. From the following which is the main components of Flexible manufacturing system(FMS).

A Main frame computer

B Automated guided vehicle

C Material handling system

D All of the above

Answer D

Q.13. From the following what is the full form of AGV?

A Automatic Guided Vehicle

B Automated Gas Vehicle

C Automated Guided Vehicle

D None of the above

Answer C

Q.14. From the following which is the types of Automated Guided Vehicle (AGV).

A Driver less train

B Pallet trucks

C Unit load carriers

D All of the above

Answer D

Q.15. From the following which method is used to guide the AGV.

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 A Wire guided

B Paint strip

C Self guided vehicle

D All of the above

Answer D

Q.16. From the following which is not the application of AGV.

A Truck loading and unloading

B To change the tool

C Material transfer

D Paper roll transfer

Answer B

Q.17. From the following which is the benefits of AGV.

A Reduction in man-hours

B Useful in hazardous area

C Both A & B

D None of the above

Answer C

Q.18. A combination of equipment and controls which handles, stores and retrieves materials
with precision,accuracy and speed under a defined degree of automation is known as ____

A Automated storage and retrieval system (AS/RS)

B Flexible manufacturing system

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 C Automated guided vehicle

D None of the above

Answer A

Q.19. From the following which is the benefits of AS/RS

A Less product damage

B Good and easy housekeeping in FMS

C Reduce labour cost

D All of the above

Answer D

Q.20. From the following which is the type of FMS layout

A In line layout

B Ladder layout

C Both A &B

D None of the above

Answer C

Q.21. What is the full form of AS/RS in FMS?

A Automated storage and recovery system

B Automatic storage and rotary system

C Automated storage and retrieval system

D Automated storage and regenerative system

Answer C

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Q.22. From the following in which FMS layout machine tools are kept along a straight line.

A Loop layout

B In line layout

C Ladder layout

D Open field layout

Answer B

Q.23. From the following in which FMS layout workstations are arranged in a loop

A Ladder layout

B In line layout

C Loop layout

D None of the above

Answer C

Q.24. From the following in which FMS layout workstations are arranged in a loop with rungs

A Ladder layout

B Open field layout

C Loop layout

D None of the above

Answer A

Q.25. From the following which FMS layout is combination of many loop and ladder layout

A Ladder layout

B Open field layout

C Loop layout

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 D None of the above

Answer B

Q.26. From the following in which FMS layout robots are used as material handling system

A Ladder layout

B Open field layout

C Loop layout

D Robot centered layout

Answer D

Q.27. If the production is done according to change in various product design easily then such
manufacturing system is called as flexible system.

A True

B False

Answer B

Q.28. From which of the following is not the main element of Flexible manufacturing system

A Work handling system

B Material handling system

C Tool handling system

D Main frame computer

Answer A

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Q.29. From the following which is the function of material handling system used in FMS

A Handling of parts with different variety

B Independent movement of part between stations

C Both A & B

D None of the above

Answer B

Q.30. ____ is an independent and self-operated vehicle which moves on defined guide ways

A Automated Guarded Vehicles

B Automated Storage and Retrieval System

C Automated Guided Vehicles

D Automated Driving Vehicles

Answer C

Q.31. From the following which material handling equipment is used in ladder layout of FMS

A Conveyor systems

B AGVS

C Both A & B

D None of the above

Answer C

Q.32. From the following which material handling equipment is used in Robot centered layout of
FMS

A Industrial Robot

B Conveyor systems

C Rail guided vehicle system

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 D None of the above

Answer A

Q.33. ____ is a general purpose, programmable machine possessing certain human like
characteristics

A Robot

B Manipulator

C Gripper

D None of the above

Answer A

Q.34. _____ is area of engineering and science which understand the different principles, structure
and programming of robot

A Mechatronics

B Robotics

C Aeronautics

D None of the above

Answer B

Q.35. ____ is also known as work volume of robot

A Work envelope

B Speed of movement

C Load carrying capacity

D Precision of movement

Answer A

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Q.36. The speed at which robot is capable of manipulating its end effector is known as the____.

A Velocity of robot

B Maximum reach

C Speed of movement

D Load carrying capacity

Answer C

Q.37. The capacity of robot to carry load is known as_____.

A Load carrying capacity

B Work envelope

C Maximum reach

D None of the above

Answer A

Q.38. ____ is a collection of mechanical linkage connected by joints

A End effector

B Gripper

C Sensor

D Manipulator

Answer D

Q.39. Sensors are the transducers that are used to____.

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 A Measure physical quantity

B Hold the objects

C Fix the objects

D None of the above

Answer A

Q.40. From which of the following is the geometrical configuration of robot

A Cylindrical configuration

B Polar configuration

C Both A& B

D None of the above

Answer C

Q.41. ____ grippers are used to pick up light weight materials such as paper,cloth etc

A Mechanical grippers

B Adhesive grippers

C Vacuum cup grippers

D Magnetic grippers

Answer B

Q.42. ____ grippers are used to transfer ferrous material

A Magnetic grippers

B Mechanical grippers

C Adhesive grippers

D Vacuum cup grippers

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 Answer A

Q.43. The technology is defined as the sophistication of a plant ,any equipment or any machine
etc

A True

B False

Answer B

Q.44. Sensors which are come in contact with some surface to measured desired physical variable
are known as____

A Non-contact sensors

B Proximity sensors

C Contact sensors

D None of the above

Answer C

Q.45. From which of the following is known as contact sensor.

A Tactile sensor

B Proximity sensor

C Visual sensor

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