Radiology Physics Board Recalls 2005 1. Which of the following converts a complex signal into discrete frequency components?

a. Fourier transform b. Filter backprojection c. Time gain compensation d. Radiation necrosis 2. Two brass bars 36 cm above the film are separated by 5 cm, their image is separated by 9 cm, how far is the source to object distance? a. 45 cm b. 80 cm c. 36 cm d. 12 cm 3. Which of the following has the most amount of geometric unsharpness related to the object within the body?

4. What is this artifact from?

a. Decoupling of the PMTs b. PHA window to narrow c. Crystal is too thick d. ? 5. What is this artifact from?

a. b. c. d.

Cracked filter Cracked compression paddle Static Grid

6. Noise is decreased by a factor of 100, for a 5 Mhz probe and an attenuation coefficient of 0.05 dB/cm Mhz how much deeper could be imaged? a. 2 cm b. 4 cm c. 8 cm d. 16 cm 7. After complete elution how many long does is take for the Tc (t = 6 hours) and Mo (t1/2 = 67 hours) to reach equilibrium? a. 2 days b. 24 hours c. 1 week 8. An adult is given 20 mCi. 20 % is taken up by a 40 gram thyroid leading to a dose of 0.3 Gy. How much would the dose be if 10 mCi were given to a child with a 20 gram thyroid with an uptake fraction of 10%? a. 1.2 Gy b. 0.3 Gy c. 1.2 mGy d. 1.2 Sv 9. How do you convert 1 micro Curie to KiloBequerel? a. Multiply by 3.7 x 1010 b. Multiply by 37 c. Divide by 3.7 d. Multiple by 1.44 10. 2 mCi are needed of a 2 mCi/ml solution at 5 pm. How many ml of this solution need to be set aside at 8 am? a. 2.6 ml b. 5.2 ml c. 2.8 ml d. 3.3 ml 11. What is this set up used for every week? a. Check image quality b. Check average glandular dose c. Screen film contact d. Processor function 12. Which of the following are true regarding shielding for a mammography suite? a. 3 cm of dry wall is sufficient b. 0.5 mm of lead is required by the MSQA c. the area of biggest concern is the floor below d. 5 mm of lead is required by the MSQA e. Leakage radiation is the most important factor 13. Which of the following absorbs all - with the least amount of bremsstrahlung production? a. Lead b. Titanium c. Plastic d. Tungsten

e. Steel 14. Which of the following is the phase encoding gradient?

A.

B. C. D. E.

QuickTime and a TIFF (Uncompressed) decompressor are needed to see this picture.

15. Which of the following would be used in a dual echo sequence to provide both T2 and PD weighting? a. TR1 = 2000 ms TR2 = 3000 ms TE = 30 ms b. TR = 2000 ms TE1 = 30 ms TE2 = 80 ms c. TR = 500 ms TE1 = 30 ms TE2 = 80 ms d. TR1 = 500 ms TR2 = 2000 ms TE = 80 ms 16. Why does calibration of a SPECT camera include imaging a point source from multiple angles? a. Account for attenuation b. Check axis of rotation c. Check linearity d. Check uniformity 17. 500 mSv is the limit for which of the following? a. Occupational exposure of the eye? b. Occupational exposure of the thyroid? c. Non-occupational exposure of the gonads? d. Non-occupational exposure of the hands? e. Occupational exposure of the gonads? 18. A thyroid detector is a ________? a. NaI scintillation b. Ion chamber c. Geiger-Mueller d. LSO

19. A dose calibrator is a ________? a. NaI scintillation b. Ion chamber c. Geiger-Mueller d. LSO 20. Determine the reading from Geiger-Mueller counter 21. To better identify a low contrast 4 cm hepatoma which of the following would help? a. Increase matrix size b. Increase slice thickness c. Decrease field of view d. Increase mA e. Increase pitch 22. The factors MI and TI on an ultrasound image identify what? a. Doppler settings b. Potential for cavitation and heating c. Aliasing d. Time mode and motion mode 23. The difference in concentration of a radiopharmaceutical between a tissue and blood at equilibrium is called what? a. Equilibrium constant b. Partition coefficient c. Active uptake d. Sequestration 24. What is the following point on a ROC curve? 25. Axial resolution in ultrasound is affected by which of the following? a. probe type b. tissue compressibility c. pulse train length d. number of scan lines 26. The definition of specificity is? a. TN+FP/TN b. TN/TN+FP c. TP/TP+FN d. TP/TP+FP e. TN/TN+FN 27. A tungsten anode with an erbium filter (k edge 57.5 kev) would result in which of the following?

28. Which of the following people get the highest dose?

29. What is the range of hounsfeld units? a. 0-500 with air as 0 b. -1000 to greater than 1000 with water as 0 c. -500 to greater than 500 with water as 0 d. -1000 to 1000 with water as 0 30. How are CT and SPECT similar? a. Detect radiation necrosis b. Use backprojection c. Are both emission tomography d. detect gamma rays 31. Why is the source to image distance less in mammography than other imaging modalities? a. Magnification b. Decrease scatter c. Decrease exposure time d. Decrease dose 32. Why is handling FDG more risky for the technician than Tc? a. Higher photon energy b. Lower half life c. Tc is milked from the Mo(hit) generator d. Decay of FDG leads to positron emission 33. Which has the highest dose per frame? a. Digital angiography b. Digital subtraction angiography c. Cardiac cinofluoroscopy d. Fluoroscopy for 3 minutes 34. High level control in fluoro means? a. Ability to control pulse fluoro b. Enable exposure greater than 10R/min c. Increased source to image distance to decrease dose 35. How many radioactive atoms are in a sample containing 1 kBq of activity and a half life of 1000 s? a. 1.44 x 106 b. 63900 c. 3.7 x 103 d. 1.21 gigawatts 36. What is the dose to a nurse bagging a patient while a portable chest x-ray is taken

if the nurse is 1 m away? a. 1 mGy b. 0.5 Gy c. 0.05 mGy d. 0.5 mRad 37. What are the units of cumulative activity? a. mCi hr, Bq s b. Milli Curie hour per kilogram c. mCi hr-1, Bq s-1 38. What are the units of dose area? a. Sv/s b. Gy/cm c. Rad Bq d. Gy cm2 39. What is the typical spatial resolution for CT? a. 0.5mm b. 1 cm c. 0.05 mm d. 5 mm 40. Which diagnostic study should not be read on a 1024x768 monitor? a. MRI b. CT c. USN d. Chest x-ray 41. What is DICOM? a. Protocol for transferring diagnostic images b. Protocol for medical work flow c. Doshis internet community for online men d. Array of processors for performing low level mathematical computations 42. What is CAD? a. Coronary artery disease b. Method for assisted interpretation c. Cummulative activity dose d. Method for film recovery 43. What are the number of bits in 4 mammographic images which are 4096x4096 pixels and have 2 bytes/pixel? a. 1 kbit b. 1 mbit c. 1 gigabit d. 1 terabit e. 1 pentabit

44. What is the following mammographic artifact?

a. Dented grid b. Film non-uniformity c. Cracked filter d. Double exposure e. Heel effect 45. The chemical shift artifact is due to what? a. Difference in resonance frequency b. Difference in T1 c. Difference in TI d. Difference in T2 46. What is the following artifact from?

a. b. c. d.

Susceptibility Chemical shift Motion ?

47. What is the formula for calculating the energy of a KMM auger electron?

a. Ek-2Em b. Em-Ek c. 2Ek-Em d. Ek 48. What do the following images from digital subtraction imaging represent? a. Use of a different focal spot b. Use of different field of view c. Use of different kVp d. Use of different mA 49. Where is a 12:1 grid use? a. Fluoro b. Mammography c. Chest x-ray d. Portable x-ray 50. What is the result of subtracting a blurred version of the image from the original (i.e. original k.blurred image)? a. Edge enhancement b. Smoothed image c. Looks similar to an image processed with a low frequency filter d. Increased spatial resolution e. Reduced penumbra 51. What is the effect of increasing the film speed in mammography? a. Decreased quantum mottle b. Increased spatial resolution c. Decreased dose d. Increased contrast 52. Gadolinium is a ________ substance? a. Paramagnetic b. Superparamagnetic c. Ferromagnetic 53. Time gain compensation is used for what? a. Corrects for attenuation b. Changes pulse legth c. Increases pulse repetition frequency d. Decreases aliasing 54. What is a pencil chamber used for? a. Calibrating a Anger Camera b. Checking CT dose c. Personnel dositmeter d. A figment of Aarons imagination 55. Which of the following are true regarding in plane PET spatial resolution? a. Independent of angular photon spread b. Independent of distance traveled by the c. Most of the time independent of the depth d. Dependent on photon energy 56. What happens when a low energy filter is changed for a medium energy filter?

a. Improved spatial resolution b. Decreased sensitivity c. Increased sensitivity d. Decreased quantum mottle 57. Counts are proportional to actual decays over a range. This represents what property? a. Uniformity b. Linearity c. Precision d. Accuracy e. Full width at half maximum 58. Components of an image intensifier have the following modulation transfer values at a frequency of 2 lp/mm: Glass 0.8, input phosphor 0.5, photocathode 0.7, output phosphor 1.0. What is the overall modulation? a. 0.5 b. 2.0 c. 0.28 d. 1.0 59. What decreases the pincushion effect? a. Changing from 9 inch mode to a 4.5 inch mode b. Collimation c. Decrease mA d. Increase Aperture 60. In fluoroscopy collimation results in which of the following? a. Increase spatial resolution b. Increase contrast c. Increase scatter d. Increased dose 61. Radiation induced changes in lymphocytes can be detected at what dose? a. 0.25 Gy b. 3 Gy c. 2 Gy d. 2.5 Gy 62. Apoptosis plays a role in which of the following? a. Cell killing in radiation treatment of lymphoma 63. Which of the following enhances cell killing? a. Death rays coming from Aarons eyes b. Tobacco smoke c. Tetracycline d. Actinomycin D

64. What is wrong with the following tomographic set up?

Grid Film

a. Arc of movement is to large b. The film and grid need to be perpendicular to the tube c. The anode-cathode axis needs to be parallel to the patient d. A grid should not be used e. The cassette needs to move with the tube 65. Whole body exposure of 3 gy leads to which of the following effects? a. Blistering b. Temporary epilation c. Skin necrosis d. Ulceration e. Permanent sterility in males 66. Compression in mammography is used to? a. Decrease scatter b. Improve spatial resolution c. Decrease quantum mottle d. Improves contrast 67. What defines the relationship of a patients bone density to age and sex matched patients? a. T score b. Z score c. Mean d. Standard deviation e. Variance 68. What is the advantage of LSO over BSO in PET imaging? a. Faster decay b. LSO is less hygroscopic c. Its all about the BSO d. Sensitivity 69. A woman is breast feeding. She is scheduled for treatment with I-131. Which of the following should she be told to decrease breast dose?

a. Stop breast feeding permanently, beginning 6 hours prior b. Stop breast feeding permanently, beginning 2 weeks prior c. Stop breast feeding temporarily, beginning 6 hours prior d. Stop breast feeding temporarily, beginning 2 weeks prior 70. I-131 decays by - to Xe which of the following gives the biggest dose to the thyroid? a. . c. Characteristic x-rays from Xe . 71. Which of the following diagrams are correct?

+ Protons

72. A radiologist finds out she is pregnant. A badge worn on her collar registers 4 mSv. What is the correct course of action? a. Have an abortion b. Put another badge under her lead apron c. Stop fluoroscopy d. Report the dose to the NRCP 73. Isomeric nuclear transition cannot lead to which of the following? a. b. Characteristic X-ray c. Auger electron d. Internal conversion electron 74. If two films with an optical density of 1 are placed on top of one another what percentage of incident light will be transmitted? a. 1%

Neutrons Neutrons

Neutrons

Neutrons

Protons

Protons

+ Protons

b. 10% c. 2% d. 50% 75. 98% of an x-ray beam is attenuated in a patients body, 50% of the beam is attenuated by the cassette. Ignoring inverse square effects, what percentage of the original beam exits the cassette? a. 5% b. 50% c. 1% d. 7% 76. Phase contrast imaging utilizes which of the following? a. Slice saturation b. Bipolar gradients c. Gadolinium d. Echo planar imaging 77. Echo planar imaging is used to a. Image vessel flow b. Obtain images in less than 100 ms 78. If the source to image distance decreased with everything else held constant what would happen to dose? a. Increase b. Decrease c. Stay the same 79. A radioactive substance decays with 400 cpm for 4 minutes. The 95% confidence interval is plus or minus what? a. 10 b. 20 c. 40 d. 160 80. Radiation is most likely to effect which part of the heart? a. Epicardium b. Myocardium c. Pericardium d. Coronary vessels 81. Which of the following is correct regarding KI? a. It is a measure of cavitation in Ultrasound b. It only protects the thyroid c. It will protect 50% of people if given within 24 hours of exposure d. Determines the image weighting in MRI

82. Which of the following chemical groups has been shown to reduce the effects of radiation? a. Sulfhydryl

b. Methyl c. Hydroxyl d. Phosphate 83. Exposure is measured in what units? a. m/C b. C/kg c. g/cm3 d. C/J 84. The extrinsic resolution in an anger camera _________? a. Improves with the patient close to the collimator b. Does not depend on the collimator c. Is a function of the photo-multiplier tube d. Depends on the distance traveled by the particle 85. The pulse height analyzer __________? a. Decreases the contribution of scatter b. Determines the extrinsic resolution c. Calculates the position of the decay using coincident detection d. Performs backprojection 86. Which of the following has regulatory powers in the United States? a. IRCP b. NRCP c. NRC d. UNSCEAR 87. Iodine on neuroangiography is best seen by a. Increasing kvp from 80 to 120 b. Increasing mA c. Imaging larger vessels d. Decrease field of view