Q.no 1.

In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time

in which
A : the technician enters the program
B : timers and counters are indexed by
C : one “rung” of ladder logic takes to complete
D : the entire program takes to execute
Q.no 2. RTU has ability to receive and send message to field
devices in serial format usually is ….standard
A : RS-232
B : RS- 485
C : DH-485
D : GH-485+
Q.no 3. The state where the equality and inequality
constraints are violated while the system is breaking into
pieces, resulting in the formation of islands.
A : Restorative
B : emergency
C : In extremis
D : alert
Q.no 4. Distributed SCADA system is of the following
generations
A : First generation
B : Second generation
C : Third generation
D : Fourth generation
Q.no 5. Which of the following is used to link various
industrial I/O devices?
A : Devicenet
B : TCP/IP
C : FBB
D : MODBUS
Q.no 6. TCP/IP protocol consist of how many layers?
A:2
B:4
C:6
D:8
Q.no 7. MTU stands for..
A : Master Terminal Unit
B : Master Train Unit
C : Massive Train Unit
D : Master Trend Unit
Q.no 8. …..is the HOST computer
A : MTU
B : RTU
C : MODEM
D : DCE
Q.no 9. Protocol used for application layer in OSI model
A : FTP
B : RPC
C : UDP
D : PPP
Q.no 10. Ladder logic programming consists primarily of
A : Virtual relay contacts and coils
B : Logic gate symbols with connecting lines
C : Function blocks with connecting lines
D : Text-based code
Q.no 11. A _________ consists of number of minicomputers or
microcomputers inter connected in a tree structure.
A : Hierarchical system
B : Shared bus systems
C : Ring system
D : All the answers
Q.no 12. What is SCADA?
A : Hardware
B : Software
C : Process
D : System
Q.no 13. A SCADA system performs Data Acquisition,
Networked data Communication ,………….. and control
A : Data representation
B : DCS
C : Data manipulation
D : Data deletion
Q.no 14. SCADA Technology was first applied for
A : Telephones
B : weather predictions
C : railways
D : industries
Q.no 15. Which of the following is not element of SCADA
A : Communication
B : Master Terminal Units
C : Micro Terminal Units (MTU)
D : RTUs/PLCs
Q.no 16. Which layer provides the services to user?
A :  session layer
B : transport layer
C : application layer
D : network layer
Q.no 17. SCADA architecture is called
A : master/slave
B : client/data server
C : Both of these
D : none of the above
Q.no 18. SCADA systems encompass the transfer of data
between a central host computer and a number of
______________and/or Programmable Logic Controllers (PLCs),
and the central host and the operator terminals.
A : Microcontrollers
B : Remote Terminal Units (RTUs)
C : Input Output Modules
D : Motor Control Center
Q.no 19. The difference between online and offline PLC
programming is
A : whether the PLC is running or stopped
B : whether the programming PC has internet connectivity
C : where the edited program resides
D : the type of programmer used
Q.no 20. At which layer of the OSI model does the MODBUS
messaging protocol reside?
A : Layer 5
B : Layer 6
C : Layer 4
D : Layer 7
Q.no 21.  DCS is a __________________
A : Distributed Control System
B : Data Control System
C : Data Column System
D : Distributed Column System
Q.no 22. A SCADA system performs Data acquisition,
Networked data communication, _________ and Control.
A : Analog to Digital Conversion
B : 4-20mA to HART
C : Data representation
D : All the Answers
Q.no 23. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI model.
A : prior to
B : after
C : simultaneous to
D :  with no link to
Q.no 24. In OSI model 4th layer is
A : Application
B : Session
C : Transport
D : Presentation
Q.no 25. SCADA features are
A : Alarm handling
B : Data logging
C : Trending
D : All of the above
Q.no 26. When did the SCADA start?
A : 1980
B : 1965
C : 1960
D : 1970
Q.no 27. Network layer uses which protocol
A : IP
B : PPP
C : SNMP
D : FTP
Q.no 28. DeviceNet is based on the which protocols?
A : CAN
B : Common Industrial Protocol (CIP)
C : DeviceNet
D : ControlNet
Q.no 29. In __________the connected processors communicated
over a common channel using time-sharing, thus allowing
attached computers to transmit information in
short-duration, high speed bursts.
A : Ring system
B : Hierarchical system
C : Shared bus systems
D : All the answers
Q.no 30. An example of discrete (digital) control is
A : Varying the volume of a music system
B : Turning a lamp ON or OFF
C : Varying the brightness of a lamp
D : Controlling the speed of a fan
Q.no 31. A good application for a timed interrupt in a PLC
program would be
A : A communications function block
B : A PID function block
C : A math function block
D : A motor start/stop rung
Q.no 32. An OR function implemented in ladder logic uses
A : Normally-closed contacts in series
B : Normally-open contacts in series
C : Normally-open contacts in parallel
D : Normally-closed contacts in parallel
Q.no 33. IEC61850 Standards is applicable to
A : Chemical Plant
B : Electrical Utilities
C : Water purification plant
D : Transportation
Q.no 34. The ----------- instruction is used to turn an output
ON or OFF after its time has been on for a present time
interval
A : retentive time
B : timer on delay
C : timer off delay
D : None
Q.no 35. PLC’s Analog input /Output has
A : 1 Bit address
B : 1 byte address
C : 1 word address
D : 1 double word address
Q.no 36. Which of the following is the heart of a SCADA
system?
A : PLC
B : Aalrm
C : HMI
D : I/O Task
Q.no 37. A central host computer server or servers called
________
A : Switch
B : Master Terminal Units (MTUs)
C : Junction Box
D : Microcontroller
Q.no 38. Degree to which an activity can be performed
within a predictable timeframe is called as
A : Deterministic
B : Security
C : Adequacy
D : none of the above
Q.no 39. How many levels are present in a complex SCADA
system?
A : 3 – levels
B : 4 – levels
C : 5 – levels
D : 6 – levels
Q.no 40. What is SCADA
A : Software
B : Process
C : System
D : Hardware
Q.no 41. Which of the following is the heart of a SCADA
system?
A : PLC
B : HMI
C : Alarm task
D : I/O task
Q.no 42. In Device Net architecture , second layer is
A : Device Net protocol
B : CAN Protocol
C : Physical layer
D : Transmission media
Q.no 43. Sensors and control relays can’t generate or
interpret protocol communication, _______ is needed to
provide an interface between the sensors and the SCADA
network.
A : Remote Terminal Units (RTUs)
B : Field Instruments
C : HMI
D : All the Answers
Q.no 44. Combine communications paths to and from many
RTUs into a single bit stream, usually using time division
multiplexing (TDM) or other such bit stream manipulation
techniques.
A : Human Machine Interface (HMI)
B : Multiplexers
C : Barrier
D : PLC
Q.no 45. A collection of standard and/or custom software
systems used to provide the SCADA central host and
operator terminal application, support the communications
system, and monitor and control remotely located field data
interface devices called as ______
A : HART Protocol
B : Human Machine Interface (HMI)
C : Network Gateway
D : Input Output Modules
Q.no 46. Which of the following is output device for Human
machine Interface(HMI)
A : touch screens
B : joysticks
C : Toggle switches
D : Status Lights
Q.no 47. To protect PLC from any incomming surges from the
field, an isolated device such as ------ is used
A : Transformer
B : Transducer
C : ADC
D : DAC
Q.no 48. Why is Modbus becoming more important as time
goes on manufacturers?
A : It is standard that is used by manufacturer
B :   It is faster
C :    It is cheaper
D :   It is slower
Q.no 49. Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to
A : Analog Output
B : Digital Output
C : Analog Input
D : Digital Input
Q.no 50. Human machine interface (HMI) performs following
functions
A : Monitoring the data
B : control
C : alarm geneartions
D : All of the above
Q.no 51. The control in SCADA is
A :  Online control
B : Direct control
C : Supervisory control
D : Automatic control
Q.no 52. FFB physical layer follows
A : IEC Standard 61158-2
B : ISA Standard S50.02-1992
C : Both of these
D : None of the above
Q.no 53. IEC61850 is part of a Common Information Model
(CIM) developed by IEC Technical Committee 57 that also
includes the following standards:
A : IEC61970
B : IEC61968
C : IEC60870
D : All of the above
Q.no 54. Which of the following is an example of the SCADA
system?
A : Honeywell PlantScape
B : Emerson Delta V
C : Yokogawa CENTUM
D : PowerStudio Deluxe
Q.no 55. What is the largest integer number that a PLC
counter function can reach if it uses a 16 bit register?
A : 32768
B : 65537
C : 65535
D : 32767
Q.no 56. Internet or WAN protocols are used in
A : Monolithic SCADA systems
B : Distributed SCADA systems
C : Networked SCADA systems
D : Four generation SCADA systems
Q.no 57. Devices in a Ring or Mesh topology are usually
configured in…………………relationship
A : Peer to peer
B : Primary to secondary
C : Master -slave
D : multiplexed
Q.no 58. Two types of transmission modes used for standard
MODBUS are
A : ASCII mode, RTU mode
B : EIA-422B
C : ARP
D : TCP
Q.no 59. Which of the following protocol is based on CAN
protocol?
A : DNP3 protocol
B : DeviceNet protocol
C : Control and Information Protocol
D : Control Net Protocol
Q.no 60. In PLC programming, a retentive function is one
that
A : Is not reset after a power cycle
B : Defaults to the “on” state
C : Comes last in the program
D : Defaults to the “off” state
Q.no 1. Which of the following is the type of firewall?
A : Packet Filtering Firewall
B : Dual Homed Gateway Firewall
C : Screen Host Firewall
D : Dual Host Firewall
Q.no 2. How many levels are present in a complex SCADA
system?
A : 1-level
B : 3-level
C : 4-level
D : 5-level
Q.no 3. HTTP (hypertext transfer protocol) is part of ---layer
in OSI model.
A : Application
B : Network
C : Physical
D : Presentation
Q.no 4. How is the speed of operation of conventional relay
system as compared to digital controllers?
A : very slow
B : very fast
C : Same
D : almost similar
Q.no 5. What is role of SCADA in power system operation?
A : Monitor and operate
B : co-ordinate, schedule
C : Maintain station records, logs
D : All of the above
Q.no 6. Who developed the MODBUS
A : Modicon
B : Edison
C : Newton
D : Einstine
Q.no 7. Which of the given are the PLC Programming tools?
A : MATLAB
B : RS View 32
C : RS Logix 500
D : Keli U Vision
Q.no 8. Ethernet/IP protocol is used in following network
A : LAN
B : WAN
C : MAN
D : CAN
Q.no 9. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is
A:4
B:5
C:6
D:7
Q.no 10. ______of PLCs can be done in very little time.
A : Programming
B : Maintenance
C : Trouble shooting
D : Modification of I/O
Q.no 11. The highest-level layer in the OSI model. It
performs network flow control and support functions.
A : Application
B : Network
C : Physical
D : Presentation
Q.no 12. SCADA desirable properties are
A : Security
B : Adequacy
C : Both of these
D : none of the above
Q.no 13. _______ may employ one or more workstations and
can be configured at the workstation or by an off-line
personal computer.
A : RTU
B : Router
C : DCS
D : Gate Way
Q.no 14. Which of the following is used to link various
industrial I/O devices?
A : Devicenet
B : TCP/IP
C : FBB
D : MODBUS
Q.no 15. The state where the equality and inequality
constraints are violated while the system is breaking into
pieces, resulting in the formation of islands.
A : Restorative
B : emergency
C : In extremis
D : alert
Q.no 16. In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time
in which
A : the technician enters the program
B : timers and counters are indexed by
C : one “rung” of ladder logic takes to complete
D : the entire program takes to execute
Q.no 17. At which layer of the OSI model does the MODBUS
messaging protocol reside?
A : Layer 5
B : Layer 6
C : Layer 4
D : Layer 7
Q.no 18. Ladder logic programming consists primarily of
A : Virtual relay contacts and coils
B : Logic gate symbols with connecting lines
C : Function blocks with connecting lines
D : Text-based code
Q.no 19.  DCS is a __________________
A : Distributed Control System
B : Data Control System
C : Data Column System
D : Distributed Column System
Q.no 20. What is SCADA?
A : Hardware
B : Software
C : Process
D : System
Q.no 21. A SCADA system performs Data Acquisition,
Networked data Communication ,………….. and control
A : Data representation
B : DCS
C : Data manipulation
D : Data deletion
Q.no 22. The difference between online and offline PLC
programming is
A : whether the PLC is running or stopped
B : whether the programming PC has internet connectivity
C : where the edited program resides
D : the type of programmer used
Q.no 23. Protocol used for application layer in OSI model
A : FTP
B : RPC
C : UDP
D : PPP
Q.no 24. SCADA features are
A : Alarm handling
B : Data logging
C : Trending
D : All of the above
Q.no 25. SCADA systems encompass the transfer of data
between a central host computer and a number of
______________and/or Programmable Logic Controllers (PLCs),
and the central host and the operator terminals.
A : Microcontrollers
B : Remote Terminal Units (RTUs)
C : Input Output Modules
D : Motor Control Center
Q.no 26. Which is an open family of protocols that is
implemented in the application, presentation, and session
layers of the OSI model.
A : CAN
B : Common Industrial Protocol (CIP)
C : DeviceNet
D : ControlNet
Q.no 27. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI
model have this layer.
A :  session layer
B : transport layer
C : application layer
D : network layer
Q.no 28. DNP3 header comprises
A : Source device address
B : Destination device address
C : Frame size, data link control information
D : All of the above
Q.no 29. Protocol is a set of ……………………. that entities use
to communicate information.
A : Formats
B : Procedure
C : Formats and procedure
D : Bandwidth
Q.no 30. FBB stands for
A : Field Function Block
B : Flexible Field Block
C : Flexible Function Block
D : Fully Field Block
Q.no 31. Which is not the function of generation station
control?
A : Co-ordination with load dispatch centers
B : state estimation
C : system planning
D : load frequency control
Q.no 32. Control and Information Protocol (CIP) is not used
in which of following layer of OSI?
A : Control and Information Protocol (CIP) is not used in which of
following layer of OSI?
B : Transport layer
C : Application layer
D : Presentation layer
Q.no 33. Which of the following best defines DNP3?
A : It is a communication protocol used primarily in SCADA systems
B : It is a library of objects that are used to provide various
functionalities in SCADA systems.
C : It is a collection of standards and rules for how to write a paper
D : It is responsible for creating and managing the logical link
between the sender and receiver of data sent over the network.
Q.no 34. Which of the following is not a basic element of
data acquisition systems
A : Sensors and transducers.
B : Data acquisition hardware
C : Signal conditioning
D : Motors
Q.no 35. The symbol -(L)- represent what instruction in the
PLC language?
A : OUT output unlatch instruction
B : OTL output latch instruction.
C : Examine off instruction.
D : Output energize instruction.
Q.no 36. ….. Gather information from field devices
A : RTU
B : MTU
C : WAN
D : Communication Interface
Q.no 37. Which protocol has following layers: Network
access, Internet, Host-to-host, Application
A : DNP3
B : MODBUS
C : TCP/IP
D : OSI
Q.no 38. …..is the benefits of SCADA
A : Small in size
B : Modularity
C : Easy Programming
D : Improved facility effectiveness
Q.no 39. Current generation of SCADA is
A : Monolithic
B : Distributed
C : Networked
D : none of the above
Q.no 40. HMI is….
A : software
B : hardware
C : standard
D : modulator
Q.no 41. A central host computer servers are called as
A : Remote Terminal Unit
B : Master Terminal Unit
C : Microcontroller
D : Digital Control System
Q.no 42. OSI model consist of ….layers.
A:1
B:5
C:6
D:7
Q.no 43. Following corresponding OSI layers are not being
used in FFB
A : network
B : transport
C : session
D : All of the above
Q.no 44. A Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) in a telemetry
system is used for
A : Providing power to the remote sensors
B : Converting the output of the sensor to digital data and transmit to
the base station
C : Managing the health condition of the sensors
D : Remote control the base station
Q.no 45. Automatic Geberation Control (AGC) performs
following functions
A : Maintain system frequency at the normal value 50 Hz
B : maintain correct value of interchange power
C : Utilize economic dispatch (ED) program data
D : All of the above
Q.no 46. The address T4:6.ACC is used to address what?
A : Accumulator for timer 4 in file 6.
B : Preset value of timer 6 in file 4.
C : Accumulator for timer 6 in file 4
D : Accumulator for counter 6 in file 4
Q.no 47. ………….refers to the way a network is laid out,
either physically or logically
A : Line configuration
B : Topology
C : Transmission mode
D : Modulation mode
Q.no 48. IEC61850 is the global standard defined for …
A : Presentation of system
B : Supervisiory control
C : Communication Network & system in substation
D : Appliication
Q.no 49. Which of the given statements is correct?
A : Ladder logic is a PLC graphical programming technique
introduced in the last 10 years.
B : A ladder logic program is hard to analyze because it is totally
different when compared with the equivalent relay logic solution.
C : The number of ladder logic virtual relays and input and output
instructions is limited only by memory size.
D : The number of contacts for a mechanical relay is limited to
number of coils on the relay.
Q.no 50. When ___________ contacts are actuated, they disrupt
the power supply through them.
A : normally open type
B : normally closed type
C : both 1 and 2
D : Shut Down
Q.no 51. When a relay is NOT energized
A : There is an electrical path through the NO contacts
B : There is an electrical path through the NC contacts
C : Neither the NO or the NC contacts have an electrical path
D : Both the NO and the NC contacts have an electrical path
Q.no 52. Flexible Function Block(FFB) uses which of
following approach for communication
A : Many to One
B : One to one
C : Master Slave(One to many)
D : Many to Many
Q.no 53. Which of the following is not the component of a
SCADA system?
A : Database server
B : I/O system
C : PLC controller
D : Sparger controller
Q.no 54. In EtherNet/IP protocol, which layer has CIP
message routing and managing connections?
A : network
B : presenatation
C : session
D : transport
Q.no 55. Protocol used for presentation layer in OSI model
A : SMTP
B : SNMP
C : HTTP
D : UDP
Q.no 56. FFB physical layer follows
A : IEC Standard 61158-2
B : ISA Standard S50.02-1992
C : Both of these
D : None of the above
Q.no 57. In PLC programming, a retentive function is one
that
A : Is not reset after a power cycle
B : Defaults to the “on” state
C : Comes last in the program
D : Defaults to the “off” state
Q.no 58. The control in SCADA is
A :  Online control
B : Direct control
C : Supervisory control
D : Automatic control
Q.no 59. Which of the following protocol is based on CAN
protocol?
A : DNP3 protocol
B : DeviceNet protocol
C : Control and Information Protocol
D : Control Net Protocol
Q.no 60. Two types of transmission modes used for standard
MODBUS are
A : ASCII mode, RTU mode
B : EIA-422B
C : ARP
D : TCP
Q.no 1. What is role of SCADA in power system operation?
A : Monitor and operate
B : co-ordinate, schedule
C : Maintain station records, logs
D : All of the above
Q.no 2. RTU has ability to receive and send message to field
devices in serial format usually is ….standard
A : RS-232
B : RS- 485
C : DH-485
D : GH-485+
Q.no 3. SCADA Technology was first applied for
A : Telephones
B : weather predictions
C : railways
D : industries
Q.no 4. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI model.
A : prior to
B : after
C : simultaneous to
D :  with no link to
Q.no 5. In OSI model 4th layer is
A : Application
B : Session
C : Transport
D : Presentation
Q.no 6. A SCADA system performs Data acquisition,
Networked data communication, _________ and Control.
A : Analog to Digital Conversion
B : 4-20mA to HART
C : Data representation
D : All the Answers
Q.no 7. Which of the following is not element of SCADA
A : Communication
B : Master Terminal Units
C : Micro Terminal Units (MTU)
D : RTUs/PLCs
Q.no 8. How is the speed of operation of conventional relay
system as compared to digital controllers?
A : very slow
B : very fast
C : Same
D : almost similar
Q.no 9. SCADA architecture is called
A : master/slave
B : client/data server
C : Both of these
D : none of the above
Q.no 10. HTTP (hypertext transfer protocol) is part of ---layer
in OSI model.
A : Application
B : Network
C : Physical
D : Presentation
Q.no 11. How many levels are present in a complex SCADA
system?
A : 1-level
B : 3-level
C : 4-level
D : 5-level
Q.no 12. …..is the HOST computer
A : MTU
B : RTU
C : MODEM
D : DCE
Q.no 13. MTU stands for..
A : Master Terminal Unit
B : Master Train Unit
C : Massive Train Unit
D : Master Trend Unit
Q.no 14. Which layer provides the services to user?
A :  session layer
B : transport layer
C : application layer
D : network layer
Q.no 15. TCP/IP protocol consist of how many layers?
A:2
B:4
C:6
D:8
Q.no 16. Distributed SCADA system is of the following
generations
A : First generation
B : Second generation
C : Third generation
D : Fourth generation
Q.no 17. Who developed the MODBUS
A : Modicon
B : Edison
C : Newton
D : Einstine
Q.no 18. Which of the following is the type of firewall?
A : Packet Filtering Firewall
B : Dual Homed Gateway Firewall
C : Screen Host Firewall
D : Dual Host Firewall
Q.no 19. A _________ consists of number of minicomputers or
microcomputers inter connected in a tree structure.
A : Hierarchical system
B : Shared bus systems
C : Ring system
D : All the answers
Q.no 20. Which of the given are the PLC Programming tools?
A : MATLAB
B : RS View 32
C : RS Logix 500
D : Keli U Vision
Q.no 21.  DCS is a __________________
A : Distributed Control System
B : Data Control System
C : Data Column System
D : Distributed Column System
Q.no 22. In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time
in which
A : the technician enters the program
B : timers and counters are indexed by
C : one “rung” of ladder logic takes to complete
D : the entire program takes to execute
Q.no 23. SCADA desirable properties are
A : Security
B : Adequacy
C : Both of these
D : none of the above
Q.no 24. At which layer of the OSI model does the MODBUS
messaging protocol reside?
A : Layer 5
B : Layer 6
C : Layer 4
D : Layer 7
Q.no 25. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is
A:4
B:5
C:6
D:7
Q.no 26. An example of discrete (digital) control is
A : Varying the volume of a music system
B : Turning a lamp ON or OFF
C : Varying the brightness of a lamp
D : Controlling the speed of a fan
Q.no 27. A collection of standard and/or custom software
systems used to provide the SCADA central host and
operator terminal application, support the communications
system, and monitor and control remotely located field data
interface devices called as ______
A : HART Protocol
B : Human Machine Interface (HMI)
C : Network Gateway
D : Input Output Modules
Q.no 28. DeviceNet is based on the which protocols?
A : CAN
B : Common Industrial Protocol (CIP)
C : DeviceNet
D : ControlNet
Q.no 29. In __________the connected processors communicated
over a common channel using time-sharing, thus allowing
attached computers to transmit information in
short-duration, high speed bursts.
A : Ring system
B : Hierarchical system
C : Shared bus systems
D : All the answers
Q.no 30. Why is Modbus becoming more important as time
goes on manufacturers?
A : It is standard that is used by manufacturer
B :   It is faster
C :    It is cheaper
D :   It is slower
Q.no 31. Human machine interface (HMI) performs following
functions
A : Monitoring the data
B : control
C : alarm geneartions
D : All of the above
Q.no 32. When did the SCADA start?
A : 1980
B : 1965
C : 1960
D : 1970
Q.no 33. The ----------- instruction is used to turn an output
ON or OFF after its time has been on for a present time
interval
A : retentive time
B : timer on delay
C : timer off delay
D : None
Q.no 34. To protect PLC from any incomming surges from the
field, an isolated device such as ------ is used
A : Transformer
B : Transducer
C : ADC
D : DAC
Q.no 35. Which of the following is output device for Human
machine Interface(HMI)
A : touch screens
B : joysticks
C : Toggle switches
D : Status Lights
Q.no 36. How many levels are present in a complex SCADA
system?
A : 3 – levels
B : 4 – levels
C : 5 – levels
D : 6 – levels
Q.no 37. Combine communications paths to and from many
RTUs into a single bit stream, usually using time division
multiplexing (TDM) or other such bit stream manipulation
techniques.
A : Human Machine Interface (HMI)
B : Multiplexers
C : Barrier
D : PLC
Q.no 38. Degree to which an activity can be performed
within a predictable timeframe is called as
A : Deterministic
B : Security
C : Adequacy
D : none of the above
Q.no 39. Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to
A : Analog Output
B : Digital Output
C : Analog Input
D : Digital Input
Q.no 40. An OR function implemented in ladder logic uses
A : Normally-closed contacts in series
B : Normally-open contacts in series
C : Normally-open contacts in parallel
D : Normally-closed contacts in parallel
Q.no 41. IEC61850 Standards is applicable to
A : Chemical Plant
B : Electrical Utilities
C : Water purification plant
D : Transportation
Q.no 42. Network layer uses which protocol
A : IP
B : PPP
C : SNMP
D : FTP
Q.no 43. Sensors and control relays can’t generate or
interpret protocol communication, _______ is needed to
provide an interface between the sensors and the SCADA
network.
A : Remote Terminal Units (RTUs)
B : Field Instruments
C : HMI
D : All the Answers
Q.no 44. In Device Net architecture , second layer is
A : Device Net protocol
B : CAN Protocol
C : Physical layer
D : Transmission media
Q.no 45. PLC’s Analog input /Output has
A : 1 Bit address
B : 1 byte address
C : 1 word address
D : 1 double word address
Q.no 46. Which of the following is the heart of a SCADA
system?
A : PLC
B : HMI
C : Alarm task
D : I/O task
Q.no 47. Which of the following is the heart of a SCADA
system?
A : PLC
B : Aalrm
C : HMI
D : I/O Task
Q.no 48. What is SCADA
A : Software
B : Process
C : System
D : Hardware
Q.no 49. Which protocol has following layers: Network
access, Internet, Host-to-host, Application
A : DNP3
B : MODBUS
C : TCP/IP
D : OSI
Q.no 50. FBB stands for
A : Field Function Block
B : Flexible Field Block
C : Flexible Function Block
D : Fully Field Block
Q.no 51. When a relay is NOT energized
A : There is an electrical path through the NO contacts
B : There is an electrical path through the NC contacts
C : Neither the NO or the NC contacts have an electrical path
D : Both the NO and the NC contacts have an electrical path
Q.no 52. IEC61850 is part of a Common Information Model
(CIM) developed by IEC Technical Committee 57 that also
includes the following standards:
A : IEC61970
B : IEC61968
C : IEC60870
D : All of the above
Q.no 53. Devices in a Ring or Mesh topology are usually
configured in…………………relationship
A : Peer to peer
B : Primary to secondary
C : Master -slave
D : multiplexed
Q.no 54. Which of the following is an example of the SCADA
system?
A : Honeywell PlantScape
B : Emerson Delta V
C : Yokogawa CENTUM
D : PowerStudio Deluxe
Q.no 55. Flexible Function Block(FFB) uses which of
following approach for communication
A : Many to One
B : One to one
C : Master Slave(One to many)
D : Many to Many
Q.no 56. What is the largest integer number that a PLC
counter function can reach if it uses a 16 bit register?
A : 32768
B : 65537
C : 65535
D : 32767
Q.no 57. Internet or WAN protocols are used in
A : Monolithic SCADA systems
B : Distributed SCADA systems
C : Networked SCADA systems
D : Four generation SCADA systems
Q.no 58. Which of the following is not the component of a
SCADA system?
A : Database server
B : I/O system
C : PLC controller
D : Sparger controller
Q.no 59. FFB physical layer follows
A : IEC Standard 61158-2
B : ISA Standard S50.02-1992
C : Both of these
D : None of the above
Q.no 60. Two types of transmission modes used for standard
MODBUS are
A : ASCII mode, RTU mode
B : EIA-422B
C : ARP
D : TCP
Q.no 1. SCADA features are
A : Alarm handling
B : Data logging
C : Trending
D : All of the above
Q.no 2. The state where the equality and inequality
constraints are violated while the system is breaking into
pieces, resulting in the formation of islands.
A : Restorative
B : emergency
C : In extremis
D : alert
Q.no 3. ______of PLCs can be done in very little time.
A : Programming
B : Maintenance
C : Trouble shooting
D : Modification of I/O
Q.no 4. A SCADA system performs Data acquisition,
Networked data communication, _________ and Control.
A : Analog to Digital Conversion
B : 4-20mA to HART
C : Data representation
D : All the Answers
Q.no 5. A SCADA system performs Data Acquisition,
Networked data Communication ,………….. and control
A : Data representation
B : DCS
C : Data manipulation
D : Data deletion
Q.no 6. Which of the following is used to link various
industrial I/O devices?
A : Devicenet
B : TCP/IP
C : FBB
D : MODBUS
Q.no 7. _______ may employ one or more workstations and
can be configured at the workstation or by an off-line
personal computer.
A : RTU
B : Router
C : DCS
D : Gate Way
Q.no 8. The difference between online and offline PLC
programming is
A : whether the PLC is running or stopped
B : whether the programming PC has internet connectivity
C : where the edited program resides
D : the type of programmer used
Q.no 9. The highest-level layer in the OSI model. It performs
network flow control and support functions.
A : Application
B : Network
C : Physical
D : Presentation
Q.no 10. RTU has ability to receive and send message to
field devices in serial format usually is ….standard
A : RS-232
B : RS- 485
C : DH-485
D : GH-485+
Q.no 11. Which of the following is not element of SCADA
A : Communication
B : Master Terminal Units
C : Micro Terminal Units (MTU)
D : RTUs/PLCs
Q.no 12. In OSI model 4th layer is
A : Application
B : Session
C : Transport
D : Presentation
Q.no 13. SCADA Technology was first applied for
A : Telephones
B : weather predictions
C : railways
D : industries
Q.no 14. What is SCADA?
A : Hardware
B : Software
C : Process
D : System
Q.no 15. Ethernet/IP protocol is used in following network
A : LAN
B : WAN
C : MAN
D : CAN
Q.no 16. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI model.
A : prior to
B : after
C : simultaneous to
D :  with no link to
Q.no 17. What is role of SCADA in power system operation?
A : Monitor and operate
B : co-ordinate, schedule
C : Maintain station records, logs
D : All of the above
Q.no 18. Protocol used for application layer in OSI model
A : FTP
B : RPC
C : UDP
D : PPP
Q.no 19. Ladder logic programming consists primarily of
A : Virtual relay contacts and coils
B : Logic gate symbols with connecting lines
C : Function blocks with connecting lines
D : Text-based code
Q.no 20. SCADA systems encompass the transfer of data
between a central host computer and a number of
______________and/or Programmable Logic Controllers (PLCs),
and the central host and the operator terminals.
A : Microcontrollers
B : Remote Terminal Units (RTUs)
C : Input Output Modules
D : Motor Control Center
Q.no 21. HTTP (hypertext transfer protocol) is part of ---layer
in OSI model.
A : Application
B : Network
C : Physical
D : Presentation
Q.no 22. …..is the HOST computer
A : MTU
B : RTU
C : MODEM
D : DCE
Q.no 23. A _________ consists of number of minicomputers or
microcomputers inter connected in a tree structure.
A : Hierarchical system
B : Shared bus systems
C : Ring system
D : All the answers
Q.no 24. MTU stands for..
A : Master Terminal Unit
B : Master Train Unit
C : Massive Train Unit
D : Master Trend Unit
Q.no 25. Which layer provides the services to user?
A :  session layer
B : transport layer
C : application layer
D : network layer
Q.no 26. The address T4:6.ACC is used to address what?
A : Accumulator for timer 4 in file 6.
B : Preset value of timer 6 in file 4.
C : Accumulator for timer 6 in file 4
D : Accumulator for counter 6 in file 4
Q.no 27. Which is not the function of generation station
control?
A : Co-ordination with load dispatch centers
B : state estimation
C : system planning
D : load frequency control
Q.no 28. The symbol -(L)- represent what instruction in the
PLC language?
A : OUT output unlatch instruction
B : OTL output latch instruction.
C : Examine off instruction.
D : Output energize instruction.
Q.no 29. DNP3 header comprises
A : Source device address
B : Destination device address
C : Frame size, data link control information
D : All of the above
Q.no 30. An example of discrete (digital) control is
A : Varying the volume of a music system
B : Turning a lamp ON or OFF
C : Varying the brightness of a lamp
D : Controlling the speed of a fan
Q.no 31. When ___________ contacts are actuated, they disrupt
the power supply through them.
A : normally open type
B : normally closed type
C : both 1 and 2
D : Shut Down
Q.no 32. A good application for a timed interrupt in a PLC
program would be
A : A communications function block
B : A PID function block
C : A math function block
D : A motor start/stop rung
Q.no 33. Control and Information Protocol (CIP) is not used
in which of following layer of OSI?
A : Control and Information Protocol (CIP) is not used in which of
following layer of OSI?
B : Transport layer
C : Application layer
D : Presentation layer
Q.no 34. IEC61850 is the global standard defined for …
A : Presentation of system
B : Supervisiory control
C : Communication Network & system in substation
D : Appliication
Q.no 35. Protocol is a set of ……………………. that entities use
to communicate information.
A : Formats
B : Procedure
C : Formats and procedure
D : Bandwidth
Q.no 36. …..is the benefits of SCADA
A : Small in size
B : Modularity
C : Easy Programming
D : Improved facility effectiveness
Q.no 37. OSI model consist of ….layers.
A:1
B:5
C:6
D:7
Q.no 38. Which is an open family of protocols that is
implemented in the application, presentation, and session
layers of the OSI model.
A : CAN
B : Common Industrial Protocol (CIP)
C : DeviceNet
D : ControlNet
Q.no 39. A central host computer servers are called as
A : Remote Terminal Unit
B : Master Terminal Unit
C : Microcontroller
D : Digital Control System
Q.no 40. Which of the given statements is correct?
A : Ladder logic is a PLC graphical programming technique
introduced in the last 10 years.
B : A ladder logic program is hard to analyze because it is totally
different when compared with the equivalent relay logic solution.
C : The number of ladder logic virtual relays and input and output
instructions is limited only by memory size.
D : The number of contacts for a mechanical relay is limited to
number of coils on the relay.
Q.no 41. Which of the following is not a basic element of
data acquisition systems
A : Sensors and transducers.
B : Data acquisition hardware
C : Signal conditioning
D : Motors
Q.no 42. DeviceNet is based on the which protocols?
A : CAN
B : Common Industrial Protocol (CIP)
C : DeviceNet
D : ControlNet
Q.no 43. A central host computer server or servers called
________
A : Switch
B : Master Terminal Units (MTUs)
C : Junction Box
D : Microcontroller
Q.no 44. Following corresponding OSI layers are not being
used in FFB
A : network
B : transport
C : session
D : All of the above
Q.no 45. HMI is….
A : software
B : hardware
C : standard
D : modulator
Q.no 46. Current generation of SCADA is
A : Monolithic
B : Distributed
C : Networked
D : none of the above
Q.no 47. Which of the following best defines DNP3?
A : It is a communication protocol used primarily in SCADA systems
B : It is a library of objects that are used to provide various
functionalities in SCADA systems.
C : It is a collection of standards and rules for how to write a paper
D : It is responsible for creating and managing the logical link
between the sender and receiver of data sent over the network.
Q.no 48. ………….refers to the way a network is laid out,
either physically or logically
A : Line configuration
B : Topology
C : Transmission mode
D : Modulation mode
Q.no 49. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI
model have this layer.
A :  session layer
B : transport layer
C : application layer
D : network layer
Q.no 50. A collection of standard and/or custom software
systems used to provide the SCADA central host and
operator terminal application, support the communications
system, and monitor and control remotely located field data
interface devices called as ______
A : HART Protocol
B : Human Machine Interface (HMI)
C : Network Gateway
D : Input Output Modules
Q.no 51. In PLC programming, a retentive function is one
that
A : Is not reset after a power cycle
B : Defaults to the “on” state
C : Comes last in the program
D : Defaults to the “off” state
Q.no 52. In EtherNet/IP protocol, which layer has CIP
message routing and managing connections?
A : network
B : presenatation
C : session
D : transport
Q.no 53. The control in SCADA is
A :  Online control
B : Direct control
C : Supervisory control
D : Automatic control
Q.no 54. Which of the following protocol is based on CAN
protocol?
A : DNP3 protocol
B : DeviceNet protocol
C : Control and Information Protocol
D : Control Net Protocol
Q.no 55. Protocol used for presentation layer in OSI model
A : SMTP
B : SNMP
C : HTTP
D : UDP
Q.no 56. IEC61850 is part of a Common Information Model
(CIM) developed by IEC Technical Committee 57 that also
includes the following standards:
A : IEC61970
B : IEC61968
C : IEC60870
D : All of the above
Q.no 57. Flexible Function Block(FFB) uses which of
following approach for communication
A : Many to One
B : One to one
C : Master Slave(One to many)
D : Many to Many
Q.no 58. Devices in a Ring or Mesh topology are usually
configured in…………………relationship
A : Peer to peer
B : Primary to secondary
C : Master -slave
D : multiplexed
Q.no 59. Two types of transmission modes used for standard
MODBUS are
A : ASCII mode, RTU mode
B : EIA-422B
C : ARP
D : TCP
Q.no 60. What is the largest integer number that a PLC
counter function can reach if it uses a 16 bit register?
A : 32768
B : 65537
C : 65535
D : 32767
Q.no 1. SCADA features are
A : Alarm handling
B : Data logging
C : Trending
D : All of the above
Q.no 2. A SCADA system performs Data acquisition,
Networked data communication, _________ and Control.
A : Analog to Digital Conversion
B : 4-20mA to HART
C : Data representation
D : All the Answers
Q.no 3. How many levels are present in a complex SCADA
system?
A : 1-level
B : 3-level
C : 4-level
D : 5-level
Q.no 4. Who developed the MODBUS
A : Modicon
B : Edison
C : Newton
D : Einstine
Q.no 5. A SCADA system performs Data Acquisition,
Networked data Communication ,………….. and control
A : Data representation
B : DCS
C : Data manipulation
D : Data deletion
Q.no 6. Which of the following is used to link various
industrial I/O devices?
A : Devicenet
B : TCP/IP
C : FBB
D : MODBUS
Q.no 7. In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time
in which
A : the technician enters the program
B : timers and counters are indexed by
C : one “rung” of ladder logic takes to complete
D : the entire program takes to execute
Q.no 8. At which layer of the OSI model does the MODBUS
messaging protocol reside?
A : Layer 5
B : Layer 6
C : Layer 4
D : Layer 7
Q.no 9. Distributed SCADA system is of the following
generations
A : First generation
B : Second generation
C : Third generation
D : Fourth generation
Q.no 10. The state where the equality and inequality
constraints are violated while the system is breaking into
pieces, resulting in the formation of islands.
A : Restorative
B : emergency
C : In extremis
D : alert
Q.no 11. How is the speed of operation of conventional relay
system as compared to digital controllers?
A : very slow
B : very fast
C : Same
D : almost similar
Q.no 12. TCP/IP protocol consist of how many layers?
A:2
B:4
C:6
D:8
Q.no 13. SCADA architecture is called
A : master/slave
B : client/data server
C : Both of these
D : none of the above
Q.no 14. ______of PLCs can be done in very little time.
A : Programming
B : Maintenance
C : Trouble shooting
D : Modification of I/O
Q.no 15. SCADA desirable properties are
A : Security
B : Adequacy
C : Both of these
D : none of the above
Q.no 16. Which of the following is the type of firewall?
A : Packet Filtering Firewall
B : Dual Homed Gateway Firewall
C : Screen Host Firewall
D : Dual Host Firewall
Q.no 17. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is
A:4
B:5
C:6
D:7
Q.no 18.  DCS is a __________________
A : Distributed Control System
B : Data Control System
C : Data Column System
D : Distributed Column System
Q.no 19. Which of the given are the PLC Programming tools?
A : MATLAB
B : RS View 32
C : RS Logix 500
D : Keli U Vision
Q.no 20. Which of the following is not element of SCADA
A : Communication
B : Master Terminal Units
C : Micro Terminal Units (MTU)
D : RTUs/PLCs
Q.no 21. RTU has ability to receive and send message to
field devices in serial format usually is ….standard
A : RS-232
B : RS- 485
C : DH-485
D : GH-485+
Q.no 22. HTTP (hypertext transfer protocol) is part of ---layer
in OSI model.
A : Application
B : Network
C : Physical
D : Presentation
Q.no 23. SCADA Technology was first applied for
A : Telephones
B : weather predictions
C : railways
D : industries
Q.no 24. The highest-level layer in the OSI model. It
performs network flow control and support functions.
A : Application
B : Network
C : Physical
D : Presentation
Q.no 25. SCADA systems encompass the transfer of data
between a central host computer and a number of
______________and/or Programmable Logic Controllers (PLCs),
and the central host and the operator terminals.
A : Microcontrollers
B : Remote Terminal Units (RTUs)
C : Input Output Modules
D : Motor Control Center
Q.no 26. An OR function implemented in ladder logic uses
A : Normally-closed contacts in series
B : Normally-open contacts in series
C : Normally-open contacts in parallel
D : Normally-closed contacts in parallel
Q.no 27. To protect PLC from any incomming surges from the
field, an isolated device such as ------ is used
A : Transformer
B : Transducer
C : ADC
D : DAC
Q.no 28. ….. Gather information from field devices
A : RTU
B : MTU
C : WAN
D : Communication Interface
Q.no 29. A Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) in a telemetry
system is used for
A : Providing power to the remote sensors
B : Converting the output of the sensor to digital data and transmit to
the base station
C : Managing the health condition of the sensors
D : Remote control the base station
Q.no 30. In Device Net architecture , second layer is
A : Device Net protocol
B : CAN Protocol
C : Physical layer
D : Transmission media
Q.no 31. Why is Modbus becoming more important as time
goes on manufacturers?
A : It is standard that is used by manufacturer
B :   It is faster
C :    It is cheaper
D :   It is slower
Q.no 32. Automatic Geberation Control (AGC) performs
following functions
A : Maintain system frequency at the normal value 50 Hz
B : maintain correct value of interchange power
C : Utilize economic dispatch (ED) program data
D : All of the above
Q.no 33. Which of the following is the heart of a SCADA
system?
A : PLC
B : HMI
C : Alarm task
D : I/O task
Q.no 34. When did the SCADA start?
A : 1980
B : 1965
C : 1960
D : 1970
Q.no 35. Human machine interface (HMI) performs following
functions
A : Monitoring the data
B : control
C : alarm geneartions
D : All of the above
Q.no 36. Combine communications paths to and from many
RTUs into a single bit stream, usually using time division
multiplexing (TDM) or other such bit stream manipulation
techniques.
A : Human Machine Interface (HMI)
B : Multiplexers
C : Barrier
D : PLC
Q.no 37. What is SCADA
A : Software
B : Process
C : System
D : Hardware
Q.no 38. The ----------- instruction is used to turn an output
ON or OFF after its time has been on for a present time
interval
A : retentive time
B : timer on delay
C : timer off delay
D : None
Q.no 39. Degree to which an activity can be performed
within a predictable timeframe is called as
A : Deterministic
B : Security
C : Adequacy
D : none of the above
Q.no 40. Sensors and control relays can’t generate or
interpret protocol communication, _______ is needed to
provide an interface between the sensors and the SCADA
network.
A : Remote Terminal Units (RTUs)
B : Field Instruments
C : HMI
D : All the Answers
Q.no 41. Which protocol has following layers: Network
access, Internet, Host-to-host, Application
A : DNP3
B : MODBUS
C : TCP/IP
D : OSI
Q.no 42. How many levels are present in a complex SCADA
system?
A : 3 – levels
B : 4 – levels
C : 5 – levels
D : 6 – levels
Q.no 43. Which of the following is the heart of a SCADA
system?
A : PLC
B : Aalrm
C : HMI
D : I/O Task
Q.no 44. Which of the following is output device for Human
machine Interface(HMI)
A : touch screens
B : joysticks
C : Toggle switches
D : Status Lights
Q.no 45. FBB stands for
A : Field Function Block
B : Flexible Field Block
C : Flexible Function Block
D : Fully Field Block
Q.no 46. Network layer uses which protocol
A : IP
B : PPP
C : SNMP
D : FTP
Q.no 47. IEC61850 is the global standard defined for …
A : Presentation of system
B : Supervisiory control
C : Communication Network & system in substation
D : Appliication
Q.no 48. In __________the connected processors communicated
over a common channel using time-sharing, thus allowing
attached computers to transmit information in
short-duration, high speed bursts.
A : Ring system
B : Hierarchical system
C : Shared bus systems
D : All the answers
Q.no 49. When ___________ contacts are actuated, they disrupt
the power supply through them.
A : normally open type
B : normally closed type
C : both 1 and 2
D : Shut Down
Q.no 50. Which of the following is not a basic element of
data acquisition systems
A : Sensors and transducers.
B : Data acquisition hardware
C : Signal conditioning
D : Motors
Q.no 51. In EtherNet/IP protocol, which layer has CIP
message routing and managing connections?
A : network
B : presenatation
C : session
D : transport
Q.no 52. When a relay is NOT energized
A : There is an electrical path through the NO contacts
B : There is an electrical path through the NC contacts
C : Neither the NO or the NC contacts have an electrical path
D : Both the NO and the NC contacts have an electrical path
Q.no 53. The control in SCADA is
A :  Online control
B : Direct control
C : Supervisory control
D : Automatic control
Q.no 54. Which of the following protocol is based on CAN
protocol?
A : DNP3 protocol
B : DeviceNet protocol
C : Control and Information Protocol
D : Control Net Protocol
Q.no 55. Which of the following is an example of the SCADA
system?
A : Honeywell PlantScape
B : Emerson Delta V
C : Yokogawa CENTUM
D : PowerStudio Deluxe
Q.no 56. In PLC programming, a retentive function is one
that
A : Is not reset after a power cycle
B : Defaults to the “on” state
C : Comes last in the program
D : Defaults to the “off” state
Q.no 57. Which of the following is not the component of a
SCADA system?
A : Database server
B : I/O system
C : PLC controller
D : Sparger controller
Q.no 58. FFB physical layer follows
A : IEC Standard 61158-2
B : ISA Standard S50.02-1992
C : Both of these
D : None of the above
Q.no 59. Internet or WAN protocols are used in
A : Monolithic SCADA systems
B : Distributed SCADA systems
C : Networked SCADA systems
D : Four generation SCADA systems
Q.no 60. Protocol used for presentation layer in OSI model
A : SMTP
B : SNMP
C : HTTP
D : UDP
 PLC & SCADA

Q1. When contacts are actuated, they disrupt the power supply through them
a) Normally open type b) Normally closed type c) Both a. and b

d) None of the above

Q2. The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data which are immediately required
for use is called as
a) HDD b) ROM c) RAM d) SSD

Q3. How is the speed of operation of conventional relay system as compared to digital controllers?
a) Very slow b) Very fast

c) Same
d) Almost similar

Q4. The capability of convention relay systems for complex

operations is that of the PLCs
a) Poor than
b) Excellent than
c) As good as

d) Unpredictable as

Q5. How is the noise immunity of PLCs to electrical noises as

compared to that of conventional relay controllers?
a) Poor

b) Excellent
c) As good as noise immunity of conventional relay controllers
d) Unpredictable

Q6. of PLCs can be done in very little

time
a) Programming

b) Installation
c) Commissioning
d) All of the above

Q7. PLC can be in plant to change the sequence

of operation
a) Only programmed

b) Only reprogrammed
c) Programmed and reprogrammed
d) Able to give a set point

Q8. The PLC is used in

a) Machine tool

b) Automated assembly equipment

c) Moulding and extrusion machines
d) All of the above

Q9. Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the

PLC?
a) Manual switches
b) Relays

c) Sensors

d) None of the above

Q10. Which unit of PIC undergo the process of converting mains ac

voltage to low dc voltage required for the circuits and the input-
output interfacing modules ?
a) Memory Unit
b) Processing Unit
c) Input/Output Unit

d) Power Supply Unit

Q11. Which bus forms an intermediate communication path

between input/output ports and input/output units?
a) Control Bus
b) Data Bus

c) Address Bus

d) System Bus

Q12. Which kind of switches examine or detect the presence of an

item or object without making contact with them?
a) Proximity Switches
b) Reed Switches

c) Photo-electric Switches
d) Mechanical Switches

Q13. Which machine tools are basically handled and controlled by

Computer Numerical Control (CNC) machine especially at the
manufacturing sector?
a) Lathes
b) Routers

c) Mills and Grinders

d) All of the above

Q14. What are the possible forms of energy transmission that can
be undertaken by a transducer ?
a) Acoustical

b) Electrical

c) Mechanical
d) All of the above

Q15. Compared to humans, machines:

a) Can make more complex decisions based on unexpected
circumstances
b) Can work in harsher environments
c) Make fewer errors

d) (a) and (c)

Q16. Which device does the general population associate most with
automation?
a) Flexible manufacturing

b) Robots

c) Numerical control machine

d) Computer graphics workstation

Q17. Using a microcomputer as a controller allows:

a) Faster cycle me
b) Simpler mechanical hardware
c) More self diagnostics of the machine operation

d) All of the above

Q18. If the transient response is under damped:

a) Steady-state will be reached faster than if the system is
overdamped
b) The value of the output will exceed the value of the input at
times during the transient period
c) The present overshoot is zero
d) Both a and b

Q19. What should be first considered in choosing a plotter?

a) The hardware you currently own

b) The application for which it will be used

c) The type of data you will input

d) The cost

Q20. The coordinate system used to describe a workpiece:

a) Is always two-dimensional
b) Changes from part to part

c) Is defined with respect to a point on the machine

d) All of the above
Q1. Automation normally means:
a) A net loss of jobs
b) A net increase in jobs c) No change in jobs

d) All of the above

Q2. Trend analysis:

a) Is used only in financial planning
b) Can improve control system response
c) Requires a very expensive system to implement d) Is a brand new concept

Q3. The use of specialized workstations:

a) Provides limited growth potentials for 3-D
b) Reduces the host computer workload and allows more users c) Reduces the host computer workload

d) Has a high cost-performance tradeoff

Q4. What key hardware item ties a CAD/ CAM system together?
a) Mouse
b) Graphics workstation c) Digitizer

d) Plotter

Q5. Which of these controller types is the most accurate?

a) Proportional plus integral b) Proportional

c) Proportional plus derivative d) Three mode

Q6. Flat panel displays are based on what type of technology?

a) Direct view storage tube
b) Very large-scale integration (VLSI)
c) Solid state
d) RGB monitor

Q7. Which of the following is a graphical input device?

a) Light pen
b)
Keyboard c)
Mouse
d) Track
ball

Q8. Today, programmable

controllers:
a) Are more powerful then the first controllers on the
market
b) Are relatively low cost compared with the original digital
equipment available for industrial control
c) Can be cost effective even when replacing just a few

relays d) All of the above

Q9. Productivity is defined

as:
a) Number of items manufactured per
day
b) Output per man-hour of labour

c) Cost per day

d) Cost per

unit

Q10. The main function(s) of computer in CAD

is/are
a) To serve as an extension to the memory of the
designer
b) To enhance the analytical and logical power of the
designer c) To relieve the designer from routine repetitious
tasks

d) All of the
above

Q11. The first industrial robot for commercial uses was installed in a
Japanese plant at Toyota Automatic Loom Company, the parent
company of the Toyota Automobile Group. When did this robot go into
operation?
a) June
1965
b)November 1966

c) December 1967

d) April 1970
Q12. What is the difference between integral and derivative
control?
a) Derivative control does not eliminate offset
error
b) Derivative control responds to a change in the rate of change in the
error signal
c) Integral control has slower response to an error

signal d) All of the above

Q13.The program
counter:
a) Decides which program to
run
b) Counts the number of instructions that have been

executed c) Contains the address of the next instruction to

be executed d) Is where arithmetic is done in a computer

Q14.Digital signals:
a) Can have three possible
levels
b) Are assigned values of 1 or 0 depending on the voltage
level c) Have a sinusoidal shape

d) Have a frequency measured in units of

hertz

Q15. There are several procedures you can implement to provide

maximum security.
a) Run regular simulated tests using TARP (testing of Applications
Recovery
Planes)
b) Verify the reputation of the people installing your
system
c) Do not allow unbonded service people to work on your

equipment d) None of these

Q16.Semiconductor
devices:
a) Are less reliable than electro¬mechanical
components
b) Usually have a very short MTBF (mean me between
failure)
c) Have a very short infant mortality

period d) All of the above

Q17. A drum timer is a good example

of:
a) An output
actuator b) An input
sensor

c) A position
sensor
d) A sequence
controller

Q18. The formula for memory capacity

is:
a) MC = N/2
b) MC =2/N

c) MC = N
squared
d) MC -2 to the Nth
power

Q19. How is the integral mode implemented using analog

methods?
a) Op amp and
resistors
b) Op amp and a
capacitor
c) Op amp and an RC network to place the error voltage across the

capacitor d) All of the above

Q20. The general type of process found in industry

is:
a) Discrete
parts
b) Continuous

c) Batch
d) All of the
above

Q1. Which method is frequently used, especially in the early stages of design?
a) The iterative design method b) The direct method

c) The design selection method d) All of the above

Q2. In raster-scan colour monitors, colour can be intensified by:

a) Grouping the phosphor dots in a circular pattern
b) Having each electron gun controlled by a composite signal c) Using an in-line gun arrangement with

a solid metal mesh d) Having each electron gun controlled by separate signal

Q3. Timing using a TM990 micro¬computer:

a) Require an external timer added by the user b) Is available on the standard CPU board

c) Can be handled in software d) Both (b) and (c)

Q4. A discrete parts process is:

a) The same as a continuous process except a different controller must Be used
b) Open encountered in manufacturing
c) Normally a repetitive series of
operations d) (b) and (c)

Q5. Speech recognition:

a) Will never be used in industrial controls
b) Is already widely used in industrial controls
c) Will be used in more applications as the technology matures d) All of the above

Q6. Which device does the general population associate most with automation?
a) Flexible manufacturing b) Robots

c) Numerical control machine

d) Computer graphics workstation

Q7. Using a microcomputer as a controller allows:

a) Faster cycle me
b) Simpler mechanical hardware
c) More self diagnostics of the machine operation d) All of the above

Q8. If the transient response is under damped:

a) Steady-state will be reached faster than if the system is overdamped
b) The value of the output will exceed the value of the input at times during the
transient period
c) The present overshoot is zero d) Both a and b

Q9. What should be first considered in choosing a plotter?

a) The hardware you currently own
b) The application for which it will be used
c) The type of data you will
input d) The cost

Q10. The coordinate system used to describe a workpiece:

a) Is always two-

dimensional b) Changes

from part to part

c) Is defined with respect to a point on the

machine d) All of the above

Q11. A programmable controller:

a) Allows faster machine checkout
b) Is easier to troubleshoot than standard relay
logic c) Both (a) and (b)

d) All of the above

Q12. The SKETCHPAD system

a) Consisted of an cathode-ray oscilloscope driven by a Lincoln Tx2
computer where by graphical information was displayed on the screen
b) Is used for interactive Graphics
c) Is expensive because it is sophisticated and make demands on the
power and resources of the computer
d) All of the above

Q13. The name given to the test that determines whether a machine
can think is the:
a) Gaussian test

b) McCarthy

test c) Turing

test

d) Boolean test

Q14. Which of the following is a machine language instruction?

a) ADD 5
b) 10001101
c) GOTO XOUT
d) All of the above
Q15. The two major categories of software are: application software
and

a) System software

b) UNIX software
c) high-level
languages d) CAD
software

Q16. What was the name of the Japanese worker who was killed by an
industrial robot at the Akashi plant of Kawasaki Heavy Industries in
Japan?
a) M. Shubhagya

b) Harun

Shimada c) Kenji

Urada

d) K. Miceni

Q17. When of the following produces the best quality

graphics reproduction?
a) Dot metric

printers b) Ink jet

printers

c) Laser
printers d)
Plotters

Q18. The three key elements for a graphics workstation include the
host processor, display controller, and:
a) mouse
b)keyboard
c) CRT

d) digitizer

Q19. An operational amplifier:

a) Can be used to subtract two or more

signals b) Can be used to sum two or more

signals

c) Uses the principle of

feedback d) All of the above

Q20. The raster CRT eliminates:

a) Flicker and slow

update b) Slow update

only

c) Flicker only

d) Has no effect

Q1. Numerical control:

a) Is a method for controlling the operation of a machine by means of a set of instructions
b) Applies only to milling machines
c) Is a method for producing an exact number of parts per hour d) All of the above
Q2. A flip-flop:
a) Is a combinational logic device b) Is a sequential logic device

c) Remembers what was previously stored in it d) (a) and (c)

Q3. A technique for displaying applications where complex 3-D geometric are required for the exteror shall of a
product is called:
a) Solid modeling b) 2-D modeling c) 3-D modeling

d) Surface modeling

Q4. The user communicates directly with the computer through its peripheral devices is known as
a) On-line processing
b) Remote-terminal processing c) Batch mode processing

d) Intelligent terminal Processing

Q5. A semi-continuous operation means:

a) The operation is continuous each shift, but stops between shifts b) Coffee breaks are allowed for the

operator

c) A computer is a required part of the machine

d) Each operation in a sequence is continuous, but subsequent operations in the
sequence may be different

Q6. A servo controlled robot:

a) Stop only at fixed points on each
axis b) Can accelerate

c) Must be hydraulically
driven d) Must be electrically
driven
Q7. An aneroid
barometer a) Is very
unreliable

b) Can measure only atmospheric pressure

c) Measures pressure by sensing deflection of an evacuated
chambers d) Can be used to measure gas or liquid flow rates

Q8. Which of the following represents a conditional branching instruction?

a) BGT LOOPS
b) GOTO50

c) X = 5 + Y

d) JMP MOTOR

Q9. The electronic component that has been the key to

recent developments in automation is the:
a) Improved vacuum
tube b) Integrated circuit

c) Diode
d) Transistor

Q10. Which of the following is considered a high-level language?

a) Machine
language b)
FORTRAN

c) Assembly
language d) All of
the above

Q11. Pressure sensors:

a) Use the piezoresistive effect in strain gauge sensors
b) Use an aneroid chamber with a variable resistance

output c) Use capacitive variations to sense pressure

d) All of the above

Q12. Flexible manufacturing allows for:

a) Factory
management b)
Automated design

c) Tool design and tool production

d) Quick and inexpensive product changes

Q13. Three different aspects of colour are used to define specific

colours. They are hue, saturation, and:
a)Metamer
b) Value

c) Gray

scale d)

Shading

Q14. A way to transfer programs to a central system is:

a) By setting bit switches on the central CPU
b) To copy the program into PROMs and install the PROMs in the
system c) To develop the program on the actual system only

d) All of the above

Q15. The device that assembles groups of characters into

complete messages prior to their entering the CPU is called:
a) A compiler
b) An interpreter
c) A communications

processor d) An editor

Q16. Which industry is the leading user of robots?

a) Chemical industry
b) Automobile
industry c) Electronic
industry

d) Shipping industry

Q17. What two methods are available to build electronic

continuous control?
a) Analog and mechanical
b) Pneumatic and
analog c) Analog and
digital

d) All of the
above
Q18. If the transient response of a system is
overdamped:
a) The value of the output exceeds the value of the input at times during
the transient period
b) The value of the output never exceeds the value of the input during
the transient period
c) The value of the output never

stabilizes d) All of the above

Q19. Resolution in a CRT refers

to:
a) The speed at which the monitor can accept data from the
computer
b) The number of phosphor dots that react when hit by the electron
beam c) The number of addressable elements on the tube

d) The number of pixels in each square

centimeter

Q20. Actuators are used

to:
a) Sense an
object
b)Activate a
chemical
c) Make a mechanical

movement d) All of the above

Q1. If the period of a sine wave is 0.001 second, the frequency of the sine wave is:
a) 500Hz
b) 1,000 Hz c) 10,000 Hz d) 10 Hz

Q2. Software is:

a) Printer output
b) A set of instructions c) Tape input

d) A programming language

Q3 Which item best describes a CAM technology?

a) Numerical control b) Drafting
c) Documentation
d) Geometric modeling

Q4. The linking of PCs with a communications system is referred to as:

a) Workstations

b) Streaming
c) Turnkey systems

d) Networking

Q5. Two of the major processing languages are PROLOG and:

a) LISP
b) COBOL c) BASIC d) Pascal

Q6. Vision sensors:

a) Will remain very costly
b) Can not improve much in the next decade
c) Will more closely match the capabilities of the human eye
d) All of the above

Q7. A disadvantage of Numerical Control (NC) is:

a) The computer is not reliable
b) The tape and tape reader are not

reliable c) One operator is needed for

each machine d) The machine tool can

easily overheat

Q8. Digitizers can be converted from “dumb” to “smart” through

the addition of:
a) A microprocessor
b) An electromagnetic

coupling c) Keyboard

d) A scanner

Q9. Over the last ten years, productivity has risen most rapidly in:
a) Italy

b) Japan

c) France

d) United States

Q10. The difference between a high-technology and a medium-

technology robot is the:
a) Speed of movement
b) Range of moon of the robot

c) Accuracy of the robot

d) Complexity of the task it can perform

Q11. The output of a thermocouple is:

a) A
capacitance b)
A resistance

c) A current
d) A
voltage

Q12. Compared to humans, machines:

a) Can make more complex decisions based on unexpected circumstances
b) Can work in harsher
environments c) Make fewer errors

d) (a) and
(c)

Q13. A
solenoid:
a) Can be used only in de
circuits b) Is spring operated

c) Is widely used in industrial

automation d) Is related to an aneroid

Q14. Most industrial control

applications:
a) Can be solved using more than one method of
control b) Can be done more reliably using solid-state
methods

c) Must have the process specified correctly to be

successful d) All of the above

Q15. When was the first successful industrial robot installed in the
General
Motors Plant in
USA?
a) 1960
b) 1961

c) 1963

d) 1967

Q16. The physical arrangement of equipment in a network is

called:
a)Topology
b) Pairing

c) Queuing

d) Logic

Q17. The computer graphics system called SKETCHPAD was

demonstrated at

a) Massachusetts Institute of Technology in 1963

b) Imperial college of Science and Technology, London,

1973 c) University of Aston, Birmingham, 1960

d) Cranfield Institute of Technology, London,

1962

Q18. The new industrial revolution has been caused

by:
a) Social
unrest
b) Advances in
electronics c) The
Vietnam War

d) Demand for higher

wages

Q19. Straight-line
operations:
a) Must be limited to two per
workpiece
b) Must be parallel to one of the axes of the coordinate
system c) Can include diagonal cuts if they aren’t curved

d) All of the
above

Q20. The workspace required for a

robot:
a) Is less than that of a human performing the same

task b) Depends upon the robot used

c) Is not dependent on the

application d) Must be enclosed by a
fence

Q1. In pen plotters, “resolution” refers to the shortest possible line, but in electrostatic plotters it refers to:
a) The number of dots per inch b) The speed per inch

c) Dual-axis tracking
d) How accurately the plotter returns to a specific point

Q2. A common data base is one requisite for converting CAD and CAM to
CIM. Another is that:
a) The system must make provision for new techniques
b) There should be a common 3-D part description system
c) The user must have access to both hardware and software d) Technical assistance must be provided to
the user
Q3. Sensors:
a) Are easily developed
b) Probably will not improve over the next decade c) Are not important in automation

d) Will be much smarter and more sophisticated in the future

Q4. Which of the following devices could be part of a sensor?

a) Thermometer b) Brake

c) Relay d) Clutch

Q5. In general, American buyers will purchase goods:

a) That offer the best quality for the least money b) That are made in America, even at higher

costs c) Without regard to country of manufacturer

d) (a) and (c)

Q6. The reliability life cycle of a product:

a) Has three distinct rates of failure b) Cannot be predicted

c) All of the above

d) Stays constant with environmental

conditions

Q7. Robots consist of three basic components; power supply,

control
(memory) console,
and:
a) Coaxial
cable
b)
Microcomputer
c) Mechanical unit
(arm)
d)
Software
Q8. Today’s engineers feel that the ultimate solution to the
CAD/CAM
problem will
be
a) The
microprocessor b)
Turnkey systems

c) Development of a more efficient display

controller d) None of the above

Q9. The method of solid modeling that defines the topology of faces,
edges, and vertices, as well as data that defines the surface in which each
face lies is called:
a) Constructive solid
geometry b) Layering

c) Boundary
representation d)
Isometric

Q10. Programming languages currently available for

robots:
a) May be point-to-point
languages b) Require training

c) May allow primitive moon

d) All of the above
Q11. A process
controller:
a) Can interface to digital and analog
I/O
b) Is useful in a continuous process control

application c) Can solve a PID process control

equation easily

d) All of the
above
Q12. Compared to an open-loop system, a closed-loop control system
is:
a) More

accurate b)

More complex c)

More stable

d) All of the
above

Q13. Automation
means:
a) Assisting or replacing humans with

machines b) Workers controlling machines

c) Increased
productivity d) All of
the above

Q14. The “snap” command feature in both AutoCAD and VersaCAD

ensure that:
a) Template lines can be
removed
b) Objects are entered at specific
intervals
c) Identified data are automatically
segmented d) Definable center markers are
entered

Q15. An intelligent robot

can:
a) Make
decisions
b) Handle only small
payloads c) Walk

d) Speak

Q16. What is proportional

control?
a) It has a discrete output for each error
value
b) The controller output varies continuously over a
range c) The gain is independent of offset error

d) All of the
above

Q17. The real “brain” of an artificial intelligence system is referred to

as:
a)Bubble memory
b)The expert system
c)Recursive
technology
d)Natural language
interfaces

Q18. Analog and digital

controllers:
a) Cost the same to
build
b) Accept the same input
signals
c) Can be changed with equal
case d) None of the above

Q19. Robot moon:

a) Is the same for all
robots
b) Usually imitates human moon
c) Is not dependent on the robot
structure d) All of the above

Q20. The digitizing technology that uses an electric field radiated from
the tablet and picked up by a cursor is:
a)Electromagnetic
b) Raster
c) Sonic
d)Electrostic
3/21/2021 PLC Objective questions answers ~ PLC SCADA ACADEMY

                                   Objective questions answers Category

(1) Hardwire control means?
(A) Controlling the hardware with the help of software. Industrial automation
(B) Controlling the plant with relays contactors etc. without any
PLC example programs
programmable controller
(C) Controlling the plant with relays contactors etc. with programmable SCADA system
controller
(D) None
Contact Form
(2) Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to
(A) Analog input Name
(B) Analog output
(C) Digital input
(D) Digital output Email *
(3) How the instruction -] N [- in the PLC language work?
(A) It detects the signal state from 0 to 1.
Message *
(B) It detects the signal state from 1 to 0 and remains close till signal is 0.
(C) It detects the signal state from 1 to 0 and remains close for one scan
cycle only.

Send

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21 Cfr Part 11 Compliant Followers

Followers (8)
Sterilizer controllers with Touchscreen Hmi,

(D) When signal state is 1 this instruction remains close.

(4) Full name of DCS is?
(A) Designed Control System Follow
(B) Distributed Control System
(C) Display Control System Blog Archive
(D) Dedicated Control System
▼ 2020 (57)
(5) For PLC’s scan cycle which one is correct?
▼ November (2)
(A) Program execute Output write Input read
▼ Nov 07 (2)
(B) Input read Output write Program execute
Small part hot plate welding.
(C) Output write Input read Program execute
(D) Input read Program execute Output write Special Rules to design ladder diagram
logic
(6) CPU 1214C has __ integrated digital inputs and __ digital outputs
(A) 10 & 12
(B) 12 & 14 ► October (1)
(C) 12 & 10 ► September (5)
(D) 14 & 10
► August (1)
(7) Programming language for PLC is..
(A) Function Block Diagram (FBD) ► July (16)
(B) Statement list (STL) ► June (9)
(C) Ladder
► May (12)
(D) All of the above.
(8) What is full name of SCADA? ► April (9)
(A) Supervision Control and Data Acquire ► March (2)
(B) Supervisory Control and Data Administration
(C) Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition ► 2019 (30)
(D) Super Control and Data Acquisition
► 2018 (110)

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3/21/2021 PLC Objective questions answers ~ PLC SCADA ACADEMY

(9) Digital input of CPU 1214C is..

(A) 12VDC
(B) 230VAC
(C) 24VDC
(D) 10VDC
(10) In S7-1214C CPU, default address of Analog Input Starts from _________.
(A) IW 256 (B) IW 64 (C) IW 112 (D)
IW 96
(11) PLC’s analog input/output has.
(A) 1 bit address
(B) 1 byte address
(C) 1 word address
(D) 1 double word address
(12) The PLCs were originally designed to replace..
(A) Analog controllers
(B) DCS
(C) Microcomputers
(D) Hardwired control
(13) In Counter when CV is equal to or greater than PV, then
(A) CU bit will set
(B) CU bit will reset
(C) QU bit will reset
(D) QU bit will set
(14) In S7-1200, we define Timer value (PT) as ____________.
(A) T#1s (B) T1 (C) IEC 0 (D)
S5t#1s

Autoclave Controllers
Data Logging, Remote Communication & User Access Control.

(15) When signal state changes from 0 to 1 in LD input of CTD (down counter),
then…
(A) CV will reset
(B) PV will reset
(C) The value at CV is set to the value of PV
(D) The value at PV is set to the value of CV

(16) A control valve will receive _____ signal from an analog output module is
the count is 27648. The module is configured for 0 to 10V.
(A) 10V (B) 5V (C) 8V (D)
7.5V
(17) The Real Data type comprises of _______ Bits.
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 32 (D)
6
(18) Answer the following considering the network shown.

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3/21/2021 PLC Objective questions answers ~ PLC SCADA ACADEMY

If I0.0 = 1 & I0.1 = 0 then status of Q0.0 = 0

If I0.0 = 0 & I0.1 = 1 then status of Q0.0 = 0
If I0.0 = 1 & I0.1 = 1 then status of Q0.0 = 1
(19) Write ladder logic for following conditions
When start PB is pressed, Motor Right will start and stop when LS1 (2) is
activated. Then Motor left will start and stop when LS1 (1) is activated. When
stop is pressed, it will stop.

(20) How many Signal modules we can connect in 1214C CPU? ______

KITO LX
Ratchet Lever
Hoist
Available in two
capacities (LX 003 -
250 kg, LX 005 - 500
kg)

KITO INDIA Open

(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 32 (D) 11

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3/21/2021 PLC Objective questions answers ~ PLC SCADA ACADEMY

Ather 450X electric scooter

On-board Google maps, touchscreen dashboard, app
connectivity & more. Test-ride today.
(21) From following, which CPU is not available for S7-1200 PLC? ______
(A) 1211C (B) 1212C (C) 1213C
(D) 1215C
(22) Which answer names all the memory bytes addressed with MD 200?
(A) MW 201,202 (B) MB 200 (C) MB
200,201,202,203 (D) MB 200,201
(23) TIA Portal Software has Portal View &project View.

3 comments:

Unknown August 7, 2020 at 4:20 AM

sir
iwant this pdf formate
Reply

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PLCSCADA LEARNING August 10, 2020 at 2:40 AM

ok

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Unknown October 17, 2020 at 10:43 AM

i also wanted.. please
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Automatic light blinking on 2s interval using PLC.

Automatic light blinking on 2s interval using PLC. This is PLC Program for the
automatic light blinking on 2s interval using PLC. ...

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UPPCL JE Electrical PLC,SCADA, Microcontrollers Important MCQ PDF 4

1.A ____ is a digital electronic device that uses programmable memory to store instructions.

(A) Programmable logic controller

(B) Servomechanism
(C) Both of these
(D) None of these

Answer-A

2.____ is a method used to send commands , programs and receives monitoring information from
the remote locations.

(A) Micro-controller
(B) PLC
(C) Telemetry
(D) None of the above

Answer-C

3.From which of the following is the application of SCADA.

(A) Mining industries

(B) Power plant
(C) Both of these
(D) None of these

Answer-C

4.What is the first step in designing an effective PLC control system?

(A) approach the system in a systematic manner

(B) flowchart the process
(C) define the control task
(D) define the control strategy

Answer-C

5.System operation for new applications usually begins with:

(A) sample diagrams

(B) specifications
(C) the control strategy
(D) logic diagrams

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Answer-B

6.Logic sequences for a control program can be created using

(A) logic gates

(B) relay ladder symbology
(C) PLC contact symbology
(D) all of these

Answer-D

7.The principle reason for leaving certain portions of the control circuit hardwired is to

(A) minimize wiring

(B) avoid failure of main magnetic elements
(C) ensure safety
(D) keep some devices running at all times

Answer-C

8.The PLC fault contacts are wired to other hardwired emergency circuit elements

(A) in parallel
(B) in series
(C) normally open
(D) normally closed

Answer-B

9.The main reason the PLC fault contacts are included in the hardwired circuit is

(A) to prevent system shut down

(B) to detect I/O failures
(C) to include the PLC as an emergency stop condition
(D) to shut down the system if there is a PLC failure

Answer-D

10.What element can be used to trap timers in a PLC control program

(A) a reset instruction

(B) a start push button
(C) a pilot light
(D) an internal output

Answer-D

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11.For PLC’s scan cycle which one is correct

(A) Program execute ,Output write , Input read

(B) Input read ,Output write ,Program execute
(C) Output write , Input read , Program execute
(D) Input read , Program execute , Output write

Answer-D

12.Programming language for PLC is...

(A) Function Block Diagram (FBD)

(B) Statement list (STL)
(C) Ladder
(D) All of these

Answer-D

13.PLC’s analog input/output has.

(A) 1 bit address

(B) 1 byte address
(C) 1 word address
(D) 1 double word address

Answer-C

14.The PLCs were originally designed to replace..

(A) Analog controllers

(B) DCS
(C) Microcomputers
(D) Hardwired control

Answer-D

15.How the instruction in the PLC language work

(A) It detects the signal state from 0 to 1.

(B) It detects the signal state from 1 to 0 and remains close till signal is 0.
(C) It detects the signal state from 1 to 0 and remains close for one scan cycle only.
(D) When signal state is 1 this instruction remains close.

Answer-C

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Flow Chart Symbol & Use

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Flow Chart Symbol

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11/24/2020 PLC Applications
PLC & SCADA & SCADA MCQ
(Mock Insem Test)
Unit- 1, 2 & 3

Q.1) Which of the following statements is correct? 1 point

Ladder logic is a PLC graphical programming technique introduced in the last 10

years.

A ladder logic program is hard to analyze because it is totally different when

compared with the equivalent relay logic solution.

The number of ladder logic virtual relays and input and output instructions is limited
only by memory size.

The number of contacts for a mechanical relay is limited to number of coils on the
relay.

Q.2) Which of the following statements is NOT correct? 1 point

The status of each input can be checked from one location and outputs can be forced
on and off.

All symbols in the RLL represent actual components and contacts present in the
control system.

PLCs are not as reliable as electromechanical relays in RLL.

Input (-| |-) and output (- ( ) -) instruction symbols in the ladder logic represent only
data values stored in PLC memory.

Q.3) Hardwire control means 1 point

Controlling the hardware with the help of software

Controlling the plant with relays contactors etc without any programmable controller

Controlling the plant with relays contactors etc with programmable controller

None

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.4) PLCs that have a fixed amount of I/O capability built into the unit are 1 point
known as:

Rack PLCs

Monolithic PLCs

Modular PLCs

None of these

Q.5) Which is not the part of Analog output module 1 point

DAC

Signal conditioning circuit

DEMUX

None of above

Q.6) The part that monitors the inputs and makes decisions in a PLC is the 1 point
CPU.

True

False

None of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.7) The first company to build PLCs was . 1 point

General Motors

Allen Bradley

Square D

Modicon

Q.8) Which is not the selections Criteria of PLC 1 point

Memory Space

Training & Documentation

Scan Time

None of above

Q.9) Which is not PLC Disadvantage 1 point

New and Advanced technology

Fail-Safe Operation

Mouldability in nature

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.10) The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data 1 point
which are immediately required for use is called as______.

ROM

RAM

SSD

HDD

Q.11) Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC? 1 point

Manual switches

Relays

Sensors

None of the above

Q.12) Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to: 1 point

Analog output.

Digital output.

Analog input.

Digital input.

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.13) To increase the number of inputs and outputs of the PLC, one can 1 point
use expansion modules.

True

False

None of the above.

Q.14) One of the following is an input device 1 point

Motor

Light

Valve

Sensor

Q.15) Very often relays and valves are connected to: 1 point

Input modules

Output modules

Any of these

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.16) An example of discrete (digital) control is: 1 point

Varying the brightness of a lamp

Controlling the speed of a fan

Turning a lamp ON or OFF

Varying the volume of a music system

Q.17) which is not output analog device 1 point

Stepper motor

Solenoid valve

Servo motor

Servo valves

Q.18) Which of the following can be the output of PLC? 1. Relay coils 2. 1 point
Solenoids valve 3. Indicators 4. Sensor 5. Lamps 6. Alarms Select correct
option

Only (1), (2), (3) , (5) and (6)

Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)

Only (1), (2), (3) and (5)

All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.19) Which is Displacement transducer 1 point

Potentiometer

Thermocouple

RTD

None

Q.20) Inductive Proximity sensors work with 1 point

metallic materials

non metallic materials

Both a & b

none of the above

Q.21) Which of the following is not programming languages of PLC 1 point

Ladder diagram

Sequential Function Charts

Function Block Diagram

Structured Text

None of above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.22) Which of the following is not true about MCR 1 point

This instruction can be used as an emergency stop

It must be placed on the right side of the rung

Every MCR instruction is used in the pair

Nested MCR instructions are not allowed in the ladder diagram

Q.23) The plc special function used to count the number of cans on a 1 point
conveyer belt is

timer

memory

counter

Q.24) When the input contact that enables a retentive timer (RTO) is 1 point
opened, the accumulated value in the timer will _______

reset (go to zero).

freeze (remain at its present value)

go to an undetermined value and the timer must be reset manually

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.25) An OR function implemented in ladder logic uses: 1 point

Normally-closed contacts in series

Normally-open contacts in series

A single normally-closed contact

Normally-open contacts in parallel

Normally-closed contacts in parallel

Q.26) A good application for a timed interrupt in a PLC program would be: 1 point

A communications function block

A PID function block

A math function block

A motor start/stop rung

A “watchdog” timer

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.27) The Boolean representation of this PLC program is: 1 point

ABC + D

C + (A + B)D

C + D(A + B)

ABC + BD

C(AB + D)

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.28) Identify the problem in this motor control PLC program: 1 point

Coil

Start contact

Seal-in contact

Stop contact

Power source

Q.29) The symbol -(L)- represent what instruction in the PLC language? 1 point

OUT output unlatch instruction.

OTL output latch instruction.

Examine off instruction.

Output energize instruction.

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.30) In a counter instruction if the accumulator value becomes greater 1 point

than or equal to the preset value then which of the following is true?

CU bit goes on

DN bit goes on

Both CU and DN bits go on

None of the above

Submit

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

5. Q.1) The PLCs were originally designed to replace..

Mark only one oval.

Analog controllers

DCS

Microcomputers

Hardwired control

6. Q.2) Which one of the following is not a PLC manufacturer

Mark only one oval.

Siemens

Mitsubishi

Microsoft

ABB

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

7. Q.3) The acronym PLC stands for:

Mark only one oval.

Pressure Load Control

Programmable Logic Controller

Pneumatic Logic Capstan

PID Loop Controller

Pressure Loss Chamber

8. Q.4) The capability of convention relay systems for complex operations is ___________ that of the PLCs

Mark only one oval.

poor than

excellent than

as good as

unpredictable as

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

9. Q.5) _____ of PLCs can be done in very little time.

Mark only one oval.

Programming

Installation

Commissioning

All of the above

10. Q.6) The PLC is used in _______.

Mark only one oval.

machine tools

automated assembly equipment

moulding and extrusion machines

all of the above

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

11. Q.7) Which is not the selections Criteria of PLC

Mark only one oval.

Scan Time

Training & Documentation

Fail Safe Operation

Memory Space

12. Q.8) Which is not the component of Analog Input Module

Mark only one oval.

CPU

Signal Conditioning Circuit

DAC

Multiplexer

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

13. Q.9) Which is not PLC Disadvantage

Mark only one oval.

New and Advanced technology

Fail-Safe Operation

Mouldability in nature

None

14. Q.10) PLCs that have a fixed amount of I/O capability built into the unit are known as:

Mark only one oval.

Rack PLCs

Monolithic PLCs

Modular PLCs

None of these

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

15. Q.11) An example of discrete (digital) control is:

Mark only one oval.

Varying the volume of a music system

Turning a lamp ON or OFF

Varying the brightness of a lamp

Controlling the speed of a fan

16. Q.12) Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?

Mark only one oval.

Manual switches

Relays

Sensors

None of the above

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

17. Q.13) Encoders used in

Mark only one oval.

Electrical Drive technology

Printing Industry

Machine tool Industry

All of the above

18. Q.14) Limit Switchs is

Mark only one oval.

mechanical device

electrical device

electromechnical device

none of the above

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

19. Q.15) Hydraulic Actuators can measure pressure upto

Mark only one oval.

1000 psi

2000 psi

3500 psi

4000 psi

20. Q.16) Solenoid Valve is

Mark only one oval.

mechanical device

electrical device

electromechnical device

none of the above

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

21. Q.17) Flow and level sensors is

Mark only one oval.

Discrete output device

Analog input device

output analog device

none of the above

22. Q.18) Which of the following can be the output of PLC? 1. Relay coils 2. Solenoids valve 3. Indicators 4. Sensor 5.
Lamps 6. Alarms Select correct option

Mark only one oval.

Only (1), (2), (3) , (5) and (6)

Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)

Only (1), (2), (3) and (5)

All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

23. Q.19) Which is Displacement transducer

Mark only one oval.

Potentiometer

RTD

Thermocouple

None

24. Q.20) which is not output analog device

Mark only one oval.

Servo motor

Solenoid valve

Stepper motor

Servo valves

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

25. Q.21) For PLC’s scan cycle which one is correct?

Mark only one oval.

Program execute Output write Input read

Input read Output write Program execute

Output write Input read Program execute

Input read Program execute Output write

26. Q.22) Programming language for PLC is..

Mark only one oval.

Function Block Diagram (FBD)

Statement list (STL)

Ladder

All of the above.

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

27. Q.23) The address T4:6.ACC is used to address what?

Mark only one oval.

Accumulator for timer 4 in file 6.

Preset value of timer 6 in file 4.

Accumulator for timer 6 in file 4.

Accumulator for counter 6 in file 4.

28. Q.24) To reset the time for a PLC what condition must be true?

Mark only one oval.

Reset rung of TON must be true.

Reset rung of TON must be false.

RST instruction with timer address must be true.

RST instruction with associated timer address must be false.

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

29. Q.25) The symbol -(L)- represent what instruction in the PLC language?

Mark only one oval.

OUT output unlatch instruction.

OTL output latch instruction.

Examine off instruction.

Output energize instruction.

30. Q.26) Which of the following is not true about MCR

Mark only one oval.

This instruction can be used as an emergency stop

It must be placed on the right side of the rung

Every MCR instruction is used in the pair

Nested MCR instructions are not allowed in the ladder diagram

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

31. Q.27) When the input contact that enables a retentive timer (RTO) is opened, the accumulated value in the timer
will _______

Mark only one oval.

reset (go to zero).

freeze (remain at its present value)

go to an undetermined value and the timer must be reset manually

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

32. Q.28) The Boolean representation of this PLC program is:

Mark only one oval.

ABC + D

C + (A + B)D

C + D(A + B)

ABC + BD

C(AB + D)

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

33. Q.29) Identify the problem in this motor control PLC program:

Mark only one oval.

Start contact

Seal-in contact

Stop contact

Power source

Coil

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

34. Q.30) In a counter instruction if the accumulator value becomes greater than or equal to the preset value then
which of the following is true?

Mark only one oval.

CU bit goes on

DN bit goes on

Both CU and DN bits go on

None of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

7. Q.2) One of the following is an input device

Mark only one oval.

Motor

Light

Valve

Sensor

8. Q.3) Which one of the following is not a PLC manufacturer

Mark only one oval.

Siemens

Mitsubishi

Microsoft

ABB

9. Q.4) The acronym PLC stands for:

Mark only one oval.

Pressure Load Control

Programmable Logic Controller

Pneumatic Logic Capstan

PID Loop Controller

Pressure Loss Chamber

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

10. Q.5) The capability of convention relay systems for complex operations is
___________ that of the PLCs .

Mark only one oval.

poor than

excellent than

as good as

unpredictable as

11. Q.6) _____ of PLCs can be done in very little time.

Mark only one oval.

Programming

Installation

Commissioning

All of the above

12. Q.7) The PLC is used in _______.

Mark only one oval.

machine tools

automated assembly equipment

moulding and extrusion machines

all of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

13. Q.8) In a PLC the scan time refers to the amount of time in which___

Mark only one oval.

the technician enters the program

timers and counters are indexed by

one rung of ladder logic takes to complete

the entire program takes to execute

transmitted data communications must finish

14. Q.9)The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data which are
immediately required for use is called as______.

Mark only one oval.

HDD

ROM

RAM

SSD

15. Q.10) Medium PLC has…….. inputs and outputs

Mark only one oval.

100-200

1000-4000

2000-4000

4000-8000

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

16. Q.11) Which is not the component of Analog Input Module

Mark only one oval.

CPU

Signal Conditioning Circuit

DAC

Multiplexer

17. Q.12) Which is not the selections Criteria of PLC

Mark only one oval.

Scan Time

Memory Space

Training & Documentation

None of above

18. Q.13) Which is not the component of PLC

Mark only one oval.

Input Module

Power supply

CPU

Push buttons

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

19. Q.14) Which is not PLC Advantage

Mark only one oval.

Cost effective

Fail Safe operation

Ease of Maintenance

Mouldability or Flexible in nature

20. Q.15) Which is not benefits of Automation

Mark only one oval.

Productivity

Quality

Unsuitable for Fixed Industry Applications

Improvement in the processes

21. Q.16) An example of discrete (digital) control is:

Mark only one oval.

Varying the volume of a music system

Turning a lamp ON or OFF

Varying the brightness of a lamp

Controlling the speed of a fan

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

22. Q.17) Which is not output analog device

Mark only one oval.

Servo motor

Stepper motor

Solenoid valve

Variable frequency Drives

23. Q.18) Which of the following can be the output of PLC?1. Relay coils 2. Solenoids 3.
Indicators 4. Motors 5. Lamps 6. Alarms Select correct option

Mark only one oval.

Only (1), (2), (3) and (4)

Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)

Only (1), (2), (3) and (5)

All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)

24. Q.19) Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?

Mark only one oval.

Manual switches

Relays

Sensors

None of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

25. Q.20) Which is Displacement transducer

Mark only one oval.

LVDT

Potentiometer

Both a and b

RTD

None of the above

26. Q.21) which is not pressure transducer

Mark only one oval.

Strain Gauges

Load cells

Bourdon tubes

Encoder

27. Q.22) Encoders used in............

Mark only one oval.

Electrical Drive technology

Printing Industry

Machine tool Industry

All of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

28. Q.23) Inductive Proximity sensors work with

Mark only one oval.

non metallic materials

metallic materials

Both a & b

none of the above

29. Q.24) Limit Switch is...............

Mark only one oval.

mechanical device

electrical device

electromechnical device

none of the above

30. Q.25) Which is not the thermal transducers

Mark only one oval.

Thermocouples

thermister

RTD

Potentiometer

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

31. Q.26) Hydraulic Actuators can measure pressure upto......

Mark only one oval.

1000 psi

2000 psi

3500 psi

4000 psi

32. Q.27) Solenoid Valve is......

Mark only one oval.

mechanical device

electrical device

electromechnical device

none of the above

33. Q.28) Flow and level sensors is ........

Mark only one oval.

Discrete output device

Analog input device

output analog device

none of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

34. Q.29) Which is the example of discrete output device

Mark only one oval.

Horn

Solenoid valve

Indication Lamp

All of above

35. Q.30) Which is not the advantage of Electrical Actuators

Mark only one oval.

Use for high accuracy with high precision

Easily programmed and networked

use to control position, velocity, torque

Applications involves areas of extreme temperature

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 PLC & SCADA MCQ

Unit-4

1. What is the relationship between the steady-state error, gain and the tendency of
oscillations when the controller is supposed to be under the proportional action?

a. Steady-state error increases with an increase in gain and oscillation tendency

b. Steady-state error decreases with the decrease in gain and oscillation tendency

c. Steady-state error decreases with an increase in gain and oscillation tendency

d. Steady-state error increases with the decrease in gain and oscillation tendency

2. The input of a controller is

a) Sensed signal
b) Error signal
c) Desired variable value
d) Signal of fixed amplitude not dependent on desired variable value
View Answer

3. Phase lag controller:

a) Improvement in transient response
b) Reduction in steady state error
c) Reduction is settling time
d) Increase in damping constant

4. Addition of zero at origin:

a) Improvement in transient response
b) Reduction in steady state error
c) Reduction is settling time
d) Increase in damping constant

5. 4. Derivative output compensation:

a) Improvement in transient response
b) Reduction in steady state error
c) Reduction is settling time
d) Increase in damping constant

6. Derivative error compensation:

a) Improvement in transient response
b) Reduction in steady state error
c) Reduction is settling time
d) Increase in damping constant

7. Lag compensation leads to:

a) Increases bandwidth
b) Attenuation
c) Increases damping factor
 d) Second order

8. Lead compensation leads to:

a) Increases bandwidth
b) Attenuation
c) Increases damping factor
d) Second order

9. Lag-lead compensation is a:
a) Increases bandwidth
b) Attenuation
c) Increases damping factor
d) Second order

10. Rate compensation :

a) Increases bandwidth
b) Attenuation
c) Increases damping factor
d) Second order

11. Negative exponential term in the equation of the transfer function causes the
transportation lag.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

12. The derivative control action is typically used when controlling, but rarely used when
controlling.
(A) Temperature, Flow
(B) Flow, Level
(C) pH, Temperature
(D) Level, Temperature
(E) Level, Flow

13) processes always require some degree of control action to achieve setpoint.
(A) Integrating, Derivative
(B) Integrating, Feedforward
(C) Self-regulating, Proportional
(D) Runaway, Linear
(E) Self-regulating, Integral

14) The reciprocal of proportional band is called:

(A) Reset
(B) Percent
(C) Minutes per repeat
(D) Gain
(E) Rate
15) “Quarter-wave damping” may be described as:
(A) a condition of good control where PV approaches SP without overshoot
(B) a condition of poor control where oscillations continue at constant amplitude
(C) a condition of poor control where the transmitter is damped by 25%
(D) a condition of good control where oscillations quickly subside
(E) a condition of excellent control where there are no oscillations

16) Reset control action is often expressed in units of:

(A) percent
(B) seconds per rate
(C) minutes
(D) time constant ratio (unitless)
(E) repeats per minute

17) The open-loop response of a process is shown in the following trend. What sort of process is
indicated by this behavior?

(A) Integrating
(B) Proportional
(C) Linear
(D) Direct-acting
(E) Self-regulating

18) A condition where integral control action drives the output of a controller into saturation is
called:
(A) self-bias
(B) wind-up
(C) repeat
(D) noise
(E) offset

19) Fast, self-regulating processes typically respond well to aggressive control action.
(A) Nonlinear
(B) Derivative
(C) Proportional
(D) Reset
(E) Gain

20) Process variable filtering should be used:

(A) to dampen noise
(B) only on integrating processes
(C) to improve response time
(D) only on self-regulating processes
(E) never

21) The quarter-amplitude decay ratio is basically a design criteria specified by Zeigler-Nichols
method implies that the amplitude of an oscillation must be reduced by a factor of __________

a. four over a whole period

b. four over an half period
c. four over a quarter period
d. four over a quarter and a half period

Q22. While using stator resistance starter with 3 phase induction motor, the resistances of the
starter are kept at

a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Half of the maximum value
d. None of these

Q23. An autotransformer starter is suitable for

a. Star connected induction motor

b. Delta connected induction motor
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these

Q24. The cheapest starter for induction motor is

a. Stator resistance starter

b. Autotransformer starter
c. Star-delta starter
d. Rotor resistance starter

Q25. Windings of star-delta starter while starting and during running are connected in

a. Star, delta
b. Delta, delta
c. Star, star
d. Delta, star
Q26. The advantages of star-delta starter over other types of starter is

a. Cheapest of all
b. Maintenance free
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these

Q27. When rotor resistance starter is used with induction motor then

a. Only starting current is limited

b. Only starting torque is limited
c. Both starting current and starting torque are limited
d. Neither starting current nor starting torque is limited

Q28. Direct online starter also called D.O.L. starter is used for motors having capacity

a. Less than 5 h.p.

b. Less than 10 h.p.
c. Greater than 10 h.p.
d. For any capacity motor

Q29. The NO contact and NC contact of D.O.L. starter is normally

a. Open, closed
b. Closed, open
c. Open, open
d. Closed, closed

Q30. In textile machines, to avoid breaking of threads, soft starters are used. The commonly used
method in soft starter is

a. Direct online method

b. Star-delta method
c. Thyristor voltage controller method
d. Thyristor current controller method

Q31) The overload release protects the motor against

a. Over voltage
b. Over current
c. Over load
d. All of these
Q.32) If an induction motor is initially connected in delta and then reconnected in star then the
current drawn will become

a. Thrice of the current drawn when connected in delta

b. Twice of the current drawn when connected in delta
c. One third of the current drawn when connected in delta
d. Half of the current drawn when connected in delta

Q.33) For controlling the initial inrush current,

a. Reduced voltage is applied to the stator during the starting period

b. Reduced voltage is applied to the stator when the motor is running at rated speed
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. None of these

Q.34) A bimetal strip, in a thermal relay, consist of two metal strips of different
A. Specific heat
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Coefficients of expansion
D. All of the above

Q.35) Thermal relays are used for protection of motors against over current owing to
A. Short circuits
B. Heavy loads
C. Earth fault
D. All of the above

Q.36) Thermal relay are often employed in

A. Motor starters
B. Transformer protection
C. Generator protection
D. None of the above

Q.37) The concept of V/f control of inverters driving induction motors resuls in
a) constant torque operation
b) speed reversal
c) reduced magnetic loss
d) hormonic elimination

Q.38) VFD work with which of the following motors

a) Single phase AC motors

b) Three phase AC motors
c) DC motors
d) B and C are correct but not A
Q.39) The setting for the speed a VFD is known as which of the following

a) Set point
b) Control point
c) Reference
d) Speed point

Q.40) An embedded ________ governs the overall operation ofthe VFD controller.

A. Reduced instruction set computer

B. Central processing unit

C. 64-bit

D. Microprocessor

Q.41) If a single VFD operates 3 motors, which of the following must be remembered?

A. It must be connected in a Master/Slave arrangement.

B. The VFD must use a Cascade Controller Card.

C. An RS-485 connection must be made between the VFD and motors.

D. Each of the 3 motors must have overload protection.

E. All of the above are required.

Q.42) A fan, using a VFD, is described as a Closed Loopcontrol arrangement. Which of the
following must alwaysbe programmed in the VFD?

A. A sensor must be wired to the VFD monitoring the feedback signal.

B. The VFD must be given a setpoint.

C. A Derivative setting must always be programmed.

D. A and B are correct but not C.

E. All three answers, A, B and C are correct.

 PLC & SCADA MCQ

Unit- 5 & 6

1. What is the full form of SCADA?

a) Supervisory Control and Document Acquisition
b) Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition
c) Supervisory Column and Data Assessment
d) Supervisory Column and Data Assessment
2. DCS is a __________________
a) Distributed Control System
b) Data Control System
c) Data Column System
d) Distributed Column System
3. What is SCADA?
a) Software
b) Process
c) System
d) Hardware
4. The control in SCADA is _____________
a) Online control
b) Direct control
c) Supervisory control
d) Automatic control
5. When did the SCADA start?
a) 1980s
b) 1990s
c) 1970s
d) 1960s
6. How many levels are present in a complex SCADA system?
a) 3 – levels
b) 5 – levels
c) 4 – levels
d) 6 – levels
7. Which of the following is not the component of a SCADA system?
a) Database server
b) I/O system
c) PLC controller
d) Sparger controller
8. Which of the following is the heart of a SCADA system?
a) PLC
b) HMI
c) Alarm task
d) I/O task
 9. SCADA is
a) Real time data acquisition and processing
b) Data storing
c) Data monitoring and control
d) All above

10. Componenets of a traditional SCADA system

a) RTU
b) Central station
c) Communication system
d) All above

11. Components of a modern SCADA system

a) Field Devices

b) Controllers, remote I/Os and Distributed I/Os

c) HMI, SCADA servers/ clients

d) All of above

12) How many levels in a complex SCADA system

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

13) Why does SCADA software can communicate with many kinds of PLCs

a) SCADA software flexibly contents many device drivers

b) SCADA software fixes many device drivers

c) SCADA software supports popular PLC drivers

d) SCADA software supports popular field devices

14) Design tool of SCADA package is dedicated for

a) Project configuration and programming

b) Project running

c) System database
d) field device engineering

15) Runtime engine of SCADA Package is dedicated for

a) Project configuration and programming

b) Project running

c) PLC programming

d) field device engineering

16) SCADA system should have

a) HMI

b) Alarm processing

c) Data log

d) all above

17) Elements of SCADA systems

a) Graphical display

b) Tags

c) Alarms

d) Trends

18) Faut tolerance of SCADA system is

a) Ability to connect with many I/O devices

b) ability to recover communication connection

c) ability to manage and coordinate system errors

d) Ability to restart running application

19) Typical tasks in SCADA systems

a) I/Os, Alarms, Trends,Reports,Displays

b) I/Os , PLCs, Servers, clients

c) RTU, MTU, communication systems

d) HMIs and PLCs

20) Alarm task is

a) Server

b) client

c) client and server

d) None of the above

21) I/Os, Alarms, Trends, Reports servers, Displays clients

a) can run on one computer

b) I/Os, Alarms, Trends, Reports servers run on a computer, displays clients runs on another computers

c) I/Os server runs on a computer and another servers and clients run on another computers

d) all of above

22) DCS and SCADA

a) DCS is process oriented, SCADA is data acquisition oriented

b) SCADA is process oriented, DCS is data acquisition oriented

c) DCS is object oriented, SCADA is structure oriented

d) DCS is machine oriented, SCADA is process oriented

23) Engineering in SCADA are

a) PLC, PAC programming

b) field device and I/O configuration

c) SCADA programming

d) all above

24) DCS system need

a) DCS server

b) Engineering stations

c) SCADA server/clients and PLCs

d) All above

25) SCADA and DCS

a) SCADA can connect to many kinds of PLCs

b) DCS can connect to many kinds of PLCs

c) SCADA can connect to OPC clients

d) DCS can connect to OPC clients

26) Which of the following is not element of SCADA:

a) Communication

b) Master Terminal Units

c) Micro Terminal Units (MTU)

d) RTUs/PLCs

27) All of the following are true, except for:

a) RTU means Remote Terminal Unit

b) RTU means Remote Telemetry Units

c) RTUs are electronic devices with intelligent microprocessor

d) All of the above are true

28) All of the following are true, except for:

a) PLC stands for Programmable Logic Controller

b) PLC stands for Programmable Logistic Controller

c) PLC controls manufacturing process

d) PLC is an industrial digital computer that replaced traditional relays

29) Which of the following are components of SCADA

a) Operator
b) HMI / MMI
c) MTU
d) Communication methods
e) RTU
f) All of above

30) Communication architecture in SCADA systems

a) Master slave configuration(point to point)

b) Multi drop configuration
c) Hierarchical configuration
d) None of above
e) All of above

31) Properties of SCADA systems

 a) Adequacy or capability of system
b) Security issue
c) Compliance and regulatory
d) Standards and quality
e) All of above

32) Which of the following is not scada features

a) Easy to interface with users

b) GUIs
c) Alarms
d) Trending
e) RTUs interface supports
f) Flexibility in terms of scaling
g) Data access support
h) Database connectivity
i) Networking support
j) None of above

33) Which of the following is not the advantage of the SCADA SYSTEM?

a) Data logging
b) Data display
c) Real time simulation
d) Complex system

34) which are the function of application layer of OSI model

a) file transfer

b) network management

c) provide access to e-mail service

d) all of above

35) which layer of OSI model do encryption, decryption and compression of information or data

a) Application layer

b) presentation layer

c) session layer

d) transport layer

e) network layer
36) which layer of OSI model establish the network sessions by synchronizing and sequencing the data
and packets in the network communication.

a) Application layer

b) presentation layer

c) session layer

d) transport layer

e) network layer

37) TCP/IP has………….layer architecture

a) five

b) three

c) four

d) seven

38) which SCADA protocol used for the communication between the control devices

a) TCP/IP

b) DNP3

c) EtherNet

d) MODBUS

39) which among the following is true for DNP3 Protocol

a) recording of sequence of events, DNP3 supports stamped time messages

b) provide optimum error control and user defined objects

c) allows multiple communication topology and peer to peer topology

d) provide secure file transfer

e) all of above

40) which SCADA protocol defines for establishment of communication between the PLC to PLC, PLC to
other devicefor the detection and reporting of the errors over network

a) TCP/IP

b) Device Net

c) MODBUS
d) CIP

41) …………is a communication standard used to link various industrial I/O devices such as various types
of sensors, readers, drives, displays and operator interface over a network to avoid hardwiring of these
devices

a) Device Net

b) CIP

c) EtherNet

d) FFB

42) Profibus consists of…………..Layers

a) three

b) four

c) five

d) six

43) ………..specifically used for the real time control applications and based on the topologies of multi-
master and multi-slave networks

a) MODBUS

b) FFB

c) Profibus

d) EtherNet
 Gokhale Education Society's
R. H. Sapat College of Engineering, Management Studies, and Research, Nashik

Department of Electrical Engineering

PLC & SCADA APPLICATION

UNIT 01, 02 & 03 MCQ QUESTIONS

___________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Q1. are some simple building blocks of a digital system which control their output based
on the conditions of the inputs.
(A) Servomechanism
(B) Control action
(C) Logic gates
(D) Micro-controller

Q2.From the following which is not the type of logic gates.

(A) OR GATE
(B) AND GATE
(C) NOT GATE
(D) EX-NOT GATE

Q3. What is the full form of PLC?

(A) Programmable Logic Controller
(B) Programmable Language Controller
(C) Preventive Logic Controller
(D) Programmable Local Controller

Q4. is a chip that is dependent on other chips for many functions.

(A) Micro-controller
(B) SCADA
(C) PLC
(D) Microprocessor

Q5. is a single chip micro computer that has everything in-built.

(A) Microprocessor
(B) Micro-controller
(C) Logic gates
(D) SCADA

Q6.From the following which is the advantage of PLC SCADA system.

(A) Data can be viewed from any where
(B) Possible to connect thousands of sensors
(C) Data can be display in any way
(D) All of above

Q7.From the following which is not a type of Micro Controller.

(A) 2 – bit Micro Controller
(B) 4 – bit Micro Controller
(C) 8 – bit Micro Controller
(D) 16 – bit Micro Controller

Q8.A is a digital electronic device that uses programmable memory to store

instructions.
(A) Programmable logic controller
(B) Servomechanism
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above

Q9. is a method used to send commands, programs and receives monitoring

information from the remote locations.
(A) Micro-controller
(B) PLC
(C) Telemetry
(D) None of the above

Q10. The most popular language for PLCs is:

A. Ladder diagram
B. C++
C. OOP+
D. VHDL

Q11. Very often relays and valves are connected to:

A. Input modules
B. Output modules
C. Any of these

Q12. Normally open contacts are open when:

A. When Input is not energized
B. When the input is energized
C. When input is higher than 20 volts
D. None of these

Q13.Typical examples of inputs to PLC are:

A. Switches
B. LDVT
C. Potentiometer
D. All of these

Q14. NOR has output 1 when:

A. Both inputs are 1
B. First input is 1, Second is 0
C. First input is 0, Second is 1
D. Both inputs are 0

Q15. BOOL tag in Programmable logic controller:

A. Represents timer memory
B. Is used for PID control functons
C. Holds true or false values
D. None of these

Q16. PLCs that have a fixed amount of I/O capability built into the unit are known as:
A. Rack PLCs
B. Monolithic PLCs
C. Modular PLCs
D. None of these

Q17. Colored contact in PLC ladder diagram indicates:

A. Closed contact
B. Open contact
C. Any of these
D. None of these

Q18. Who has known as the Father of PLC?

A. Steve Jobs
B. Bill Gates
C. Dick Morley
D. None of these

Q19. Relay consisting of ____________

A. Only Coil Part

B. Only Contact Part
C. 1 & 2 both
D. None of these
Q20. The Programming line known as uses in LADDER Logic for PLC?
A. Wrong
B. Rung
C. Right
D. None of these

Q21. Abbreviate SFC?

A. Sequential Function Charts
B. Serial Function Charts
C. Short Function Charts
D. None of these

Q22. How many possible stages an input can have in LADDER Logic?
A. Two
B.One
C. Three
D.None of these

Q23. Identify this address “192.168.0.1”?

A. ip address
B. subnet mask address
C. cpu module address
D. none of these

Q24. A Toggle Switch is a type _____________ _.

A. Digital Device
B. Analog Device
C. Both 1 & 2
D. None of these

Q25. In On-Delay Timer” delays turning on” means

A. delaying the input to get activate
B. delaying the output to get activate
C. Both 1 & 2
D. None of these

Q26. BCD means?

A. Bit Coded Decimal
B. Binary Coded Decimal
C. Byte Coded Decimal
D. None of these

Q27. A Inductive Sensors senses .

A. Only Metal
B. Only Non-Metal
C. Both Metal & Non-Metal
D. None of these

Q27. A Capacitive Sensors senses ____________ _.

A. Only Metal
B. Only Non-Metal
C. Both Metal & Non-Metal
D. None of these

Q28. A Capacitive Sensor depends upon the of the sensing material.

A. Di-Electric Constant
B.Permitivity
C. Both 1 & 2
D. None of these

Q29. Abbreviate TTL?

A. Transistor Thyristor Logic
B. Transistor Transistor Logic
C. Transistor Triac Logic
D. None of these

Q30. Which is/are mode normally present in the CPU module of the PLC unit?

A. RUN-Mode
B.STOP-Mode
C. Both RUN & STOP Mode
D. None of these

Q31. One cycle through the program in a PLC unit is called a __________ _.
A. Period Time
B. Scan Time
C. Cycle Time
D. None of these
Q32. According to Module, How many most essential components are present in the PLC
Unit?
A. 3
B.5
C. 4
D. None of these

Q33. The Scan Time of the PLC is approximately .

A. 1/100th of a second
B. 1/1000th of a second
C. 1/10000th of a second
D. None of these

Q34. Normally the current range of the analog input card is __________.
A. 0 to 10 ma
B. 0 to 20 ma
C. 0 to 40 ma
D. None of these

Q35. For larger PLC, normally the input cards contain numbers of input.
A. 4 or 8
B. 8 or 16
C. 16 or 32
D. None of these

Q36. Which one of these in not a type of PLC?

A. PAC
B. RTU
C. OME
D. None of these

Q37. Abbreviate PAC?

A. Programmable Automatic Control

B. Programmable Automatic Controllers
C. Programmable Automation Controllers
D. None of these

Q38. A typically small sized PLC contain Input/Output.

A. 512
B. 500
C. 1024
D. None of these

Q40. Which one of these considered as the Large sized PLC?

A. S7-300
B. S7-500
C. S7-400
D. None of these
 GOKHALEEDUCATIONSOCIETIE’S
R.H.SAPATCOLLEGEOFENGINEERING,MANAGEMENTSTUDIES&RESEA
RCH NASHIK
Department of Electrical Engineering (2020-21)

PLC Unit -1,2& 3 Question bank

1 )The acronym PLC stands for:

(A)Pressure Load Control

(B) Programmable Logic Controller
(C) Pneumatic Logic Capstan
(D) PID Loop Controller
(E) Pressure Loss Chamber

2) Automation is required in _________ industries

a) Manufacturing

b) packaging

c) Machining

d) All of the above

3) PLC was introduced in year ______

a) 1955

b) 1980

c) 1968

d) None of the above

 4. The Advantage of PLC are

a) Setup cost is high

b) requires skillful workforce

c) Re programmable

d) All of the above

5. In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time in which …..

(A) the technician enters the program

(B) timers and counters are indexed by
(C) one “rung” of ladder logic takes to complete
(D) the entire program takes to execute
(E) transmitted data communications must finish

6. The Benefit of automation are

a)Improved worker safety

b)Increased production output

c) Reduced direct human labor costs and expenses.

d) All of the Above

7. Select the correct statement from given option

1. Compact PLC has fixed number of I/O modules

2. Modular PLC has fixed number of I/O modules

 3. Both Above Statements are correct

4. None of the above

8. A typical block diagram of PLC consists :

a)Power Supply Module

b)Central Processing Unit (CPU)
c) Input & Output Module
d) All of the above

9. Input modules are used for interfacing between_________ devices and processor

a) Input devices
b) Output devices
c) Both
d) None of the above

10.Which one of the following is not a PLC manufacturer

a. Siemens

b. Mitsubishi

c. Microsoft

d. ABB

11. An example of discrete (digital) control is:

a. Varying the volume of a music system

b. Turning a lamp ON or OFF

c. Varying the brightness of a lamp

 d. Controlling the speed of a fan

12. Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to:

a. Analog output

b. Digital output

c. Analog input

d. Digital input

13. Examples of discrete output devices are ________

a ) LED

b) Pilot lamp

c) Motor starter

d) All of these

14. The examples of Temperature sensors are

a) strain gauge

b) bourdon tube

c) Thermocouple

d) All of these
 15. Capacitive proximity sensors can detect_________

a) only metallic targets

b) onlynon metallic targets

c) detect both metallic and non-metallic targets

d) None of the above

16. In Incremental encoder , if A leads B then the disk is rotating in

a) clockwise direction
b) anticlockwise direction
c) both clockwise as well as anticlockwise
d) none of the above.

17. A solenoid is an example of an output device.

a. True

b. False

c. None of the above

17. Limit switch operates when the object comes in physical contact with it
a) True
b) False
c) None of the above

18. Actuators are mechanical devices that convert

 a) Motion of energy c) Energy into motion
b) Energy into motion d) Both a & B

19. pneumatic actuators are_____ expensive to purchase than hydraulic or

electric device

a) More
b) Less
c) None of the above

20. In PLC programming, a retentive function is one that:

a) Defaults to the “on” state
b) Comes last in the program
c) Defaults to the “off” state
d) Cannot be edited or deleted
e) Is not reset after a power cycle

21. Ladder logic programming consists primarily of:

a) Virtual relay contacts and coils

b) Logic gate symbols with connecting lines
c) Function blocks with connecting lines
d) Text-based code
e) Hieroglyphics

22. An OR function implemented in ladder logic uses:

a)Normally-closed contacts in series

b) Normally-open contacts in series
c) A single normally-closed contact
d) Normally-open contacts in parallel
e) Normally-closed contacts in parallel
 23. The difference between online and offline PLC programming is . . .

(A) whether the PLC is running or stopped

(B) whether the programming PC has internet connectivity

(C) the type of programming cable used

(D) where the edited program resides

(E) the type of programmer used

24. Programming Language of PLC is _________

a) Functional block diagram

b) Statement List
c) Ladder
d) All of the above

25. The types of PLC timers are

a)ON-delay timer

b)OFF-delay timer

c) retentive timer on.

d) All of the above

26. The PLC function used to count the number of cans on a conveyor belt is

A) Timer
 B) Counter
C) Memory
D) None of the above

27. Whenever there is a pulse at the input of the CTU block, it will
________theaccumulator value by 1.

a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Both
d) None of the above

28. What is the largest integer number that a PLC counter function can reach
if it uses a 16 bit register?

A) 32,768
B) 65,535
C) 65,536
D) 65,537
E) 32,767

29. The Boolean representation of this PLC program is:

(A) ABC + D(B) C + (A + B)D(C) C + D(A + B)
(D) ABC + BD(E) C(AB + D)
 PLC & Automation
Unit 2: Transmitters and Signal Conditioning
1. The output voltage of thermocouple is very small, typically less than ______
A]50 mv b]100mv c]10mv
2. Industrial thermocouple using thick wire have time constant _________
A]30 t0 50 s b] 10 to 20 s c]100s
3. A thermocouple made from very small guage wire have a time constant ________
A]30 t0 50 ms b] 10 to 20 ms c]100ms

4. RTD has response time of _______ s or more.

A]0.5 to5 b]1to4 c]5 to 10

5. The principle behind RTD is, metal resistance increases with ________ in
temperature.
A]increase b]decrease c]constant
6. Radio transmitter is an electronic device which, with the aid of an antenna,
produces ____________waves
A]micro b]radio c]infrared

7. In industrial process control a __________ is a telemetry device which converts

measurements from a sensor into a signal, and sends it to control device located a
distance away
A]transducer b]sensor c]transmitter
8. _____________ can convert analog signals to digital signals (A/D), making
communication swift and easy and can even send both analog and digital signals at
the same time as denoted by D/A.
A]transducer b]sensor c]transmitter
9. If a temperature transmitter is a smart transmitter, it will accept ________ signals from
thermocouples and resistance signals from resistance temperature devices (RTDs),
and thermistors.
A]ampere b]millivolt c]ohm

10. A transmitter's gain, that is the ratio of the output of the transmitter to the input signal,
is constant regardless of its output.
A]feedback b]input c]output

1) Output of smart sensors will of ________________

a) Analog
b) Digital
c) Analog and digital
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Output of smart sensor is taken from the processor and they are of digital
value.
2). Signal conditioning is carried out in ______________
a) Transducer housing
b) Processor
c) Network interface
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Signal conditioning of smart sensors is carried out inside of transducer
housing.
4. Input signal to smart sensor is fed from _____________
a) Power supply
b) Transducer
c) Volt meter
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Input to the smart sensor is fed from transducer measuring input value.
9. Input data of smart sensor will be _____________
a) Analog
b) Digital
c) Analog and digital
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Input quantity of smart sensor is the analog quantity which is converted to
digital.
10. Which of the following represents network bus?
a) Instrumentation contact
b) Field instrumentation bus
c) Data bus
d) Bit line contact
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Network bus in a smart sensor is also known as field instrumentation bus.

1. Which of the following is a component used in air generation system?

a. pressure switch
b. pressure gauge
c. drier
d. intercooler
Ans: c
2. What is difference between regulator and pressure switch?

a. regulator operates at set value pressure while pressure switch operates with slight
fluctuation in pressure
b. pressure switch operates at set value pressure while regulator operates with slight
fluctuation in pressure
Ans: a
3. Select the correct standard symbols for the hydraulic elements given below.

Hydraulic elements

1. check valve
2. hydraulic motor
3. shut-off valve
4. pneumatic motor

Standard symbols

A.
B.

D.

a. 1-C 2-A 3-B 4-D

b. 1-A 2-C 3-B 4-D
c. 1-B 2-D 3-A 4-C
d. 1-A 2-D 3-B 4-C
Ans: c

4. Mass of water vapour in unit volume of air is known as

a. relative humidity
b. absolute humidity
c. saturation quantity
d. none of the above
Ans: a

5. Select the correct order of process occurring in pneumatic system

a.

b.

c.

d. none of the above

Ans: c

6. Which of the following systems generate more energy when used in industrial
applications?

a. hydraulic systems
b. pneumatic systems
c. both systems generate same energy
d. cannot say
Ans: a
7. Why is an ac power not required in the remote areas or locations for operation purpose of
two-wire transmitter?
a. transmission power is lowered upto 4-20mA current output signal

b. transmission power is lowered upto 1-4 mA current output signal

c. transmission power is lowered upto 1-10 mA current output signal

d. two-wire transmitters do not operate in remote areas

Ans: a

8. How does the appearance of any noise rather than the electrical noise that intrude in the
current output signal of two-wire transmitter get eliminated ?

a. by common-mode rejection of transmitting device

b. by common-mode rejection of interfacing device
c. by common-mode rejection of receiving device
d. none of the above
Ans: c

9. The remote mounting feature of two-wire transmitter near the sensor reduces the effects of
_________

a. Noise
b. Signal Degradation
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Ans: c

10. Which characteristics play a significant role in increasing the current flow continuously
with the reduction in resistance until the heat dissipation of thermistor becomes exactly equal
to the value of power supply?

a. Voltage -Time Characteristics

b. Current-Time Characteristics
c. Resistance Temperature Characteristics
d. Self-Heat Characteristics
Ans: d

11. Which bridge is utilized in signal conditioning circuits for balancing purpose?

a. Maxwell Bridge
b. Wheatstone Bridge
c. Wein Bridge
d. Kelvin Bridge
Ans: b

12. Resistance temperature detector is ___________

a) a electrical transducer
b) a mechanical transducer
c) a chemical transducer
d) a physical transducer
Ans: a

13. Relation between temperature and resistance of a conductor is ________

a) Rt = Rref [1+t]
b) Rt = Rref [1+α∆t]
c) Rt = Rref [1-αt]
d) Rt = Rref [1-t]
Ans: b

14. Sensing element in the thermometer must provide ________

a) small change in resistance
b) no change in resistance
c) large change in resistance
d) infinite change in resistance
Ans: c

15. Platinum is used for industrial applications because ________

a) it is cheap
b) it is available readily
c) it is a noble metal
d) it gives accurate measurements
Ans: d

16. If the sensing element is large, then less amount of heat is required.
a) True
b) False
Ans: b
17. Most metallic conductors have a ________
a) neutral temperature coefficient of resistance
b) negative temperature coefficient of resistance
c) positive temperature coefficient of resistance
d) zero temperature coefficient of resistance
Ans: c

18. In a temperature sensing element ________

a) low value of α is required
b) infinite value of α is required
c) α must be zero
d) high value of α is required
Ans: d

19. Nickel and its alloys can be used over a temperature range of ________
a) 100 to 450 K
b) 10 to 50 K
c) 0 to 25 K
d) 5 to 15 K
Ans: a

20. How can corrosion be prevented in a resistance thermometer?

a) by immersing the setup in oil
b) by enclosing the elements in a glass tube
c) by using guard rings
d) by painting the elements
Ans: b

21. Identify the thermocouple type with the highest temperature limit from those listed here:
(A)Type J
(B) Type K
(C) Type S
(D) Type T
(E) Type E

Ans: C

22. The negative lead of a thermocouple is always colored:

(A) Blue
(B) Yellow
(C) Red
(D) White
(E) Black

Ans: C

23. The most rugged temperature sensing element listed here is a/an:
(A) Thermocouple
(B) Orifice plate
(C) RTD
(D) Filled bulb
(E) Fire eye

Ans: A

An electronic controller creates a 4 to 20mA dc signal that must

actuate a steam valve for temperature control. The best and most
economical choice would be to :
a. Use an all-electric actuator system
b. Convert to a pneumatic signal at the controller and use a pneumatic
actuator.
c. Use pneumatic actuator with an electric to pneumatic valve positioner
d. None of the above
 PLC

Question 1
The acronym PLC stands for:
(A) Pressure Load Control
(B) Programmable Logic Controller
(C) Pneumatic Logic Capstan
(D) PID Loop Controller
(E) Pressure Loss Chamber
Answer : B
Question 2
Ladder logic programming consists primarily of:
(A) Virtual relay contacts and coils
(B) Logic gate symbols with connecting lines
(C) Function blocks with connecting lines
(D) Text-based code
(E) Hieroglyphics
Answer : A
Question 3
In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time in which …..
(A) the technician enters the program
(B) timers and counters are indexed by
(C) one “rung” of ladder logic takes to complete
(D) the entire program takes to execute
(E) transmitted data communications must finish
Answer : D
Question 4
Identify the problem in this motor control PLC program:

(A) Coil
(B) Start contact
(C) Seal-in contact
(D) Stop contact
(E) Power source
Answer : C
Question 5
The Boolean representation of this PLC program is:

(A) ABC + D
(B) C + (A + B)D
(C) C + D(A + B)
(D) ABC + BD
(E) C(AB + D)
Answer : E
Question 6
The difference between online and offline PLC programming is . . .
(A) whether the PLC is running or stopped
(B) whether the programming PC has internet connectivity
(C) the type of programming cable used
(D) where the edited program resides
(E) the type of programmer used
Answer : D
Question 7
In PLC programming, a retentive function is one that:
(A) Defaults to the “on” state
(B) Comes last in the program
(C) Defaults to the “off” state
(D) Cannot be edited or deleted
(E) Is not reset after a power cycle
Answer : E
Question 8
What is the largest integer number that a PLC counter function can reach if it uses a 16
bit register?
(A) 32,768
(B) 65,535
(C) 65,536
(D) 65,537
(E) 32,767
Answer : B
Question 9
An OR function implemented in ladder logic uses:
(A) Normally-closed contacts in series
(B) Normally-open contacts in series
(C) A single normally-closed contact
(D) Normally-open contacts in parallel
(E) Normally-closed contacts in parallel
Answer : D
Question 10
A good application for a timed interrupt in a PLC program would be:
(A) A communications function block
(B) A PID function block
(C) A math function block
(D) A motor start/stop rung
(E) A “watchdog” timer
Answer : B

1. The PLC was invented by.

a) Bill Gates
b) Dick Morley
c) Bill Landis
d) Tod Cunningham
2. The first company to build PLCs was .
a) General Motors
b) Allen Bradley
c) Square D
d) Modicon
3. Classify the following as automatic control, manual control, discrete control or
continuous control.
a) A sensor is used to turn on and off the lights of a room.
b) A temperature sensor is used to adjust the room temperature and maintain it at a set point.
c) A user starts the bottle filling machine, places the bottle on the conveyor belt to fill it with the
required liquid.
d) The luggage system at the airport.
e) A factory that makes red pens and has no human employees.
Answer :

4. The part that monitors the inputs and makes decisions in a PLC is the CPU.
a. True
b. False
c. None of the above
5. One of the following is an input device
a. Motor
b. Light
c. Valve
d. Sensor
6. Which one of the following is not a PLC manufacturer
a. Siemens
b. Mitsubishi
c. Microsoft
d. ABB
7. Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to:
a. Analog output
b. Digital output
c. Analog input
d. Digital input
8. In a PLC “I” is used for output and “Q” is used for input
a. True
b. False
c. None of the above
9. PLC stands for programmable logo controller
a. True
b. False
c. None of the above
10. To increase the number of inputs and outputs of the PLC, one can use expansion
modules.
a. True
b. False
c. None of the above
11. An example of discrete (digital) control is:
a. Varying the volume of a music system
b. Turning a lamp ON or OFF
c. Varying the brightness of a lamp
d. Controlling the speed of a fan
12. A solenoid is an example of an output device.
a. True
b. False
c. None of the above
13. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) The PLC rung output [-( )-] is a discrete output instruction or bit in memory.
b) Each rung of the ladder logic represents a logical statement executed in software – inputs on
the right and outputs on the left.
c) Input and output instructions in ladder logic do not directly represent the switches and
actuators.
d) PLC input instructions are logical symbols associated with voltage at the input module
terminals.
14. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Ladder logic is a PLC graphical programming technique introduced in the last 10 years.
b) A ladder logic program is hard to analyze because it is totally different when compared with
the equivalent relay logic solution.
c) The number of ladder logic virtual relays and input and output instructions is limited
only by memory size.
d) The number of contacts for a mechanical relay is limited to number of coils on the relay.
15. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) The status of each input can be checked from one location and outputs can be forced on and
off.
b) All symbols in the RLL represent actual components and contacts present in the control
system.
c) PLCs are not as reliable as electromechanical relays in RLL.
d) Input (-| |-) and output (- ( ) -) instruction symbols in the ladder logic represent only data
values stored in PLC memory.
16. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) If a problem in a PLC module occurs, the module can be changed in a matter of minutes
without any changes in wiring.
b) Outputs can be paralleled on the same rung.
c) The physical wires between the input and output field devices and the PLC input and output
modules are the only signal wires required in the PLC system.
d) The cost and size of PLCs have increased significantly in the last 10 years.
17. Which of the following statements about a single pole double throw relay is NOT true?
a) It is called an SPDT type of relay.
b) It has one common contact.
c) It has two positions (NC and NO).
d) It has a center off position.
18. Which of the following statements about a single pole double throw relay is true?
a) Insulators are used in the armature to isolate the electrical switching contacts from the rest of
the relay components.
b) The NC contact and the pole are in contact when the relay is off.
c) It has just one coil.
d) All of the above.
19. Which of the following statements about RLL is NOT true?
a) NO contact symbol has two parallel lines to indicate an open contact.
b) RLL stands for Relay Ladder Logic.
c) NC contact symbol has the same two parallel lines with a line across them to indicate closed
contacts.
d) The right power rail is positive or the high side of the source, and the left power rail is
the power return or ground.
20. The _____ is moved toward the relay electromagnet when the relay is on.
a) Armature
b) Coil
c) NO contact
d) NC contact
21. When a relay is NOT energized:
a) There is an electrical path through the NO contacts
b) There is an electrical path through the NC contacts
c) Neither the NO or the NC contacts have an electrical path
d) Both the NO and the NC contacts have an electrical path
22. Which of the following RLL applications is not normally performed in early
automation systems?
a) On/off control of field devices
b) Logical control of discrete devices
c) On/off control of motor starters
d) Proportional control of field devices
23. Current flows into the _____
a) Input terminal of a sinking DC input module
b) Input terminal of a sinking output field device
c) Output terminal of a sinking input field device
d) All of the above
24. In a current sinking DC input module _____
a) The current flows out of the input field device
b) Requires that a AC sources be used with mechanical switches
c) The current flows out of the input module
d) Currents can flow in either direction at the input module
25. AC output field devices can interface to _____

a) AC output modules
b) Relay output modules
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a or b
26. What one item in the output module circuit above should be changed to make it
correct.

a) The battery polarity

b) Output module should be sourcing
c) Field device should be sinking
d) Current flow direction
27. What one item in the input module circuit above should be changed to make it correct.
a) The battery polarity
b) Input module should be sinking
c) Field device should be sinking
d) Current flow direction
28. When _____ contacts are actuated, they disrupt the power supply through them.
a. normally open type
b. normally closed type
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above
29. The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data which are
immediately required for use is called as______.
a. HDD
b. ROM
c. RAM
d. SSD
30. How is the speed of operation of conventional relay system as compared to digital
controllers?
a. very slow
b. very fast
c. same
d. almost similar
31. The capability of convention relay systems for complex operations is ____ that of the
PLCs .
a. poor than
b. excellent than
c. as good as
d. unpredictable as
32. How is the noise immunity of PLCs to electrical noises as compared to that of
conventional relay controllers?
a. poor
b. excellent
c. as good as noise immunity of conventional relay controllers
d. unpredictable
33. _____ of PLCs can be done in very little time.
a. Programming
b. Installation
c. Commissioning
d. All of the above
34. PLC can be _____ in plant to change the sequence of operation.
a. only programmed
b. only reprogrammed
c. programmed and reprogrammed
d. able to give a set point
35. The PLC is used in _______.
a. machine tools
b. automated assembly equipment
c. moulding and extrusion machines
d. all of the above
36. Which of the following can be the output of PLC?
1. Relay coils
2. Solenoids
3. Indicators
4. Motors
5. Lamps
6. Alarms
Select correct option
a. Only (1), (2), (3) and (4)
b. Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)
c. Only (1), (2), (3) and (5)
d. All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)
37. Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?
a. Manual switches
b. Relays c. Sensors
d. None of the above
1) When ___________ contacts are actuated, they disrupt the power supply through them.

a. normally open type

b. normally closed type
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: normally closed type

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

2) The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data which are immediately
required for use is called as______.

a. HDD
b. ROM
c. RAM
d. SSD
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: RAM

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

3) How is the speed of operation of conventional relay system as compared to digital

controllers?

a. very slow
b. very fast
c. same
d. almost similar
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: very slow

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

4) The capability of convention relay systems for complex operations is ___________ that of
the PLCs .

a. poor than
b. excellent than
c. as good as
d. unpredictable as
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: poor than

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

5) How is the noise immunity of PLCs to electrical noises as compared to that of conventional
relay controllers?

a. poor
b. excellent
c. as good as noise immunity of conventional relay controllers
d. unpredictable
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: poor

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

6) __________ of PLCs can be done in very little time.

a. Programming
b. Installation
c. Commissioning
d. All of the above
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: All of the above

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

7) PLC can be ___________ in plant to change the sequence of operation.

a. only programmed
b. only reprogrammed
c. programmed and reprogrammed
d. able to give a set point
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: programmed and reprogrammed

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

8) The PLC is used in _______.

a. machine tools
b. automated assembly equipment
c. moulding and extrusion machines
d. all of the above
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: all of the above

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

9) Which of the following can be the output of PLC?

1. Relay coils
2. Solenoids
3. Indicators
4. Motors
5. Lamps
6. Alarms

a. Only (1), (2), (3) and (4)

b. Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)
c. Only (1), (2), (3) and (5)
d. All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
10) Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?

a. Manual switches
b. Relays
c. Sensors
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: None of the above

1.The most popular language for PLCs is:

1. Ladder diagram
2. C++
3. OOP+
4. VHDL
Correct answer: 1. Ladder diagram

2.Very often relays and valves are connected to:

1. Input modules
2. Output modules
3. Any of these
Correct answer: 2. Output modules

3.SCADA stands for:

1. Supervisory Computer And Data Analog
2. Supervisory Computer And Data Acquisition
3. Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition
4. Supervisory Control And Data Aspiration
Correct answer: 3. Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition
PLC MCQ#4
Statement 1: The instance data block is assigned to logical block
Statement 2: Shared data block is never assigned to logical block
1. Both statements are incorrect
2. Statement 1 is correct, 2 is wrong
3. Statement 2 is correct, 1 is wrong
4. Both statements are correct
Correct answer: 4. Both statements are correct

5.Normally open contacts are open when:

1. When Input is not energized
 2. When the input is energized
3. When input is higher than 20 volts
4. None of these
Correct answer: 1. When Input is not energized

6.Typical examples of inputs to SCADA are:

1. Switches
2. LDVT
3. Potentiometer
4. All of these
Correct answer: 4. All of these

7.NOR has output 1 when:

1. Both inputs are 1
2. First input is 1, Second is 0
3. First input is 0, Second is 1
4. Both inputs are 0
Correct answer: 1. Both inputs are 1

8.BOOL tag in Programmable logic controller:

1. Represents timer memory
2. Is used for PID control functons
3. Holds true or false values
4. None of these
Correct answer: 3. Holds true or false values

9.PLCs that have a fixed amount of I/O capability built into the unit are known as:
1. Rack PLCs
2. Monolithic PLCs
3. Modular PLCs
4. None of these
Correct answer: 2. Monolithic PLCs

10.Colored contact in PLC ladder diagram indicates:

1. Closed contact
2. Open contact
3. Any of these
4. None of these
Correct answer: 1. Closed contact

1. Instructions available in PLCs can be grouped in two categories: and

instructions.

a) basic ladder _ enhanced ladder

b) basic ladder and simple ladder

c) enhanced ladder _relational ladder

2. is a method of entering ladder logic representation.

a) Segment programming

b) TINT

c) Boolean mnemonics

3. A ladder diagram is composed of each controlling .

a) one or more rungs _a JSR

b) one or more rungs _one output

c) only one rung _ one output

4. Ladder contacts can be programmed in:

a) Both answers are true.

b) series-parallel

c) series or parallel

5. Select the incorrect answer. One-shot outputs may be triggered by either the or the
of the signal.
a) leading edge_ trailing edge

b) Input edge _ Output edge

c) rising edge _ falling edge

6. If you want reverse power flow to be present in a rung you must program a

a) Reverse path that implements the reverse flow.

 b) Forward path that implements the reverse flow.

c) use reverse logic

7. is a method used to observe the operation or execution of a control program one

time.
a) Step scan

b) Test rung scan

c) Single scan

8. The L2 rail side of an electromechanical circuit is represented by .

a) the left side of the rail

b) The right side of the ladder rung.

c) sub-script lettering with arrows

9. PLC instructions .

a) Uses the same symbols as relay logic.

b) were copied using the original relay instructions

c) Were added to the original relay instructions to make PLCs more powerful.

10. Timers may have one or more for their reference timing.

a) time bases

b) analog outputs

c) unlatch inputs

11. Timers and counters use what is known as a (n) and a (n) to hold the target
value and the accumulated value.
a) holding count _ target holder

b) EN bit _ DN bit

c) pre-set register¬_ accumulated register

12. Counters can have outputs that turn ON when the accumulated count the pre- set
count.
a) both answers are correct

b) is equal to or less than

c) is greater than

13. Program/flow control instructions are used whenever you want to .

a) run some control modules

b) branch or divert execution of the program

c) stop the control program

14. Which of the following is not a typical flow control instruction:

a) REROUTE

b) GO SUB

c) MCR

15. An overflow condition signalled by an output coil means that .

a) the operation is complete and correct

b) the result is available for another operation

c) the result is greater than the maximum value that can be held in the result
register

16. In general double-precision arithmetic instructions use as compared to single

precision Instructions.
a) more registers

b) less registers

c) the same number of registers

17. After a power failure a retentive timer’s .

 a) Accumulated value stored is retained.

b) Pre-set value is kept but not the accumulated value.

c) Automatically resets when the power comes back on.

18. A GO TO instruction .

a) Simply transfers flow control execution to another rung.

b) Replaces an “END” instruction.

c) Always GOTO rung 1in the MAIN program.

19. Ladder format arithmetic instructions are accompanied by .

a) Data transfer instructions- such as NOP instructions- to CLEAR two or more

registers.
b) Data transfer instructions-such as NOP instructions-to obtain the two operands.

c) Data transfer instructions-such as GET instructions- to obtain the two

operands.

20. Instructions allow you to manipulate or handle multi-bit operations.

a) Data sequencing.

b) Data movement

c) Data manipulation and handling

21. A logic matrix instruction performs what is known as a of one register to another.
a) Reversal operation

b) Transfer

c) Mask

22. If you wanted to initialize a variable at zero you would .

a) Connect it to a no voltage input

 b) Reassign the variable to another register

c) Assign a constant of 0 to the register

23. An examine bit instruction allow you to in a register.

a) Clear a bit

b) Put a one in a bit location

c) Check a bit location

24. A instruction moves 16 bits from one location to another.

a) Move register

b) Move bit

c) Move block

25. The two table move instructions available in a PLC are .

a) Table to memory and memory to table

b) Table to register and register to table

c) Table to memory and table to register

26. A block transfer instruction is designed to be used with a I/O module.

a) Multi-bit

b) single bit

c) remote

27. When a block transfer in is used to read several channels from an analog module the
values are placed in in memory.
a) the scratch pad

b) contiguous registers

c) the I/O table

28. An ASCII transfer instruction usually works hand in hand with an module.

a) ASCII communications

b) AC/DC input

c) Input non-voltage.

29. The FIFO transfer instruction stands for .

a) first-in first-out

b) fade-in fade-out

c) first-input first-output

30. SCADA is best described as

a) A maintenance methodology

b) A computer

c) A PLC

d) A type of software

31. SCADA is an acronym for

a) Supervisory Class A Data Acquisition

b) Super Computer and Digital Analysis

c) Supervisory Computer Data Acquisition

d) Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition

32. SCADA is basically an HMI (Human Machine Interface).

a) False

b) True

33. Best answer: The brand of SCADA software chosen is based on

 a) All the statements are false

b) Country and industry type and size of facility and other factors

c) Industry type

d) Size of facility

e) Country

34. In today’s automation control world

a) PLCs do the bulk of the machine control

b) SCADA does the bulk of the machine control

c) Neither only relays control machines

35. Data Acquisition part of SCADA is

a) Trending

b) Alarm logging

c) Logging

d) Message logging

e) All of the answers here are correct

36. Generally the 3 types of logging are cyclic driven, driven, and a hybrid of both.

a) Mechanically

b) Relay

c) Trigger

d) Timer

e) Event
 CTTC, KOLKATA
Subject name: PLC

Q.1 How many types of current flows through an electrical circuit?

1.1 2.2
3.3 4. None of these
ANS-2

Q.2 According to PLC device signal module has __________

1.3 parts 2.5 parts

3.2 parts 4.None of these

ANS-3

Q.3 Current travels in closed circuits through__________

1. Conductors 2.5 Insulators

3.1 & 2 both 4.None of these
ANS-1

Q.4 Abbreviate PCB?

1. Printed circuit base

2. Printed circuit board
3. Plane circuit board
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.5 ____________is put on wires to prevent shock

1. Soil 2. Metals
3. Rubber & Plastic 4.None of these

ANS-3

Q.6 Abbreviate BF signal in PLC?

1. Bus Fault
2. Break fault
 3. Bit fault
4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.7 PPE stands for?

1. Personal Protective Equipment

2. Pure Protective Equipment
3. Personal Prospective Equipment
4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.8 Who has known as the Father of PLC?

1. Steve Jobs
2. Bill Gates
3. Dick Morley
4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.9 What is the name of the first PLC made by Bedford Associates of Bedford?

1. MODICON-184
2. MODICON-284
3. MODICON-084
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.10 what is the significance behind the product code “84” for the first PLC made by Bedford
Associates?

1. The year it was invented

2. Number of attempts
3. Number of persons worked for
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.11 Relay consisting of ____________

1. Only Coil Part 2.Only Contact Part

3.1 & 2 both 4.None of these
ANS-3
Q.12 The Programming line known as________uses in LADDER Logic for PLC?

1. Wrong 2.Rung
3. Right 4.None of these

ANS-2

Q.13 Abbreviate SFC?

1. Sequential Function Charts

2. Serial Function Charts
3. Short Function Charts
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.14 how many possible stages an input can have in LADDER Logic?

1. Two 2.One
3. Three 4.None of these

ANS-1

Q.15 What do you mean by “NO” contact using for Input in LADDER Logic?

1. Normally Operative
2. Normally Open
3. Not Operative
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.16 What do you mean by “NC” contact using for Input in LADDER Logic?

1. No Contact
2. Normally Contact
3. Normally Close
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.17 Which one of these is not a input type?

 1. Switch 2.Sensor
3. Motor 4.None of these

ANS-3

Q.18 Abbreviate PLC?

1. Periodical Logical Control

2. Program Logic Control
3. Programmable Logic Controller
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.19 Materials that permit flow of electrons are called_____________?

1. Insulators 2.Conductors
3. Both 1 & 2 4.None of these

ANS-2

Q.20 Which one of these permits the flow of electron?

1. Rubber 2.Teflon
3. Gold 4.None of these

ANS-3

Q.21 ___________is the most common material used to build semiconductor devices.

1. Silicon 2. Germanium
3. Boron 4.None of these

ANS-1

Q.22 In order to make useful semiconductor devices, which material/materials, is/are added
to Si to change its conductivity.

1. Only Phosphorus 2. Only Boron

3. Both 1 & 2 4.None of these

ANS-3

Q.23 Which is/are part of Signal module?

1. CPU313C 2. IM 153-1

3. DI16/DO16 4.All of the above

ANS-3

Q.24 full form of int-f signal on CPU?

1. Integer function

2. Internal fault

3. Initial focus

4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.25 Diode allows current to pass in__________direction.

1. One 2. Two
3. Both 4.None of these

ANS-1

Q.26 In a PN-Junction the P-side is called____________.

1. Cathode 2. Anode
3. Either One 4.None of these

ANS-2

Q.27 In a PN-Junction the N-side is called____________.

1. Anode 2. Cathode
3. Both 1 & 2 4.None of these

ANS-27

Q.28 When a Diode allows current to flow its in___________condition.

1. Reverse Biased 2.Forward Biased

3. Both 1 & 2 4.None of these

ANS-2

Q.29 Normally Diode is use as a_______________.

1. Inverter 2.Converter
3. Rectifier 4.None of these

ANS-3

Q.30 Identify this address “192.168.0.1”?

a. ip address

b. subnet mask address

c. cpu module address

d. none of these

ANS-A

Q. 31 Identify this address “255.255.0.1”?

1. Ip address

2. Subnet mask address

3. Cpu module address

4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.32 A Toggle Switch is a type________________.

1. Digital Device 2.Analog Device

3. Both 1 & 2 4.None of these

ANS-1

Q.33 Abbreviate DPST?

1. Dual Pole Single Throw

2. Double Pole Single Throw
3. Double Pole Start Throw
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.34 Which one of these is not a type of Toggle Switch?

1. SPCO 2.SPDT
3. Flush 4.All of the above

ANS-3

Q.35 A EMR (Relay) consist of____________.

1. Coil Part 2.Contact Part

3. Both Coil & Contact Part 4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.36 Abbreviate EMR (Relay)?

1. Electro Magnetic Relay

2. Electro Mechanical Relay
3. Electro Motive Relay
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.37 A Contactor consist of____________.

1. Fix Part 2.Moveable Part

3. Both Fix & Moveable Part 4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.38 A Auxiliary Contactor ____________.

1. Increases the contact part

2. Decreases the contact part
3. Enhance the coil strength
4. None of these

ANS-1

39. What is the meaning of “SR” flip flop?

1. System reset 2. set-reset

3. Set range 4. none of these

ANS-2

Q.40 In On-Delay Timer” delays turning on” means

1. delaying the input to get activate

2. delaying the output to get activate
3. Both 1 & 2
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.41 In Off-Delay Timer” delays turning off” means

1. delaying the input to get activate

2. delaying the output to get de-activate
 3. Both 1 & 2
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.42 BCD means?

1. Bit Coded Decimal

2. Binary Coded Decimal
3. Byte Coded Decimal
4. None of these

ANS-B

Q.43 1 Mili-Second (MS) =__________.

1. 1/10000th of a second
2. 1/1000th of a second
3. 1/100th of a second
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.44 A Inductive Sensors senses______________.

1. Only Metal
2. Only Non-Metal
3. Both Metal & Non-Metal
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.45 A Capacitive Sensors senses______________.

1. Only Metal
2. Only Non-Metal
3. Both Metal & Non-Metal
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.46 A Capacitive Sensor depends upon the_____________ of the sensing material.

1. Di-Electric Constant 2.Permitivity

3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of these

ANS-1
Q.47 Abbreviate TTL?

1. Transistor Thyristor Logic

2. Transistor Transistor Logic
3. Transistor Triac Logic
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.48 Abbreviate LED?

1. Light Emitting Diode

2. Liquid Emitting Diode
3. Liquid Emission Diode
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.49 Abbreviate CPU?

1. Central Peripheral Unit

2. Central Protecting Unit
3. Central Processing Unit
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.50 In a PLC unit I/O card communicate with the CPU Module by through______________

1. Back-Plane Unit
2. Adaptor Cable
3. PROFIBUS Cable
4. All of these above

ANS-1

Q.51 Which is/are mode normally present in the CPU module of the PLC unit?

1. RUN-Mode 2.STOP-Mode
3. Both RUN & STOP Mode 4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.52 One cycle through the program in a PLC unit is called a____________.

1. Period Time 2.Scan Time

 3. Cycle Time 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.53 According to Module, How many most essential components are present in the PLC Unit?

1. 3 2.5
3. 4 4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.54 __________considered as the brain of the PLC Unit.

1. Power Supply 2.I/O Module

3. CPU Module 4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.55 The Scan Time of the PLC is approximately_____________.

1. 1/100th of a second
2. 1/1000th of a second
3. 1/10000th of a second
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.56 Normally the current range of the analog input card is____________.

1. 0 to 10 ma
2. 0 to 20 ma
3. 0 to 40 ma
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.57 Abbreviate LVDT?

1. Linear Variable Differential Transmitter

2. Linear Voltage Differential Transformer
3. Linear Variable Differential Transformer
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.58 LVDT measures______________continuously using magnetic coupling.

 1. Angular displacement
2. Linear displacement
3. Both 1 & 2
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.59 NPN is considered as______________.

1. Sourcing 2.Sinking
3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.60 PNP is considered as______________.

1. Sinking 2. Sourcing
3. Either 1 or 2 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.61 For larger PLC, normally the input cards contain__________numbers of input.

1. 4 or 8 2. 8 or 16
3. 16 or 32 4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.62 Which one of these in not a type of PLC?

1. PAC 2. RTU
3. OME 4. None of these
ANS-3
Q.63 Abbreviate PAC?

1. Programmable Automatic Control

2. Programmable Automatic Controllers
3. Programmable Automation Controllers
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.64 According to the module PLC categorizes into____________types.

1. 4 2. 2
3. 3 4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.65 A typically small sized PLC contain___________Input/Output.

 1. 512 2. 500
3. 1024 4. None of these
ANS-2
Q.66 S7-300 normally called as____________sized PLC.

1. Large 2. Small
3. Medium 4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.67 Which one of these considered as the Large sized PLC?

1. S7-300 2. S7-500
3. S7-400 4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.68 Can a Standalone PLC able to provide networking?

1. Yes 2. No
3. Cannot say 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.69 Abbreviate PROFIBUS?

1. Program Field Bus

2. Process Field Bus
3. Process Fit Bus
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.70 Abbreviate PPI?

1. Port to Port Interface

2. Process to Process Interface
3. Point to Point Interface
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.71 PPI used for_____________.

1. S7-200 2. S7-300
3. S7-400 4. None of these

ANS-1
Q.72 Abbreviate MPI?

1. Memory Port Interface

2. Multi Point Interface
3. Modular PLC Interface
4. None of these
ANS-2
Q.73 MPI used for_____________.

1. S7-500 2. S7-300
3. S7-200 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.74 IFM stands for?

1. Intra-Face Module
2. Information Frequency Modulation
3. Inter-Facing Module
4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.75 IFM responsible for?

1. PC to PLC Communication
2. PLC to PLC Communication
3. PLC to Physical Load Communication
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.76 Typical (default) transmission speed of MPI is____________.

1. 157.5 Kbps 2. 187.5 Kbps

3. 287.5 Kbps 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.77 In “PROFIBUS-DP” DP stands for_______________.

1. Decentralize-Peripheral
2. Data-Peripheral
3. Driver-Peripheral
4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.78 In PROFIBUS-DP typical data transmission upto___________are possible.

1. 10 Mbps 2. 12 Mbps
3. 15 Mbps 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.79 “DB” stands for?

1. Data Block
2. Data Base
3. Data BUS
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.80 Abbreviate FEPROM?

1. Flash External Programmable Read Only Memory

2. Flash Electrical Programmable Read Only Memory
3. Flash Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.81 FB stands for?

1. Function Bit
2. Function Block
3. Function BUS
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.82 Abbreviate “STEP-7”?

1. Siemens Technical Education Program-7

2. Siemens Technical Electrical Program-7
3. Siemens Technical Erasable Program-7
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.83 OB stands for?

1. Organization Band
 2. Organization Block
3. Organization BUS
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.84 Abbreviate RAM?

1. Rare Access Memory

2. Random Access Memory
3. Read Access Memory
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.85 SFC stands for?

1. Serial Function Chart

2. Sequential Function Chart
3. Set Function Chart
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.86 Errors occurring during program execution in the PLC______________.

1. Execution Error
2. Runtime Error
3. Programming Error
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.87 Abbreviate TIA?

1. Totally Input Automation

2. Totally Industrial Automation
3. Totally Integrated Automation
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.88 Function Block Diagram (FBD) is a type of____________.

1. PLC Language 2. Block Diagram of a module

3. Block Diagram of a PLC model 4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.89 STL stands for?

1. Serial Task Language

2. Statement List
3. Serially Transferring the Load-value
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.90 Abbreviate CP?

1. Communication Processor
2. Communication Peripheral
3. Communication Properties
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.91 CAN BUS can be used for______________.

1. PC to PLC Communication
2. PLC to PLC Communication
3. Communication between different modules
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.92 IN “PROFIBUS-PA” PA stands for?

1. Process Automation
2. Process Automatically
3. Product Automatically
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.93 Which one these among having more data transfer rate capacity?

1. PROFIBUS 2. PROFINET
3. CAN BUS 4. MOD BUS

ANS-2

Q.94 Abbreviate IEC?

1. International Electro technical Commission

 2. Indian Electro technical Commission
3. Indian Electronics technical Commission
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.95 FC stands for?

1. Function Call 2. Function Chart

3. Function Create 4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.96 By creating a Project using Ladder Logic “HW Config” stands for?

1. Hardware Configuration
2. Highest-Word Configuration
3. Either 1 or 2
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.97 Which one of these is not a type of PLC Language?

1. LAD 2. FDB
3. STL 4. None of these

ANS-4

Q.98 In the Hardware Configuration page “UR” stands for?

1. Universal Rail
2. Universal Reserved
3. Un-Reserved Rail
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.99 In “SM 323 DI 16/DO16*24Vdc” SM stands for?

1. Signal Module 2. Signal Mode

3. Safe Mode 4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.100 The Software uses for the PLC Programming mentioned in the course is_______________.
 1. Soft-Master
2. Rockwell Automation
3. Simatic Manager
4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.101 In MOVE Block “EN” stands for?

1. Enable Block
2. Enable output
3. Enable Input
4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.102 In “CV_BCD” BCD stands for?

1. Binary Coded Decimal

2. Bit Coded Decimal
3. Byte Coded Decimal
4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.103 The maximum value a counter count less than___________.

1. 999 2. 1000
3. 996 4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.104 How many possible comparisons can be made in between two variables?

1. 6 2. 5
3. 4 4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.105 In Simatic Manager the Comparator could be of______________.

1. 16 Bit type
2. 32 Bit type
3. Both 16 and 32 Bit type
4. None of these
ANS-3
Q.106 Abbreviate RLO?
 1. Result of Logic Operation
2. Relay Logic Operation
3. Result of Logical Operand
4. None of these
ANS-1
Q.107 “---| |---“symbol stands for_______________

1. Output Coil (Address)

2. Normally Closed Contact (Address)
3. Normally Open Contact (Address)
4. None of these
ANS-3
Q.108 MCR stands for?

1. Minimum Control Relay

2. Maximum Control Relay
3. Master Control Relay
4. None of these
ANS-3
Q.109 The line used in Ladder Language Programming is known as_______________.

1. Rung 2. Wrong
3. Ring 4. None of these

ANS-1
Q.110 Which one of these is a symbol for Midline Output?

1. --- ( ) 2. ---(S)
3. --- (#) --- 4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.111 POS stands for?

1. Address Priority Edge Detection

2. Address Positive Edge Detection
3. Address Possible Edge Detection
4. None of these
ANS-2
Q.112 How many comparison instructions are available?
 1. 16 2. 18
3. 20 4. None of these
ANS-2

Q.113 In Counter Instruction “SC” stands for?

1. Set Count Value

2. Set Counter Value
3. Serial Counter Value
4. None of these
ANS-2

Q.114 “S_ODTS” is a type of________________.

1. On-Delay Timer
2. Retentive On-Delay Timer
3. Timer with Off-Delay Function
4. None of these
ANS-2

Q.115 The maximum time value that you can enter is_______________.

1. 9,990 seconds
2. 9,999 seconds
3. 10,000 seconds
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.115 In a Timer “BI” stands for?

1. Bit Integer
2. Binary Integer
3. Byte Integer
4. None of these
ANS-2
Q.116 “O(“ signifies that_______________.

1. Not with Nesting Open

2. Or with Nesting Open
3. ON with Nesting Open
 4. None of these
ANS-2
Q.117 In Comparator “D Compare Double Integer” is of_____________.

1. 16 Bit 2. 32 Bit
3. 64 Bit 4. None of these

Q.118 the “Statement List” instruction set supports______counters.

1. 255 2. 256
3. 260 4. None of these
ANS-2
Q.119 In “Statement List” instruction “LC” stands for?

1. Load Current Counter Value into ACCU 1 as BCD

2. Load Current Counter Value into ACCU 2 as BCD
3. Either 1 or 2
4. None of these
ANS-1
Q.120 The Ladder Logic instruction set supports__________timers.

1. 255 2. 256
3. 260 4. None of these
ANS-2

121.. Set-reset block is normally use for ?

A .inching operation b.latching

c .interlocking d. none of these

ANS- B

122. Analog to analog inverse conversion possible thorough?

a. move block b. subs tractor block

c. set rest block d. none of these

ANS-B

123. Analog to analog direct conversion possible thorough?

a. move block b. subs tractor block

c. set rest block d. none of these

ANS-A

124. Physical parameter like temp. ,speed ,prsessure value is consider as

a. integer b. double integer

c. real d. none of these

ANS-C

125. Why the plc-plc communication is needed?

a. to control the programming b. to control the no of field i/os.

c. to control the no of pc system d. none of these?

ANS-B

Thank you
 PLC & Automation
Unit 1: Process Control & Automation
1) __________is a set of technologies that results in operation of machines and systems
without significant human intervention and achieves performance superior to manual
operation

a] Control System b] Automation c]Mechatronics d]instrumentation

2) For studying detailed variations with time, one uses

a] indicator b] digital indicator c]integrator d]recorder

3) It is the variable which is manipulated to make the controlled variable at set point
value.
a] manipulated variable b] process variable c]control variable

4) It is that variable which is measured monitored and controlled?

a] manipulated variable b] process variable c]control variable

5) Any variable which is measured as a differential value with reference to some point.
a] manipulated variable b] process variable c]Across variable

6) __________is an interconnection of components forming a system configuration that

will provide a desired system response.
a] Control System b] Automation c] Mechatronics d]instrumentation

7) The _________ is a function which describes the process and provides the
information about other process parameters which influence the controlled variable.
a] Control System b] Automation c] process equation d]instrumentation

8) Whenever a process load change or transient occurs, it causes a change in the

controlled variable. The process control loop responds to this change to ensure that,
after some finite time the controlled variable reaches the setpoint. The part of this
time consumed by process itself is called __________.
a] Control lag b] Automation c] process equation d]process lag

9) The deviation of controlled variable from the setpoint is called________.

a] Control lag b] Automation c] error d]process lag

10) Control lag refers to the time for the process control loop to make necessary
adjustments
to the final control element.
1. What is the main objective of process control?
a) to control physical parameters
b) to control mechanical parameters
c) to control optical parameters
d) to control electrical parameters
Ans: a
2. What is a process control system?
a) system to keep the parameters at zero value
b) system to maintain the parameters constant
c) system to keep the parameters at highest value
d) system to check the voltage
Ans: b
3. Physical parameters change due to ________
a) voltage
b) current
c) internal and external disturbances
d) power
Ans: c
4. A process control system consists of ________
a) 10 elements
b) 6 elements
c) 2 elements
d) 4 elements
Ans: d
5. For proper feedback in a process control element, it is required to ________
a) measure P
b) measure set point
c) measure error
d) measure comparator
Ans: a
7. A transducer converts ________
a) mechanical quantity to electrical form
b) electrical quantity to physical form
c) physical quantity to electrical form
d) chemical quantity to physical form
Ans: c
8. An electrical transducer consists of ________
a) 4 parts
b) 6 parts
c) 8 parts
d) 2 parts
Ans: d
9. A transducer is part of a large circuit and produces the required output.
a) True
b) False
Ans: a
10. A programmable controller
a) Can be used on more than one machine during its lifetime
b) Can be reprogrammed in the field.
c) Requires considerable training before it can be used
d) (a) & (b) above
e) None of Above
Ans: d
11. What is a process variable?
a) A manipulated variable
b) A controlled variable
c) A process parameter that changes value
d) All of the above
e) None of Above
Ans: d
12. What is a process lag?
a) The time it takes for a sensor to respond to a change
b) The lag in error signal when its set point is changed
c) The time it takes for the mass of the process to respond to an input.
d) All of the above
e) None of the above
Ans: c
13. A servomechanism usually consist of
a) Error actuated signal
b) Power amplifier
c) Mechanical output
d) All of the above
Ans: d
14. Which of the following is an essential feature of servo-mechanism?
a) A closed loop system
b) A power amplifying stage
c) Ability to control position, velocity or acceleration of the system
d) All of the above
Ans: d
15. A servomechanism is a feedback control system required to control
a) Servo amplifiers and drives
b) Position
c) Some derivative of position
d) Either B or C
Ans: d
 Department of Electrical Engineering
Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and
Research Center, Nashik
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
Subject: PLC and SCADA
by
Dr. S. P. Sonar
1. One of the following is an input device
a. Motor

b. Light

c. Valve

d. Sensor
2. Which one of the following is not a PLC MANUFACTURER?
a. Siemens

b. Mitsubishi

c. Microsoft
d. ABB

3. Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to:

a. Analog output

b. Digital output
c. Analog input

d. Digital input

4. The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data which are immediately
required for use is called as______.
a. HDD

b. ROM

c. RAM
d. SSD

5. _____ of PLCs can be done in very little time.

a. Programming

b. Installation

c. Commissioning

d. All of the above

6. The PLC is used in _______.
a. machine tools

b. automated assembly equipment

c. moulding and extrusion machines

d. all of the above

7. Which of the following can be the output of PLC?
1. Relay coils

2. Solenoids

3. Indicators

4. Motors

5. Lamps

6. Alarms

Select correct option

a. Only (1), (2), (3) and (4)

b. Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)

c. Only (1), (2), (3) and (5)

d. All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)

8. Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?
a. Manual switches

b. Relays

c. Sensors

d. None of the above

9. The most popular language for PLCs is:

a. Ladder diagram
b. C++
c. OOP+
d. VHDL
10. PLCs that have a fixed amount of I/O capability built into the unit are known as:

a. Rack PLCs
b. Monolithic PLCs
c. Modular PLCs
d. None of these

11. In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time in which …..
a. the technician enters the program
b. timers and counters are indexed by
c. one “rung” of ladder logic takes to complete
d. the entire program takes to execute

12. Choose the basic element for an automated machine tool

a. logic
b. NC tape programming
c. software
d. workstation

13. The PLC was invented by.

a. Bill Gates

b. Dick Morley
c. Bill Landis

d. Tod Cunningham

14. The first company to build PLCs was .

a. General Motors

b. Allen Bradley

c. Square D

d. Modicon

15. An example of discrete (digital) control is:

a. Varying the volume of a music system

b. Turning a lamp ON or OFF

c. Varying the brightness of a lamp

d. Controlling the speed of a fan

16. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a. The PLC rung output [-( )-] is a discrete output instruction or bit in memory.
b. Each rung of the ladder logic represents a logical statement executed in software – inputs on
the right and outputs on the left.

c. Input and output instructions in ladder logic do not directly represent the switches and
actuators.

d. PLC input instructions are logical symbols associated with voltage at the input module
terminals.

17. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Ladder logic is a PLC graphical programming technique introduced in the last 10 years.
b. A ladder logic program is hard to analyze because it is totally different when compared with
the equivalent relay logic solution.

c. The number of ladder logic virtual relays and input and output instructions is limited
only by memory size.
d. The number of contacts for a mechanical relay is limited to number of coils on the relay.

18. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

a. The status of each input can be checked from one location and outputs can be forced on and
off.

b. All symbols in the RLL represent actual components and contacts present in the control
system.

c. PLCs are not as reliable as electromechanical relays in RLL.

d. Input (-| |-) and output (- ( ) -) instruction symbols in the ladder logic represent only data
values stored in PLC memory.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

a. If a problem in a PLC module occurs, the module can be changed in a matter of minutes
without any changes in wiring.

b. Outputs can be paralleled on the same rung.

c. The physical wires between the input and output field devices and the PLC input and output
modules are the only signal wires required in the PLC system.

d. The cost and size of PLCs have increased significantly in the last 10 years.
20. Which of the following statements about a single pole double throw relay is NOT true?
a. It is called an SPDT type of relay.

b. It has one common contact.

c. It has two positions (NC and NO).

d. It has a center off position.

21. Which of the following statements about a single pole double throw relay is true?
a. Insulators are used in the armature to isolate the electrical switching contacts from the rest of
the relay components.

b. The NC contact and the pole are in contact when the relay is off.

c. It has just one coil.

d. All of the above.

22. Which of the following statements about RLL is NOT true?
a).NO contact symbol has two parallel lines to indicate an open contact.

b. RLL stands for Relay Ladder Logic.

c. NC contact symbol has the same two parallel lines with a line across them to indicate closed
contacts.
d. The right power rail is positive or the high side of the source, and the left power rail is
the power return or ground.
23. The _____ is moved toward the relay electromagnet when the relay is on.
a. Armature
b. Coil

c. NO contact

d. NC contact

24. When a relay is NOT energized:

a. There is an electrical path through the NO contacts

b. There is an electrical path through the NC contacts

c. Neither the NO or the NC contacts have an electrical path

d. Both the NO and the NC contacts have an electrical path

25. Which of the following RLL applications is not normally performed in early automation
systems?
a. On/off control of field devices

b. Logical control of discrete devices

c. On/off control of motor starters

d. Proportional control of field devices

26. Current flows into the _____
a. Input terminal of a sinking DC input module

b. Input terminal of a sinking output field device

c. Output terminal of a sinking input field device

d. All of the above

27. In a current sinking DC input module _____
a. The current flows out of the input field device
b. Requires that a AC sources be used with mechanical switches

c. The current flows out of the input module

d. Currents can flow in either direction at the input module

28. What one item in the input module circuit above should be changed to make it correct.
a. The battery polarity

b. Input module should be sinking

c. Field device should be sinking

d. Current flow direction

29. When _____ contacts are actuated, they disrupt the power supply through them.
a. normally open type
b. normally closed type
c. both a. and b.

d. none of the above

30. The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data which are
immediately required for use is called as______.
a. HDD

b. ROM

c. RAM
d. SSD

31. How is the speed of operation of conventional relay system as compared to digital
controllers?
a. very slow
b. very fast

c. same

d. almost similar

32. The capability of convention relay systems for complex operations is ____ that of the
PLCs .
a. poor than
b. excellent than

c. as good as

d. unpredictable as

33. How is the noise immunity of PLCs to electrical noises as compared to that of
conventional relay controllers?
a. poor
b. excellent

c. as good as noise immunity of conventional relay controllers

d. unpredictable

34. _____ of PLCs can be done in very little time.

a. Programming

b. Installation

c. Commissioning

d. All of the above

35. PLC can be _____ in plant to change the sequence of operation.
a. only programmed

b. only reprogrammed
c. programmed and reprogrammed
d. able to give a set point

36. The PLC is used in _______.

a. machine tools

b. automated assembly equipment

c. moulding and extrusion machines

d. all of the above

37. Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?
a. Manual switches

b. Relays

c. Sensors

d. None of the above

38. Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to:
a. Analog output

b. Digital output
c. Analog input

d. Digital input

39. In a PLC “I” is used for output and “Q” is used for input
a. True

b. False
40. The most common application of float system is

a. To monitor the fuel tank level in motor vehicle

b. To monitor the flow of solid
c. To monitor the flow of liquid
d. All of these

41. The sensors are classified on the basis of

a. Functions

b. Performance

c. Output

d. All of the above

42. Following is not an example of transducer.

a. Analogue voltmeter

b. Thermocouple

c. Photo electric cell

d. Pneumatic cylinder

43. A piezo-electrical crystal generates voltage when subjected to ____ force.

a. Electrical

b. Mechanical

c. Gravity

d. All of the above

44. 16-Following is (are) the type(s) of Light sensor(s)

a. Photo sensor

b. Photo transistors

c. Photo conductors

d. All of the above

45. Inductive proximity sensors can be effective only when the objects are of _____
materials.
a. Ferro magnetic

b. Diamagnetic

c. Paramagnetic

d. All of the above

46. Following acts as detector in Optical sensor

a. Light emitting diode

b. Photo diode

c. Transistor

d. All of the above

47. Which fluid is used in hydraulic power systems?

a. water
b. oil
c. non-compressible fluid
d. all of the above
48. Which sensor can detect nearby objects?
a. Proximity sensor
b. Humidity sensor
c. Touch sensor
d. Pressure sensor

49. Which proximity sensor detects metal objects?

a. Capacitive Proximity Sensor
b. Magnetic Proximity Sensor
c. Ultrasonic Proximity Sensor
d. Inductive Proximity Sensor

50. Which of the following are encoder advantages?

a. Low cost
b. High resolution
c. High reliability and accuracy
d. All of the Above
51. Incremental encodes use
a. One channel
b. Two channels
c. Two channels and sometimes three channels
d. None of the above
52. Absolute encoders are used where
a. Fast varying signals are not used
b. When position data is to be recovered even after a temporary power outage
c. Transient noise can be tolerated as it causes only a transient disturbance
d. All of the above

53.Which of the following temperature sensors is not used for a temperature measurement?
a. Non-electrical type
b. Electrical type
c. Magnetic type
d. Radiation type
54.The resistance _________ with increase in temperature.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Becomes constant
d. Becomes zero
55.Which of the following devices is not used for pressure measurement?
a. Diaphragm gauge
b. Pressure bellows
c. Strain gauge
d. Dynamometer
56.Which of the following measures the pressure with change in electrical resistance?
a. Bourdon tube
b. Pressure bellows
c. Strain gauge
d. Diaphragm gauge
57.If the two metals have different temperature coefficient then, they are useful in making
_________
a. Manometric thermometer
b. Gas thermometer
c. Bimetallic thermometer
d. Digital thermometer
58. The instruments used for the measurement of pressure is/are
a. Bellows
b. Diaphragms
c. Fiber optic pressure sensors
d. All of these
59. Bourdon tube is used for the measurement of gauge pressure of
a. Gas
b. Liquid fluid
c. Solid
d. Both (a) and (b)
60. The devices used for flow obstruction are
a. Orifice plate
b. Venturi tube
c. Flow nozzle and dall flow tube
d. All of these
61. Output of a bimetallic element will be __________________
a. Strain
b. Pressure
c. Displacement
d. Voltage
62. In ultrasonic level gauge, the ultrasonic source is placed at the
a. Bottom of the vessel containing the liquid
b. Top of the vessel containing the liquid
c. Middle of the vessel containing the liquid
d. Far from the vessel containing the liquid
63. A vibrating level sensors consists of
a. One piezoelectric oscillators
b. Two piezoelectric oscillators
c. Three piezoelectric oscillators
d. Four piezoelectric oscillators
64. Which actuator does not need any external power source?
a. 3 phase motor
b. Solenoid valve
c. Wax Motor
d. BO motor
65. How many directions are there, for a fluid to flow in check valves?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
66. How many directions are there, for a fluid to flow in shuttle valves?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
67. What is the full form DCV in terms of pneumatic control systems?
a. Delicate Control Valve
b. Distance Control Value
c. Directional Control Valve
d. Diameter Control Valve
68. Which valve should be used if there is a need of fluid to flow in 4 directions?
a. Spool valve
b. Shuttle Valve
c. Check valve
d. Rubber valve
69. Which valve works on electricity and not on pressure difference?
a. Rubber valve
b. Pilot Valve
c. Check valve
d. Solenoid valve
70. Which type of motion is transmitted by hydraulic actuators?
a. linear motion
b. rotary motion
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
71. What is the function of electric actuator?
a. converts electrical energy into mechanical torque
b. converts mechanical torque into electrical energy
c. converts mechanical energy into mechanical torque
d. none of the above
72. Which of the motions in actuators are preferred:
a. Translator
b. Rotary
c. Stationary
d. Non-Stationary
73. Assertion (A): Electric actuators are used control system for high torque applications.
Reason (R): Due to linear speed-Torque characteristics.
a. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
74. Which sensor can detect nearby objects?
a. Proximity sensor
b. Humidity sensor
c. Touch sensor
d. Pressure sensor
75. The monitoring of machines, gears and objects are achieved by which sensor?
a. Humidity sensor
b. Proximity sensor
c. Touch sensor
d. Pressure sensor
76. Which proximity sensor detects metal objects?
a. Capacitive Proximity Sensor
b. Magnetic Proximity Sensor
c. Ultrasonic Proximity Sensor
d. Inductive Proximity Sensor
77. Which proximity sensor indicates level?
a. Inductive Proximity Sensor
b. Capacitive Proximity Sensor
c. Magnetic Proximity Sensor
d. Ultrasonic Proximity Sensor
78. Which proximity sensor detects positioning of an object?
a. Inductive Proximity Sensor
b. Capacitive Proximity Sensor
c. Optical Proximity Sensor
d. Magnetic Proximity Sensor
79. Which device generates output signal when metal objects are either inside or entering into
sensing area.
a. Capacitive Proximity
b. Magnetic Proximity
c. Inductive proximity
d. Parallel Proximity
80. What is the sensing range for magnetic proximity sensors?
a. 120mm
b. 90mm
c. 150mm
d. 100mm
81. What is the sensing range for capacitive proximity sensors?
a. 150mm
 b. 25mm
c. 120mm
d. 100mm
82. _________ sensors have no electrical noise effect and it can work DC.
a. Inductive proximity
b. Capacitive Proximity
c. Magnetic Proximity
d. Parallel Proximity
83. ________ detects metals but along with it can also detect resins, liquids.
a. Inductive proximity
b. Capacitive Proximity
c. Magnetic Proximity
d. Parallel Proximity
84. NO stands for
a. Naturally open
b. Normally ON
c. Normally Open
d. None of the above
85. Relay is an
a. Mechanical device
b. Electrical switch
c. Manual switch
d. None of the above
86. SPST stands for –
a. Single Pole Single Throw
b. Single Pole State Throw
c. Solid Pole Single Throw
d. Single Pole Single Turn
87. NC stands for –
a. Normally Close
b. Normally contact
c. Naturally close
d. Naturally contact
88. Limit switch has
a. Mechanical Actuation
b. Manual Actuation
c. Electrical Actuation
d. None of the above
89 . SPDT switch used as
a. Staircase switch
b. Bed Switch
c. None of the above
d. Both a and b

90. SSR stands for –

a. Single stand Relay
b. Single Solid relay
c. Solid State relay
d. All of the above
91. The sensors are classified on the basis of
a. Functions
b. Performance
c. Output
d. All of the above
92. Following is (are) the type(s) of Light sensor(s)
a. Photo sensor
b. Photo transistors
c. Photo conductors
d. All of the above
93. Following acts as detector in Optical sensor
a. Light emitting diode
b. Photo diode
c. Transistor
d. All of the above
94. DPST stands for
a. Dual pole Single Throw
b. Dual pole Straight Throw
c. Double Pole Single Throw
d. None of the above
95. DPDT has
a. One NO terminal
b. One NC terminal
c. Two NO terminal
d. All of the above
96. Each horizontal line Ladder Diagram is referred to as:
a. Period
b. Group
c. Row
d. Rung
97. Which of the following is correct about contacts or coils seen in a Ladder Diagram PLC:
a. All contacts and coils are real
b. Contacts are real, while coils are programmed bits
c. Coils are real, while contacts are programmed bits
d. Both coils and contacts are bits in PLC memory

98. How many possible stages an input can have in LADDER Logic?
a. Two
b. One
c. Three
d. None of these

99. What do you mean by “NO” contact using for Input in LADDER Logic?
a. Normally Operative
b. Normally Open
c. Not Operative
d. None of these
100. What do you mean by “NC” contact using for Input in LADDER Logic?
a. No Contact
b. Normally Contact
c. Normally Close
d. None of these

101. The Scan Time of the PLC is approximately .

a. 1/100th of a second
b. 1/1000th of a second
c. 1/10000th of a second
d. None of these

102. Normally the current range of the analog input card is .

a. 0 to 10 ma
b. 0 to 20 ma
c. 0 to 40 ma
d. None of these
103. For larger PLC, normally the input cards contain numbers of input.
a. 4 or 8
b. 8 or 16
c. 16 or 32
d. None of these
104. According to the module PLC categorizes into types.
a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. None of these
105. A typically small sized PLC contain Input/Output.
a. 512
b. 1024
c. 500
d. 1000
106. IFM responsible for?

a. PC to PLC Communication
b. PLC to PLC Communication
c. PLC to Physical Load Communication
d. None of these
107. IFM stands for?

a. Intra-Face Module
b. Information Frequency Modulation
c. Inter-Facing Module
d. None of these
108. Abbreviate PROFIBUS?

a. Program Field Bus

b. Process Field Bus
c. Process Fit Bus
d. None of these

109. Abbreviate PPI?

a. Port to Port Interface

b. Process to Process Interface
c. Point to Point Interface
d. None of these

110. Abbreviate MPI?

a. Memory Port Interface

b. Multi Point Interface
c. Modular PLC Interface
d. None of these
111. FB stands for?

a. Function Bit
b. Function Block
c. Function BUS
d. None of these
112. Errors occurring during program execution in the PLC .

a. Execution Error
b. Runtime Error
c. Programming Error
d. None of these
113. Function Block Diagram (FBD) is a type of .

a. PLC Language

b. Block Diagram of a module

c. Block Diagram of a PLC model
d. None of these
114. CAN BUS can be used for .
a. PC to PLC Communication
b. PLC to PLC Communication
c. Communication between different modules
d. None of these

115. IN “PROFIBUS-PA” PA stands for?

a. Process Automation
b. Process Automatically
c. Product Automatically
d. None of these
116. Which one of these is not a type of PLC Language?
a. LAD
b. FDB
c. STL
d. None of these

117. In the Hardware Configuration page “UR” stands for?

a. Universal Rail
b. Universal Reserved
c. Un-Reserved Rail
d. None of these

118. “---| |---“symbol stands for

a. Output Coil (Address)
b. Normally Closed Contact (Address)
c. Normally Open Contact (Address)
d. None of these
119. MCR stands for?
a. Minimum Control Relay
b. Maximum Control Relay
c. Master Control Relay
d. None of these
 GOKHALEEDUCATIONSOCIETIE’S
R.H.SAPATCOLLEGEOFENGINEERING,MANAGEMENTSTUDIES&RESEA
RCH NASHIK
Department of Electrical Engineering (2020-21)

PLC Unit -1,2& 3 Question bank

1 )The acronym PLC stands for:

(A)Pressure Load Control

(B) Programmable Logic Controller
(C) Pneumatic Logic Capstan
(D) PID Loop Controller
(E) Pressure Loss Chamber

2) Automation is required in _________ industries

a) Manufacturing

b) packaging

c) Machining

d) All of the above

3) PLC was introduced in year ______

a) 1955

b) 1980

c) 1968

d) None of the above

 4. The Advantage of PLC are

a) Setup cost is high

b) requires skillful workforce

c) Re programmable

d) All of the above

5. In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time in which …..

(A) the technician enters the program

(B) timers and counters are indexed by
(C) one “rung” of ladder logic takes to complete
(D) the entire program takes to execute
(E) transmitted data communications must finish

6. The Benefit of automation are

a)Improved worker safety

b)Increased production output

c) Reduced direct human labor costs and expenses.

d) All of the Above

7. Select the correct statement from given option

1. Compact PLC has fixed number of I/O modules

2. Modular PLC has fixed number of I/O modules

 3. Both Above Statements are correct

4. None of the above

8. A typical block diagram of PLC consists :

a)Power Supply Module

b)Central Processing Unit (CPU)
c) Input & Output Module
d) All of the above

9. Input modules are used for interfacing between_________ devices and processor

a) Input devices
b) Output devices
c) Both
d) None of the above

10.Which one of the following is not a PLC manufacturer

a. Siemens

b. Mitsubishi

c. Microsoft

d. ABB

11. An example of discrete (digital) control is:

a. Varying the volume of a music system

b. Turning a lamp ON or OFF

c. Varying the brightness of a lamp

 d. Controlling the speed of a fan

12. Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to:

a. Analog output

b. Digital output

c. Analog input

d. Digital input

13. Examples of discrete output devices are ________

a ) LED

b) Pilot lamp

c) Motor starter

d) All of these

14. The examples of Temperature sensors are

a) strain gauge

b) bourdon tube

c) Thermocouple

d) All of these
 15. Capacitive proximity sensors can detect_________

a) only metallic targets

b) onlynon metallic targets

c) detect both metallic and non-metallic targets

d) None of the above

16. In Incremental encoder , if A leads B then the disk is rotating in

a) clockwise direction
b) anticlockwise direction
c) both clockwise as well as anticlockwise
d) none of the above.

17. A solenoid is an example of an output device.

a. True

b. False

c. None of the above

17. Limit switch operates when the object comes in physical contact with it
a) True
b) False
c) None of the above

18. Actuators are mechanical devices that convert

 a) Motion of energy c) Energy into motion
b) Energy into motion d) Both a & B

19. pneumatic actuators are_____ expensive to purchase than hydraulic or

electric device

a) More
b) Less
c) None of the above

20. In PLC programming, a retentive function is one that:

a) Defaults to the “on” state
b) Comes last in the program
c) Defaults to the “off” state
d) Cannot be edited or deleted
e) Is not reset after a power cycle

21. Ladder logic programming consists primarily of:

a) Virtual relay contacts and coils

b) Logic gate symbols with connecting lines
c) Function blocks with connecting lines
d) Text-based code
e) Hieroglyphics

22. An OR function implemented in ladder logic uses:

a)Normally-closed contacts in series

b) Normally-open contacts in series
c) A single normally-closed contact
d) Normally-open contacts in parallel
e) Normally-closed contacts in parallel
 23. The difference between online and offline PLC programming is . . .

(A) whether the PLC is running or stopped

(B) whether the programming PC has internet connectivity

(C) the type of programming cable used

(D) where the edited program resides

(E) the type of programmer used

24. Programming Language of PLC is _________

a) Functional block diagram

b) Statement List
c) Ladder
d) All of the above

25. The types of PLC timers are

a)ON-delay timer

b)OFF-delay timer

c) retentive timer on.

d) All of the above

26. The PLC function used to count the number of cans on a conveyor belt is

A) Timer
 B) Counter
C) Memory
D) None of the above

27. Whenever there is a pulse at the input of the CTU block, it will
________theaccumulator value by 1.

a) Decrease
b) Increase
c) Both
d) None of the above

28. What is the largest integer number that a PLC counter function can reach
if it uses a 16 bit register?

A) 32,768
B) 65,535
C) 65,536
D) 65,537
E) 32,767

29. The Boolean representation of this PLC program is:

(A) ABC + D(B) C + (A + B)D(C) C + D(A + B)
(D) ABC + BD(E) C(AB + D)
 Gokhale Education Society's
R. H. Sapat College of Engineering, Management Studies, and Research, Nashik

Department of Electrical Engineering

PLC & SCADA APPLICATION

UNIT 01, 02 & 03 MCQ QUESTIONS

___________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Q1. are some simple building blocks of a digital system which control their output based
on the conditions of the inputs.
(A) Servomechanism
(B) Control action
(C) Logic gates
(D) Micro-controller

Q2.From the following which is not the type of logic gates.

(A) OR GATE
(B) AND GATE
(C) NOT GATE
(D) EX-NOT GATE

Q3. What is the full form of PLC?

(A) Programmable Logic Controller
(B) Programmable Language Controller
(C) Preventive Logic Controller
(D) Programmable Local Controller

Q4. is a chip that is dependent on other chips for many functions.

(A) Micro-controller
(B) SCADA
(C) PLC
(D) Microprocessor

Q5. is a single chip micro computer that has everything in-built.

(A) Microprocessor
(B) Micro-controller
(C) Logic gates
(D) SCADA

Q6.From the following which is the advantage of PLC SCADA system.

(A) Data can be viewed from any where
(B) Possible to connect thousands of sensors
(C) Data can be display in any way
(D) All of above

Q7.From the following which is not a type of Micro Controller.

(A) 2 – bit Micro Controller
(B) 4 – bit Micro Controller
(C) 8 – bit Micro Controller
(D) 16 – bit Micro Controller

Q8.A is a digital electronic device that uses programmable memory to store

instructions.
(A) Programmable logic controller
(B) Servomechanism
(C) Both (A) & (B)
(D) None of the above

Q9. is a method used to send commands, programs and receives monitoring

information from the remote locations.
(A) Micro-controller
(B) PLC
(C) Telemetry
(D) None of the above

Q10. The most popular language for PLCs is:

A. Ladder diagram
B. C++
C. OOP+
D. VHDL

Q11. Very often relays and valves are connected to:

A. Input modules
B. Output modules
C. Any of these

Q12. Normally open contacts are open when:

A. When Input is not energized
B. When the input is energized
C. When input is higher than 20 volts
D. None of these

Q13.Typical examples of inputs to PLC are:

A. Switches
B. LDVT
C. Potentiometer
D. All of these

Q14. NOR has output 1 when:

A. Both inputs are 1
B. First input is 1, Second is 0
C. First input is 0, Second is 1
D. Both inputs are 0

Q15. BOOL tag in Programmable logic controller:

A. Represents timer memory
B. Is used for PID control functons
C. Holds true or false values
D. None of these

Q16. PLCs that have a fixed amount of I/O capability built into the unit are known as:
A. Rack PLCs
B. Monolithic PLCs
C. Modular PLCs
D. None of these

Q17. Colored contact in PLC ladder diagram indicates:

A. Closed contact
B. Open contact
C. Any of these
D. None of these

Q18. Who has known as the Father of PLC?

A. Steve Jobs
B. Bill Gates
C. Dick Morley
D. None of these

Q19. Relay consisting of ____________

A. Only Coil Part

B. Only Contact Part
C. 1 & 2 both
D. None of these
Q20. The Programming line known as uses in LADDER Logic for PLC?
A. Wrong
B. Rung
C. Right
D. None of these

Q21. Abbreviate SFC?

A. Sequential Function Charts
B. Serial Function Charts
C. Short Function Charts
D. None of these

Q22. How many possible stages an input can have in LADDER Logic?
A. Two
B.One
C. Three
D.None of these

Q23. Identify this address “192.168.0.1”?

A. ip address
B. subnet mask address
C. cpu module address
D. none of these

Q24. A Toggle Switch is a type _____________ _.

A. Digital Device
B. Analog Device
C. Both 1 & 2
D. None of these

Q25. In On-Delay Timer” delays turning on” means

A. delaying the input to get activate
B. delaying the output to get activate
C. Both 1 & 2
D. None of these

Q26. BCD means?

A. Bit Coded Decimal
B. Binary Coded Decimal
C. Byte Coded Decimal
D. None of these

Q27. A Inductive Sensors senses .

A. Only Metal
B. Only Non-Metal
C. Both Metal & Non-Metal
D. None of these

Q27. A Capacitive Sensors senses ____________ _.

A. Only Metal
B. Only Non-Metal
C. Both Metal & Non-Metal
D. None of these

Q28. A Capacitive Sensor depends upon the of the sensing material.

A. Di-Electric Constant
B.Permitivity
C. Both 1 & 2
D. None of these

Q29. Abbreviate TTL?

A. Transistor Thyristor Logic
B. Transistor Transistor Logic
C. Transistor Triac Logic
D. None of these

Q30. Which is/are mode normally present in the CPU module of the PLC unit?

A. RUN-Mode
B.STOP-Mode
C. Both RUN & STOP Mode
D. None of these

Q31. One cycle through the program in a PLC unit is called a __________ _.
A. Period Time
B. Scan Time
C. Cycle Time
D. None of these
Q32. According to Module, How many most essential components are present in the PLC
Unit?
A. 3
B.5
C. 4
D. None of these

Q33. The Scan Time of the PLC is approximately .

A. 1/100th of a second
B. 1/1000th of a second
C. 1/10000th of a second
D. None of these

Q34. Normally the current range of the analog input card is __________.
A. 0 to 10 ma
B. 0 to 20 ma
C. 0 to 40 ma
D. None of these

Q35. For larger PLC, normally the input cards contain numbers of input.
A. 4 or 8
B. 8 or 16
C. 16 or 32
D. None of these

Q36. Which one of these in not a type of PLC?

A. PAC
B. RTU
C. OME
D. None of these

Q37. Abbreviate PAC?

A. Programmable Automatic Control

B. Programmable Automatic Controllers
C. Programmable Automation Controllers
D. None of these

Q38. A typically small sized PLC contain Input/Output.

A. 512
B. 500
C. 1024
D. None of these

Q40. Which one of these considered as the Large sized PLC?

A. S7-300
B. S7-500
C. S7-400
D. None of these
Connector

Refer to below Figure, which shows an Allen-Bradley program involving a 1/1

count-up counter. Decide whether each of these statements is true (T)
or false (F). When the fifth pulseinput occurs to I:012/01 in above Figure:
(i) Output O:013/01 is switched on. (ii) Output O:013/02 is switched on. *

(i) T (ii) T

(i) T (ii) F

(i) F (ii) T

(i) F (ii) F

Process variable filtering should be used: * 1/1

To dampen noise

Only on integrating processes

To improve response time

Only on self regulating processes

Only on self-regulating processes

Which of the following is most likely to be the voltage level used 1/1
internally in a PLC, excluding the voltage levels that might occur during
conditioning in input/output channels? *

5V

24 V

110 V

240 V

Decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false (F). The 1/1
RS232 communications interface: (i) Is a serial interface. (ii) Is typically
used for distances up to about 15 m. *

(i) T (ii) T

(i) T (ii) F

(i) F (ii) T

(i) F (ii) F
Refer to below Figure, which shows a ladder diagram with a down- 1/1
counter, two inputs (In 1 and In 2), and an output (Out 1). Decide whether
each of these statements is true (T) or false (F). For the ladder diagram
shown in above Figure, when the counter is set to 5, there is an output
from Out 1 every time: (i) In 1 has closed 5 times. (ii) In 2 has closed 5
times. *

(i) T (ii) T

(i) T (ii) F

(i) F (ii) T

(i) F (ii) F

Which speed control method can only be applied to squirrel cage type 1/1
induction motors *

Multiple Stator winding method

Rotor rheostat speed control method

Pole amplitude modulation method

Frequency control method

The principle behind RTD is, metal resistance increases with ________ in 1/1
temperature. *

Constant

Decrease

Increase

Exponential

When a process controller is in the “automatic” mode, * 2/2

The output responds to changes in the process variable

The process variable cannot deviate from setpoint

The controller will automatically generate alarms

The control valve will fail open

The symbol -(L)- represent what instruction in the PLC language? * 1/1

OTU output unlatch instruction

OTL output latch instruction

XIO Examine off instruction

XIO Examine off instruction

OTE output energize instruction

Ladder logic programming consists primarily of: * 1/1

Virtual relay contacts and coils

Logic gate symbols with connecting lines

Function blocks with connecting lines

Text-based code

Which 2 protocols are used in the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model? * 2/2

UDP and HTTP

TCP and UDP

HTTP and TCP

ICMP and HTTP

The address T4:6.ACC is used to address what? * 0/1

Accumulator for timer 4 in file 6

Preset value of timer 6 in file 4

Accumulator for timer 6 in file 4

Accumulator for counter 6 in file 4

The derivative control action is typically used when controlling, but rarely 1/1
used when controlling. *

Temperature, Flow

Flow, Level

pH, Temperature

Level, Temperature
Figure below shows a ladder diagram involving a counter C460, inputs 2/2
X400 and X401, internal relays M100 and M101, and an output Y430.
Decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false (F). When
there is an input to X400: (i) The internal relay M100 is energized. (ii) The
internal relay M101 is energized. *

(i) T (ii) T

(i) T (ii) F

(i) F (ii) T

(i) F (ii) F

Modbus TCP/IP was mainly developed from which other protocol? * 1/1
Modbus ASCII

Modbus RTU

Modbus PLC

A stepper motor has a step angle of 7.5 . The digital input rate required 2/2
to produce a rotation of 10 rev/s is: *

48 pulses per second

75 pulses per second

480 pulses per second

750 pulses per second

A device operating at physical layer is called __________ * 2/2

Router

Equalizer

Bridge

Repeater

In PLC programming, a retentive function is one that: * 1/1

Comes last in the program

Is not reset after a power cycle

Defaults to the “on” state

Defaults to the “off” state

Decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false (F). Figure 1/1
shows a ladder diagram rung for which:(i) The input contacts are
normally open.(ii) There is an output when there is an input to the
contacts. *

(i) T (ii) T

(i) T (ii) F

(i) F (ii) T

(i) F (ii) F

A collection of standard and/or custom software systems used to 2/2

provide SCADA central host and operator terminal applications, support
the communications system and monitor and control remotely located
field data interface devices called as __________ . *

Remote Terminal Unit

Microcontroller

Human Machine Interface

Programmable Logic Controllers

The open-loop response of a process is shown in the following trend. 2/2
What sort of process is indicated by this behavior? *

Integrating

Proportional

Linear

Direct-acting

FOUNDATION Fieldbus is unique in that: * 0/1

It has always been the leading fieldbus standard

Control algorithms may reside in the field devices

Data communication is entirely deterministic

Diagnostic data is communicated as well as process data

The cycle (scan) time of a PLC is the time it takes to: * 1/1

Read an input signal.

Read all the input signals.

Check all the input signals against the program.

Read all the inputs, run the program, and update all outputs.

SCADA systems encompass the transfer of data between a central host 2/2
computer and a number of ______________ and/or Programmable Logic
Controllers (PLC) and the central host and the operator terminals. *

Remote Terminal Unit

DCS

Master Terminal Unit

Microcontroller

The most common analog signal standard for industrial process 1/1
instruments is: *

0 to 20 milliamps DC

0 to 10 volts DC
0 to 5 volts DC

4 to 20 milliamps DC

Refer to the program instruction list for a Mitsubishi PLC: LD X400 OR 2/2
Y430 ANI T450 OUT Y430 LD X401 OR M100 AND Y430 OUT T450 K 10
OUT M100 Decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false
(F). When there is a momentary input to X400: (i) The output from Y430
starts. (ii) The output from Y430 ceases after 10 s. *

(i) T (ii) T

(i) T (ii) F

(i) F (ii) T

(i) F (ii) F

Twisted-pair wire, coaxial cable and fiber-optic cable are all types of 1/1
__________ . *

Protocols

Messages

Media

Data
Which of the following is not a type of pressure sensing element? * 1/1

Bellows

Bourdon tube

Diaphragm

Orifice plate

What are single output channel incremental encoders used for? * 2/2

Sense Direction

Sense Speed (Tachometers)

Position Feedback

Sense Vibration

A good application for a timed interrupt in a PLC program would be: * 1/1

A communications function block

A PID function block

A math function block

A motor start/stop rung

 p g

The change in resistance of an electrical resistance strain gauge with a 1/1

gauge factor of 2.0 and resistance 100 O when subject to a strain of
0.001 is: *

0.0002 Ohm

0.002 Ohm

0.02 Ohm

0.2 Ohm

Decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false (F). A limit 1/1
switch:(i) Can be used to detect the presence of a moving part.(ii) Is
activated by contacts making or breaking an electrical circuit. *

(i) T (ii) T

(i) T (ii) F

(i) F (ii) T

(i) F (ii) F
You want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP 1/1
configuration, including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and
DNS information. Which protocol will you use to accomplish this? *

SMTP

SNMP

DHCP

ARP

What is the largest integer number that a PLC counter function can reach2/2
if it uses a 16 bit register? *

32,768

65,535

65,536

65,537

A “smart” transmitter is one that: * 1/1

Communicates using Foundation Fieldbus

Has a microprocessor built inside

Has multiple process sensors

Calibrates itself

Protocols are set of rules to govern _________ * 1/1

Communication

Standard

Metropolitan communication

Bandwidth

What layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of the 1/1
OSI model? *

Application

Host to host

Internet

Network Access

The term PLC stands for (The acronym PLC stands for): * 1/1

Personal logic computer

Programmable local computer

Personal logic controller

 e so a og c co t o e

Programmable logic controller

The arrangement of inputs in above Figure is described by the Boolean 1/1

expression: *

A.B.C

(A + C) .B

(A + B) .C

A.C + B

Virtual terminal protocol is an example of _________ * 1/1

Network layer

Application layer

Transport layer

Physical layer
What three things make up a Modbus frame? * 1/1

address, function code and data

address, transaction code and data

data, function code and window size

What is the full form of SCADA? * 1/1

Supervisory Control and Document Acquisition

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition

Supervisory Column and Data Assessment

Supervisory Control and Data Assessment

Find out the odd one from the following tuning methods, * 0/1

Oscillation Method

Adjust and Observe Method

Ultimate Cycle Method

Z-N Closed Loop Method

Examine if close instruction in PLC language is symbolically represented 2/2
by what shape? *

-] [-

-( )-

-]/[-

None of these

A 12-bit ADC can be used to represent analog voltages over its input 1/1
range with: *

12 different binary numbers

24 different binary numbers

144 different binary numbers

4096 different binary numbers

What two things, roughly, are key factors in terms of performance of a 1/1
Modbus TCP/IP system? *

The network and hardware

Switches and hubs

Modbus server and wiring closet

A diaphragm pressure sensor is required to give a measure of the gauge 1/1

pressure present in a system. Such a sensor will need to have a
diaphragm with: *

A vacuum on one side.

One side open to the atmosphere.

The pressure applied to both sides.

A controlled adjustable pressure applied to one side.

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 Forms
 59

Question Paper (MCQ)

1. The question paper will have 30 multiple choice questions with 1 mark each with one correct option.
2. Marks: 30
3. No negative marking
4. All questions are compulsory

Decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false (F): A transistor output channel from
a PLC (i) Is used for only DC switching. (ii) Is isolated from the output load by an optocoupler.
Which option best describes the two statements? *

(i) T (ii) T

(i) T (ii) F

(i) F (ii) T

(i) F (ii) F

Which of the following is most likely to be the voltage level used internally in a PLC, excluding the
voltage levels that might occur during conditioning in input/output channels? *

5V

24 V

110 V

240 V

Decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false (F): The reason for including
optocouplers on input/output units is to: (i) Provide a fuse mechanism that breaks the circuit if
high voltages or currents occur. (ii) Isolate the CPU from high voltages or currents. Which option
best describes the two statements? *

(i) T (ii) T

(i) T (ii) F
 (i) F (ii) T

(i) F (ii) F

The cycle time of a PLC is the time it takes to: *

Read an input signal.

Read all the input signals.

Check all the input signals against the program.

Read all the inputs, run the program, and update all outputs.

Ladder logic programming consists primarily of: *

Virtual relay contacts and coils

Logic gate symbols with connecting lines

Function blocks with connecting lines

Text-based code

The most common analog signal standard for industrial process instruments is: *

0 to 20 milliamps DC

0 to 10 volts DC

0 to 5 volts DC

4 to 20 milliamps DC

The symbol -(L)- represent what instruction in the PLC language? *

OUT output unlatch instruction

OTL output latch instruction

 Examine off instruction

Output energize instruction

Examine if close instruction in PLC language is symbolically represented by which symbol? *

-[/]-

-( )-

-]/[-

-] [-

Very often relays and valves are connected to: *

Input modules

Output modules

Memory

Power supply

_________ is an International Electrotechnical Commission standard for industrial controllers that

has seven parts. *

IEC 61113

IEC 61151

IEC 61131

IEC 61311

The figure below depicts a ______________ . *

 Sourcing input

Sourcing output

Sinking input

Sinking output

Decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false (F). A limit switch: (i) Can be used to
detect the presence of a moving part. (ii) Is activated by contacts making or breaking an electrical
circuit. *

(i) T (ii) T

(i) T (ii) F

(i) F (ii) T

(i) F (ii) F

An incremental shaft encoder gives an output that is a direct measure of: *

The diameter of the shaft.

The change in diameter of the shaft.

The change in angular position of the shaft.

The absolute angular position of the shaft.

Decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false (F). Input devices that give an analog
input for displacement include a: (i) Linear potentiometer. (ii) Linear variable differential
transformer. *

(i) T (ii) T

(i) T (ii) F

(i) F (ii) T

(i) F (ii) F

A stepper motor has a step angle of 7.5 deg. The digital input rate required to produce a rotation
of 10 rev/s is: *

48 pulses per second

75 pulses per second

480 pulses per second

750 pulses per second

Decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false (F). A proximity switch is required for
detecting the presence of a nonmetallic object. Types of switches that might be suitable are: (i)
Eddy current type. (ii) Capacitive type. *

(i) T (ii) T

(i) T (ii) F

(i) F (ii) T

(i) F (ii) F

A “smart” transmitter is one that: *

Communicates using Foundation Fieldbus

Has a microprocessor built inside

 Has multiple process sensors

Calibrates itself

Decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false (F). The valve has: (i) 4 ports (ii) 2
positions *

(i) T (ii) T

(i) T (ii) F

(i) F (ii) T

(i) F (ii) F

The fluid valves cannot perform basic function, *

Change the flow direction

Change the flow rate

Change the flow pressure

Change the flow temperature

Decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false (F). Below Figure shows a ladder
diagram rung for which: (i) When only input 1 contacts are activated, there is an output. (ii) When
only input 2 contacts are activated, there is an output. *

(i) T (ii) T

(i) T (ii) F

(i) F (ii) T
 (i) F (ii) F

The arrangement of inputs in above Figure is described by the Boolean expression: (please
consider star as dot) *

A*B*C

(A + C) * B

(A + B) * C

A*C+B

Decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false (F). The instruction list:
LDI X401
ANI X402
OUT Y430
Describes a ladder diagram rung for which there is an output when: (i) Input X401 is activated but
X402 is not. (ii) Input X401 and input X402 are both activated. *

(i) T (ii) T

(i) T (ii) F

(i) F (ii) T

(i) F (ii) F

Decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false (F). For the sequential function chart
shown in Figure, if State 1 is active:
(i) State 2 is realized when condition X2 is realized. (ii) State 3 occurs when condition X3 is
realized. *
 (i) T (ii) T

(i) T (ii) F

(i) F (ii) T

(i) F (ii) F

Refer the below Figure, decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false (F). When
there is no input to I:010/01:
(i) An input to I:010/02 gives no output from O:010/00. (ii) An input to I:010/04 gives no
output from O:010/02. *

(i) T (ii) T

(i) T (ii) F

(i) F (ii) T

(i) F (ii) F

In PLC programming, a retentive function is one that: *

Comes last in the program

Is not reset after a power cycle

Defaults to the “on” state

 Defaults to the “off” state

PLC Timer and Counter instruction has _______ number of words. *

Refer to Figure below, which shows an Allen-Bradley program involving a count-up counter.
For the program shown in below Figure, the counter is reset when: *

The count reaches 5.

The count passes 5.

There is an input to I:012/01.

There is an input to I:012/02.

Latch, Retentive Timer and Counter are retentive type instructions. *

True

False

Refer to Figure below, which shows a system with an input (In 1), an on-delay timer, and an output
(Out 1). The timer is set for a time of 6 s. The graph shows how the signal to the input varies with
 time.
Decide whether each of these statements is true (T) or false (F). The output from Out 1 in above
Figure:
(i) Starts when the input starts. (ii) Ceases 6 s after the start of the input.
*

(i) T (ii) T

(i) T (ii) F

(i) F (ii) T

(i) F (ii) F

__________ Master Control Reset (MCR) instruction are used to perform the function. *

No instruction is required

Create your own Google Form

Study hardware and software used in PLC
1. The PLCs were originally designed to replace
a) Hardwired relays
b) Analog controllers
c) Microcomputers

2) What type of input a limit switch is w.r.t PLC

a) Composite
b) Analog
c) Digital

3) In a ladder diagram an output would be represented by

a) A coil symbol
b) A closed contact symbol
c) An open contact symbol

4) When referring to the capacity, the abbreviation K represents ---- locations or words
a) 1000
b) 1024
c) 1036

5) The basic difference between a PLC and a relay logic is that

a) Different types of input/outputs devices are used
b) Different voltage levels for inputs/outputs are use
c) One can be programmed other not

Question 1=a
Question 2=c
Question 3=a
Question 4=b
Question 5=c
1. The term ‘PLC’ stands for
a) Programmable logic controller
b) Programmable logic Center
c) Process logic control

2) For an electromagnetic relay two types of contacts available are

a) Nominal close and Nominal open
b) Nominal close and Partial open
c) Normally close and Normally open

3) Originally PLCs were designed to control

 a) Continuous processes
b) Batch Processes
c) Composite Processes

4) The term ‘analog’ refers to

a) A signal which is continuously varying w.r.t time
b) A signal which is constant w.r.t time
c) A signal which is not varying w.r.t time

5) The word ‘CPU’ in microprocessor systems is

a) Control Process and Use
b) Control Process Unit
c) Central Processing Unit
1. The term ‘PLC’ stands for
a) Programmable logic controller
b) Programmable logic Center
c) Process logic control

2) For an electromagnetic relay two types of contacts available are

a) Nominal close and Nominal open
b) Nominal close and Partial open
c) Normally close and Normally open

3) Originally PLCs were designed to control

a) Continuous processes
b) Batch Processes
c) Composite Processes

4) The term ‘analog’ refers to

a) A signal which is continuously varying w.r.t time
b) A signal which is constant w.r.t time
c) A signal which is not varying w.r.t time

5) The word ‘CPU’ in microprocessor systems is

a) Control Process and Use
b) Control Process Unit
c) Central Processing Unit

Question 1=a
Question 2=c
Question 3=b
Question 4=a
Question 5=c
Implementation of Logic Gates
1. The scan time of PLC depends upon
a) Processor speed and program length
b) I/O density
c) Both the above

2) The programming device must be connected to the controller

a) At all times
b) When entering the program
c) When program is running

3) The ----- will account for the most of the total memory of a given PLC program
a) User program
b) Output image table
c) Input image table

4) While developing the ladder program the contacts are in

a) Any state (either energised or de-enrgised)
b) Energised state
c) De-energised state

5) Which of the following is not a factor in determining the total scan time of a PLC
a) Total no. of inputs and outputs
b) Programming method
c) Program length
Question 1=c
Question 2=b
Question 3=a
Question 4=c
Question 5=b
The logical AND function is similar to
a) Combination of series- parallel contacts
b) Contacts in parallel
c) Contacts in series

2) The logical OR function is similar to

a) Contacts in parallel
b) Contacts in series
c) Combination of series- parallel contacts

3) Which of the following logic operators are available in PLC?

a) AND, OR
b) NOT
c) All of the above
4) What is the output of NOR block if any one of the input is high or active or true
a) 1
b) 0
c) Can’t say

5) What is the output of NAND block if any one of the two inputs is high or active or true
a) 1
b) 0
c) Can’t say
Question 1=c
Question 2=a
Question 3=c
Question 4=b
Question 5=a

DOL stands for

a) Digital on line starter
b) Direct on line switch
c) Direct on line starter

2) A DOL motor starter contains---------- for protection purpose.

a) Relay
b) Switch
c) Over load relay

3) For starting of an electric motor ----------is preferred

a) normally open (NO) switch
b) normally open (NO) push button
c) normally closed (NC) push button

4) ------------ is the criteria to limit the use of DOL starter

a) High inrush current
b) Armature Current
c) Size of the motor

5) In which of the following applications DOL starter can be used

a) Conveyor belts
b) Water pumps
c) Both a and b
Question 1=c
Question 2=c
Question 3=b
Question 4=a
Question 5=c

1. Input modules provide an interface between

a) Field equipment and the CPU
b) Input modules and the CPU
c) output modules and the field devices

2) In which of the following processes a real time operation is involved

a) Level control of a tank
b) Traffic signal
c) Starting of motor using DOL starter

3) The sequence of steps repeated by the processor to perform the duties of the PLC is
called
a) Polling
b) Updating
c) Scanning

4) Which of the following is a PLC programming standard

a) IEC 61107
b) IEC 61131-3
c) ANSI/ISA S-88

5) The programming functions available in PLC are determined by

a) Input module
b) Programming device
c) CPU
Question 1=a
Question 2=a
Question 3=c
Question 4=b
Question 5=c

Ton stands for

a) Off delay timer
b) Retentive timer
c) On delay timer

2) Ton timer is used when action is expected to be delayed

a) True
b) False
c) Not always true
3) Which of the following bit is used to start the timer operation
a) TT
b) DN
c) EN

4) If the preset value is 2000, for a 1ms time base timer, the delay provided is
a) 20 sec
b) 2 sec
c) 200 ms

5) Which bit of timer ensures that the timing process is going on

a) TT
b) DN
c) EN
Question 1=c
Question 2=a
Question 3=c
Question 4=b
Question 5=a

Develop an application using Off-Delay Timer

1. Which bit of timer ensures that the timing process is over i.e. accumulated and preset
time is equal
a) DN
b) EN
c) TT

2) Toff stands for

a) Retentive timer
b) On delay timer
c) Off delay timer

3) DN bit for Ton timer is initially high when the program is switched to run mode after
downloading
a) True
b) False
c) Can’t say

4) Which of the following is not type of timer

a) CTU
b) RTO
c) TON

5) To stop the timer operation

 a) The rung condition is made false
b) The done bit is set to low
c) The accumulated value is set to zero

Question 1=a
Question 2=c
Question 3=b
Question 4=a
Question 5=a

1. The main difference between a Ton and a Toff timer is that

a) Toff can maintain the accumulated time on loss of logic continuity
b) Toff timer begins timing when logic continuity to the rung is lost
c) Ton can maintain the accumulated time on loss of logic continuity

2) DN bit for Toff timer is initially high when the program is switched to run mode after
downloading
a) True
b) False
c) Can’t say

3) The done bit changes state whenever

a) the timer timing value reaches the preset value
b) the accumulated value reaches the timer timing value
c) the accumulated value reaches the preset value

4) Toff is used when action is not expected after specific delay

a) True
b) False
c) Can’t say

5) In off delay timer the status of TT bit is same as

a) Rung condition IN bit
b) EN bit
c) DN bit

Question 1=b
Question 2=a
Question 3=c
Question 4=b
Question 5=a
Develop an application using Up-Down Counter
1. The term CTU stands for
a) Counter Timer Unit
b) Counter Time Up
c) UP Counter

2) The word ‘DN’ in case of counters/timers stands for

a) Duration bit
b) Done bit
c) Direction bit

3) The overflow bit is available in

a) Counters
b) Timers
c) Both timers and counters

4) The accumulator bit is available in

a) Counters
b) Timers
c) Both timers and counters

5) In which of the following applications counter block is necessary

a) Real time clock
b) Bottle filling plant
c) Automatic drilling machine

Question 1=c
Question 2=b
Question 3=a
Question 4=c
Question 5=b

1. In up counter instruction the accumulated value will increase only when

a) There is complete transition from low to high
b) There is complete transition from high to low
c) Can’t Say

2) In down counter instruction the accumulated value will decrease only when
a) There is complete transition from low to high
b) There is complete transition from high to low
c) Can’t Say

3) The duration of input transition pulse is the deciding factor for counting the pulse in
case of counters
 a) True
b) False
c) Not always false

4) The done bit of counter changes state when

a) the accumulated value reaches the preset value
b) The overflow bit is set
c) The accumulated value reaches to overflow value

5) In case of CTU the done bit status is ---- when the accumulated and preset values are
equal
a) Close
b) Low
c) High
Question 1=a
Question 2=b
Question 3=b
Question 4=a
Question 5=c

Implementation Of PLC Arithmatic Instructions

1. In any PLC based system, scan time of loop does not depend on

a) Memory capacity
b) Program length
c) CPU speed

2) The standard control signal range used for PLC analog inputs is

a) 3- 15 psi
b) 0- 20 mA
c) 4-20 mA

3) In PLC ladder program Branch instruction is used to create

a) Series of energised contacts

b) Parallel path
c) series path

4) In PLC 'OND' term stands for

 a) ON Delay Timer
b) OFF Delay Timer
c) Both On or OFF Delay Timer

5) In case of PLC, ___ term is used for down counter function

a) CTU
b) CTD
c) none of these

Question 1=a
Question 2=c
Question 3=b
Question 4=a
Question 5=b
1. A compute/math instruction executes ...... each time the instruction is scanned as long
as the rung-condition-in is true.
a) Once
b) Twice
c) Repeatedly

2) When the arithmatic operations are carried out in the PLC, if the data type for source
and destination is not similar then,
a) loss of accuracy and rounding error occurs
b) Instruction takes more time to execute.
c) Both 1 and 2 above

3) ........... parameter stores the result of the math instruction

a) EnableOut
b) EnableIn
c) Dest

4) The data type of EnableOut is

a) BOOL
b) REAL
c) INT

5) The instruction used for determining the remainder of division is

a) DIV
b) MOD
c) NEG

Question 1=a
Question 2=c
Question 3=c
Question 4=a
Question 5=b

Study of PID controller instruction for a pilot

plant
1. ……………… is difference between measured value and set point
a) Disturbance
b) Error
c) Set point

2) ……………… is value of process variable that is desired to be maintained

a) Set point
b) Manipulated variable
c) Disturbance

3) ………………… is changed to keep the measured variable at set point

a) Set point
b) Disturbance
c) manipulated variable

4) PID controller is very important block of any……………………system

a) Open loop
b) Feed back
c) Feed forward

5) ………………… function is not a part of PID block

a) Matrix
b) Proportional
c) Derivative
Question 1=b
Question 2=a
Question 3=c
Question 4=b
Question 5=a
1. What will be the result if the proportional gain is set too high?
a) Stable loop
b) Minimum offset
c) Large offset

2) ………………… action eliminates offset

 a) Integral or Reset
b) Derivative or Rate
c) Proportional

3) Major limitation of integral action is .....

a) Unstable loop
b) Increased response time
c) Both Unstable loop and Increased response time

4) Reset wind up is observed in .... control action

a) Proportional + Derivative
b) Proportional + Integral
c) Proportional

5) ......... action is not preferred when noise is present on the process that is to be
controlled
a) Derivative
b) Integral
c) Proportional

Question 1=c
Question 2=a
Question 3=c
Question 4=b
Question 5=a

PLC
1. PLCs are _____________ designed for use in the control of a
wide variety of manufacturing machines and systems.
a) special-purpose industrial computers
b) Personal computers
c) Electromechanical systems
d) All of the above

2. The first company to build PLCs was _____________.

a) General Motors
b) Allen Bradley
c) Square D
 d) Modicon

3. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a) The PLC rung output [-( )-] is a discrete output instruction or
bit in memory.
b) Each rung of the ladder logic represents a logical statement
executed in software - inputs on the right and outputs on the left.
c) Input and output instructions in ladder logic do not directly
represent the switches and actuators.
d) PLC input instructions are logical symbols associated with
voltage at the input module terminals.

4. Which of the following statements is correct?

a) Ladder logic is a PLC graphical programming technique
introduced in the last 10 years.
b) A ladder logic program is hard to analyze because it is totally
different when compared with the equivalent relay logic
solution.
c) The number of ladder logic virtual relays and input and
output
instruction is limited only by memory size.
d) The number of contacts for a mechanical relay is limited to
number of coils on the relay.

5. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

a) The status of each input can be checked from one location
and outputs can be forced on and off.
b) All symbols in the RLL represent actual components and
contacts present in the control system.
c) PLCs are not as reliable as electromechanical relays in RLL.
d) Input (-| |-) and output (- ( ) -) instruction symbols in the
ladder logic represent only data values stored in PLC memory.

6. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

a) If a problem in a PLC module occurs, the module can be
changed in a matter of minutes without any changes in wiring.
b) Outputs can be paralleled on the same rung.
 c) The physical wires between the input and output field devices
and the PLC input and output modules are the only signal wires
required in the PLC system.
d) The cost and size of PLCs have increased significantly in the
last 10 years.

7. Which of the following statements about a single pole double

throw relay is NOT true?
a) It is called an SPDT type of relay.
b) It has one common contact.
c) It has two positions (NC and NO).
d) It has a center off position.

8. Which of the following statements about a single pole double

throw relay is true?
a) Insulators are used in the armature to isolate the electrical
switching contacts from the rest of the relay components.
b) The NC contact and the pole are in contact when the relay is
off.
c) It has just one coil.
d) All of the above.

9. The ______________ is moved toward the relay electromagnet

when the relay is on.
a) Armature
b) Coil
c) NO contact
d) NC contact

10. Which of the following RLL applications is not normally

performed in early automation systems?
a) On/off control of field devices
b) Logical control of discrete devices
c) On/off control of motor starters
d) Proportional control of field devices
 11. Current flows into the ___________.
a) Input terminal of a sinking DC input module
b) Input terminal of a sinking output field device
c) Output terminal of a sinking input field device
d) All of the above

12. In a current sinking DC input module _____________.

a) The current flows out of the input field device
b) Requires that a AC sources be used with mechanical switches
c) The current flows out of the input module
d) Currents can flow in either direction at the input module

13. AC output field devices can interface to _______________.

a) AC output modules
b) Relay output modules
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a or b

14.What one item in the output module circuit above should be

changed to make it correct.
a) The battery polarity
b) Output module should be sourcing
c) Field device should be sinking
d) Current flow direction

15.What one item in the input module circuit above should be

changed to make it correct.
a) The battery polarity
b) Input module should be sinking
c) Field device should be sinking
d) Current flow direction
SCADA

1. SCADA is an acronym that stands for Supervisory Control and

Data Acquisition
a) True
 b) False

2. SCADA refers to a system that collects data from various sensors

at a factory, plant or in other remote locations and then sends this
data to a central computer which then manages and controls the
data.
a) True
b) False

3. A SCADA system will include

a) signal hardware (input and output)controllers
b) networks
c) user interface (HMI)
d) communications equipment and software
e) All of the above

4. A SCADA system will only monitor and never make changes to

the operations.
a) True
b) False

5. When planning a SCADA system you should:

a) Have an understanding of the process
b) Collect data
c) Design a database
d) Design a secure system
e) All of the above

6. Before planning an alarm system within the SCADA one should

consider.
a) What conditions triggers the alarm?
b) How operators will be notified of those alarms?
c) What actions will occur in response to those alarms?
d) All of the above
7. Every SCADA system is unique to its environment, so there is no
need to be consistent with colors, symbols and terminology.
a) True
b) False

8. A SCADA system is open to many inputs and output, for that

reason a SCADA system cannot be configured for secure access.
a) True
b) False

9. A Dynamic Data Exchange (DDE) Server is a program that has

access to data and can provide that data to other programs.
a) True
b) False

10. A Dynamic Data Exchange (DDE) _______________ is a

program that can obtain data from a DDE Server.
Client

1. A ___________consists of high speed, unidirectional digital communication channel (e.g.

fiber optics link, twisted-wire pair, etc.) which’s arranged as a closed loop or ring
microcomputers are attached to the ring by ring interface units.
A) All the Answers
B) Ring system
C) Hierarchical system
D) Shared bus systems
2. A SCADA system performs Data acquisition, Networked data communication, _________
and Control.
A) Analog to Digital Conversion
B) 4-20mA to HART
C) All the Answers
D) Data representation
3. Sensors and control relays can’t generate or interpret protocol communication, _______ is
needed to provide an interface between the sensors and the SCADA network.
A) Remote Terminal Units (RTUs)
B) All of the Answers
C) Field Instruments
D) HMI
4. A central host computer server or servers called ________
A) Switch
B) Master Terminal Units (MTUs)
C) Junction Box
D) Microcontroller
5. A collection of standard and/or custom software systems used to provide the SCADA
central host and operator terminal application, support the communications system, and
monitor and control remotely located field data interface devices called as ______
A) HART Protocol
B) Human Machine Interface (HMI)
C) Input Output Modules
D) Network Gateway
6. Combine communications paths to and from many RTUs into a single bit stream, usually
using time division multiplexing (TDM) or other such bit stream manipulation techniques.
A) Human Machine Interface (HMI)
B) Multiplexers
C) Barrier
D) PLC
7. SCADA systems encompass the transfer of data between a central host computer and a
number of ______________and/or Programmable Logic Controllers (PLCs), and the central
host and the operator terminals.
A) Microcontrollers
B) Remote Terminal Units (RTUs)
C) Input Output Modules
D) Motor Control Centre
8. _______ may employ one or more workstations and can be configured at the workstation
or by an off-line personal computer.
A) RTU
B) Router
C) DCS
D) Gate Way
9. A _________ consists of number of minicomputers or microcomputers inter connected in
a tree structure.
A) All the Answers
B) Hierarchical system
C) Shared bus systems
D) Ring system
10. In __________the connected processors communicated over a common channel using
time-sharing, thus allowing attached computers to transmit information in short-duration, high
speed bursts.
A) Ring system
B) All the Answers
C) Shared bus systems
D) Hierarchical system

Lab Integration Kit 1.0.0 Released

Summer Sprint Integration Workshop at IIT Guwahati

A new set of 35 Virtual Labs on Portable Media

 Department of Electrical Engineering
Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and
Research Center, Nashik
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
Subject: PLC and SCADA
by
Dr. S. P. Sonar
1. One of the following is an input device
a. Motor

b. Light

c. Valve

d. Sensor
2. Which one of the following is not a PLC MANUFACTURER?
a. Siemens

b. Mitsubishi

c. Microsoft
d. ABB

3. Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to:

a. Analog output

b. Digital output
c. Analog input

d. Digital input

4. The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data which are immediately
required for use is called as______.
a. HDD

b. ROM

c. RAM
d. SSD

5. _____ of PLCs can be done in very little time.

a. Programming

b. Installation

c. Commissioning

d. All of the above

6. The PLC is used in _______.
a. machine tools

b. automated assembly equipment

c. moulding and extrusion machines

d. all of the above

7. Which of the following can be the output of PLC?
1. Relay coils

2. Solenoids

3. Indicators

4. Motors

5. Lamps

6. Alarms

Select correct option

a. Only (1), (2), (3) and (4)

b. Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)

c. Only (1), (2), (3) and (5)

d. All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)

8. Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?
a. Manual switches

b. Relays

c. Sensors

d. None of the above

9. The most popular language for PLCs is:

a. Ladder diagram
b. C++
c. OOP+
d. VHDL
10. PLCs that have a fixed amount of I/O capability built into the unit are known as:

a. Rack PLCs
b. Monolithic PLCs
c. Modular PLCs
d. None of these

11. In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time in which …..
a. the technician enters the program
b. timers and counters are indexed by
c. one “rung” of ladder logic takes to complete
d. the entire program takes to execute

12. Choose the basic element for an automated machine tool

a. logic
b. NC tape programming
c. software
d. workstation

13. The PLC was invented by.

a. Bill Gates

b. Dick Morley
c. Bill Landis

d. Tod Cunningham

14. The first company to build PLCs was .

a. General Motors

b. Allen Bradley

c. Square D

d. Modicon

15. An example of discrete (digital) control is:

a. Varying the volume of a music system

b. Turning a lamp ON or OFF

c. Varying the brightness of a lamp

d. Controlling the speed of a fan

16. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a. The PLC rung output [-( )-] is a discrete output instruction or bit in memory.
b. Each rung of the ladder logic represents a logical statement executed in software – inputs on
the right and outputs on the left.

c. Input and output instructions in ladder logic do not directly represent the switches and
actuators.

d. PLC input instructions are logical symbols associated with voltage at the input module
terminals.

17. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Ladder logic is a PLC graphical programming technique introduced in the last 10 years.
b. A ladder logic program is hard to analyze because it is totally different when compared with
the equivalent relay logic solution.

c. The number of ladder logic virtual relays and input and output instructions is limited
only by memory size.
d. The number of contacts for a mechanical relay is limited to number of coils on the relay.

18. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

a. The status of each input can be checked from one location and outputs can be forced on and
off.

b. All symbols in the RLL represent actual components and contacts present in the control
system.

c. PLCs are not as reliable as electromechanical relays in RLL.

d. Input (-| |-) and output (- ( ) -) instruction symbols in the ladder logic represent only data
values stored in PLC memory.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

a. If a problem in a PLC module occurs, the module can be changed in a matter of minutes
without any changes in wiring.

b. Outputs can be paralleled on the same rung.

c. The physical wires between the input and output field devices and the PLC input and output
modules are the only signal wires required in the PLC system.

d. The cost and size of PLCs have increased significantly in the last 10 years.
20. Which of the following statements about a single pole double throw relay is NOT true?
a. It is called an SPDT type of relay.

b. It has one common contact.

c. It has two positions (NC and NO).

d. It has a center off position.

21. Which of the following statements about a single pole double throw relay is true?
a. Insulators are used in the armature to isolate the electrical switching contacts from the rest of
the relay components.

b. The NC contact and the pole are in contact when the relay is off.

c. It has just one coil.

d. All of the above.

22. Which of the following statements about RLL is NOT true?
a).NO contact symbol has two parallel lines to indicate an open contact.

b. RLL stands for Relay Ladder Logic.

c. NC contact symbol has the same two parallel lines with a line across them to indicate closed
contacts.
d. The right power rail is positive or the high side of the source, and the left power rail is
the power return or ground.
23. The _____ is moved toward the relay electromagnet when the relay is on.
a. Armature
b. Coil

c. NO contact

d. NC contact

24. When a relay is NOT energized:

a. There is an electrical path through the NO contacts

b. There is an electrical path through the NC contacts

c. Neither the NO or the NC contacts have an electrical path

d. Both the NO and the NC contacts have an electrical path

25. Which of the following RLL applications is not normally performed in early automation
systems?
a. On/off control of field devices

b. Logical control of discrete devices

c. On/off control of motor starters

d. Proportional control of field devices

26. Current flows into the _____
a. Input terminal of a sinking DC input module

b. Input terminal of a sinking output field device

c. Output terminal of a sinking input field device

d. All of the above

27. In a current sinking DC input module _____
a. The current flows out of the input field device
b. Requires that a AC sources be used with mechanical switches

c. The current flows out of the input module

d. Currents can flow in either direction at the input module

28. What one item in the input module circuit above should be changed to make it correct.
a. The battery polarity

b. Input module should be sinking

c. Field device should be sinking

d. Current flow direction

29. When _____ contacts are actuated, they disrupt the power supply through them.
a. normally open type
b. normally closed type
c. both a. and b.

d. none of the above

30. The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data which are
immediately required for use is called as______.
a. HDD

b. ROM

c. RAM
d. SSD

31. How is the speed of operation of conventional relay system as compared to digital
controllers?
a. very slow
b. very fast

c. same

d. almost similar

32. The capability of convention relay systems for complex operations is ____ that of the
PLCs .
a. poor than
b. excellent than

c. as good as

d. unpredictable as

33. How is the noise immunity of PLCs to electrical noises as compared to that of
conventional relay controllers?
a. poor
b. excellent

c. as good as noise immunity of conventional relay controllers

d. unpredictable

34. _____ of PLCs can be done in very little time.

a. Programming

b. Installation

c. Commissioning

d. All of the above

35. PLC can be _____ in plant to change the sequence of operation.
a. only programmed

b. only reprogrammed
c. programmed and reprogrammed
d. able to give a set point

36. The PLC is used in _______.

a. machine tools

b. automated assembly equipment

c. moulding and extrusion machines

d. all of the above

37. Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?
a. Manual switches

b. Relays

c. Sensors

d. None of the above

38. Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to:
a. Analog output

b. Digital output
c. Analog input

d. Digital input

39. In a PLC “I” is used for output and “Q” is used for input
a. True

b. False
40. The most common application of float system is

a. To monitor the fuel tank level in motor vehicle

b. To monitor the flow of solid
c. To monitor the flow of liquid
d. All of these

41. The sensors are classified on the basis of

a. Functions

b. Performance

c. Output

d. All of the above

42. Following is not an example of transducer.

a. Analogue voltmeter

b. Thermocouple

c. Photo electric cell

d. Pneumatic cylinder

43. A piezo-electrical crystal generates voltage when subjected to ____ force.

a. Electrical

b. Mechanical

c. Gravity

d. All of the above

44. 16-Following is (are) the type(s) of Light sensor(s)

a. Photo sensor

b. Photo transistors

c. Photo conductors

d. All of the above

45. Inductive proximity sensors can be effective only when the objects are of _____
materials.
a. Ferro magnetic

b. Diamagnetic

c. Paramagnetic

d. All of the above

46. Following acts as detector in Optical sensor

a. Light emitting diode

b. Photo diode

c. Transistor

d. All of the above

47. Which fluid is used in hydraulic power systems?

a. water
b. oil
c. non-compressible fluid
d. all of the above
48. Which sensor can detect nearby objects?
a. Proximity sensor
b. Humidity sensor
c. Touch sensor
d. Pressure sensor

49. Which proximity sensor detects metal objects?

a. Capacitive Proximity Sensor
b. Magnetic Proximity Sensor
c. Ultrasonic Proximity Sensor
d. Inductive Proximity Sensor

50. Which of the following are encoder advantages?

a. Low cost
b. High resolution
c. High reliability and accuracy
d. All of the Above
51. Incremental encodes use
a. One channel
b. Two channels
c. Two channels and sometimes three channels
d. None of the above
52. Absolute encoders are used where
a. Fast varying signals are not used
b. When position data is to be recovered even after a temporary power outage
c. Transient noise can be tolerated as it causes only a transient disturbance
d. All of the above

53.Which of the following temperature sensors is not used for a temperature measurement?
a. Non-electrical type
b. Electrical type
c. Magnetic type
d. Radiation type
54.The resistance _________ with increase in temperature.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Becomes constant
d. Becomes zero
55.Which of the following devices is not used for pressure measurement?
a. Diaphragm gauge
b. Pressure bellows
c. Strain gauge
d. Dynamometer
56.Which of the following measures the pressure with change in electrical resistance?
a. Bourdon tube
b. Pressure bellows
c. Strain gauge
d. Diaphragm gauge
57.If the two metals have different temperature coefficient then, they are useful in making
_________
a. Manometric thermometer
b. Gas thermometer
c. Bimetallic thermometer
d. Digital thermometer
58. The instruments used for the measurement of pressure is/are
a. Bellows
b. Diaphragms
c. Fiber optic pressure sensors
d. All of these
59. Bourdon tube is used for the measurement of gauge pressure of
a. Gas
b. Liquid fluid
c. Solid
d. Both (a) and (b)
60. The devices used for flow obstruction are
a. Orifice plate
b. Venturi tube
c. Flow nozzle and dall flow tube
d. All of these
61. Output of a bimetallic element will be __________________
a. Strain
b. Pressure
c. Displacement
d. Voltage
62. In ultrasonic level gauge, the ultrasonic source is placed at the
a. Bottom of the vessel containing the liquid
b. Top of the vessel containing the liquid
c. Middle of the vessel containing the liquid
d. Far from the vessel containing the liquid
63. A vibrating level sensors consists of
a. One piezoelectric oscillators
b. Two piezoelectric oscillators
c. Three piezoelectric oscillators
d. Four piezoelectric oscillators
64. Which actuator does not need any external power source?
a. 3 phase motor
b. Solenoid valve
c. Wax Motor
d. BO motor
65. How many directions are there, for a fluid to flow in check valves?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
66. How many directions are there, for a fluid to flow in shuttle valves?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
67. What is the full form DCV in terms of pneumatic control systems?
a. Delicate Control Valve
b. Distance Control Value
c. Directional Control Valve
d. Diameter Control Valve
68. Which valve should be used if there is a need of fluid to flow in 4 directions?
a. Spool valve
b. Shuttle Valve
c. Check valve
d. Rubber valve
69. Which valve works on electricity and not on pressure difference?
a. Rubber valve
b. Pilot Valve
c. Check valve
d. Solenoid valve
70. Which type of motion is transmitted by hydraulic actuators?
a. linear motion
b. rotary motion
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
71. What is the function of electric actuator?
a. converts electrical energy into mechanical torque
b. converts mechanical torque into electrical energy
c. converts mechanical energy into mechanical torque
d. none of the above
72. Which of the motions in actuators are preferred:
a. Translator
b. Rotary
c. Stationary
d. Non-Stationary
73. Assertion (A): Electric actuators are used control system for high torque applications.
Reason (R): Due to linear speed-Torque characteristics.
a. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
74. Which sensor can detect nearby objects?
a. Proximity sensor
b. Humidity sensor
c. Touch sensor
d. Pressure sensor
75. The monitoring of machines, gears and objects are achieved by which sensor?
a. Humidity sensor
b. Proximity sensor
c. Touch sensor
d. Pressure sensor
76. Which proximity sensor detects metal objects?
a. Capacitive Proximity Sensor
b. Magnetic Proximity Sensor
c. Ultrasonic Proximity Sensor
d. Inductive Proximity Sensor
77. Which proximity sensor indicates level?
a. Inductive Proximity Sensor
b. Capacitive Proximity Sensor
c. Magnetic Proximity Sensor
d. Ultrasonic Proximity Sensor
78. Which proximity sensor detects positioning of an object?
a. Inductive Proximity Sensor
b. Capacitive Proximity Sensor
c. Optical Proximity Sensor
d. Magnetic Proximity Sensor
79. Which device generates output signal when metal objects are either inside or entering into
sensing area.
a. Capacitive Proximity
b. Magnetic Proximity
c. Inductive proximity
d. Parallel Proximity
80. What is the sensing range for magnetic proximity sensors?
a. 120mm
b. 90mm
c. 150mm
d. 100mm
81. What is the sensing range for capacitive proximity sensors?
a. 150mm
 b. 25mm
c. 120mm
d. 100mm
82. _________ sensors have no electrical noise effect and it can work DC.
a. Inductive proximity
b. Capacitive Proximity
c. Magnetic Proximity
d. Parallel Proximity
83. ________ detects metals but along with it can also detect resins, liquids.
a. Inductive proximity
b. Capacitive Proximity
c. Magnetic Proximity
d. Parallel Proximity
84. NO stands for
a. Naturally open
b. Normally ON
c. Normally Open
d. None of the above
85. Relay is an
a. Mechanical device
b. Electrical switch
c. Manual switch
d. None of the above
86. SPST stands for –
a. Single Pole Single Throw
b. Single Pole State Throw
c. Solid Pole Single Throw
d. Single Pole Single Turn
87. NC stands for –
a. Normally Close
b. Normally contact
c. Naturally close
d. Naturally contact
88. Limit switch has
a. Mechanical Actuation
b. Manual Actuation
c. Electrical Actuation
d. None of the above
89 . SPDT switch used as
a. Staircase switch
b. Bed Switch
c. None of the above
d. Both a and b

90. SSR stands for –

a. Single stand Relay
b. Single Solid relay
c. Solid State relay
d. All of the above
91. The sensors are classified on the basis of
a. Functions
b. Performance
c. Output
d. All of the above
92. Following is (are) the type(s) of Light sensor(s)
a. Photo sensor
b. Photo transistors
c. Photo conductors
d. All of the above
93. Following acts as detector in Optical sensor
a. Light emitting diode
b. Photo diode
c. Transistor
d. All of the above
94. DPST stands for
a. Dual pole Single Throw
b. Dual pole Straight Throw
c. Double Pole Single Throw
d. None of the above
95. DPDT has
a. One NO terminal
b. One NC terminal
c. Two NO terminal
d. All of the above
96. Each horizontal line Ladder Diagram is referred to as:
a. Period
b. Group
c. Row
d. Rung
97. Which of the following is correct about contacts or coils seen in a Ladder Diagram PLC:
a. All contacts and coils are real
b. Contacts are real, while coils are programmed bits
c. Coils are real, while contacts are programmed bits
d. Both coils and contacts are bits in PLC memory

98. How many possible stages an input can have in LADDER Logic?
a. Two
b. One
c. Three
d. None of these

99. What do you mean by “NO” contact using for Input in LADDER Logic?
a. Normally Operative
b. Normally Open
c. Not Operative
d. None of these
100. What do you mean by “NC” contact using for Input in LADDER Logic?
a. No Contact
b. Normally Contact
c. Normally Close
d. None of these

101. The Scan Time of the PLC is approximately .

a. 1/100th of a second
b. 1/1000th of a second
c. 1/10000th of a second
d. None of these

102. Normally the current range of the analog input card is .

a. 0 to 10 ma
b. 0 to 20 ma
c. 0 to 40 ma
d. None of these
103. For larger PLC, normally the input cards contain numbers of input.
a. 4 or 8
b. 8 or 16
c. 16 or 32
d. None of these
104. According to the module PLC categorizes into types.
a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. None of these
105. A typically small sized PLC contain Input/Output.
a. 512
b. 1024
c. 500
d. 1000
106. IFM responsible for?

a. PC to PLC Communication
b. PLC to PLC Communication
c. PLC to Physical Load Communication
d. None of these
107. IFM stands for?

a. Intra-Face Module
b. Information Frequency Modulation
c. Inter-Facing Module
d. None of these
108. Abbreviate PROFIBUS?

a. Program Field Bus

b. Process Field Bus
c. Process Fit Bus
d. None of these

109. Abbreviate PPI?

a. Port to Port Interface

b. Process to Process Interface
c. Point to Point Interface
d. None of these

110. Abbreviate MPI?

a. Memory Port Interface

b. Multi Point Interface
c. Modular PLC Interface
d. None of these
111. FB stands for?

a. Function Bit
b. Function Block
c. Function BUS
d. None of these
112. Errors occurring during program execution in the PLC .

a. Execution Error
b. Runtime Error
c. Programming Error
d. None of these
113. Function Block Diagram (FBD) is a type of .

a. PLC Language

b. Block Diagram of a module

c. Block Diagram of a PLC model
d. None of these
114. CAN BUS can be used for .
a. PC to PLC Communication
b. PLC to PLC Communication
c. Communication between different modules
d. None of these

115. IN “PROFIBUS-PA” PA stands for?

a. Process Automation
b. Process Automatically
c. Product Automatically
d. None of these
116. Which one of these is not a type of PLC Language?
a. LAD
b. FDB
c. STL
d. None of these

117. In the Hardware Configuration page “UR” stands for?

a. Universal Rail
b. Universal Reserved
c. Un-Reserved Rail
d. None of these

118. “---| |---“symbol stands for

a. Output Coil (Address)
b. Normally Closed Contact (Address)
c. Normally Open Contact (Address)
d. None of these
119. MCR stands for?
a. Minimum Control Relay
b. Maximum Control Relay
c. Master Control Relay
d. None of these
1.I
nst
ruct
ionsavai
l
abl
einPLCscanbegr
oupedi
ntwocat
egor
ies:
___
___
__and_
___
___
_
i
nst
ruct
ions.

a)basi
cladder_enhancedl
adder

b)basi
cladderandsi
mpl
eladder

c) enhancedl
adder_
rel
ati
onal
ladder

2._
___
_isamet
hodofent
eri
ngl
adderl
ogi
crepr
esent
ati
on.

a)Segmentpr
ogr
ammi
ng

b)TI
NT

c) Bool
eanmnemoni
cs

3.Al
adderdi
agr
am i
scomposedof_
___
_eachcont
rol
l
ing_
___
_.

a)oneormor
erungs_
aJSR

b)oneormor
erungs_
oneout
put

c) onl
yoner
ung_oneout
put

4.Laddercont
act
scanbepr
ogr
ammedi
n:

a)Bot
hanswer
sar
etr
ue.

b)ser
ies-
par
all
el

c) ser
iesorpar
all
el

5.Selectt
hei
ncorr
ectanswer
.One-
shotout
put
smaybet
ri
gger
edbyei
thert
he_
___
_or
the____
_ofthesi
gnal
.

a)l
eadi
ngedge_t
rai
l
ingedge

b)I
nputedge_Out
putedge

c) r
isi
ngedge_f
all
i
ngedge

6.I
fyouwantr
ever
sepowerf
lowt
obepr
esenti
nar
ungy
oumustpr
ogr
am a

a)Rev
ersepat
hthati
mpl
ement
sther
ever
sef
low.
 b)For
war
dpat
hthati
mpl
ement
sther
ever
sef
low.

c) user
ever
sel
ogi
c

7._
___i
samet
hodusedt
oobser
vet
heoper
ati
onorexecut
ionofacont
rol
progr
am one
t
ime.

a)St
epscan

b)Testr
ungscan

c) Si
ngl
escan

8.TheL2r
ail
sideofanel
ect
romechani
cal
cir
cui
tisr
epr
esent
edby_
___
___
___
___
.

a)t
hel
eftsi
deoft
her
ail

b)Ther
ightsi
deoft
hel
adderr
ung.

c) sub-
scr
iptl
ett
eri
ngwi
thar
rows

9.PLCi
nst
ruct
ions_
___
___
___
_.

a)Usest
hesamesy
mbol
sasr
elayl
ogi
c.

b)wer
ecopi
edusi
ngt
heor
igi
nal
rel
ayi
nst
ruct
ions

c) Wer
eaddedt
otheor
igi
nal
rel
ayi
nst
ruct
ionst
omakePLCsmor
epower
ful
.

10.Ti
mer
smayhav
eoneormor
e__
___f
ort
hei
rref
erencet
imi
ng.

a)t
imebases

b)anal
ogout
put
s

c) unl
atchi
nput
s

11.Timersandcount
ersusewhati
sknownasa(
n)_
___
_anda(
n)_
___
_tohol
dthe
tar
getval
ueandtheaccumul
atedval
ue.

a)hol
dingcount_t
argethol
der

b)ENbi
t_DNbi
t

c) pr
e-setr
egi
ster
¬_accumul
atedr
egi
ster
12.Counter
scanhav
eout
put
sthatt
urnONwhent
heaccumul
atedcount_
___
_thepr
e-
setcount
.

a)bot
hanswer
sar
ecor
rect

b)i
sequal
toorl
esst
han

c) i
sgr
eat
ert
han

13.Pr
ogr
am/
flowcont
rol
inst
ruct
ionsar
eusedwhenev
ery
ouwantt
o__
___
__.

a)r
unsomecont
rol
modul
es

b)br
anchordi
ver
texecut
ionoft
hepr
ogr
am

c) st
opt
hecont
rol
progr
am

14.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotat
ypi
cal
flowcont
rol
inst
ruct
ion:

a)REROUTE

b)GOSUB

c) MCR

15.Anov
erf
lowcondi
ti
onsi
gnal
l
edbyanout
putcoi
lmeanst
hat_
___
___
___
___
_.

a)t
heoper
ati
oni
scompl
eteandcor
rect

b)t
her
esul
tisav
ail
abl
eforanot
heroper
ati
on

c) t
heresul
tisgr
eat
ert
hant
hemaxi
mum v
aluet
hatcanbehel
dint
her
esul
t
r
egi
ster

16.I
ngeneral
doubl
e-pr
eci
sionar
it
hmet
ici
nst
ruct
ionsuse_
___
_ascompar
edt
osi
ngl
e
pr
eci
sionI
nst
ruct
ions.

a)mor
eregi
ster
s

b)l
essr
egi
ster
s

c) t
hesamenumberofr
egi
ster
s

17.Af
terapowerf
ail
urear
etent
ivet
imer
’s_
___
___
___
___
___
___
.
 a)Accumul
atedv
aluest
oredi
sret
ained.

b)Pr
e-setv
aluei
skeptbutnott
heaccumul
atedv
alue.

c) Aut
omat
ical
l
yreset
swhent
hepowercomesbackon.

18.AGOTOi
nst
ruct
ion_
___
___
___
___
__.

a)Si
mpl
ytr
ansf
ersf
lowcont
rol
execut
iont
oanot
herr
ung.

b)Repl
acesan“
END”i
nst
ruct
ion.

c) Al
way
sGOTOr
ung1i
ntheMAI
Npr
ogr
am.

19.Ladderf
ormatar
it
hmet
ici
nst
ruct
ionsar
eaccompani
edby_
___
___
___
___
___
_.

a)Datatransferi
nst
ruct
ions-suchasNOPi
nst
ruct
ions-t
oCLEARt
woormor
e
regi
sters.

b)Dat
atr
ansf
eri
nst
ruct
ions-
suchasNOPi
nst
ruct
ions-
toobt
aint
het
wooper
ands.

c) Dat
atr
ansf
eri
nst
ruct
ions-
suchasGETi
nst
ruct
ions-t
oobt
aint
het
wooper
ands.

20._
___
_Inst
ruct
ionsal
l
owy
out
omani
pul
ateorhandl
emul
ti
-bi
toper
ati
ons.

a)Dat
asequenci
ng.

b)Dat
amov
ement

c) Dat
amani
pul
ati
onandhandl
i
ng

21.Alogicmat
ri
xinst
ruct
ionper
for
mswhati
sknownasa_
___
_ofoner
egi
stert
o
another
.

a)Rev
ersal
oper
ati
on

b)Tr
ansf
er

c) Mask

22.I
fyouwant
edt
oini
ti
ali
zeav
ari
abl
eatzer
oyouwoul
d__
___
___
_.

a)Connecti
ttoanov
olt
agei
nput
 b)Reassi
gnt
hev
ari
abl
etoanot
herr
egi
ster

c) Assi
gnaconst
antof0t
other
egi
ster

23.Anexami
nebi
tinst
ruct
ional
l
owy
out
o__
___i
nar
egi
ster
.

a)Cl
earabi
t

b)Putaonei
nabi
tlocat
ion

c) Checkabi
tlocat
ion

24.A_
___
_inst
ruct
ionmov
es16bi
tsf
rom onel
ocat
iont
oanot
her
.

a)Mov
eregi
ster

b)Mov
ebi
t

c) Mov
ebl
ock

25.Thet
wot
abl
emov
einst
ruct
ionsav
ail
abl
einaPLCar
e__
___
___
.

a)Tabl
etomemor
yandmemor
ytot
abl
e

b)Tabl
etor
egi
sterandr
egi
stert
otabl
e

c) Tabl
etomemor
yandt
abl
etor
egi
ster

26.Abl
ockt
ransf
eri
nst
ruct
ioni
sdesi
gnedt
obeusedwi
tha_
___
_I/
Omodul
e.

a)Mul
ti
-bi
t

b)si
ngl
ebi
t

c) r
emot
e

27.Whenablocktr
ansf
eri
nisusedt
oreadsev
eral
channel
sfr
om ananal
ogmodul
ethe
val
uesar
eplacedi
n___
__inmemory.

a)t
hescr
atchpad

b)cont
iguousr
egi
ster
s

c) t
heI
/Ot
abl
e
28.AnASCI
Itr
ansf
eri
nst
ruct
ionusual
l
ywor
kshandi
nhandwi
than_
___
_modul
e.

a)ASCI
Icommuni
cat
ions

b)AC/
DCi
nput

c) I
nputnon-
vol
tage.

29.TheFI
FOt
ransf
eri
nst
ruct
ionst
andsf
or_
___
_.

a)f
ir
st-
inf
ir
st-
out

b)f
ade-
inf
ade-
out

c) f
ir
st-
inputf
ir
st-
out
put

30.SCADAi
sbestdescr
ibedas

a)Amai
ntenancemet
hodol
ogy

b)Acomput
er

c) APLC

d)At
ypeofsof
twar
e

31.SCADAi
sanacr
ony
mfor

a)Super
visor
yCl
assADat
aAcqui
sit
ion

b)SuperComput
erandDi
git
alAnal
ysi
s

c) Super
visor
yComput
erDat
aAcqui
sit
ion

d)Super
visor
yCont
rol
AndDat
aAcqui
sit
ion

32.SCADAi
sbasi
cal
l
yanHMI(
HumanMachi
neI
nter
face)
.

a)Fal
se

b)Tr
ue

33.Bestanswer
:Thebr
andofSCADAsof
twar
echoseni
sbasedon
 a)Al
lthest
atement
sar
efal
se

b)Count
ryandi
ndust
ryt
ypeandsi
zeoff
aci
l
ityandot
herf
act
ors

c) I
ndust
ryt
ype

d)Si
zeoff
aci
l
ity

e) Count
ry

34.I
ntoday
’saut
omat
ioncont
rol
wor
ld

a)PLCsdot
hebul
koft
hemachi
necont
rol

b)SCADAdoest
hebul
koft
hemachi
necont
rol

c) Nei
theronl
yrel
ayscont
rol
machi
nes

35.Dat
aAcqui
sit
ionpar
tofSCADAi
s

a)Tr
endi
ng

b)Al
arml
oggi
ng

c) Loggi
ng

d)Messagel
oggi
ng

e) Al
loft
heanswer
sher
ear
ecor
rect

36.Gener
all
ythe3t
ypesofl
oggi
ngar
ecy
cli
cdr
iven,
___
__dr
iven,
andahy
bri
dofbot
h.

a)Mechani
cal
l
y

b)Rel
ay

c) Tr
igger

d)Ti
mer

e) Ev
ent
ANSWERS:

1.
(a)2.
(c)3.
(b)4.(
a)5.
(b)6.(
b)7.(
c)8.(
b)9.(
c)10.(
a)11.(
c)12.(
a)13.(
b)14.(
a)15.(
c)16.(
a)
17.
(a)18.
(a)19.
(c)20.
(c)21.
(c)22.
(c)23.
(c)24.
(a)25.
(b)26.
(a)27.
(b)28.
(a)29.
(a)30.
(d)
31.
(d)32.
(b)33.
(b)34.
(a)35.(
e)36.(
e)
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Electrical Engineering MCQ Question Papers: Campus Placement

Subject: PLC and SCADA Application 1 Electrical Measuring Devices 8

Electrical Measuring Devices 7

Part 1: List for questions and answers of PLC & SCADA
Application Electrical Measuring Devices 6

  Electrical Measuring Devices 5

Q1. When ___________ contacts are actuated, they disrupt the Electrical Measuring Devices 4
power supply through them
Electrical Measuring Devices 3
a) Normally open type
Electrical Measuring Devices 2
b) Normally closed type
Electrical Measuring Devices 1
c) Both a. and b
Magnetism and Capacitors 7
d) None of the above
  Magnetism and Capacitors 6

Q2. The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores Magnetism and Capacitors 5
the data which are immediately required for use is called
as______ Magnetism and Capacitors 4

a) HDD Magnetism and Capacitors 3

b) ROM Magnetism and Capacitors 2

c) RAM Magnetism and Capacitors 1

d) SSD
ALL PAPERS
 
Q3. How is the speed of operation of conventional relay system Select Category
as compared to digital controllers?
a) Very slow
b) Very fast
c) Same
d) Almost similar
 
Q4. The capability of convention relay systems for complex
operations is ___________ that of the PLCs

a) Poor than
b) Excellent than
c) As good as
d) Unpredictable as
 
Q5. How is the noise immunity of PLCs to electrical noises as
compared to that of conventional relay controllers?

a) Poor
b) Excellent
c) As good as noise immunity of conventional relay controllers

d) Unpredictable
 
Q6. __________ of PLCs can be done in very little time
a) Programming
b) Installation
c) Commissioning

d) All of the above 

 
Q7. PLC can be ___________ in plant to change the sequence of
operation

a) Only programmed
b) Only reprogrammed
c) Programmed and reprogrammed

d) Able to give a set point

 
Q8. The PLC is used in _______
a) Machine tools
b) Automated assembly equipment

c) Moulding and extrusion machines

d) All of the above
 

Q9. Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to

the PLC?
a) Manual switches
b) Relays

c) Sensors
d) None of the above
 

Q10. Which unit of PIC undergo the process of converting

mains ac voltage to low dc voltage required for the circuits and
the input-output interfacing modules ?
a) Memory Unit
b) Processing Unit

c) Input/Output Unit
d) Power Supply Unit
 
Q11. Which bus forms an intermediate communication path
between input/output ports and input/output units?
a) Control Bus
b) Data Bus

c) Address Bus
d) System Bus
 

Q12. Which kind of switches examine or detect the presence of

an item or object without making contact with them?
a) Proximity Switches
b) Reed Switches

c) Photo-electric Switches
d) Mechanical Switches 
 
Q13. Which machine tools are basically handled and controlled
by Computer Numerical Control (CNC) machine especially at
the manufacturing sector?

a) Lathes
b) Routers
c) Mills and Grinders

d) All of the above

 
Q14. What are the possible forms of energy transmission that
can be undertaken by a transducer ?

a) Acoustical
b) Electrical
c) Mechanical

d) All of the above

 
Q15. Compared to humans, machines:
a) Can make more complex decisions based on unexpected
circumstances
b) Can work in harsher environments
c) Make fewer errors

d) (a) and (c)

 
Q16. Which device does the general population associate most
with automation?

a) Flexible manufacturing
b) Robots
c) Numerical control machine

d) Computer graphics workstation

 
Q17. Using a microcomputer as a controller allows:

a) Faster cycle time

b) Simpler mechanical hardware
c) More self diagnostics of the machine operation
d) All of the above
 
Q18. If the transient response is under damped:
a) Steady-state will be reached faster than if the system is
overdamped

b) The value of the output will exceed the value of the input at
times during the transient period
c) The present overshoot is zero
d) Both a and b 

 
 
Q19. What should be first considered in choosing a plotter?

a) The hardware you currently own

b) The application for which it will be used
c) The type of data you will input

d) The cost
 
Q20. The coordinate system used to describe a workpiece:

a) Is always two-dimensional
b) Changes from part to part
c) Is defined with respect to a point on the machine
d) All of the above 
 
Part 1: List for questions and answers of PLC & SCADA
Application

 
Q1. Answer: b
 
Q2. Answer: c
 
Q3. Answer: a
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UPPCL JE Electrical PLC,SCADA, Microcontrollers Important MCQ PDF 4

1.A ____ is a digital electronic device that uses programmable memory to store instructions.

(A) Programmable logic controller

(B) Servomechanism
(C) Both of these
(D) None of these

Answer-A

2.____ is a method used to send commands , programs and receives monitoring information from
the remote locations.

(A) Micro-controller
(B) PLC
(C) Telemetry
(D) None of the above

Answer-C

3.From which of the following is the application of SCADA.

(A) Mining industries

(B) Power plant
(C) Both of these
(D) None of these

Answer-C

4.What is the first step in designing an effective PLC control system?

(A) approach the system in a systematic manner

(B) flowchart the process
(C) define the control task
(D) define the control strategy

Answer-C

5.System operation for new applications usually begins with:

(A) sample diagrams

(B) specifications
(C) the control strategy
(D) logic diagrams

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Answer-B

6.Logic sequences for a control program can be created using

(A) logic gates

(B) relay ladder symbology
(C) PLC contact symbology
(D) all of these

Answer-D

7.The principle reason for leaving certain portions of the control circuit hardwired is to

(A) minimize wiring

(B) avoid failure of main magnetic elements
(C) ensure safety
(D) keep some devices running at all times

Answer-C

8.The PLC fault contacts are wired to other hardwired emergency circuit elements

(A) in parallel
(B) in series
(C) normally open
(D) normally closed

Answer-B

9.The main reason the PLC fault contacts are included in the hardwired circuit is

(A) to prevent system shut down

(B) to detect I/O failures
(C) to include the PLC as an emergency stop condition
(D) to shut down the system if there is a PLC failure

Answer-D

10.What element can be used to trap timers in a PLC control program

(A) a reset instruction

(B) a start push button
(C) a pilot light
(D) an internal output

Answer-D

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11.For PLC’s scan cycle which one is correct

(A) Program execute ,Output write , Input read

(B) Input read ,Output write ,Program execute
(C) Output write , Input read , Program execute
(D) Input read , Program execute , Output write

Answer-D

12.Programming language for PLC is...

(A) Function Block Diagram (FBD)

(B) Statement list (STL)
(C) Ladder
(D) All of these

Answer-D

13.PLC’s analog input/output has.

(A) 1 bit address

(B) 1 byte address
(C) 1 word address
(D) 1 double word address

Answer-C

14.The PLCs were originally designed to replace..

(A) Analog controllers

(B) DCS
(C) Microcomputers
(D) Hardwired control

Answer-D

15.How the instruction in the PLC language work

(A) It detects the signal state from 0 to 1.

(B) It detects the signal state from 1 to 0 and remains close till signal is 0.
(C) It detects the signal state from 1 to 0 and remains close for one scan cycle only.
(D) When signal state is 1 this instruction remains close.

Answer-C

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Flow Chart Symbol & Use

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Flow Chart Symbol

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 MCQ On
Unit No. 02
Interfacing of PLC
with I/O devices
Prepared By,
Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande
Department of Electrical Engineering
Zeal College of Engineering and Research, Pune
B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
Unit II – Interfacing of PLC with I/O devices

1. Which of the following can be the output of PLC?

1. Relay coils
2. Solenoids
3. Indicators
4. Motors
5. Lamps
6. Alarms
(a) Only (1), (2), (3) and (4) (b) Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)
(c) Only (1), (2), (3) and (5) (d) All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)

2. Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?

(a) Manual switches (b) Relays
(c) Sensors (d) None of the above

3. When _____ contacts are actuated, they disrupt the power supply through them.
(a) normally open type (b) normally closed type
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above

4. Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to:

(a) Analog output (b) Digital output
(c) Analog input (d) Digital input

5. Which one of the following is the example discrete (digital) control is

(a) Varying the volume of a music (b) Turning a lamp ON or OFF
system
(c) Varying the brightness of a lamp (d) Controlling the speed of a fan

6. Which of the following statements about a single pole double throw relay is NOT
true?
(a) It is called an SPDT type of relay. (b) It has one common contact.
(c) It has two positions (NC and NO). (d) It has a center off position.

7. The _____ is moved toward the relay electromagnet when the relay is on.
(a) Armature (b) Coil
(c) NO contact (d) NC contact

8. Which one of the following is an input device

(a) Motor (b) Light
(c) Valve (d) Sensor

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 1

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
9. The ____ represents the number of individual power circuits that can be switched
and ______ represents the number of states to which current can pass through the
switch
(a) Pole, Throw (b) Throw, Pole
(c) Switch, pole (d) None of the above

10. _____ type of proximity sensor is used to detect non – conductive material such as
cloth, paper and glass
(a) Inductive (b) Resistive
(c) Capacitive (d) None of the above

11. Which one of the following is the digital output device

(a) Relay (b) RTD
(c) Flow switch (d) Toggle switch

12. Which one of the following is the analog input devices

(a) Relay (b) Flow switch
(c) Solenoids (d) Temperature transducers

13. How is the speed of operation of conventional relay system as compared to digital
controllers?
(a) Very slow (b) Very fast
(c) Same (d) Can’t say

14. The capability of convention relay systems for complex operations is ___________ that
of the PLCs.
(a) as good as (b) excellent than
(c) poor than (d) unpredictable as

15. ____ is most commonly used metal in the construction of Resistance Temperature
Detector (RTD)
(a) Aluminum (b) Gold
(c) Copper (d) Platinum

16. ___ are used to sense the position of objects or material

(a) Flow switches (b) Solenoids
(c) Limit switches (d) Contactors.

17. ___ has selector knob which selects particular position

(a) Selector switch (b) Solenoid
(c) Push button (d) Relay

18. _______ converts electrical signal to mechanical signal

(a) Push button (b) Temperature switch
(c) Solenoid (d) Contactor

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 2

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
19. _______ is the active temperature transducer
(a) Bimetallic thermometer (b) Thermistor
(c) RTD (d) Thermocouple

20. Analog input devices communicate with PLC by sending standard ______signal
(a) 0 – 20 mA (b) 4 – 20 mA
(c) 0 – 10 mA (d) 2 – 4 mA
=======================================================

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 3

 MCQ On
Unit No. 03
Programming of
PLC
Prepared By,
Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande
Department of Electrical Engineering
Zeal College of Engineering and Research, Pune
B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
Unit III – Programming of PLC

1. In PLC programming, a retentive function is one that:

(a) Defaults to the “on” state (b) is not reset after a power cycle
(c) Defaults to the “off” state (d) Comes last in the program

2. An OR function implemented in ladder logic uses:

(a) Normally-closed contacts in (b) Normally-open contacts in series
series
(c) A single normally-closed contact (d) Normally-open contacts in parallel

3. AND function implemented in ladder logic uses:

(a) Normally-open contacts in (b) Normally-closed contacts in series
series
(c) A single normally-closed contact (d) Normally-open contacts in parallel

4. Which of the following is the programming language of the PLC

(a) Ladder Diagram (b) Structured List
(c) Functional Block Diagram (d) All of the above

5. Collection of 4 bits is ______

(a) Bit (b) Nibble
(c) Word (d) Byte

6. Collection of 8 bits is ______

(a) Bit (b) Nibble
(c) Word (d) Byte

7. Collection of 16 bits is ______

(a) Bit (b) Nibble
(c) Word (d) Byte

8. In ladder diagram, Horizontal lines are _______ and vertical lines are ______
(a) Rails and Rungs (b) Rungs and Rails
(c) Rung and Neutral Line (d) None of the above

9. ________instruction is a retentive output instruction that is used to maintain, or latch,

an output.
(a) OTL (b) OTU
(c) MOV (d) CTU

10. Each 16 bit contains ____bytes and _____nibbles

(a) 4,2 (b) 2,4
(c) 2,2 (d) 4,4

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 1

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
11. In the address given below
I:1.0/2

1 represents ________ and 2 represents _______

(a) Bit Number and Slot Number (b) Slot Number and word number
(c) Slot Number and Bit Number (d) word number and bit number

12. Maximum time delay provided by timer is ______ seconds

(a) 500 (b) 16000
(c) 32000 (d) 32767

13. ____ timer retains the accumulated value and measures the cumulative time period,
during which rung condition is true
(a) On delay (b) Retentive
(c) Off delay (d) None of the above

14. _____ counter counts pulses of kilohertz frequency and used for encoder
application.
(a) High Speed (b) Up counter
(c) Down counter (d) None of the above

15. File number_____ and ____ is default file for Timer and Counter respectively
(a) 5, 4 (b) 1, 4
(c) 4, 5 (d) 5, 1

16. The length of the time for which time is to run is called ______
(a) Timer address (b) Preset Value
(c) Time Base (d) Accumulated Value

17. In case of on delay timer, when accumulated value equals preset value, Which of the
following status bit will get set
(a) DN (b) TT
(c) EN (d) None of the above

18. Which of the following status bits will be in on condition (Set condition) in off delay
timer when the rung at which timer is connected becomes true
(a) Only DN bit (b) Only TT bit
(c) DN, EN bits (d) DN and TT bits

19. In case of off delay timer if rung is true which of the following status bits get set
(a) TT (b) DN
(c) EN (d) All of the above

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 2

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
20. In case of Up counter (CTU), Done bit is set when _________
(a) Accumulated value is less than (b) Accumulated value is greater than
preset value preset value
(c) Accumulated value is greater (d) None of the above
than or equal to preset value

=======================================================

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 3

 MCQ On
Unit No. 01
Introduction to
PLC
Prepared By,
Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande
Department of Electrical Engineering
Zeal College of Engineering and Research, Pune
B.E. Electrical (PLCSCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
Unit I: Introduction to PLC

1. Incoming control signals are called as________

(a) Output (b) Input
(c) Power (d) None of the above

2. The part that monitors the inputs and makes decisions in a PLC is the CPU.
(a) True (b) False
(c) Can’t say (d) None of the above

3. Transferring the PLC program from personal computer’s memory to PLC memory
is called as_________
(a) Uploading the program (b) Deleting the program
(c) Downloading of program (d) None of the above

4. Before downloading the user program, the processor must be ______ mode
(a) Scanning mode (b) Run mode
(c) Idle mode (d) Program mode

5. After downloading the user program, the processor must be ______ mode
(a) Scanning mode (b) Run mode
(c) Idle mode (d) Program mode

6. The continuous running of program in PLC is called as ______

(a) Scanning (b) Downloading
(c) Uploading (d) None of the above

7. The instructions you wish to carry out are transferred to the memory of the
controller from either ______ or ________
(a) Scanner or printer (b) PC or PLC
(c) Handheld programmer or personal (d) None of the above
computer

8. The PLC was invented by_____

(a) Bill Gates (b) Dick Morley
(c) Bill Landis (d) Tod Cunningham

9. Which one of the following is not a PLC manufacturer

(a) Siemens (b) Microsoft
(c) Mitsubishi (d) ABB

10. _____ conveys signals from the CPU to each module and from the module to the CPU

(a) Backplane (b) Power Supply

(c) DIN rail (d) I/O modules

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 1

B.E. Electrical (PLCSCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
11. Which of the following statement is correct?
1. Memory system provides storage of the user program.
2. Memory system provides storage of the input status file data.
3. Memory system provides storage of the output status file data.
(a) Only 1 (b) Both 2 and 3, but not 1
(c) Both 1 and 3, but not 2 (d) All statements are correct

12. The function of ____ is to convert and isolate the high voltage input level from field
device
(a) Input section (b) Output section
(c) Programmer (d) None of the above

13. _____ of PLCs can be done in very little time.

(a) Programming (b) Installation
(c) Commissioning (d) All of the above

14. The PLCs were originally designed to replace ______

(a) Analog controllers (b) DCS
(c) Hardwired control (d) Microcomputers

15. The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data which are
immediately required for use is called as______.
(a) HDD (b) RAM
(c) ROM (d) SSD

16. PLC can be ___________ in plant to change the sequence of operation.

(a) only programmed (b) only reprogrammed
(c) programmed and reprogrammed (d) able to give a set point

17. Which one of the following is the data file in SLC 500 PLC
(a) Timer File (b) System File
(c) Program File (d) None of the above

18. For PLC scan cycle, which of the following is correct

(a) Program execute, Output write, Input (b) Input read, Output write,
read Program execute
(c) Output right, Input read, Program (d) Input read, Program execute,
execute Output write

19. In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time in which ….
(a) timers and counters are indexed by (b) the entire program takes to
execute
(c) one “rung” of ladder logic takes to (d) the technician enters the
complete program

20. PLC having less than_____ input and outputs are called as Small PLC
(a) 50 (b) 200 (c) 100 (d) 200

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 2

B.E. Electrical (PLCSCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 3

 MCQ On
Unit No. 04
Advance function
and application of
PLC
Prepared By,
Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande
Department of Electrical Engineering
Zeal College of Engineering and Research, Pune
B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
Unit IV: Advance function and application of PLC

1. PID controller is also known as ______

(a) Three term controllers (b) Proportional controller
(c) Two term controllers (d) Four term controllers

2. In PID controller, the overshoots have increased. The derivative time constant has
to be ____ so, as to reduce the overshoot
(a) Reduced to Zero (b) Increased
(c) Reduced (d) None of the above

3. In PID controller, the overshoots have increased. The integral time constant has to
be ____ so, as to reduce the overshoot
(a) Increased (b) Reduced
(c) Reduced to Zero (d) None of the above

4. Which of the following system provides excellent transient and steady state
response
(a) Proportional + differential action (b) Proportional +integral + differential
action
(c) Proportional action (d) Proportional + integral action

5. A typical PLC analog input or output signal have voltage that vary between ____ and,
or current that may vary between _______
(a) 0 to 5 volts and 0 to 10 mA (b) 0 to 10 volts and 0 to 5 mA
(c) 0 to 20 volts and 0 to 10 mA (d) 0 to 10 volts and 0 to 20 mA

6. The cheapest starter for induction motor is

(a) Stator resistance starter (b) Star-delta starter
(c) Autotransformer starter (d) Rotor resistance starter

7. Windings of star-delta starter while starting and during running are connected in
(a) Delta, delta (b) Star, star
(c) Delta, star (d) Star, delta

8. The advantages of star-delta starter over other types of starter is

(a) Cheapest of all (b) Maintenance free
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these

9. The derivative control action is typically used when controlling, but rarely used
when controlling.
(a) Temperature, Flow (b) Flow, Level
(c) pH, Temperature (d) Level, Flow

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 1

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
10. Overload relays are of ________ type.
(a) Solid state (b) Thermal
(c) Electromagnetic (d) All of the above

11. In PID controller, the overshoot has increased. The derivative time constant has to
be ____ so as to reduce overshoots
(a) Reduced to Zero (b) Increased
(c) Reduced (d) None of the above

12. In PID controller, the offset has increased. The integral time constant has to be ____
so as to reduce offset
(a) Reduced (b) Reduced to zero
(c) Increased (d) None of the above

13. When derivative action is included in a proportional controller, the proportional

band:
(a) Remains unchanged (b) Increases
(c) Reduces (d) None of the above

14. Role of proportional controller depends on prediction of ________ error

(a) Past error (b) Future error
(c) Present error (d) None of the above

15. In proportional temperature controller, if the quantity under the heater increases
the offset will _____
(a) Reduces (b) Increases
(c) Remains unaffected (d) None of the above

16. The integral control _______

(a) Decreases the damping (b) Increases the steady state error
coefficient
(c) Increases noise and stability (d) Decreases the steady state error

17. Increase in the _____ provides faster response and reduces offset
(a) Ki (b) Kd
(c) Kp (d) None of the above

18. Increase in the ____ will reduce overshoot

(a) Proportional time constant (Tp) (b) Derivative time constant (Td)
(c) Integral time constant (Ti) (d) None of the above

19. The role of differential controller depends on prediction of _____ error

(a) Only present error (b) Only past error
(c) Only future error (d) None of the above

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 2

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
20. _______ is the current measured value of particular process
(a) Process variable (b) Set point
(c) Controlled variable (d) None of the above

21. _______ action is used to make offset error zero

(a) Integral gain (b) Proportional gain
(c) Derivative gain (d) Both b and c

22. Which of the following statement is true?

1. Integral controller is proportional to both magnitude of error and duration
of error.
2. Integral controller is sum of the instantaneous error over time.
3. Integral controller can eliminate steady state error but it can have large
transient response.
(a) Statement (1) and (2) (b) Statement (2) and (3)
(c) Only statement (1) (d) All of the above

23. PID controllers are used _________

(a) To increase stability and (b) To decrease stability and to increase
decrease steady state error steady state error
(c) To decrease stability and (d) None of the above
decrease steady state error

24. Which of the following statement is true?

When only proportional controller is used
1. System has low offset.
2. System is fast to change in setpoint
3. Increase in the Kp, reduces the offset and minimize the response time
(a) Only statement (3) (b) Only statement (2)
(c) Statement (1) and (3) (d) Statement (1) and (2)
=======================================================

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 3

 CTTC, KOLKATA
Subject name: PLC

Q.1 How many types of current flows through an electrical circuit?

1.1 2.2
3.3 4. None of these
ANS-2

Q.2 According to PLC device signal module has __________

1.3 parts 2.5 parts

3.2 parts 4.None of these

ANS-3

Q.3 Current travels in closed circuits through__________

1. Conductors 2.5 Insulators

3.1 & 2 both 4.None of these
ANS-1

Q.4 Abbreviate PCB?

1. Printed circuit base

2. Printed circuit board
3. Plane circuit board
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.5 ____________is put on wires to prevent shock

1. Soil 2. Metals
3. Rubber & Plastic 4.None of these

ANS-3

Q.6 Abbreviate BF signal in PLC?

1. Bus Fault
2. Break fault
 3. Bit fault
4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.7 PPE stands for?

1. Personal Protective Equipment

2. Pure Protective Equipment
3. Personal Prospective Equipment
4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.8 Who has known as the Father of PLC?

1. Steve Jobs
2. Bill Gates
3. Dick Morley
4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.9 What is the name of the first PLC made by Bedford Associates of Bedford?

1. MODICON-184
2. MODICON-284
3. MODICON-084
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.10 what is the significance behind the product code “84” for the first PLC made by Bedford
Associates?

1. The year it was invented

2. Number of attempts
3. Number of persons worked for
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.11 Relay consisting of ____________

1. Only Coil Part 2.Only Contact Part

3.1 & 2 both 4.None of these
ANS-3
Q.12 The Programming line known as________uses in LADDER Logic for PLC?

1. Wrong 2.Rung
3. Right 4.None of these

ANS-2

Q.13 Abbreviate SFC?

1. Sequential Function Charts

2. Serial Function Charts
3. Short Function Charts
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.14 how many possible stages an input can have in LADDER Logic?

1. Two 2.One
3. Three 4.None of these

ANS-1

Q.15 What do you mean by “NO” contact using for Input in LADDER Logic?

1. Normally Operative
2. Normally Open
3. Not Operative
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.16 What do you mean by “NC” contact using for Input in LADDER Logic?

1. No Contact
2. Normally Contact
3. Normally Close
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.17 Which one of these is not a input type?

 1. Switch 2.Sensor
3. Motor 4.None of these

ANS-3

Q.18 Abbreviate PLC?

1. Periodical Logical Control

2. Program Logic Control
3. Programmable Logic Controller
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.19 Materials that permit flow of electrons are called_____________?

1. Insulators 2.Conductors
3. Both 1 & 2 4.None of these

ANS-2

Q.20 Which one of these permits the flow of electron?

1. Rubber 2.Teflon
3. Gold 4.None of these

ANS-3

Q.21 ___________is the most common material used to build semiconductor devices.

1. Silicon 2. Germanium
3. Boron 4.None of these

ANS-1

Q.22 In order to make useful semiconductor devices, which material/materials, is/are added
to Si to change its conductivity.

1. Only Phosphorus 2. Only Boron

3. Both 1 & 2 4.None of these

ANS-3

Q.23 Which is/are part of Signal module?

1. CPU313C 2. IM 153-1

3. DI16/DO16 4.All of the above

ANS-3

Q.24 full form of int-f signal on CPU?

1. Integer function

2. Internal fault

3. Initial focus

4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.25 Diode allows current to pass in__________direction.

1. One 2. Two
3. Both 4.None of these

ANS-1

Q.26 In a PN-Junction the P-side is called____________.

1. Cathode 2. Anode
3. Either One 4.None of these

ANS-2

Q.27 In a PN-Junction the N-side is called____________.

1. Anode 2. Cathode
3. Both 1 & 2 4.None of these

ANS-27

Q.28 When a Diode allows current to flow its in___________condition.

1. Reverse Biased 2.Forward Biased

3. Both 1 & 2 4.None of these

ANS-2

Q.29 Normally Diode is use as a_______________.

1. Inverter 2.Converter
3. Rectifier 4.None of these

ANS-3

Q.30 Identify this address “192.168.0.1”?

a. ip address

b. subnet mask address

c. cpu module address

d. none of these

ANS-A

Q. 31 Identify this address “255.255.0.1”?

1. Ip address

2. Subnet mask address

3. Cpu module address

4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.32 A Toggle Switch is a type________________.

1. Digital Device 2.Analog Device

3. Both 1 & 2 4.None of these

ANS-1

Q.33 Abbreviate DPST?

1. Dual Pole Single Throw

2. Double Pole Single Throw
3. Double Pole Start Throw
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.34 Which one of these is not a type of Toggle Switch?

1. SPCO 2.SPDT
3. Flush 4.All of the above

ANS-3

Q.35 A EMR (Relay) consist of____________.

1. Coil Part 2.Contact Part

3. Both Coil & Contact Part 4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.36 Abbreviate EMR (Relay)?

1. Electro Magnetic Relay

2. Electro Mechanical Relay
3. Electro Motive Relay
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.37 A Contactor consist of____________.

1. Fix Part 2.Moveable Part

3. Both Fix & Moveable Part 4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.38 A Auxiliary Contactor ____________.

1. Increases the contact part

2. Decreases the contact part
3. Enhance the coil strength
4. None of these

ANS-1

39. What is the meaning of “SR” flip flop?

1. System reset 2. set-reset

3. Set range 4. none of these

ANS-2

Q.40 In On-Delay Timer” delays turning on” means

1. delaying the input to get activate

2. delaying the output to get activate
3. Both 1 & 2
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.41 In Off-Delay Timer” delays turning off” means

1. delaying the input to get activate

2. delaying the output to get de-activate
 3. Both 1 & 2
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.42 BCD means?

1. Bit Coded Decimal

2. Binary Coded Decimal
3. Byte Coded Decimal
4. None of these

ANS-B

Q.43 1 Mili-Second (MS) =__________.

1. 1/10000th of a second
2. 1/1000th of a second
3. 1/100th of a second
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.44 A Inductive Sensors senses______________.

1. Only Metal
2. Only Non-Metal
3. Both Metal & Non-Metal
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.45 A Capacitive Sensors senses______________.

1. Only Metal
2. Only Non-Metal
3. Both Metal & Non-Metal
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.46 A Capacitive Sensor depends upon the_____________ of the sensing material.

1. Di-Electric Constant 2.Permitivity

3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of these

ANS-1
Q.47 Abbreviate TTL?

1. Transistor Thyristor Logic

2. Transistor Transistor Logic
3. Transistor Triac Logic
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.48 Abbreviate LED?

1. Light Emitting Diode

2. Liquid Emitting Diode
3. Liquid Emission Diode
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.49 Abbreviate CPU?

1. Central Peripheral Unit

2. Central Protecting Unit
3. Central Processing Unit
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.50 In a PLC unit I/O card communicate with the CPU Module by through______________

1. Back-Plane Unit
2. Adaptor Cable
3. PROFIBUS Cable
4. All of these above

ANS-1

Q.51 Which is/are mode normally present in the CPU module of the PLC unit?

1. RUN-Mode 2.STOP-Mode
3. Both RUN & STOP Mode 4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.52 One cycle through the program in a PLC unit is called a____________.

1. Period Time 2.Scan Time

 3. Cycle Time 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.53 According to Module, How many most essential components are present in the PLC Unit?

1. 3 2.5
3. 4 4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.54 __________considered as the brain of the PLC Unit.

1. Power Supply 2.I/O Module

3. CPU Module 4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.55 The Scan Time of the PLC is approximately_____________.

1. 1/100th of a second
2. 1/1000th of a second
3. 1/10000th of a second
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.56 Normally the current range of the analog input card is____________.

1. 0 to 10 ma
2. 0 to 20 ma
3. 0 to 40 ma
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.57 Abbreviate LVDT?

1. Linear Variable Differential Transmitter

2. Linear Voltage Differential Transformer
3. Linear Variable Differential Transformer
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.58 LVDT measures______________continuously using magnetic coupling.

 1. Angular displacement
2. Linear displacement
3. Both 1 & 2
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.59 NPN is considered as______________.

1. Sourcing 2.Sinking
3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.60 PNP is considered as______________.

1. Sinking 2. Sourcing
3. Either 1 or 2 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.61 For larger PLC, normally the input cards contain__________numbers of input.

1. 4 or 8 2. 8 or 16
3. 16 or 32 4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.62 Which one of these in not a type of PLC?

1. PAC 2. RTU
3. OME 4. None of these
ANS-3
Q.63 Abbreviate PAC?

1. Programmable Automatic Control

2. Programmable Automatic Controllers
3. Programmable Automation Controllers
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.64 According to the module PLC categorizes into____________types.

1. 4 2. 2
3. 3 4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.65 A typically small sized PLC contain___________Input/Output.

 1. 512 2. 500
3. 1024 4. None of these
ANS-2
Q.66 S7-300 normally called as____________sized PLC.

1. Large 2. Small
3. Medium 4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.67 Which one of these considered as the Large sized PLC?

1. S7-300 2. S7-500
3. S7-400 4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.68 Can a Standalone PLC able to provide networking?

1. Yes 2. No
3. Cannot say 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.69 Abbreviate PROFIBUS?

1. Program Field Bus

2. Process Field Bus
3. Process Fit Bus
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.70 Abbreviate PPI?

1. Port to Port Interface

2. Process to Process Interface
3. Point to Point Interface
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.71 PPI used for_____________.

1. S7-200 2. S7-300
3. S7-400 4. None of these

ANS-1
Q.72 Abbreviate MPI?

1. Memory Port Interface

2. Multi Point Interface
3. Modular PLC Interface
4. None of these
ANS-2
Q.73 MPI used for_____________.

1. S7-500 2. S7-300
3. S7-200 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.74 IFM stands for?

1. Intra-Face Module
2. Information Frequency Modulation
3. Inter-Facing Module
4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.75 IFM responsible for?

1. PC to PLC Communication
2. PLC to PLC Communication
3. PLC to Physical Load Communication
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.76 Typical (default) transmission speed of MPI is____________.

1. 157.5 Kbps 2. 187.5 Kbps

3. 287.5 Kbps 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.77 In “PROFIBUS-DP” DP stands for_______________.

1. Decentralize-Peripheral
2. Data-Peripheral
3. Driver-Peripheral
4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.78 In PROFIBUS-DP typical data transmission upto___________are possible.

1. 10 Mbps 2. 12 Mbps
3. 15 Mbps 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.79 “DB” stands for?

1. Data Block
2. Data Base
3. Data BUS
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.80 Abbreviate FEPROM?

1. Flash External Programmable Read Only Memory

2. Flash Electrical Programmable Read Only Memory
3. Flash Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.81 FB stands for?

1. Function Bit
2. Function Block
3. Function BUS
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.82 Abbreviate “STEP-7”?

1. Siemens Technical Education Program-7

2. Siemens Technical Electrical Program-7
3. Siemens Technical Erasable Program-7
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.83 OB stands for?

1. Organization Band
 2. Organization Block
3. Organization BUS
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.84 Abbreviate RAM?

1. Rare Access Memory

2. Random Access Memory
3. Read Access Memory
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.85 SFC stands for?

1. Serial Function Chart

2. Sequential Function Chart
3. Set Function Chart
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.86 Errors occurring during program execution in the PLC______________.

1. Execution Error
2. Runtime Error
3. Programming Error
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.87 Abbreviate TIA?

1. Totally Input Automation

2. Totally Industrial Automation
3. Totally Integrated Automation
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.88 Function Block Diagram (FBD) is a type of____________.

1. PLC Language 2. Block Diagram of a module

3. Block Diagram of a PLC model 4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.89 STL stands for?

1. Serial Task Language

2. Statement List
3. Serially Transferring the Load-value
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.90 Abbreviate CP?

1. Communication Processor
2. Communication Peripheral
3. Communication Properties
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.91 CAN BUS can be used for______________.

1. PC to PLC Communication
2. PLC to PLC Communication
3. Communication between different modules
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.92 IN “PROFIBUS-PA” PA stands for?

1. Process Automation
2. Process Automatically
3. Product Automatically
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.93 Which one these among having more data transfer rate capacity?

1. PROFIBUS 2. PROFINET
3. CAN BUS 4. MOD BUS

ANS-2

Q.94 Abbreviate IEC?

1. International Electro technical Commission

 2. Indian Electro technical Commission
3. Indian Electronics technical Commission
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.95 FC stands for?

1. Function Call 2. Function Chart

3. Function Create 4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.96 By creating a Project using Ladder Logic “HW Config” stands for?

1. Hardware Configuration
2. Highest-Word Configuration
3. Either 1 or 2
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.97 Which one of these is not a type of PLC Language?

1. LAD 2. FDB
3. STL 4. None of these

ANS-4

Q.98 In the Hardware Configuration page “UR” stands for?

1. Universal Rail
2. Universal Reserved
3. Un-Reserved Rail
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.99 In “SM 323 DI 16/DO16*24Vdc” SM stands for?

1. Signal Module 2. Signal Mode

3. Safe Mode 4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.100 The Software uses for the PLC Programming mentioned in the course is_______________.
 1. Soft-Master
2. Rockwell Automation
3. Simatic Manager
4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.101 In MOVE Block “EN” stands for?

1. Enable Block
2. Enable output
3. Enable Input
4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.102 In “CV_BCD” BCD stands for?

1. Binary Coded Decimal

2. Bit Coded Decimal
3. Byte Coded Decimal
4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.103 The maximum value a counter count less than___________.

1. 999 2. 1000
3. 996 4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.104 How many possible comparisons can be made in between two variables?

1. 6 2. 5
3. 4 4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.105 In Simatic Manager the Comparator could be of______________.

1. 16 Bit type
2. 32 Bit type
3. Both 16 and 32 Bit type
4. None of these
ANS-3
Q.106 Abbreviate RLO?
 1. Result of Logic Operation
2. Relay Logic Operation
3. Result of Logical Operand
4. None of these
ANS-1
Q.107 “---| |---“symbol stands for_______________

1. Output Coil (Address)

2. Normally Closed Contact (Address)
3. Normally Open Contact (Address)
4. None of these
ANS-3
Q.108 MCR stands for?

1. Minimum Control Relay

2. Maximum Control Relay
3. Master Control Relay
4. None of these
ANS-3
Q.109 The line used in Ladder Language Programming is known as_______________.

1. Rung 2. Wrong
3. Ring 4. None of these

ANS-1
Q.110 Which one of these is a symbol for Midline Output?

1. --- ( ) 2. ---(S)
3. --- (#) --- 4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.111 POS stands for?

1. Address Priority Edge Detection

2. Address Positive Edge Detection
3. Address Possible Edge Detection
4. None of these
ANS-2
Q.112 How many comparison instructions are available?
 1. 16 2. 18
3. 20 4. None of these
ANS-2

Q.113 In Counter Instruction “SC” stands for?

1. Set Count Value

2. Set Counter Value
3. Serial Counter Value
4. None of these
ANS-2

Q.114 “S_ODTS” is a type of________________.

1. On-Delay Timer
2. Retentive On-Delay Timer
3. Timer with Off-Delay Function
4. None of these
ANS-2

Q.115 The maximum time value that you can enter is_______________.

1. 9,990 seconds
2. 9,999 seconds
3. 10,000 seconds
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.115 In a Timer “BI” stands for?

1. Bit Integer
2. Binary Integer
3. Byte Integer
4. None of these
ANS-2
Q.116 “O(“ signifies that_______________.

1. Not with Nesting Open

2. Or with Nesting Open
3. ON with Nesting Open
 4. None of these
ANS-2
Q.117 In Comparator “D Compare Double Integer” is of_____________.

1. 16 Bit 2. 32 Bit
3. 64 Bit 4. None of these

Q.118 the “Statement List” instruction set supports______counters.

1. 255 2. 256
3. 260 4. None of these
ANS-2
Q.119 In “Statement List” instruction “LC” stands for?

1. Load Current Counter Value into ACCU 1 as BCD

2. Load Current Counter Value into ACCU 2 as BCD
3. Either 1 or 2
4. None of these
ANS-1
Q.120 The Ladder Logic instruction set supports__________timers.

1. 255 2. 256
3. 260 4. None of these
ANS-2

121.. Set-reset block is normally use for ?

A .inching operation b.latching

c .interlocking d. none of these

ANS- B

122. Analog to analog inverse conversion possible thorough?

a. move block b. subs tractor block

c. set rest block d. none of these

ANS-B

123. Analog to analog direct conversion possible thorough?

a. move block b. subs tractor block

c. set rest block d. none of these

ANS-A

124. Physical parameter like temp. ,speed ,prsessure value is consider as

a. integer b. double integer

c. real d. none of these

ANS-C

125. Why the plc-plc communication is needed?

a. to control the programming b. to control the no of field i/os.

c. to control the no of pc system d. none of these?

ANS-B

Thank you
 Department of Electrical Engineering
Guru Gobind Singh College of Engineering and
Research Center, Nashik
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ)
Subject: PLC and SCADA
by
Dr. S. P. Sonar
1. One of the following is an input device
a. Motor

b. Light

c. Valve

d. Sensor
2. Which one of the following is not a PLC MANUFACTURER?
a. Siemens

b. Mitsubishi

c. Microsoft
d. ABB

3. Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to:

a. Analog output

b. Digital output
c. Analog input

d. Digital input

4. The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data which are immediately
required for use is called as______.
a. HDD

b. ROM

c. RAM
d. SSD

5. _____ of PLCs can be done in very little time.

a. Programming

b. Installation

c. Commissioning

d. All of the above

6. The PLC is used in _______.
a. machine tools

b. automated assembly equipment

c. moulding and extrusion machines

d. all of the above

7. Which of the following can be the output of PLC?
1. Relay coils

2. Solenoids

3. Indicators

4. Motors

5. Lamps

6. Alarms

Select correct option

a. Only (1), (2), (3) and (4)

b. Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)

c. Only (1), (2), (3) and (5)

d. All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)

8. Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?
a. Manual switches

b. Relays

c. Sensors

d. None of the above

9. The most popular language for PLCs is:

a. Ladder diagram
b. C++
c. OOP+
d. VHDL
10. PLCs that have a fixed amount of I/O capability built into the unit are known as:

a. Rack PLCs
b. Monolithic PLCs
c. Modular PLCs
d. None of these

11. In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time in which …..
a. the technician enters the program
b. timers and counters are indexed by
c. one “rung” of ladder logic takes to complete
d. the entire program takes to execute

12. Choose the basic element for an automated machine tool

a. logic
b. NC tape programming
c. software
d. workstation

13. The PLC was invented by.

a. Bill Gates

b. Dick Morley
c. Bill Landis

d. Tod Cunningham

14. The first company to build PLCs was .

a. General Motors

b. Allen Bradley

c. Square D

d. Modicon

15. An example of discrete (digital) control is:

a. Varying the volume of a music system

b. Turning a lamp ON or OFF

c. Varying the brightness of a lamp

d. Controlling the speed of a fan

16. Which of the following statements is not correct?

a. The PLC rung output [-( )-] is a discrete output instruction or bit in memory.
b. Each rung of the ladder logic represents a logical statement executed in software – inputs on
the right and outputs on the left.

c. Input and output instructions in ladder logic do not directly represent the switches and
actuators.

d. PLC input instructions are logical symbols associated with voltage at the input module
terminals.

17. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Ladder logic is a PLC graphical programming technique introduced in the last 10 years.
b. A ladder logic program is hard to analyze because it is totally different when compared with
the equivalent relay logic solution.

c. The number of ladder logic virtual relays and input and output instructions is limited
only by memory size.
d. The number of contacts for a mechanical relay is limited to number of coils on the relay.

18. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

a. The status of each input can be checked from one location and outputs can be forced on and
off.

b. All symbols in the RLL represent actual components and contacts present in the control
system.

c. PLCs are not as reliable as electromechanical relays in RLL.

d. Input (-| |-) and output (- ( ) -) instruction symbols in the ladder logic represent only data
values stored in PLC memory.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

a. If a problem in a PLC module occurs, the module can be changed in a matter of minutes
without any changes in wiring.

b. Outputs can be paralleled on the same rung.

c. The physical wires between the input and output field devices and the PLC input and output
modules are the only signal wires required in the PLC system.

d. The cost and size of PLCs have increased significantly in the last 10 years.
20. Which of the following statements about a single pole double throw relay is NOT true?
a. It is called an SPDT type of relay.

b. It has one common contact.

c. It has two positions (NC and NO).

d. It has a center off position.

21. Which of the following statements about a single pole double throw relay is true?
a. Insulators are used in the armature to isolate the electrical switching contacts from the rest of
the relay components.

b. The NC contact and the pole are in contact when the relay is off.

c. It has just one coil.

d. All of the above.

22. Which of the following statements about RLL is NOT true?
a).NO contact symbol has two parallel lines to indicate an open contact.

b. RLL stands for Relay Ladder Logic.

c. NC contact symbol has the same two parallel lines with a line across them to indicate closed
contacts.
d. The right power rail is positive or the high side of the source, and the left power rail is
the power return or ground.
23. The _____ is moved toward the relay electromagnet when the relay is on.
a. Armature
b. Coil

c. NO contact

d. NC contact

24. When a relay is NOT energized:

a. There is an electrical path through the NO contacts

b. There is an electrical path through the NC contacts

c. Neither the NO or the NC contacts have an electrical path

d. Both the NO and the NC contacts have an electrical path

25. Which of the following RLL applications is not normally performed in early automation
systems?
a. On/off control of field devices

b. Logical control of discrete devices

c. On/off control of motor starters

d. Proportional control of field devices

26. Current flows into the _____
a. Input terminal of a sinking DC input module

b. Input terminal of a sinking output field device

c. Output terminal of a sinking input field device

d. All of the above

27. In a current sinking DC input module _____
a. The current flows out of the input field device
b. Requires that a AC sources be used with mechanical switches

c. The current flows out of the input module

d. Currents can flow in either direction at the input module

28. What one item in the input module circuit above should be changed to make it correct.
a. The battery polarity

b. Input module should be sinking

c. Field device should be sinking

d. Current flow direction

29. When _____ contacts are actuated, they disrupt the power supply through them.
a. normally open type
b. normally closed type
c. both a. and b.

d. none of the above

30. The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data which are
immediately required for use is called as______.
a. HDD

b. ROM

c. RAM
d. SSD

31. How is the speed of operation of conventional relay system as compared to digital
controllers?
a. very slow
b. very fast

c. same

d. almost similar

32. The capability of convention relay systems for complex operations is ____ that of the
PLCs .
a. poor than
b. excellent than

c. as good as

d. unpredictable as

33. How is the noise immunity of PLCs to electrical noises as compared to that of
conventional relay controllers?
a. poor
b. excellent

c. as good as noise immunity of conventional relay controllers

d. unpredictable

34. _____ of PLCs can be done in very little time.

a. Programming

b. Installation

c. Commissioning

d. All of the above

35. PLC can be _____ in plant to change the sequence of operation.
a. only programmed

b. only reprogrammed
c. programmed and reprogrammed
d. able to give a set point

36. The PLC is used in _______.

a. machine tools

b. automated assembly equipment

c. moulding and extrusion machines

d. all of the above

37. Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?
a. Manual switches

b. Relays

c. Sensors

d. None of the above

38. Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to:
a. Analog output

b. Digital output
c. Analog input

d. Digital input

39. In a PLC “I” is used for output and “Q” is used for input
a. True

b. False
40. The most common application of float system is

a. To monitor the fuel tank level in motor vehicle

b. To monitor the flow of solid
c. To monitor the flow of liquid
d. All of these

41. The sensors are classified on the basis of

a. Functions

b. Performance

c. Output

d. All of the above

42. Following is not an example of transducer.

a. Analogue voltmeter

b. Thermocouple

c. Photo electric cell

d. Pneumatic cylinder

43. A piezo-electrical crystal generates voltage when subjected to ____ force.

a. Electrical

b. Mechanical

c. Gravity

d. All of the above

44. 16-Following is (are) the type(s) of Light sensor(s)

a. Photo sensor

b. Photo transistors

c. Photo conductors

d. All of the above

45. Inductive proximity sensors can be effective only when the objects are of _____
materials.
a. Ferro magnetic

b. Diamagnetic

c. Paramagnetic

d. All of the above

46. Following acts as detector in Optical sensor

a. Light emitting diode

b. Photo diode

c. Transistor

d. All of the above

47. Which fluid is used in hydraulic power systems?

a. water
b. oil
c. non-compressible fluid
d. all of the above
48. Which sensor can detect nearby objects?
a. Proximity sensor
b. Humidity sensor
c. Touch sensor
d. Pressure sensor

49. Which proximity sensor detects metal objects?

a. Capacitive Proximity Sensor
b. Magnetic Proximity Sensor
c. Ultrasonic Proximity Sensor
d. Inductive Proximity Sensor

50. Which of the following are encoder advantages?

a. Low cost
b. High resolution
c. High reliability and accuracy
d. All of the Above
51. Incremental encodes use
a. One channel
b. Two channels
c. Two channels and sometimes three channels
d. None of the above
52. Absolute encoders are used where
a. Fast varying signals are not used
b. When position data is to be recovered even after a temporary power outage
c. Transient noise can be tolerated as it causes only a transient disturbance
d. All of the above

53.Which of the following temperature sensors is not used for a temperature measurement?
a. Non-electrical type
b. Electrical type
c. Magnetic type
d. Radiation type
54.The resistance _________ with increase in temperature.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Becomes constant
d. Becomes zero
55.Which of the following devices is not used for pressure measurement?
a. Diaphragm gauge
b. Pressure bellows
c. Strain gauge
d. Dynamometer
56.Which of the following measures the pressure with change in electrical resistance?
a. Bourdon tube
b. Pressure bellows
c. Strain gauge
d. Diaphragm gauge
57.If the two metals have different temperature coefficient then, they are useful in making
_________
a. Manometric thermometer
b. Gas thermometer
c. Bimetallic thermometer
d. Digital thermometer
58. The instruments used for the measurement of pressure is/are
a. Bellows
b. Diaphragms
c. Fiber optic pressure sensors
d. All of these
59. Bourdon tube is used for the measurement of gauge pressure of
a. Gas
b. Liquid fluid
c. Solid
d. Both (a) and (b)
60. The devices used for flow obstruction are
a. Orifice plate
b. Venturi tube
c. Flow nozzle and dall flow tube
d. All of these
61. Output of a bimetallic element will be __________________
a. Strain
b. Pressure
c. Displacement
d. Voltage
62. In ultrasonic level gauge, the ultrasonic source is placed at the
a. Bottom of the vessel containing the liquid
b. Top of the vessel containing the liquid
c. Middle of the vessel containing the liquid
d. Far from the vessel containing the liquid
63. A vibrating level sensors consists of
a. One piezoelectric oscillators
b. Two piezoelectric oscillators
c. Three piezoelectric oscillators
d. Four piezoelectric oscillators
64. Which actuator does not need any external power source?
a. 3 phase motor
b. Solenoid valve
c. Wax Motor
d. BO motor
65. How many directions are there, for a fluid to flow in check valves?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
66. How many directions are there, for a fluid to flow in shuttle valves?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
67. What is the full form DCV in terms of pneumatic control systems?
a. Delicate Control Valve
b. Distance Control Value
c. Directional Control Valve
d. Diameter Control Valve
68. Which valve should be used if there is a need of fluid to flow in 4 directions?
a. Spool valve
b. Shuttle Valve
c. Check valve
d. Rubber valve
69. Which valve works on electricity and not on pressure difference?
a. Rubber valve
b. Pilot Valve
c. Check valve
d. Solenoid valve
70. Which type of motion is transmitted by hydraulic actuators?
a. linear motion
b. rotary motion
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
71. What is the function of electric actuator?
a. converts electrical energy into mechanical torque
b. converts mechanical torque into electrical energy
c. converts mechanical energy into mechanical torque
d. none of the above
72. Which of the motions in actuators are preferred:
a. Translator
b. Rotary
c. Stationary
d. Non-Stationary
73. Assertion (A): Electric actuators are used control system for high torque applications.
Reason (R): Due to linear speed-Torque characteristics.
a. Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
74. Which sensor can detect nearby objects?
a. Proximity sensor
b. Humidity sensor
c. Touch sensor
d. Pressure sensor
75. The monitoring of machines, gears and objects are achieved by which sensor?
a. Humidity sensor
b. Proximity sensor
c. Touch sensor
d. Pressure sensor
76. Which proximity sensor detects metal objects?
a. Capacitive Proximity Sensor
b. Magnetic Proximity Sensor
c. Ultrasonic Proximity Sensor
d. Inductive Proximity Sensor
77. Which proximity sensor indicates level?
a. Inductive Proximity Sensor
b. Capacitive Proximity Sensor
c. Magnetic Proximity Sensor
d. Ultrasonic Proximity Sensor
78. Which proximity sensor detects positioning of an object?
a. Inductive Proximity Sensor
b. Capacitive Proximity Sensor
c. Optical Proximity Sensor
d. Magnetic Proximity Sensor
79. Which device generates output signal when metal objects are either inside or entering into
sensing area.
a. Capacitive Proximity
b. Magnetic Proximity
c. Inductive proximity
d. Parallel Proximity
80. What is the sensing range for magnetic proximity sensors?
a. 120mm
b. 90mm
c. 150mm
d. 100mm
81. What is the sensing range for capacitive proximity sensors?
a. 150mm
 b. 25mm
c. 120mm
d. 100mm
82. _________ sensors have no electrical noise effect and it can work DC.
a. Inductive proximity
b. Capacitive Proximity
c. Magnetic Proximity
d. Parallel Proximity
83. ________ detects metals but along with it can also detect resins, liquids.
a. Inductive proximity
b. Capacitive Proximity
c. Magnetic Proximity
d. Parallel Proximity
84. NO stands for
a. Naturally open
b. Normally ON
c. Normally Open
d. None of the above
85. Relay is an
a. Mechanical device
b. Electrical switch
c. Manual switch
d. None of the above
86. SPST stands for –
a. Single Pole Single Throw
b. Single Pole State Throw
c. Solid Pole Single Throw
d. Single Pole Single Turn
87. NC stands for –
a. Normally Close
b. Normally contact
c. Naturally close
d. Naturally contact
88. Limit switch has
a. Mechanical Actuation
b. Manual Actuation
c. Electrical Actuation
d. None of the above
89 . SPDT switch used as
a. Staircase switch
b. Bed Switch
c. None of the above
d. Both a and b

90. SSR stands for –

a. Single stand Relay
b. Single Solid relay
c. Solid State relay
d. All of the above
91. The sensors are classified on the basis of
a. Functions
b. Performance
c. Output
d. All of the above
92. Following is (are) the type(s) of Light sensor(s)
a. Photo sensor
b. Photo transistors
c. Photo conductors
d. All of the above
93. Following acts as detector in Optical sensor
a. Light emitting diode
b. Photo diode
c. Transistor
d. All of the above
94. DPST stands for
a. Dual pole Single Throw
b. Dual pole Straight Throw
c. Double Pole Single Throw
d. None of the above
95. DPDT has
a. One NO terminal
b. One NC terminal
c. Two NO terminal
d. All of the above
96. Each horizontal line Ladder Diagram is referred to as:
a. Period
b. Group
c. Row
d. Rung
97. Which of the following is correct about contacts or coils seen in a Ladder Diagram PLC:
a. All contacts and coils are real
b. Contacts are real, while coils are programmed bits
c. Coils are real, while contacts are programmed bits
d. Both coils and contacts are bits in PLC memory

98. How many possible stages an input can have in LADDER Logic?
a. Two
b. One
c. Three
d. None of these

99. What do you mean by “NO” contact using for Input in LADDER Logic?
a. Normally Operative
b. Normally Open
c. Not Operative
d. None of these
100. What do you mean by “NC” contact using for Input in LADDER Logic?
a. No Contact
b. Normally Contact
c. Normally Close
d. None of these

101. The Scan Time of the PLC is approximately .

a. 1/100th of a second
b. 1/1000th of a second
c. 1/10000th of a second
d. None of these

102. Normally the current range of the analog input card is .

a. 0 to 10 ma
b. 0 to 20 ma
c. 0 to 40 ma
d. None of these
103. For larger PLC, normally the input cards contain numbers of input.
a. 4 or 8
b. 8 or 16
c. 16 or 32
d. None of these
104. According to the module PLC categorizes into types.
a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. None of these
105. A typically small sized PLC contain Input/Output.
a. 512
b. 1024
c. 500
d. 1000
106. IFM responsible for?

a. PC to PLC Communication
b. PLC to PLC Communication
c. PLC to Physical Load Communication
d. None of these
107. IFM stands for?

a. Intra-Face Module
b. Information Frequency Modulation
c. Inter-Facing Module
d. None of these
108. Abbreviate PROFIBUS?

a. Program Field Bus

b. Process Field Bus
c. Process Fit Bus
d. None of these

109. Abbreviate PPI?

a. Port to Port Interface

b. Process to Process Interface
c. Point to Point Interface
d. None of these

110. Abbreviate MPI?

a. Memory Port Interface

b. Multi Point Interface
c. Modular PLC Interface
d. None of these
111. FB stands for?

a. Function Bit
b. Function Block
c. Function BUS
d. None of these
112. Errors occurring during program execution in the PLC .

a. Execution Error
b. Runtime Error
c. Programming Error
d. None of these
113. Function Block Diagram (FBD) is a type of .

a. PLC Language

b. Block Diagram of a module

c. Block Diagram of a PLC model
d. None of these
114. CAN BUS can be used for .
a. PC to PLC Communication
b. PLC to PLC Communication
c. Communication between different modules
d. None of these

115. IN “PROFIBUS-PA” PA stands for?

a. Process Automation
b. Process Automatically
c. Product Automatically
d. None of these
116. Which one of these is not a type of PLC Language?
a. LAD
b. FDB
c. STL
d. None of these

117. In the Hardware Configuration page “UR” stands for?

a. Universal Rail
b. Universal Reserved
c. Un-Reserved Rail
d. None of these

118. “---| |---“symbol stands for

a. Output Coil (Address)
b. Normally Closed Contact (Address)
c. Normally Open Contact (Address)
d. None of these
119. MCR stands for?
a. Minimum Control Relay
b. Maximum Control Relay
c. Master Control Relay
d. None of these
B.E. Electrical (PLCSCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
Unit I: Introduction to PLC

1. Incoming control signals are called as________

(a) Output (b) Input
(c) Power (d) None of the above

2. The part that monitors the inputs and makes decisions in a PLC is the CPU.
(a) True (b) False
(c) Can’t say (d) None of the above

3. Transferring the PLC program from personal computer’s memory to PLC memory
is called as_________
(a) Uploading the program (b) Deleting the program
(c) Downloading of program (d) None of the above

4. Before downloading the user program, the processor must be ______ mode
(a) Scanning mode (b) Run mode
(c) Idle mode (d) Program mode

5. After downloading the user program, the processor must be ______ mode
(a) Scanning mode (b) Run mode
(c) Idle mode (d) Program mode

6. The continuous running of program in PLC is called as ______

(a) Scanning (b) Downloading
(c) Uploading (d) None of the above

7. The instructions you wish to carry out are transferred to the memory of the
controller from either ______ or ________
(a) Scanner or printer (b) PC or PLC
(c) Handheld programmer or personal (d) None of the above
computer

8. The PLC was invented by_____

(a) Bill Gates (b) Dick Morley
(c) Bill Landis (d) Tod Cunningham

9. Which one of the following is not a PLC manufacturer

(a) Siemens (b) Microsoft
(c) Mitsubishi (d) ABB

10. _____ conveys signals from the CPU to each module and from the module to the CPU

(a) Backplane (b) Power Supply

(c) DIN rail (d) I/O modules

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 1

B.E. Electrical (PLCSCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
11. Which of the following statement is correct?
1. Memory system provides storage of the user program.
2. Memory system provides storage of the input status file data.
3. Memory system provides storage of the output status file data.
(a) Only 1 (b) Both 2 and 3, but not 1
(c) Both 1 and 3, but not 2 (d) All statements are correct

12. The function of ____ is to convert and isolate the high voltage input level from field
device
(a) Input section (b) Output section
(c) Programmer (d) None of the above

13. _____ of PLCs can be done in very little time.

(a) Programming (b) Installation
(c) Commissioning (d) All of the above

14. The PLCs were originally designed to replace ______

(a) Analog controllers (b) DCS
(c) Hardwired control (d) Microcomputers

15. The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data which are
immediately required for use is called as______.
(a) HDD (b) RAM
(c) ROM (d) SSD

16. PLC can be ___________ in plant to change the sequence of operation.

(a) only programmed (b) only reprogrammed
(c) programmed and reprogrammed (d) able to give a set point

17. Which one of the following is the data file in SLC 500 PLC
(a) Timer File (b) System File
(c) Program File (d) None of the above

18. For PLC scan cycle, which of the following is correct

(a) Program execute, Output write, Input (b) Input read, Output write,
read Program execute
(c) Output right, Input read, Program (d) Input read, Program execute,
execute Output write

19. In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time in which ….
(a) timers and counters are indexed by (b) the entire program takes to
execute
(c) one “rung” of ladder logic takes to (d) the technician enters the
complete program

20. PLC having less than_____ input and outputs are called as Small PLC
(a) 50 (b) 200 (c) 100 (d) 200

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 2

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
Unit II – Interfacing of PLC with I/O devices

1. Which of the following can be the output of PLC?

1. Relay coils
2. Solenoids
3. Indicators
4. Motors
5. Lamps
6. Alarms
(a) Only (1), (2), (3) and (4) (b) Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)
(c) Only (1), (2), (3) and (5) (d) All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)

2. Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?

(a) Manual switches (b) Relays
(c) Sensors (d) None of the above

3. When _____ contacts are actuated, they disrupt the power supply through them.
(a) normally open type (b) normally closed type
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above

4. Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to:

(a) Analog output (b) Digital output
(c) Analog input (d) Digital input

5. Which one of the following is the example discrete (digital) control is

(a) Varying the volume of a music (b) Turning a lamp ON or OFF
system
(c) Varying the brightness of a lamp (d) Controlling the speed of a fan

6. Which of the following statements about a single pole double throw relay is NOT
true?
(a) It is called an SPDT type of relay. (b) It has one common contact.
(c) It has two positions (NC and NO). (d) It has a center off position.

7. The _____ is moved toward the relay electromagnet when the relay is on.
(a) Armature (b) Coil
(c) NO contact (d) NC contact

8. Which one of the following is an input device

(a) Motor (b) Light
(c) Valve (d) Sensor

9. The ____ represents the number of individual power circuits that can be switched
and ______ represents the number of states to which current can pass through the

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 1

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
switch
(a) Pole, Throw (b) Throw, Pole
(c) Switch, pole (d) None of the above

10. _____ type of proximity sensor is used to detect non – conductive material such as
cloth, paper and glass
(a) Inductive (b) Resistive
(c) Capacitive (d) None of the above

11. Which one of the following is the digital output device

(a) Relay (b) RTD
(c) Flow switch (d) Toggle switch

12. Which one of the following is the analog input devices

(a) Relay (b) Flow switch
(c) Solenoids (d) Temperature transducers

13. How is the speed of operation of conventional relay system as compared to digital
controllers?
(a) Very slow (b) Very fast
(c) Same (d) Can’t say

14. The capability of convention relay systems for complex operations is ___________
that of the PLCs.
(a) as good as (b) excellent than
(c) poor than (d) unpredictable as

15. ____ is most commonly used metal in the construction of Resistance Temperature
Detector (RTD)
(a) Aluminum (b) Gold
(c) Copper (d) Platinum

16. ___ are used to sense the position of objects or material

(a) Flow switches (b) Solenoids
(c) Limit switches (d) Contactors.

17. ___ has selector knob which selects particular position

(a) Selector switch (b) Solenoid
(c) Push button (d) Relay

18. _______ converts electrical signal to mechanical signal

(a) Push button (b) Temperature switch
(c) Solenoid (d) Contactor

19. _______ is the active temperature transducer

(a) Bimetallic thermometer (b) Thermistor

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 2

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
(c) RTD (d) Thermocouple

20. Analog input devices communicate with PLC by sending standard ______signal
(a) 0 – 20 mA (b) 4 – 20 mA
(c) 0 – 10 mA (d) 2 – 4 mA
=======================================================

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 3

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
Unit III – Programming of PLC

1. In PLC programming, a retentive function is one that:

(a) Defaults to the “on” state (b) is not reset after a power cycle
(c) Defaults to the “off” state (d) Comes last in the program

2. An OR function implemented in ladder logic uses:

(a) Normally-closed contacts in (b) Normally-open contacts in series
series
(c) A single normally-closed contact (d) Normally-open contacts in parallel

3. AND function implemented in ladder logic uses:

(a) Normally-open contacts in (b) Normally-closed contacts in series
series
(c) A single normally-closed contact (d) Normally-open contacts in parallel

4. Which of the following is the programming language of the PLC

(a) Ladder Diagram (b) Structured List
(c) Functional Block Diagram (d) All of the above

5. Collection of 4 bits is ______

(a) Bit (b) Nibble
(c) Word (d) Byte

6. Collection of 8 bits is ______

(a) Bit (b) Nibble
(c) Word (d) Byte

7. Collection of 16 bits is ______

(a) Bit (b) Nibble
(c) Word (d) Byte

8. In ladder diagram, Horizontal lines are _______ and vertical lines are ______
(a) Rails and Rungs (b) Rungs and Rails
(c) Rung and Neutral Line (d) None of the above

9. ________instruction is a retentive output instruction that is used to maintain, or

latch, an output.
(a) OTL (b) OTU
(c) MOV (d) CTU

10. Each 16 bit contains ____bytes and _____nibbles

(a) 4,2 (b) 2,4
(c) 2,2 (d) 4,4

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 1

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
11. In the address given below
I:1.0/2

1 represents ________ and 2 represents _______

(a) Bit Number and Slot Number (b) Slot Number and word number
(c) Slot Number and Bit Number (d) word number and bit number

12. Maximum time delay provided by timer is ______ seconds

(a) 500 (b) 16000
(c) 32000 (d) 32767

13. ____ timer retains the accumulated value and measures the cumulative time period,
during which rung condition is true
(a) On delay (b) Retentive
(c) Off delay (d) None of the above

14. _____ counter counts pulses of kilohertz frequency and used for encoder
application.
(a) High Speed (b) Up counter
(c) Down counter (d) None of the above

15. File number_____ and ____ is default file for Timer and Counter respectively
(a) 5, 4 (b) 1, 4
(c) 4, 5 (d) 5, 1

16. The length of the time for which time is to run is called ______
(a) Timer address (b) Preset Value
(c) Time Base (d) Accumulated Value

17. In case of on delay timer, when accumulated value equals preset value, Which of
the following status bit will get set
(a) DN (b) TT
(c) EN (d) None of the above

18. Which of the following status bits will be in on condition (Set condition) in off
delay timer when the rung at which timer is connected becomes true
(a) Only DN bit (b) Only TT bit
(c) DN, EN bits (d) DN and TT bits

19. In case of off delay timer if rung is true which of the following status bits get set
(a) TT (b) DN
(c) EN (d) All of the above

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 2

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
20. In case of Up counter (CTU), Done bit is set when _________
(a) Accumulated value is less than (b) Accumulated value is greater than
preset value preset value
(c) Accumulated value is greater (d) None of the above
than or equal to preset value

=======================================================

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 3

The angle δ in the swing equation of a synchronous generator is
the
a) angle between stator voltage and current
b) angular displacement of the rotor with respect to the stator.
c) angular displacement of the stator mmf with respect to a synchronously
rotating axis.
d) angular displacement of an axis fixed to the rotor with respect to a
synchronously rotating axis.

What are the common assumptions made for the equal area criterion?
a. The transmission line and machine resistances are neglected.
b. Rotor speed of the machine is constant
c. Mechanical input remains constant.
d. All of these
e. None of these

Which among the following methods are used to improve steady state stability?
a. Reducing the reactance between the transmission and receiving points.
b. By using bundled conductors.
c. By increasing the excitation of generator or motor or both.
d. All of these
e. None of these

What are the main applications of the swing curves?

a. Designing the rotor field windings

b. Designing the protective devices
c. Used to limit the size of the machine
d. All of these
e. None of these

On what factors does the transient stability depend on?

a. Initial operating state

b. Severity of disturbances
c. Voltage instability
d. Both (a) and (b)
e. All of these

Power system stability means

(A) Power system remains in a state of equilibrium under normal operating condition
(B) To restore an acceptable state of equilibrium after a disturbance
(C) Both a and b
(D) None of above
Which of the following is the short term stability in a generator driven
system?
(A) Rotor-angle stability
(B) Short term voltage stability
(C) Frequency Stability
(D) Long-term voltage stability

Voltage collapse typically occurs in the power system due to

(A) Heavily loaded line
(B) Faulted line
(C) Reactive power shortages in line
(D) All of above

Load forecasting is done only for long term. False

Three major function of power system security

(A) Economical operation,Economical Dispatch,Load scheduling
(B) State Estimation,Economical Dispatch,Generation Scheduling
(C) System Monitoring,Contingency analysis, Security constrained OPF
(D) None of above

Which of this is not representing as operating state of power

system
(A) Optimal Dispatch
(B) Post Contingency
(C) Security Dispatch
(D) State Estimation

Which of this power plant is started first after system black out
(A) Thermal
(B) Nuclear
(C) Hydro
(D) All of above

Main function of NLDC is

(A) Prepare Policy of power grid
(B) Prepare Grid code
(C) Supervision over all RLDC
(D) All of above
The Capability Curve of a Synchronous Generator defines a
a) boundary within which the machine can operate safely.
b) boundary out of which the machine can operate safely.
c) boundary of stability of power system

What is the value of transient stability limit?

a. Higher than steady state stability limit

b. Lower than steady state stability limit.
c. Depending upon the severity of load
d. All of these
e. None of these

3) What is transient stability limit?

a. The maximum flow of power through a particular point in the power

system without loss of stability when small disturbances occur.
b. The maximum power flow possible through a particular component
connected in the power system.
c. The maximum flow of power through a particular point in the power
system without loss of stability when large and sudden disturbances occur
d. All of these
e. None of these

4) Which among the following methods is used for improving the

system stability?

a. Increasing the system voltage

b. Reducing the transfer reactance
c. Using high speed circuit breaker
d. All of these
e. None of these

The stability of the power system is not affected by which among

these?

a. Generator reactance
b. Line losses
c. Excitation of generators
d. All of these
e. None of these

What is power system stability?

a. The maximum power flow possible through a particular component

connected in the power system.
b. The ability of the power system to regain the state of operating
equilibrium point when the system is subjected to any disturbances.
c. It is a phenomenon in which a power system losses its operating
equilibrium when subjected to large disturbances.
d. All of these
e. None of these
Shunt reactors are sometimes used in high voltage transmission
systems to
a) limit the short circuit current through the line
b) compensate for the series reactance of the line under heavily loaded
condition
c) limit over-voltages at the load side under lightly loaded condition
d) compensate for the voltage drop in the line under heavily loaded condition.

. The change in reactive power Q produces large effect on receiving end

voltage because
(A) The voltage drop associated with this change is in phase with reference voltage
(B) The voltage drop associated with this change is in quadrature with reference voltage
(C) The voltage drop associated with this change has no relation with reference voltage
(D) None of above

Line compensation improve power system operation by

(A) Keeping voltage closer to nominal value
(B) Reduces line current and losses
(C) Enhance stability
(D) All of above

___________________ is needed to establish the magnetic and

electrostatic fields; it is temporarily stored and then released
(A)
Active Power
(B)
Reactive Power
(C)
Instantaneous Power
(D)
Apparent Power

We can control the P and/or Q transfers in the transmission line

varying
(A)
sending end voltage
(B)
receiving end voltage
(C)
load angle
(D)
all of these
1) FACTS devices are generally used for
to compensate……………of the transmission line.
(A)
Reactance
(B)
Resistance
(C)
Conductance
(D)
Admittance

2) STATCOM + SSSC will make

(A)
UPQC
(B)
TCSC
(C)
UPFC
(D)
SVR

3) Which is the shunt compensation devices

(A)
TCSC
(B)
SSSC
(C)
UPFC
(D)
SVC

4) STATCOM is______________ regulating device

(A)
Current
(B)
Power
(C)
Voltage
(D)
Frequency

5) The main Objective of series compensation

(A)
It improve the power factor
(B)
It reduces the fault currents
(C)
Reduce the voltage drop over long distance
(D)
None

6) Disadvantage with series compensation

(A)
Reduce the stability
(B)
increase the voltage drop
(C)
Reduce the power factor
(D)
Increase in fault current

7) The location of series capacitor depends on

_____________________ factors.
(A)
The degree of compensation and the characteristic of the line
(B)
Only the degree of compensation
(C)
Only the characteristic of the line
(D)
None of these

8) Which of the following is the area of FACTs application?

(A)
Power transmission
(B)
Power Quality
(C)
Wind power grid Connection
(D)
All of these

9) In TCR if the firing angle is changed from 90° to 180° the

harmonics in ITCR __________________
(A)
increases
(B)
decreases
(C)
becomes zero
(D)
remains unchanged

10) Harmonics is __________________ type of PQ problem.

(A)
transients
(B)
wavefrom distortions
(C)
voltage flicker
(D)
frequency variations
1. FACTS devices used in

a) Generation

b) AC transmission

c) DC transmission

d) None

2. Voltage control means

a) Boosting the feeder voltage

b) Reducing the line voltage under over voltage conditions

c) Keeping the voltage level within the allowable limits.

d) None

3. Line drop compensation corrects for

a) Line drop lagging P.F

b) voltage at leading P.F

c) Transformer voltage drop

d) voltage drop in feeder lines

4. Which are the shunt compensation devices

a) TCSC

b) SSSC

c) UPFC

d) SVC

5. FACTS devices are generally used for to compensate__________of the transmission

line
a) reactive power

b) active power

c) apparent power

6. Transmission efficiency increases as

a) voltage and power factor both increase

b) voltage and power factor both decrease

c) voltage increases but power factor decreases

d) voltage decreases but power factor increases.

7. SVC and STATCOM are______________ devices.

a. series

b. series and shunt

c. shunt and series

d. shunt

8. SVC stands for________________.

a.Static Var Compensator

b. Static voltage controller

c. Static var converter

d. Static voltage converter

9. STATCOM stands for_________________.

ANS: Static Synchronous Compensator

10. STATCOM is______________ regulating device.

a. Current

b. Voltage

c. Current and Voltage

d. Power factor

11. The main Objective of series compensation

a) It improve the power factor

b) It reduces the fault currents

c) Reduce the voltage drop over long distance

d) None

12. TCSC is a

a) Shunt compensation device

b) Series compensation device

c) Both a & b

d) None of the above

13. SSSC is a

a) Series compensation device

b) shunt compensation device

c) combined compensator

d) loss reduction device

14. Disadvantage with series compensation

a) Reduce the stability

b) increase the voltage drop

c) Reduce the power factor

d) Increase in fault current

15. SSSC stands _________________.

ANS: Static Synchronous Series Compensator

16. UPFC stands _________________.

ANS: Unified power flow controller

17. The purpose of the transmission network is to ___________

ANS: pool power plants and load centres

18. Transmission Interconnection is done for________

a. economic reasons

b. to reduce the cost of electricity and

c. to improve reliability of power supply.

d. All of these

19. FACTS controllers can enable a line to carry power closer to its_______

a. Full efficiency

b. Dielectric rating

c. Thermal rating
20. What limits the loading capability__________

a. Thermal

b. Dielectric

c. Stability

d. All of these

21.Basic types of FACTS controller___________

a. Series Controllers and Shunt Controllers

b.Combined series-series Controllers

c.Combined series-shunt Controllers

d. All of these

22.The voltage fluctuations are largely a consequence of the ______ in series impedances
of lines, transformers, and generators.

a. Current

b. Power

c. Voltage drop

d. None of these

23. Unified Power Flow Controller (UPFC) is combination of _________

a. STATCOM and TCSC

b. SSSC and TSC

c. STATCOM and SSSC

d. TSSC and TCR

24. Load compensation is the management of _______ to improve the quality of supply
in ac power systems.

a. Active power

b. Reactive power

c. Apparent power

d. Both a & b

25. Objectives of Load compensation________

a. Power-factor correction.

b. Improvement of voltage regulation.

c. Load balancing

d. All of these
1. Power-factor correction usually means the practice of generating ________
as close as possible to the _______ which requires it, rather than supplying it
from a remote power station.

a. Active power, load

b. Active power, source

c. Reactive power, load

d. Reactive power, source

2. The supply utilities also have good reasons for not transmitting unnecessary
reactive power from generators to loads: their generators and distribution
networks cannot be used at _______, and the control of ________in the supply
system can become more difficult.

a. Full efficiency, current

b. Full efficiency, voltage

c. Full power, current

d. Full power, voltage

3. The FC-TCR is consist of ________and_________.

a. Fixed capacitor, Fixed inductor

b. Variable capacitor, Fixed inductor

c. Variable capacitor, Variable inductor

d. Fixed capacitor, Variable inductor

4. What is the necessity of compensation?

a. Voltage profile

b. Power angle characteristics

c. Stability margin

d. Damping to power oscillations

e. All of these

5. The objectives of FACTS controllers in the power system network.

a. Better the control of power flow (Real and Reactive) in transmission lines.

b. Limits SC current

c. Increase the load ability of the system

d. a & b

e. a, b & c

6. TCSC is a capacitive reactance compensator, which consists of

_______capacitor bank ______ by a thyristor-controlled reactor.

a. shunt, series

b. series, shunted

c. series, series

7. The SVC is a _________ device of FACTS.

a. series

b. series and shunt

c. shunt

8. FACTS mainly find application in following areas.

a. Power transmission
b. Power Quality

c. Railway Grid Connection

d. Wind power grid Connection

e. All of these

9. There are how many generation of FACTS controllers.

a. one

b. Two

c. Three

d. Four

10. __________is the ability of a power system to maintain steady acceptable

voltages at all buses in the system under normal operating conditions and
after being subjected to a disturbance.

a. voltage stability

b. current stability

c. power stability

d. Transient stability

11. In bypassed mode, the thyristor are made to fully conduct with the
conduction angle of ______ degree.

a. 90

b. 180

c. 60

d. 30
12. The salient features of STATCOM features.

a. Compact size

b. Dynamic response

c. Wide range control

d. a & b

e. a, b & c

13. The third main concern in load compensation is __________.

a. Impedance balancing

b. Current balancing

c. Load balancing

d. Source balancing

14. The ideal compensator would also consume ______ power; that is, it would
be ____________.

ANS: Zero average , Lossless

15. Methods of controllable VAR generation in shunt.

ANS : a. Variable impedance type static var generation.

b. Switching converter type static var generation.

16. When Thyristor control reactor(TCR) becomes Thyristor switched

reactor(TSR).

a. Alpha = 90
b. Alpha = 0

17. Thyristor Switched Capacitor(TSC) is__________.

a. Switching converter type

b. Variable impedance type

18. Types of Series Compensators.

Ans: a. Variable impedance type Series Compensators

b. Switching converter type Series Compensators

19. List of Static Shunt compensators.

a. TCR, TSR, TSSC, TSC

b. TSSC, TCSC, SVG, SVS

c. SVG, SVC, TCR, TSR

d. GCSC, TCSC, TSSC

20. List of Static Series compensators.

a. TCR, TSR, TSSC, TSC

b. GCSC, TCSC, TSSC

c. TSSC, TCSC, SVG, SVS

d. SVG, SVC, TCR, TSR

Power flow in Parallel Path

1. Without any control , power flow is based on the inverse of the various
transmission line _________.

a. Reactance

b. Capacitance

c. Impedance

d. Power factor

2. The HVDC line can be used to its full _____________if adequate converter
capacity is provided.

a. Dielectric capacity

b. Thermal capacity

c. Efficiency

d. Transient Stability

3. By means of controlling __________ a FACTS controller can control the

power flow as required.

a. Power factor

b. Frequency

c. Impedance

d. Real power

4. By means of varying the __________ a FACTS controller can control the

power flow as required.
a. Phase angle

b. Capacitance

c. Frequency

d. Power factor

Power Flow in Meshed System

1. A thyristor-controlled series capacitor can greatly enhance the _________

of the network.

a. Stability

b. power factor

c. efficiency

d. None of these

2. Thyristor-Controlled Series Reactor can adjust the ____________ flows as

well as __________.

ANS: Steady-state power, damp unwanted oscillations

3. Thermal capability of an overhead line is a function of the _________ ,

_________, condition of the ,______________ and ______________.

ANS: Ambient temperature, Wind conditions, Conductor, Ground clearance

4. ____________ is the ability of the power system to maintain synchronism

when subjected to a severe disturbance, such as a short circuit on a
transmission line.
a. Transient stability

b. Dynamic stability

c. Steady-state stability

d. Frequency collapse

5. _______________ is concerned with the ability of the power system to

maintain synchronism under small disturbances.

a. Transient stability

b. Dynamic stability

c. Steady-state stability

d. Frequency collapse

6. ___________is the phenomena caused if the system frequency is much lower

than the nominal frequency.

a. Steady-state stability

b. Frequency collapse

c. Voltage collapse

d. Sub-synchronous resonance

7. The sub-synchronous resonance (SSR) phenomena occurs in

_________resonant circuit.

a. Series

b. Shunt

c. Parallel

d. non-linear
POWER FLOW AND DYNAMIC STABILITY CONSIDERATIONS OF A
TRANSMISSION INTERCONNECTION

Please , Refer above derivation Active Power and Reactive power formula of
both substation and also the relation between them.

If you don't have derivation let me know in the post comment, I will upload it.

RELATIVE IMPORTANCE OF CONTROLLABLE PARAMETERS

In this I have only underlined and bold the important component that can be
ask as MCQ.

• Control of the line impedance 𝑋 (e.g., with a thyristor-controlled series

capacitor) can provide a powerful means of current control.

• When the angle is not large, which is often the case, control of 𝑋 or the angle
substantially provides the control of active power.

1. when the shunt and series Controllers are unified, there can be a real power
exchange between the series and shunt Controllers via the _______.

ANS: Power Link

BENEFITS FROM FACTS TECHNOLOGY

Please, Remember all the Benefits of FACTS technology

1. Control of power flow

2. Increase the loading capability

3. Increase the system security

4. Provide secure tie line connections to neighbouring utilities

5. Provide greater flexibility in siting new generation.

6. Upgrade of lines.

7. Reduce reactive power flows

8. Reduce loop flows.

9. Increase utilization of lowest cost generation

 Static Shunt Compensators
1. Shunt connected, fixed or mechanically switched _________ are applied to minimize
line overvoltage under light load conditions.

a. Impedance

b. Reactor

c. Capacitors

d. Converter

2. Shunt connected, fixed or mechanically switched _________ are applied to maintain

voltage levels under heavy load conditions.

a. Impedance

b. Capacitors

c. Converter

d. Reactor

3. The ultimate objective of applying reactive shunt compensation in a transmission

system is to increase the _______________.

a. Reactance

b. Current

c. Transmittable power

d. Voltage

4. Var compensation is thus used for voltage regulation at the ____________ to segment
the transmission line and at the ______of the (radial) line to prevent voltage instability.

a. End, Mid

b. Start, End

c. Start, Mid
d. Mid, End

5. A transmission line connecting two systems, the best location for var compensation is
in the______.

a. Middle

b. Starting

c. Ending

d. No where

Midpoint Voltage Regulation for Line Segmentation

1. Two-Machine System (Without Compensator)

Please, Do remember formula of Active Power and Reactive power of without

compensator.

Active Power:

Reactive Power:

2. Two-Machine System (With Shunt Compensator)

Please, Do remember formula of Active Power and Reactive power of with

compensator.

Active Power :

Reactive Power:

The reactive power 𝑄𝑝 supplied by the shunt compensator:

6. For a radial feed to a load the best location is at the _______.

a. Load End

b. Starting

c. Mid

d. No where

NOTE: One more MCQ can be formed in the above question i.e leaving the radial
position blank.

Ex. For a ________ feed to a load the best location is at the load end.

Static Series Compensation

1. AC power transmission over long lines was primarily limited by the
_____________ of the line.

a. Shunt impedance

b. Series impedance

c. Series reactive impedance

d. Shunt reactive impedance

The basic idea behind series capacitive compensation is to decrease the overall
effective series transmission impedance from the sending end to the receiving
end, i.e., 𝑋 in the P.

2. For increasing the voltage stability limit of overhead transmission,

____________ is much more effective than ______________ of the same MVA
rating.

a. Shunt compensation, Series compensation

b. Series compensation, Shunt compensation

3. The series compensator is a ______________ of the shunt compensator.

a. Nonreciprocal

b. Directly proportional

c. Reciprocal

d. Integral

4. The shunt compensator is functionally a controlled reactive current source

which is connected in parallel with the transmission line to control its
_________.

a. Voltage

b. Current

c. Power

d. Transient

5. The series compensator is functionally a controlled voltage source which is

connected in series with the transmission line to control its ____________.

a. Current

b. Voltage

c. Power

d. Transient

6. In TSSC the degree of series compensation is controlled in a step-like

manner by increasing or decreasing the number of series _________ inserted.

a. Resistor
b. Inductor

c. Capacitor

d. Diode

7. In TSSC a __________ is inserted by turning off, and it is bypassed by

turning on the corresponding thyristor valve.

a. Resistor

b. Inductor

c. Capacitor

d. Diode

8. The TSSC could be applied for power flow control and for damping power
oscillation where the required speed of response is ____________.

a. Slow

b. Moderate

c. Fast

d. Ultra-fast

9. The SSSC use ________ thyristors.

a. SCR

b. DIAC

c. TRIAC

d. GTO

10. The TSSC employs _________ thyristors.

a. DIAC

b. GTO

c. Conventional

d. MCT

11. The SSSC requires a coupling transformer, rated for _____ p.u. of the
total series var compensating range.

a. 0.1

b. 0.3

c. 0.4

d. 0.5

12. The TSSC is coupled _________ to the transmission line.

a. By Capacitor

b. By Inductor

c. Directly

d. By coupling transformer
 Load Compensation
1. Load compensation is the management of __________ to improve the quality of
supply in ac power systems.

a. Power Quality

b. Active power

c. Reactive power

d. Apparent power

2. Power-factor correction usually means the practice of generating reactive power as

close as possible to the ________.

a. Source

b. Power plant

c. Load

d. Substation

3. Voltage regulation becomes an important and sometimes critical issue in the presence
of loads which vary their demand for_________.

a. Active power

b. Reactive power

c. Lagging Power factor

d. Leading Power factor

4. The supply utility are bound to limit their supply voltage, typically _________
averaged over a period of a few minutes or hours.

a. ±5%

b. ±10%

c. ±15%
d. ±20%

• It is much more practical and economic to size the power system according to the
maximum demand for real power, and to manage the reactive power by means
of ‘compensators’ and other equipment which can be deployed more flexibly
than generating units and which make no contribution to fault levels.

Loads Requiring Compensation

1. It is typical that for sizeable industrial loads, power-factor correction is economically

advantageous if the uncompensated power factor is less than ________.

a. 0.5

b. 0.6

c. 0.7

d. 0.8

• Typical of loads requiring compensation are arc furnaces, induction furnaces,

arc welders, induction welders, steel rolling mills, mine winders, very large
motors (particularly those which start and stop frequently), opencast excavators,
wood chip mills, and high-energy physics experiments (e.g., synchrotrons) which
require pulsed high-power supplies.

2. Large motor starts, limits Permitted in Voltage Fluctuation is ________.

a. 1-3%

b. 1-5%

c. 5-10%

d. 2-5%
3. Mine hoists, excavators, steel rolling mills, large thyristor-fed dc drives have limits
permitted in voltage fluctuation at distribution voltages is _____ and at transmission
voltages is ______.

a. 1-3%, ½-1½%

b. 1-5%, ½-1½%

c. ½-1½%, 1-3%

d. ½-1½%, 1-5%

4. Limits Permitted in Voltage Fluctuation for Arc furnaces is __________.

a. ±15%

b. ±10%

c. ±5%

d. ±20%

*Do remember the Specification of a Load Compensator

*Kindly go through POWER-FACTOR CORRECTION AND VOLTAGE

REGULATION IN SINGLE-PHASE SYSTEMS

Also read the difference between Before compensation and After compensation.

5. A purely reactive compensator cannot maintain both constant _______ and

__________ simultaneously.

a. Current, unity power factor

b. Voltage, unity power factor

c. Current, 0.8 power factor

d. Voltage, 0.8 power factor

LOAD COMPENSATOR AS A VOLTAGE REGULATOR

1. The knee point voltage (𝑉𝑘)

2. The maximum or rated reactive power (𝑄𝛾𝑚𝑎𝑥)

3. The compensator gain (𝐾𝛾)

1. The compensator gain (𝐾𝛾)__________.

ANS:

2. The voltage sensitivity for load reactive power is ____________.

ANS:

Representation of Three-phase Delta Connected Unbalanced Load

A three-phase delta connected unbalanced and its equivalent star connected load are shown in
fig.

The three-phase load is represented by line-line admittances

The delta connected load can be equivalently converted to star connected load using
following expressions.

where 𝑍𝑙𝑎𝑏=1∕𝑌𝑙𝑎𝑏, 𝑍𝑙𝑏𝑐=1∕𝑌𝑙𝑏𝑐 and 𝑍𝑙𝑐𝑎=1∕𝑌𝑙𝑐𝑎. The above equation can also be written
in admittance form

An Alternate Approach to Determine Phase Currents and Powers

Do remember this ,

Where,
1. Shunt connected, fixed or switched reactors are applied to___________.

a. minimize line overvoltage under light load conditions

b. minimize line overvoltage under heavy load conditions

c. maximize voltage levels under light load conditions

d. maximize voltage levels under heavy load conditions

2. Shunt connected, fixed or switched capacitors are applied to________.

a. maintain line voltage levels under light load conditions

b. maintain line voltage levels under any load conditions

c. maintain line voltage levels under heavy load conditions

d. maintain line voltage levels under no load conditions

3. The objectives of applying reactive shunt compensation in a transmission system

is to_______.

a. increase the transmittable power.

b. improve the steady-state transmission characteristics

c. the stability of the system

d. all the above

4. The midpoint shunt compensation can increase the transmittable power doubling
its maximum value at the expense_________.

a. doubling reactive power demand on the midpoint compensator and end

generator

b. 4 times the reactive power demand on the midpoint compensator and end
generator

c. 6 times reactive power demand on the midpoint compensator and end generator
d. without any change of reactive power demand

5. For the single-line system the midpoint of the transmission line is the best
location for the compensator. This is because_____.

a. the voltage sag along the uncompensated transmission line is the weakest at the
midpoint

b. the voltage sag along the uncompensated transmission line is not largest at the
midpoint

c. the voltage sag along the uncompensated transmission line is the largest at the
endpoints

d. the voltage sag along the uncompensated transmission line is the largest at the
midpoint

6. With the increase of the number of segment shunt compensators, the voltage
variation along the line would______.

a. rapidly decrease

b. rapidly increase

c. not change

d. slightly increase

7. The shunt compensation does________.

a. not provide end of line voltage support to prevent voltage instability

b. provide only mid of line voltage support to prevent voltage instability

c. provide end of line voltage support to prevent voltage instability

d. may or may not provide end of line voltage support to prevent voltage instability
8. Without compensation the voltage at the receiving end would________.

a. not vary with the load and load power factor

b. vary with only the load

c. vary with the load and load power factor

d. vary with only the load power factor

9. The voltage stability limit

a. increases with inductive loads and decreases with capacitive loads_________.

b. decreases with inductive loads and increases with capacitive loads

c. decreases with inductive loads and capacitive loads

d. increases with inductive loads and capacitive loads

10. Appropriately controlled shunt compensation can enhance transient stability

by_______.

a. providing effective voltage support, it can increase the transmission capability of

the post-fault system

b. increasing the transmission capability of the post-fault system only

c. providing effective voltage support only

d. none of the above

11. If the uncompensated system has a sufficient transient stability margin, shunt
compensation can_________.

a. considerably increase the transmittable power without decreasing transient

stability margin

b. considerably increase the transmittable power with decreasing transient stability

margin
c. considerably decrease the transmittable power without decreasing transient
stability margin

d. considerably increase the transmittable power by increasing transient stability

margin

12. A phase shifting of the transformer is adjusted by_________.

a. SCR

b. Chopper

c. Cycloconverter

d. Phase advancer

13. Power systems are normally designed to be transiently stable, when subjected
to a major disturbance_________.

a. with defined pre-fault contingency scenarios

b. with defined pre-fault contingency scenarios and post-fault system degradation

c. with post-fault system degradation

d. with required enhancement in power transmission capability

14. It is economically savvy to employ fast acting compensation techniques,

instead of overall network compensation, _________.

a. dynamic events and increase the transmission capability of the degraded system

b. dynamic events of the degraded system

c. transmission capability of the degraded system

d. voltage of the system

15. In power oscillation damping with shunt compensator, when the rotationally
oscillating generator accelerates and__________.

a. the electric power transmitted must be decreased

b. the electric power transmitted must be constant

c. the electric power transmitted must be increased

d. mechanical input power must be decreased

16. In power oscillation damping with shunt compensator, when the generator
decelerates and angle delta decreases, _________.

a. the electric power must be increased

b. the electric power must be constant

c. the mechanical input power must be increased

d. the electric power must be decreased

17. In power oscillation damping with shunt compensator, when the rotationally
oscillating generator accelerates and___________.

a. compensator shall introduce capacitive reactive power

b. compensator introduce inductive reactive power

c. no changes in reactive power shall be made

d. mechanical input power must be decreased

18. In power oscillation damping with shunt compensator, when the rotationally
oscillating generator decelerates and___________.

a. compensator shall introduce capacitive reactive power

b. compensator introduce inductive reactive power

c. no changes in reactive power shall be made

d. mechanical input power must be increased

19. The compensator must stay in______________ with the ac system at the
compensated bus under all operating condition______.

a. asynchronous operation

b. disconnected mode

c. synchronous operation

d. none of the above

20. What are the sources of Real Power?

a. AC Generators

b. DC Generators

c. All AC & DC Generators

d. None

21. FACTS technology essential can overcome every type of hurdle in the
transmission system_____.

a. True

b. False

c. Can not be determined

d. None of these

22. A Device whose output current which is either inductive or capacitive can be
controlled effectively the system potential difference is known as________.

a. SSG
b. BESS

c. SMES

d. STATCOM

23. TCBR involves cycle by cycle switching of a resistor, the resistor is basically
a_______.

a. Non-Inductive

b. Linear

c. Nonlinear

d. None of The Above

24. The device which based on thyristor but having no gate turn off capability

a. TCSC

b. TCR

c. TSSR

d. TSSC

25. Which of the following is the alternative for statcom at lower cost

a. TCR

b. SMES

c. SSSC

d. SVC
 Power System Stability

1. How can we check upon the transient stability of a power system?

a) By checking variation in load angle
b) By checking variation of real power with load angle
c) Checking variation in load angle and real power
d) Checking variation in load angle or real power
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Checking the variation in load angle and real power flow helps in deciding the
transient stability.
2.To maintain the transient stability for a power system _____________

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The rate of change of load angle must be positive and so the change in real
power variation in order to supply the demand.
3. How can we improve the steady state stability of the synchronous generator for a better
performance?
a) Increasing the excitation
b) Increasing reactance
c) Decreasing moment of inertia
d) Increasing moment of inertia
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: P(max) = EV/X.
4. There is 2-machine model having losses too, with their transfer impedance being resistive.
The maximum value of sending power P1max and maximum receiving end power P2max
will take place with power angle ‘δ’ such that
a) Both P1max and P2max will occur at δ<90
b) Both P1max and P2max will occur at δ>90
c) P1max occurs at δ > 90 and P2max will occur at δ<90
d) P1max occurs at δ < 90 and P2max will occur at δ>90
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Even after connecting parallel machines, their maximum power will occur at
load angle lesser than 90 degrees.
5. As per the system given, machine B will receive the active and reactive power from
machine A when ______________
a) δ is positive and Va is more than Vb
b) δ is positive and Va is less than Vb
c) δ is positive and Va is same as Vb
d) δ is negative and Va is more than Vb
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Real power flows from higher to lower δ while the reactive power flows from
higher voltage to lower.
advertisement

6. If there are two machines having moment of inertia M1 and M2, where M1<M2; The
possible number of equivalent moment of inertia will be _______________
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: M1+M2, M1||M2 and M1-M2.
7. If there are two machines having moment of inertia M1 and M2, where M1<M2; Then one
is proposing to add more inertia to the system. Then it will be added to _____________

a) Machine 1
b) Machine 2
c) Machine 1 and Machine 2
d) Either of Machine 1 and Machine 2
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Since the inertia is less for machine 1.
8. The measure to improve the transient stability of the power system during the unbalanced
or unsymmetrical fault can be taken as ________
a) Single pole switching of CB
b) Excitation control
c) Phase shifting transformer
d) Increasing turbine valve opening
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Single pole switching of CB allows the immediate isolation of the fault frim the
system and thus safeguarding the healthy part.
9. Use of high speed circuit breaker will actually increase the system stability.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: High speed CB immediately cuts off the fault and saves the system to undergo
transient oscillations.
10. What does the steady state stability of a power system signify?
a) Maintaining the rated voltage
b) Maintaining rated frequency
c) Maintaining a synchronism between machines and tie-lines
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Steady state stability means to maintain the stable system inside and outside too
with the external tie lines.
1. The synchronous machine is operating at a normal condition at the generating system, then
the angle between rotor axis and the stator magnetic axis is _____________
a) Load angle
b) Power factor angle
c) Impedance angle
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a

2. The angle shown in the figure depends on which of the following given options?
a) Loading of the system
b) Power factor
c) Operating frequency
d) Power factor, operating frequency, loading of the system
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Load angle depends on the loading of the system, as the load in added or
decreased, the synchronous machine will accelerate or decelerate with respect to stator field.
3. Swing equation is very famous for describing the relation between the ___________
a) rotor motion and stator field
b) stator and rotor field
c) load angle and rotor field
d) moment of inertia and rotor motion
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Swing equation describes the relative motion between rotor load angle with
respect to stator field as a function of time.
4. Swing equation which describes the relative motion of the rotor of the machine, is a
__________
a) linear and second-order differential equation
b) non linear and second-order differential equation
c) non linear and first-order differential equation
d) non linear and hyperbolic equation
View Answer

Answer: b
5. A variation in the power transfer had been observed at the generating station while power
exchange process due to ______ and is known as ______
a) swing of the machine, inertial response
b) sub synchronism, hunting
c) sub synchronism, inertial response
d) swing of the machine, falling out of the rotor
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The power exchange between the mechanical rotor and the electrical grid due to
the swing of the rotor is called inertial response.
advertisement

6. Why the angle δ, rotor angle is famously called as the load angle in the equation of rotor
dynamics?
a) Due to power exchange is a function of δ
b) Because it dictates the reactive power compensation
c) Due to load variations
d) No dependency on the load dynamics
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Rotor angle is the emf angle and power is a function of it.
7. The transient stability and the steady state stability of a power transmission system
________
a) maintain synchronism between machine and tie lines at all the circumstances
b) maintains frequency exactly at 50 Hz
c) maintain voltage regulation precisely
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Transient stability and steady state stability maintain synchronism between the
generating station and tie line.
8. We can say a system is stable at steady state is not affected by ____________
a) line losses
b) line reactance
c) generator reactance
d) excitation of alternators
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Line losses do not affect the stability limit of the system.
9. The transient instabilities can occur in a system by ___________
a) Sudden load changes
b) Switching operation
c) Faults
d) Suddenn load changes, switching operation and faults
View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned factors affect the transient stability of a system.
10. Post a three phase fault that occurs in a system, then its transient stability can be
examined using ___________
a) solution of swing equation
b) equal area criterion
c) solution of swing equation and equal area criterion
d) solution of swing equation or equal area criterion
View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Swing equation provides the rotor dynamics at the transient conditions.

1) What is the value of transient stability limit?

a. Higher than steady state stability limit

b. Lower than steady state stability limit.
c. Depending upon the severity of load
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Lower than steady state stability limit.

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

2) By using which component can the transient stability limit of a power system be
improved?

a. Series resistance
b. Series capacitor
c. Series inductor
d. Shunt resistance
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Series capacitor

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

3) What is transient stability limit?

a. The maximum flow of power through a particular point in the power system without loss
of stability when small disturbances occur.
b. The maximum power flow possible through a particular component connected in the power
system.
c. The maximum flow of power through a particular point in the power system without loss
of stability when large and sudden disturbances occur
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: The maximum flow of power through a particular point in the power system
without loss of stability when large and sudden disturbances occur

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

4) Which among the following methods is used for improving the system stability?

a. Increasing the system voltage

b. Reducing the transfer reactance
c. Using high speed circuit breaker
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: All of these

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

5) What is steady state stability limit?

a. The maximum flow of power through a particular point in the power system without loss
of stability when small disturbances occur.
b. The maximum power flow possible through a particular component connected in the power
system.
c. The maximum flow of power through a particular point in the power system without loss
of stability when sudden disturbances occur
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: The maximum flow of power through a particular point in the power system
without loss of stability when small disturbances occur.

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

6) Which among these is a classification of power system stability?

a. Frequency stability
b. Voltage stability
c. Rotor angle stability
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: All of these
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

7) The stability of the power system is not affected by which among these?

a. Generator reactance
b. Line losses
c. Excitation of generators
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Line losses

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!

8) What is power system stability?

a. The maximum power flow possible through a particular component connected in the power
system.
b. The ability of the power system to regain the state of operating equilibrium point when the
system is subjected to any disturbances.
c. It is a phenomenon in which a power system losses its operating equilibrium when
subjected to large disturbances.
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: The ability of the power system to regain the state of operating equilibrium point
when the system is subjected to any disturbances.
 Stability Analysis
1) What is the value of transient
stability limit?
a. Higher than steady state stability limit
b. Lower than steady state stability limit.
c. Depending upon the severity of load
d. All of these
e. None of these
ANSWER: Lower than steady state
stability limit.
2) By using which component can the
transient stability limit of a power
system be improved?
a. Series resistance
b. Series capacitor
c. Series inductor
d. Shunt resistance
ANSWER: Series capacitor

3) What is transient stability limit?

a. The maximum flow of power through a
particular point in the power system
without loss of stability when small
disturbances occur.
b. The maximum power flow possible
through a particular component connected
in the power system.
c. The maximum flow of power through a
particular point in the power system
without loss of stability when large and
sudden disturbances occur
d. All of these
e. None of these

ANSWER: The maximum flow of power

through a particular point in the power
system without loss of stability when large
and sudden disturbances occur

4) Which among the following methods

is used for improving the system
stability?
a. Increasing the system voltage
b. Reducing the transfer reactance
c. Using high speed circuit breaker
d. All of these
e. None of these

ANSWER: All of these

5) What is steady state stability limit?

a. The maximum flow of power through a
particular point in the power system
without loss of stability when small
disturbances occur.
b. The maximum power flow possible
through a particular component connected
in the power system.
c. The maximum flow of power through a
particular point in the power system
without loss of stability when sudden
disturbances occur
d. All of these
e. None of these

ANSWER: The maximum flow of power

through a particular point in the power
system without loss of stability when small
disturbances occur.

6) Which among these is a

classification of power system stability?
a. Frequency stability
b. Voltage stability
c. Rotor angle
d. All of these
e. None of these
ANSWER: All of these
7) The stability of the power system is
not affected by which among these?
a. Generator reactance
b. Line losses
c. Excitation of generators
d. All of these
e. None of these
ANSWER: Line losses
8) What is power system stability?
a. The maximum power flow possible
through a particular component connected
in the power system.
b. The ability of the power system to
regain the state of operating equilibrium
point when the system is subjected to any
disturbances.
c. It is a phenomenon in which a power
system losses its operating equilibrium
when subjected to large disturbances.
d. All of these
e. None of these
ANSWER: The ability of the power
system to regain the state of operating
equilibrium point when the system is
subjected to any disturbances.

1. The over voltage surges in power

systems me be caused by

A. Lightning
B. Resonance
C. Switching
D. All of the above

✔ View Answer
D. All of the above

2. The critical clearing time of a fault is

power system is related to

A. Reactive power limit

B. Short circuit limit
C. Steady-state stability limit
D. Transient stability limit

✔ View Answer
D. Transient stability limit

3. Our system stability is least affected by

A. Reactance of generator
B. Input torque
C. Losses
D. Reactants of transmission line

✔ View Answer
C. Losses

4. Which portion of the our system is least

prone to faults?
 A. Alternator
B. Transformer
C. Overhead lines
D. Underground cable

✔ View Answer
A. Alternators

5. The domains of power system where

directional overcurrent relay is
indispensable are

A. In case of parallel feeder protection

B. In case of ring main feeder protection
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

✔ View Answer
C. Both A and B

6. The stability of the power system is not

affected by

A. Generator reactance
B. Line reactance
C. Excitation of generators
D. Line losses

✔ View Answer
D. Line losses

7. The Power Systems are operated with

power angle around

A. 10 degree
B. 30 degree
C. 70 degree
D. 80 degree
✔ View Answer
B. 30 degree

8. Power system stability is defined as

A. That attribute of the system or part of

the system which enables it to develop
restoring forces between the elements
there of equal or greater than disturbing
forces so as to restore a state of
equilibrium between the elements
B. The maximum power flow possible
through some particular point in the
system when the entire or part of the
system is disturbed
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A or B

✔ View Answer
A. That attribute of the system or part of
the system which enables it to develop
restoring forces between the elements
there of equal or greater than disturbing
forces so as to restore a state of
equilibrium between the elements

9. Stability limit of a power system is

defined as

A. That attribute of the system or part of

the system which enables it to develop
restoring forces between the elements
there of equal or greater than disturbing
forces so as to restore a state of
equilibrium between the elements
B. The maximum power flow possible
through some particular point in the
system when the entire or part of the
system is disturbed
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A or B

✔ View Answer
B. The maximum power flow possible
through some particular point in the
system when the entire or part of the
system is disturbed

10. Steady-state stability of a power

system is the ability of the power system
to
 A. Maintain voltage at the rated voltage
level
B. Maintain frequency exactly at 50 Hz
C. Maintain a spinning reserve margin at
all times
D. Maintain synchronism between
machines and on external tie lines

✔ View Answer
D. Maintain synchronism between
machines and on external tie lines

11. Steady-state stability of a power

system is improved by

A. Reducing fault clearing time

B. Using double circuit line instead of
single circuit line
C. Single pole switching
D. Decreasing generator inertia

✔ View Answer
B. Using double circuit line instead of
single circuit line

12. The critical clearing time of a fault is

power system is related to

A. Reactive power limit

B. Short circuit limit
C. Steady-state stability limit
D. Transient stability limit
✔ View Answer
D. Transient stability limit

13. With fault clearing time, the transient

stability limit of a power system

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. First increases then decreases
D. First decreases and then increases

✔ View Answer
B. Decreases
14. Transient disturbances are caused by
A. Sudden load changes
B. Switching operations
C. Fault in the power system
D. All of the above

✔ View Answer
D. All of the above

15. The transient stability limit of a power

system can be appreciably increased by
introducing

A. Series inductance
B. Shunt inductance
C. Series capacitance
D. Shunt capacitance

✔ View Answer
C. Series capacitance

Swing Equation Swing Curve

1) Why are the series capacitors used?
a. Improve the voltage
b. Reduce the fault level
c. Compensate for line inductive reactance and improve the stability of the power system.
d. Improves the power factor
ANSWER: Compensate for line inductive reactance and improve the stability of the
power system.

2) Which among these is related to the critical clearing time of a fault in a power system?
- Published on 14 Oct 15
a. Transient stability limit
b. Steady state stability limit
c. Frequency limit
d. All of these
e. None of these

ANSWER: Transient stability limit

9) Which among these cannot be determined from equal area criterion?
- Published on 14 Oct 15
a. Critical clearing angle
b. Critical clearing time
c. Transient stability limit
d. Both (a) and (b)
e. All of these

ANSWER: Critical clearing time

10) What are the common assumptions made for the equal area criterion?
- Published on 14 Oct 15
a. The transmission line and machine resistances are neglected.
b. Rotor speed of the machine is constant
c. Mechanical input remains constant.
d. All of these

Answer d
11) For which among the following cases is the equal area criterion of stability used?
- Published on 14 Oct 15
a. One machine and infinite bus bar
b. No load on bus bar
c. Many machines and infinite bus bar
d. All of these
e. None of these
ANSWER: One machine and infinite bus bar

12) Which stability information is obtained from the equal area criterion?
- Published on 14 Oct 15
a. Absolute stability
b. Transient stability
c. Steady state stability
d. Both (b) and (c)
e. All of these
ANSWER: Absolute stability

13) Under what condition is the system stable under equal area criterion?
- Published on 14 Oct 15
a. The area under the curve Pa – δ curve must increase to ∞.
b. The area under the curve Pa – δ curve must become equal to 1
c. The area under the curve Pa – δ curve must reduce to zero.
d. None of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: The area under the curve Pa – δ curve must reduce to zero.
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
________________________________________
14) Why are the series capacitors used?
- Published on 14 Oct 15
a. Improve the voltage
b. Reduce the fault level
c. Compensate for line inductive reactance and improve the stability of the power system.
d. Improves the power factor
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Compensate for line inductive reactance and improve the stability of the power
system.
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
15) Which among the following methods are used to improve steady state stability?
- Published on 14 Oct 15
a. Reducing the reactance between the transmission and receiving points.
b. By using bundled conductors.
c. By increasing the excitation of generator or motor or both.
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: All of these

16) Which curve represents the reluctance power in the following power angle curve of a
machine?
- Published on 14 Oct 15

a. Curve A
b. Curve B
c. Curve C
d. Curve A and curve B
e. All the above
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Curve C
17) What is the range of ‘δ’ for stable operation?
- Published on 14 Oct 15
a. 0° < δ < 45°
b. 45° < δ < 90°
c. 0° < δ < 90°
d. 0° < δ < 120°
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: 0° < δ < 90°

18) At what value of ‘δ’ the maximum power transfer takes place?
- Published on 14 Oct 15
a. 45 °
b. 90 °
c. 120 °
d. 180 °
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: 90 °
19) What is power angle equation of synchronous machines?
- Published on 14 Oct 15
a. An equation between electrical power generated to the angular displacement of the rotor
b. An equation between mechanical power generated to the angular displacement of the rotor
c. An equation between electrical power generated to the angular displacement of stator
windings
d. An equation between mechanical power generated to the angular displacement of stator
windings
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: An equation between electrical power generated to the angular displacement of

the rotor
20) Which point on the graph represents the steady state stability limit of the system?
- Published on 14 Oct 15

a. Point A
b. Point B
c. Point C
d. Point D
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Point A

21) What will be the inertia constant H, for a water wheel generator having a speed less than
200 rpm?
- Published on 14 Oct 15
a. 2 - 4
b. 2 - 3
c. 1 - 2
d. 5 - 6
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: 2 - 3
22) What are the main applications of the swing curves?
a. Designing the rotor field windings
b. Designing the protective devices
c. Used to limit the size of the machine
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Designing the protective devices

23) What information does the swing curve provide?
- Published on 14 Oct 15
a. Stability of the system.
b. Performance of the machine
c. The rotor performance
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Stability of the system.

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
________________________________________
24) What kind of differential equation is swing equation?
- Published on 14 Oct 15
a. Linear second order
b. Non linear first order
c. Linear first order
d. Non linear second order
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Non linear second order

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
________________________________________
25) What is / are the major assumptions made in the calculation of swing equations?
- Published on 14 Oct 15
a. Damper windings are neglected
b. The machine is lossless
c. The machine has to run at synchronous speed
d. Both (a) and (b)
e. All of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Both (a) and (b)

35) What does the swing equation describe?
- Published on 19 Oct 15
a. The relative motion of rotor with the field windings of the machine

- Published on 19 Oct 15
a. Generators
b. Transformers
c. Loads
d. Line losses
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Loads
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
36) What is the result of frequency instability?
- Published on 19 Oct 15
a. Voltage collapse
b. Frequency swings
c. Tripping of generating units
d. Both (b) and (c)
e. All of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Both (b) and (c)

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
________________________________________
37) What is frequency stability?
- Published on 19 Oct 15
a. To maintain steady frequency following severe disturbance resulting in the imbalance
between transformer and load
b. To maintain steady frequency following severe disturbances resulting in the imbalance
between generators and load
c. To maintain a steady frequency in all the protection components and the transmission lines.
d. Both (a) and (b)
e. All of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: To maintain steady frequency following severe disturbances resulting in the

imbalance between generators and load
38) Which among the following phenomenon is generally associated with voltage stability?
- Published on 19 Oct 15
a. Temporary load reduction
b. Voltage is reduced
c. Voltage collapses
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: All of these

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
________________________________________
39) What is the main cause of voltage instability?
a. Generators
b. Transformers
c. Loads
d. Line losses
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Loads
________________________________________
40) What is voltage stability?
- Published on 19 Oct 15
a. To maintain steady voltages at all the buses after the occurrence of fault.
b. To maintain steady voltages at all the buses before the occurrence of fault.
c. To maintain the system frequency after the severe disturbances
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: To maintain steady voltages at all the buses after the occurrence of fault.
41) On what factors does the transient stability depend on?
- Published on 19 Oct 15
a. Initial operating state
b. Severity of disturbances
c. Voltage instability
d. Both (a) and (b)
e. All of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Both (a) and (b)

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
________________________________________
42) What is / are the cause(s) for transient disturbance?
- Published on 19 Oct 15
a. Sudden load changes
b. Faults in the power system
c. Switching operations
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: All of these

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
________________________________________
43) Which among these phenomenons is / are associated with angle stability?
- Published on 19 Oct 15
a. Imbalance between the two generator torque
b. Stability or synchronism is lost
c. Surplus energy is stored up in the rotating masses
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: All of these

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
________________________________________
44) What is the value of transient stability limit?
- Published on 19 Oct 15
a. Higher than steady state stability limit
b. Lower than steady state stability limit.
c. Depending upon the severity of load
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Lower than steady state stability limit.

45) By using which component can the transient stability limit of a power system be
improved?
- Published on 19 Oct 15
a. Series resistance
b. Series capacitor
c. Series inductor
d. Shunt resistance
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Series capacitor

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
________________________________________
46) What is transient stability limit?
- Published on 19 Oct 15
a. The maximum flow of power through a particular point in the power system without loss
of stability when small disturbances occur.
b. The maximum power flow possible through a particular component connected in the power
system.
c. The maximum flow of power through a particular point in the power system without loss
of stability when large and sudden disturbances occur
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: The maximum flow of power through a particular point in the power system
without loss of stability when large and sudden disturbances occur
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
________________________________________
47) Which among the following methods is used for improving the system stability?
a. Increasing the system voltage
b. Reducing the transfer reactance
c. Using high speed circuit breaker
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: All of these

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
________________________________________
48) What is steady state stability limit?
- Published on 19 Oct 15
a. The maximum flow of power through a particular point in the power system without loss
of stability when small disturbances occur.
b. The maximum power flow possible through a particular component connected in the power
system.
c. The maximum flow of power through a particular point in the power system without loss
of stability when sudden disturbances occur
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: The maximum flow of power through a particular point in the power system
without loss of stability when small disturbances occur.
Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
________________________________________
49) Which among these is a classification of power system stability?
- Published on 19 Oct 15
a. Frequency stability
b. Voltage stability
c. Rotor angle stability
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: All of these

Explanation:
No explanation is available for this question!
________________________________________
50) The stability of the power system is not affected by which among these?
- Published on 19 Oct 15
a. Generator reactance
b. Line losses
c. Excitation of generators
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: Line losses

51) What is power system stability?

- Published on 19 Oct 15

a. The maximum power flow possible through a particular component connected in the power
system.
b. The ability of the power system to regain the state of operating equilibrium point when the
system is subjected to any disturbances.
c. It is a phenomenon in which a power system losses its operating equilibrium when
subjected to large disturbances.
d. All of these
e. None of these
Answer Explanation Related Ques

ANSWER: The ability of the power system to regain the state of operating equilibrium point
when the system is subjected to any disturbances.

1. The Critical Clearance time of a fault in

the power system is related to
a) Reactive power limit
b) Short Circuit limit
c) Steady state stability limit
d) Transient stability limit

2. The equal area criteria of stability is

used for:
a) no load on the busbar
b) One machine and infinite busbar
c) More than one machine and infinite
busbar
d) None of the above

3. If the torque angle of the alternator

increases indefinitely the system will
show:
a) Steady state stability limit
b) Transient state stability limit
c) Instability
d) None of the above

4. The steady state stability of the power

system can be improved by:
a) Increasing the number of parallel lines
between the transmission points
b) Connecting capacitors in series with the
line
c) Reducing the excitation of the machines
d) Both a and b

5. The transient stability limit of the power

system can be increased by introducing:
a) Series Inductance
b) Shunt Inductance
c) Series Capacitance
d) Shunt Capacitance

6. The use of high speed breakers can:

a) Increase the transient stability
b) Decrease the transient stability
c) Increase the steady state stability
d) Decrease the steady state stability

7. The inertia constant of the two machines

which are not swinging together are M1
and M2. The equivalent inertia constant of
the system is:
a) M1-M2
b) M1+M2
c) M1M2/(M1+M2)
d) M1M2/(M1-M2)
A
8. If a generator of 250MVA rating has an
inertia constant of 6MJ/MVA, its inertia
constant on a 100MVA base is:
a) 15 MJ/MVA
b) 10.5 MJ/MVA
c) 6 MJ/MVA
d) 2,4 MJ/MVA

1. Steady state stability of the power

system is improved by
a) Reducing the fault clearance time
b) Using the double circuit line instead of
single circuit line
c) single pole switching
d) decreasing generator inertia

2. Equal area criteria gives the information

regarding
a) Stability region
b) Absolute Stability
c) Relative Stability
d) Swing Curves

B
3. Which one of the following is true
a) Steady State Stability limit is greater
than Transient Stability limit
b) Steady State Stability limit is equal to
Transient Stability limit
c) Steady State Stability limit is lee than
Transient Stability limit
d) None of the above

4. The stability of the power system is not

affected by:
a) Generator reactance
b) Line reactance
c) Excitation of the generator
d) Line losses

5. For stability and economic reason we

operate the transmission line with power
angle in the range of:
a) 10 degreeto 25 degree
b) 30 degree to 45 degree
c) 60 degree to 75 degree
d) 65 degree to 80 degree

6. The steady state stability of the power

system can be improved by:
a) Using machines of high impedance
b) Connecting transmission line in series
c) Connecting transmission in parallel
d) Reducing the excitation of the machines

7. The transfer of power between two

stations is maximum when the phase angle
displacement between the voltages of the
two stations is
a) Zero
b) 90 degree
c) 120 degree
d) 180 degree

8. The inertia of two group of machines

which swing together are M1 and M2. The
inertia constant of the system is:
a) M1-M2
b) M1+M2
c) M1M2/(M1+M2)
d) M1/M2

C
TRANSIENT STABILITY -
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS
1. The critical clearing angle of a given power system for a certain fault is
a. proportional to the Inertia Constant M
b. proportional to the Inertia Constant M
c. independent of M.
Ans.: c
2. Equal area criterion of stability is applicable to
a. a machine infinite bus system only
b. both to a machine-infinite bus and a two-machine system
c. a multi-machine system.
Ans.: (b)
3. In a two-machine power system, machine A delivers power to machine B. A
3-phase fault occurs at the terminals of machine A. Initial acceleration of machine A
is
(a) positive
(b) zero
(c). negative
Ans.: (a)
4. Which one of the following enhances the transient stability of a system the
most
a. proper choice of make and break capabilities of the circuit breakers
b. installation of 3-pole auto-reclose circuit breakers
c. installation of single pole auto-reclose circuit breakers
Ans.: (c )
 FACTS TECHNOLOGY

MCQ No - 1
FACTS devices are generally used for to compensate……………of the transmission line.

(A)
Reactance

(B)
Resistance

(C)
Conductance

(D)
Admittance

A
MCQ No - 2
FACTS devices generally deals with

(A)
S

(B)
Q

(C)
P

(D)
Load Angle

B
MCQ No - 3
Full form of UPFC is

(A)
Unified Power Flow Controller

(B)
Unified Power Factor Controller

(C)
Unified Power Flow Compensator

(D)
Unique Power Flow Controller

A
MCQ No - 4
STATCOM + SSSC will make

(A)
UPQC

(B)
TCSC

(C)
UPFC

(D)
SVR

C
MCQ No - 5
Thyristor firing angle should be between

(A)
90° - 145°

(B)
90° - 180°

(C)
60° - 180°

(D)
90° - 150°

MCQ No - 6
FACTS devices used in

(A)
Generation

(B)
AC transmission
(C)
DC transmission

(D)
None

A
MCQ No - 7
Voltage control means

(A)
Boosting the feeder voltage

(B)
Reducing the line voltage under over voltage conditions

(C)
Keeping the voltage level within the allowable limits

(D)
None

C
MCQ No - 8
voltage drop in feeder lines

(A)
Transformer voltage drop

(B)
Line drop lagging P.F

(C)
voltage at leading P.F

(D)
voltage drop in feeder lines

A
MCQ No - 9
Which is the shunt compensation devices

(A)
TCSC
(B)
SSSC

(C)
UPFC

(D)
SVC

D
MCQ No - 10
SVC and STATCOM are______________ devices

(A)
Series connected

(B)
Shunt connected

(C)
Combined series-series connected

(D)
Combined serie-shunt connected

MCQ No - 11
SVC stands for________________

(A)
Static Voltage Controller

(B)
Stabilility Voltage Control

(C)
Static VAR Contoller

(D)
Stability Voltage Ampere Reactive Controller

C
MCQ No - 12
STATCOM stands for_________________
(A)
Static Synchrnous Compensator

(B)
Stable Synchrnous Compensator

(C)
Static Synchrnous Control

(D)
Stability Synchrnous Compensator

A
MCQ No - 13
STATCOM is______________ regulating device

(A)
Current

(B)
Power

(C)
Voltage

(D)
Frequency

C
MCQ No - 14
The main Objective of series compensation

(A)
It improve the power factor

(B)
It reduces the fault currents

(C)
Reduce the voltage drop over long distance

(D)
None
C
MCQ No - 15
TCSC is a

(A)
Shunt compensation device

(B)
Series compensation device

(C)
Combined Series-Shunt compensation device

(D)
None of these

MCQ No - 16
Disadvantage with series compensation

(A)
Reduce the stability

(B)
increase the voltage drop

(C)
Reduce the power factor

(D)
Increase in fault current

D
MCQ No - 17
The location of series capacitor depends on _____________________ factors.

(A)
The degree of compensation and the characteristic of the line

(B)
Only the degree of compensation

(C)
Only the characteristic of the line

(D)
None of these

A
MCQ No - 18
Which of the following is the area of FACTs application?

(A)
Power transmission

(B)
Power Quality

(C)
Wind power grid Connection

(D)
All of these

D
MCQ No - 19
Which of the following is the 1st generation FACTs devices?

(A)
SVC

(B)
STATCOM

(C)
SSSC

(D)
UPFC

A
MCQ No - 20
Which of the following is the 2nd generation FACTs device?

(A)
SSSC

(B)
SVC

(C)
UPFC

(D)
IPFC

MCQ No - 21
Which of the following is 3rd generation FACTs device?

(A)
UPFC

(B)
STATCOM

(C)
SSSC

(D)
SVC

A
MCQ No - 22
____________________ is a combination of two or more independently controllable static
synchronous series compensator (SSSC) which are solid state voltage source converters which inject
an almost sinusoidalvoltage at variable magnitude and couples via a common DC link.

(A)
UPFC

(B)
SVC

(C)
STATCOM

(D)
IPFC

D
MCQ No - 23
___________________ is needed to establish the magnetic and electrostatic fields; it is temporarily
stored and then released
(A)
Active Power

(B)
Reactive Power

(C)
Instantaneous Power

(D)
Apparent Power

B
MCQ No - 24
In fact the energy associated with the __________________ oscillates between the element and the
rest of the circuit.

(A)
reactive power

(B)
active power

(C)
instantaneous power

(D)
apparent power

A
MCQ No - 25
Normally, the reactive power has _____________ average value

(A)
High

(B)
Low

(C)
zero

(D)
negative
C

MCQ No - 26
When Q is positive the current _______________ the voltage

(A)
lags

(B)
leads

(C)
inphase

(D)
out of phase

A
MCQ No - 27
when Q is negative the voltage ________ the current.

(A)
lags

(B)
leads

(C)
inphase

(D)
out of phase

A
MCQ No - 28
If the supply has frequency f Hz then what would be the frequency of intantaneous power?

(A)
f

(B)
2xf

(C)
f/2

(D)
fxf

B
MCQ No - 29
We can control the P and/or Q transfers in the transmission line varying

(A)
sending end voltage

(B)
receiving end voltage

(C)
load angle

(D)
all of these

D
MCQ No - 30
In TCR if the firing angle is changed from 90° to 180° the harmonics in ITCR __________________

(A)
increases

(B)
decreases

(C)
becomes zero

(D)
remains unchanged

MCQ No - 31
Harmonics is __________________ type of PQ problem.

(A)
transients

(B)
wavefrom distortions
(C)
voltage flicker

(D)
frequency variations

B
MCQ No - 32
In SR compensator the slope correcting capactor is connected in ______________ with saturated
reactor.

(A)
series

(B)
parallel

A
MCQ No - 33
In SR, the biasing shunt capacitor is equipped with small tuning inductors to provide

(A)
sub harmonic oscillations

(B)
slope correction

(C)
filtering of the remnant harmonics

(D)
lagging power factor range operation

C
MCQ No - 34
FACTS employ _________ for switching.

(A)
High speed thyristor

(B)
Low speed thyristor

(C)
Rectifier
(D)
None of these

A
MCQ No - 35
Which is (are) the advantage(s) of FACTS controllers?

(A)
Enhances controllability

(B)
Increase power transfer capability

(C)
Increase the reliability of AC grids

(D)
All of these

MCQ No - 36
What is the main disadvantage of FACTS?

(A)
Very costly

(B)
Less costly

(C)
Enhance controllability

(D)
None of these

A
MCQ No - 37
Automatic generation control(AGC) controls

(A)
Frequency

(B)
Steam/Water input

(C)
Torque

(D)
All of these

A
MCQ No - 38
Unit of wave number (beta) is

(A)
rad-km

(B)
rad-cm

(C)
rad/cm

(D)
rad/km

C
MCQ No - 39
saturated reactor will generate harmonics of the order of

(A)
16k ± 1

(B)
9k ± 1

(C)
18k ± 1

(D)
20k ± 1

B
 MCQ On
Unit No. 05
SCADA Systems
Prepared By,
Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande
Department of Electrical Engineering
Zeal College of Engineering and Research, Pune
B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
Unit V: SCADA Systems

1. SCADA technology was first applied for ___________

(a) Telephones (b) Weather prediction
(c) railways (d) Industries

2. _______ is known as host computer

(a) MTU (b) RTU
(c) MODEM (d) DCE

3. RTU has ability to send and receive messages to field devices in serial format usually
is _______ standard
(a) RS - 232 (b) RS - 485
(c) DH - 485 (d) GH – 485 +

4. ______ is the SCADA software developed by Allen – Bradley company.

(a) RSLOGIX 500 (b) RSVIEW - 32
(c) RSLX 1000 (d) RSVIEW - 45

5. Human machine interface (HMI) is a ______

(a) Software (b) Hardware
(c) Standard (d) Modulator

6. ______ is used the benefit of SCADA

(a) Improved facility effectiveness (b) Internal address
(c) Special code (d) Cyclic redundancy code

7. ______gathers information from field devices

(a) RTU (b) MTU
(c) Input conditioner (d) Communication interface

8. _______ tag stores information generated while system is running

(a) Analog (b) Digital
(c) Security (d) System

9. _____ is the visual representation of real time or historical tag values, provides to
track plant activities
(a) Alarm (b) Trend
(c) Graphic display (d) Log

10. Which one of the following is not the property of SCADA system
(a) Intelligent alarming (b) Web connectivity
(c) Real time trending (d) Linearity

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 1

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
11. In _________ message, it is generated when a tag value goes into alarm
(a) System (b) Alarm
(c) SCADA (d) Acknowledge

12. _________display is used to keep graphic display on the top at all times
(a) On bottom (b) Overlay
(c) On top (d) Replace

13. Which one of the following is the first generation of SCADA system
(a) Distributed (b) Monolithic
(c) Networked (d) IOT

14. _________ initiates communication, collects the data, stores the data in database and
provides interface to operator.
(a) RTU (b) HMI
(c) MTU (d) None of the above

15. What is SCADA?

(a) Software (b) Process
(c) System (d) Hardware

16. The control in SCADA is _____________

(a) Online control (b) Direct control
(c) Supervisory control (d) Automatic control

17. When did the SCADA start?

(a) 1980s (b)1990s
(c) 1970s (d) 1960s

18. How many levels are present in a complex SCADA system?

(a) 3 levels (b) 5 levels
(c) 4 levels (d) 6 levels

19. Which of the following is the heart of a SCADA system?

(a) PLC (b) HMI
(c) Alarm task (d) I/O task

20. _______ standard is used for SCADA communication

(a) IEC 60870 (b) IEC 61345
(c) IEC 61328 (d) IEEE 60870

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 2

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
21. What does SCADA stand for?
(a)Supervisory Control and Data (b) Supervisory Content and Data
Application System Application System

(c) Supervisory Control and Data (d) None of the above

Acquisition System

22. A SCADA system performs data acquisition, networked data communication and
_____ control
(a) Data representation (b) DCS
(c) Microcontroller (d) None of the above

23. A central host computer server is called as _______

(a) DCS (b) Microcontroller
(c) MTU (d) None of the above

24. Sensors and control relays can not generate protocol communication, _______ is
needed to provide an interface between sensors and SCADA system
(a) RTU (b) DCS
(c) Microcontroller (d) None of the above
=======================================================

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 3

 MCQ On
Unit No. 06
SCADA Protocols
Prepared By,
Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande
Department of Electrical Engineering
Zeal College of Engineering and Research, Pune
B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
Unit VI: SCADA Protocols

1. Why is Modbus becoming more important as time goes on manufactures?

(a) It is faster (b) It is cheaper
(c) it is a standard that is used by (d) None of the above
most manufacturers

2. At which layer of the OSI model does the MODBUS messaging protocol reside?
(a) layer 5 (b) layer 6
(c) layer 7 (d) layer 4

3. Modbus serial line protocol takes place at which layer of the OSI model?
(a) layer 1 (b) layer 3
(c) layer 2 (d) layer 7

4. What MUST be the same for ALL devices on a Modbus network?

(a) mode and serial parameters (b) connection and serial parameters
(c) mode and connection parameters (d) None of the above

5. Layer 6 in OSI model is _________

(a) Physical (b) Data link
(c) Network (d) Presentation

6. Open System Interconnection (OSI) model was developed by ________

(a) IEEE (b) ISO
(c) IEC (d) None of the above

7. Which of the following protocols are not used by the Allen Bradley (Rockwell)
(a) Device net (b) Control Net
(c) Profibus (d) DH - 485

8. Open System Interconnection (OSI) model was developed in _________

(a) 1980s (b) 1970s
(c) 1960s (d) 1950s

9. ___________ layer is the highest layer in the Open System Interconnection (OSI)
model
(a) Physical (b) Presentation
(c) Transport (d) Data link

10. ______ layer is providing logical connection between transmitting and receiving
end nodes
(a) Session (b) Presentation
(c) Application (d) Transport

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 1

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
11. TCP/IP layer contains _______ layers
(a) Three (b) Four
(c) Five (d) Six

12. ______ layer in the TCP/IP model performs flow control and error recovery
(a) Physical (b) Network access
(c) Application (d) Internet

13. ______ protocol is implemented in the application, presentation and session layer
of the OSI model
(a) CIP (b) CAN
(c) FFB (d) Profibus

14. Device net is based on _______ protocols

(a) FFB (b) CAN
(c) CIP (d) None of the above

15. ______ protocol is open standard used to connect motor starter, sensors, valve
outputs etc.
(a) CIP (b) CAN
(c) FFB (d) Device Net

16. FFB was developed by _________

(a) MODICON (b) Fieldbus foundation
(c) Rockwell automation (d) None of the above

17. Control net supports ____ nodes on the network at a data rate of _____
(a) 90, 50 Mbps (b)100, 15 Mbps
(c) 100, 10 Mbps (d) 99, 5 Mbps

18. _______ protocol defines the functional, electrical and mechanical characteristics of
serial fieldbus
(a) FFB (b) CAN
(c) Profibus (d) CIP

19. ______ protocol resides at application, data link and physical layers of OSI model
(a) CAN (b) CIP
(c) FFB (d) Profibus

20. Control net network can be configured as which of the following topologies?
(a) Star (b) Ring
(c) Trunkline (d) All of the above

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 2

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
21. A device net can support up to ___ decimal nodes depending on total amount of
data transferred between the nodes
(a) 64 (b) 32
(c) 16 (d) None of the above

22. In case of Control net, up to ____ nodes may be on a segment before repeater
must be used.
(a) 16 (b) 32
(c) 48 (d) 64

23. What voltage does the RTU of SCADA operates?

(a) 110/240 V (b) 300 V
(c) 500 V (d) None of the above

24. _________ allows the operator to review diagnostic data and trending graphs.
(a) RTU (b) HMI
(c) DDE (d) None of the above
=======================================================

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 3

 MARATHWADA MITRA MANDAL’S
COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING, PUNE
ACCREDITED WITH ‘A’ GRADE BY NAAC

DEPARTMENT OF ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING

PLC AND SCADA APPLICATONS
UNIT I
Q. No. 1: The full form of NEMA is:
A. National Electrical Manufacturer’s Association
B. National Electronics Manufacturer’s Association
C. National Electrical and Electronics Manufacturer’s Association
D. All of the above
Q. No. 2: The advantage of Programmable Logic controller is:
A. Lower cost
B. Faster speed of operation
C. High Reliability
D. All of the above
Q. No. 3: The disadvantage of Programmable Logic controller is:
A. Resistance to change since it’s a new technology
B. Not suitable for fixed program applications
C. Not suitable for harsh environmental conditions
D. All of the above
Q. No. 4: Earlier machines were controlled by mechanical means using:
A. Cams
B. Gears
C. Levers
D. All of the above
Q. No. 5: The line conditioner in the power supply of PLC is used for:
A. Removing any distortion in the sine wave available at its input
B. Converting pulsating DC to continuous DC
C. Regulating the voltage at its output
D. None of the above
Q. No. 6: The rectifier in the power supply of PLC is used for:
A. Removing any distortion in the sine wave available at its input
B. Regulating the voltage at its output
C. Converting AC supply to DC supply
D. None of the above
Q. No. 7: A filter in the power supply of PLC is used for:
A. Removing any distortion in the sine wave available at its input
B. Regulating the voltage at its output
C. Converting pulsating DC to continuous DC
D. None of the above
Q. No. 8: In the input scan the PLC CPU:
A. Reads the status of all the digital and analog inputs
B. Reads the control program stored in the memory
C. Updates the status of all the digital and analog outputs
D. All of the above
Q. No. 9: In the program scan the PLC CPU:
A. Reads the status of all the digital and analog inputs
B. Reads the control program stored in the memory
C. Updates the status of all the digital and analog outputs
D. All of the above
Q. No. 10: In the Output scan the PLC CPU:
A. Reads the status of all the digital and analog inputs
B. Reads the control program stored in the memory
C. Updates the status of all the digital and analog outputs
D. All of the above
Q. No. 11: CMOS RAM is:
A. A Volatile Memory and does not need battery back up
B. A volatile Memory and is provided with battery back up
C. A non-volatile memory and does not need battery back up
D. None of the above
Q. No. 12: The system software which is not accessible to the user is stored in:
A. RAM
B. ROM
C. Both RAM and ROM
D. None of the above
Q. No. 13: The application program or control program is stored in:
A. RAM
B. ROM
C. Both RAM and ROM
D. None of the above
Q. No. 14: EEPROM is a type of:
A. Processor
B. Memory
C. Input Module
D. Output Module
Q. No. 15: In case of AC digital output module, the solid-state switching device generally
used is:
A. Triac
B. SCR
C. Either Triac or SCR
D. Power Transistor
Q. No. 16: In case of DC digital output module, the solid-state switching device generally
used is:
A. Triac
B. SCR
C. Either Triac or SCR
D. Power Transistor
Q. No. 17: Triac or SCR used as ac switching devices are generally protected by:
A. RC snubber circuit
B. Metal Oxide Varistor
C. RC snubber circuit and/or Metal oxide varistor
D. None of the above
Q. No. 18: RC snubber circuit or Metal oxide varistor are provided for:
A. Protection of AC switching devices to limit the peak voltage to a safe value below the
maximum rating
B. Preventing electrical noise from affecting the circuit operation
C. Both (A) and (B) above
D. None of the above
Q. No. 19: A power transistor is protected by:
A. Providing a free-wheeling diode placed across the load
B. Incorporating a fuse for protection during moderate overloads
C. Both (A) and (B) above
D. None of the above
Q. No. 20: Analog input modules accept:
A. Discrete On/Off signals
B. Continuous analog (Current) signals
C. Continuous analog (Voltage) signals
D. Continuous analog (Current and/or Voltage) signals
Q. No. 21. For voltage type input signals, analog input modules usually have:
A. Low input impedance in ohms
B. Zero input impedance
C. High input impedance in mega-ohms
D. None of the above
Q. No. 22: For current type input signals, analog input modules usually have:
A. Low input impedance in ohms
B. Zero input impedance
C. High input impedance in mega-ohms
D. None of the above
Q. No. 23: Analog input modules can receive:
A. Single ended analog inputs
B. Differential analog inputs
C. Either single ended or differential analog inputs
D. None of the above
Q. No. 24: Single ended analog inputs:
A. Have their commons electrically tied together
B. Have individual common or return lines for each channel
C. Both (A) and (B) above
D. None of the above
Q. No. 25: Differential analog inputs:
A. Have their commons electrically tied together
B. Have individual common or return lines for each channel
C. Both (A) and (B) above
D. None of the above
Q. No. 26: The cables used for connecting transducers to the analog input channels should:
A. Be shielded
B. Have good common mode rejection ratio of noise levels
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above
Q. No. 27: The advantage of instrumentation gain amplifier is:
A. Very low DC offset
B. High Common Mode Rejection Ratio
C. Very high input impedance
D. All of the above
Q. No. 28: The disadvantage of having single ended analog input is:
A. It suffers from loss of common mode rejection
B. It is very sensitive to noise
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above
Q. No. 29: Single ended analog inputs are used for:
A. Data Acquisition
B. Control
C. Both Data Acquisition and Control
D. None of the above
Q. No. 30: Differential Analog inputs are used for:
A. Data Acquisition
B. Control
C. Both Data Acquisition and Closed Loop Control
D. None of the above
Q. No. 31: Analog output modules can be configured as:
A. Single ended inputs
B. Differential inputs
C. Either single ended or differential inputs
D. None of the above
Q. No. 32: The PLC programmer is used for:
A. Entering and editing the control program
B. Self-Diagnostics
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above
Q. No. 33: The inherent features of PLC are:
A. Solid state components
B. Programmable memory
C. Software timer/counters
D. All of the above
Q. No. 34: The inherent features of PLC are:
A. Modular architecture
B. Variety of I/O interfaces
C. Software control relays
D. All of the above
Q. No. 35: The benefits of PLC are;
A. High reliability
B. Flexible control
C. Minimal space requirements
D. All of the above
Q. No. 36: The benefits of PLC are:
A. Reduced hardware/wiring cost
B. Easy maintenance
C. Expandability
D. All of the above
Q. No. 37: The benefits of PLC are;
A. Communication capability
B. Can easily change presets
C. Controls variety of devices
D. All of the above
Q. No. 38: While considering the overall cost of PLC we must also consider;
A. Installation cost
B. Maintenance cost
C. Training and documentation cost
D. All of the above
Q. No. 39: The typical scan cycle of PLC CPU comprises of:
A. Input Scan
B. Output Scan
C. Program Scan
D. All of the above
Q. No. 40: Snubber circuit for protection of SCR comprises of:
A. Resistance and Capacitance in series
B. Resistance and Capacitance in parallel
C. Resistance and Inductance in series
D. Resistance and Inductance in parallel
Q. No. 41: The different types of PLC include:
A. Fixed
B. Modular
C. Both Fixed and Modular
D. None of the above
Q. No. 42: The Analog to Digital convertor (ADC) in analog input module generally makes
use of:
A. Successive approximation technique
B. Dual slope integration technique
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of the above
Q. No. 43: The applications of PLC include:
A. Bottling plant automation
B. Batch Reactor Control in Chemical Plant
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above
Q. No. 44: The analog input to be connected to the PLC should be in the form of:
A. Voltage signal (0-10 V DC)
B. Current signal (4-20 mA DC)
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of the above
Q. No. 45: PLC is capable of storing instructions such as:
A. Arithmetic
B. Data Manipulation
C. Both (A) and (B) above
D. None of the above
Q. No. 46: PLC is used to:
A. Monitor critical process parameters
B. Control critical process parameters
C. Monitor and control critical process parameters
D. None of the above
Q. No. 47: The PLC can control any critical process parameter by using:
A. On/OFF control logic
B. PID control instruction
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above
Q. No. 48: The timer which is generally used by the PLC for self-diagnostics is:
A. Watch dog Timer
B. Hardware Timer
C. Watch dog Counter
D. All of the above
Q. No.49: CMRR stands for:
A. Communication mode rejection ratio
B. Common Mode Rejection Ratio
C. Common metered ratio of rejection
D. None of the above
Q. No. 50: NMRR stands for:
A. Nominal mode rejection ratio
B. Nominal metered ratio of rejection
C. Normal Mode Rejection Ratio
D. None of the above
Q. No. 51: The use of automation in industries:
A. Facilitates large scale production
B. Provides surveillance on real time basis
C. Removes errors due to manual intervention
D. All of the above
Q. No. 52: The use of automation in industries:
A. Increases productivity and profitability
B. Improves product quality
C. Helps in performing tasks which are beyond human capabilities
D. All of the above
Q. No. 53: Automation involves:
A. Sensors and Transmitters
B. Actuators
C. Electric Drives
D. All of the above
Q. No. 54: A solenoid is an example of:

A. Digital Input device

B. Analog Input device

C. Digital Output device

D. Analog Output device

Q. No. 55: The part that monitors the inputs and takes decisions in a PLC is called as:

A. Analog to Digital Convertor

B. Central Processing Unit

C. Multiplexer

D. None of the above

Q. No. 56: Which one of the following is not the manufacturer of PLC:

A. Allen Bradley

B. Siemens

C. GE Fanuc

D. Microsoft

Q. No. 57: The central processing unit comprises of:

A. Processor

B. Memory

C. Power Supply

D. All of the above

Q. No. 58: The most popular language for PLC programming is:

A. Ladder diagram

B. C ++

C. VHDL

D. None of the above

Q. No. 59: The acronym PLC stands for:

A. Pressure Load Control

B. Programmable Logic Controller

C. PID loop controller

D. Pressure Loss Chamber

Q. No. 60: The memory in PLC is used for:

A. Logic Development

B. Input signal processing

C. Storage

D. Output signal processing

Q. No. 61: The operating system manages:

A. Processor

B. Memory

C. I/O modules

D. All of the above

Q. No. 62: EEPROM is:

A. Easily erasable

B. Non-erasable

C. Effectively erasable

D. Electrically erasable
Q. No. 63: Firmware means:

A. Software

B. Hardware

C. Software available on Hardware

D. None of the above

Q. No. 64: Optical Isolator consists of:

A. Light emitting diode

B. Photo transistor

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above

Q. No. 65: The digital signal level that is generally compatible with the microprocessor in the
PLC is:

A. 5 V DC

B. 12 V DC

C. 24 V DC

D. None of the above

Q. No. 66: In case of a sourcing input module;

A. The input device receives current from the input module

B. The input module receives current from the input device

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above

Q. No. 67: In case of a sinking input module:

A. The input device receives current from the input module

B. The input device supplies current to the input module

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above

 UNIT II
Q. No. 1: Temperature switches are interfaced with the PLC:
A. For on/off control as per the set-point
B. Display of temperature parameter on real time basis
C. Closed loop (PID) control
D. All of the above
Q. No. 2: Flow transmitter is interfaced with the PLC:
A. For on/off control as per the set-point
B. Display of flow parameter on real time basis
C. Closed loop (PID) Control
D. Display of flow parameter on real time basis and its control (either on/off or PID)
Q. No. 3: The field input device which can be interfaced with the PLC is:
A. Level switch
B. Proximity switch
C. Thumbwheel switch
D. All of the above
Q. No. 4: The field input device which can be interfaced with the PLC is:
A. Limit switch
B. Push Button
C. Selector Switch
D. All of the above
Q. No. 5: The field output device which can be interfaced with the PLC is;
A. Solenoid valve
B. Indicating lamp
C. Motor starter
D. All of the above
Q. No. 6: An example of discrete (digital) control is:

A. Varying the volume of a music system

B. Turning a lamp ON or OFF

C. Varying the brightness of lamp

D. Controlling the speed of fan

Q. No. 7: The shield surrounding the inner signal carrying conductor:

A. Is used to combat electromagnetic interference

B. Reflects the energy present in the electromagnetic interference

C. Conducts energy present in the electromagnetic interference to the ground

D. All of the above

Q. No. 8: The sources of electromagnetic interference in industrial applications are:

A. High horse power motors

B. Induction Heating

C. Power Transformers and Generators of higher ratings

D. All of the above

Q. No. 9.: Zener barriers are used in hazardous areas:

A. For providing Intrinsic Safety

B. As threshold detector

C. As rectifier to convert AC to DC

D. None of the above

Q. No. 10.: Electrical Actuator is a device which:

A. Uses electrical energy to achieve rotational movement

B. Uses electrical energy to achieve linear movement along a straight line

C. Uses electrical energy to achieve either rotational movement or linear movement

along a straight line

D. None of the above

Q. No. 11: The types of actuator include:

A. Electrical Actuator

B. Pneumatic Actuator

C. Hydraulic Actuator

D. All of the above

Q. No. 12: Solenoid is a type of:

A. Electrical Actuator

B. Pneumatic Actuator

C. Hydraulic Actuator

D. None of the above

Q. No. 13: Electro-pneumatic convertor is a type of:

A. Direct Transducer

B. Inverse Transducer

C. Sensor

D. Transmitter

Q. No. 14: The main components of a push button are:

A. Actuator

B. Contact Elements

C. Actuator and Contact Elements

D. None of the above

Q. No. 15: Incremental Encoders are used for;

A. Measuring speed of the motor shaft

B. Angular position of the motor shaft

C. Measuring speed and angular position of motor shaft

D. None of the above

Q. No. 16: Absolute encoders are used for:

A. Measuring speed of the motor shaft

B. Angular position of the motor shaft

C. Measuring speed and angular position of motor shaft

D. None of the above

Q. No. 17: A limit switch can be:

A. Lever operated

B. Cam operated

C. Roller operated

D. All of the above

Q. No. 18: Capacitive type proximity switch is used for:

A. Position Detection of non-metallic objects

B. Position Detection of metallic objects

C. Control of Temperature

D. None of the above

Q. No. 19: Inductive type proximity switch is used for:

A. Position Detection of non-metallic objects

B. Position Detection of metallic objects

C. Control of Temperature

D. None of the above

Q. No. 20: A four wire inductive type proximity switch has:

A. A normally open contact at the output for control action

B. A normally closed contact at the output for control action

C. Both a normally open contact as well as normally closed contact for control action

D. None of the above

Q. No. 21: The type of field associated with the operation of inductive type proximity switch
is:

A. Electro static field

B. Electromagnetic field

C. Both Electro static field and Electromagnetic field

D. None of the above

Q. No. 22: LVDT is:

A. An active transducer

B. A passive transducer

C. An inverse transducer

D. All of the above

Q. No. 23: LVDT transducer can be used for:

A. Measurement of displacement

B. Measurement of vibration

C. Measurement of pressure

D. All of the above

Q. No. 24: Piezo-electric transducer or sensor can be used for:

A. Measurement of Flow

B. Measurement of Temperature

C. Measurement of Pressure

D. All of the above

Q. No. 25: Piezoelectric transducer is;

A. An active transducer

B. A passive transducer

C. An inverse transducer

D. All of the above

Q. No. 26: Capacitive type pressure transducer or sensor can be used for;

A. Gauge pressure measurement

B. Differential pressure measurement

C. Level measurement

D. All of the above

Q. No. 27: Non-contact type level measurement can be done by using:

A. An Ultrasonic Level Transducer

B. A Radar Level Transducer

C. Capacitance type Level Transducer

D. Both (A) and (B)

Q. No. 28: Pt-100 is a type of:

A. Resistance Temperature Detector

B. Thermocouple

C. Thermistor

D. All of the above

Q. No. 29: In case of resistance temperature detector:

A. Resistance increases as temperature increases

B. Resistance remains constant irrespective of change in temperature

C. Resistance decreases as temperature increases

D. None of the above

Q. No. 30: A 3 wire Resistance temperature detector (RTD) is better than a 2 wire Resistance
temperature detector because:

A. A 3 wire RTD provides lead wire compensation

B. A 3 wire RTD provides ambient temperature compensation

C. A 3 wire RTD provides ambient pressure compensation

D. All of the above

Q. No. 31: Pt-100 is a type of:

A. Active transducer

B. Passive transducer

C. Inverse Transducer

D. All of the above

Q. No. 32: Thermocouple is a type of:

A. Active transducer

B. Passive transducer

C. Inverse transducer

D. All of the above

Q. No. 33: Non-contact type temperature measurement can be done by using:

A. Resistance Temperature Detector

B. Thermocouple

C. Thermistor

D. Radiation Pyrometer

Q. No. 34: The disadvantage of using thermistor is:

A. It’s a non-linear device

B. It exhibits errors due to self-heating

C. Exposure to high temperature causes a permanent shift in its output characteristics

D. All of the above

Q. No. 35: Electromagnetic flow sensor can be used for:

A. Measuring flow of conducting fluid

B. Measuring flow of non-conducting fluid

C. Measuring flow of both conducting as well as non-conducting fluid

D. None of the above

Q. No. 36: An orifice plate is generally used for:

A. Differential pressure measurement

B. Flow measurement

C. Both Differential pressure measurement and flow measurement

D. None of the above

Q. No. 37: In case of temperature control using electrical heater and power regulator:

A. Electrical heater is used as an electrical actuator and power regulator is used as final
control element

B. Electrical heater is used as a final control element and power regulator is used as an
electrical actuator

C. Both electrical heater and power regulator are used as final control element

D. Both electrical heater and power regulator are used as electrical actuator

Q. No. 38: A damper valve is a type of:

A. Electrical Actuator

B. Final Control Element

C. Controller

D. None of the above

Q. No. 39: The type of fluid valve includes:

A. Butterfly valve

B. Globe valve

C. Ball valve

D. All of the above

Q. No. 40: The fluid valve can have:

A. Equal percentage characteristic

B. Linear characteristic

C. Quick Open characteristic

D. All of the above

Q. No. 41: In case of an electrical solenoid, the strength of the electromagnetic field can be
increased or decreased by;

A. Controlling the amount of current passing through the coil

B. By changing the number of turns of the coil

C. Both by controlling the amount of current passing through the coil and by changing
the number of turns of the coil

D. None of the above

Q. No. 42: Non-contact type position detection can be done by using;

A. Limit switch

B. Proximity switch

C. Both limit switch and Proximity switch

D. None of the above

Q. No. 43: An optical incremental encoder has a disc with 60 slots. In this case, a movement
from one slot to the next will be a rotation of:

A. 10 degree

B. 2 degree

C. 6 degree

D. 20 degree

Q. No. 44: An absolute encoder has 10 tracks. The number of positions it can detect will be:

A. 512

B. 3096

C. 1024

D. 2048

Q. No. 45: An absolute encoder has 10 tracks. The resolution of this absolute encoder will be:

A. 0.7 degree

B. 0.35 degree

C. 0.2 degree

D. 1.0 degree
Q. No. 46: Bourdon tube is used for:

A. Flow measurement

B. Temperature measurement

C. Pressure measurement

D. Level measurement

Q. No. 47: The advantage of using Pt-100 for temperature measurement is:

A. Relatively immune to electrical noise

B. Provides reasonably good accuracy

C. It has high sensitivity

D. All of the above

Q. No. 48: The limitation of resistance temperature detector is:

A. It’s expensive

B. It has a slower response time as compared to thermocouple

C. It is a passive transducer

D. All of the above

Q. No. 49: Fluid valve with equal percentage characteristic is generally used for;

A. Pressure control applications, where a high variation in pressure drop is expected

B. Temperature control applications, where a high variation in temperature is expected

C. Level control applications, where a high variation in level is expected

D. None of the above

Q. No. 50: Fluid valve with quick opening characteristic is generally used for;

A. Level control applications

B. Pressure Control applications

C. Two position “On-Off” applications

D. None of the above

 UNIT III
Q. No. 1: PLC is capable of storing instructions such as:
A. Timing
B. Counting
C. Sequencing
D. All of the above
Q. No. 2; Ladder logic programming consists primarily of:

A. Virtual relay contacts and coils

B. Logic gate symbols with connecting lines

C. Function blocks with connecting lines

D. Text-based code

Q. No. 3: The programming language for PLC is:

A. Ladder logic diagram

B. Sequential function chart

C. Structured Text Diagram

D. All of the above

Q. No. 4: The overflow bit is available in:

A. Down Counter Instruction
B. Retentive timer instruction
C. UP Counter instruction
D. On delay Timer instruction
Q. No. 5: The underflow bit is available in:
A. Down Counter Instruction
B. Retentive timer instruction
C. UP Counter instruction
D. On delay Timer instruction
Q. No. 6: Ladder diagram for Automatic Car Parking application can be developed by using:
A. UP counter instruction
B. Down counter instruction
C. Both UP and Down counter instructions
D. None of the above
Q. No. 7: Counter address can be given as:
A. C5:0
B. T4:0
C. B3:0
D. S2:1
Q. No. 8: Timer address can be given as:
A. C5:0
B. T4:0
C. B3:0
D. S2:1
Q. No. 9: The done bit of an up counter is set when:
A. Preset value is less than the accumulator value
B. Preset value is greater than the accumulator value
C. Preset value is equal to the accumulator value
D. All of the above
Q. No. 10: The address of Binary file is given as:
A. B3
B. T4
C. C5
D. N7
Q. No. 11: The address of integer file is given as:
A. B3
B. T4
C. C5
D. N7
Q. No. 12: The address of float file is given as:
A. T4
B. C5
C. B3
D. F8
Q. No. 13: The time base of timer can be selected as:
A. 1.0
B. 0.1
C. 0.01
D. All of the above
Q. No. 14: The on delay timer enable bit remains set until:
A. Rung condition goes false
B. Rung condition goes true
C. Preset value is equal to the accumulator value
D. None of the above
Q. No. 15: The on-delay timer timing bit remains set until:
A. Rung condition goes false
B. Done bit is set
C. Rung condition goes false or when the done bit is set
D. None of the above
Q. No. 16: The timer done bit of retentive timer remains set until:
A. The appropriate reset instruction is enabled
B. Preset value becomes equal to accumulator value
C. The done bit is set
D. None of the above
Q. No. 17: A.B = Q is the Boolean expression for:
A. OR gate
B. NOR gate
C. AND gate
D. EX NOR gate
Q. No. 18: The truth table given below belongs to:

A. AND gate
B. NAND gate
C. OR gate
D. NOR gate
Q. No. 19: The function block given below is developed for:

A. OR gate
B. AND gate
C. NAND gate
D. NOR gate
Q. No. 20: The address of register file is:
A. N7
B. R6
C. T4
D. C5
Q. No. 21: The address of status file is:
A. R6
B. T4
C. S2
D. C5
Q. No. 22: In ladder diagram, the following instruction is used for analog input or output
processing:
A. Timer instruction
B. Up Counter instruction
C. Scale with parameter instruction
D. Down counter instruction
Q. No. 23: The function block given below is for the operation of:

A. AND gate
B. NAND gate
C. OR gate
D. EX NOR gate
Q. No. 24: A = Q is the Boolean expression of:
A. OR Gate
B. AND gate
C. NOT gate
D. NAND gate
Q. No. 25: A+B = Q is the Boolean expression of:
A. OR gate
B. NOR gate
C. AND gate
D. NAND gate
Q. No. 26: The function block given below is for the operation of:

A. OR gate
B. NOR gate
C. EX OR gate
D. EX NOR gate
Q. No. 27: While developing the ladder diagram, the output energise instruction must be
inserted:
A. At the beginning of the rung
B. At the end of the rung
C. Vertically
D. All of the above
Q. No. 28: In case of retentive timer the accumulator value is:
A. Retained in case of power loss
B. Retained in case rung state gets changed from true to false
C. Retained either in case of power loss or change in rung state from true to false
D. None of the above
Q. No. 29: For a traffic light control application using PLC, the instruction that would be
used in ladder diagram programming is:
A. Up counter instruction
B. Down counter instruction
C. On delay timer instruction
D. Scale with parameter instruction
Q. No. 30: For proper construction of the ladder diagram, all contacts must be oriented:
A. Vertically
B. Horizontally
C. Diagonally
D. All of the above
Q. No. 31: For proper construction of the ladder diagram, the input contact must always be
inserted:
A. At the end of the rung
B. In the upper left slot of the rung
C. In the upper right slot of the rung
D. All of the above
Q. No. 32: The MCR instruction used for ladder diagram programming is also called as:
A. Motor control relay
B. Master control relay
C. Miniature circuit relay
D. None of the above
Q. No. 33: The ladder logic for on/off temperature control can be developed by using:
A. Scale with parameter instruction
B. Comparison instruction
C. Scale with parameter instruction and comparison instruction
D. None of the above
Q. No. 34: The instruction given below is called as:

A. Output energise instruction

B. Output latch instruction
C. Output Unlatch instruction
D. All of the above
Q. No. 35: The instruction given below is called as:

A. Output energise instruction

B. Output latch instruction
C. Output Unlatch instruction
D. None of the above
Q. No. 36: The instruction given below is called as’

A. Examine if closed instruction

B. Examine if open instruction
C. Output energise instruction
D. Output latch instruction
Q. No. 37: The instruction given below is called as:

A. Examine if closed instruction

B. Examine if open instruction
C. Output energise instruction
D. Output latch instruction
Q. No. 38: The instruction given below is called as:

A. Examine if open instruction

B. Examine if closed instruction
C. Output Energise instruction
D. Output latch instruction
Q. No. 39: In the address I:0/7, 7 indicates:
A. Word address
B. Bit address
C. File address
D. Input address
Q. No. 40: The Boolean expression for function block given below is:

A. A.B. = Q
B. A+B = Q
C. A+B = Q
D. A+B = Q
Q. No. 41: The largest integer number that can be reached in the accumulator of a
MicroLogix 1400 PLC counter is:
A. 32767
B. 65535
C. 32768
D. 65537
Q. No. 42: The MicroLogix 1400 PLC in our laboratory has:
A. 20 Digital Inputs and 12 Digital outputs
B. 12 Digital Inputs and 20 Digital outputs
C. 10 Digital inputs and 12 Digital outputs
D. None of the above
Q. No. 43: Solenoid valve in the field will be connected to:
A. Digital Input Module of PLC
B. Digital Output Module of PLC
C. Analog input Module of PLC
D. Analog output module of PLC
Q. No. 44: The software used for ladder diagram programming for Allen-Bradley
MicroLogix 1400 PLC is:
A. RS LOGIX 500
B. Winlog Lite 3
C. Factory Talk View Studio Development
D. None of the above
Q. No. 45: The Allen Bradley software used for SCADA screen development is:
A. RS LOGIX 500
B. Winlog Lite 3
C. Factory Talk View Studio Development
D. None of the above
Q. No. 46: During ladder diagram programming for any application, we have to:
A. Verify the developed programme and remove errors if any
B. Download the verified program into the processor memory
C. Test the downloaded program by using simulation jig
D. All of the above
Q. No. 47: In Allen Bradley RS Logix 500 software, comparison instruction includes:
A. Greater than or equal to instruction
B. Less than or equal to instruction
C. Equal to instruction
D. All of the above
Q. No. 48: In Allen Bradley RS Logix 500 software, the instruction which is used for
conditional data transfer is:
A. Move Instruction
B. Move with Mask Instruction
C. Scale with Parameter instruction
D. None of the above
Q. No. 49: The ladder diagram for sequencing of motors can be developed by using:
A. Scale with parameter instruction
B. Timer instruction
C. Counter instruction
D. None of the above
Q. No. 50: The ladder diagram for on/off level control application can be developed by using:
A. Timer instruction
B. Comparison instructions
C. Scale with Parameter instruction
D. Scale with Parameter instruction and Comparison instructions
 UNIT 4
Q. No. 1: A simple closed loop control system comprises of:
A. Proportional Gain
B. Integral Gain
C. Derivative Gain
D. All of the above
Q. No. 2: Error is fined as:
A. Setpoint minus Process Variable
B. Process Variable minus Setpoint
C. Both (A) and (B) above
D. None of the above
Q. No. 3: The feedback of DC motor speed can be taken by making use of:
A. Tachogenerator
B. Incremental Encoder
C. Both (A) and (B) above
D. None of the above
Q. No. 4: The dc motor speed control response with only low proportional gain has:
A. High settling time
B. High offset error
C. No overshoot or undershoot
D. All of the above
Q. No. 5: The dc motor speed control response with only very high proportional gain has:
A. Sustained oscillations
B. Zero offset error
C. Low settling time
D. None of the above
Q. No. 6: The dc motor speed control response with high proportional gain, moderation
derivative gain and low integral gain has:
A. Zero offset error
B. Low settling time
C. No overshoot and undershoot
D. All of the above
Q. No. 7: The phenomenon of integral wind-up occurs when:
A. Proportional control is introduced
B. Derivative control is introduced
C. Integral control is introduced
D. All of the above
Q. No. 8: In order to avoid damage to the machine due to the phenomenon of integral wind-
up:
A. The upper limit of control variable has to be specified by PLC programmer during
programming
B. The lower limit of control variable has to be specified by PLC programmer during
programming
C. Both upper limit as well lower limit of control variable has to be specified by PLC
programmer during programming
D. None of the above
Q. No. 9: Systems with excessive values of integral gain constant will exhibit:
A. Overshoot and hunting
B. No overshoot and hunting
C. Normal operation with zero offset error
D. None of the above
Q. No. 10: The address for first PID instruction in case of MicroLogix 1400 PLC will be:
A. T4:0
B. C5:0
C. PD8:0
D. N7:0
Q. No. 11: The ladder diagram for configuring one PID closed control loop by using
MicroLogix 1400 PLC will comprise of:
A. One scale with parameter instruction and one PID instruction
B. Two scale with parameter instructions and one PID instruction
C. Three scale with parameter instructions and one PID instruction
D. None of the above
Q. No. 12: Tuning of PID controller refers to:
A. Adjustment of proportional gain in order to ensure best response from the controller
B. Adjustment of integral gain in order to ensure best response from the controller
C. Adjustment of derivative gain in order to ensure best response from the controller
D. Adjustment of proportional gain, derivative gain and integral gain in order to ensure
best response from the controller
Q. No. 13: Controller Tuning Method includes:
A. Adjust and Observe Method
B. Ziegler-Nichols Oscillation Method
C. Ziegler-Nichols Open Loop Method
D. All of the above
Q. No. 14: Process time constant describes:
A. How fast a measured process variable responds when forced by a change in
controller output
B. The various process variables present in the process
C. The process execution sequence
D. None of the above
Q. No. 15: Process Dead time arises because of:
A. Transportation lag
B. Instrumentation lag
C. Transportation lag and/or Instrumentation lag
D. None of the above
Q. No. 16: Transportation lag is defined as:
A. Time taken by the material to travel from one point to the another
B. Time taken to collect, analyse or process a measured variable sample
C. Time taken by the controller to tune with the process
D. None of the above
Q. No. 17: Instrumentation lag is defined as:
A. Time taken by the material to travel from one point to the another
B. Time taken to collect, analyse or process a measured variable sample
C. Time taken by the controller to tune with the process
D. None of the above
Q. No. 18: Ziegler-Nichols Method of controller tuning is also called as:
A. ½ wave decay method
B. ¼ wave decay method
C. ¾ wave decay method
D. All of the above
Q. No. 19: In case of Ziegler-Nichols method of controller tuning:
A. Proportional gain, integral gain and derivative gain are pre calculated
B. No trial and error is required for initial tuning
C. Final tuning is one by using Adjust and Observe Method
D. All of the above
Q. No. 20: Eutectic Metal Alloy Thermal Overload relay comprises of:
A. Overload heater
B. Ratchet
C. Cam and Pawl
D. All of the above
Q. No. 21: If the phase current through the overload heater of eutectic metal alloy thermal
overload relay becomes excessive:
A. The eutectic metal alloy melts
B. The eutectic metal alloy solidifies
C. The eutectic metal alloy vaporises
D. None of the above
Q. No. 22: A direct-on-line with switch fuse unit for three phase induction motor provides:
A. Short Circuit protection
B. Overload protection
C. Single-phasing protection
D. All of the above
Q. No. 23: A direct-on-line starter for three phase induction motor has:
A. Push buttons for on/off operation
B. Contactor
C. Overload relay with built in single phasing protection
D. All of the above
Q. No. 24: A star-delta starter for three phase induction motor has:
A. Push buttons for on/off operation
B. Contactors
C. Overload relay with built in single phasing protection and hardware timer
D. All of the above
Q. No. 25: Salient feature of variable frequency drive includes:
A. Savings in energy
B. Adjustable acceleration and de-acceleration rates
C. Protection to induction motor
D. All of the above
Q. No. 26: The limitation of variable frequency drive is:
A. High Cost
B, Requires maintenance
C. Introduction of harmonics
D. All of the above
Q. No. 27: A variable frequency drive comprises of:
A. Rectifier
B. DC bus with chokes
C. Invertor
D. All of the above
Q. No. 28: In variable frequency drive, the output sine wave is generated by the invertor by
using:
A. Pulse width modulation technique
B. Zeigler-Nichols technique (Oscillation Method)
C. Zeigler-Nichols technique (Open Loop Method)
D. All of the above
Q. No. 29: DC motor speed control with DC source can be obtained by using:
A. N channel insulated gate MOSFET
B. Pulse width modulator
C. N channel insulated gate MOSFET and Pulse width modulator
D. None of the above
Q. No. 30: DC motor speed control with AC source can be obtained by using:
A. Controlled Bridge Rectifier
B. Phase angle firing control circuit
C. Controlled Bridge Rectifier and Phase angle firing control circuit
D. None of the above
Q. No. 31: Integral wind up is also called as:
A. Reset wind up
B. Preset wind up
C. Test wind up
D. None of the above
Q. No. 32: A diode which is connected across the armature winding of the dc motor is called
as:
A. Zener Diode
B. Light emitting diode
C. Freewheeling diode
D. None of the above
Q. No. 33: During speed control of three phase induction motor using variable frequency
drive:
A. Voltage/frequency ratio is kept constant
B. Voltage/Current ratio is kept constant
C. Current/Voltage ratio is kept constant
D. None of the above
Q. No. 34: In case of variable frequency drive:
A. Fixed voltage with fixed frequency at the input is converted into variable voltage and
variable frequency at the output
B. Fixed voltage with variable frequency at the input is converted into variable voltage and
fixed frequency at the output
C. Variable voltage with fixed frequency at the input is converted into fixed voltage and
variable frequency at the output
D. All of the above
Q. No. 35: In case of speed control of DC motor using controlled bridge rectifier, speed is
controlled by varying:
A. Firing angle of Silicon Controlled Rectifier (SCR)
B. Conduction angle of Silicon Controlled Rectifier (SCR)
C. Firing angle or conduction angle of Silicon Controlled Rectifier (SCR)
D. None of the above
Q. No. 36: In a controller the error signal is determined by:
A. The comparator
B. The differentiator
C. An Integrator
D. All of the above
Q. No. 37: In MicroLogix 1400 PLC, the PID instruction can be executed by selecting:
A. Timed Mode of operation
B. Selectable Time Interrupt Mode (STI) of operation
C. Both (A) or (B)
D. None of the above
Q. No. 38: In Timed mode of operation, the PID instruction:
A. Updates itself periodically at a user selectable rate
B. Updates itself every time the STI (Selectable Time Interrupt) subroutine is scanned by the
PLC processor
C. Updates itself periodically at fixed selectable rate which cannot be changed by the user
D. None of the above
Q. No. 39: In STI (Selectable Time Interrupt) mode of operation, the PID instruction:
A. Updates itself periodically at a user selectable rate
B. Updates itself every time the STI (Selectable Time Interrupt) subroutine is scanned
by the PLC processor
C. Updates itself periodically at fixed selectable rate which cannot be changed by the user
D. None of the above
Q. No. 40: In case of PID control loop, the feedback of process variable is given as an input
to the comparator by using:
A. Sensor or Transmitter
B. Actuator
C. Final Control Element
D. None of the above
Q. No. 41: The output from the controller which goes to the controlled machine is called as:
A. Process Variable
B. Setpoint
C. Control Variable
D. Error
Q. No. 42: In case of integral control action, the output is proportional to:
A. Integral of the error signal with respect to time
B. Integral of the process variable with respect to time
C. Integral of the control variable with respect to time
D. Integral of the setpoint with respect to time
Q. No. 43: In case of proportional control action, the output is proportional to:
A. Error signal
B. Process Variable
C. Setpoint
D. Control Variable
Q. No. 44: In case of derivative control action, the output is proportional to:
A. Derivative of Process variable with respect to time
B. Derivative of Error signal with respect to time
C. Derivative of Setpoint with respect to time
D. Derivative of Control Variable with respect to time
Q. No. 45: In case of MicroLogix 1400 PLC the value of the process variable or control
variable can be stored in:
A. Integer word N7:0
B. Input word I:0
C. Output word O:0
D. Status word S2:0
Q. No. 46: The proportional gain can be calculated by using the equation;
A. Kp = 100%/Proportional Band in percentage
B. Kp = Proportional Band in percentage/100%
C. Kp = 100%/Controller gain in percentage
D. None of the above
Q. No. 47: In case of star-delta starter, the timer setting is generally kept in the range of:
A. 3-6 seconds
B. 15-20 seconds
C. 100-200 seconds
D. Any of the above
Q. No. 48: When the variable frequency drive is operating in the first quadrant:
A. It accelerates in the clockwise (forward) direction
B. It de-accelerates in the clockwise (forward) direction
C. It accelerates in the anti-clockwise (reverse) direction
D. None of the above
Q. No. 49: When the variable frequency drive operates in the second quadrant:
A. It de-accelerates in the clockwise (forward) direction
B. It de-accelerates in the anticlockwise (reverse) direction
C. It accelerates in the clockwise (forward) direction
D. None of the above
Q. No. 50: When the variable frequency drive is operating in the third quadrant:
A. It accelerates in the anticlockwise (reverse) direction
B. It accelerates in the clockwise (forward) direction
C. It de-accelerates in the clockwise (forward) direction
D. None of the above
 UNIT 5
Q. No. 1: SCADA is an acronym for:
A. Supervisory control and digital acquisition system
B. Supervisory control and data acquisition system
C. Scientific control and digital acquisition system
D. None of the above
Q. No. 2: RTU in SCADA system, is an acronym for:
A. Remote Terminal Unit
B. Regional Transmission Unit
C. Regional Traction Unit
D. All of the above
Q. No. 3: MTU in SCADA system, is an acronym for:
A. Motion Transmission Unit
B. Motion Tracking Unit
C. Master Terminal Unit
Q. No. 4: HMI in SCADA system is an acronym for:
A. High Magnetic Interference
B. Heavy machine intelligence
C. Human master interface
D. Human machine interface
Q. No. 5: MMI in SCADA system, is an acronym for:
A. Machine manipulated interface
B. Man Machine Interface
C. Master machine intelligence
D. All of the above
Q. No. 6: The communication between remote terminal unit and field devices is:
A. Usually closed loop control with relatively high data rate
B. Usually open loop control with relatively low data rate
C. Usually closed loop control, with relatively low data rate
D. All of the above
Q. No. 7: The communication between remote terminal unit and master terminal unit is:
A. Usually closed loop control with relatively high data rate
B. Usually open loop control with relatively low data rate
C. Usually closed loop control, with relatively low data rate
D. All of the above
Q. No. 8: The master terminal unit:
A. Gathers data from the distant site
B. Presents data to the operator using HMI
C. Transmits control signals to the remote site
D. All of the above
Q. No. 9: The communication between Remote terminal Unit and Master Terminal Unit can
be done by using;
A. Wireless Network
B. Wired Network’
C. Public Telephone Network
D. All of the above
Q. No. 10: The first generation of SCADA system is also called as:
A. Monolithic SCADA system
B. Distributed SCADA system
C. Networked SCADA system
D. All of the above
Q. No. 11: The second generation of SCADA system is also called as:
A. Monolithic SCADA system
B. Distributed SCADA system
C. Networked SCADA system
D. All of the above
Q. No. 12: The third generation of SCADA system is also called as:
A. Monolithic SCADA system
B. Distributed SCADA system
C. Networked SCADA system
D. All of the above
Q. No. 13: In first generation of SCADA system, the communication protocols:
A. Were developed by vendors supplying remote terminal units
B. Supported vendor controlled and proprietary environment
C. Both (A) and (B) above
D. Supported open system architecture
Q. No. 14: WAN is an acronym for:
A. Wide Area Network
B. Widely Accessible Network
C Wise Aviation Network
D. All of the above
Q. No. 15: The highest level of redundancy is available in:
A. Monolithic SCADA system
B. Distributed SCADA system
C. Networked SCADA system
D. None of the above
Q. No. 16: The salient feature of SCADA includes:
A. Alarm Annunciation
B. Trending
C. Data logging
D. All of the above
Q. No. 17: The desirable properties of SCADA are:
A. Adequacy
B. Security
C. Expandability
D. All of the above
Q. No. 18: In terms of Adequacy the SCADA system provided for operation of Electrical
Power System should:
A. Meet the total demand taking into consideration the equipment ratings
B. Meet the total demand taking into consideration the equipment ratings and scheduled
outages of generation, transmission and distribution facilities
C. Meet the total demand taking into consideration the equipment ratings and scheduled as
well as unscheduled outages of generation, transmission and distribution facilities
D. All of the above
Q. No. 19: In terms of security, the SCADA system should be safe from:
A. Any intrusions from internal sources
B. Any intrusions from external sources
C. Any intrusions from internal and/or external sources
D. None of the above
Q. No. 20: The limitation of SCADA is:
A. It’s a costly system
B. Skilled manpower is required for operation and maintenance
C. It’s vulnerable to external or internal intrusions
D. All of the above
Q. No. 21: A variable frequency drive can be interfaced with PLC for operation and control
by:
A. Using analog and digital or discrete signals
B. Using serial communication port
C. Using analog and digital/discrete signals or serial communication port
D. None of the above
Q. No. 22: GUI is an acronym for:
A. Graphical User Interface
B. Guarded User Intrusion
C. Graphically Used Intelligence
D. All of the above
Q. No. 23: IED is an acronym for:
A. Intelligent Electronic Device:
B. Intelligent Electrification Device
C. Interface Electronic Domain
D. Any of the above
Q. No. 24: A typical Intelligent Device comprises of:
A. An analog input
B. An analog output
C. PID control, communication system and program memory
D. All of the above
Q. No. 25: An intelligent electronic device can generally connected to:
A. Fieldbus
B. Profibus
C. Device Net
D. All of the above
Q. No. 26: A typical intelligent electronic device should include:
A. Enough Intelligence
B. Capability for data acquisition
C. Communication with other intelligent devices
D. All of the above
Q. No. 27: The advantage of using intelligent electronic device is:
A. Minimal wiring is required
B. Smaller devices means less physical space is required for data acquisition and control
C. Installation and maintenance is easy
D. All of the above
Q. No. 28: Intelligent electronic devices are generally used in:
A. Substation Automation and Control
B. Chemical plant automation
C. Batch Reactor control
D. None of the above
Q. No. 29: Microprocessor based protection relay used in Substations is a type of:
A. Bay Module of Controller
B. Intelligent Electronic Device
C. Master Terminal Unit
D. None of the above
Q. No. 30: The device used in substation for data acquisition, control and interlocking of a
single feeder is called as:
A. Bay Module of Controller
B. Intelligent Electronic Device
C. Master Terminal Unit
D. None of the above
Q. No. 31: A typical bay controller in a substation comprises of:
A. Digital I/O interface for interfacing with Circuit Breakers
B. Digital I/O interface for interfacing with Isolator motors
C. Digital I/O interface for communication with non-microprocessor-based protection relays
D. All of the above
Q. No. 32: A SCADA system is required for Substation Automation and Control for:
A. Control of all substation electrical equipments from a central point
B. Monitoring of all substation electrical equipments from a central point
C. Energy Management
D. All of the above
Q. No. 33: Operational Constraints include:
A. Limits on the transmission line flows
B. Upper limit on bus voltage magnitude
C. Lower limit on bus voltage magnitude
D. All of the above
Q. No. 34: Power system operating states include:
A. Normal State
B. Emergency State
C. Restorative State
D. All of the above
Q. No. 35: A power system is said to be in a normal state if:
A. All the loads in the system can be supplied power by existing generators without
violating any operating constraints
B. Part of the load in the system can be supplied power by exiting generators by violating any
operating constraints
C. All of the loads in the system can be supplied power by existing generators by violating
some of the operational constraints
D. All of the above
Q. No. 36: Critical contingency in case of a power system includes;
A. Transmission line outage
B. Generator outage
C. Unexpected failure of any electrical equipment
D. All of the above
Q. No. 37: An emergency state exists in an electrical power system exists when;
A. A power system continues to supply power even if some of the operating constraints
are violated
B. A power system discontinues to supply power in case some of the operating constraints are
violated
C. A power system discontinues to supply power even if all the operating constraints are
normal
D. None of the above
Q. No. 38: A typical attack which could be mounted against a SCADA system could be:
A. Malicious code such as virus, Trojan horses and worms
B. Denial of service
C. Unauthorised disclosure of critical data
D. All of the above
Q. No. 39: Security to SCADA system can be provided by using:
A. Firewalls
B. Biometrics
C. Cryptography
D. All of the above
Q. No. 40: Security to SCADA system can be provided by using:
A. Intrusion Detection System
B. Malicious code detection and elimination System
C. Role based access control
D. All of the above
Q. No. 41: Redundancy to SCADA system can be provided by;
A. Geographically separated control centres
B. Providing a hot back up standby SCADA system
C. Locating SCADA control centre in remote area in an unmarked inconspicuous building
D. All of the above
Q. No. 42: SCADA system can be used in:
A. Petroleum and Refining plant
B. Water Purification plant
C. Conventional Electrical power generation
D. All of the above
Q. No. 43: Fractionation, hydrodesulfurization, hydrodenitrogenation and alkylation are the
all the terms related to:
A. Petroleum Refining Process
B. Water Purification Process
C. Benzene Production
D. All the above
Q. No. 44: In a typical petroleum refinery plant SCADA system can be used in:
A. Batch reactor control
B. Oil Field Pumps interfaced with Variable Frequency Drive
C. Purification of water
D. None of the above
Q. No. 45: In a conventional electric power generation plant the SCADA system can be used
for:
A. Boiler Data Acquisition and Control
B. Conveyor Control
C. Turbine data acquisition and control
D. All of the above
Q. No. 46: In water purification plant, water flow measurement is done by using:
A. Magnetic Flow Transducer
B. Thermistor
C. Pt – 100 RTD sensor
D. None of the above
Q. No. 47: In Water purification plant the SCADA system can be used for:
A. Water flow measurement and control
B. Water pipeline pressure monitoring
C. Water recycling plant and Water pumping station monitoring and control
D. All of the above
Q. No. 48: In a Benzene production plant the raw materials used are:
A. Toluene and Hydrogen
B. Toluene and Carbon di oxide
C. Nitrogen and Sulphuric Acid
D. All of the above
Q. No. 49: The by-product of benzene manufacturing process is:
A. Ethane
B. Butane
C. Methane
D. None of the above
Q. No. 50: The final product from a petroleum refining plant is:
A. Gasoline
B. Fuel Oil
C. Diesel/Heating Oil
D. All of the above
 UNIT 6
Q. No. 1: In case of communication between two or more entities, protocol is required for:
A. Initiating the communication
B. Conducting the communication
C. Ending the communication
D. All of the above
Q. No. 2: Modbus SCADA protocol is supplied by:
A. Modicon
B. Siemens
C. Allen-Bradley
D. None of the above
Q. No. 3: Profibus SCADA protocol is supplied by:
A. Modicon
B. Siemens
C. Allen-Bradley
D. None of the above
Q. No. 4: DeviceNet and ControlNet SCADA protocols are supplied by:
A. Modicon
B. Siemens
C. Allen-Bradley
D. None of the above
Q. No. 5: OSI is an acronym for:
A. Open Systems Interconnection
B. Operating System Interface
C. Operating System Intelligence
D. None of the above
Q. No. 6: In OSI model, the layer which interfaces with the user is:
A. Application Layer 7
B. Physical Layer 1
C. Data Link Layer 2
D. All of the above
Q. No. 7: In case of OSI model data from the higher layer to the next lower layer is always:
A. Encrypted
B. Encapsulated
C. Transmitted
D. None of the above
Q. No. 8: In OSI model, the physical layer 1:
A. Is responsible for converting the packet data to electrical signals
B. Manages the data frames between the physical layer and network layer
C. Manages data transmission during a given session
D. All of the above
Q. No. 9: The protocol associated with the Application layer 7 of the OSI model is:
A. File transfer protocol
B. Simple Mail transfer protocol
C. Simple Network Management protocol
D. All of the above
Q. No. 10: The protocol associated with the Physical layer 1 of the OSI model is:
A. EIA-422-B (RS-422)
B. EIA-232C (RS-232C)
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above
Q. No. 11: EIA stands for:
A. Electronic Industries Association
B. Electrical Integrated Approach
C. Electrical Intelligence Association
D. All of the above
Q. No. 12: TCP is an acronym for:
A. Tata Controls and Processes
B. Transmission Control Protocol
C. Testing and Control Process
D. None of the above
Q. No. 13: Transmission Control Protocol is also called as:
A. Profibus
B. Modbus
C. Internet Protocol
D. DeviceNet
Q. No. 14: The network access layer in TCP/IP model:
A. Includes the functions of data link and physical layers of the OSI model
B. Converts packets into bits for transmission over any physical medium
C. Is responsible for error free delivery of data frames
D. All of the above
Q. No. 15: The protocol incorporated in the Host-to-Host layer 3 of the TCP/IP model
includes:
A. Transmission Control Protocol
B. File Transfer Protocol
C. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
D. None of the above
Q. No. 16: The protocol incorporated in the Internet layer 2 of the TCP/IP model includes:
A. Internet Protocol
B. Internet Control Message Protocol
C. Address Resolution Protocol
D. All of the above
Q. No. 17: In DNP3 protocol, the header comprises of;
A. Source Device Address
B. Destination Device Address
C. Frame Size
D. All of the above
Q. No. 18: The protocol widely used by utilities such as water companies and electricity
suppliers is:
A. DNP3
B. DeviceNet
C. ControlNet
D. None of the above
Q. No. 19: In OSI mode, Control and Information Protocol is implemented in:
A. Application layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Session layer
D. All of the above
Q. No. 20: Control and Information protocol provides an object library which includes:
A. Parameter objects
B. Discrete input objects
C. Position sensor objects
D. All of the above
Q. No. 21: Control and Information Protocol comprises of Communication objects which are
used for:
A. Defining maximum data values
B. Defining type and characteristics of the connection
C. Defining the timing of the connection
D. All of the above
Q. No. 22: DeviceNet is an open standard used for connecting;
A. Motor starters and sensors
B. Displays
C. Operator Interfaces
D. All of the above
Q. No. 23: DeviceNet establishes a connection using:
A. An identity object
B. Message router object
C. Connection object
D. All of the above
Q. No. 24: DeviceNet supports communication rate of:
A. 125 kbps
B. 250 kbps
C. 500 kbps
D. All of the above
Q. No. 25: The identity object of DeviceNet contains information such as;
A. Device Profile
B. Revision Number
C. Vendor Information
D. All of the above
Q. No. 26: The message router object in DeviceNet:
A. Routes messages to the proper destination
B. Manages the messaging connection
C. Contains the device information
D. None of the above
Q. No. 27: The DeviceNet object in DeviceNet:
A. Manages the messaging connection
B. Routes the messages to the proper destination
C. Stores lower layer DeviceNet information
D. All of the above
Q. No. 28: DeviceNet can support up to;
A. 64 nodes
B. 99 nodes
C. 32 nodes
D. 10 nodes
Q. No. 29: ControlNet can support up to:;
A. 64 nodes
B. 99 nodes
C. 32 nodes
D. 10 nodes
Q. No. 30: The algorithm used by ControlNet is:
A. Concurrent Time Domain Multiple Access Algorithm
B. Concurrent Frequency Domain Multiple Access Algorithm
C. Concurrent Access oriented Algorithm
D. None of the above
Q. No. 31: In ControlNet, the critical information is transmitted during;
A. Network update time interval
B. Unscheduled time period
C. Unscheduled service
D. None of the above
Q. No. 32: The ControlNet comprises of:
A. Physical layer
B. Transport layer
C. Application layer
D. All of the above
Q. No. 33: Control and Information Protocol is used in:
A. DeviceNet
B. ControlNet
C. Ethernet
D. All of the above
Q. No. 34: In case of Ethernet/IP, the application layer:
A. Provides application object library
B. Provides messaging services
C. Supports message routing and connection management
D. None of the above
Q. No. 35: In case of Ethernet/IP, the session layer:
A. Provides application object library
B. Provides messaging services
C. Supports message routing and connection management
D. None of the above
Q. No. 36: The Flexible Function Block (FFB) process is;
A. Control Half Duplex Bus network
B. Control Full Duplex Bus network
C. Control Half Simplex Bus network
D. Any of the above
Q. No. 37: CSMA/CD is an acronym for:
A. Carrier-sense multiple access with collision detection
B. Courier-sensitive multiple access without collision detection
C. Courier-sensitive duplex access without collision detection
D. Any of the above
Q. No. 38: The Flexible Function Block Process (FFB):
A. Operates at 31.25 kbps as a master-slave network
B. Operates at 10.45 kbps as a remote terminal network
C. Operates at 64.23 kbps as a master terminal unit
D. None of the above
Q. No. 39: In a token passing network;
A. Only one device can transmit at a time
B. More than one device can transmit at a time
C. No device can transmit at a time
D. Any of the above
Q. No. 40: In case of CSMA/CD approach:
A. Collisions can occur when devices try to send messages at the same time
B. No collisions can occur when devices try to send messages at the same time
C. Only one device transmits the message at a time
D. Any of the above
Q. No. 41: In case of Flexible Function Block (FFB):
A. Layer 3 to Layer 6 are not used
B. Layer 3 to Layer 5 are not used
C. Layer 1 to Layer 6 are not used
D. None of the above
Q. No. 42: Profibus Process Automation:
A. Connects data acquisition and control devices on a common serial bus
B. Supports reliable and intrinsically safe implementations
C. Provides power to field devices through the bus
D. All of the above
Q. No. 43: Profibus is also called as:
A. Process Fieldbus
B. Process Databus
C. Process Controlbus
D. Any of the above
Q. No. 44: Profibus can accommodate devices from different manufacturers because:
A. It’s a proprietary bus which does support open standards
B. Though it’s a proprietary bus it supports open standards
C. It’s rate of communication is very fast
D. Any of the above
Q. No. 45: A firewall provides protection from:
A. Viruses and worms
B. Malicious codes
C. Internal and external Intrusions
D. All of the above
Q. No. 46: The type of firewall includes:
A. Packet-filtering firewalls
B. Stateful inspection firewalls
C. Proxy firewalls
D. All of the above
Q. No. 47: Packet-filtering firewall operates:
A. At layer 3, the network layer of the OSI Model
B. At layer1, the physical layer of the OSI Model
C. At layer 7, the application layer of the OSI Model
D. Any of the above
Q. No. 48: Stateful Inspection firewall stores and maintains information from an incoming
packet in:
A. A Dynamic Memory State Table
B. A Static Memory State Table
C. A Demilitarized Zone
D. None of the above
Q. No. 49: The OSI reference model was developed by:
A. International Standards Organization
B. Indian Standards Organization
C. Bureau of International Standards
D. Any of the above
Q. No. 50: IEC 61850 is a layered architecture standard:
A. That provides the functionality required for Electrical Utility Applications
B. That also includes IEC 60870-5 standards for Distribution
C. That also includes IEC 60870-6 standards for Transmission
D. All of the above
 PLC & Automation
Unit 2: Transmitters and Signal Conditioning
1. The output voltage of thermocouple is very small, typically less than ______
A]50 mv b]100mv c]10mv
2. Industrial thermocouple using thick wire have time constant _________
A]30 t0 50 s b] 10 to 20 s c]100s
3. A thermocouple made from very small guage wire have a time constant ________
A]30 t0 50 ms b] 10 to 20 ms c]100ms

4. RTD has response time of _______ s or more.

A]0.5 to5 b]1to4 c]5 to 10

5. The principle behind RTD is, metal resistance increases with ________ in
temperature.
A]increase b]decrease c]constant
6. Radio transmitter is an electronic device which, with the aid of an antenna,
produces ____________waves
A]micro b]radio c]infrared

7. In industrial process control a __________ is a telemetry device which converts

measurements from a sensor into a signal, and sends it to control device located a
distance away
A]transducer b]sensor c]transmitter
8. _____________ can convert analog signals to digital signals (A/D), making
communication swift and easy and can even send both analog and digital signals at
the same time as denoted by D/A.
A]transducer b]sensor c]transmitter
9. If a temperature transmitter is a smart transmitter, it will accept ________ signals from
thermocouples and resistance signals from resistance temperature devices (RTDs),
and thermistors.
A]ampere b]millivolt c]ohm

10. A transmitter's gain, that is the ratio of the output of the transmitter to the input signal,
is constant regardless of its output.
A]feedback b]input c]output

1) Output of smart sensors will of ________________

a) Analog
b) Digital
c) Analog and digital
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Output of smart sensor is taken from the processor and they are of digital
value.
2). Signal conditioning is carried out in ______________
a) Transducer housing
b) Processor
c) Network interface
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Signal conditioning of smart sensors is carried out inside of transducer
housing.
4. Input signal to smart sensor is fed from _____________
a) Power supply
b) Transducer
c) Volt meter
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Input to the smart sensor is fed from transducer measuring input value.
9. Input data of smart sensor will be _____________
a) Analog
b) Digital
c) Analog and digital
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Input quantity of smart sensor is the analog quantity which is converted to
digital.
10. Which of the following represents network bus?
a) Instrumentation contact
b) Field instrumentation bus
c) Data bus
d) Bit line contact
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Network bus in a smart sensor is also known as field instrumentation bus.

1. Which of the following is a component used in air generation system?

a. pressure switch
b. pressure gauge
c. drier
d. intercooler
Ans: c
2. What is difference between regulator and pressure switch?

a. regulator operates at set value pressure while pressure switch operates with slight
fluctuation in pressure
b. pressure switch operates at set value pressure while regulator operates with slight
fluctuation in pressure
Ans: a
3. Select the correct standard symbols for the hydraulic elements given below.

Hydraulic elements

1. check valve
2. hydraulic motor
3. shut-off valve
4. pneumatic motor

Standard symbols

A.
B.

D.

a. 1-C 2-A 3-B 4-D

b. 1-A 2-C 3-B 4-D
c. 1-B 2-D 3-A 4-C
d. 1-A 2-D 3-B 4-C
Ans: c

4. Mass of water vapour in unit volume of air is known as

a. relative humidity
b. absolute humidity
c. saturation quantity
d. none of the above
Ans: a

5. Select the correct order of process occurring in pneumatic system

a.

b.

c.

d. none of the above

Ans: c

6. Which of the following systems generate more energy when used in industrial
applications?

a. hydraulic systems
b. pneumatic systems
c. both systems generate same energy
d. cannot say
Ans: a
7. Why is an ac power not required in the remote areas or locations for operation purpose of
two-wire transmitter?
a. transmission power is lowered upto 4-20mA current output signal

b. transmission power is lowered upto 1-4 mA current output signal

c. transmission power is lowered upto 1-10 mA current output signal

d. two-wire transmitters do not operate in remote areas

Ans: a

8. How does the appearance of any noise rather than the electrical noise that intrude in the
current output signal of two-wire transmitter get eliminated ?

a. by common-mode rejection of transmitting device

b. by common-mode rejection of interfacing device
c. by common-mode rejection of receiving device
d. none of the above
Ans: c

9. The remote mounting feature of two-wire transmitter near the sensor reduces the effects of
_________

a. Noise
b. Signal Degradation
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
Ans: c

10. Which characteristics play a significant role in increasing the current flow continuously
with the reduction in resistance until the heat dissipation of thermistor becomes exactly equal
to the value of power supply?

a. Voltage -Time Characteristics

b. Current-Time Characteristics
c. Resistance Temperature Characteristics
d. Self-Heat Characteristics
Ans: d

11. Which bridge is utilized in signal conditioning circuits for balancing purpose?

a. Maxwell Bridge
b. Wheatstone Bridge
c. Wein Bridge
d. Kelvin Bridge
Ans: b

12. Resistance temperature detector is ___________

a) a electrical transducer
b) a mechanical transducer
c) a chemical transducer
d) a physical transducer
Ans: a

13. Relation between temperature and resistance of a conductor is ________

a) Rt = Rref [1+t]
b) Rt = Rref [1+α∆t]
c) Rt = Rref [1-αt]
d) Rt = Rref [1-t]
Ans: b

14. Sensing element in the thermometer must provide ________

a) small change in resistance
b) no change in resistance
c) large change in resistance
d) infinite change in resistance
Ans: c

15. Platinum is used for industrial applications because ________

a) it is cheap
b) it is available readily
c) it is a noble metal
d) it gives accurate measurements
Ans: d

16. If the sensing element is large, then less amount of heat is required.
a) True
b) False
Ans: b
17. Most metallic conductors have a ________
a) neutral temperature coefficient of resistance
b) negative temperature coefficient of resistance
c) positive temperature coefficient of resistance
d) zero temperature coefficient of resistance
Ans: c

18. In a temperature sensing element ________

a) low value of α is required
b) infinite value of α is required
c) α must be zero
d) high value of α is required
Ans: d

19. Nickel and its alloys can be used over a temperature range of ________
a) 100 to 450 K
b) 10 to 50 K
c) 0 to 25 K
d) 5 to 15 K
Ans: a

20. How can corrosion be prevented in a resistance thermometer?

a) by immersing the setup in oil
b) by enclosing the elements in a glass tube
c) by using guard rings
d) by painting the elements
Ans: b

21. Identify the thermocouple type with the highest temperature limit from those listed here:
(A)Type J
(B) Type K
(C) Type S
(D) Type T
(E) Type E

Ans: C

22. The negative lead of a thermocouple is always colored:

(A) Blue
(B) Yellow
(C) Red
(D) White
(E) Black

Ans: C

23. The most rugged temperature sensing element listed here is a/an:
(A) Thermocouple
(B) Orifice plate
(C) RTD
(D) Filled bulb
(E) Fire eye

Ans: A

An electronic controller creates a 4 to 20mA dc signal that must

actuate a steam valve for temperature control. The best and most
economical choice would be to :
a. Use an all-electric actuator system
b. Convert to a pneumatic signal at the controller and use a pneumatic
actuator.
c. Use pneumatic actuator with an electric to pneumatic valve positioner
d. None of the above
 PLC & Automation
Unit III: Controllers and Actuators

1. A variable reluctance stepper motor is constructed of ______________

material with salient poles.
a) Paramagnetic
b) Ferromagnetic
c) Diamagnetic
d) Non-magnetic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A variable reluctance stepper motor is the motor that has
motion in steps with respect to increase in time and constructed of
ferromagnetic material with salient poles.
2. In a three-stack 12/8-pole VR motor, the rotor pole pitch is
a) 15º
b) 30º
c) 45º
d) 60º
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pole pitch is defined as the number of armature slots to the pole
pitch and here this has been converted into degrees.
3. A stepper motor having a resolution of 300 steps/rev and running at 2400
rpm has a pulse rate of- pps.
a) 4000
b) 8000
c) 6000
d) 10,000
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Pulse per second is mathematically given as PPS =
(Rpm/60)*(number of steps per minute).
4. If a hybrid stepper motor has a rotor pitch of 36º and a step angle of 9º,
the number of its phases must be
a) 4
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Step angle is defined as =(Ns-Nr)/(Ns+Nr)*360.
5. The rotor of a stepper motor has no
a) Windings
b) Commutator
c) Brushes
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The rotor is the rotatory part of the motor of a stepper motor
and has no windings, commutator and brushes.
6. A stepping motor is a ____________ device.
a) Mechanical
b) Electrical
c) Analogue
d) Incremental
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A stepping motor is a motor in which the motion in the form of
steps and is a incremental device i which as the time increases the steps are
increased.
7. The rotational speed of a given stepper motor is determined solely by the
a) Shaft load
b) Step pulse frequency
c) Polarity of stator current
d) Magnitude of stator current.
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The stator part of a motor is the stationary part of the motor
and rotational speed of a given stepper motor is given by the step pulse
frequency.
8. Which of the following phase switching sequence represents half-step
operation of a VR stepper motor ?
a) A, B, C,A……..
b) A, C, B,A…….
c) AB, BC, CA, AB……..
d) A, AB, B, BC……..
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In the half step operation of a Variable reluctance motor
physical step resolution is multiplied by 2 and control signals appear to be
digital rather than analog.
9. A stepper motor may be considered as a ____________ converter.
a) Dc to dc
b) Ac to ac
c) Dc to ac
d) Digital-to-analogue
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: A stepper motor is a motor in which the motion is in steps and
it is an increemental device and may be considered as a digital to analog
converter.
10. What is the step angle of a permanent-magnet stepper motor having 8
stator poles and 4 rotor poles?
a) 60º
b) 45º
c) 30º
d) 15º
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Step angle is defined as =(Ns-Nr)/(Ns+Nr)*360 where Ns is the
number of stator poles and Nr is the number of rotor poles.
1. The magnetic field strength of a solenoid can be increased by inserting
which of the following materials as the core?
a) Copper
b) Silver
c) Iron
d) Aluminium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The Magnetic field of a solenoid increases when we insert an
iron core because iron is a ferromagnetic material and ferromagnetic
materials help in increasing the magnetic property.
2. If a coil is wound around a steel core and electric current is passed
through the coil, the steel core acts as a?
a) Electromagnet
b) Permanent magnet
c) Neither electromagnet nor permanent magnet
d) Either electromagnet or permanent magnet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When a coil is wound around a steel core, the steel core
behaves like a permanent magnet because it is a ferromagnetic material and
once it becomes magnetic it does not lose its magnetic property.
3. What is the formula for the magnetic field due to a solenoid?
a) μnI
b) μn2
c) μNI
d) μN2I2
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The magnetic field due to a solenoid is:
B= μnI, where μ is the permeability, n is the number of turns per unit length
and I is the current in the solenoid.
4. What happens to the magnetic field in the solenoid when the number of
turns increases?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Becomes zero
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The magnetic field of a solenoid is directly proportional to the
number of turns in it. Hence as the number of turns increases, the magnetic
field also increases.
5. What happens to the magnetic field in the solenoid when the current
increases?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Becomes zero
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The magnetic field of a solenoid is directly proportional to the
current in it. Hence as the current increases, the magnetic field also
increases.
6. What happens to the magnetic field in the solenoid when the length of the
solenoid increases?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) Becomes zero
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The magnetic field of a solenoid is inversely proportional to the
length. Hence as the length increases, the magnetic field decreases.

1). The Hall effect sensor is used as the rotor position sensor for the BLDC
motor.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The Hall effect sensor is used as the rotor position sensor for
the BLDC motor. It is used to measure the strength of the magnetic field.
2. In BLDC motor armature windings are placed on the stator side.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In BLDC motor armature windings are placed on the stator side.
It is more economical and less maintenance is required. Permanent magnets
are placed on the rotor side.
3. BLDC motor is analogous to ______________
a) Permanent magnet synchronous motor
b) DC motor
c) Rotating Transformer
d) Single-phase Induction motor
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: BLDC motor is analogous to Permanent magnet synchronous
motor. In BLDC motor armature windings are placed on the stator side. It is
more economical and less maintenance is required. Permanent magnets are
placed on the rotor side.
4. The speed of a BLDC motor can be controlled by __________
a) Changing input DC voltage
b) Changing temperature
c) Changing wind direction
d) Cannot be controlled
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The speed of a BLDC motor can be controlled by changing the
input DC voltage or the current using PWM. It can be achievable by using a
transistor and chopper.
5. Which are the advantages of BLDC motor?
I. Low cost
II. Simplicity
III. Reliability
IV. Good performance
a) I, II, III, IV
b) I, II
c) I, II, IV
d) II, III, IV
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The BLDC motor is used in low power application. They have
many advantages like low cost, simplicity, reliability, good performance, long
life.
6. Due to low inertia, BLDC motors have __________
a) Faster acceleration
b) Slower acceleration
c) High-cost
d) Low cost
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to low inertia, BLDC motors have faster acceleration. BLDC
motors have less weight. They can run at high speed than a conventional DC
motor

8) Which of the following are the types of BLDC motor?

a) Unipolar, Bipolar
b) Unipolar, PWM
c) Bipolar, PWM
d) Synchronous, Induction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Unipolar and Bipolar are the types of BLDC motor. They use the
Hall effect rotor position sensor and optical rotor position sensor.
11. In the biomedical instruments like artificial heart pumps, the motor used
is ____________
a) DC shunt motor
b) DC series motor
c) Induction motor
d) BLDC motor
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: BLDC motors are widely used in various applications of the
medical industry. Sensorless BLDC motor and with sensor BLDC motors are
used because of easy operation and high reliability compare to conventional
motors.

8. When comparing first cost of hydraulic systems to pneumatic systems,

generally they are:
a) More expensive to purchase
b) Less expensive to purchase
c) Cost is same
d) Cost is not required
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Operating cost that is the cost of the operating or using it
practically in daily life and operating cost of hydraulic systems to pneumatic
systems is less.
9. When comparing operating cost of hydraulic systems to pneumatic
systems, generally they are.
a) More expensive to operate
b) Less expensive to operate
c) Cost is same to operate
d) Cost is not required
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Operating cost that is the cost of the operating or using it
practically in daily life and operating cost of hydraulic systems to pneumatic
systems is less.
10. The most common hydraulic fluid is:
a) Mineral oil
b) Synthetic fluid
c) Water
d) Gel
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Hydraulic fluid is the fluid that is causing conversion process
and used in control action which is chemically inert and readily available.
1. Heavy lifting work is often accomplished by shifting fluids in big machines.
The power system of such machines can be described as
a) Reciprocating
b) Pneumatic
c) Hydraulic
d) Hybrid
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The power system of heavy and big machines can be described
by hydraulic systems and heavy lifting work is often accomplished by shifting
fluids in big machines.
2. The scientific principle that makes hydraulic systems possible is
a) Pascal’s principle
b) Boyle’s law
c) Bernoulli’s principle
d) The fluid flow principle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pascal’s principle is the basis of hydraulic system which states
that the water exerts pressure in all direction.
3. Pneumatic and other power systems can support three kinds of motion;
they are
a) Linear, reciprocating, and random motion
b) Linear, flowing, and rotary motion
c) Linear, zigzag, and spiral motion
d) Linear, reciprocating, and rotary motion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pneumatic systems are the systems that control the process
where the motion is in air and can support linear, reciprocating, and rotary
motion.
4. A single acting cylinder can be pressurized externally from one direction
only.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pressure variation is possible only if the force is acting from one
direction if the force will be acting from multiple directions then the force
cancellation is also possible.
5. A one-way valve that lets air into the reservoir of a compressor, but
doesn’t let it out, is a
a) Check valve
b) Receiver valve
c) Control valve
d) Three way valve
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Check valve is a one-way valve that lets air into the reservoir of
a compressor, but doesn’t let it out as the name indicates it allows air to
enter as it has one entrance.
6. Series circuits work on both hydraulic and pneumatic actuators.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Series circuits are the circuits where the components are
connected in series and the component is called lumped component and work
for both hydraulic and pneumatic error detectors.
7. 5/2 way single solenoid valve has:
a) 2 ports 2 positions
b) 5 ports 2 positions
c) 5 ports 5 positions
d) 2 ports 5 positions
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation:5/2 way single solenoid valve is the valve in which the valve is in
the shape of solenoid has 5 ports equally spaced and 2 flow positions.
8. The ____________________ converts the compressed air energy into
mechanical energy in the form of linear movement in one direction only.
a) Piston cylinders
b) Double acting cylinders
c) Single acting cylinders
d) Hydraulic pumps
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation:Single acting cylinders converts the compressed air energy into
mechanical energy in the form of linear movement in one direction only.
9. A _____________ restricts air flow.
a) Throttle valve
b) Shuttle valve
c) Directional control valve
d) Single acting cylinder
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Air valve is restricted by the valve it allows only that entry as
desired and throttle valve restricts the airflow.
10. When the piston area of the cylinder is connected to the atmosphere, the
piston of the single-acting cylinder is pressed by the spring to the
________________
a) Cylinder center
b) Cylinder down
c) Cylinder bottom
d) Cylinder upper
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Piston is the part in the cylinder that is used to create the
pressure difference and in case of single-acting cylinder it is pressed by the
spring to the cylinder center .
8. TRIAC is used in
a) chopper
b) speed control of induction machine
c) speed control of universal motor
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: TRIAC is used in speed control of universal motor.
1. Solid State Relays (SSRs) have a
a) coil and contact arrangement
b) optocoupler
c) scr
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coil and contact arrangement is used in mechanical relays,
SSRs have a optocoupler which connects the control circuit to the power
circuit via light sensitive devices.
2. The converter circuit which employs turn on and turn off when the voltage
and/or current through the device is zero at the instant of switching is
____________
a) a conventional converter
b) a resonant converter
c) a zero switching circuit
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Resonant converters are used to turn on and turn off when the
voltage and/or current through the device is zero at the instant of switching.
3. Induction heating is a ___________ type of heating
a) zero frequency
b) high frequency
c) power frequency
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: As eddy current is proportional to the square of the supply
frequency, induction heating is a high frequency heating.
1. In which region a transistor acts as an open switch?
a) cut off region
b) inverted region
c) active region
d) saturated region
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In this mode, both the junctions are reverse biased. The
transistor has practically zero current because the emitter does not emit
charge carriers to the base. There is negligibility current due to minority
carriers. In this mode the transistor acts as an open switch.
2. In which region a transistor acts as a closed switch?
a) cut off region
b) inverted region
c) active region
d) saturated region
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In this mode, both the junctions are forward biased. The
negative terminal of the battery is connected to the emitter. The collector
current becomes independent of base current. In this mode the transistor
acts as a closed switch.
3. Which of the following circuits act as a switch?

a)

b)

c)
d)
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This is an inverter, in which the transistor in the circuit is
switched between cut off and saturation. The load, for example, can be a
motor or a light emitting diode or any other electrical device.
4. The current which is helpful for LED to turn on is_________
a) emitter current
b) base current
c) collector current
d) depends on bias
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Depending on the type of load, a collector current is induced
that would turn on the motor or LED. The transistor in the circuit is switched
between cut off and saturation. The load, for example, can be a motor or a
light emitting diode or any other electrical device.
5. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Solid state switches are applications for an AC output
b) LED’s can be driven by transistor logics
c) Only NPN transistor can be used as a switch
d) Transistor operates as a switch only in active region
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Output devices like LED’s only require a few milliamps at logic
level DC voltages and can therefore be driven directly by the output of a logic
gate. However, high power devices such as motors or lamps require more
power than that supplied by an ordinary logic gate so transistor switches are
used.
6. The base emitter voltage in a cut off region is_________
a) greater than 0.7V
b) equal to 0.7V
c) less than 0.7V
d) cannot be predicted
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: From the cut off characteristics, the base emitter voltage (VBE)
in a cut off region is less than 0.7V. The cut off region can be considered as
‘off mode’. Here, VBE > 0.7 and IC=0. For a PNP transistor, the emitter
potential must be negative with respect to the base.
7. In saturation region, the depletion layer_________
a) increases linearly with carrier concentration
b) decreases linearly with carrier concentration
c) increases by increasing the emitter current
d) decreases by decreasing the emitter voltage drop
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Here, the transistor will be biased so that maximum amount of
base current is applied, resulting in maximum collector current resulting in
minimum emitter voltage drop which results in depletion layer as small as
possible and maximum current flows through the transistor.
8. The base emitter voltage in a saturation region is_________
a) greater than 0.7V
b) equal to 0.7V
c) less than 0.7V
d) cannot be predicted
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: From the saturation mode characteristics, the transistor acts as
a single pole single throw solid state switch. A zero collector current flows.
With a positive signal applied to the base of transistor it turns on like a
closed switch.
9. The switching of power with a PNP transistor is called_________
a) sourcing current
b) sinking current
c) forward sourcing
d) reverse sinking
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Sometimes DC current gain of a bipolar transistor is too low to
directly switch the load current or voltage, so multiple switching transistors is
used. The load is connected to ground and the transistor switches the power
to it.
10. The switching of power with a NPN transistor is called_________
a) sourcing current
b) sinking current
c) forward sourcing
d) reverse sinking
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sometimes DC current gain of a bipolar transistor is too low to
directly switch the load current or voltage, so multiple switching transistors is
used. The load is connected to supply and the transistor switches the power
to it.
11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem

Test)
Total Marks- 30

* Required

Name of Student *

Your answer

Roll Number *

Your answer

Email ID *

Your answer

Mobile Number *

Your answer

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.1) Which of the following statements is correct? 1 point

Ladder logic is a PLC graphical programming technique introduced in the last 10

years.

A ladder logic program is hard to analyze because it is totally different when

compared with the equivalent relay logic solution.

The number of ladder logic virtual relays and input and output instructions is limited
only by memory size.

The number of contacts for a mechanical relay is limited to number of coils on the
relay.

Q.2) Which of the following statements is NOT correct? 1 point

The status of each input can be checked from one location and outputs can be forced
on and off.

All symbols in the RLL represent actual components and contacts present in the
control system.

PLCs are not as reliable as electromechanical relays in RLL.

Input (-| |-) and output (- ( ) -) instruction symbols in the ladder logic represent only
data values stored in PLC memory.

Q.3) Hardwire control means 1 point

Controlling the hardware with the help of software

Controlling the plant with relays contactors etc without any programmable controller

Controlling the plant with relays contactors etc with programmable controller

None

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.4) PLCs that have a fixed amount of I/O capability built into the unit are 1 point
known as:

Rack PLCs

Monolithic PLCs

Modular PLCs

None of these

Q.5) Which is not the part of Analog output module 1 point

DAC

Signal conditioning circuit

DEMUX

None of above

Q.6) The part that monitors the inputs and makes decisions in a PLC is the 1 point
CPU.

True

False

None of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.7) The first company to build PLCs was . 1 point

General Motors

Allen Bradley

Square D

Modicon

Q.8) Which is not the selections Criteria of PLC 1 point

Memory Space

Training & Documentation

Scan Time

None of above

Q.9) Which is not PLC Disadvantage 1 point

New and Advanced technology

Fail-Safe Operation

Mouldability in nature

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.10) The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data 1 point
which are immediately required for use is called as______.

ROM

RAM

SSD

HDD

Q.11) Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC? 1 point

Manual switches

Relays

Sensors

None of the above

Q.12) Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to: 1 point

Analog output.

Digital output.

Analog input.

Digital input.

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.13) To increase the number of inputs and outputs of the PLC, one can 1 point

use expansion modules.

True

False

None of the above.

Q.14) One of the following is an input device 1 point

Motor

Light

Valve

Sensor

Q.15) Very often relays and valves are connected to: 1 point

Input modules

Output modules

Any of these

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.16) An example of discrete (digital) control is: 1 point

Varying the brightness of a lamp

Controlling the speed of a fan

Turning a lamp ON or OFF

Varying the volume of a music system

Q.17) which is not output analog device 1 point

Stepper motor

Solenoid valve

Servo motor

Servo valves

Q.18) Which of the following can be the output of PLC? 1. Relay coils 2. 1 point
Solenoids valve 3. Indicators 4. Sensor 5. Lamps 6. Alarms Select correct
option

Only (1), (2), (3) , (5) and (6)

Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)

Only (1), (2), (3) and (5)

All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.19) Which is Displacement transducer 1 point

Potentiometer

Thermocouple

RTD

None

Q.20) Inductive Proximity sensors work with 1 point

metallic materials

non metallic materials

Both a & b

none of the above

Q.21) Which of the following is not programming languages of PLC 1 point

Ladder diagram

Sequential Function Charts

Function Block Diagram

Structured Text

None of above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.22) Which of the following is not true about MCR 1 point

This instruction can be used as an emergency stop

It must be placed on the right side of the rung

Every MCR instruction is used in the pair

Nested MCR instructions are not allowed in the ladder diagram

Q.23) The plc special function used to count the number of cans on a 1 point
conveyer belt is

timer

memory

counter

Q.24) When the input contact that enables a retentive timer (RTO) is 1 point

opened, the accumulated value in the timer will _______

reset (go to zero).

freeze (remain at its present value)

go to an undetermined value and the timer must be reset manually

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.25) An OR function implemented in ladder logic uses: 1 point

Normally-closed contacts in series

Normally-open contacts in series

A single normally-closed contact

Normally-open contacts in parallel

Normally-closed contacts in parallel

Q.26) A good application for a timed interrupt in a PLC program would be: 1 point

A communications function block

A PID function block

A math function block

A motor start/stop rung

A “watchdog” timer

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.27) The Boolean representation of this PLC program is: 1 point

ABC + D

C + (A + B)D

C + D(A + B)

ABC + BD

C(AB + D)

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.28) Identify the problem in this motor control PLC program: 1 point

Coil

Start contact

Seal-in contact

Stop contact

Power source

Q.29) The symbol -(L)- represent what instruction in the PLC language? 1 point

OUT output unlatch instruction.

OTL output latch instruction.

Examine off instruction.

Output energize instruction.

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.30) In a counter instruction if the accumulator value becomes greater 1 point

than or equal to the preset value then which of the following is true?

CU bit goes on

DN bit goes on

Both CU and DN bits go on

None of the above

Submit

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for

Failed Students)
Total Marks- 30
* Required

1. Email address *

2. Name of Student *

3. Roll No *

4. Class *

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

5. Q.1) The PLCs were originally designed to replace..

Mark only one oval.

Analog controllers

DCS

Microcomputers

Hardwired control

6. Q.2) Which one of the following is not a PLC manufacturer

Mark only one oval.

Siemens

Mitsubishi

Microsoft

ABB

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

7. Q.3) The acronym PLC stands for:

Mark only one oval.

Pressure Load Control

Programmable Logic Controller

Pneumatic Logic Capstan

PID Loop Controller

Pressure Loss Chamber

8. Q.4) The capability of convention relay systems for complex operations is ___________ that of the PLCs

Mark only one oval.

poor than

excellent than

as good as

unpredictable as

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

9. Q.5) _____ of PLCs can be done in very little time.

Mark only one oval.

Programming

Installation

Commissioning

All of the above

10. Q.6) The PLC is used in _______.

Mark only one oval.

machine tools

automated assembly equipment

moulding and extrusion machines

all of the above

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

11. Q.7) Which is not the selections Criteria of PLC

Mark only one oval.

Scan Time

Training & Documentation

Fail Safe Operation

Memory Space

12. Q.8) Which is not the component of Analog Input Module

Mark only one oval.

CPU

Signal Conditioning Circuit

DAC

Multiplexer

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

13. Q.9) Which is not PLC Disadvantage

Mark only one oval.

New and Advanced technology

Fail-Safe Operation

Mouldability in nature

None

14. Q.10) PLCs that have a fixed amount of I/O capability built into the unit are known as:

Mark only one oval.

Rack PLCs

Monolithic PLCs

Modular PLCs

None of these

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

15. Q.11) An example of discrete (digital) control is:

Mark only one oval.

Varying the volume of a music system

Turning a lamp ON or OFF

Varying the brightness of a lamp

Controlling the speed of a fan

16. Q.12) Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?

Mark only one oval.

Manual switches

Relays

Sensors

None of the above

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

17. Q.13) Encoders used in

Mark only one oval.

Electrical Drive technology

Printing Industry

Machine tool Industry

All of the above

18. Q.14) Limit Switchs is

Mark only one oval.

mechanical device

electrical device

electromechnical device

none of the above

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

19. Q.15) Hydraulic Actuators can measure pressure upto

Mark only one oval.

1000 psi

2000 psi

3500 psi

4000 psi

20. Q.16) Solenoid Valve is

Mark only one oval.

mechanical device

electrical device

electromechnical device

none of the above

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

21. Q.17) Flow and level sensors is

Mark only one oval.

Discrete output device

Analog input device

output analog device

none of the above

22. Q.18) Which of the following can be the output of PLC? 1. Relay coils 2. Solenoids valve 3. Indicators 4. Sensor 5.
Lamps 6. Alarms Select correct option

Mark only one oval.

Only (1), (2), (3) , (5) and (6)

Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)

Only (1), (2), (3) and (5)

All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

23. Q.19) Which is Displacement transducer

Mark only one oval.

Potentiometer

RTD

Thermocouple

None

24. Q.20) which is not output analog device

Mark only one oval.

Servo motor

Solenoid valve

Stepper motor

Servo valves

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

25. Q.21) For PLC’s scan cycle which one is correct?

Mark only one oval.

Program execute Output write Input read

Input read Output write Program execute

Output write Input read Program execute

Input read Program execute Output write

26. Q.22) Programming language for PLC is..

Mark only one oval.

Function Block Diagram (FBD)

Statement list (STL)

Ladder

All of the above.

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

27. Q.23) The address T4:6.ACC is used to address what?

Mark only one oval.

Accumulator for timer 4 in file 6.

Preset value of timer 6 in file 4.

Accumulator for timer 6 in file 4.

Accumulator for counter 6 in file 4.

28. Q.24) To reset the time for a PLC what condition must be true?

Mark only one oval.

Reset rung of TON must be true.

Reset rung of TON must be false.

RST instruction with timer address must be true.

RST instruction with associated timer address must be false.

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

29. Q.25) The symbol -(L)- represent what instruction in the PLC language?

Mark only one oval.

OUT output unlatch instruction.

OTL output latch instruction.

Examine off instruction.

Output energize instruction.

30. Q.26) Which of the following is not true about MCR

Mark only one oval.

This instruction can be used as an emergency stop

It must be placed on the right side of the rung

Every MCR instruction is used in the pair

Nested MCR instructions are not allowed in the ladder diagram

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

31. Q.27) When the input contact that enables a retentive timer (RTO) is opened, the accumulated value in the timer
will _______

Mark only one oval.

reset (go to zero).

freeze (remain at its present value)

go to an undetermined value and the timer must be reset manually

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

32. Q.28) The Boolean representation of this PLC program is:

Mark only one oval.

ABC + D

C + (A + B)D

C + D(A + B)

ABC + BD

C(AB + D)

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

33. Q.29) Identify the problem in this motor control PLC program:

Mark only one oval.

Start contact

Seal-in contact

Stop contact

Power source

Coil

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

34. Q.30) In a counter instruction if the accumulator value becomes greater than or equal to the preset value then
which of the following is true?

Mark only one oval.

CU bit goes on

DN bit goes on

Both CU and DN bits go on

None of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

PLC & SCADA Applications

Total Marks- 30
* Required

1. Email address *

2. Name of the Student *

3. Mobile No *

4. Class *

5. Roll. No *

6. Q.1) The part that monitors the inputs and makes decisions in a PLC is the CPU

Mark only one oval.

True

False

None of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

7. Q.2) One of the following is an input device

Mark only one oval.

Motor

Light

Valve

Sensor

8. Q.3) Which one of the following is not a PLC manufacturer

Mark only one oval.

Siemens

Mitsubishi

Microsoft

ABB

9. Q.4) The acronym PLC stands for:

Mark only one oval.

Pressure Load Control

Programmable Logic Controller

Pneumatic Logic Capstan

PID Loop Controller

Pressure Loss Chamber

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

10. Q.5) The capability of convention relay systems for complex operations is
___________ that of the PLCs .

Mark only one oval.

poor than

excellent than

as good as

unpredictable as

11. Q.6) _____ of PLCs can be done in very little time.

Mark only one oval.

Programming

Installation

Commissioning

All of the above

12. Q.7) The PLC is used in _______.

Mark only one oval.

machine tools

automated assembly equipment

moulding and extrusion machines

all of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

13. Q.8) In a PLC the scan time refers to the amount of time in which___

Mark only one oval.

the technician enters the program

timers and counters are indexed by

one rung of ladder logic takes to complete

the entire program takes to execute

transmitted data communications must finish

14. Q.9)The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data which are
immediately required for use is called as______.

Mark only one oval.

HDD

ROM

RAM

SSD

15. Q.10) Medium PLC has…….. inputs and outputs

Mark only one oval.

100-200

1000-4000

2000-4000

4000-8000

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

16. Q.11) Which is not the component of Analog Input Module

Mark only one oval.

CPU

Signal Conditioning Circuit

DAC

Multiplexer

17. Q.12) Which is not the selections Criteria of PLC

Mark only one oval.

Scan Time

Memory Space

Training & Documentation

None of above

18. Q.13) Which is not the component of PLC

Mark only one oval.

Input Module

Power supply

CPU

Push buttons

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

19. Q.14) Which is not PLC Advantage

Mark only one oval.

Cost effective

Fail Safe operation

Ease of Maintenance

Mouldability or Flexible in nature

20. Q.15) Which is not benefits of Automation

Mark only one oval.

Productivity

Quality

Unsuitable for Fixed Industry Applications

Improvement in the processes

21. Q.16) An example of discrete (digital) control is:

Mark only one oval.

Varying the volume of a music system

Turning a lamp ON or OFF

Varying the brightness of a lamp

Controlling the speed of a fan

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

22. Q.17) Which is not output analog device

Mark only one oval.

Servo motor

Stepper motor

Solenoid valve

Variable frequency Drives

23. Q.18) Which of the following can be the output of PLC?1. Relay coils 2. Solenoids 3.
Indicators 4. Motors 5. Lamps 6. Alarms Select correct option

Mark only one oval.

Only (1), (2), (3) and (4)

Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)

Only (1), (2), (3) and (5)

All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)

24. Q.19) Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?

Mark only one oval.

Manual switches

Relays

Sensors

None of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

25. Q.20) Which is Displacement transducer

Mark only one oval.

LVDT

Potentiometer

Both a and b

RTD

None of the above

26. Q.21) which is not pressure transducer

Mark only one oval.

Strain Gauges

Load cells

Bourdon tubes

Encoder

27. Q.22) Encoders used in............

Mark only one oval.

Electrical Drive technology

Printing Industry

Machine tool Industry

All of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

28. Q.23) Inductive Proximity sensors work with

Mark only one oval.

non metallic materials

metallic materials

Both a & b

none of the above

29. Q.24) Limit Switch is...............

Mark only one oval.

mechanical device

electrical device

electromechnical device

none of the above

30. Q.25) Which is not the thermal transducers

Mark only one oval.

Thermocouples

thermister

RTD

Potentiometer

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

31. Q.26) Hydraulic Actuators can measure pressure upto......

Mark only one oval.

1000 psi

2000 psi

3500 psi

4000 psi

32. Q.27) Solenoid Valve is......

Mark only one oval.

mechanical device

electrical device

electromechnical device

none of the above

33. Q.28) Flow and level sensors is ........

Mark only one oval.

Discrete output device

Analog input device

output analog device

none of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

34. Q.29) Which is the example of discrete output device

Mark only one oval.

Horn

Solenoid valve

Indication Lamp

All of above

35. Q.30) Which is not the advantage of Electrical Actuators

Mark only one oval.

Use for high accuracy with high precision

Easily programmed and networked

use to control position, velocity, torque

Applications involves areas of extreme temperature

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PLC Objective questions answers Search

Objective questions answers Online Course Registration

(1) Hardwire control means?
Basic PLC
(A) Controlling the hardware with the help of software.
(B) Controlling the plant with relays contactors etc. without any Basic HMI graphic designing
programmable controller
(C) Controlling the plant with relays contactors etc. with programmable
controller Follow by Email
(D) None
(2) Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to
Email address... Submit
(A) Analog input
(B) Analog output
(C) Digital input Popular Tags Blog Archives
(D) Digital output
(3) How the instruction -] N [- in the PLC language work? Ads by
(A) It detects the signal state from 0 to 1.
(B) It detects the signal state from 1 to 0 and remains close till signal is 0. Stop seeing this ad
(C) It detects the signal state from 1 to 0 and remains close for one scan
cycle only. ElectronicWhy this ad?

control
Travel direction switch
panels
Control panels for vehicles frei.de

Ergonomically shaped hand rest. Typical German quality. See for yourself. Gebrüder Frei GmbH
frei.de
Our control unit allows
you to control the
OPEN system with your right
(D) When signal state is 1 this instruction remains close.
hand alone.
(4) Full name of DCS is?
(A) Designed Control System
(B) Distributed Control System
(C) Display Control System
(D) Dedicated Control System OPEN
(5) For PLC’s scan cycle which one is correct?
(A) Program execute Output write Input read
(B) Input read Output write Program execute
(C) Output write Input read Program execute
(D) Input read Program execute Output write
Forum
(6) CPU 1214C has __ integrated digital inputs and __ digital outputs
(A) 10 & 12 PLC SCADA learining
(B) 12 & 14
(C) 12 & 10 Category
(D) 14 & 10
Industrial automation
(7) Programming language for PLC is..
(A) Function Block Diagram (FBD) PLC example programs
(B) Statement list (STL)
SCADA system
(C) Ladder
(D) All of the above.
(8) What is full name of SCADA? Contact Form
(A) Supervision Control and Data Acquire
(B) Supervisory Control and Data Administration Name
(C) Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition
(D) Super Control and Data Acquisition
Email *

(9) Digital input of CPU 1214C is..

(A) 12VDC Message *
(B) 230VAC
(C) 24VDC
(D) 10VDC
(10) In S7-1214C CPU, default address of Analog Input Starts from _________.
(A) IW 256 (B) IW 64 (C) IW 112 (D) Send
IW 96
(11) PLC’s analog input/output has.
(A) 1 bit address Total Pageviews
(B) 1 byte address
(C) 1 word address 7 0 7 2 8
(D) 1 double word address
(12) The PLCs were originally designed to replace.. Followers
(A) Analog controllers
(B) DCS
(C) Microcomputers
(D) Hardwired control
(13) In Counter when CV is equal to or greater than PV, then
(A) CU bit will set
(B) CU bit will reset
(C) QU bit will reset
(D) QU bit will set
(14) In S7-1200, we define Timer value (PT) as ____________. Blog Archive
(A) T#1s (B) T1 (C) IEC 0 (D) ▼ 2020 (57)
S5t#1s ▼ November (2)
▼ Nov 07 (2)
Small part hot plate welding.

step driver Special Rules to design ladder diagram

logic

step motor driver ► October (1)

► September (5)
Changzhou Soya Motor Control Factory
► August (1)
soyamotor.com
► July (16)

► June (9)
OPEN ► May (12)

(15) When signal state changes from 0 to 1 in LD input of CTD (down counter), ► April (9)

then… ► March (2)

(A) CV will reset
(B) PV will reset ► 2019 (30)

(C) The value at CV is set to the value of PV ► 2018 (110)

(D) The value at PV is set to the value of CV
(16) A control valve will receive _____ signal from an analog output module is
the count is 27648. The module is configured for 0 to 10V.
(A) 10V (B) 5V (C) 8V (D)
7.5V
(17) The Real Data type comprises of _______ Bits.
(A) 8 (B) 16 (C) 32 (D)
6
(18) Answer the following considering the network shown.

If I0.0 = 1 & I0.1 = 0 then status of Q0.0 = 0

If I0.0 = 0 & I0.1 = 1 then status of Q0.0 = 0
If I0.0 = 1 & I0.1 = 1 then status of Q0.0 = 1
(19) Write ladder logic for following conditions
When start PB is pressed, Motor Right will start and stop when LS1 (2) is
activated. Then Motor left will start and stop when LS1 (1) is activated. When
stop is pressed, it will stop.

(20) How many Signal modules we can connect in 1214C CPU? ______
Ad was
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Changzhou Soya Motor Control Factory

soyamotor.com

OPEN

(A) 8 (B) 10 (C) 32 (D) 11

(21) From following, which CPU is not available for S7-1200 PLC? ______
(A) 1211C (B) 1212C (C) 1213C
(D) 1215C
(22) Which answer names all the memory bytes addressed with MD 200?
(A) MW 201,202 (B) MB 200 (C) MB
200,201,202,203 (D) MB 200,201
(23) TIA Portal Software has Portal View &project View.

3 comments:

Unknown August 7, 2020 at 4:20 AM

sir
iwant this pdf formate
Reply

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PLCSCADA LEARNING August 10, 2020 at 2:40 AM

ok

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Unknown October 17, 2020 at 10:43 AM

i also wanted.. please
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 MCQ On
Unit No. 01
Introduction to
PLC
Prepared By,
Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande
Department of Electrical Engineering
Zeal College of Engineering and Research, Pune
B.E. Electrical (PLCSCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
Unit I: Introduction to PLC

1. Incoming control signals are called as________

(a) Output (b) Input
(c) Power (d) None of the above

2. The part that monitors the inputs and makes decisions in a PLC is the CPU.
(a) True (b) False
(c) Can’t say (d) None of the above

3. Transferring the PLC program from personal computer’s memory to PLC memory
is called as_________
(a) Uploading the program (b) Deleting the program
(c) Downloading of program (d) None of the above

4. Before downloading the user program, the processor must be ______ mode
(a) Scanning mode (b) Run mode
(c) Idle mode (d) Program mode

5. After downloading the user program, the processor must be ______ mode
(a) Scanning mode (b) Run mode
(c) Idle mode (d) Program mode

6. The continuous running of program in PLC is called as ______

(a) Scanning (b) Downloading
(c) Uploading (d) None of the above

7. The instructions you wish to carry out are transferred to the memory of the
controller from either ______ or ________
(a) Scanner or printer (b) PC or PLC
(c) Handheld programmer or personal (d) None of the above
computer

8. The PLC was invented by_____

(a) Bill Gates (b) Dick Morley
(c) Bill Landis (d) Tod Cunningham

9. Which one of the following is not a PLC manufacturer

(a) Siemens (b) Microsoft
(c) Mitsubishi (d) ABB

10. _____ conveys signals from the CPU to each module and from the module to the CPU

(a) Backplane (b) Power Supply

(c) DIN rail (d) I/O modules

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 1

B.E. Electrical (PLCSCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
11. Which of the following statement is correct?
1. Memory system provides storage of the user program.
2. Memory system provides storage of the input status file data.
3. Memory system provides storage of the output status file data.
(a) Only 1 (b) Both 2 and 3, but not 1
(c) Both 1 and 3, but not 2 (d) All statements are correct

12. The function of ____ is to convert and isolate the high voltage input level from field
device
(a) Input section (b) Output section
(c) Programmer (d) None of the above

13. _____ of PLCs can be done in very little time.

(a) Programming (b) Installation
(c) Commissioning (d) All of the above

14. The PLCs were originally designed to replace ______

(a) Analog controllers (b) DCS
(c) Hardwired control (d) Microcomputers

15. The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data which are
immediately required for use is called as______.
(a) HDD (b) RAM
(c) ROM (d) SSD

16. PLC can be ___________ in plant to change the sequence of operation.

(a) only programmed (b) only reprogrammed
(c) programmed and reprogrammed (d) able to give a set point

17. Which one of the following is the data file in SLC 500 PLC
(a) Timer File (b) System File
(c) Program File (d) None of the above

18. For PLC scan cycle, which of the following is correct

(a) Program execute, Output write, Input (b) Input read, Output write,
read Program execute
(c) Output right, Input read, Program (d) Input read, Program execute,
execute Output write

19. In a PLC, the scan time refers to the amount of time in which ….
(a) timers and counters are indexed by (b) the entire program takes to
execute
(c) one “rung” of ladder logic takes to (d) the technician enters the
complete program

20. PLC having less than_____ input and outputs are called as Small PLC
(a) 50 (b) 200 (c) 100 (d) 200

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 2

B.E. Electrical (PLCSCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 3

 CTTC, KOLKATA
Subject name: PLC

Q.1 How many types of current flows through an electrical circuit?

1.1 2.2
3.3 4. None of these
ANS-2

Q.2 According to PLC device signal module has __________

1.3 parts 2.5 parts

3.2 parts 4.None of these

ANS-3

Q.3 Current travels in closed circuits through__________

1. Conductors 2.5 Insulators

3.1 & 2 both 4.None of these
ANS-1

Q.4 Abbreviate PCB?

1. Printed circuit base

2. Printed circuit board
3. Plane circuit board
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.5 ____________is put on wires to prevent shock

1. Soil 2. Metals
3. Rubber & Plastic 4.None of these

ANS-3

Q.6 Abbreviate BF signal in PLC?

1. Bus Fault
2. Break fault
 3. Bit fault
4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.7 PPE stands for?

1. Personal Protective Equipment

2. Pure Protective Equipment
3. Personal Prospective Equipment
4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.8 Who has known as the Father of PLC?

1. Steve Jobs
2. Bill Gates
3. Dick Morley
4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.9 What is the name of the first PLC made by Bedford Associates of Bedford?

1. MODICON-184
2. MODICON-284
3. MODICON-084
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.10 what is the significance behind the product code “84” for the first PLC made by Bedford
Associates?

1. The year it was invented

2. Number of attempts
3. Number of persons worked for
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.11 Relay consisting of ____________

1. Only Coil Part 2.Only Contact Part

3.1 & 2 both 4.None of these
ANS-3
Q.12 The Programming line known as________uses in LADDER Logic for PLC?

1. Wrong 2.Rung
3. Right 4.None of these

ANS-2

Q.13 Abbreviate SFC?

1. Sequential Function Charts

2. Serial Function Charts
3. Short Function Charts
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.14 how many possible stages an input can have in LADDER Logic?

1. Two 2.One
3. Three 4.None of these

ANS-1

Q.15 What do you mean by “NO” contact using for Input in LADDER Logic?

1. Normally Operative
2. Normally Open
3. Not Operative
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.16 What do you mean by “NC” contact using for Input in LADDER Logic?

1. No Contact
2. Normally Contact
3. Normally Close
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.17 Which one of these is not a input type?

 1. Switch 2.Sensor
3. Motor 4.None of these

ANS-3

Q.18 Abbreviate PLC?

1. Periodical Logical Control

2. Program Logic Control
3. Programmable Logic Controller
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.19 Materials that permit flow of electrons are called_____________?

1. Insulators 2.Conductors
3. Both 1 & 2 4.None of these

ANS-2

Q.20 Which one of these permits the flow of electron?

1. Rubber 2.Teflon
3. Gold 4.None of these

ANS-3

Q.21 ___________is the most common material used to build semiconductor devices.

1. Silicon 2. Germanium
3. Boron 4.None of these

ANS-1

Q.22 In order to make useful semiconductor devices, which material/materials, is/are added
to Si to change its conductivity.

1. Only Phosphorus 2. Only Boron

3. Both 1 & 2 4.None of these

ANS-3

Q.23 Which is/are part of Signal module?

1. CPU313C 2. IM 153-1

3. DI16/DO16 4.All of the above

ANS-3

Q.24 full form of int-f signal on CPU?

1. Integer function

2. Internal fault

3. Initial focus

4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.25 Diode allows current to pass in__________direction.

1. One 2. Two
3. Both 4.None of these

ANS-1

Q.26 In a PN-Junction the P-side is called____________.

1. Cathode 2. Anode
3. Either One 4.None of these

ANS-2

Q.27 In a PN-Junction the N-side is called____________.

1. Anode 2. Cathode
3. Both 1 & 2 4.None of these

ANS-27

Q.28 When a Diode allows current to flow its in___________condition.

1. Reverse Biased 2.Forward Biased

3. Both 1 & 2 4.None of these

ANS-2

Q.29 Normally Diode is use as a_______________.

1. Inverter 2.Converter
3. Rectifier 4.None of these

ANS-3

Q.30 Identify this address “192.168.0.1”?

a. ip address

b. subnet mask address

c. cpu module address

d. none of these

ANS-A

Q. 31 Identify this address “255.255.0.1”?

1. Ip address

2. Subnet mask address

3. Cpu module address

4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.32 A Toggle Switch is a type________________.

1. Digital Device 2.Analog Device

3. Both 1 & 2 4.None of these

ANS-1

Q.33 Abbreviate DPST?

1. Dual Pole Single Throw

2. Double Pole Single Throw
3. Double Pole Start Throw
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.34 Which one of these is not a type of Toggle Switch?

1. SPCO 2.SPDT
3. Flush 4.All of the above

ANS-3

Q.35 A EMR (Relay) consist of____________.

1. Coil Part 2.Contact Part

3. Both Coil & Contact Part 4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.36 Abbreviate EMR (Relay)?

1. Electro Magnetic Relay

2. Electro Mechanical Relay
3. Electro Motive Relay
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.37 A Contactor consist of____________.

1. Fix Part 2.Moveable Part

3. Both Fix & Moveable Part 4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.38 A Auxiliary Contactor ____________.

1. Increases the contact part

2. Decreases the contact part
3. Enhance the coil strength
4. None of these

ANS-1

39. What is the meaning of “SR” flip flop?

1. System reset 2. set-reset

3. Set range 4. none of these

ANS-2

Q.40 In On-Delay Timer” delays turning on” means

1. delaying the input to get activate

2. delaying the output to get activate
3. Both 1 & 2
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.41 In Off-Delay Timer” delays turning off” means

1. delaying the input to get activate

2. delaying the output to get de-activate
 3. Both 1 & 2
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.42 BCD means?

1. Bit Coded Decimal

2. Binary Coded Decimal
3. Byte Coded Decimal
4. None of these

ANS-B

Q.43 1 Mili-Second (MS) =__________.

1. 1/10000th of a second
2. 1/1000th of a second
3. 1/100th of a second
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.44 A Inductive Sensors senses______________.

1. Only Metal
2. Only Non-Metal
3. Both Metal & Non-Metal
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.45 A Capacitive Sensors senses______________.

1. Only Metal
2. Only Non-Metal
3. Both Metal & Non-Metal
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.46 A Capacitive Sensor depends upon the_____________ of the sensing material.

1. Di-Electric Constant 2.Permitivity

3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of these

ANS-1
Q.47 Abbreviate TTL?

1. Transistor Thyristor Logic

2. Transistor Transistor Logic
3. Transistor Triac Logic
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.48 Abbreviate LED?

1. Light Emitting Diode

2. Liquid Emitting Diode
3. Liquid Emission Diode
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.49 Abbreviate CPU?

1. Central Peripheral Unit

2. Central Protecting Unit
3. Central Processing Unit
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.50 In a PLC unit I/O card communicate with the CPU Module by through______________

1. Back-Plane Unit
2. Adaptor Cable
3. PROFIBUS Cable
4. All of these above

ANS-1

Q.51 Which is/are mode normally present in the CPU module of the PLC unit?

1. RUN-Mode 2.STOP-Mode
3. Both RUN & STOP Mode 4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.52 One cycle through the program in a PLC unit is called a____________.

1. Period Time 2.Scan Time

 3. Cycle Time 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.53 According to Module, How many most essential components are present in the PLC Unit?

1. 3 2.5
3. 4 4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.54 __________considered as the brain of the PLC Unit.

1. Power Supply 2.I/O Module

3. CPU Module 4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.55 The Scan Time of the PLC is approximately_____________.

1. 1/100th of a second
2. 1/1000th of a second
3. 1/10000th of a second
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.56 Normally the current range of the analog input card is____________.

1. 0 to 10 ma
2. 0 to 20 ma
3. 0 to 40 ma
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.57 Abbreviate LVDT?

1. Linear Variable Differential Transmitter

2. Linear Voltage Differential Transformer
3. Linear Variable Differential Transformer
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.58 LVDT measures______________continuously using magnetic coupling.

 1. Angular displacement
2. Linear displacement
3. Both 1 & 2
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.59 NPN is considered as______________.

1. Sourcing 2.Sinking
3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.60 PNP is considered as______________.

1. Sinking 2. Sourcing
3. Either 1 or 2 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.61 For larger PLC, normally the input cards contain__________numbers of input.

1. 4 or 8 2. 8 or 16
3. 16 or 32 4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.62 Which one of these in not a type of PLC?

1. PAC 2. RTU
3. OME 4. None of these
ANS-3
Q.63 Abbreviate PAC?

1. Programmable Automatic Control

2. Programmable Automatic Controllers
3. Programmable Automation Controllers
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.64 According to the module PLC categorizes into____________types.

1. 4 2. 2
3. 3 4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.65 A typically small sized PLC contain___________Input/Output.

 1. 512 2. 500
3. 1024 4. None of these
ANS-2
Q.66 S7-300 normally called as____________sized PLC.

1. Large 2. Small
3. Medium 4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.67 Which one of these considered as the Large sized PLC?

1. S7-300 2. S7-500
3. S7-400 4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.68 Can a Standalone PLC able to provide networking?

1. Yes 2. No
3. Cannot say 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.69 Abbreviate PROFIBUS?

1. Program Field Bus

2. Process Field Bus
3. Process Fit Bus
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.70 Abbreviate PPI?

1. Port to Port Interface

2. Process to Process Interface
3. Point to Point Interface
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.71 PPI used for_____________.

1. S7-200 2. S7-300
3. S7-400 4. None of these

ANS-1
Q.72 Abbreviate MPI?

1. Memory Port Interface

2. Multi Point Interface
3. Modular PLC Interface
4. None of these
ANS-2
Q.73 MPI used for_____________.

1. S7-500 2. S7-300
3. S7-200 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.74 IFM stands for?

1. Intra-Face Module
2. Information Frequency Modulation
3. Inter-Facing Module
4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.75 IFM responsible for?

1. PC to PLC Communication
2. PLC to PLC Communication
3. PLC to Physical Load Communication
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.76 Typical (default) transmission speed of MPI is____________.

1. 157.5 Kbps 2. 187.5 Kbps

3. 287.5 Kbps 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.77 In “PROFIBUS-DP” DP stands for_______________.

1. Decentralize-Peripheral
2. Data-Peripheral
3. Driver-Peripheral
4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.78 In PROFIBUS-DP typical data transmission upto___________are possible.

1. 10 Mbps 2. 12 Mbps
3. 15 Mbps 4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.79 “DB” stands for?

1. Data Block
2. Data Base
3. Data BUS
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.80 Abbreviate FEPROM?

1. Flash External Programmable Read Only Memory

2. Flash Electrical Programmable Read Only Memory
3. Flash Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.81 FB stands for?

1. Function Bit
2. Function Block
3. Function BUS
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.82 Abbreviate “STEP-7”?

1. Siemens Technical Education Program-7

2. Siemens Technical Electrical Program-7
3. Siemens Technical Erasable Program-7
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.83 OB stands for?

1. Organization Band
 2. Organization Block
3. Organization BUS
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.84 Abbreviate RAM?

1. Rare Access Memory

2. Random Access Memory
3. Read Access Memory
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.85 SFC stands for?

1. Serial Function Chart

2. Sequential Function Chart
3. Set Function Chart
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.86 Errors occurring during program execution in the PLC______________.

1. Execution Error
2. Runtime Error
3. Programming Error
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.87 Abbreviate TIA?

1. Totally Input Automation

2. Totally Industrial Automation
3. Totally Integrated Automation
4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.88 Function Block Diagram (FBD) is a type of____________.

1. PLC Language 2. Block Diagram of a module

3. Block Diagram of a PLC model 4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.89 STL stands for?

1. Serial Task Language

2. Statement List
3. Serially Transferring the Load-value
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.90 Abbreviate CP?

1. Communication Processor
2. Communication Peripheral
3. Communication Properties
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.91 CAN BUS can be used for______________.

1. PC to PLC Communication
2. PLC to PLC Communication
3. Communication between different modules
4. None of these

ANS-2

Q.92 IN “PROFIBUS-PA” PA stands for?

1. Process Automation
2. Process Automatically
3. Product Automatically
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.93 Which one these among having more data transfer rate capacity?

1. PROFIBUS 2. PROFINET
3. CAN BUS 4. MOD BUS

ANS-2

Q.94 Abbreviate IEC?

1. International Electro technical Commission

 2. Indian Electro technical Commission
3. Indian Electronics technical Commission
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.95 FC stands for?

1. Function Call 2. Function Chart

3. Function Create 4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.96 By creating a Project using Ladder Logic “HW Config” stands for?

1. Hardware Configuration
2. Highest-Word Configuration
3. Either 1 or 2
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.97 Which one of these is not a type of PLC Language?

1. LAD 2. FDB
3. STL 4. None of these

ANS-4

Q.98 In the Hardware Configuration page “UR” stands for?

1. Universal Rail
2. Universal Reserved
3. Un-Reserved Rail
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.99 In “SM 323 DI 16/DO16*24Vdc” SM stands for?

1. Signal Module 2. Signal Mode

3. Safe Mode 4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.100 The Software uses for the PLC Programming mentioned in the course is_______________.
 1. Soft-Master
2. Rockwell Automation
3. Simatic Manager
4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.101 In MOVE Block “EN” stands for?

1. Enable Block
2. Enable output
3. Enable Input
4. None of these
ANS-3

Q.102 In “CV_BCD” BCD stands for?

1. Binary Coded Decimal

2. Bit Coded Decimal
3. Byte Coded Decimal
4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.103 The maximum value a counter count less than___________.

1. 999 2. 1000
3. 996 4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.104 How many possible comparisons can be made in between two variables?

1. 6 2. 5
3. 4 4. None of these
ANS-1

Q.105 In Simatic Manager the Comparator could be of______________.

1. 16 Bit type
2. 32 Bit type
3. Both 16 and 32 Bit type
4. None of these
ANS-3
Q.106 Abbreviate RLO?
 1. Result of Logic Operation
2. Relay Logic Operation
3. Result of Logical Operand
4. None of these
ANS-1
Q.107 “---| |---“symbol stands for_______________

1. Output Coil (Address)

2. Normally Closed Contact (Address)
3. Normally Open Contact (Address)
4. None of these
ANS-3
Q.108 MCR stands for?

1. Minimum Control Relay

2. Maximum Control Relay
3. Master Control Relay
4. None of these
ANS-3
Q.109 The line used in Ladder Language Programming is known as_______________.

1. Rung 2. Wrong
3. Ring 4. None of these

ANS-1
Q.110 Which one of these is a symbol for Midline Output?

1. --- ( ) 2. ---(S)
3. --- (#) --- 4. None of these

ANS-3

Q.111 POS stands for?

1. Address Priority Edge Detection

2. Address Positive Edge Detection
3. Address Possible Edge Detection
4. None of these
ANS-2
Q.112 How many comparison instructions are available?
 1. 16 2. 18
3. 20 4. None of these
ANS-2

Q.113 In Counter Instruction “SC” stands for?

1. Set Count Value

2. Set Counter Value
3. Serial Counter Value
4. None of these
ANS-2

Q.114 “S_ODTS” is a type of________________.

1. On-Delay Timer
2. Retentive On-Delay Timer
3. Timer with Off-Delay Function
4. None of these
ANS-2

Q.115 The maximum time value that you can enter is_______________.

1. 9,990 seconds
2. 9,999 seconds
3. 10,000 seconds
4. None of these

ANS-1

Q.115 In a Timer “BI” stands for?

1. Bit Integer
2. Binary Integer
3. Byte Integer
4. None of these
ANS-2
Q.116 “O(“ signifies that_______________.

1. Not with Nesting Open

2. Or with Nesting Open
3. ON with Nesting Open
 4. None of these
ANS-2
Q.117 In Comparator “D Compare Double Integer” is of_____________.

1. 16 Bit 2. 32 Bit
3. 64 Bit 4. None of these

Q.118 the “Statement List” instruction set supports______counters.

1. 255 2. 256
3. 260 4. None of these
ANS-2
Q.119 In “Statement List” instruction “LC” stands for?

1. Load Current Counter Value into ACCU 1 as BCD

2. Load Current Counter Value into ACCU 2 as BCD
3. Either 1 or 2
4. None of these
ANS-1
Q.120 The Ladder Logic instruction set supports__________timers.

1. 255 2. 256
3. 260 4. None of these
ANS-2

121.. Set-reset block is normally use for ?

A .inching operation b.latching

c .interlocking d. none of these

ANS- B

122. Analog to analog inverse conversion possible thorough?

a. move block b. subs tractor block

c. set rest block d. none of these

ANS-B

123. Analog to analog direct conversion possible thorough?

a. move block b. subs tractor block

c. set rest block d. none of these

ANS-A

124. Physical parameter like temp. ,speed ,prsessure value is consider as

a. integer b. double integer

c. real d. none of these

ANS-C

125. Why the plc-plc communication is needed?

a. to control the programming b. to control the no of field i/os.

c. to control the no of pc system d. none of these?

ANS-B

Thank you
 MCQ On
Unit No. 02
Interfacing of PLC
with I/O devices
Prepared By,
Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande
Department of Electrical Engineering
Zeal College of Engineering and Research, Pune
B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
Unit II – Interfacing of PLC with I/O devices

1. Which of the following can be the output of PLC?

1. Relay coils
2. Solenoids
3. Indicators
4. Motors
5. Lamps
6. Alarms
(a) Only (1), (2), (3) and (4) (b) Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)
(c) Only (1), (2), (3) and (5) (d) All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)

2. Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?

(a) Manual switches (b) Relays
(c) Sensors (d) None of the above

3. When _____ contacts are actuated, they disrupt the power supply through them.
(a) normally open type (b) normally closed type
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) none of the above

4. Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to:

(a) Analog output (b) Digital output
(c) Analog input (d) Digital input

5. Which one of the following is the example discrete (digital) control is

(a) Varying the volume of a music (b) Turning a lamp ON or OFF
system
(c) Varying the brightness of a lamp (d) Controlling the speed of a fan

6. Which of the following statements about a single pole double throw relay is NOT
true?
(a) It is called an SPDT type of relay. (b) It has one common contact.
(c) It has two positions (NC and NO). (d) It has a center off position.

7. The _____ is moved toward the relay electromagnet when the relay is on.
(a) Armature (b) Coil
(c) NO contact (d) NC contact

8. Which one of the following is an input device

(a) Motor (b) Light
(c) Valve (d) Sensor

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 1

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
9. The ____ represents the number of individual power circuits that can be switched
and ______ represents the number of states to which current can pass through the
switch
(a) Pole, Throw (b) Throw, Pole
(c) Switch, pole (d) None of the above

10. _____ type of proximity sensor is used to detect non – conductive material such as
cloth, paper and glass
(a) Inductive (b) Resistive
(c) Capacitive (d) None of the above

11. Which one of the following is the digital output device

(a) Relay (b) RTD
(c) Flow switch (d) Toggle switch

12. Which one of the following is the analog input devices

(a) Relay (b) Flow switch
(c) Solenoids (d) Temperature transducers

13. How is the speed of operation of conventional relay system as compared to digital
controllers?
(a) Very slow (b) Very fast
(c) Same (d) Can’t say

14. The capability of convention relay systems for complex operations is ___________ that
of the PLCs.
(a) as good as (b) excellent than
(c) poor than (d) unpredictable as

15. ____ is most commonly used metal in the construction of Resistance Temperature
Detector (RTD)
(a) Aluminum (b) Gold
(c) Copper (d) Platinum

16. ___ are used to sense the position of objects or material

(a) Flow switches (b) Solenoids
(c) Limit switches (d) Contactors.

17. ___ has selector knob which selects particular position

(a) Selector switch (b) Solenoid
(c) Push button (d) Relay

18. _______ converts electrical signal to mechanical signal

(a) Push button (b) Temperature switch
(c) Solenoid (d) Contactor

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 2

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
19. _______ is the active temperature transducer
(a) Bimetallic thermometer (b) Thermistor
(c) RTD (d) Thermocouple

20. Analog input devices communicate with PLC by sending standard ______signal
(a) 0 – 20 mA (b) 4 – 20 mA
(c) 0 – 10 mA (d) 2 – 4 mA
=======================================================

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 3

 MCQ On
Unit No. 03
Programming of
PLC
Prepared By,
Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande
Department of Electrical Engineering
Zeal College of Engineering and Research, Pune
B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
Unit III – Programming of PLC

1. In PLC programming, a retentive function is one that:

(a) Defaults to the “on” state (b) is not reset after a power cycle
(c) Defaults to the “off” state (d) Comes last in the program

2. An OR function implemented in ladder logic uses:

(a) Normally-closed contacts in (b) Normally-open contacts in series
series
(c) A single normally-closed contact (d) Normally-open contacts in parallel

3. AND function implemented in ladder logic uses:

(a) Normally-open contacts in (b) Normally-closed contacts in series
series
(c) A single normally-closed contact (d) Normally-open contacts in parallel

4. Which of the following is the programming language of the PLC

(a) Ladder Diagram (b) Structured List
(c) Functional Block Diagram (d) All of the above

5. Collection of 4 bits is ______

(a) Bit (b) Nibble
(c) Word (d) Byte

6. Collection of 8 bits is ______

(a) Bit (b) Nibble
(c) Word (d) Byte

7. Collection of 16 bits is ______

(a) Bit (b) Nibble
(c) Word (d) Byte

8. In ladder diagram, Horizontal lines are _______ and vertical lines are ______
(a) Rails and Rungs (b) Rungs and Rails
(c) Rung and Neutral Line (d) None of the above

9. ________instruction is a retentive output instruction that is used to maintain, or latch,

an output.
(a) OTL (b) OTU
(c) MOV (d) CTU

10. Each 16 bit contains ____bytes and _____nibbles

(a) 4,2 (b) 2,4
(c) 2,2 (d) 4,4

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 1

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
11. In the address given below
I:1.0/2

1 represents ________ and 2 represents _______

(a) Bit Number and Slot Number (b) Slot Number and word number
(c) Slot Number and Bit Number (d) word number and bit number

12. Maximum time delay provided by timer is ______ seconds

(a) 500 (b) 16000
(c) 32000 (d) 32767

13. ____ timer retains the accumulated value and measures the cumulative time period,
during which rung condition is true
(a) On delay (b) Retentive
(c) Off delay (d) None of the above

14. _____ counter counts pulses of kilohertz frequency and used for encoder
application.
(a) High Speed (b) Up counter
(c) Down counter (d) None of the above

15. File number_____ and ____ is default file for Timer and Counter respectively
(a) 5, 4 (b) 1, 4
(c) 4, 5 (d) 5, 1

16. The length of the time for which time is to run is called ______
(a) Timer address (b) Preset Value
(c) Time Base (d) Accumulated Value

17. In case of on delay timer, when accumulated value equals preset value, Which of the
following status bit will get set
(a) DN (b) TT
(c) EN (d) None of the above

18. Which of the following status bits will be in on condition (Set condition) in off delay
timer when the rung at which timer is connected becomes true
(a) Only DN bit (b) Only TT bit
(c) DN, EN bits (d) DN and TT bits

19. In case of off delay timer if rung is true which of the following status bits get set
(a) TT (b) DN
(c) EN (d) All of the above

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 2

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
20. In case of Up counter (CTU), Done bit is set when _________
(a) Accumulated value is less than (b) Accumulated value is greater than
preset value preset value
(c) Accumulated value is greater (d) None of the above
than or equal to preset value

=======================================================

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 3

 MCQ On
Unit No. 04
Advance function
and application of
PLC
Prepared By,
Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande
Department of Electrical Engineering
Zeal College of Engineering and Research, Pune
B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
Unit IV: Advance function and application of PLC

1. PID controller is also known as ______

(a) Three term controllers (b) Proportional controller
(c) Two term controllers (d) Four term controllers

2. In PID controller, the overshoots have increased. The derivative time constant has
to be ____ so, as to reduce the overshoot
(a) Reduced to Zero (b) Increased
(c) Reduced (d) None of the above

3. In PID controller, the overshoots have increased. The integral time constant has to
be ____ so, as to reduce the overshoot
(a) Increased (b) Reduced
(c) Reduced to Zero (d) None of the above

4. Which of the following system provides excellent transient and steady state
response
(a) Proportional + differential action (b) Proportional +integral + differential
action
(c) Proportional action (d) Proportional + integral action

5. A typical PLC analog input or output signal have voltage that vary between ____ and,
or current that may vary between _______
(a) 0 to 5 volts and 0 to 10 mA (b) 0 to 10 volts and 0 to 5 mA
(c) 0 to 20 volts and 0 to 10 mA (d) 0 to 10 volts and 0 to 20 mA

6. The cheapest starter for induction motor is

(a) Stator resistance starter (b) Star-delta starter
(c) Autotransformer starter (d) Rotor resistance starter

7. Windings of star-delta starter while starting and during running are connected in
(a) Delta, delta (b) Star, star
(c) Delta, star (d) Star, delta

8. The advantages of star-delta starter over other types of starter is

(a) Cheapest of all (b) Maintenance free
(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these

9. The derivative control action is typically used when controlling, but rarely used
when controlling.
(a) Temperature, Flow (b) Flow, Level
(c) pH, Temperature (d) Level, Flow

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 1

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
10. Overload relays are of ________ type.
(a) Solid state (b) Thermal
(c) Electromagnetic (d) All of the above

11. In PID controller, the overshoot has increased. The derivative time constant has to
be ____ so as to reduce overshoots
(a) Reduced to Zero (b) Increased
(c) Reduced (d) None of the above

12. In PID controller, the offset has increased. The integral time constant has to be ____
so as to reduce offset
(a) Reduced (b) Reduced to zero
(c) Increased (d) None of the above

13. When derivative action is included in a proportional controller, the proportional

band:
(a) Remains unchanged (b) Increases
(c) Reduces (d) None of the above

14. Role of proportional controller depends on prediction of ________ error

(a) Past error (b) Future error
(c) Present error (d) None of the above

15. In proportional temperature controller, if the quantity under the heater increases
the offset will _____
(a) Reduces (b) Increases
(c) Remains unaffected (d) None of the above

16. The integral control _______

(a) Decreases the damping (b) Increases the steady state error
coefficient
(c) Increases noise and stability (d) Decreases the steady state error

17. Increase in the _____ provides faster response and reduces offset
(a) Ki (b) Kd
(c) Kp (d) None of the above

18. Increase in the ____ will reduce overshoot

(a) Proportional time constant (Tp) (b) Derivative time constant (Td)
(c) Integral time constant (Ti) (d) None of the above

19. The role of differential controller depends on prediction of _____ error

(a) Only present error (b) Only past error
(c) Only future error (d) None of the above

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 2

B.E. Electrical (PLC SCADA) Department of Electrical Engineering, ZES, ZCOER
=================================================================
20. _______ is the current measured value of particular process
(a) Process variable (b) Set point
(c) Controlled variable (d) None of the above

21. _______ action is used to make offset error zero

(a) Integral gain (b) Proportional gain
(c) Derivative gain (d) Both b and c

22. Which of the following statement is true?

1. Integral controller is proportional to both magnitude of error and duration
of error.
2. Integral controller is sum of the instantaneous error over time.
3. Integral controller can eliminate steady state error but it can have large
transient response.
(a) Statement (1) and (2) (b) Statement (2) and (3)
(c) Only statement (1) (d) All of the above

23. PID controllers are used _________

(a) To increase stability and (b) To decrease stability and to increase
decrease steady state error steady state error
(c) To decrease stability and (d) None of the above
decrease steady state error

24. Which of the following statement is true?

When only proportional controller is used
1. System has low offset.
2. System is fast to change in setpoint
3. Increase in the Kp, reduces the offset and minimize the response time
(a) Only statement (3) (b) Only statement (2)
(c) Statement (1) and (3) (d) Statement (1) and (2)
=======================================================

Prepared by, Prof. Chaitanya Deshpande 3

11/24/2020 PLC Applications
PLC & SCADA & SCADA MCQ
(Mock Insem Test)
Unit- 1, 2 & 3

Q.1) Which of the following statements is correct? 1 point

Ladder logic is a PLC graphical programming technique introduced in the last 10

years.

A ladder logic program is hard to analyze because it is totally different when

compared with the equivalent relay logic solution.

The number of ladder logic virtual relays and input and output instructions is limited
only by memory size.

The number of contacts for a mechanical relay is limited to number of coils on the
relay.

Q.2) Which of the following statements is NOT correct? 1 point

The status of each input can be checked from one location and outputs can be forced
on and off.

All symbols in the RLL represent actual components and contacts present in the
control system.

PLCs are not as reliable as electromechanical relays in RLL.

Input (-| |-) and output (- ( ) -) instruction symbols in the ladder logic represent only
data values stored in PLC memory.

Q.3) Hardwire control means 1 point

Controlling the hardware with the help of software

Controlling the plant with relays contactors etc without any programmable controller

Controlling the plant with relays contactors etc with programmable controller

None

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.4) PLCs that have a fixed amount of I/O capability built into the unit are 1 point
known as:

Rack PLCs

Monolithic PLCs

Modular PLCs

None of these

Q.5) Which is not the part of Analog output module 1 point

DAC

Signal conditioning circuit

DEMUX

None of above

Q.6) The part that monitors the inputs and makes decisions in a PLC is the 1 point
CPU.

True

False

None of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.7) The first company to build PLCs was . 1 point

General Motors

Allen Bradley

Square D

Modicon

Q.8) Which is not the selections Criteria of PLC 1 point

Memory Space

Training & Documentation

Scan Time

None of above

Q.9) Which is not PLC Disadvantage 1 point

New and Advanced technology

Fail-Safe Operation

Mouldability in nature

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.10) The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data 1 point
which are immediately required for use is called as______.

ROM

RAM

SSD

HDD

Q.11) Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC? 1 point

Manual switches

Relays

Sensors

None of the above

Q.12) Solenoids, lamps, motors are connected to: 1 point

Analog output.

Digital output.

Analog input.

Digital input.

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.13) To increase the number of inputs and outputs of the PLC, one can 1 point

use expansion modules.

True

False

None of the above.

Q.14) One of the following is an input device 1 point

Motor

Light

Valve

Sensor

Q.15) Very often relays and valves are connected to: 1 point

Input modules

Output modules

Any of these

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.16) An example of discrete (digital) control is: 1 point

Varying the brightness of a lamp

Controlling the speed of a fan

Turning a lamp ON or OFF

Varying the volume of a music system

Q.17) which is not output analog device 1 point

Stepper motor

Solenoid valve

Servo motor

Servo valves

Q.18) Which of the following can be the output of PLC? 1. Relay coils 2. 1 point
Solenoids valve 3. Indicators 4. Sensor 5. Lamps 6. Alarms Select correct
option

Only (1), (2), (3) , (5) and (6)

Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)

Only (1), (2), (3) and (5)

All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.19) Which is Displacement transducer 1 point

Potentiometer

Thermocouple

RTD

None

Q.20) Inductive Proximity sensors work with 1 point

metallic materials

non metallic materials

Both a & b

none of the above

Q.21) Which of the following is not programming languages of PLC 1 point

Ladder diagram

Sequential Function Charts

Function Block Diagram

Structured Text

None of above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.22) Which of the following is not true about MCR 1 point

This instruction can be used as an emergency stop

It must be placed on the right side of the rung

Every MCR instruction is used in the pair

Nested MCR instructions are not allowed in the ladder diagram

Q.23) The plc special function used to count the number of cans on a 1 point
conveyer belt is

timer

memory

counter

Q.24) When the input contact that enables a retentive timer (RTO) is 1 point

opened, the accumulated value in the timer will _______

reset (go to zero).

freeze (remain at its present value)

go to an undetermined value and the timer must be reset manually

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.25) An OR function implemented in ladder logic uses: 1 point

Normally-closed contacts in series

Normally-open contacts in series

A single normally-closed contact

Normally-open contacts in parallel

Normally-closed contacts in parallel

Q.26) A good application for a timed interrupt in a PLC program would be: 1 point

A communications function block

A PID function block

A math function block

A motor start/stop rung

A “watchdog” timer

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.27) The Boolean representation of this PLC program is: 1 point

ABC + D

C + (A + B)D

C + D(A + B)

ABC + BD

C(AB + D)

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.28) Identify the problem in this motor control PLC program: 1 point

Coil

Start contact

Seal-in contact

Stop contact

Power source

Q.29) The symbol -(L)- represent what instruction in the PLC language? 1 point

OUT output unlatch instruction.

OTL output latch instruction.

Examine off instruction.

Output energize instruction.

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Test)

Q.30) In a counter instruction if the accumulator value becomes greater 1 point

than or equal to the preset value then which of the following is true?

CU bit goes on

DN bit goes on

Both CU and DN bits go on

None of the above

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

5. Q.1) The PLCs were originally designed to replace..

Mark only one oval.

Analog controllers

DCS

Microcomputers

Hardwired control

6. Q.2) Which one of the following is not a PLC manufacturer

Mark only one oval.

Siemens

Mitsubishi

Microsoft

ABB

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

7. Q.3) The acronym PLC stands for:

Mark only one oval.

Pressure Load Control

Programmable Logic Controller

Pneumatic Logic Capstan

PID Loop Controller

Pressure Loss Chamber

8. Q.4) The capability of convention relay systems for complex operations is ___________ that of the PLCs

Mark only one oval.

poor than

excellent than

as good as

unpredictable as

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

9. Q.5) _____ of PLCs can be done in very little time.

Mark only one oval.

Programming

Installation

Commissioning

All of the above

10. Q.6) The PLC is used in _______.

Mark only one oval.

machine tools

automated assembly equipment

moulding and extrusion machines

all of the above

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

11. Q.7) Which is not the selections Criteria of PLC

Mark only one oval.

Scan Time

Training & Documentation

Fail Safe Operation

Memory Space

12. Q.8) Which is not the component of Analog Input Module

Mark only one oval.

CPU

Signal Conditioning Circuit

DAC

Multiplexer

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

13. Q.9) Which is not PLC Disadvantage

Mark only one oval.

New and Advanced technology

Fail-Safe Operation

Mouldability in nature

None

14. Q.10) PLCs that have a fixed amount of I/O capability built into the unit are known as:

Mark only one oval.

Rack PLCs

Monolithic PLCs

Modular PLCs

None of these

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15. Q.11) An example of discrete (digital) control is:

Mark only one oval.

Varying the volume of a music system

Turning a lamp ON or OFF

Varying the brightness of a lamp

Controlling the speed of a fan

16. Q.12) Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?

Mark only one oval.

Manual switches

Relays

Sensors

None of the above

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

17. Q.13) Encoders used in

Mark only one oval.

Electrical Drive technology

Printing Industry

Machine tool Industry

All of the above

18. Q.14) Limit Switchs is

Mark only one oval.

mechanical device

electrical device

electromechnical device

none of the above

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

19. Q.15) Hydraulic Actuators can measure pressure upto

Mark only one oval.

1000 psi

2000 psi

3500 psi

4000 psi

20. Q.16) Solenoid Valve is

Mark only one oval.

mechanical device

electrical device

electromechnical device

none of the above

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

21. Q.17) Flow and level sensors is

Mark only one oval.

Discrete output device

Analog input device

output analog device

none of the above

22. Q.18) Which of the following can be the output of PLC? 1. Relay coils 2. Solenoids valve 3. Indicators 4. Sensor 5.
Lamps 6. Alarms Select correct option

Mark only one oval.

Only (1), (2), (3) , (5) and (6)

Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)

Only (1), (2), (3) and (5)

All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

23. Q.19) Which is Displacement transducer

Mark only one oval.

Potentiometer

RTD

Thermocouple

None

24. Q.20) which is not output analog device

Mark only one oval.

Servo motor

Solenoid valve

Stepper motor

Servo valves

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

25. Q.21) For PLC’s scan cycle which one is correct?

Mark only one oval.

Program execute Output write Input read

Input read Output write Program execute

Output write Input read Program execute

Input read Program execute Output write

26. Q.22) Programming language for PLC is..

Mark only one oval.

Function Block Diagram (FBD)

Statement list (STL)

Ladder

All of the above.

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

27. Q.23) The address T4:6.ACC is used to address what?

Mark only one oval.

Accumulator for timer 4 in file 6.

Preset value of timer 6 in file 4.

Accumulator for timer 6 in file 4.

Accumulator for counter 6 in file 4.

28. Q.24) To reset the time for a PLC what condition must be true?

Mark only one oval.

Reset rung of TON must be true.

Reset rung of TON must be false.

RST instruction with timer address must be true.

RST instruction with associated timer address must be false.

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

29. Q.25) The symbol -(L)- represent what instruction in the PLC language?

Mark only one oval.

OUT output unlatch instruction.

OTL output latch instruction.

Examine off instruction.

Output energize instruction.

30. Q.26) Which of the following is not true about MCR

Mark only one oval.

This instruction can be used as an emergency stop

It must be placed on the right side of the rung

Every MCR instruction is used in the pair

Nested MCR instructions are not allowed in the ladder diagram

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

31. Q.27) When the input contact that enables a retentive timer (RTO) is opened, the accumulated value in the timer
will _______

Mark only one oval.

reset (go to zero).

freeze (remain at its present value)

go to an undetermined value and the timer must be reset manually

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

32. Q.28) The Boolean representation of this PLC program is:

Mark only one oval.

ABC + D

C + (A + B)D

C + D(A + B)

ABC + BD

C(AB + D)

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

33. Q.29) Identify the problem in this motor control PLC program:

Mark only one oval.

Start contact

Seal-in contact

Stop contact

Power source

Coil

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11/10/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications (Mock Insem Re-Test for Failed Students)

34. Q.30) In a counter instruction if the accumulator value becomes greater than or equal to the preset value then
which of the following is true?

Mark only one oval.

CU bit goes on

DN bit goes on

Both CU and DN bits go on

None of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

7. Q.2) One of the following is an input device

Mark only one oval.

Motor

Light

Valve

Sensor

8. Q.3) Which one of the following is not a PLC manufacturer

Mark only one oval.

Siemens

Mitsubishi

Microsoft

ABB

9. Q.4) The acronym PLC stands for:

Mark only one oval.

Pressure Load Control

Programmable Logic Controller

Pneumatic Logic Capstan

PID Loop Controller

Pressure Loss Chamber

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10. Q.5) The capability of convention relay systems for complex operations is
___________ that of the PLCs .

Mark only one oval.

poor than

excellent than

as good as

unpredictable as

11. Q.6) _____ of PLCs can be done in very little time.

Mark only one oval.

Programming

Installation

Commissioning

All of the above

12. Q.7) The PLC is used in _______.

Mark only one oval.

machine tools

automated assembly equipment

moulding and extrusion machines

all of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

13. Q.8) In a PLC the scan time refers to the amount of time in which___

Mark only one oval.

the technician enters the program

timers and counters are indexed by

one rung of ladder logic takes to complete

the entire program takes to execute

transmitted data communications must finish

14. Q.9)The type of memory which is fast and temporarily stores the data which are
immediately required for use is called as______.

Mark only one oval.

HDD

ROM

RAM

SSD

15. Q.10) Medium PLC has…….. inputs and outputs

Mark only one oval.

100-200

1000-4000

2000-4000

4000-8000

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

16. Q.11) Which is not the component of Analog Input Module

Mark only one oval.

CPU

Signal Conditioning Circuit

DAC

Multiplexer

17. Q.12) Which is not the selections Criteria of PLC

Mark only one oval.

Scan Time

Memory Space

Training & Documentation

None of above

18. Q.13) Which is not the component of PLC

Mark only one oval.

Input Module

Power supply

CPU

Push buttons

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

19. Q.14) Which is not PLC Advantage

Mark only one oval.

Cost effective

Fail Safe operation

Ease of Maintenance

Mouldability or Flexible in nature

20. Q.15) Which is not benefits of Automation

Mark only one oval.

Productivity

Quality

Unsuitable for Fixed Industry Applications

Improvement in the processes

21. Q.16) An example of discrete (digital) control is:

Mark only one oval.

Varying the volume of a music system

Turning a lamp ON or OFF

Varying the brightness of a lamp

Controlling the speed of a fan

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

22. Q.17) Which is not output analog device

Mark only one oval.

Servo motor

Stepper motor

Solenoid valve

Variable frequency Drives

23. Q.18) Which of the following can be the output of PLC?1. Relay coils 2. Solenoids 3.
Indicators 4. Motors 5. Lamps 6. Alarms Select correct option

Mark only one oval.

Only (1), (2), (3) and (4)

Only (3), (4), (5) and (6)

Only (1), (2), (3) and (5)

All the (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (6)

24. Q.19) Which of the following cannot be an input that is given to the PLC?

Mark only one oval.

Manual switches

Relays

Sensors

None of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

25. Q.20) Which is Displacement transducer

Mark only one oval.

LVDT

Potentiometer

Both a and b

RTD

None of the above

26. Q.21) which is not pressure transducer

Mark only one oval.

Strain Gauges

Load cells

Bourdon tubes

Encoder

27. Q.22) Encoders used in............

Mark only one oval.

Electrical Drive technology

Printing Industry

Machine tool Industry

All of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

28. Q.23) Inductive Proximity sensors work with

Mark only one oval.

non metallic materials

metallic materials

Both a & b

none of the above

29. Q.24) Limit Switch is...............

Mark only one oval.

mechanical device

electrical device

electromechnical device

none of the above

30. Q.25) Which is not the thermal transducers

Mark only one oval.

Thermocouples

thermister

RTD

Potentiometer

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31. Q.26) Hydraulic Actuators can measure pressure upto......

Mark only one oval.

1000 psi

2000 psi

3500 psi

4000 psi

32. Q.27) Solenoid Valve is......

Mark only one oval.

mechanical device

electrical device

electromechnical device

none of the above

33. Q.28) Flow and level sensors is ........

Mark only one oval.

Discrete output device

Analog input device

output analog device

none of the above

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11/24/2020 PLC & SCADA Applications

34. Q.29) Which is the example of discrete output device

Mark only one oval.

Horn

Solenoid valve

Indication Lamp

All of above

35. Q.30) Which is not the advantage of Electrical Actuators

Mark only one oval.

Use for high accuracy with high precision

Easily programmed and networked

use to control position, velocity, torque

Applications involves areas of extreme temperature

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 PLC & SCADA MCQ

Unit-4

1. What is the relationship between the steady-state error, gain and the tendency of
oscillations when the controller is supposed to be under the proportional action?

a. Steady-state error increases with an increase in gain and oscillation tendency

b. Steady-state error decreases with the decrease in gain and oscillation tendency

c. Steady-state error decreases with an increase in gain and oscillation tendency

d. Steady-state error increases with the decrease in gain and oscillation tendency

2. The input of a controller is

a) Sensed signal
b) Error signal
c) Desired variable value
d) Signal of fixed amplitude not dependent on desired variable value
View Answer

3. Phase lag controller:

a) Improvement in transient response
b) Reduction in steady state error
c) Reduction is settling time
d) Increase in damping constant

4. Addition of zero at origin:

a) Improvement in transient response
b) Reduction in steady state error
c) Reduction is settling time
d) Increase in damping constant

5. 4. Derivative output compensation:

a) Improvement in transient response
b) Reduction in steady state error
c) Reduction is settling time
d) Increase in damping constant

6. Derivative error compensation:

a) Improvement in transient response
b) Reduction in steady state error
c) Reduction is settling time
d) Increase in damping constant

7. Lag compensation leads to:

a) Increases bandwidth
b) Attenuation
c) Increases damping factor
 d) Second order

8. Lead compensation leads to:

a) Increases bandwidth
b) Attenuation
c) Increases damping factor
d) Second order

9. Lag-lead compensation is a:
a) Increases bandwidth
b) Attenuation
c) Increases damping factor
d) Second order

10. Rate compensation :

a) Increases bandwidth
b) Attenuation
c) Increases damping factor
d) Second order

11. Negative exponential term in the equation of the transfer function causes the
transportation lag.
a) True
b) False
View Answer

12. The derivative control action is typically used when controlling, but rarely used when
controlling.
(A) Temperature, Flow
(B) Flow, Level
(C) pH, Temperature
(D) Level, Temperature
(E) Level, Flow

13) processes always require some degree of control action to achieve setpoint.
(A) Integrating, Derivative
(B) Integrating, Feedforward
(C) Self-regulating, Proportional
(D) Runaway, Linear
(E) Self-regulating, Integral

14) The reciprocal of proportional band is called:

(A) Reset
(B) Percent
(C) Minutes per repeat
(D) Gain
(E) Rate
15) “Quarter-wave damping” may be described as:
(A) a condition of good control where PV approaches SP without overshoot
(B) a condition of poor control where oscillations continue at constant amplitude
(C) a condition of poor control where the transmitter is damped by 25%
(D) a condition of good control where oscillations quickly subside
(E) a condition of excellent control where there are no oscillations

16) Reset control action is often expressed in units of:

(A) percent
(B) seconds per rate
(C) minutes
(D) time constant ratio (unitless)
(E) repeats per minute

17) The open-loop response of a process is shown in the following trend. What sort of process is
indicated by this behavior?

(A) Integrating
(B) Proportional
(C) Linear
(D) Direct-acting
(E) Self-regulating

18) A condition where integral control action drives the output of a controller into saturation is
called:
(A) self-bias
(B) wind-up
(C) repeat
(D) noise
(E) offset

19) Fast, self-regulating processes typically respond well to aggressive control action.
(A) Nonlinear
(B) Derivative
(C) Proportional
(D) Reset
(E) Gain

20) Process variable filtering should be used:

(A) to dampen noise
(B) only on integrating processes
(C) to improve response time
(D) only on self-regulating processes
(E) never

21) The quarter-amplitude decay ratio is basically a design criteria specified by Zeigler-Nichols
method implies that the amplitude of an oscillation must be reduced by a factor of __________

a. four over a whole period

b. four over an half period
c. four over a quarter period
d. four over a quarter and a half period

Q22. While using stator resistance starter with 3 phase induction motor, the resistances of the
starter are kept at

a. Maximum
b. Minimum
c. Half of the maximum value
d. None of these

Q23. An autotransformer starter is suitable for

a. Star connected induction motor

b. Delta connected induction motor
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these

Q24. The cheapest starter for induction motor is

a. Stator resistance starter

b. Autotransformer starter
c. Star-delta starter
d. Rotor resistance starter

Q25. Windings of star-delta starter while starting and during running are connected in

a. Star, delta
b. Delta, delta
c. Star, star
d. Delta, star
Q26. The advantages of star-delta starter over other types of starter is

a. Cheapest of all
b. Maintenance free
c. Both (a) & (b)
d. None of these

Q27. When rotor resistance starter is used with induction motor then

a. Only starting current is limited

b. Only starting torque is limited
c. Both starting current and starting torque are limited
d. Neither starting current nor starting torque is limited

Q28. Direct online starter also called D.O.L. starter is used for motors having capacity

a. Less than 5 h.p.

b. Less than 10 h.p.
c. Greater than 10 h.p.
d. For any capacity motor

Q29. The NO contact and NC contact of D.O.L. starter is normally

a. Open, closed
b. Closed, open
c. Open, open
d. Closed, closed

Q30. In textile machines, to avoid breaking of threads, soft starters are used. The commonly used
method in soft starter is

a. Direct online method

b. Star-delta method
c. Thyristor voltage controller method
d. Thyristor current controller method

Q31) The overload release protects the motor against

a. Over voltage
b. Over current
c. Over load
d. All of these
Q.32) If an induction motor is initially connected in delta and then reconnected in star then the
current drawn will become

a. Thrice of the current drawn when connected in delta

b. Twice of the current drawn when connected in delta
c. One third of the current drawn when connected in delta
d. Half of the current drawn when connected in delta

Q.33) For controlling the initial inrush current,

a. Reduced voltage is applied to the stator during the starting period

b. Reduced voltage is applied to the stator when the motor is running at rated speed
c. Either (a) or (b)
d. None of these

Q.34) A bimetal strip, in a thermal relay, consist of two metal strips of different
A. Specific heat
B. Thermal conductivity
C. Coefficients of expansion
D. All of the above

Q.35) Thermal relays are used for protection of motors against over current owing to
A. Short circuits
B. Heavy loads
C. Earth fault
D. All of the above

Q.36) Thermal relay are often employed in

A. Motor starters
B. Transformer protection
C. Generator protection
D. None of the above

Q.37) The concept of V/f control of inverters driving induction motors resuls in
a) constant torque operation
b) speed reversal
c) reduced magnetic loss
d) hormonic elimination

Q.38) VFD work with which of the following motors

a) Single phase AC motors

b) Three phase AC motors
c) DC motors
d) B and C are correct but not A
Q.39) The setting for the speed a VFD is known as which of the following

a) Set point
b) Control point
c) Reference
d) Speed point

Q.40) An embedded ________ governs the overall operation ofthe VFD controller.

A. Reduced instruction set computer

B. Central processing unit

C. 64-bit

D. Microprocessor

Q.41) If a single VFD operates 3 motors, which of the following must be remembered?

A. It must be connected in a Master/Slave arrangement.

B. The VFD must use a Cascade Controller Card.

C. An RS-485 connection must be made between the VFD and motors.

D. Each of the 3 motors must have overload protection.

E. All of the above are required.

Q.42) A fan, using a VFD, is described as a Closed Loopcontrol arrangement. Which of the
following must alwaysbe programmed in the VFD?

A. A sensor must be wired to the VFD monitoring the feedback signal.

B. The VFD must be given a setpoint.

C. A Derivative setting must always be programmed.

D. A and B are correct but not C.

E. All three answers, A, B and C are correct.

 PLC & SCADA MCQ

Unit- 5 & 6

1. What is the full form of SCADA?

a) Supervisory Control and Document Acquisition
b) Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition
c) Supervisory Column and Data Assessment
d) Supervisory Column and Data Assessment
2. DCS is a __________________
a) Distributed Control System
b) Data Control System
c) Data Column System
d) Distributed Column System
3. What is SCADA?
a) Software
b) Process
c) System
d) Hardware
4. The control in SCADA is _____________
a) Online control
b) Direct control
c) Supervisory control
d) Automatic control
5. When did the SCADA start?
a) 1980s
b) 1990s
c) 1970s
d) 1960s
6. How many levels are present in a complex SCADA system?
a) 3 – levels
b) 5 – levels
c) 4 – levels
d) 6 – levels
7. Which of the following is not the component of a SCADA system?
a) Database server
b) I/O system
c) PLC controller
d) Sparger controller
8. Which of the following is the heart of a SCADA system?
a) PLC
b) HMI
c) Alarm task
d) I/O task
 9. SCADA is
a) Real time data acquisition and processing
b) Data storing
c) Data monitoring and control
d) All above

10. Componenets of a traditional SCADA system

a) RTU
b) Central station
c) Communication system
d) All above

11. Components of a modern SCADA system

a) Field Devices

b) Controllers, remote I/Os and Distributed I/Os

c) HMI, SCADA servers/ clients

d) All of above

12) How many levels in a complex SCADA system

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

13) Why does SCADA software can communicate with many kinds of PLCs

a) SCADA software flexibly contents many device drivers

b) SCADA software fixes many device drivers

c) SCADA software supports popular PLC drivers

d) SCADA software supports popular field devices

14) Design tool of SCADA package is dedicated for

a) Project configuration and programming

b) Project running

c) System database
d) field device engineering

15) Runtime engine of SCADA Package is dedicated for

a) Project configuration and programming

b) Project running

c) PLC programming

d) field device engineering

16) SCADA system should have

a) HMI

b) Alarm processing

c) Data log

d) all above

17) Elements of SCADA systems

a) Graphical display

b) Tags

c) Alarms

d) Trends

18) Faut tolerance of SCADA system is

a) Ability to connect with many I/O devices

b) ability to recover communication connection

c) ability to manage and coordinate system errors

d) Ability to restart running application

19) Typical tasks in SCADA systems

a) I/Os, Alarms, Trends,Reports,Displays

b) I/Os , PLCs, Servers, clients

c) RTU, MTU, communication systems

d) HMIs and PLCs

20) Alarm task is

a) Server

b) client

c) client and server

d) None of the above

21) I/Os, Alarms, Trends, Reports servers, Displays clients

a) can run on one computer

b) I/Os, Alarms, Trends, Reports servers run on a computer, displays clients runs on another computers

c) I/Os server runs on a computer and another servers and clients run on another computers

d) all of above

22) DCS and SCADA

a) DCS is process oriented, SCADA is data acquisition oriented

b) SCADA is process oriented, DCS is data acquisition oriented

c) DCS is object oriented, SCADA is structure oriented

d) DCS is machine oriented, SCADA is process oriented

23) Engineering in SCADA are

a) PLC, PAC programming

b) field device and I/O configuration

c) SCADA programming

d) all above

24) DCS system need

a) DCS server

b) Engineering stations

c) SCADA server/clients and PLCs

d) All above

25) SCADA and DCS

a) SCADA can connect to many kinds of PLCs

b) DCS can connect to many kinds of PLCs

c) SCADA can connect to OPC clients

d) DCS can connect to OPC clients

26) Which of the following is not element of SCADA:

a) Communication

b) Master Terminal Units

c) Micro Terminal Units (MTU)

d) RTUs/PLCs

27) All of the following are true, except for:

a) RTU means Remote Terminal Unit

b) RTU means Remote Telemetry Units

c) RTUs are electronic devices with intelligent microprocessor

d) All of the above are true

28) All of the following are true, except for:

a) PLC stands for Programmable Logic Controller

b) PLC stands for Programmable Logistic Controller

c) PLC controls manufacturing process

d) PLC is an industrial digital computer that replaced traditional relays

29) Which of the following are components of SCADA

a) Operator
b) HMI / MMI
c) MTU
d) Communication methods
e) RTU
f) All of above

30) Communication architecture in SCADA systems

a) Master slave configuration(point to point)

b) Multi drop configuration
c) Hierarchical configuration
d) None of above
e) All of above

31) Properties of SCADA systems

 a) Adequacy or capability of system
b) Security issue
c) Compliance and regulatory
d) Standards and quality
e) All of above

32) Which of the following is not scada features

a) Easy to interface with users

b) GUIs
c) Alarms
d) Trending
e) RTUs interface supports
f) Flexibility in terms of scaling
g) Data access support
h) Database connectivity
i) Networking support
j) None of above

33) Which of the following is not the advantage of the SCADA SYSTEM?

a) Data logging
b) Data display
c) Real time simulation
d) Complex system

34) which are the function of application layer of OSI model

a) file transfer

b) network management

c) provide access to e-mail service

d) all of above

35) which layer of OSI model do encryption, decryption and compression of information or data

a) Application layer

b) presentation layer

c) session layer

d) transport layer

e) network layer
36) which layer of OSI model establish the network sessions by synchronizing and sequencing the data
and packets in the network communication.

a) Application layer

b) presentation layer

c) session layer

d) transport layer

e) network layer

37) TCP/IP has………….layer architecture

a) five

b) three

c) four

d) seven

38) which SCADA protocol used for the communication between the control devices

a) TCP/IP

b) DNP3

c) EtherNet

d) MODBUS

39) which among the following is true for DNP3 Protocol

a) recording of sequence of events, DNP3 supports stamped time messages

b) provide optimum error control and user defined objects

c) allows multiple communication topology and peer to peer topology

d) provide secure file transfer

e) all of above

40) which SCADA protocol defines for establishment of communication between the PLC to PLC, PLC to
other devicefor the detection and reporting of the errors over network

a) TCP/IP

b) Device Net

c) MODBUS
d) CIP

41) …………is a communication standard used to link various industrial I/O devices such as various types
of sensors, readers, drives, displays and operator interface over a network to avoid hardwiring of these
devices

a) Device Net

b) CIP

c) EtherNet

d) FFB

42) Profibus consists of…………..Layers

a) three

b) four

c) five

d) six

43) ………..specifically used for the real time control applications and based on the topologies of multi-
master and multi-slave networks

a) MODBUS

b) FFB

c) Profibus

d) EtherNet
Q.Thepar
tthatmoni
tor
sthei
nput
sandmakesdeci
sionsi
naPLCi
stheCPU.
a.True
b.False

c.Noneoft
heabov
e

Q.Oneoft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
sani
nputdev
ice
a.Mot
or

b.Li
ght

c.Val
ve

d.Sensor

Q.Whi
choneoft
hef
oll
owi
ngi
snotaPLCmanuf
act
urer
a.Si
emens

b.Mi
tsubi
shi

c.Micr
osof
t
d.ABB

Q.Theacronym PLCstandsfor:
(
A)PressureLoadControl
(
B)Programmabl eLogi
cControl
ler
(
C)Pneumat i
cLogicCapstan
(
D)PIDLoopCont rol
ler
(
E)PressureLossChamber

Q.Thecapabi
l
ityofconv
ent
ionr
elaysy
stemsf
orcompl
exoper
ati
onsi
s__
___
___
___t
hatoft
hePLCs.

a.
 poorthan
b.
 excell
entthan
c.
 asgoodas
d.
 unpredict
ableas

Q.
 _
___
_ofPLCscanbedonei
nver
yli
tt
let
ime.
a.Pr
ogr
ammi
ng

b.I
nst
all
ati
on

c.Commi
ssi
oni
ng

d.Al
loft
heabov
e
Q.
 ThePLCi
susedi
n__
___
__.
a.machi
net
ool
s

b.aut
omat
edassembl
yequi
pment

c.moul
dingandext
rusi
onmachi
nes

d.al
loft
heabov
e

Q.I
naPLC, thescantimer eferstotheamountofti
mei
nwhi
ch….
.
(
A)thetechnici
anentersthepr ogr
am
(
B)ti
mer sandcountersareindexedby
(
C)one“rung”ofladderlogictakestocomplete
(
D)theentir
eprogram takestoexecute
(
E)tr
ansmi t
teddatacommuni cati
onsmustfini
sh

Q. 
Thety
peofmemorywhi
chi
sfastandt
empor
ari
l
yst
orest
hedat
awhi
char
eimmedi
atel
yrequi
redf
or
usei
scal
ledas_
___
__.

a.
 HDD
b.
 ROM
c.
 RAM
d.
 SSD

Q.Medi
um PLChas…….
.input
sandout
put
s

100-
200

1000-
4000

2000-
4000

4000-
8000

Q.Whi
chi
snott
hecomponentofAnal
ogI
nputModul
e

a)CPU

b)Si
gnal
Condi
ti
oni
ngCi
rcui
t

c)DAC

d)Mul
ti
plexer

Q)Whi
chi
snott
hesel
ect
ionsCr
it
eri
aofPLC
a)ScanTi
me

b)Memor
ySpace

c)Tr
aini
ng&Document
ati
on

d)Noneofabov
e

Q.Whi
chi
snott
hecomponentofPLC

a)I
nputModul
e

b)Powersuppl
y

c)CPU

d)Pushbut
tons

Q.Whi
chi
snotPLCAdv
ant
age

Q.Whi
chi
snotbenef
it
sofAut
omat
ion

Q.Anexampleofdi
scr
ete(
digi
tal
)contr
oli
s:
a.Var
yingt
hevol
umeofamusicsystem

b.Tur
ningalampONorOFF
c.Var
yingt
hebri
ght
nessofal
amp

d.Cont
rol
l
ingt
hespeedofaf
an

Q.whichi
snotout
putanal
ogdev
ice
a.Ser
vomotor
b.Ser
voval
ves

c.St
eppermot
or

d)Sol
enoi
dval
ve

Q.Whichofthef
oll
owi
ngcanbet
heout
putofPLC?
1.Rel
aycoi
ls

2.Sol
enoi
ds

3.I
ndi
cat
ors

4.Mot
ors

5.Lamps

6.Al
arms
Sel
ectcor
rectopt
ion

a.Onl
y(1)
,(2)
,(3)and(
4)

b.Onl
y(3)
,(4)
,(5)and(
6)

c.Onl
y(1)
,(2)
,(3)and(
5)

d.Al
lthe(
1),
(2)
,(3)
,(4)
,(5)
,and(
6)

Q.Whi
choft
hef
oll
owi
ngcannotbeani
nputt
hati
sgi
vent
othePLC?

a.
 Manualswitches
b.
 Relay
s
c.
 Sensors
d.
 Noneoft heabove

Q.Whi
chi
sDi
spl
acementt
ransducer

a)LVDT

b)Pot
ent
iomet
er

c)Bot
haandb

d)RTD

Q)whi
chi
snotpr
essur
etr
ansducer

a)St
rai
nGauges

b)Loadcel
l
s

c)Bour
dont
ubes

d)Encoder

Q)Encoder
susedi
n

a)El
ect
ri
cal
Dri
vet
echnol
ogy

b)Pr
int
ingI
ndust
ry

c)Machi
net
ool
Indust
ry
d)Al
loft
heabov
e

Q.I
nduct
ivePr
oxi
mit
ysensor
swor
kwi
th

a)nonmet
all
i
cmat
eri
als

b)met
all
i
cmat
eri
als

c)Bot
ha&b

c)noneoft
heabov
e

Q.Li
mitSwi
tchsi
s

a)mechani
cal
dev
ice

b)el
ect
ri
cal
dev
ice

c)el
ect
romechni
cal
dev
ice

d)noneoft
heabov
e

Q.Whi
chi
snott
het
her
mal
transducer
s

a)Ther
mocoupl
es

b)t
her
mist
er

c)RTD

d)Pot
ent
iomet
er

Q.Hy
draul
i
cAct
uat
orscanmeasur
epr
essur
eupt
o

a)1000psi

b)2000psi

c)3500psi

d)4000psi
Q.Sol
enoi
dVal
vei
s

a)mechani
cal
dev
ice

b)el
ect
ri
cal
dev
ice

c)el
ect
romechni
cal
dev
ice

d)noneoft
heabov
e

Q.Fl
owandl
evel
sensor
sis

a)Di
scr
eteout
putdev
ice

b)Anal
ogi
nputdev
ice

c)out
putanal
ogdev
ice

d)noneoft
heabov
e

Q.Whi
chi
stheexampl
eofdi
scr
eteout
putdev
ice

a)Hor
n

b)Sol
enoi
dval
ve

c)I
ndi
cat
ionLamp

d)Al
lofabov
e

Q.Whi
chi
snott
headv
ant
ageofEl
ect
ri
cal
Act
uat
ors

a)Usef
orhi
ghaccur
acywi
thhi
ghpr
eci
sion

b)Easi
l
ypr
ogr
ammedandnet
wor
ked

c)uset
ocont
rol
posi
ti
on,
vel
oci
ty,
tor
que

d)Appl
i
cat
ionsi
nvol
vesar
easofext
remet
emper
atur
e
Q.no 1. …..is the HOST computer
A : MTU
B : RTU
C : MODEM
D : DCE
Q.no 2. Oscilloscope horizontal time base switch is an
example of
A : Push Button
B : Rotary switch
C : Limit Switch
D : Toggle Switch
Q.no 3. Which of following has selector knob which selects
particular position
A : Selector Switch
B : solenoid
C : push button
D : relay
Q.no 4. RTU has ability to receive and send message to field
devices in serial format usually is ….standard
A : RS-232
B : RS- 485
C : DH-485
D : GH-485+
Q.no 5. Which layer provides the services to user?
A :  session layer
B : transport layer
C : application layer
D : network layer
Q.no 6. Temperature measurement can be done by
A : RTD
B : Bourdon Tube
C : LVDT
D : Venturi Tube
Q.no 7. Which of the following is used to link various
industrial I/O devices?
A : Devicenet
B : TCP/IP
C : FBB
D : MODBUS
Q.no 8. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI model.
A : prior to
B : after
C : simultaneous to
D :  with no link to
Q.no 9. The motor used in VFD system is
A : DC shunt motor
B : 3 phase induction motor
C : Hybrid Motor
D : DC series motor
Q.no 10. In OSI model 4th layer is
A : Application
B : Session
C : Transport
D : Presentation
Q.no 11. Which of the following is not element of SCADA
A : Communication
B : Master Terminal Units
C : Micro Terminal Units (MTU)
D : RTUs/PLCs
Q.no 12. What is SCADA?
A : Hardware
B : Software
C : Process
D : System
Q.no 13. Who developed the MODBUS
A : Modicon
B : Edison
C : Newton
D : Einstine
Q.no 14. Protocol used for application layer in OSI model
A : FTP
B : RPC
C : UDP
D : PPP
Q.no 15. Ethernet/IP protocol is used in following network
A : LAN
B : WAN
C : MAN
D : CAN
Q.no 16. The acronym PLC stands for:
A : Pressure Load Control
B : Programmable Logic Controller
C : Pressure Loss Chamber
D : Pneumatic Logic Capstan
Q.no 17. Which of the following is the type of firewall?
A : Packet Filtering Firewall
B : Dual Homed Gateway Firewall
C : Screen Host Firewall
D : Dual Host Firewall
Q.no 18. Which of the following is not used for level
measurement?
A : Float type switches
B : Capacitance method
C : Ultrasonic sensor
D : RTD
Q.no 19. Diaphram, bellows, bourdon tube are the..
A : Pressure Transducer
B : Level Transducer
C : Piezoelectric Transducer
D : Flow tansmitter
Q.no 20. Which of the following is the disadvantage of
automation?
A : Increased Productivity 
B : High Volume Production 
C : Increase in Safety 
D : Increased Overhead Costs 
Q.no 21. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is
A:4
B:5
C:6
D:7
Q.no 22. MTU stands for..
A : Master Terminal Unit
B : Master Train Unit
C : Massive Train Unit
D : Master Trend Unit
Q.no 23. Input devices must be connected towards……of rail.
A : Right side
B : Left side
C : Centre
D : Near output devices
Q.no 24.  DCS is a __________________
A : Distributed Control System
B : Data Control System
C : Data Column System
D : Distributed Column System
Q.no 25. SCADA Technology was first applied for
A : Telephones
B : weather predictions
C : railways
D : industries
Q.no 26. Measurement of displacementcan be done through
A : RTD
B : Thermocpuple
C : LVDT
D : Bourdon Tube
Q.no 27. Induction motor starter ….
A : 2 point starter
B : 3 point starter
C : DOL, Star delta starter`
D : DC Starter
Q.no 28. AC motor protection can be done through
A : Use of bimetallic temperature switch
B : by use of RTD
C : By use of thermocouple
D : By use of LVDT
Q.no 29. …..is the benefits of SCADA
A : Small in size
B : Modularity
C : Easy Programming
D : Improved facility effectiveness
Q.no 30. The purpose of isolation block in I/O module is
A : it senses the presence or absence of an input signal
B : it converts the input signal for high or on to a DC level usable by
the module's electronic circuit
C : it carries out electronic protection by electronically isolating the
input module output from its input.
D : its electronic circuit produces an output via output logic, to be
sensed by the PLC CPU
Q.no 31. PLCs are housed in a single case with all input and
output, power and control connection points located on the
single unit is known as
A : single board PLCs
B : Compact PLCs
C : Modular PLC
D : Open frame PLCs
Q.no 32. IEC61850 is the global standard defined for …
A : Presentation of system
B : Supervisiory control
C : Communication Network & system in substation
D : Appliication
Q.no 33. Protocol is a set of ……………………. that entities use
to communicate information.
A : Formats
B : Procedure
C : Formats and procedure
D : Bandwidth
Q.no 34. Star Delta starter is used to start
A : DC motor
B : single phase induction motor
C : 3 phase induction motor
D : stepper motor
Q.no 35. Control and Information Protocol (CIP) is not used
in which of following layer of OSI?
A : Control and Information Protocol (CIP) is not used in which of
following layer of OSI?
B : Transport layer
C : Application layer
D : Presentation layer
Q.no 36. Which of the following is output device for Human
machine Interface(HMI)
A : touch screens
B : joysticks
C : Toggle switches
D : Status Lights
Q.no 37. ….. Gather information from field devices
A : RTU
B : MTU
C : WAN
D : Communication Interface
Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a basic element of
data acquisition systems
A : Sensors and transducers.
B : Data acquisition hardware
C : Signal conditioning
D : Motors
Q.no 39. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI
model have this layer.
A :  session layer
B : transport layer
C : application layer
D : network layer
Q.no 40. Manipulated variable (MV)=
A : SV-PV
B : SV+PV
C : SV*PV
D : SV/PV
Q.no 41. When did the SCADA start?
A : 1980
B : 1965
C : 1960
D : 1970
Q.no 42. In a particular ladder, suppose there is one CTU and
one retentive timer if operator wants to reset the Retentive
timer by using RESET instruction then address given to
RESET instruction is same...
A : as that of retentive timer
B : as that counter
C : as that of input switch
D : as that of output
Q.no 43. ……counter counts the pulses of kilohertz frequency
and used for encoder applictions.
A : UP
B : High Speed
C : Down
D : Cascade
Q.no 44. In an analog operation of PLC, the number of bits
the converter outputs is known as
A : Bit resolution
B : Accuracy
C : Precision
D : Range
Q.no 45. Which of the following is the heart of a SCADA
system?
A : PLC
B : Aalrm
C : HMI
D : I/O Task
Q.no 46. PLC operates on which type of signal?
A : Analog
B : Digital
C : Impulse
D : Frequency
Q.no 47. OSI model consist of ….layers.
A:1
B:5
C:6
D:7
Q.no 48. Method used for PID Tunning
A : Rauths criteria method
B : Adjust and observe
C : Lagrange Method
D : Newton-Raphson method
Q.no 49. HMI is….
A : software
B : hardware
C : standard
D : modulator
Q.no 50. Network layer uses which protocol
A : IP
B : PPP
C : SNMP
D : FTP
Q.no 51. Two types of transmission modes used for standard
MODBUS are
A : ASCII mode, RTU mode
B : EIA-422B
C : ARP
D : TCP
Q.no 52. Flexible Function Block(FFB) uses which of
following approach for communication
A : Many to One
B : One to one
C : Master Slave(One to many)
D : Many to Many
Q.no 53. The term sourcing refers to
A : Input module receives current
B : Input module supplies current
C : Output device supplies current
D : Input device supplies current
Q.no 54. Micro size PLC can handle
A : 8 I/Os
B : 16 I/Os
C : 32 I/Os
D : 1024 I/Os
Q.no 55. Which equipement purifies AC waveform
A : Line Conditioner
B : Rectifier
C : Regulator
D : Transformer
Q.no 56. Analog input devices communicate with PLC by
sending standard signal of
A : 0-20mA
B : 0-10mA
C : 2-4mA
D : 4-20mA
Q.no 57. Which times retains the accumulated value and
measures cummulative time period during which rung
condition is true.
A : TON
B : TOFF
C : RTO
D : S5 Timer
Q.no 58. The control in SCADA is
A :  Online control
B : Direct control
C : Supervisory control
D : Automatic control
Q.no 59. Which of the following protocol is based on CAN
protocol?
A : DNP3 protocol
B : DeviceNet protocol
C : Control and Information Protocol
D : Control Net Protocol
Q.no 60. In adjust and observed method, system response
becomes faster if
A : Kp is tunned
B : If Ki is tunned
C : if Kd is tunned
D : If both Kp & Kd are tunned
Q.no 1. How many levels are present in a complex SCADA
system?
A : 1-level
B : 3-level
C : 4-level
D : 5-level
Q.no 2. The PLC was invented by.
A : Bill Gates
B : Hernando Barragán
C : Bill Landis
D : Dick Morley
Q.no 3. Distributed SCADA system is of the following
generations
A : First generation
B : Second generation
C : Third generation
D : Fourth generation
Q.no 4. A SCADA system performs Data Acquisition,
Networked data Communication ,………….. and control
A : Data representation
B : DCS
C : Data manipulation
D : Data deletion
Q.no 5. TCP/IP protocol consist of how many layers?
A:2
B:4
C:6
D:8
Q.no 6. The part that monitors the inputs and makes
decisions in a PLC is
A : Output Module
B : Input Module
C : CPU
D : Power Supply
Q.no 7. Left side of rail in ladder diagram is known as…..
A : Neutral Rail
B : Active Rail
C : Power Rail
D : Passive Rail
Q.no 8. The overload release protects the motor against
A : Over voltage
B : Under current Current
C : Under Voltage
D : Over load
Q.no 9. CPU operates on
A : 5 V DC
B : 5 V AC
C : 110 V AC
D : 110 V DC
Q.no 10. Flow tramsmitters are
A : venturi Tube
B : Diaphram
C : Bourdon Tube
D : RTD
Q.no 11. RTD, Thermister, Thermocouple are the…
A : flow sensor
B : level sensor
C : temperature sensor
D : position sensor
Q.no 12. In CTU, accumulated values is …
A : Incremented by one
B : Decremented by one
C : Remains same
D : Accumulator value does not exist in counter
Q.no 13. Which of the following is not the input output
specification?
A : Analog
B : Discrete
C : Register
D : Low speed timer
Q.no 14. Proximity detector is used to sense
A : Motion
B : Pressure
C : Position
D : Flow
Q.no 15. RTU has ability to receive and send message to
field devices in serial format usually is ….standard
A : RS-232
B : RS- 485
C : DH-485
D : GH-485+
Q.no 16. The acronym PLC stands for:
A : Pressure Load Control
B : Programmable Logic Controller
C : Pressure Loss Chamber
D : Pneumatic Logic Capstan
Q.no 17. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is
A:4
B:5
C:6
D:7
Q.no 18. …..is the HOST computer
A : MTU
B : RTU
C : MODEM
D : DCE
Q.no 19. Which layer provides the services to user?
A :  session layer
B : transport layer
C : application layer
D : network layer
Q.no 20. Input devices must be connected towards……of rail.
A : Right side
B : Left side
C : Centre
D : Near output devices
Q.no 21. MTU stands for..
A : Master Terminal Unit
B : Master Train Unit
C : Massive Train Unit
D : Master Trend Unit
Q.no 22. Which of the following is used to link various
industrial I/O devices?
A : Devicenet
B : TCP/IP
C : FBB
D : MODBUS
Q.no 23. SCADA Technology was first applied for
A : Telephones
B : weather predictions
C : railways
D : industries
Q.no 24. Who developed the MODBUS
A : Modicon
B : Edison
C : Newton
D : Einstine
Q.no 25. Temperature measurement can be done by
A : RTD
B : Bourdon Tube
C : LVDT
D : Venturi Tube
Q.no 26. For Allen Bradly PLC's which network is used for
PLC communication
A : RS485
B : DH485
C : RS232
D : IEEE488
Q.no 27. In properly tuned PID controller, which function
improves the transient response of the system
A : Proportional
B : Integrative
C : Derivative
D : Summation
Q.no 28. Which automation is used for manufacturing
product with very high demand demand rates and volume.
A : Fixed
B : Office
C : Programmable
D : Flexible
Q.no 29. The memory which is erasable by ultraviolet light is
known as
A : RAM
B : EEPROM
C : UVROM
D : EPROM
Q.no 30. ………….refers to the way a network is laid out,
either physically or logically
A : Line configuration
B : Topology
C : Transmission mode
D : Modulation mode
Q.no 31. A Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) in a telemetry
system is used for
A : Providing power to the remote sensors
B : Converting the output of the sensor to digital data and transmit to
the base station
C : Managing the health condition of the sensors
D : Remote control the base station
Q.no 32. In simple closed loop system, the difference
between set point and process variable is known as
A : Gain
B : Error
C : Feedback
D : bias
Q.no 33. Which of the following best defines DNP3?
A : It is a communication protocol used primarily in SCADA systems
B : It is a library of objects that are used to provide various
functionalities in SCADA systems.
C : It is a collection of standards and rules for how to write a paper
D : It is responsible for creating and managing the logical link
between the sender and receiver of data sent over the network.
Q.no 34. IEC61850 Standards is applicable to
A : Chemical Plant
B : Electrical Utilities
C : Water purification plant
D : Transportation
Q.no 35. FBB stands for
A : Field Function Block
B : Flexible Field Block
C : Flexible Function Block
D : Fully Field Block
Q.no 36. In TON timer, when accumulated value is equal or
greater than preset value then which bit is set
A : CU
B : DN
C : EN
D : TT
Q.no 37. Which of the following is encoder
A : Incremental
B : Bourdon
C : diaphram
D : LVDT
Q.no 38. A central host computer servers are called as
A : Remote Terminal Unit
B : Master Terminal Unit
C : Microcontroller
D : Digital Control System
Q.no 39. Which of the following is used to detect the
presence or absence of an object without making any contact
to it.
A : optical sensor
B : temperature sensor
C : Proximity sensor
D : level sensor
Q.no 40. In Device Net architecture , second layer is
A : Device Net protocol
B : CAN Protocol
C : Physical layer
D : Transmission media
Q.no 41. Which of the following is the heart of a SCADA
system?
A : PLC
B : Aalrm
C : HMI
D : I/O Task
Q.no 42. OSI model consist of ….layers.
A:1
B:5
C:6
D:7
Q.no 43. HMI is….
A : software
B : hardware
C : standard
D : modulator
Q.no 44. ……counter counts the pulses of kilohertz frequency
and used for encoder applictions.
A : UP
B : High Speed
C : Down
D : Cascade
Q.no 45. Method used for PID Tunning
A : Rauths criteria method
B : Adjust and observe
C : Lagrange Method
D : Newton-Raphson method
Q.no 46. Manipulated variable (MV)=
A : SV-PV
B : SV+PV
C : SV*PV
D : SV/PV
Q.no 47. In an analog operation of PLC, the number of bits
the converter outputs is known as
A : Bit resolution
B : Accuracy
C : Precision
D : Range
Q.no 48. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI
model have this layer.
A :  session layer
B : transport layer
C : application layer
D : network layer
Q.no 49. When did the SCADA start?
A : 1980
B : 1965
C : 1960
D : 1970
Q.no 50. Control and Information Protocol (CIP) is not used
in which of following layer of OSI?
A : Control and Information Protocol (CIP) is not used in which of
following layer of OSI?
B : Transport layer
C : Application layer
D : Presentation layer
Q.no 51. VFD can be adjusted to produce a steady
…..starting torque from standstill right upto full speed
A:1
B : 1.5
C : 0.9
D : 1.25
Q.no 52. Protocol used for presentation layer in OSI model
A : SMTP
B : SNMP
C : HTTP
D : UDP
Q.no 53. An overflow flag is set, if the destination value
greater than ……when math instructions are used.
A : 32000
B : -32767
C : 32767
D : 1000
Q.no 54. DC motor can be controlled by
A : VFD
B : Inverter
C : Bridge rectifier
D : Cycloconverter
Q.no 55. Devices in a Ring or Mesh topology are usually
configured in…………………relationship
A : Peer to peer
B : Primary to secondary
C : Master -slave
D : multiplexed
Q.no 56. Which of the following is an example of the SCADA
system?
A : Honeywell PlantScape
B : Emerson Delta V
C : Yokogawa CENTUM
D : PowerStudio Deluxe
Q.no 57. An example of discrete (digital) control is
A : Varying the volume of a music system
B : Turning a lamp ON or OFF
C : Varying the brightness of a lamp
D : Controlling the speed of a fan
Q.no 58. Internet or WAN protocols are used in
A : Monolithic SCADA systems
B : Distributed SCADA systems
C : Networked SCADA systems
D : Four generation SCADA systems
Q.no 59. The power supply for PLC is designed for higher
temperature and humidity…
A : as PLC is used for domestic applications
B : as PLC is used for industrial applications
C : as PLC is used for officw applications
D : as power consumption of PLC is more
Q.no 60. The address for input is I:4/7, What is the
significance of 4 here?
A : Input
B : Output
C : Module Number
D : Element Number
Q.no 1. Protocol used for application layer in OSI model
A : FTP
B : RPC
C : UDP
D : PPP
Q.no 2. Distributed SCADA system is of the following
generations
A : First generation
B : Second generation
C : Third generation
D : Fourth generation
Q.no 3. What is SCADA?
A : Hardware
B : Software
C : Process
D : System
Q.no 4.  DCS is a __________________
A : Distributed Control System
B : Data Control System
C : Data Column System
D : Distributed Column System
Q.no 5. Which of following has selector knob which selects
particular position
A : Selector Switch
B : solenoid
C : push button
D : relay
Q.no 6. The motor used in VFD system is
A : DC shunt motor
B : 3 phase induction motor
C : Hybrid Motor
D : DC series motor
Q.no 7. The PLC was invented by.
A : Bill Gates
B : Hernando Barragán
C : Bill Landis
D : Dick Morley
Q.no 8. How many levels are present in a complex SCADA
system?
A : 1-level
B : 3-level
C : 4-level
D : 5-level
Q.no 9. Left side of rail in ladder diagram is known as…..
A : Neutral Rail
B : Active Rail
C : Power Rail
D : Passive Rail
Q.no 10. Which of the following is the type of firewall?
A : Packet Filtering Firewall
B : Dual Homed Gateway Firewall
C : Screen Host Firewall
D : Dual Host Firewall
Q.no 11. A SCADA system performs Data Acquisition,
Networked data Communication ,………….. and control
A : Data representation
B : DCS
C : Data manipulation
D : Data deletion
Q.no 12. Diaphram, bellows, bourdon tube are the..
A : Pressure Transducer
B : Level Transducer
C : Piezoelectric Transducer
D : Flow tansmitter
Q.no 13. Which of the following is not used for level
measurement?
A : Float type switches
B : Capacitance method
C : Ultrasonic sensor
D : RTD
Q.no 14. The part that monitors the inputs and makes
decisions in a PLC is
A : Output Module
B : Input Module
C : CPU
D : Power Supply
Q.no 15. TCP/IP protocol consist of how many layers?
A:2
B:4
C:6
D:8
Q.no 16. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI model.
A : prior to
B : after
C : simultaneous to
D :  with no link to
Q.no 17. Which of the following is not element of SCADA
A : Communication
B : Master Terminal Units
C : Micro Terminal Units (MTU)
D : RTUs/PLCs
Q.no 18. Ethernet/IP protocol is used in following network
A : LAN
B : WAN
C : MAN
D : CAN
Q.no 19. In OSI model 4th layer is
A : Application
B : Session
C : Transport
D : Presentation
Q.no 20. Which of the following is the disadvantage of
automation?
A : Increased Productivity 
B : High Volume Production 
C : Increase in Safety 
D : Increased Overhead Costs 
Q.no 21. Oscilloscope horizontal time base switch is an
example of
A : Push Button
B : Rotary switch
C : Limit Switch
D : Toggle Switch
Q.no 22. The acronym PLC stands for:
A : Pressure Load Control
B : Programmable Logic Controller
C : Pressure Loss Chamber
D : Pneumatic Logic Capstan
Q.no 23. SCADA Technology was first applied for
A : Telephones
B : weather predictions
C : railways
D : industries
Q.no 24. Which layer provides the services to user?
A :  session layer
B : transport layer
C : application layer
D : network layer
Q.no 25. RTD, Thermister, Thermocouple are the…
A : flow sensor
B : level sensor
C : temperature sensor
D : position sensor
Q.no 26. In a particular ladder, suppose there is one CTU and
one retentive timer if operator wants to reset the Retentive
timer by using RESET instruction then address given to
RESET instruction is same...
A : as that of retentive timer
B : as that counter
C : as that of input switch
D : as that of output
Q.no 27. Which of the following is output device for Human
machine Interface(HMI)
A : touch screens
B : joysticks
C : Toggle switches
D : Status Lights
Q.no 28. AC motor protection can be done through
A : Use of bimetallic temperature switch
B : by use of RTD
C : By use of thermocouple
D : By use of LVDT
Q.no 29. Induction motor starter ….
A : 2 point starter
B : 3 point starter
C : DOL, Star delta starter`
D : DC Starter
Q.no 30. Network layer uses which protocol
A : IP
B : PPP
C : SNMP
D : FTP
Q.no 31. ………….refers to the way a network is laid out,
either physically or logically
A : Line configuration
B : Topology
C : Transmission mode
D : Modulation mode
Q.no 32. Which automation is used for manufacturing
product with very high demand demand rates and volume.
A : Fixed
B : Office
C : Programmable
D : Flexible
Q.no 33. Protocol is a set of ……………………. that entities use
to communicate information.
A : Formats
B : Procedure
C : Formats and procedure
D : Bandwidth
Q.no 34. ….. Gather information from field devices
A : RTU
B : MTU
C : WAN
D : Communication Interface
Q.no 35. A Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) in a telemetry
system is used for
A : Providing power to the remote sensors
B : Converting the output of the sensor to digital data and transmit to
the base station
C : Managing the health condition of the sensors
D : Remote control the base station
Q.no 36. …..is the benefits of SCADA
A : Small in size
B : Modularity
C : Easy Programming
D : Improved facility effectiveness
Q.no 37. The memory which is erasable by ultraviolet light is
known as
A : RAM
B : EEPROM
C : UVROM
D : EPROM
Q.no 38. PLC operates on which type of signal?
A : Analog
B : Digital
C : Impulse
D : Frequency
Q.no 39. In properly tuned PID controller, which function
improves the transient response of the system
A : Proportional
B : Integrative
C : Derivative
D : Summation
Q.no 40. The purpose of isolation block in I/O module is
A : it senses the presence or absence of an input signal
B : it converts the input signal for high or on to a DC level usable by
the module's electronic circuit
C : it carries out electronic protection by electronically isolating the
input module output from its input.
D : its electronic circuit produces an output via output logic, to be
sensed by the PLC CPU
Q.no 41. For Allen Bradly PLC's which network is used for
PLC communication
A : RS485
B : DH485
C : RS232
D : IEEE488
Q.no 42. IEC61850 is the global standard defined for …
A : Presentation of system
B : Supervisiory control
C : Communication Network & system in substation
D : Appliication
Q.no 43. Which of the following is not a basic element of
data acquisition systems
A : Sensors and transducers.
B : Data acquisition hardware
C : Signal conditioning
D : Motors
Q.no 44. Measurement of displacementcan be done through
A : RTD
B : Thermocpuple
C : LVDT
D : Bourdon Tube
Q.no 45. PLCs are housed in a single case with all input and
output, power and control connection points located on the
single unit is known as
A : single board PLCs
B : Compact PLCs
C : Modular PLC
D : Open frame PLCs
Q.no 46. Star Delta starter is used to start
A : DC motor
B : single phase induction motor
C : 3 phase induction motor
D : stepper motor
Q.no 47. Control and Information Protocol (CIP) is not used
in which of following layer of OSI?
A : Control and Information Protocol (CIP) is not used in which of
following layer of OSI?
B : Transport layer
C : Application layer
D : Presentation layer
Q.no 48. Manipulated variable (MV)=
A : SV-PV
B : SV+PV
C : SV*PV
D : SV/PV
Q.no 49. Method used for PID Tunning
A : Rauths criteria method
B : Adjust and observe
C : Lagrange Method
D : Newton-Raphson method
Q.no 50. Which of the following is the heart of a SCADA
system?
A : PLC
B : Aalrm
C : HMI
D : I/O Task
Q.no 51. Analog input devices communicate with PLC by
sending standard signal of
A : 0-20mA
B : 0-10mA
C : 2-4mA
D : 4-20mA
Q.no 52. The control in SCADA is
A :  Online control
B : Direct control
C : Supervisory control
D : Automatic control
Q.no 53. In adjust and observed method, system response
becomes faster if
A : Kp is tunned
B : If Ki is tunned
C : if Kd is tunned
D : If both Kp & Kd are tunned
Q.no 54. Which of the following protocol is based on CAN
protocol?
A : DNP3 protocol
B : DeviceNet protocol
C : Control and Information Protocol
D : Control Net Protocol
Q.no 55. Flexible Function Block(FFB) uses which of
following approach for communication
A : Many to One
B : One to one
C : Master Slave(One to many)
D : Many to Many
Q.no 56. Two types of transmission modes used for standard
MODBUS are
A : ASCII mode, RTU mode
B : EIA-422B
C : ARP
D : TCP
Q.no 57. The term sourcing refers to
A : Input module receives current
B : Input module supplies current
C : Output device supplies current
D : Input device supplies current
Q.no 58. Which equipement purifies AC waveform
A : Line Conditioner
B : Rectifier
C : Regulator
D : Transformer
Q.no 59. Micro size PLC can handle
A : 8 I/Os
B : 16 I/Os
C : 32 I/Os
D : 1024 I/Os
Q.no 60. Internet or WAN protocols are used in
A : Monolithic SCADA systems
B : Distributed SCADA systems
C : Networked SCADA systems
D : Four generation SCADA systems
Q.no 1. The overload release protects the motor against
A : Over voltage
B : Under current Current
C : Under Voltage
D : Over load
Q.no 2. CPU operates on
A : 5 V DC
B : 5 V AC
C : 110 V AC
D : 110 V DC
Q.no 3. Flow tramsmitters are
A : venturi Tube
B : Diaphram
C : Bourdon Tube
D : RTD
Q.no 4. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is
A:4
B:5
C:6
D:7
Q.no 5. Input devices must be connected towards……of rail.
A : Right side
B : Left side
C : Centre
D : Near output devices
Q.no 6. Who developed the MODBUS
A : Modicon
B : Edison
C : Newton
D : Einstine
Q.no 7. Which of the following is not the input output
specification?
A : Analog
B : Discrete
C : Register
D : Low speed timer
Q.no 8. Protocol used for application layer in OSI model
A : FTP
B : RPC
C : UDP
D : PPP
Q.no 9. Which of the following is used to link various
industrial I/O devices?
A : Devicenet
B : TCP/IP
C : FBB
D : MODBUS
Q.no 10. RTU has ability to receive and send message to
field devices in serial format usually is ….standard
A : RS-232
B : RS- 485
C : DH-485
D : GH-485+
Q.no 11. Temperature measurement can be done by
A : RTD
B : Bourdon Tube
C : LVDT
D : Venturi Tube
Q.no 12. …..is the HOST computer
A : MTU
B : RTU
C : MODEM
D : DCE
Q.no 13. Proximity detector is used to sense
A : Motion
B : Pressure
C : Position
D : Flow
Q.no 14. MTU stands for..
A : Master Terminal Unit
B : Master Train Unit
C : Massive Train Unit
D : Master Trend Unit
Q.no 15. In CTU, accumulated values is …
A : Incremented by one
B : Decremented by one
C : Remains same
D : Accumulator value does not exist in counter
Q.no 16. Distributed SCADA system is of the following
generations
A : First generation
B : Second generation
C : Third generation
D : Fourth generation
Q.no 17. Which of the following is not element of SCADA
A : Communication
B : Master Terminal Units
C : Micro Terminal Units (MTU)
D : RTUs/PLCs
Q.no 18. The motor used in VFD system is
A : DC shunt motor
B : 3 phase induction motor
C : Hybrid Motor
D : DC series motor
Q.no 19. Diaphram, bellows, bourdon tube are the..
A : Pressure Transducer
B : Level Transducer
C : Piezoelectric Transducer
D : Flow tansmitter
Q.no 20. In OSI model 4th layer is
A : Application
B : Session
C : Transport
D : Presentation
Q.no 21. A SCADA system performs Data Acquisition,
Networked data Communication ,………….. and control
A : Data representation
B : DCS
C : Data manipulation
D : Data deletion
Q.no 22. Which of the following is the disadvantage of
automation?
A : Increased Productivity 
B : High Volume Production 
C : Increase in Safety 
D : Increased Overhead Costs 
Q.no 23. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI model.
A : prior to
B : after
C : simultaneous to
D :  with no link to
Q.no 24. What is SCADA?
A : Hardware
B : Software
C : Process
D : System
Q.no 25. Which of following has selector knob which selects
particular position
A : Selector Switch
B : solenoid
C : push button
D : relay
Q.no 26. ………….refers to the way a network is laid out,
either physically or logically
A : Line configuration
B : Topology
C : Transmission mode
D : Modulation mode
Q.no 27. Network layer uses which protocol
A : IP
B : PPP
C : SNMP
D : FTP
Q.no 28. AC motor protection can be done through
A : Use of bimetallic temperature switch
B : by use of RTD
C : By use of thermocouple
D : By use of LVDT
Q.no 29. OSI model consist of ….layers.
A:1
B:5
C:6
D:7
Q.no 30. Which of the following is encoder
A : Incremental
B : Bourdon
C : diaphram
D : LVDT
Q.no 31. ……counter counts the pulses of kilohertz frequency
and used for encoder applictions.
A : UP
B : High Speed
C : Down
D : Cascade
Q.no 32. Which of the following best defines DNP3?
A : It is a communication protocol used primarily in SCADA systems
B : It is a library of objects that are used to provide various
functionalities in SCADA systems.
C : It is a collection of standards and rules for how to write a paper
D : It is responsible for creating and managing the logical link
between the sender and receiver of data sent over the network.
Q.no 33. When did the SCADA start?
A : 1980
B : 1965
C : 1960
D : 1970
Q.no 34. In simple closed loop system, the difference
between set point and process variable is known as
A : Gain
B : Error
C : Feedback
D : bias
Q.no 35. Induction motor starter ….
A : 2 point starter
B : 3 point starter
C : DOL, Star delta starter`
D : DC Starter
Q.no 36. HMI is….
A : software
B : hardware
C : standard
D : modulator
Q.no 37. IEC61850 Standards is applicable to
A : Chemical Plant
B : Electrical Utilities
C : Water purification plant
D : Transportation
Q.no 38. TCP/IP model does not have ______ layer but OSI
model have this layer.
A :  session layer
B : transport layer
C : application layer
D : network layer
Q.no 39. In an analog operation of PLC, the number of bits
the converter outputs is known as
A : Bit resolution
B : Accuracy
C : Precision
D : Range
Q.no 40. FBB stands for
A : Field Function Block
B : Flexible Field Block
C : Flexible Function Block
D : Fully Field Block
Q.no 41. A central host computer servers are called as
A : Remote Terminal Unit
B : Master Terminal Unit
C : Microcontroller
D : Digital Control System
Q.no 42. Which of the following is output device for Human
machine Interface(HMI)
A : touch screens
B : joysticks
C : Toggle switches
D : Status Lights
Q.no 43. In TON timer, when accumulated value is equal or
greater than preset value then which bit is set
A : CU
B : DN
C : EN
D : TT
Q.no 44. Which of the following is used to detect the
presence or absence of an object without making any contact
to it.
A : optical sensor
B : temperature sensor
C : Proximity sensor
D : level sensor
Q.no 45. In Device Net architecture , second layer is
A : Device Net protocol
B : CAN Protocol
C : Physical layer
D : Transmission media
Q.no 46. In a particular ladder, suppose there is one CTU and
one retentive timer if operator wants to reset the Retentive
timer by using RESET instruction then address given to
RESET instruction is same...
A : as that of retentive timer
B : as that counter
C : as that of input switch
D : as that of output
Q.no 47. In properly tuned PID controller, which function
improves the transient response of the system
A : Proportional
B : Integrative
C : Derivative
D : Summation
Q.no 48. …..is the benefits of SCADA
A : Small in size
B : Modularity
C : Easy Programming
D : Improved facility effectiveness
Q.no 49. Which of the following is the heart of a SCADA
system?
A : PLC
B : Aalrm
C : HMI
D : I/O Task
Q.no 50. IEC61850 is the global standard defined for …
A : Presentation of system
B : Supervisiory control
C : Communication Network & system in substation
D : Appliication
Q.no 51. VFD can be adjusted to produce a steady
…..starting torque from standstill right upto full speed
A:1
B : 1.5
C : 0.9
D : 1.25
Q.no 52. Protocol used for presentation layer in OSI model
A : SMTP
B : SNMP
C : HTTP
D : UDP
Q.no 53. Which times retains the accumulated value and
measures cummulative time period during which rung
condition is true.
A : TON
B : TOFF
C : RTO
D : S5 Timer
Q.no 54. An example of discrete (digital) control is
A : Varying the volume of a music system
B : Turning a lamp ON or OFF
C : Varying the brightness of a lamp
D : Controlling the speed of a fan
Q.no 55. The power supply for PLC is designed for higher
temperature and humidity…
A : as PLC is used for domestic applications
B : as PLC is used for industrial applications
C : as PLC is used for officw applications
D : as power consumption of PLC is more
Q.no 56. DC motor can be controlled by
A : VFD
B : Inverter
C : Bridge rectifier
D : Cycloconverter
Q.no 57. The address for input is I:4/7, What is the
significance of 4 here?
A : Input
B : Output
C : Module Number
D : Element Number
Q.no 58. Devices in a Ring or Mesh topology are usually
configured in…………………relationship
A : Peer to peer
B : Primary to secondary
C : Master -slave
D : multiplexed
Q.no 59. Which of the following is an example of the SCADA
system?
A : Honeywell PlantScape
B : Emerson Delta V
C : Yokogawa CENTUM
D : PowerStudio Deluxe
Q.no 60. An overflow flag is set, if the destination value
greater than ……when math instructions are used.
A : 32000
B : -32767
C : 32767
D : 1000
Q.no 1. Left side of rail in ladder diagram is known as…..
A : Neutral Rail
B : Active Rail
C : Power Rail
D : Passive Rail
Q.no 2. Which of the following is the type of firewall?
A : Packet Filtering Firewall
B : Dual Homed Gateway Firewall
C : Screen Host Firewall
D : Dual Host Firewall
Q.no 3. The part that monitors the inputs and makes
decisions in a PLC is
A : Output Module
B : Input Module
C : CPU
D : Power Supply
Q.no 4. CPU operates on
A : 5 V DC
B : 5 V AC
C : 110 V AC
D : 110 V DC
Q.no 5. The overload release protects the motor against
A : Over voltage
B : Under current Current
C : Under Voltage
D : Over load
Q.no 6. RTD, Thermister, Thermocouple are the…
A : flow sensor
B : level sensor
C : temperature sensor
D : position sensor
Q.no 7. Ethernet/IP protocol is used in following network
A : LAN
B : WAN
C : MAN
D : CAN
Q.no 8. How many levels are present in a complex SCADA
system?
A : 1-level
B : 3-level
C : 4-level
D : 5-level
Q.no 9. Who developed the MODBUS
A : Modicon
B : Edison
C : Newton
D : Einstine
Q.no 10. TCP/IP protocol consist of how many layers?
A:2
B:4
C:6
D:8
Q.no 11. Input devices must be connected towards……of rail.
A : Right side
B : Left side
C : Centre
D : Near output devices
Q.no 12. The number of layers in ISO OSI reference model is
A:4
B:5
C:6
D:7
Q.no 13. Protocol used for application layer in OSI model
A : FTP
B : RPC
C : UDP
D : PPP
Q.no 14. Flow tramsmitters are
A : venturi Tube
B : Diaphram
C : Bourdon Tube
D : RTD
Q.no 15.  DCS is a __________________
A : Distributed Control System
B : Data Control System
C : Data Column System
D : Distributed Column System
Q.no 16. Which layer provides the services to user?
A :  session layer
B : transport layer
C : application layer
D : network layer
Q.no 17. The acronym PLC stands for:
A : Pressure Load Control
B : Programmable Logic Controller
C : Pressure Loss Chamber
D : Pneumatic Logic Capstan
Q.no 18. Which of the following is not used for level
measurement?
A : Float type switches
B : Capacitance method
C : Ultrasonic sensor
D : RTD
Q.no 19. The PLC was invented by.
A : Bill Gates
B : Hernando Barragán
C : Bill Landis
D : Dick Morley
Q.no 20. SCADA Technology was first applied for
A : Telephones
B : weather predictions
C : railways
D : industries
Q.no 21. Oscilloscope horizontal time base switch is an
example of
A : Push Button
B : Rotary switch
C : Limit Switch
D : Toggle Switch
Q.no 22. Which of the following is not the input output
specification?
A : Analog
B : Discrete
C : Register
D : Low speed timer
Q.no 23. TCP/IP model was developed _____ the OSI model.
A : prior to
B : after
C : simultaneous to
D :  with no link to
Q.no 24. Which of the following is not element of SCADA
A : Communication
B : Master Terminal Units
C : Micro Terminal Units (MTU)
D : RTUs/PLCs
Q.no 25. MTU stands for..
A : Master Terminal Unit
B : Master Train Unit
C : Massive Train Unit
D : Master Trend Unit
Q.no 26. PLCs are housed in a single case with all input and
output, power and control connection points located on the
single unit is known as
A : single board PLCs
B : Compact PLCs
C : Modular PLC
D : Open frame PLCs
Q.no 27. Method used for PID Tunning
A : Rauths criteria method
B : Adjust and observe
C : Lagrange Method
D : Newton-Raphson method
Q.no 28. ………….refers to the way a network is laid out,
either physically or logically
A : Line configuration
B : Topology
C : Transmission mode
D : Modulation mode
Q.no 29. AC motor protection can be done through
A : Use of bimetallic temperature switch
B : by use of RTD
C : By use of thermocouple
D : By use of LVDT
Q.no 30. ….. Gather information from field devices
A : RTU
B : MTU
C : WAN
D : Communication Interface
Q.no 31. Measurement of displacementcan be done through
A : RTD
B : Thermocpuple
C : LVDT
D : Bourdon Tube
Q.no 32. The purpose of isolation block in I/O module is
A : it senses the presence or absence of an input signal
B : it converts the input signal for high or on to a DC level usable by
the module's electronic circuit
C : it carries out electronic protection by electronically isolating the
input module output from its input.
D : its electronic circuit produces an output via output logic, to be
sensed by the PLC CPU
Q.no 33. Which automation is used for manufacturing
product with very high demand demand rates and volume.
A : Fixed
B : Office
C : Programmable
D : Flexible
Q.no 34. PLC operates on which type of signal?
A : Analog
B : Digital
C : Impulse
D : Frequency
Q.no 35. Control and Information Protocol (CIP) is not used
in which of following layer of OSI?
A : Control and Information Protocol (CIP) is not used in which of
following layer of OSI?
B : Transport layer
C : Application layer
D : Presentation layer
Q.no 36. Manipulated variable (MV)=
A : SV-PV
B : SV+PV
C : SV*PV
D : SV/PV
Q.no 37. Network layer uses which protocol
A : IP
B : PPP
C : SNMP
D : FTP
Q.no 38. Which of the following is not a basic element of
data acquisition systems
A : Sensors and transducers.
B : Data acquisition hardware
C : Signal conditioning
D : Motors
Q.no 39. OSI model consist of ….layers.
A:1
B:5
C:6
D:7
Q.no 40. Protocol is a set of ……………………. that entities use
to communicate information.
A : Formats
B : Procedure
C : Formats and procedure
D : Bandwidth
Q.no 41. For Allen Bradly PLC's which network is used for
PLC communication
A : RS485
B : DH485
C : RS232
D : IEEE488
Q.no 42. A Remote Terminal Unit (RTU) in a telemetry
system is used for
A : Providing power to the remote sensors
B : Converting the output of the sensor to digital data and transmit to
the base station
C : Managing the health condition of the sensors
D : Remote control the base station
Q.no 43. Star Delta starter is used to start
A : DC motor
B : single phase induction motor
C : 3 phase induction motor
D : stepper motor
Q.no 44. The memory which is erasable by ultraviolet light is
known as
A : RAM
B : EEPROM
C : UVROM
D : EPROM
Q.no 45. In a particular ladder, suppose there is one CTU and
one retentive timer if operator wants to reset the Retentive
timer by using RESET instruction then address given to
RESET instruction is same...
A : as that of retentive timer
B : as that counter
C : as that of input switch
D : as that of output
Q.no 46. A central host computer servers are called as
A : Remote Terminal Unit
B : Master Terminal Unit
C : Microcontroller
D : Digital Control System
Q.no 47. Which of the following is used to detect the
presence or absence of an object without making any contact
to it.
A : optical sensor
B : temperature sensor
C : Proximity sensor
D : level sensor
Q.no 48. FBB stands for
A : Field Function Block
B : Flexible Field Block
C : Flexible Function Block
D : Fully Field Block
Q.no 49. Which of the following is output device for Human
machine Interface(HMI)
A : touch screens
B : joysticks
C : Toggle switches
D : Status Lights
Q.no 50. Induction motor starter ….
A : 2 point starter
B : 3 point starter
C : DOL, Star delta starter`
D : DC Starter
Q.no 51. Two types of transmission modes used for standard
MODBUS are
A : ASCII mode, RTU mode
B : EIA-422B
C : ARP
D : TCP
Q.no 52. The term sourcing refers to
A : Input module receives current
B : Input module supplies current
C : Output device supplies current
D : Input device supplies current
Q.no 53. Internet or WAN protocols are used in
A : Monolithic SCADA systems
B : Distributed SCADA systems
C : Networked SCADA systems
D : Four generation SCADA systems
Q.no 54. The control in SCADA is
A :  Online control
B : Direct control
C : Supervisory control
D : Automatic control
Q.no 55. Analog input devices communicate with PLC by
sending standard signal of
A : 0-20mA
B : 0-10mA
C : 2-4mA
D : 4-20mA
Q.no 56. Which equipement purifies AC waveform
A : Line Conditioner
B : Rectifier
C : Regulator
D : Transformer
Q.no 57. Micro size PLC can handle
A : 8 I/Os
B : 16 I/Os
C : 32 I/Os
D : 1024 I/Os
Q.no 58. In adjust and observed method, system response
becomes faster if
A : Kp is tunned
B : If Ki is tunned
C : if Kd is tunned
D : If both Kp & Kd are tunned
Q.no 59. Which of the following protocol is based on CAN
protocol?
A : DNP3 protocol
B : DeviceNet protocol
C : Control and Information Protocol
D : Control Net Protocol
Q.no 60. Protocol used for presentation layer in OSI model
A : SMTP
B : SNMP
C : HTTP
D : UDP