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Intensive Program For Neet-2021: CST - 9 Answer Key

The document contains an answer key for a 200 question test with subject codes and answers. It also includes hints and solutions for some of the physics questions on the test related to topics like current, voltage, temperature, electric field, resolving power, interference, and resistance. The test was for an intensive NEET preparation program and took place on August 20, 2021 with a duration of 3 hours.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
851 views12 pages

Intensive Program For Neet-2021: CST - 9 Answer Key

The document contains an answer key for a 200 question test with subject codes and answers. It also includes hints and solutions for some of the physics questions on the test related to topics like current, voltage, temperature, electric field, resolving power, interference, and resistance. The test was for an intensive NEET preparation program and took place on August 20, 2021 with a duration of 3 hours.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 12

20/08/2021 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2021 Time : 3 Hrs.

CST – 9

Answer Key

1. (1) 41. (3) 81. (4) 121. (1) 161. (3)


2. (3) 42. (2) 82. (4) 122. (4) 162. (2)
3. (3) 43. (2) 83. (1) 123. (2) 163. (4)
4. (1) 44. (3) 84. (2) 124. (3) 164. (2)
5. (2) 45. (3) 85. (3) 125. (4) 165. (2)
6. (3) 46. (1) 86. (2) 126. (2) 166. (2)
7. (2) 47. (4) 87. (4) 127. (1) 167. (2)
8. (1) 48. (2) 88. (1) 128. (1) 168. (4)
9. (3) 49. (3) 89. (3) 129. (3) 169. (4)
10. (3) 50. (3) 90. (4) 130. (2) 170. (2)
11. (3) 51. (3) 91. (2) 131. (4) 171. (1)
12. (1) 52. (1) 92. (1) 132. (2) 172. (2)
13. (2) 53. (2) 93. (3) 133. (3) 173. (2)
14. (4) 54. (4) 94. (4) 134. (4) 174. (2)
15. (3) 55. (4) 95. (2) 135. (2) 175. (2)
16. (1) 56. (1) 96. (3) 136. (2) 176. (2)
17. (2) 57. (2) 97. (2) 137. (1) 177. (1)
18. (1) 58. (2) 98. (4) 138. (1) 178. (3)
19. (2) 59. (3) 99. (4) 139. (3) 179. (2)
20. (3) 60. (4) 100. (1) 140. (1) 180. (2)
21. (1) 61. (4) 101. (2) 141. (3) 181. (3)
22. (4) 62. (3) 102. (1) 142. (1) 182. (3)
23. (4) 63. (2) 103. (4) 143. (4) 183. (4)
24. (1) 64. (1) 104. (2) 144. (2) 184. (3)
25. (3) 65. (1) 105. (2) 145. (2) 185. (3)
26. (3) 66. (2) 106. (4) 146. (2) 186. (2)
27. (2) 67. (3) 107. (3) 147. (3) 187. (2)
28. (2) 68. (3) 108. (4) 148. (1) 188. (3)
29. (4) 69. (1) 109. (1) 149. (4) 189. (1)
30. (2) 70. (4) 110. (2) 150. (2) 190. (2)
31. (3) 71. (4) 111. (3) 151. (2) 191. (3)
32. (3) 72. (3) 112. (4) 152. (3) 192. (4)
33. (2) 73. (2) 113. (1) 153. (1) 193. (4)
34. (4) 74. (2) 114. (1) 154. (4) 194. (2)
35. (3) 75. (2) 115. (4) 155. (1) 195. (3)
36. (2) 76. (1) 116. (2) 156. (1) 196. (2)
37. (4) 77. (3) 117. (2) 157. (4) 197. (2)
38. (3) 78. (4) 118. (3) 158. (3) 198. (3)
39. (2) 79. (3) 119. (2) 159. (4) 199. (3)
40. (4) 80. (1) 120. (1) 160. (3) 200. (1)

(1)
20/08/2021 CODE-A

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456

MM : 720 INTENSIVE PROGRAM for NEET-2021 Time : 3:00 Hrs.

CST – 9
Hints and Solutions

PHYSICS
SECTION-A For constructive interference (∆) = nλ
1. Answer (1) Hence distance on x-axis is 4λ
Voltage drop across 1500 Ω resistance is 4. Answer (1)
VR = 10 V V = b – ar2
2
– dV
⇒ Current through R2 is =E = 2ar
dr
VR2 10
⇒ IR2 = = = 6.67 mA KQr
R2 1500 ⇒ Electric field inside charged ball =
R3
⇒ Current through R1 is
4
5 1× ρ × × πR 3 × r
⇒ IR1 = = 10−2 A ⇒ 3 2ar
=
500 4πε0 R 3
⇒ Current through Zener diode is
⇒ ρ = 6aε0
Iz = IR1 − IR2 = 3.33 mA
5. Answer (2)
2. Answer (3) 1
Resolving power ∝
PT2 = constant λ
 nRT  2 (R.P.)1 λ 2 5000 5
⇒  T =constant ⇒ == =
 V  (R.P.)2 λ1 4000 4
⇒ T3 = KV 6. Answer (3)
2 Ie ne × e × A × v e 7 v e
dV 3T 3V
⇒ = = = = ×
dT K T Ih nh × e × A × v h 5 v h
1  dV  3 ve 7 5 5
Hence
= γ =  ∴ = × =
V  dT  T vh 4 7 4
3. Answer (3) 7. Answer (2)
E = σ AT4
E1 A1T14 4πd 2T 4
⇒ = =
E2 A2T24 d2
4π (2T )4
4
⇒ E2 = 4E

(2)
Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

8. Answer (1) 15. Answer (3)

T 40 R2 = a2 + b2 + 2abcosθ
=
v =
µ 0.4 ⇒ 3x2 = x2 + x2 + 2x2cosθ
v = 10 ms–1 ⇒ θ = 60°

9. Answer (3) When direction of b is reversed so
V – VD 10 − 0.5

= i = = 4.75 mA ⇒ φ = 120°
R 2000
⇒ R12  x 2  x 2  2 x 2 cos120
10. Answer (3)
µ0 i R′ = x
B1 =
2R 16. Answer (1)
Let resultant temperature is T°C
µ0 iR 2 µ0 l
=B2 = ⇒ 10 × 1(60° – T) = 5 × 1 × (T – 20°)
2 2 3/2 2× 2 2R
2(R + x )
 140 
B1 2 2 ⇒=
T   °C
=  3 
B2 1
17. Answer (2)
11. Answer (3)
  y = A sinωt
∆W F ⋅ S
=
Pav = A
t t ⇒ = A sin ωt
2
(2iˆ + 4 ˆj + 3kˆ ) ⋅ (3iˆ + 5 ˆj + 4kˆ ) π
= ⇒ ωt =
2 6
6 + 20 + 12 π T
=Pav = 19 watt ⇒ t= =
2 6ω 12
12. Answer (1) 18. Answer (1)
Due to single branch connected two circuit Energy required = (T.E.)f – (T.E)i
current in 15 Ω resistor is zero.
−GMm  –GMm 
13. Answer (2) ⇒=
E − 
8R  4R 
V 8.0
=
R = = 4.0 Ω GMm
I 2.0 ⇒ E= = 1.57 × 109 J
8R
∆R ∆V ∆I
⇒ = + 19. Answer (2)
R V I
mdv
 0.8 0.2  P  Fv  v
⇒ ∆R
=  +  × 4.0
= 0.8 Ω dt
 8.0 2.0 
14. Answer (4)  mvdv   dt
v= 4t2 + 2t + 1
mv 2
S 2 2  t2
∫0 =
ds ∫ (4t
0
+ 2t + 1)dt 2

2 2 ∴ v 2 ∝ t or v ∝ t
 4t  2t 3 2
2
⇒=
S   +  + [t ]0 20. Answer (3)
 3 0  2 0
[α t3] = [M0L0T0]
50
⇒ S=m [α] = [M0L0T–3]
3

(3)
CST-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

21. Answer (1) 27. Answer (2)


1 2 1 2 −k
Mv = Iω F=
2 2 r3
1 1 v2 k
⇒ Mv 2 = Mk 2 ⇒ =mr ω2
3
2 2 R2 r

k2 1
⇒ 1
= ⇒ ω2 ∝
R2 r4
So body is ring. 1
⇒ ω∝
22. Answer (4) r2
Total mechanical energy of oscillator remains ⇒ T ∝ r2
constant. So time period is infinite. 28. Answer (2)
23. Answer (4) Frequency remains same for input and output in
– Ldi transformer.
Induced emf (e) =
dt 29. Answer (4)
e = –1 (sint + t cost) 2ε0 A 3 Aε0 5 Aε0
C1 = C1′ + C2′ = + =
e = –sint – t cost 2d 2d 2d
24. Answer (1) C1′′C2′′ 12 Aε0
=
C2 =
5
5
−1 −1 C1′′C2′′ 5d
 8V  3
(300)V 3 = T2  
 27  C1 25
⇒ =
C2 24
9
T2 300 =
⇒=  675 K
4 30. Answer (2)
Rise in temperature = 675 – 300 = 375 K VR = 2 V
25. Answer (3) 8
⇒ IR= = 1.6 A
⇒ W = FS cosθ 5

⇒ cosθ = 0; θ = 90º V = IR

26. Answer (3) ⇒ 2 = 1.6R; R = 1.25 Ω


31. Answer (3)
 −u 
m1u + m2 × 0 = m1 ×   + m2v
 2  In first case diverging lens (µ1 > µ)

 u In second case no deviation (µ2 = µ)


m1  u +  =
m2v
 2 32. Answer (3)
u Y= A + B
3m1 = m2v ...(1)
2
= A⋅B
For head on collision e = 1 (elastic)
33. Answer (2)
u Neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries
v 2 − v1 v + 2
⇒=
e = = 1 of the system.
u1 − u2 u − 0
34. Answer (4)
u Photoelectric saturation current (i) ∝ intensity (I)
⇒ v= ...(2)
2
35. Answer (3)
m 1
⇒ 1 = f
m2 3 Internal energy (U ) = nRT
2

(4)
Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

SECTION-B nh
⇒ 2πr = = nλ = 2λ
36. Answer (2) mv
f = µN 44. Answer (3)
µ = Coefficient of friction which depends on the Decreasing order of wavelength are given as
nature of surface.
UV-rays > X-rays > γ-rays
37. Answer (4)
45. Answer (3)
1
0n → 11p + −01e + ν
E0
=c
38. Answer (3) B0
t
 1 T E 18 × 10−3
N = N0   1/2 ⇒ B0 = 0 = =6 × 10−11 T
c 8
2 3 × 10
t /T1/2 46. Answer (1)
N0  1
⇒ =
N0  
4 2 4v 2v
=
fopen =
⇒ t = 2T1/2 = 120 days 2L L

39. Answer (2) 7v


fclose =
237 229 4 4L
Y → Z + 2 He + Energy
93 89 2 2v
fopen L 8
A 237 0 = =
X → Y + 2 β + 2ν fclose 7v 7
Z 93 +1 4L
Z = 95; A = 237 47. Answer (4)
40. Answer (4) 1
I∝
1 1 1 r2
= +
f v u
I0
1 1 1 I2 =
⇒ = + 4
−30 v u
48. Answer (2)
−v 
m=
u φ= E ⋅ A= ( 2ai + b j ) ⋅ ( Ai )

⇒ v = ± 3u φ = 2aA
⇒ u = – 20 cm and – 40 cm. 49. Answer (3)
41. Answer (3) R1 R3
=
Preceeding zeroes are not significant number. R2 R4
42. Answer (2)
10 40
XL = XC =
20 R4
1
⇒ 2πfL = R4 = 80 Ω
2πfC
50. Answer (3)
1 1
⇒C = = = 2.5 µF
4 π2 f 2 L 4 × 10 × 106 × 10 × 10−3 For circular motion : radial acceleration should be
non-zero.
43. Answer (2)
ar ≠ 0; at = 0; Uniform circular motion
nh
mvr =
2π ar ≠ 0; at ≠ 0; Non-uniform circular motion

(5)
CST-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A 61. Answer (4)
51. Answer (3)
3º carbocation is most stable so rearrangement
not take place.
52. Answer (1) 62. Answer (3)
1.4 × meq. of NH3 pKa : NO2CH2COOH < FCH2COOH < HCOOH <
% of N =
Mass of compound C6H5CH2COOH
63. Answer (2)
1.4 × (10 × 0.1)
= = 14% 3º-amine does not react with Hinsberg reagent.
0.1
64. Answer (1)
53. Answer (2)
Aromatic ketones containing electron donating
group are less reactive towards nucleophilic
addition reactions.
65. Answer (1)
λm 19.5
=
α =
o
= 0.05
λm 349.1 + 40.9
54. Answer (4) 66. Answer (2)
Oxide of C S and N dissolve in water and causes
⇒ In mercury cell, paste of KOH and ZnO used
acid rain. as electrolyte
55. Answer (4) 67. Answer (3)
The elements of group-3, 4, 5 (d-block) and For nth order reaction :
f-block elements form metallic hydrides.
1−n
56. Answer (1)  mol 
Unit of k =   sec −1
∆  litre 
Li2CO3  → Li2O + CO2
68. Answer (3)
57. Answer (2) The temperature coefficient for most of the
reactions lies between 2 to 3.
69. Answer (1)
Air is a homogeneous mixture of gases
70. Answer (4)
Fe(Z = 26) : [Ar] 3d6 4s2 4p0

58. Answer (2)


2
Number of electrons = × 1× NA =NA
2 71. Answer (4)
59. Answer (3)
nh
Angular momentum in nth orbit =

60. Answer (4)
ν : X-rays > UV rays > IR waves > Radio waves

(6)
Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

72. Answer (3) 84. Answer (2)


Option (3) contains chiral centre with no plane of Dispersion forces are present in non-polar
symmetry so optically active. molecules like O2 and N2
73. Answer (2)
85. Answer (3)
Aromatic SN reaction is favoured when better
leaving group (–Br) is present and w.r.t leaving C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g)
group strong electron withdrawing group (–NO2) ∆ng = 0
is present at o, p-position
74. Answer (2) ∆H = ∆E + ∆ngRT = ∆E

R – X + Na – O – R’ → R – O – R’ + Nax SECTION-B
75. Answer (2) 86. Answer (2)
In CCP lattice, if number of atoms = n
Then number of atoms in tetrahedral void (s) = 2n
87. Answer (4)


=Tb iK bm ⇒ ∆Tb ∝ i

∴ ( ∆Tb )glucos e : ( ∆Tb )KCl : ( ∆Tb )Na SO =


1: 2 : 3
2 4

76. Answer (1)


88. Answer (1)
Mo O
CH4 + O2  2 3
543 K, 100 atm
→ HCHO + H2O L-Erythrose form contains similar groups on
same side
77. Answer (3)
 As2S3 sol is negatively charged sol 89. Answer (3)
 Coagulating power: Al3+ > Mg2+ > K+ Ethylene + Terephthalic → Dacron
78. Answer (4) glycol acid (polyester)
Among isoelectronic ions, lesser the no. of
protons, more will be the ionic radii. 90. Answer (4)

79. Answer (3) Butylated hydroxy anisole (BHA) is used as


Correct order dipole moment is: antioxidant.

H2O > NH3 > NF3 > CO2 91. Answer (2)
80. Answer (1)
BrF5 : Hybrid orbital = σ-bond + Lp = 5 + 1 = 6 =
sp3d2 hybridised
81. Answer (4) 92. Answer (1)
Salt of strong acid and strong base (NaNO3) do
not hydrolyse C6H5OCH2CH3 : Ethoxybenzene (IUPAC name)

82. Answer (4) 93. Answer (3)

2 Reimer-Tiemann reaction:
mole 2
[H2=
] = = 1M
V(L) 1
83. Answer (1)
Oxidation : Cl2 → 2Cl+ + 2e–
Reduction : Cl2 + 2e– → 2Cl– 94. Answer (4)
M M Aldehyde & Ketone
Amine  → > C = NR
E = EOxi + ERed = + =M (Substituted imine)
2 2
(7)
CST-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

95. Answer (2) 98. Answer (4)


Compound Boiling point (K)
n-butane 273 In , lone pair of electrons on
Acetone 329 N-atom is not delocalized in the benzene ring so
Methoxyethane 281 most basic among the given options.
Propanal 322 99. Answer (4)
96. Answer (3) Due to H-bonding boiling point of NH3 is more
Due to dominant repulsive forces He gas always than that of ASH3 and PH3.
shows positive deviation from ideal gas ∴ Boiling point: SbH3 > NH3 > AsH3 > PH3
behaviour.
100. Answer (1)
97. Answer (2)
When three parts of conc. HCl and one part of
When gaseous moles decreases, entropy
conc. HNO3 are mixed, aqua regia is formed.
decreases.

BOTANY
SECTION-A 110. Answer (2)
101. Answer (2) Carrot, henbane and marigold plants flower only
once in their life and then they die. Grapevine is
Tendrils are not perennating organs. They
polycarpic, so, interflowering period is present in
provide support to the weak stem.
this plant.
102. Answer (1)
111. Answer (3)
Type of leaf in Solanum nigrum is simple and Nucellus forms the body of ovule. It is made up of
flowers are hypogynous. parenchymatous cells.
103. Answer (4) 112. Answer (4)
At maturity, phloem fibres, vessels, tracheids and Seeds are enclosed in fruits in angiosperms. In
xylem fibres of vascular tissues are dead cells. angiosperms, gametophytes are non-
104. Answer (2) photosynthetic and dependent on sporophyte
parent plant.
Endodermis is absent in monocot stem.
113. Answer (1)
105. Answer (2)
In incomplete dominance and co-dominance, the
Bentham and Hooker gave natural system of heterozygous individuals show different
classification for angiosperms. phenotypic characters as compared to
106. Answer (4) homozygous individuals.

Eucalyptus is an angiosperm. Angiosperms do 114. Answer (1)


not form archegonia. Recombination frequency of genes are
dependent on the distance between genes.
107. Answer (3)
Male grasshopper has only one sex chromosome
If the pressure greater than atmospheric
in its somatic cell whereas female has two sex
pressure is applied to pure water, its water
chromosomes.
potential increases.
115. Answer (4)
108. Answer (4)
Heterocyclic purines are present in both RNA
Increased concentration of CO2 in sub-stomatal and DNA.
cavity causes closing of stomata.
116. Answer (2)
109. Answer (1)
DNA ligase is required for the joining of Okazaki
In unicellular organisms, the parent body as a fragments synthesized on the template strand
whole forms reproductive unit. with polarity 5′ → 3′.

(8)
Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

117. Answer (2) 131. Answer (4)


Plasmodesmata forms the living component in Cytochrome c acts as mobile electron carrier in
the dead cell wall of plants. ETS between complex III and complex IV.
118. Answer (3) 132. Answer (2)
Lysosome has acidic condition inside it. Phellogen is also called cork cambium. It is
dedifferentiated tissue.
119. Answer (2)
133. Answer (3)
Disintegration of nuclear envelope marks the
beginning of the metaphase. Gibberellin promotes germination of seeds
whereas abscisic acid promotes its dormancy.
120. Answer (1)
134. Answer (4)
Pairing of homologous chromosomes occurs in
prophase I of meiosis but not in prophase of Emasculation is essential if the female parent
mitosis. bears bisexual flowers.
135. Answer (2)
121. Answer (1)
Protina is lysine-rich variety of maize.
Keys are generally analytical in nature.
SECTION-B
122. Answer (4)
136. Answer (2)
Members of Kingdom Animalia are mostly
holozoic. Nucleopolyhedrovirus is pathogen that attack
insects.
123. Answer (2)
Ladybird is effective to control aphids.
White rust in Brassica is caused by Albugo
candida which belongs to the class 137. Answer (1)
Phycomycetes. Cyclosporin A – Trichoderma polysporum
(Deuteromycetes)
124. Answer (3)
Statins – Monascus purpureus (Ascomycetes)
Magnesium helps in maintaining ribosome
structure. 138. Answer (1)
125. Answer (4) Tropical rainforests receive annual rainfall up to
450 cm.
The enzyme nitrogenase is synthesized only by
nitrogen fixing prokaryotes. 139. Answer (3)
126. Answer (2) Stenothermal can be both, warm blooded and
cold blooded.
Non-cyclic photophosphorylation occurs in the
granal thylakoids. 140. Answer (1)
Producer → Primary consumer
 → Secondary consumer

127. Answer (1)
(T1 ) (T2 ) (T3 )
Cornelius van Niel for the first time demonstrated 9000 J
10%

→ 900 J
10%

→ 90 J
that oxygen is evolved from H2O during
photosynthesis. 141. Answer (3)

128. Answer (1) Pyramid of number in a tree ecosystem can be


inverted or urn shaped.
Photorespiration involves mitochondrion,
142. Answer (1)
peroxisome and chloroplast. These organelles
are not involved in endomembrane system. Decreasing order of the number of species of
fungi, fishes, birds and reptiles is as follows:
129. Answer (3)
Fungi > Fishes > Birds > Reptiles
From one molecule of glucose, substrate level
formation of 4 ATP occurs in glycolysis and of 2 143. Answer (4)
ATP occurs in Krebs cycle. Nile perch is alien species to lake Victoria of East
130. Answer (2) Africa.

NADH + H+ is utilized in alcoholic and lactic acid 144. Answer (2)


fermentation. Therefore net gain of NADH + H+ is Eutrophication of water bodies is especially due
zero. to the enrichment of nitrogen and phosphorus.

(9)
CST-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions) Intensive Program for NEET-2021

145. Answer (2) 148. Answer (1)


Rising level of greenhouse gases cause global Wheat and brinjal, both are angiosperms.
warming. 149. Answer (4)
146. Answer (2) Long day plants flowers when they receives long
Tetradynamous condition of stamens are present photoperiods. Day neutral plants flower in any
in Brassica. light duration.
147. Answer (3) 150. Answer (2)
Down’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder. It On mRNA 5′ AUG 3′ codes for methionine. The
is not inherited in the offsprings. anticodon of this codon is 3′ UAC 5′.

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 160. Answer (3)
151. Answer (2) Steapsin is present in pancreatic juice which acts
Bony fishes have external fertilisation whereas on glycerides.
cartilaginous fishes have internal fertilisation. 161 Answer (3)
152. Answer (3) Partial pressure of CO2 and O2 in oxygenated
blood is 40 and 95 mm Hg respectively.
Reptiles, birds and mammals possess
metanephric kidney. 162. Answer (2)
153. Answer (1) In PNS, schwann cells secrete myelin sheath.
Antedon belongs to phylum Echinodermata. 163. Answer (4)
154. Answer (4) Scala tympani terminates at the round window,
which opens to the middle ear.
Erythropoietin is secreted from JG cells of
kidney. 164. Answer (2)
155. Answer (1) TRH acts on pituitary gland to secrete TSH.
Atrial systole begins with end of joint diastole. 165. Answer (2)
156. Answer (1) Hydrophilic hormones cannot cross plasma
membrane, so they interact with membrane
A person having only anti-B antibodies in his bound receptors and generate secondary
plasma, should have antigen A on RBCs. messengers for their actions in a cell.
Therefore he can donate blood to people with
blood groups A and AB. 166. Answer (2)

157. Answer (4) Interferon is a cytokine barrier of innate immunity.


167. Answer (2)
Communication junctions (intercalated discs) are
present at some fusion points in cardiac muscle Biopiracy is the term used to refer to the use of
tissue, which allow the cells to contract as a unit, bio-resources by MNC and other organisations
i.e., when one cell receives a signal to contract, without proper authorisation.
its neighbours are also stimulated to contract. 168. Answer (4)
158. Answer (3) dUTP and ATP are not required in PCR.
Cellulose is a linear structural polymer of glucose 169. Answer (4)
units, linked through β-1,4-glycosidic bonds.
Gene for β-carotene were extracted from
Chloride ions are required for the catalytic activity
Daffodil.
of salivary amylase. GLUT-4 is a protein, which
act as a glucose transporter. 170. Answer (2)

159. Answer (4) 5′-GAATTC-3′


Brunner's gland are present in submucosa of 3′-CTTAAG-5′
duodenum. is palindromic sequence for EcoRI.

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Intensive Program for NEET-2021 CST-9 (Code-A)_(Hints & Solutions)

171. Answer (1) SECTION-B


Recognition site for EcoRI is present in between 186. Answer (2)
two selectable marker. The level of gonadotropins like FSH and LH
172. Answer (2) attain their peak at the end of follicular phase,
Pivot joint is also present between atlas and axis just prior to ovulation.
vertebrae. 187. Answer (2)
173. Answer (2) Number of chromosome in meiocyte of human is
Girdle bones are six in number. 46.

174. Answer (2) 188. Answer (3)

In center of A band (H zone) only thick filaments IUI-Intra-uterine insemination.


are present. 189. Answer (1)
175. Answer (2) Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes.
Bhang, charas and marijuana are obtained from 190. Answer (2)
hemp plant. GHP – (CHP + BCOP)
176. Answer (2) 60 – (20 + 30)
Tears and saliva are considered in physiological = 10 mmHg
barriers of innate immunity.
191. Answer (3)
177. Answer (1)
ADH prevents diuresis.
Aedes mosquito is the vector for both dengue
and chikungunya. 192. Answer (4)

178. Answer (3) Duration of a cardiac cycle is 0.8 second.

Australian marsupials represent adaptive 193. Answer (4)


radiation. Cephalochordates possess flame cells for
179. Answer (2) excretion. Excretory system is absent in
Echinoderms.
Mammals were evolved from therapsids.
194. Answer (2)
180. Answer (2)
Cretinism is associated with hypothyroidism.
Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cc.
195. Answer (3)
181. Answer (3)
Each jaw contains 6 molar teeth.
India's population was approximately 350 million,
at the time of independence. 196. Answer (2)

182. Answer (3) Pheretima and Hirudinaria are monoecious


organisms.
Implants have mechanism of action similar to that
of oral pills. Multiload 375 is a copper releasing 197. Answer (2)
IUD. Saheli prevent only implantation. Value of pO2 and pCO2 in deoxygenated blood is
183. Answer (4) 40 and 45 mmHg respectively.

Most of the major organ systems are formed by 198. Answer (3)
end of first trimester. Lysine is a basic amino acid.
184. Answer (3) 199. Answer (3)
Zona pellucida is non-cellular. The digestion of fat mainly occurs in small
185. Answer (3) intestine.

A pair of ejaculatory ducts open into prostatic 200. Answer (1)


part of urethra. Bone marrow is a primary lymphoid organ.

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Edition: 2020-21

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