O X F O R D I B P R E P A R E D

CHEMIS T RY

ANSWERS

I B D I P L O M A P R O G R A M M E

Sergey Bylikin

Brian Murphy

Alexandra Juniper
IB Prepared Chemistry
Answers to practice problems

Here are the answers to the practice problems from IB Prepared Chemistry.

For direct access, click on the name of the chapter.

Topic 1 Stoichiometric Topic 14 Chemical bonding and

relationships structure (AHL)

Topic 2 Atomic structure Topic 15

Energetics/thermochemistry
Topic 3 Periodicity (AHL)

Topic 4 Chemical bonding and Topic 16 Chemical kinetics

structure (AHL)

Topic 5 Topic 17 Equilibrium (AHL)

Energetics/thermochemistry
Topic 18 Acid and bases (AHL)
Topic 6 Chemical kinetics
Topic 19 Redox processes (AHL)
Topic 7 Equilibrium
Topic 20 Organic chemistry
Topic 8 Acid and bases (AHL)

Topic 9 Redox processes Topic 21 Measurement and

analysis (AHL)
Topic 10 Organic chemistry
22 Data-based and practical
Topic 11 Measurement and questions (Section A)
data processing
Option A Materials
Topic 12 Atomic structure (AHL)
Option B Biochemistry
Topic 13 The periodic table—the
transition metals (AHL) Option C Energy

Option D Medicinal chemistry

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

1 Stoichiometric relationships
1. Anode (negative electrode):
+ –
C2H5OH(g) + H2O(l) → CH3COOH(aq) + 4H (aq) + 4e
Cathode (positive electrode):
+ –
O2(g) + 4H (aq) + 4e → 2H2O(l)
2+ –
2. Each structural unit of calcium nitrate contains three ions, one Ca and two NO3 .
Therefore, 0.25 mol of calcium nitrate will contain 3 × 0.25 = 0.75 mol ions.
23 –1 23
The number of ions will be 0.75 mol × 6.02 × 10 mol ≈ 4.5 × 10 .
–1
3. M(CH2O) = 12.01 + 2 × 1.01 + 16.00 = 30.03 g mol , which is twice as low as the molar
mass. Therefore, one molecule of compound X contains twice as many atoms as its
empirical formula, so the molecular formula of X is C2H4O2.

4. CxH2y + (x + 0.5y)O2 → xCO2 + yH2O

1.75 g
n(C) = n(CO2) = ≈ 0.0398 mol
44.01 g mol–1
0.836 g
n(H) = 2 × n(H2O) = 2 × ≈ 0.0928 mol
18.02 g mol–1
n(C) 0.0398 mol 3
= ≈ , so the empirical formula of Y is C3H7.
n(H) 0.0928 mol 7
–1
M(C3H7) = 3 × 12.01 + 7 × 1.01 = 43.10 g mol , which is twice as low as the molar mass
of Y. Therefore, the molecular formula of Y is C6H14.

5. 1.7 g
n(NaNO3) = = 0.020 mol
85.00 g mol–1
0.020 mol –3
c(NaNO3) = 3 = 0.20 mol dm
0.10 dm
Therefore, the correct answer is C.

6. a) C3H8(g) + 5O2(g) → 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(l)

–1
b) M(C3H8) = 3 × 12.01 + 8 × 1.01 = 44.11 g mol
4.00 g
n(C3H8) = ≈ 0.0907 mol
44.11 g mol–1
68.2 g
n(O2) = ≈ 2.13 mol
32.00 g mol–1
According to the equation, the complete combustion of 0.0907 mol of propane would
require 5 × 0.0907 ≈ 0.454 mol of oxygen. The amount of oxygen in the reaction
mixture (2.13 mol) was greater than required, so propane was the limiting reactant.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

7. According to section 1 of the data booklet, pV = nRT, so:

nRT 0.350 mol × 8.31 J mol–1 K–1 × 299 K –3 3 3
V= = ≈ 7.56 × 10 m = 7.56 dm
p 1.15 × 105 Pa
Note that the pressure was converted from kPa to Pa, and the temperature from °C to K:
T = 26.0 + 273 = 299 K.

2 Atomic structure
1. The correct answer is C.
Note that the positive charge (2+) means that the ion has two fewer electrons than protons.

2. UV photons are produced by excited hydrogen atoms when their electrons fall from higher
energy levels to the ground level (n = 1). Therefore, the correct answer is C.
2+ 9
3. The electron configuration of Cu is [Ar]3d , so one orbital of the 3d sublevel contains a
single electron. All other orbitals in this ion are either full (contain electron pairs) or empty,
so the correct answer is B.

4. Nucleus: six protons and seven neutrons.

Orbital diagram:

5. a) The heights of the first and second peaks are approximately 69% and 31%,
respectively. Therefore:
61 × 69% + 65 × 31%
Ar = ≈ 62
100%
b) The element with the closest atomic mass is copper (Ar = 63.55). The difference in
atomic mass is probably caused by the unusual isotopic composition of the studied
sample.

6. Many characteristics of isolated atoms, such as the density of their electron clouds or their
ability to interact with other atoms, are spherically symmetrical and change steeply at a
certain distance from the nucleus, so it's logical to represent the atom as a ball or sphere
with a radius equal to that distance. In addition, atoms are quantum objects with no definite
shapes or sizes, which justifies the use of simplest geometric figures (balls or spheres) for
their visualisation. Finally, it is difficult to draw or display an object without a surface while a
sphere can be easily represented on paper or computer screen.
2 2 6 2 6 10 2 1
7. a) Ga: 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p
3– 2 2 6 2 6
P : 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p
2+ 2 2 6 2 6 3
V : 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d
3
b) [Ar] 3d
c) F:

2+
Ni :

In both cases, full or condensed electron diagrams are acceptable.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

3 Periodicity
1. The correct answer is B.
2 2 6 2 4 2 4
2. a) Electron configuration: 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p , or [Ne]3s 3p .
The period number shows the highest energy level (partly) filled with electrons. In
sulfur, it is the third level, so this element belongs to the third period.
For main group elements, the group number is equal to the number of outer electrons
plus 10. Sulfur has six outer electrons (two on the 3s and four on the 3p sublevel), so
this element belongs to group 16 (as 6 + 10 = 16).
2+ 9
b) Cu : [Ar]3d
2+ 10
Zn : [Ar]3d
Copper forms ions with an incomplete 3d sublevel, so it is a transition element by
definition. The 3d sublevel in zinc and all its known ions is complete, so zinc is not a
transition element.

3. Metals: Ba only. Metalloids: Ge and Si. Non-metals: I, Kr and H.

4. a) The first electron in boron is lost from the 2p sublevel, which produces a relatively
2 0
stable configuration with one full sublevel (2s ) and one empty sublevel (2p ). In
contrast, the first electron in beryllium is lost from the 2s sublevel, which produces a
1
less stable configuration with an incomplete sublevel (2s ). Therefore, boron loses an
electron more readily than beryllium and thus has a lower first ionization energy.
b) The situation is similar to that in (a). The loss of one electron changes the
3
configuration of the 2p sublevel in nitrogen from 2p (half-full and thus relatively
2
stable) to 2p (neither empty, nor full, nor half-full, and thus less stable). In the case of
4
oxygen, the loss of one electron changes the configuration of the 2p sublevel from 2p
3
(neither empty, nor full, nor half-full, and thus less stable) to 2p (half-full and thus
more stable). Therefore, oxygen loses an electron more readily than nitrogen and thus
has a lower first ionization energy.

4 Chemical bonding and structure

1. PCl3: χ(P) = 2.2, χ(Cl) = 3.2, Δχ = 3.2 – 2.2 = 1.0, hence polar covalent bond.
HCl: χ(H) = 2.2, χ(Cl) = 3.2, Δχ = 3.2 – 2.2 = 1.0, hence polar covalent bond.
MgF2: χ(Mg) = 1.3, χ(F) = 4.0, Δχ = 4.0 – 1.3 = 2.7, hence ionic bond.

2. Bond length decreases as follows: single > double > triple. The only compound with a triple
carbon-to-oxygen bond is carbon monoxide, CO, so the correct answer is A.

3. In water, each covalent bond is formed by pairing single electrons from participating atoms.
In ammonium, nitrogen donates a lone electron pair to the empty orbital of a hydrogen
cation, thus forming a coordinate bond. Similarly, the coordinate bond in carbon monoxide
is formed from a lone electron pair of oxygen and an empty orbital of carbon. Therefore, the
correct answer is C.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

4. a)
Electron
Molecular Bond
Species Lewis structure domain
geometry angle(s)
geometry

–
[BF4] tetrahedral tetrahedral 109.5°

V-shaped
H2S tetrahedral < 109.5°
(bent)

trigonal trigonal
BF2Cl ≈ 120°
planar planar

2– trigonal trigonal
CO3 120°
planar planar

– 2–
Note that the negative signs in the Lewis structures of [BF 4] and CO3 can also be
2–
shown at the B and O atoms, respectively. For CO3 , three equivalent Lewis
structures are possible.
The F–B–F and F–B–Cl bond angles in BF2Cl differ slightly due to uneven distribution
of electron density within the molecule. However, this difference is very small, so the
answer "120°" is also acceptable.
b) Both molecules are polar. In H2S, the dipoles of S–H bonds are positioned at an
angle to each other and not cancelled by the dipoles of the lone electron pairs.
In BF2Cl, the dipoles of B–F and B–Cl do not cancel each other due to the
different electronegativities and covalent radii of fluorine and chlorine.
c) Resonance structure:

All three carbon-to-oxygen bonds in this ion have the same length, as the distribution
of electron density is symmetrical. The exact length of these bonds is intermediate
between the lengths of a single and a double carbon-to-oxygen bonds.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

5. There are three ways in which propanoic acid and water can form hydrogen bonds with
each other:

Any two of these or similar diagrams are likely to score the full mark at the examination.

6. In contrast to HCl, the molecules of HF can form hydrogen bonds with one another.
Therefore, HF has a higher boiling point than HCl.

7. a)

methanal hydrogen peroxide fluoromethane

b) Only the molecules of hydrogen peroxide can form hydrogen bonds with one another,
so this substance is likely to be liquid at 298 K.

8. Both elements form metallic lattices, in which metal cations are held together by the sea of
2+
delocalised electrons. However, doubly charged ions of magnesium, Mg , experience a
stronger electrostatic attraction to the delocalised electrons than singly charged ions of
+
sodium, Na . A stronger metallic lattice requires more energy to break, so the melting point
of magnesium metal is higher than that of sodium metal.

5 Energetics/thermochemistry
1. a) Your answer can include any two of the following assumptions:
 no heat was lost to the environment;
 the heat capacity of the calorimeter/thermometer/zinc metal was negligible;
 the specific heat capacity of the solution was the same as that of water;
 the change in mass of the solution during the reaction was negligible.
b) i) If no heat were lost, and the reaction were instantaneous, the temperature would
rise instantly from 24.5 to 73.0°C. Therefore, the temperature change would be
73.0 – 24.5 = 48.5°C.
Note that the highest estimated temperature (73.0°C) can either be found as the
point on the dashed red line at t = 100 s or calculated from the equation T = –
0.050t + 78.0.
ii) During the reaction, the mixture was losing heat to the environment at a
constant rate.
iii) Since the density of the solution is not given, we can only assume that the
solution was dilute, and its density was approximately the same as that of water
–3
(1.00 kg dm ). Therefore:
3 –3
m(solution) = 0.050 dm × 1.00 kg dm = 0.050 kg
–1 –1
Heat change = 0.050 kg × 4.18 kJ kg K × 48.5 K ≈ 10 kJ

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

c) Since the solution became colourless, all copper(II) ions had reacted with zinc metal.
2+
Therefore, Cu (aq) was the limiting reactant while Zn(s) was in excess.
2+ 3 –3
n(Cu ) = 0.050 dm × 1.00 mol dm = 0.050 mol
2+
Δn(Zn) = n(Cu ) = 0.050 mol
d) o heat released 10 kJ –1
ΔH = – =– = –200 kJ mol
∆n 0.050 mol
o
Since the reaction involves one mole of each ion, ΔH r = –200 kJ.
o
Note that the reaction was exothermic, so ΔH r < 0.

2. To produce the final equation, we need to add together the first two equations. Therefore,
their enthalpy values will be added together as well:
ΔH = ΔH1 + ΔH2 = +182.6 kJ + (–116.2 kJ) = +66.4 kJ
o
3. a) ΔH = –1675.7 – (–824.2) = –851.5 kJ
o
Note that the ΔH f values for elementary substances, Al(s) and Fe(s), are zero.
o
b) Since ΔH < 0, the reaction is exothermic.

4. a) C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l)

Bonds broken:
5 × C–H + 1 × C–C + 1 × C–O + 1 × O–H + 3 × O=O
ΔH = 5 × 414 + 346 + 358 + 463 + 3 × 498 = 4731 kJ
Bonds formed:
4 × C=O + 6 × O–H
ΔH = 4 × 804 + 6 × 463 = 5994 kJ
o –1
ΔH c = 4731 – 5994 = –1263 kJ mol
b) There are two reasons. First, bond enthalpies are averaged over many compounds, so
their values for specific compounds can differ slightly. Second, bond enthalpies are
o –1
calculated for gaseous species while the ΔH c value –1367 kJ mol given in section 13
of the data booklet is calculated for liquid ethanol.
–34
5. According to sections 1 and 2 of the data booklet, E = hν, where h = 6.63 × 10 J s, and
8 –1
c = νλ, where c = 3.00 × 10 m s . Therefore:
∆H 362000 J mol–1 –19
E= = 23 –1
≈ 6.01 × 10 J
NA 6.02 × 10 mol

E 6.01 × 10–19 J 14 –1
ν= = ≈ 9.06 × 10 s
h –34
6.63 × 10 Js
8
c 3.00 × 10 –7
λ= = 14 ≈ 3.31 × 10 m = 331 nm
v 9.06 × 10 s–1

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

6 Chemical kinetics
1. The correct answer is D, as the use of concentrated acid would increase the quantity of the
limiting reactant, HCl(aq), which would cause a greater mass loss. In all other cases the
curves would flatten out on the same level as curve 1, as these changes do not affect the
quantity of the limiting reactant.

2. a) At first, hydrogen gas is released at a certain rate, so the mass of the beaker with its
contents decreases. As the acid is consumed, its concentration decreases, so the
+
frequency of collisions between H (aq) ions and Mg(s) also decreases. As a result, the
curve becomes less steep. When the acid is consumed completely, the release of gas
stops, and the curve flattens out.
Note that the answer "magnesium is consumed completely" would cost you a mark, as
magnesium was in excess.
b)

Note that the curve is less steep than curve 1 but flattens out on the same level. The
final mass loss is controlled by the quantity of the limiting reactant, HCl(aq), which is
not affected by temperature.
c)

Note that both curves must begin at origin, as the initial solution does not
2+
contain Mg (aq).

3. a) Iodine is coloured while all other reactants and products are colourless. Therefore, the
concentration of iodine can be monitored by a colorimeter. Alternatively, the pH of the
+
solution can be monitored by a pH-meter, as H (aq) ions are consumed during the
reaction.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

b) i) (16, 2.00) (56, 2.00)

2.00

1.50

c (I2) / mmol dm–3

1.00
(0, 1.05)

0.50

0.00
0 10 20 30 40 50 60
time / s

ii) ∆c(I2 ) 1.55 – 0

rateavr30(I2) = = ≈ 0.052 mmol dm
–3
s
–1
= 5.2 × 10
–5
mol dm
–3
s
–1
∆t 30 – 0
–3
Note that c(I2) in the table is given in mmol dm , so a conversion factor
–3
(1 mmol = 10 mol) must be applied.
iii) To find the initial rate, we need to draw a tangent line to the curve at t = 0 and
take any two points on this line (ideally, as far apart as possible), for example,
(0, 0) and (16, 2.00):
2.00 – 0 –3 –1 –4 –3 –1
rateinit(I2) = = 0.125 mmol dm s ≈ 1.3 × 10 mol dm s
16 – 0
For the instantaneous rate at t = 30 s we need to draw a tangent line to the
curve at that time and take any two points, for example, (0, 1.05) and (56, 2.00):
2.00 – 1.05 –3 –1 –5 –3 –1
rateinst30(I2) = ≈ 0.017 mmol dm s = 1.7 × 10 mol dm s
56 – 0

iv) The stoichiometric coefficient before I2(aq) in the equation is 3, so the overall
initial rate will be three times lower than the initial rate with respect to I 2(aq):
1 0.125 –3 –1 –5 –3 –1
rateinit = rateinit(I2) = mmol dm s ≈ 4.2 × 10 mol dm s
3 3

7 Equilibrium
1. The correct answer is B, as Qc < Kc, so the forward reaction is favoured.

2. a) [N2 ][H2 ]3
Kc =
[NH3 ]2
o
b) ΔH r > 0 (see table 7.1.2 in the main text).

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

c) The new time–concentration curves are shown as dashed lines below.

H2(g)
Concentration

NH3(g)

N2(g)

Time

Note that the catalyst increases the rates of both the forward and the reverse
reactions by the same proportion but does not affect the equilibrium position. As a
result, all curves become steeper but flatten out at their original levels.

8 Acid and bases

1. The correct answer is B, as metal carbonates react with acids to produce carbon dioxide:
CaCO3(s) + 2HNO3(aq) → Ca(NO3)2(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
+ –10 –3 +
2. The correct answer is C, as [H ] at pH = 10 is 10 mol dm while [H ] in pure water
–7 –3 –10 –7 3
(pH = 7) is 10 mol dm , so 10 :10 = 1:1000 = 1:10 .

3. Conjugate acid–base pairs (any one will score the first mark):
–
H2CO3 (acid) and HCO3 (base)
– 2–
HCO3 (acid) and CO3 (base)
+
H3O (acid) and H2O (base)
–
H2O (acid) and OH (base)
Amphiprotic species:
–
H2O(aq) and HCO3 (aq)
–
Note that OH and H2CO3 are also amphiprotic, as each species can lose and gain a
2– +
proton. However, their conjugates O and H3CO3 , respectively, do not exist in aqueous
solutions, so these answers will not be accepted.
2+ –
4. Ba(OH)2(aq) → Ba (aq) + 2OH (aq)
Note that barium hydroxide is a strong base, so its dissociation is irreversible, and a straight
arrow should be used.
– –3 –3 –3
[OH ] = 2 × c(Ba(OH)2) = 2 × 2.00 × 10 = 4.00 × 10 mol dm
+
Kw 1.00 × 10–14 –12 –3
[H ] = –
= = 2.5 × 10 mol dm
–3
[OH ] 4.00 × 10
+ –12
pH = –log[H ] = –log(2.5 × 10 ) ≈ 11.60

5. H2SO4(aq) + Zn(s) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g) (molecular equation)

+ 2+
2H (aq) + Zn(s) → Zn (aq) + H2(g) (net ionic equation)
+
An ionic equation involving hydronium ions, H3O (aq), would also be acceptable:
+ 2+
2H3O (aq) + Zn(s) → Zn (aq) + H2(g) + 2H2O(l)

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9 Redox processes
1. MnO2: manganese(IV) oxide
Fe(OH)2: iron(II) hydroxide
Cr2(SO4)3: chromium(III) sulfate

2. a) Step Oxidizing agent Reducing agent

2+
1 O2(aq) Mn (aq)
–
2 MnO2(s) I (aq)
2–
3 I2(aq) S2O3 (aq)
–
b) According to the third equation, n(I2) = 0.5 × n(I ) = 0.5 × 0.00150 mol =
0.000750 mol.
According to the second equation, n(MnO2) = n(I2) = 0.000750 mol.
According to the first equation, n(O2) = 0.5 × n(MnO2) = 0.5 × 0.000750 mol =
–4
0.000375 mol = 3.75 × 10 mol.
An alternative solution is based on the electron balance. Each O 2(aq) accepts four
– –
electrons while each I (aq) loses one electron, so the ratio of O2(aq) to I (aq) is 1 : 4.
–4
Therefore, n(O2) = 0.00150 mol / 4 = 3.75 × 10 mol.

3. According to the first equation, Zn is more active than Fe. The first equation shows that Fe
is more active than Ni. Finally, the last equation shows that nickel is more active than lead.
Therefore, the correct answer is B.
2+ –
4. a) Molten zinc chlorides consists of Zn and Cl ions. These ions move freely and carry
electric charge.
b) Oxidation occurs at the anode while reduction occurs at the cathode.
– –
c) Anode (positive electrode): 2Cl → Cl2(g) + 2e
2+ –
Cathode (negative electrode): Zn + 2e → Zn(l)

10 Organic chemistry
1. The correct answer is C, as there are four structural isomers:

1-bromobutane 2-bromobutane 1-bromo- 2-bromo-

-2-methylpropane -2-methylpropane
Note that 2-bromobutane is chiral and thus can exist as two optical isomers,
(R)-2-bromobutane and (S)-2-bromobutane, but optical isomers are not structural isomers.

2. a)

3-methylpent-2-ene 2-methylpropanoic acid

Note that the question does not specify the type of structural formula, so full or
condensed formulas, such as CH3CH2C(CH3)=CHCH3 and (CH3)2CHCOOH,
would also be acceptable.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

b) The molecules of 3-methylpent-2-ene are held together by weak London dispersion

forces while the molecules of 2-methylpropanoic acid form much stronger hydrogen
bonds with one another. Therefore, the boiling point of 3-methylpent-2-ene is much
lower than that of 2-methylpropanoic acid.

3. a) CH3CH=CHCH3 + H2O → CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3

b) Reaction type: electrophilic addition (AE).
+ +
Catalyst: an inorganic acid, such as H2SO4 or H3PO3. The answer "H " or "H3O " is
also acceptable.
Note that hydrochloric acid, HCl(aq), cannot be used here, as it will react with the alkene:
CH3CH=CHCH3 + HCl → CH3CH(Cl)CH2CH3
c) Butan-2-ol.
+
d) A hot acidified aqueous solution of potassium dichromate, K2Cr2O7(aq)/H (aq), will
oxidise the secondary alcohol butan-2-ol to butanone, CH3C(O)CH2CH3, so the
orange colour of the initial solution will change to green. The tertiary alcohol 2-
methylpropan-2-ol will not react with the acidified potassium dichromate, so the
solution will stay orange.
Note that the observable changes (colour change in the first case and no colour
change in the second case) must be stated to score the full mark.

4. a)

A more condensed structural formula, such as C6H5CH=CH2, would also be

acceptable here.
b) No, as it has two more C and two more H atoms than benzene (the difference is
C2H2). Homologues differ from one another by one or more CH2 groups.

5. Functional group in A: hydroxyl, –OH. Functional group in B: carbonyl, >C=O. Note that the
answers "alcohol" and "ketone" are incorrect, as these are class names, not functional
group names.
The key to the correct answer is the statement "lower molecular mass". At reflux, acidified
potassium dichromate (denoted below as "[O]") will oxidise primary alcohols and aldehydes
to carboxylic acids while secondary alcohols will be oxidised to ketones:

Primary alcohols: RCH2OH RCOOH

Aldehydes: RCHO RCOOH

Secondary alcohols: RCH(OH)R' RC(O)R'

In the first two reactions, the molecular mass of the product will be higher than that of the
starting material while in the third reaction the product will have a lower molecular mass
than the starting material. Therefore, compound A is a secondary alcohol and compound B
is a ketone.

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11 Measurement and data processing

1. The correct answer is B. All other answers describe systematic errors.
+ –pH –7.40 –8 –3
2. [H3O ] = 10 = 10 ≈ 4.0 × 10 mol dm .
Note that the number of significant figures in the answer is equal to the number of decimal
places in the exponent.
3. V
Either V  T, or = const, or V = m × T, where m is a constant. To produce a linear graph,
T
the dependent variable V should be plotted as a function of the independent variable T.

4. The Arrhenius equation can be rewritten as follows:

E 1
lnk = – a × + lnA
R T
E 1
Now it is obvious that the expression – a before the independent variable ( ) is the slope
R T
m while the constant ln A is the intercept b. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

5. a) The molecular formula of morphine is C17H19N1O3, so IHD = 0.5(2 × 17 + 2 – 19 + 1) = 9

b) IHD = 0.5(2 × 12 + 2 – 18 – 2 + 2) = 4

6. a) Compound X contains only three elements, so %(O) = 100% – 54.5% – 9.2% = 36.3%.
Let m(X) = 100 g, then m(C) = 54.5 g, m(H) = 9.2 g and m(O) = 36.3 g.
54.5 g 9.2 g 36.3 g
n(C) : n(H) : n(O) = : :
12.01 g mol–1 1.01 g mol–1 16.00 g mol–1

≈ 4.54 : 9.1 : 2.27 ≈ 2 : 4 : 1

Therefore, the empirical formula of X is C2H4O1.
Mr(C2H4O1) = 2 × 12.01 + 4 × 1.01 + 16.00 = 44.06. This value is very close to the m/z
of the molecular ion (44) of X in the mass spectrum, so the molecular formula of X is the
same as its empirical formula, C2H4O1.
b) IHD = 0.5(2 × 2 + 2 – 4) = 1.
Note that the IHD value suggests that the molecule of X contains either a double
bond or a ring.
–1
c) The strong absorption at 1725 cm in the IR spectrum of X suggests the presence of
–1
a C=O bond (a carbonyl group) while the absorption at 2976 cm is produced by C–
H bonds. The only possible carbonyl compound with the molecular formula C 2H4O1 is
ethanal, CH3CHO:

+
d) The peak with m/z = 29 is likely to be produced by the CHO ion.
e) i) Two signals (one of the CH3 protons and another of the CHO proton).
ii) CH3 protons: 2.2–2.7 ppm. CHO proton: 9.4–10 ppm.

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12 Atomic structure (AHL)

1. The large difference between the last two ionization energies suggests that the fifth electron
is lost from a lower energy level than the first four electrons. Therefore, the unknown
element has four electrons in the outer energy level and thus belongs to group 14, so the
correct answer is C.

2. a) As the electron moves further away from the nucleus, the energy levels become
closer together. The higher the energy level, the weaker the electrostatic attraction
between the electron and the nucleus, and thus the less energy is required to promote
the electron to the next level.
b) The first ionization energy.
3.

To score the full mark, your sketch must have labelled axes and show a gradual increase in
the ionization energy for the first six electrons and a much sharper increase for the seventh
electron (which is lost from the 3p sublevel). You may also show a slightly sharper increase
in the ionization energy for the third electron (as the first two electrons are lost from the 4s
sublevel while the third electron is lost from the 3d sublevel), but this is not required.

13 The periodic table—the transition metals (AHL)

1. a) 3–.
Note that the answer "–3" is not acceptable.
b) +3.
Note that the answer "3+" is not acceptable.
c) Octahedral.
– 3+
d) Each CN ligand donates an electron pair to an empty d orbital of the central ion, Cr ,
and thus forms a coordinate bond. Coordinate bonds are covalent by nature, but both
electrons in their shared electron pairs originate from the same atom.
e) Paramagnetic, as it contains unpaired electrons (five in 3d sublevel and one in 4s
sublevel).
Note that the presence of unpaired electrons in atomic chromium follows from its
orbital diagram:

However, the diagram is not required in this question.

2. a) According to the Lewis theory of acids and bases, this is a neutralization reaction. The
Lewis base, H2O, donates a lone electron pair on the oxygen atom to the empty
2+ 2+
electron orbital of the Ni ion. By accepting an electron pair, the Ni ion acts as a
Lewis acid.
b) Coordinate bonding.
Note that the term "dative bond" is obsolete.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

c)

Note that the three-dimensional structure is not required, so all coordinate bonds may
be drawn as straight lines or arrows. The water molecules may be shown as "H 2O" or
"OH2", but the coordinate bonds should originate from O atoms, not from H atoms.
The square brackets and the ionic charge (2+) are required for the mark.
d)

Only the relative positions of the original and split orbitals are required. The orbitals
can be represented as boxes or horizontal lines. The energy axis and all labels are
optional.
e) This complex is paramagnetic, as the central ion has two unpaired electrons in the eg
orbitals, as shown in part d).

14 Chemical bonding and structure (AHL)

1. The correct answer is A. Statement III is incorrect, as the two p orbitals that form a π bond
must have the same orientation.

2. The correct answer is B. In carbon dioxide, CO2, both carbon–oxygen bonds are double. In
ethanoic acid, CH3COOH, one carbon–oxygen bond is double while another is single. In
2–
carbonate anion, CO3 , one electron pair is delocalized, so all three carbon–oxygen bonds
are identical (intermediate between single and double bonds).

3. In structure A, both C and S atoms have zero formal charges, so ΔFC = 0. In structure B,
the formal charges of C and S atoms are 2– and 2+, respectively, so ΔFC = 4. Therefore,
structure A is preferred, as it has the lowest ΔFC value.

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4.
Electron
Lewis (electron dot) Molecular
Species domain Bond angles
structure geometry
geometry

square
–
[IBr4] octahedral planar 90°
(AB4E2)

less than 90°

+ trigonal see-saw (Fa–I–Fe) and less
[IF4]
bipyramidal (AB4E) than 120°C (Fe–I–
Fe)

Fa = axial fluorine, Fe = equatorial fluorine

5. The correct answer is C. Both carbon atoms that form a double bond with each other have
2
sp hybridization.

15 Energetics/thermochemistry (AHL)
1. a) Ca(s) + 0.5O2(g) → CaO(s)
b)

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c) It is convenient to replace the enthalpies in the Born–Haber cycle from part (b) with
–1
their numerical values in kJ mol :

o
Note that ΔH at(O2) is equal to BE(O=O), which is given in section 11 of the data
o o o
booklet. The values of ΔH IE1(Ca), ΔH EA1(O) and ΔH EA2(O) are given in section 8 of
the data booklet.
o
According to the diagram, ΔH lat(CaO) = –(–635) + 155 + 590 + 1146 + 0.5 × 498 + (–
–1
141) + 753 = +3387 kJ mol . This answer is very close to the actual lattice enthalpy
–1
of calcium oxide (+3401 kJ mol ), which is given in section 18 of the data booklet.

2. MgO > SrO > KF > KI.

Note that the lattice enthalpy increases with ionic charge and decreases with ionic radius.

3. The correct answer is A, as the number of gaseous species in the first reaction increases.
In all other cases the entropy decreases.
o –1
4. a) ΔS = 106.5 – 38.1 – 256.8 = –188.4 J K
o
b) i) ΔH = –1434.5 – (–634.9) – (–395.7) = –403.9 kJ
o
ii) Since ΔH < 0, the reaction is exothermic.
o –1 –1
c) i) ΔS = –188.4 J K = –0.1884 kJ K
o
ΔG = –403.9 – 298 × (–0.1884) ≈ –347.8 kJ
o
ii) Since ΔG < 0, the reaction is spontaneous.

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16 Chemical kinetics (AHL)

–3
1. When [F2] increases 1.5 times, from 0.10 to 0.15 mol dm , the rate also increases 1.5
–3 –3 –3 –1
times, from 1.2 × 10 to 1.8 × 10 mol dm min , so the reaction order in F2 is 1. When
–3
[ClO2] increases three times, from 0.10 to 0.30 mol dm , the rate also increases three
–3 –3 –3 –1
times, from 1.2 × 10 to 3.6 × 10 mol dm min , so the reaction order in ClO2 is also 1.
Therefore, the overall reaction order is 1 + 1 = 2, and the correct answer is B.
Note that the reaction order cannot be deduced from the stoichiometric coefficients in the
equation.
2 2 0
2. a) rate = k[NO2] . The answer "rate = k[NO2] [CO] " would also be accepted, although it
is a good practice to exclude redundant factors from rate equations.
–3 –1
b) The most common units for the reaction rate and concentration are mol dm s and
–3
mol dm , so:
–3 –1 –3 2 2 –6
mol dm s = (k)(mol dm ) = (k) mol dm
3 –1 –1
Therefore, the units for k are dm mol s
c) If the second step were the RDS, then the reaction rate would depend on [CO], which
is not the case. Therefore, step 1 is the RDS.
d) This is a second-order reaction, so the sketch will look as follows:

To score the full mark, both axes must be labelled, and the curve must begin at the
origin.
e) A catalyst will alter the reaction mechanism and introduce a new RDS with a lower
activation energy, Ea.

3. a) k Ea 1 1
According to section 1 of the data booklet, ln 1
k2
= ( – ). Therefore:
R T2 T1
T1 = 25 + 273 = 298 K
T2 = 45 + 273 = 318 K
k2 v2 k2 1
= , so ln = ln ≈ –2.05
k1 v1 k1 7.8
Ea 1 1
–2.05 = –1 –1
(318 K – 298 K
)
8.31 J K mol
–1 –1
Ea ≈ 80700 J mol = 80.7 kJ mol
b) First, we need to determine the k value for this reaction at a certain temperature, T.
Using the Ea value from part a), we can solve the Arrhenius equation and find the
value of A. The Arrhenius equation and the value of R are given in sections 1 and 2,
respectively, of the data booklet.

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17 Equilibrium (AHL)
1. To produce 0.25 mol of Z(g), 0.5 mol of X and 0.25 mol of Y must be consumed. Therefore:

2X(g) + Y(g) Z(g)

ninitial, mol 1 2 0
Δn, mol –0.5 –0.25 +0.25
nfinal, mol 0.5 1.75 0.25
3
Since V = 1 dm , the amounts of all substances in mol are numerically equal to their
–3
concentrations in mol dm . Therefore:
[Z] 0.25
Kc = 2 = 2 ≈ 0.57
[X] [Y] (0.5) × 1.75
Thus, the correct answer is C.

2. a) –25200
o –(–3.285)
ΔG = –RTlnKc, so lnKc = ≈ –3.285 and Kc = e ≈ 26.7.
8.31 × 923
Note that the temperature is expressed in kelvins (650 + 273 = 923 K) and the Gibbs
free energy in joules (25.2 kJ = 25200 J).
b) When Q = Kc, the system is at equilibrium, so neither the forward nor the reverse
reaction is favoured. Therefore, ΔG = 0.
o
Note that we are talking about ΔG, not ΔG , as at equilibrium the concentrations
–3
of reacting species may differ from their standard concentrations (1 mol dm ).
o
In the general case, the ΔG value for a reaction is nonzero even when the
equilibrium is reached.

18 Acid and bases (AHL)

1. The correct answer is C, as the resulting solution will contain a conjugate acid–base pair,
+
NH4 (aq) and NH3(aq), in which both components are weak electrolytes:
+ +
NH3(aq) + H (aq) NH4 (aq)
conjugate base conjugate acid
ninitial, mol 0.003 0.002 0
Δn, mol –0.002 –0.002 +0.002
nfinal, mol 0.001 0 0.002
3 –3 –3 +
Note that n(NH3) = 0.03 dm × 0.10 mol dm = 0.003 mol dm and n(H ) = 2 × n(H2SO4) =
3 –3 –3
2 × 0.01 dm × 0.10 mol dm = 0.002 mol dm .
All other combinations of electrolytes will not form acid–base buffers. Mixture A contains
only acids while mixtures B and D contain no weak electrolytes other than water.
2+
2. The formation of the complex ion, [Ni(NH3)6] (aq), can be represented as follows:
2+ 2+
Ni (aq) + 6NH3(aq) [Ni(NH3)6] (aq)
2+
In this reaction, Ni (aq) acts as a Lewis acid by accepting lone electron pairs from the
ligands, NH3(aq). In turn, the ligands act as Lewis bases by donating their lone electron
pairs to the nickel(II) ion. Therefore, in terms of the Lewis theory, this reaction can be
classified as a neutralisation reaction.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

3. a) + –
NH3(aq) + H2O(l) NH4 (aq) + OH (aq)
According to section 21 of the data booklet, pKb(NH3) = 4.75, therefore:
–4.75 –5
Kb(NH3) = 10 ≈ 1.78 × 10

[OH ] = √Kb × c = √1.78 × 10–5 × 0.10 ≈ 1.33 × 10

– –3 –3
mol dm
–3
pOH = –log(1.33 × 10 ) ≈ 2.88
pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 2.88 = 11.12
Alternative solution:
pOH = 0.5(pKb – log c) = 0.5(4.75 – log(0.10)) ≈ 2.88
pH = 14 – 2.88 = 11.12
b) A fully annotated sketch is shown below.

NH4Cl + NH3

Equivalence point
7 Buffer region
(NH4Cl only; pH < 7)
pH

pH jump

HCl + NH4Cl

0
0 10
3
V (NH3) / cm

To score the full mark, your sketch must show the labelled axes, the equivalence
point at pH < 7 and the buffer region. All other labels are optional.
c) Any acid–base indicator with a pKa < 7 can be used, so the acceptable answers are
"methyl orange", "bromophenol blue", "bromocresol green" and "methyl red".
d) The overall shape will change very little, except that the left hand side of the curve
will be one pH unit higher, the equivalence point will be a fraction of a pH unit higher,
and the pH jump will become slightly less pronounced.
e) The curve shown in figure 18.3.3 is more suitable, as it allows you to determine the
position of the half-equivalence point even if the concentration of the analysed
ammonia solution is unknown. In contrast, finding the half-equivalence point on the
curve in part (b) is more difficult, as it requires additional calculations.

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f) To determine the pKb of ammonia, you need to find the equivalence point, divide the
equivalence volume of HCl(aq) by two and mark the half-equivalence point. The
horizontal line from the half-equivalence point to the y-axis will show the pKa of the
+
conjugate acid, NH4 (aq), as shown below.

14

12
+ Half-equivalence point
pK a(NH4 )
10

8
pH

Equivalence point
6

0
0 5 10 15 20
3
V (HCl) / cm

The pKb of the conjugate base, NH3(aq), can be calculated as follows:

+
pKb(NH3) = 14 – pKa(NH4 )

In a typical IB exam paper, part (f) would be a three-mark question. The first mark
would be awarded for mentioning half-equivalence point, the second for showing how
to find pKa and the third for the relationship between pKa and pKb. Thus, the one-line
answer "at half-equivalence pH = pKa and pKb = 14 – pKa" will score all three marks.
g) Any one of the following two techniques can be used: conductometric titration
(electrical conductivity measurement) and thermometric titration (temperature
measurement). Note that the answers like "conductivity probe" or "digital
thermometer" will not score the mark, as these are the names of laboratory
equipment, not techniques. At the same time, the answers "titration with a
conductivity probe" and "titration with a digital thermometer" will be accepted, as they
mention the technique (titration).

19 Redox processes (AHL)

1. a)

The electrodes can be connected with a metal wire either directly or through a
voltmeter (or any other device, such as a light bulb). In addition to the flow of anions,
the flow of cations through the salt bridge (from left to right) can also be shown.

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2+ 2+
b) Cu(s)|Cu (aq)||Pb (aq)|Pb(s)
Note that the cathode must be drawn on the right-hand side.
2+ –
c) Anode: Cu(s) → Cu (aq) + 2e
2+ –
Cathode: Pb (aq) + 2e → Pb(s)
2+ 2+
Overall: Cu(s) + Pb (aq) → Cu (aq) + Pb(s)
2+
d) Oxidizing agent: Pb (aq).
o 2+
e) According to section 24 of the data booklet, E (Cu (aq)|Cu(s)) = +0.34 V and
o 2+
E (Pb (aq)|Pb(s)) = –0.13 V. Therefore:
o
E cell = +0.34 V – (–0.13 V) = +0.47 V.
o
Note that the overall process in a voltaic cell is always spontaneous, so the E cell must
be positive.
2+ –
2. Cathode: Cu (aq) + 2e → Cu(s)
+ –
Anode: 2H2O(l) → O2(g) + 4H (aq) + 4e
2+ +
Overall: 2Cu (aq) + 2H2O(l) → 2Cu(s) + O2(g) + 4H (aq)
According to the overall equation, the mole ratio of Cu(s) to O 2(g) is 2 : 1. Therefore:
–1
n(Cu(s)) = 5.34 g / 63.55 g mol ≈ 0.0840 mol
n(O2(g)) = 0.0840 mol / 2 = 0.0420 mol
3 –1 3 –4 3
V(O2(g)) = 0.0420 mol × 22.7 dm mol ≈ 0.953 dm = 9.53 × 10 m

20 Organic chemistry (AHL)

1. The correct answer is B, as aldehydes can be both reduced and oxidised. Alcohols
(answers A and C) cannot be reduced while ketones (answer D) cannot be oxidised by the
given reagents.

2. a) Ethane is an alkane while ethanal is an aldehyde. According to figure 20.2.1, an

aldehyde can be synthesised from an alkane as follows:
alkane → halogenoalkane → alcohol → aldehyde
Reagents and
Step Equation Reaction type
conditions

bromine or chlorine, hν radical

1 CH3CH3 + Br2 → CH3CH2Br + HBr
(light) substitution (SR)

– – nucleophilic
2 CH3CH2Br + OH → CH3CH2OH + Br dilute aqueous NaOH
substitution (SN)

distillation with acidified

3 CH3CH2OH CH3CHO oxidation
potassium dichromate

b) See figure 20.1.2 in the main text.

3. a) Only 2-amino-3-methylbutan-1-ol can show optical activity, as it has a chiral carbon

atom (marked with an asterisk below).

2-amino-3-methylbutan-1-ol 3-amino-3-methylbutan-1-ol
Remember that a chiral carbon atom must have four different substituents.

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b)

To score the full mark, your structures must satisfy the following criteria:
 have the chiral carbon atom at the centre of each structure (asterisks are not
required);
 show the three-dimensional orientation of the four substituents at each chiral
centre;
 be mirror images of each other.
c) They can be distinguished by polarimetry. When placed inside the polarimeter (as
pure liquids or solutions), the two enantiomers will rotate the plane of plane-polarised
light in opposite directions. The absolute angles of rotation will be the same for pure
enantiomers or their solutions of equal concentrations. The optically inactive
compound, 3-amino-3-methylbutan-1-ol, will not rotate the plane of plane-polarised
light.

21 Measurement and analysis (AHL)

1.
Relative Splitting
Proton(s) δ, ppm
integration pattern
CH3 0.9–1.0 3 triplet
CH2 2.2–2.7 2 quintet*
CHO 9.4–10 1 triplet

* The actual splitting will be a doublet of quartets, as the signal of the CH 2 protons will split
independently on the three adjacent CH3 protons (quartet) and one adjacent CHO proton
(doublet). Since the IB syllabus does not cover complex splitting patterns, both answers
(quintet or doublet of quartets) will be equally acceptable in examination papers.

2. IHD(C4H8O2) = 0.5(2 × 4 + 2 – 8) = 1. Therefore, compound X contains either one double

bond or one ring.
–1
The IR spectrum of X shows a strong absorption around 1750 cm . According to section 26
of the data booklet, this suggests the presence of a C=O bond (carbonyl group). At the
–1
same time, the absorption around 2950 cm is relatively strong but not very broad, so
compound X contains C–H bonds but no O–H bonds.
1
The H NMR spectrum of X shows three signals with relative integrations of 3 : 2 : 3.
Therefore, compound X contains two CH3 groups and one CH2 group. These three groups
contain three carbon atoms and eight hydrogen atoms, so the fourth carbon atom of
compound X has no attached protons.
We have now identified five fragments of compound X: two CH 3 groups, one CH2 group,
one C=O group and the remaining O atom. There are only three possible ways to connect
all these fragments together:

A B C

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1
Structure C can be dismissed immediately, as it would produce three singlets in the H
NMR spectrum while we have a singlet (one of the CH3 groups), a quartet (the CH2 group)
and a triplet (another CH3 group). Therefore, we have to choose between structures A and
B only.
According to section 27 of the data booklet, the protons of the CH2 group in structure A
would have a chemical shift of 2.0–2.5 ppm while in structure B they would have a chemical
shift of 3.7–4.8 ppm. In compound X, the quartet of the CH2 protons appears at
approximately 2.3 ppm, which corresponds to structure A. Similarly, the singlet around
3.7 ppm in compound X falls into the predicted range for the OCH3 singlet in structure A
(3.7–4.8 ppm) while the CH3C(O) group in structure B would produce a singlet at 2.0–
2.5 ppm. Therefore, compound X has structure A.
The analysis of the mass spectroscopy data leads to the same conclusion. Structure A
+ +
would produce peaks of the CH3CH2C(O) and CH3OC(O) fragments at m/z = 57 and m/z
= 59, respectively, both of which are present in the actual mass spectrum of X. In contrast,
+ +
structure B would produce peaks of the CH3C(O) and CH3CH2OC(O) fragments at m/z =
43 and m/z = 73, respectively, but these peaks are absent in the mass spectrum of X.
Therefore, structure A is correct.
The annotated spectra of compound X are shown below.

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22 Data-based and practical questions (Section A)

Part 1
1. a) i) Yes, there is a positive correlation: as the percentage of saturated triglycerides in the
oil increases, the melting point also increases.
ii) No, there is no obvious correlation: as the percentage of monosaturated triglycerides
in the oil increases, the melting point changes randomly. For example, the oils with
the lowest (–24 °C) and the second-highest (+18 °C) melting points have similar
percentages of monounsaturated triglycerides (16 and 15%, respectively). At the
same time, the oil with the highest percentage of monounsaturated triglycerides
(75%) has a mid-range melting point (–8°С).
b) It should be somewhere between –5 and +18 °C; the mid-point of this range is ≈ 7 °C.
c) The molecules of triglycerides are held together by weak London dispersion forces. The
strength of these forces depends not only on the saturation/unsaturation of fatty acid
residues but also on their length. Since the actual melting point of palm oil is higher than
expected, the fatty acid residues in that oil are likely to have longer hydrocarbon chains
than the residues in other oils. Longer hydrocarbon chains contain more electrons and
thus experience stronger dispersion forces of attraction. The stronger the intermolecular
forces, the higher the melting point.
The essential point in this question is the correlation between the chain length and the
strength of London dispersion forces. The short answer "palm oil has longer
hydrocarbon chains and thus stronger dispersion forces" would score the full mark.
d) i) Palmitoleic: monounsaturated (one C=C bond); linoleic: polyunsaturated (two C=C
bonds); arachidic: saturated (no C=C bonds). The number of C=C bonds can be
determined using the index of hydrogen deficiency (IHD; see topic 11.3).
ii) According to table 22.1.2, the melting points of oils increase with their degree of
saturation. We can expect a similar trend for individual fatty acids, so the saturated
arachidic acid is likely to have the highest melting point.
Note that arachidic acid has the longest hydrocarbon chain, which also suggests
that its melting point will be the highest. However, your answer must be based on
the data from table 22.1.2, so a reference to saturation is essential for the mark.

2. a) NCl3, PCl3 and AsCl3. All three compounds have melting points below 298 K and boiling
points above 298 K.
b)

chlorides
boiling point

hydrides

molecular mass

To score the full mark, your sketch must contain the labelled axes and the two labelled
curves of approximately the same shapes as shown above (not necessarily drawn to
scale).

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

c) Both curves show a positive correlation: as the molecular mass increases, the boiling
point also increases. The only exception is ammonia, NH3, which has a higher boiling
point than its heavier analogue, PH3. Molecules of ammonia form hydrogen bonds with
each other. Breaking these bonds requires extra energy, so ammonia boils at a higher
temperature than expected.
d) The central atom in all molecules from table 22.1.3 has four electron domains in a
tetrahedral arrangement. One of these domains is a lone electron pair while the other
three are bonding electron pairs. The dipoles created by the lone pair and the bonding
pairs do not cancel one another, so the whole molecule has a net dipole moment.
e) i) For hydrides, the molecular dipole moment decreases as the bond length increases
(negative correlation) and bond angle decreases (positive correlation). For chlorides,
the molecular dipole moment increases as the bond length increases (positive
correlation) and bond angle decreases (negative correlation).
ii) According to section 6 of the data booklet, the electronegativity of hydrogen (2.2) is
lower than that of nitrogen (3.2), so the vector sum of dipoles of covalent bonds in NH 3
points in the same direction as the dipole of the lone electron pair (figure A). The
electronegativities of phosphorus and arsenic are identical to that of hydrogen, so the
molecular dipoles in PH3 and AsH3 are produced by lone electron pairs only. Finally,
antimony and bismuth are less electronegative than hydrogen, so the dipoles of covalent
bonds and the lone electron pairs in SbH 3 and BiH3 point in opposite directions.

Figure A. Dipole moments of hydrides of group 15 elements

Since hydrogen has a small covalent radius, the bond dipoles in hydrides are also small,
so they cancel the dipole of the lone electron pair only partially. This effect becomes
more noticeable when the size of the central atom increases and its electronegativity
decreases, so the net dipole moment of hydrides decreases from
N to Bi.
In chlorides of group 15 elements, the dipoles of covalent bonds and the dipole of the
lone electron pair always point in opposite directions (figure B). However, the vector sum
of bond dipoles is greater than the dipole of the lone pair. As the electronegativity of the
central atom decreases, the vector sum of bond dipoles also increases, and so does the
net dipole moment of the molecule.

Figure B. Dipole moments of chlorides of group 15 elements

In a typical examination paper, the marks for this question will be awarded for the
following suggestions:
 the dipoles of covalent bonds and the lone electron pair can point in opposite
direction / cancel each other;
 the vector sum of bond dipoles in hydrides has a smaller magnitude than the
dipole of the lone electron pair;
 the vector sum of bond dipoles in chlorides has a larger magnitude than the dipole
of the lone electron pair;
 bond dipoles increase along with the bond length and the difference in
electronegativity.
All marks can also be scored by clearly annotated diagrams.

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Part 2
1. a) i) Reaction B is faster than reaction A, so iodide ions consumed in the first reaction are
almost immediately reformed in the second reaction.
3 –3
ii) n(H2O2) = 0.0200 dm × 0.500 mol dm = 0.0100 mol
2– 3 –3
n(S2O3 ) = n(Na2S2O3) = 0.0200 dm × 0.0100 mol dm = 0.000200 mol
2–
Since H2O2 is in a large excess, only a small proportion of H2O2 will react with S2O3 ,
so its concentration will decrease insignificantly.
iii) Relative uncertainty of the amount of H2SO4:
0.1 cm3
= 0.005
20.0 cm3
Absolute uncertainty of the volume of the reaction mixture:
√(0.1 cm3 )2 × 5 ≈ 0.2 cm3

Total volume of the reaction mixture:

3 3 3 3 3 3
50.0 cm + 20.0 cm + 20.0 cm + 20.0 cm + 5.0 cm = 115 cm
Relative uncertainty of the volume of the reaction mixture:
0.2 cm3
≈ 0.002
115.0 cm3
Percentage uncertainty of the concentration of H2SO4:
√(0.005)2 + (0.002)2 × 100% ≈ 0.5%

iv) Any two of the following are required for the mark:
 temperature of the solutions;
 rate and order of addition of the solutions;
 rate and method of stirring of the reaction mixture;
human limitations (the reaction time of the stopwatch operator).
v) Each of the first three factors from part (iv) can produce both random and systematic
errors. For example, small changes in the ambient temperature during the
experiment will affect the reaction time randomly and unpredictably. However, storing
the solutions near a source of heat will consistently increase the reaction rate and
thus cause a systematic error. Similarly, the rates of addition and stirring can vary
between experiments either randomly or systematically (for example, if the reaction
mixture was stirred with a glass rod in one experiment and with a magnetic stirrer in
another experiment).
Human limitations typically produce random errors. However, a stopwatch operator
with a slow reaction time may consistently press the button too late and thus
introduce a systematic error.
b) In a typical examination paper, this question will carry two or three marks. To achieve the
maximum score, you will need to state any two or three of the following:
 wear laboratory coat and safety glasses;
 weigh solid potassium iodide using an analytical balance;
 dissolve potassium iodide in less than 50 cm of deionised water;
3

 transfer the solution to a 50 cm volumetric flask;

3

 add deionised water to the graduation mark, stopper the flask and turn it over several
times to stir the solution thoroughly.
Another acceptable procedure may involve the dilution of a standard concentrated solution
of potassium iodide using a volumetric pipette or burette and a volumetric flask.

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c) In the first experiment, the solution will turn blue-black almost immediately, as there will be
no thiosulfate ions to delay the formation of molecular iodine. In the second experiment, the
colour change will occur later than expected, as extra sodium thiosulfate will take more time
to react completely.

2. a) By weighing the spirit burner with ethanol immediately after extinguishing the flame
and subtracting the final mass of the burner from its initial mass.
b) Any two of the following assumptions will score the full mark:
 no heat was lost to the environment / all heat produced by the combustion of
ethanol was absorbed by the water in the flask;
 the heat capacities of the flask and thermometer were negligible;
 the evaporation of water from the flask was negligible;
 the combustion of ethanol was complete.
c) Heat loss to the environment. Other factors listed in part b) typically produce much
smaller errors.
d) This hypothesis is incorrect. The precision of the original balance was two decimal
places (0.01 g), so even if the mass of burned ethanol was very small (let's say,
1.00 g), the absolute error of 0.01 g would produce a relative error of about 1%. Such
error is insignificant when compared to the actual experimental error (about 50%) of
the ΔHc value. Therefore, the improvement that could be achieved by using a more
precise analytical balance would be almost negligible.
e) To reduce systematic errors, the student could do one or more of the following:
 install a draught screen around the apparatus (to reduce the heat loss to the
environment);
 use a flask or metal container (such as a tin can) with very thin walls (to reduce
the heat capacity of the apparatus);
 use a smaller thermometer (again, to reduce the heat capacity of the
apparatus);
 weigh the flask before and after the experiment (to determine the mass of
evaporated water and take it into account when calculating the ΔHc value);
 adjust the wick to produce colourless flame and prevent soot deposition on the
flask (to ensure complete combustion of ethanol).
There are many other possible adjustments, the most radical of which is the use of an
analytical-grade calorimeter (which can measure ΔHc values with a relative error of
less than 1%).

Option A Materials
A1.1
Species Δχ  Bonding type
% ionic
character
F2 0 4.0 non-polar covalent 0
KBr 2.2 1.9 ionic 60
PbBr2 1.2 2.4 polar covalent 33

A1.2 Alloys are usually homogeneous mixtures of two or more substances, at least one of which
is a metal. Composites are always heterogeneous, and they may or may not contain a
metal. The predominant type of bonding in an alloy is metallic while both the matrix and
reinforcing phases in a composite can have any type of bonding.

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A1.3 Platinum is a d-block element. All d-block elements are metals due to the presence of only
two s electrons in their outer energy level. The s electrons of all atoms in a platinum sample
form a delocalized cloud that surrounds platinum cations. The electrostatic attraction
between the electrons and cations produces strong metallic bonding. When a piece of
platinum is pulled into a wire, the layers of platinum cations slide past one another without
breaking the metallic bonding, so platinum metal is ductile.

2+ 2+
A2.1 The orbital diagrams of Fe and Zn ions are shown below.

2+
Fe ions are paramagnetic, as they contain unpaired electrons in the 3d sublevel. In
2+
contrast, all electrons in Zn ions are paired, so these ions are diamagnetic.

A2.2 Al2O3(l) → 2Al(l) + 1.5O2(g)

3+ –
Al (electrolyte) + 3e → Al(l)
2.000 × 103 g
n(Al) = ≈ 74.13 mol
26.98 g mol–1
–
n(e ) = 3 × n(Al) = 3 × 74.13 mol = 222.4 mol
4 –1
According to section 1 of the data booklet, F = 9.65 × 10 C mol , so:
4 –1 7
Q = 222.4 mol × 9.65 × 10 C mol ≈ 2.15 × 10 C.

A2.3 An alloy contains ions of different sizes, which form a less regular lattice than that of pure
aluminium. The layers of cations in an irregular lattice do not slide past one another as
easily as in pure aluminium, so an aluminium-based alloy is typically less malleable than
pure aluminium.

A3.1 A homogeneous catalyst chemically combines with a reactant to form a reaction intermediate
or an activated complex. This intermediate or complex then reacts with another reactant,
forming the reaction product and releasing the catalyst. The activation energy of the slowest
step in this two-step process is lower than the activation energy of the uncatalyzed reaction.

A4.1 The diagrams of a bright pixel (top) and a dark pixel (bottom) on a TN LCD display are shown
below.

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A4.2 Linear (rod-like) shape.

A5.1 a)

b) Thermoplastic (as it does not undergo any chemical changes when heated to a
moderately high temperature).

c) The mutual orientation of repeating units in poly(2-methylpropene) can be regular or

irregular, as shown below.
Regular ("head to tail"):
…–CH2–C(CH3)2–CH2–C(CH3)2–CH2–C(CH3)2–CH2–C(CH3)2–…
Regular ("head to head"):
…–CH2–C(CH3)2–C(CH3)2–CH2–CH2–C(CH3)2–C(CH3)2–CH2–…
Irregular:
…–CH2–C(CH3)2–CH2–C(CH3)2–C(CH3)2–CH2–CH2–C(CH3)2–…
The regular and irregular polymer chains will pack together in different ways, so the
intermolecular forces between these chains will differ in strength. As a result, the
polymers will have different properties.

A5.2

A5.3 The molar masses of the reactants (ethanoyl chloride and methylamine) and the target
–1
product (N-methylethanamide) are 78.50, 31.07 and 73.11 g mol , respectively. Therefore:
73.11
atom economy = × 100% ≈ 66.72%
78.50 + 31.07

A6.1 a) Nanotechnology is the general name for various techniques that involve the
manufacture and use of objects with dimensions from 1 to 100 nm.

b) Typical examples are microprocessors, LCD screens, nanocatalysts and surface

coatings. Your answer can include any two of these or other examples.

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c) The two major issues are risks to human health and the environment.
The exposure of humans to nanoparticles through inhalation, ingestion or skin contact
may cause various diseases and health conditions, such as asthma, fibrosis,
gastrointestinal and neurological problems, systemic stress and inflammatory
response, skin irritation and cancer. Nanocatalysts can cause systemic toxicity and
accelerated aging.
The release of nanoparticles to the environment can cause similar problems in animal
and plant species. These problems can reduce the biodiversity of local and global
ecosystems, decrease the efficiency of farming and increase the cost of food and other
agricultural products.
2
A6.2 a) Carbon nanotubes have giant covalent structure, where all carbon atoms have sp
hybridization. Each carbon atom forms three sigma-bonds with its neighbours, which
requires three of its four valence electrons. The fourth valence electron becomes a part
of the delocalized electron cloud that surrounds all carbon atoms of the nanotube.
Because of that, the bond order of each covalent bond is approximately 1.33.
A carbon nanotube can also be described as a sheet of graphene rolled into a tube.

b) Your answer should include any two of the following: high mechanical strength, high
electrical conductivity, high thermal conductivity, high melting point and low density.

c) All allotropes of carbon, including carbon nanotubes, are flammable:

Cn(s) + nO2(g) → nCO2(g)
Since CVD requires high temperatures, an attempt to use oxygen as a carrier gas
would produce carbon dioxide instead of carbon nanotubes.

A7.1 a) Complete combustion:

[C3H6]n(s) + 4.5nO2(g) → 3nCO2(g) + 3nH2O(l)
Incomplete combustion:
[C3H6]n(s) + 3nO2(g) → 3nCO(g) + 3nH2O(l)
or
[C3H6]n(s) + 1.5nO2(g) → 3nC(s) + 3nH2O(l)

b) A mixture of PVC and polypropene should not be incinerated because the incineration
may produce toxic and ozone-depleting compounds, such as hydrogen chloride,
phosgene and dioxins. Such mixture is also difficult to recycle, as chlorinated and non-
chlorinated plastics have different properties.

c) RICs provide information about the chemical composition and structure of plastics. The
RICs allow you to choose the best possible procedure for the disposal or recycling of
each type of plastic and thus minimize the cost and environmental impact of these
processes.

d) Recycling of plastics allows to save energy and raw materials (such as fossil fuels),
reduce the cost of plastic-based products and minimize the environmental impact of
the plastic waste. Recycling creates jobs and saves land (which otherwise would be
used for landfills). Recycling of polymers is usually more expensive than recycling of
paper and metals, but the initial high costs are compensated by long-term savings and
environmental benefits.

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A8.1 a) Your answer can include any two of the following:

Type 1 superconductors Type 2 superconductors
lower critical temperature (Tc) higher critical temperature (Tc)
sharp transition to superconductivity gradual transition to superconductivity
have no mixed state have mixed state
partly allow magnetic fields to penetrate
expel magnetic fields completely
(in the mixed state)
have two critical magnetic fields
have one critical magnetic field (Bc)
(Bc1 and Bc2)
usually pure metals alloys, ceramics or composites

b) As an electron passes through a type 1 superconductor, it attracts the metal cations

and thus deforms the lattice. This deformation creates a region of increased positive
charge density. This region attracts another electron with a spin opposite to that of the
first electron. The two electrons form a Cooper pair, which can travel through the lattice
freely (without electrical resistance).
3 7 3 –23 3
A8.2 V(cell) = (352.4 pm) ≈ 4.376 × 10 pm = 4.376 × 10 cm
–23 3 –3 –22
m(cell) = 4.376 × 10 cm × 8.908 g cm ≈ 3.898 × 10 g
–22
3.898 × 10 g 23 –1
N(atoms per cell) = –1
× 6.02 × 10 mol ≈ 4
58.69 g mol
Therefore, nickel forms a face-centred lattice, as only this type of lattice has four atoms per
unit cell.

A9.1 a)

b) H2O

c) The polycondensation reaction can be represented as follows:

nHOOCCH2COOH + nH2NCH2CH2NH2 → [–C(O)CH2C(O)NH(CH2)2NH–]n + 2nH2O
The molar masses of the reactants and the target product are 104.07, 60.12 and
–1
128.15n g mol , respectively. Therefore:
128.15n
atom economy = × 100% ≈ 78.05%
104.07n + 60.12n
2+ – 2
A10.1 a) Ksp = [Ni ][OH ]
2+ –
b) Ni(OH)2(s) Ni (aq) + 2OH (aq)
2+ –3 – –3
Let [Ni ] = x mol dm , then [OH ] = 2x mol dm . According to section 32 of the data
–16
booklet, Ksp(Ni(OH)2) = 5.48 × 10 , so:
2 –16
x × (2x) = 5.48 × 10
3 –16
4x = 5.48 × 10
–6 –3
x ≈ 5.16 × 10 mol dm
+ –
c) NaOH(aq) → Na (aq) + OH (aq)
–
Since the solubility of Ni(OH)2 is very low, nearly all OH (aq) ions in
the solution will be produced by the dissociation of sodium hydroxide,
– –3
so [OH ] ≈ c(NaOH) = 0.010 mol dm . Therefore:
2+ 2 –16
[Ni ] × (0.010) = 5.48 × 10
2+ –12 –3
[Ni ] = 5.48 × 10 mol dm

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A10.2 Adsorption: heavy metal ions are selectively adsorbed (held tightly) on the surface of a
suitable solid or gel-like material, such as zeolite or ion-exchange resin. In the case of
chemical adsorption, the metal ions form covalent and/or ionic bonds with the adsorbent
surface. Physical adsorption involves non-chemical (van der Waals) interactions.
Chelation: heavy metal ions form multiple coordinate bonds with suitable chelating agents
(ligands that can donate two or more lone electron pairs to the metal ion). The resulting
coordinate compounds (chelate complexes) are very stable, form readily and dissociate to a
very small extent, so the equilibrium concentration of free metal ions in the solution
becomes very low.
Precipitation: heavy metal ions react with suitable counterions to produce insoluble
compounds (salts or hydroxides). These compounds form a solid phase (precipitate or
suspension), which can be removed by filtration or by allowing the mixture to settle.

Option B Biochemistry
B1.1 Catabolic, as a larger molecule (peptide) is broken down into smaller units (amino acids
and/or shorter-chain peptides).

B1.2 Nearly all condensation reactions in living organisms proceed in aqueous environment and
produce water as a by-product, which can be represented by the following general scheme:
A–OH(aq) + H–B(aq) AB(aq) + H2O(l)
Since water is also the solvent, it is present in the reaction mixture in a very large excess.
At the same time, the reactant concentrations in biological fluids are very low. According to
Le Châtelier’s principle, these factors make the forward reaction less favourable and thus
increase its ΔG value (make it positive).
Note that we are talking about the Gibbs free energy (ΔG) of the reaction under non-
o
standard conditions. The standard Gibbs free energy (ΔG ) of the same reaction could still
be negative.

B2.1 a) Glycine: aminoethanoic acid; leucine: 2-amino-4-methylpentanoic acid.

b) Paper chromatography, as both amino acids have identical pI values (6.0) and thus
cannot be separated by gel-electrophoresis. Other types of chromatography, such as
thin-layer or column, can also be used.
c) Four: Gly–Gly, Gly–Leu, Leu–Gly and Leu–Leu.
d) Gly–Leu:

e) Advantages: common names are often shorter and easier to memorise than
systematic names. The three-letter abbreviations derived from common names, such
as Gly for glycine and Leu for leucine, are very convenient and thus widely used in
biochemistry and biology. Many common names reflect the properties or natural
sources of amino acids (for example, glycine has a sweet taste, so its name was
derived from Greek glukus "sweet").
Disadvantages: common names must be memorised while systematic names can be
constructed using simple and unambiguous rules, which helps communicate
scientific knowledge. Systematic names look similar in different languages, which
facilitates international collaboration.

B2.2 a) Hydrogen bonds.

b) Amido groups, C(O)–NH. More specifically, hydrogen bonds form between C=O and
N–H fragments of different amido groups.

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B2.3

Note that the enzyme activity reaches its maximum at a certain pH (specific to each
enzyme) and falls quickly at either side of this optimum pH value. The reaction rate is
proportional to the enzyme activity.

B3.1 a) Physical properties: at room temperature, oils are liquid while fats are solid.
Chemical composition: oils contain many carbon–carbon double bonds (C=C)
while fats contain few or no such bonds. Note that "carbon–carbon" or "C=C" are
essential for mark, as both oils and fats are triglycerides and thus contain many
carbon–oxygen (C=O) double bonds.
b) Sodium hydroxide will hydrolyse the ester links in triglycerides (fats):

fat sodium hydroxide glycerol sodium salt

Both products of the reaction, glycerol and sodium salts of fatty acids, are soluble in
water, so they will be flushed away from the drains.
c) Oil can be hydrogenated by reacting with hydrogen gas at a high temperature and in
the presence of a transition metal catalyst (typically Ni or Pt). The hydrogenation
converts each carbon–carbon double bond in the oil into a single bond, producing a
saturated triglyceride (fat).
d) If the hydrogenation is incomplete, some carbon–carbon double bonds will change
their configuration from cis- to trans-, producing trans-fats. The consumption of trans-
fats increases the risk of heart disease, diabetes and obesity.

B3.2 a) Hydroxyl (–OH) and carbonyl (C=O).

Note that "alcohol" and "ketone" are class names, not functional group names.
b) The steroidal backbone (a characteristic arrangement of four fused rings, three of
which are six-membered and one is five-membered).
c) More soluble, as DHEA contains a carbonyl group instead of the long hydrocarbon
chain in cholesterol. As a result, DHEA is more polar than cholesterol and can form
more hydrogen bonds with water.
d) A possible answer can include any one of the following:
 many anabolic steroids have medical uses (such as accelerated recovery of
patients with significant loss of muscle tissue due to surgery, trauma, cancer or
other conditions);
 negative and positive effects of anabolic steroids on human health need to be
better understood;
 the research allows to improve the detection of banned substances.

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B4.1 a) They both contain a carbonyl (C=O) group and more than one hydroxyl (–OH)
groups. Note that "more than one" is essential for mark.
b) Threose is an aldose (belongs to the class of aldehydes), as its carbonyl group is
located at a terminal (first) carbon atom. Erythrulose is a ketose (belongs to the class
of ketones), as its carbonyl group is located at a non-terminal (second) carbon atom.
c) Carbohydrates are more soluble in water, as they have many polar functional groups
(–OH and C=O) that can form multiple hydrogen bonds with water.

B4.2 a)

Note that the continuation bonds and their positions (below the plane of the six-
membered ring) are essential for mark.
b) There are two possible equations:

The first equation does not show the terminal groups in the macromolecule of
amylose, so each repeating unit requires one molecule of water. The second
equation shows these groups, so the number of water molecules is reduced by one.
Both equations are equally acceptable, as long as they are balanced.

B5.1 Structural: vitamins A and D have long hydrocarbon chains and a single hydroxyl group
(–OH). In contrast, vitamin C has much fewer hydrocarbon fragments but several hydroxyl
and other polar functional groups (–O– and C=O).
Physical: vitamins A and D have low melting points and are almost insoluble in water but
are soluble in non-polar solvents, such as hexane. In contrast, vitamin C has a high melting
point and is readily soluble in water but is insoluble in non-polar solvents.

B5.2 a) Cholesterol.
b) The biosynthesis of vitamin D in the human body (mostly in the skin) requires
sunlight. In northern countries, the days are short during the winter, so people have
little exposure to sunlight. As a result, the biosynthesis does not produce enough
vitamin D, which can lead to a deficiency.

B6.1

B6.2 The individual can be given EDTA or any other ligand that forms chelate complexes with
lead ions. Chelate complexes are very stable, so the concentration of free lead ions in the
blood plasma and other parts of the body will decrease significantly, and the effects of lead
poisoning will be reduced.

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B7.1 a) 1.0

V max

0.8

Reaction rate / arbitrary scale 0.6

½V max
0.4

0.2

K m = 5.3 × 10–3 mol dm–3

0.0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60
Substrate concentration / 10–3 mol dm–3

Note that Km is the equal to the substrate concentration at ½Vmax.

b) The structures of sulfanilamide and PABA are very similar, so sulfanilamide is likely to
act as a competitive inhibitor. The molecule of sulfanilamide occupies the active site
of the enzyme and prevents the "normal" substrate (PABA) from binding to the same
enzyme.
c) 1.0
original curve (no inhibitor)

0.8
Reaction rate / arbitrary scale

competitive inhibitor

0.6

0.4

0.2

0.0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60
Substrate concentration / 10–3 mol dm–3

Note that in the presence of a competitive inhibitor (sulfanilamide) the curve shifts to
the right (Km increases) but flattens out at the same level (Vmax is not affected).

B7.2 a) According to section 1 of the data booklet, the pH of a buffer solution can found using
the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation:
–
[A ]
pH = pKa + log
[HA]
–
In our buffer system, the anionic form is the conjugate base (A ) and the zwitterion is
the conjugate acid (HA). Therefore:
0.100
pH = 9.13 + log ≈ 8.73
0.250

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b) A series of standard solutions with known concentrations of phenylalanine are

prepared, and their absorbances are measured using a UV-vis spectrometer. A
calibration curve is constructed as a plot of absorbance against concentration. The
absorbance of the studied solution is also measured under exactly the same
conditions as the absorbances of standard solutions. The unknown concentration of
phenylalanine is then found from the calibration curve.
A less precise method uses the Beer–Lambert law, A = εlc, which is given in section 1
of the data booklet. The absorbance (A1) of a single standard solution with a known
concentration (c1) of phenylalanine is measured. The absorbance (A2) of the studied
solution is also measured under the same conditions. Since concentration is
c1 A1
proportional to absorbance, = , so the unknown concentration (c2) of
c2 A2
phenylalanine can be found as follows:
A1
c2 = c1
A2

B8.1 a) Each residue of phosphoric acid in DNA has a free hydroxyl group, which is almost
completely ionised under biological conditions (pH ≈ 7.4):

The remaining units of the DNA molecule (the residues of deoxyribose and
nitrogenous bases) are uncharged, so the whole molecule has a net negative charge.
b) In the complementary sequence, each "A" will be replaced with "T", "T" with "A", "G"
with "C" and "C" with "G": –AGTTACCTG–.

B8.2 a)
Composition
Polynucleotide Structure
sugar nitrogenous bases

DNA deoxyribose all except uracil double strand

RNA ribose all except thymine single strand

b) Let n(adenine) = 2x mol, then n(guanine) = 3x mol. Since adenine is complementary to

thymine, n(thymine) = n(adenine) = 2x mol. Similarly, guanine is complementary to
cytosine, so n(cytosine) = n(guanine) = 3x mol. In such case, the total amount of
nitrogenous bases in the DNA sample is 2x + 3x + 2x + 3x = 10x mol. Therefore, the
3x
mole percentage of cytosine is × 100% = 30%.
10x

B9.1 a) Each hemoglobin molecule has four binding sites for oxygen molecules. At 0 kPa,
hemoglobin is completely deoxygenated, and its affinity for oxygen is low, so the curve
rises very gradually. When the first oxygen molecule binds to a deoxygenated
hemoglobin, the shapes of the other three binding sites change slightly, and their
affinities for oxygen increase. This effect is known as cooperative binding. As the
second and subsequent oxygen molecules bind to hemoglobin more easily, further
increase in p(O2) leads to progressively larger increase in hemoglobin saturation. As a
result, the saturation curve becomes steeper.

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b)

Note that the curve at a decreased pH begins at the origin (% saturation O2 = 0) and
flattens out at the same level (% saturation O2 = 100) as the original curve. However, a
decrease in pH distorts the shapes of binding sites and thus reduces the affinity of
hemoglobin for oxygen. As a result, any given percentage of saturation requires a
higher p(O2), so the curve shifts right.
c) Hemoglobin has a higher affinity for carbon monoxide (CO) than for oxygen, so the
complex of hemoglobin with CO forms very easily and breaks down very slowly. In
addition, the presence of a CO molecule in one of the four binding sites of hemoglobin
prevents the release of oxygen from other binding sites. As a result, hemoglobin loses
the ability to transport oxygen from the lungs to tissues, which causes hypoxia. In
severe cases, this condition can be fatal.
+
B9.2 a) In all anthocyanins, the flavylium cation (HB ) has one more proton than the quinoidal
base (B). The equilibrium between these two forms can be represented as follows:
+ +
HB (aq) H (aq) + B(aq)
+
At low pH, [H ] is high, so the equilibrium shifts to the left, and the anthocyanins exist
predominantly as flavylium cations.
+
b) In all anthocyanins, the flavylium cation (HB ) has one more proton than the quinoidal
base (B). The equilibrium between these two forms can be represented as follows:
+ +
HB (aq) H (aq) + B(aq)
+
At low pH, [H ] is high, so the equilibrium shifts to the left, and the anthocyanins exist
predominantly as flavylium cations.
c) Quinoidal base and flavylium cation have different arrangements of delocalised
electrons, which affects the extent of electron conjugation in these species and thus
the wavelength of light they absorb.
d) According to the colour wheel in section 17 of the data booklet, the range 600–640 nm
corresponds to orange light. If orange light is absorbed, the complementary colour
(blue) is observed, so the quinoidal base appears blue.

B10.1 a)

L-serine D-serine
b) L-serine.

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B10.2 a)

α-deoxyribose β-fructose
Note that the right hand side hydroxyl group in the first structure is below the plane of
the ring (α-form) while in the second structure it is above the plane of the ring (β-
form).
b) See part (a). Note that the second carbon atom in deoxyribose is not chiral, as it has
two identical substituents (H).

B10.3 a) Extensive electron conjugation. Other acceptable answers are "large number of
delocalised electrons" and "many alternating single and double bonds". Note that the
words "extensive", "large" and "many" are essential for the mark, as molecules with
only a few delocalised electrons do not absorb visible light.
b) One of the carbon–carbon double bonds in the retinal residue changes its
configuration from cis- to trans-.
c) The system of electron conjugation in rhodopsin is larger than that in retinal, so
rhodopsin absorbs visible light over a wider range of wavelengths. Retinal strongly
absorbs light in the violet region, so it appears yellow (as yellow colour is
complementary to violet; see section 17 of the data booklet). Rhodopsin strongly
absorbs light in the green and yellow regions, so it transmits red and violet light and
thus appears purple.

Option C Energy
o –1 4 –1
C1.1 a) ΔHc = 12.0 MJ mol = 1.20 × 10 kJ mol
1.20 × 104 kJ mol–1 –1
specific energy = ≈ 40.1 kJ g
299 g mol–1
–1 –3 –3
energy density = 40.1 kJ g × 0.850 g cm ≈ 34.1 kJ cm
b) Advantages (any two will score the mark):
 when burned, ethanol produces less soot and other particulates than biodiesel;
 ethanol has a higher octane rating than biodiesel;
 ethanol has a lower viscosity than biodiesel;
 ethanol can be produced from carbohydrates (instead of triglycerides required for
biodiesel);
 in contrast to biodiesel, the production of bioethanol does not require corrosive
chemicals (such as strong bases) and high temperature;
 ethanol spills present no long-term environmental hazards (as ethanol is water-
soluble and fully biodegradable while biodiesel is not).
Disadvantages (any two will score the mark):
 ethanol has a lower specific energy than biodiesel (so more fuel is needed for
travelling the same distance);
 the engine may have to be modified for using ethanol-rich fuels;
 distillation of ethanol requires energy (which further reduces its overall efficiency
as a fuel);
 ethanol is hygroscopic (absorbs water), so ethanol-rich fuels can deteriorate over
time.
 ethanol is intoxicating (so can be abused).

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

C1.2 a)
6
1.00 × 106 g 5
One tonne (1.00 × 10 g) of coal contains × 93% = 9.30 × 10 g, or
100%
9.30 × 105 g 4
–1
≈ 7.74 × 10 mol of graphite. According to section 13 of the data
12.01 g mol
o –1
booklet, ΔHc (C, graphite) = –394 kJ mol , so one tonne of coal will produce
4 –1 7
7.74 × 10 mol × 394 kJ mol ≈ 3.05 × 10 kJ = 30.5 GJ of energy.
11.0 GJ
Therefore, the efficiency of energy transfer is × 100% ≈ 36.1%.
30.5 GJ
b) Any two of the following will score the full mark:
 reduce heat losses to the environment by insulating the combustion chamber;
 use coal with a higher percentage of graphite (so less energy would be
wasted on heating up non-combustible material);
 pre-heat the coal and the air used for its combustion with hot flue gases;
 optimise the air to coal ratio (insufficient air would lead to incomplete
combustion while excess air would require extra energy for heating);
 convert the coal first into syngas and then burn the syngas instead of coal (as
the combustion of a homogeneous gas mixture is easier to optimise and
control than the combustion of a heterogeneous mixture of coal and air);
 use hot flue gases instead of electricity for heating the plant itself and the
surrounding buildings.

C2.1 a) The octane number generally decreases when the number of CH 2 groups in the
alkane molecule increases. Therefore, alkanes with long straight chains, such as n-
octane, have very low octane numbers while short-chain alkanes (such as methane or
ethane) and branched alkanes (such as 2,2,4-trimethylpentane, also known under the
common name "isooctane") have high octane numbers.
Note that cycloalkanes and aromatic hydrocarbons also have higher octane numbers
than straight-chain alkanes. However, the question specifically asks about alkanes, so
such answers will not be accepted.
b) The first step is the cracking of tetradecane, which proceeds at high temperatures and
usually requires a catalyst:
C14H30 → C7H16 + C7H14
Both heptane (C7H16) and heptene (C7H14) undergo catalytic reforming reactions and
produce methylbenzene (C6H5CH3):
C7H16 → C6H5CH3 + 4H2
C7H14 → C6H5CH3 + 3H2
Catalytic reforming also requires high temperature and a catalyst.
3 6
c) m(C6H5CH3) = 2.00 × 10 kg = 2.00 × 10 g
–1
M(C6H5CH3) = 92.15 g mol
2.00 × 106 g 4
n(C6H5CH3) = –1
≈ 2.17 × 10 mol
92.15 g mol
C6H5CH3 + 9O2 → 7CO2 + 4H2O
4 5
n(CO2) = 7 × n(C6H5CH3) = 7 × 2.17 × 10 mol ≈ 1.52 × 10 mol
–1
M(CO2) = 44.01 g mol
5 –1 6
m(CO2) = 1.52 × 10 mol × 44.01 g mol ≈ 6.69 × 10 g = 6.69 tonnes.

C2.2 a) CO(g) + 2H2(g) → CH3OH(l)

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

b) There are several possible equations, for example:

7CH3OH(l) + H2(g) → C7H16(l) + 7H2O(l)
15CH3OH(l) → 2C7H16(l) + 14H2O(l) + CO(g)
Note that the catalytic dehydration of methanol initially produces alkenes, which are
then reduced to alkanes. Therefore, the conversion of methanol to alkanes requires
extra hydrogen, which can be either added to the reaction mixture directly (as it is
done in the first equation) or produced inside the reaction chamber by the
decomposition of methanol:
CH3OH(l) → CO(g) + 2H2(g)
The latter equation is the reverse of the equation from part (a).
c) Your answer should include at least one advantage and one disadvantage for each
fuel, which are outlined in the table below.

Fuel Advantages Disadvantages

high octane rating, produces
low specific energy and energy
less soot and particulates when
density, absorbs water (so fuel
burned, water-soluble and
methanol may deteriorate over time), toxic,
biodegradable (so spills cause
engines must be modified to run
no long-term environmental
on methanol-rich fuels
hazards)
high specific energy and energy low octane rating, produces soot
n-heptane density, can be used in most and particulates, insoluble in water
internal combustion engines and non-biodegradable

C3.1 a) 235
U + 01 n → 236
U
92 92
236 131 102
92 U→ 53 I+ 39 Y + 3 01 n
The atomic numbers (bottom-left subscript indexes) can be omitted.
b) The mass of uranium-235 in the sample will decrease as follows:

10.00 g (100%) 5.00 g (50%) 2.50 g (25%) 1.25 g (12.5%)

6
The decay from 10 to 1.25 g will take three half-lives, or 3 × 7.038 × 10 ≈
7
2.11 × 10 years.
c) High-level nuclear waste (HLW).

C3.2 a) 2
H + 31 H → 42 He + 01 n
1

b) According to section 36 of the data booklet, helium has a higher binding energy per
nucleon than deuterium and tritium. If binding energy increases, the products of the
reaction (helium-4 and a neutron) are more stable than the reactants (deuterium and
tritium). Therefore, excess energy is released.
c) Spectrometry. Note that the answer "spectroscopy" may fail to score the mark, as the
question refers to relative abundances ("mainly composed"), and the determination of
element abundances requires quantitative measurements.

C4.1 a) Chlorophyll has many alternating single and double bonds. The π-electrons in these
bonds are delocalised and form a large system of electron conjugation. The energy of
electron transitions in this conjugated system is similar to that of photons of visible
light.
b) 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) → C6H12O6(aq) + 6O2(g)
c) Ethanol can be produced by fermentation of glucose:
C6H12O6(aq) → 2CH3CH2OH(aq) + 2CO2(g)

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

C4.2 a) The oil can be treated with excess ethanol at a high temperature in the presence of a
catalyst (a strong base or a strong acid):

The ethyl esters of fatty acids, RCOOCH2CH3, have lower viscosity than the
original oil.
b) Biofuels are produced from plant material. When plants grow, they remove carbon
dioxide from the atmosphere. When the biofuel is combusted, the carbon dioxide
returns to the atmosphere, so the net carbon emission of the whole process is close to
zero. In contrast, the release of carbon dioxide from fossil fuels is not compensated by
its removal from the atmosphere.

C5.1 a) Your answer may include any the following:

 sufficient data on global temperature and carbon dioxide levels have been
collected;
 better understanding of natural processes has been achieved;
 comprehensive computer models of the Earth's climate have been developed;
 more powerful computers can now process data more efficiently.
b) Modes II (asymmetric stretching) and III (bending) will be IR-active, as they change
the dipole moment of the CO2 molecule. Mode I (symmetric stretching) will be IR-
inactive, as it does not affect the dipole moment of the CO2 molecule (the dipole
moment will remain zero).
c) A significant proportion of atmospheric carbon dioxide dissolves in oceanic water:
o
CO2(g) CO2(aq) ΔH < 0
This process is exothermic, so when the temperature of oceanic water rises, the
solubility of carbon dioxide decreases. The position of the above equilibrium shifts to
the left, and the concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere increases.
d) Particulates cause global dimming by absorbing sunlight and reflecting it back into the
space. As a result, less sunlight reaches the Earth's surface, so the temperature of the
Earth's surface decreases.

C6.1 a) Negative electrode (anode):

– + –
CH3COO (aq) + 2H2O(l) → 2CO2(g) + 7H (aq) + 8e
Positive electrode (cathode):
+ –
O2(g) + 4H (aq) + 4e → 2H2O(l)
Overall reaction:
– +
CH3COO (aq) + H (aq) + 2O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

b) Your answer should include at least one similarity and one difference, which are
outlined in the table below.

Primary cells Microbial fuel cells (MFCs)

transform chemical energy into electrical energy; contain electrodes

and electrolyte; use spontaneous redox reactions; cannot be
similarities
recharged / the redox reactions cannot be reversed using external
electric current
require constant supply of fuel;
contain the reactants within the
can be used continuously (as
cell; can be used only once and
long as the fuel is supplied);
for a limited period of time; long
cannot be stored for a long time
(although not indefinite) shelf life;
differences without fuel supply (as bacteria
can operate in a wider range of
will die); can operate only in
temperatures; usually contain
narrow ranges of temperature
heavy metals and must be
and pH; biodegradable (except
disposed of as hazardous waste
the electrodes)

c) Voltage: material(s) of the electrodes; redox reactions / qualitative composition of the

electrolyte(s); temperature; pH / concentration of ions in the electrolyte(s).
Current: diffusion rate of ions; internal resistance; temperature, pH / concentration of
ions in the electrolyte(s); size/surface area/separation of the electrodes; composition
and construction of the salt bridge.
Note that you need to state at least two different factors. For example, the answer
"temperature" will be accepted for either voltage or current but not for both.

C6.2 a) The driving force of all redox processes in a concentration cell is the difference in
2+
concentrations of the same ion (in our case, Cu ) between the two half-cells. The
ions with the higher concentration will produce a higher redox potential and thus
undergo reduction:
2+ –
Cu (aq) + 2e → Cu(s)
2+ –3
Therefore, the half-cell with [Cu ] = 750 mmol dm will be the cathode (positive
2+ –3
electrode). The other half-cell with [Cu ] = 250 mmol dm will be the anode (negative
electrode), where copper(II) ions will be produced:
2+ –
Cu(s) → Cu (aq) + 2e
The same conclusion can be made using the Nernst equation.
o
b) For a concentration cell, E cell = 0, as both half-cells contain identical redox pairs.
According to section 1 of the data booklet,

o
RT 8.31 × 298 0.150
Ecell = Ecell + lnQ = 0 – ln ≈ 0.021 V = 21 mV
nF 2 × 96500 0.750
c) Your answer may include any two of the differences outlined in the table below.

Difference Concentration cell Standard voltaic cell

redox pairs in half-cells identical different
materials of the electrodes identical different or identical
qualitative composition of
identical different or identical
electrolytes
–3
concentrations of electrolytes different identical (1 mol dm )
o
E cell 0 ≠0

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

C7.1 a) According to sections 2 and 4 of the data booklet, 1 amu = 1.66 × 10

–27
kg and m( 0 n )
1

–27
= 1.674927 × 10 kg. Therefore:
1.674927 × 10–27
m( 10n) = ≈ 1.00899 amu
1.66 × 10–27
–27 –29
Δm = (2.01410 + 3.01605 – 4.00260 – 1.00899) × 1.66 × 10 ≈ 3.08 × 10 kg
If you rounded the mass of the neutron in amu to three significant figures, your
–29
answer would be 2.91 × 10 kg, which is also acceptable.
b) 1.00 g
n(helium-4) = ≈ 0.250 mol
4.00260 g mol–1
23 –1 23
N(helium-4) = 0.250 mol × 6.02 × 10 mol = 1.505 × 10 (atoms)
–29 23 –6
Δm(per 0.25 mol of helium-4) = 3.08 × 10 kg × 1.505 × 10 ≈ 4.64 × 10 kg
2 –6 8 –1 2 11
E = mc = 4.64 × 10 kg × (3.00 × 10 m s ) ≈ 4.18 × 10 J
–6 –6
The acceptable range of answers is from 3.90 × 10 to 4.30 × 10 J
–27
c) A tritium nucleus contains one proton (m = 1.672622 × 10 kg; see section 4 of the
–27
data booklet) and two neutrons (m = 1.674927 × 10 kg each). Therefore:
–27 –27
m(tritium atom) = 3.01605 × 1.66 × 10 kg ≈ 5.006643 × 10 kg
–27 –27 –27 –29
Δm = 1.672622 × 10 + 2 × 1.674927 × 10 – 5.006643 × 10 ≈ 1.58 × 10 kg
2 –29 8 –1 2 –12
E(per atom) = mc = 1.58 × 10 kg × (3.00 × 10 m s ) ≈ 1.42 × 10 J

E(per atom) 1.42 × 10–12 kg –13

E(per nucleon) = =≈ 4.73 × 10 J
3 3 –6 –6
The acceptable range of answers is from 3.70 × 10 to 4.90 × 10 J
d) ln 2 –λt
According to section 1 of the data booklet, t1/2 = and N = N0e . Therefore:

0.693
t1/2 = ≈ 12.3 years
0.0563 year–1
–0.0563 × 45
N(remaining) = N0 × e ≈ 0.0794 × N0 = 7.94%
N(decayed) = 100% – 7.94% ≈ 92.1%

C8.1 Retinal is yellow, so it absorbs the complementary violet light (400–424 nm, see section 17
of the data booklet). Carotene is orange, so it absorbs the complementary blue light
(424–491 nm).
Note that the system of electron conjugation in carotene is larger than that in retinal, so
carotene absorbs visible light of longer wavelengths.

C8.2 a) In DSSCs, the absorption of photons occurs in a metal-based organic dye while the
charge separation involves the dye, a semiconductor (titanium dioxide) and an
– –
electrolyte (I /I3 ). In silicon-based photovoltaic cells both processes take place
simultaneously within a semiconductor (doped silicon).
b) Your answer should include any two advantages listed in table C.8.1.

Option D Medicinal chemistry

D1.1 a) Your answer should include any two of the following: hydroxyl, carboxyl, ether and
amido. The answer "amino" is incorrect, as all NH and NH2 fragments in zanamivir are
parts of larger functional groups. Note that "alcohol", "carboxylic acid", "amide" and
"amine" are class names, not functional group names.
b) Zanamivir is a highly polar molecule, as it contains many polar functional groups.
Polar molecules are poorly absorbed through the skin (transdermally), so zanamivir
must be administered by inhalation.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

D1.2 a) It is not possible to determine ED100 for all drugs, as the efficacy of a drug varies
among individuals. Some individuals can be completely irresponsive to certain drugs,
so ED100 will never be achieved.
b) Ethics and cost. It is unethical to put animals or people in danger unless absolutely
necessary. Animal and human trials of drugs are expensive.

D1.3 a) Enzymes and cellular receptors. The more general answer "proteins" is also
acceptable. Nucleic acids can also be targeted by drugs, but this is less common.
b) A drug molecule can bind (temporary or permanently) to the active or allosteric site of
an enzyme or receptor. The binding can be covalent or non-covalent (hydrogen
bonding, ionic, dipole–dipole and/or London dispersion forces).
–1
D2.1 a) n(salicylic acid) = 2.65 g / 138.13 g mol ≈ 0.0192 mol
–1
n(ethanoic anhydride) = 2.51 g / 102.10 g mol ≈ 0.0246 mol
Since n(salicylic acid) < n(ethanoic anhydride), salicylic acid is the limiting reactant.
–1
b) M(aspirin) = 180.17 g mol (see example D.2.1)
–1
mtheor(aspirin) = 0.0192 mol × 180.17 g mol ≈ 3.46 g
3.46 g × 72.5%
mpract(aspirin) = ≈ 2.51 g
100%
c) Your answer should include any three of the following: IR spectroscopy, NMR
spectroscopy, mass spectroscopy, UV-vis spectroscopy, X-ray crystallography,
elemental analysis, chromatography, melting point determination.

D2.2 a) Ring strain is the decreased stability of a cyclic molecule due to unusual bond angles.
b) The three carbon atoms are labelled with red circles.

Note that the ring strain of carbon atoms in the five-membered ring is negligible.
c) The structure of clavulanic acid is similar to that of penicillin, so β-lactamase attacks
clavulanic acid instead of penicillin. When clavulanic acid binds to the active site of β-
lactamase, the enzyme is inactivated permanently. Inactivated β-lactamase cannot
destroy penicillin, so the remaining penicillin molecules can reach their target
(transpeptidase).

D3.1 a) There are several possible answers, two of which are given in the table below:

Reagent By-product
ethanoic anhydride, (CH3CO)2O ethanoic acid, CH3COOH
ethanoyl chloride, CH3C(O)Cl hydrogen chloride, HCl

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

b) The similarities and differences are outlined in the table below. To score the full mark,
you should mention the similarity and at least one difference.
Mild analgesics Strong analgesics

similarity reduce pain

act at the site of pain/injury; bind to bind to opioid receptors in the

and inhibit the enzymes brain/CNS; block the
(cyclooxygenases) that produce transmission of pain impulses
differences
pain-sensitising substances from the source of pain to the
(prostaglandins); usually reduce brain; usually do not reduce
inflammation inflammation

D3.2 a) Your answer should include any two similarities and any two differences, which are
outlined in the table below.
Methadone Diamorphine

both contain aromatic ring(s), carbonyl group(s) and a tertiary

similarities
amino group

only one aromatic ring;

two aromatic rings;
one carbon–carbon double
no carbon–carbon double bonds;
bond;
differences no ester/ethanoate groups;
two ester/ethanoate groups;
no ether groups;
one ether group;
no fused rings
several fused rings

b) Methadone reduces the craving for heroin by preventing/managing the withdrawal

symptoms. It also reduces the psychological dependence on heroin by breaking the
link between the drug use and pleasure (euphoria).

D4.1 a) HCl(aq) + NaHCO3(aq) → NaCl(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

or
+ –
H (aq) + HCO3 (aq) → CO2(g) + H2O(l)
+ +
Either molecular or ionic equation is acceptable. H3O (aq) can be used instead of H (aq).
–1
b) M(NaHCO3) = 84.01 g mol
–1
n(NaHCO3) = 0.800 g / 84.01 g mol ≈ 0.00952 mol
According to the equation from part (a), n(HCl) = n(NaHCO3) = 0.00952 mol
c) Your answer should include at least one similarity and one difference from the table
below.
Antacids Omeprazole

similarities both reduce the pH of the gastric juice; both can cause diarrhea

relieve heartburn/indigestion;
prevent heartburn/indigestion;
immediate effect;
gradual effect;
short duration action;
long duration of action;
differences disturb electrolyte balance;
systemic side-effects;
may cause bloating, belching
may cause headache, nausea, fatigue and
and the formation of kidney
dizziness
stones

Note that the question is about the use of the drugs, not about the mechanism of their
action.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

–1
D4.2 M(Na2CO3) = 105.99 g mol
–1
n(Na2CO3) = 0.400 g / 105.99 g mol ≈ 0.00377 mol
3 –3
c(Na2CO3) = 0.00377 mol / 0.0500 dm = 0.0754 mol dm
2–
The dissociation of Na2CO3 will produce CO3 (aq) ions, which will act as the conjugate
–
base of the buffer system. The dissociation of NaHCO3 will produce HCO3 (aq) ions, which
will act as the conjugate acid. Therefore:

0.0754 mol dm–3

pH = 10.35 + log ≈ 9.93
0.200 mol dm–3
Note that the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation is given in section 1 of the data booklet.

D5.1 a) Ester (general name) or ethoxycarbonyl (specific name). Any of the two answers is
acceptable.
b) The replacement of a highly polar carboxyl (–COOH) group with a less polar ester
(–COOCH2CH3) group makes the whole drug molecule less polar, so it could pass
lipid-based cell membranes more easily.

D5.2 a) Your answer should contain any two similarities and any two differences from the
table below.
Viruses Bacteria

similarities both contain genetic material; both can cause infectious diseases

smaller than bacteria;

larger than viruses;
lack cellular structure;
have cellular structure;
lack metabolism;
differences have metabolism;
cannot feed, excrete or grow;
can feed, excrete and grow;
can multiply only within host
can multiply on their own
cells

b) Viruses mutate quickly and eventually develop resistance to antiviral drugs, including
rimantadine.
c) Poorly educated people are less capable to protect themselves and their partners from
HIV. They are also less likely to recognise the symptoms of AIDS and seek medical
help. Finally, they are more likely to deny the existence of HIV/AIDS and refuse to take
actions against the spread and prevention of this virus/disease.
The stigma associated with HIV/AIDS prevents some people from taking HIV tests,
reporting their symptoms and/or receiving medical treatment.

D6.1 a) Your answer should include any two specific examples, such as needles, syringes,
bottles/containers, solutions, gloves, gowns/protective clothing, shoe covers, cotton
swabs/tissue, tools.
b) Type: low-level nuclear waste (LLW).
Characteristics: low activity and short half-life.
c) Your answer should include any two of the following:
 risk to benefit ratio (the harm done to the patient might outweigh the benefits);
 risk to medical/laboratory staff (exposure to nuclear radiation may cause cancer
or other health issues);
 risk to general public (accidents can expose many people to nuclear radiation);
 environmental concerns (nuclear waste may cause damage to living organisms);
 security risks (radioactive materials may be stolen and used by criminals);
 cost and accessibility (nuclear treatment may not be available to some patients);
 personal beliefs (cultural resistance, superstition and/or lack of education).

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

D6.2 a) Your answer should include at least one common hazard and at least one specific
hazard for each solvent type. These hazards are listed in table D.6.2.
b) Your answer may include any one of the following: use solvent-free reactions, recycle
or reuse solvents, use water or supercritical carbon dioxide as solvents, use
"green"/biodegradable solvents (such as dimethyl carbonate or ethanol).

D7.1 Your discussion should include any two of the following:

 sustainability (the risk of extinction of Pacific yew and the need of sustainable use of
European yew);
 environmental pollution (solvent and chemical waste generated during the extraction
and/or production of taxol and its precursors);
 risk to benefit ratio (the harm done to the patient might outweigh the benefits of the
anti-cancer treatment);
 high cost of taxol (so it may not be available to some patients).

D7.2 A chiral auxiliary binds to a non-chiral precursor, producing a chiral intermediate. When this
intermediate reacts with a non-chiral reagent, the existing chiral centre creates steric
hindrance and favours the formation of specific enantiomer. After the reaction is complete,
the chiral auxiliary is removed, releasing esomeprazole.

D7.3 The mixture is not racemic (or the rotation angle would be zero).

D8.1 a) 90
Y → 90
Zr + 0
e
39 40 –1
225 221
89 Ac → 87 Fr + 42 He
The atomic numbers (bottom-left subscript indexes) can be omitted.
b) Your answer should contain at least one similarity and at least one difference from the
table below.
Yttrium-90 Actinium-225

both are used in internal radiotherapy;

both can be delivered to cancer cells by carrier drugs/proteins/antibodies;
similarities
both can be used to selectively destroy cancer cells with little damage to
surrounding tissues

emits mostly β-radiation; emits α-radiation;

β-radiation has lower ionising power α-radiation has higher ionising
but higher penetrating power than α- power but lower penetrating power
radiation; than β-radiation;
differences
used for the treatment of smaller used for the treatment of larger
tumours; tumours;
produces some γ-radiation, which does not produce γ-radiation, so
can be used for radioimaging cannot be used for radioimaging

c) See the answer to part (c) of practice problem 1 from topic D.6.

D8.2 a) 131
53 I→ 131
54 Xe* + 0
–1 e–
131
54 Xe* → 131
54 Xe + 00 γ
The atomic numbers (bottom-left subscript indexes) can be omitted.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice problems

b) 0 –
Beta-radiation ( –1 e ) has higher ionising power but lower penetrating power than
gamma-radiation ( 0 γ ), so it causes more damage to cancer cells and less damage to
0

surrounding tissues. In contrast, the penetrating power of gamma-radiation is

sufficient for leaving the patient's body and reaching the external imaging equipment.
Therefore, beta-radiation is used for cancer treatment while gamma-radiation
is used for radioimaging.
c) According to section 1 of the data booklet, N t  N 0  (0.5) t / t1/ 2 . If 99% of the sample
decays, 1% will remain. Therefore:
t/8.02
1% = 100% × (0.5)
t
log(0.01) = × log(0.5)
8.02
t ≈ 53.3 days.

D9.1 a) Your answer should include any two of the following:

–1
 3200–3600 cm due to the O–H bond in the hydroxyl group;
–1
 2500–3000 cm due to the O–H bond in the carboxyl group;
–1
 1700–1750 cm due to the C=O bond in the carboxyl group;
–1
 1050–1410 cm due to the C–O bond in the carboxyl group.
Note that typical IR absorptions are listed in section 26 of the data booklet.
b) Your answer should contain at least one similarity and at least one difference from the
table below.
Salicylic acid Aspirin

a singlet of the –COOH proton at 9.0–13.0 ppm;

similarities the total number of signals is two (besides the signals of the benzene
ring)

a singlet of the –OH proton at a singlet of the –OC(O)CH3

4.0–12.0 ppm; protons at 2.0–2.5 ppm;
the integration ratio of the two the integration ratio of the two
differences
signals is 1 : 1; signals is 1 : 3;
both singlets/signals are broad one singlet/signal is broad while
another one is sharp
1
Note that the chemical shifts of typical H NMR signals are listed in section 27 of the
data booklet.
c) Your answer should contain any two of the following: mass spectroscopy, UV-vis
spectroscopy, X-ray crystallography, elemental analysis, chromatography, melting
point determination.

D9.2 a) A sample is vaporised and injected into a GC column. The individual compounds in
the sample have different retention times and thus separate into individual bands. The
MS of each band is checked for specific m/z peaks or compared with computer
databases of known anabolic steroids.
b) Nandrolone, as its rounded Mr value is 274. This value matches the highest m/z value,
which is likely to be produced by the molecular ion of nandrolone. Conversely, the
rounded Mr value of testosterone is 276, but there is no peak with such m/z value in
the mass spectrum.

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IB Prepared Chemistry
Answers to practice exam papers

Here are the answers to the practice exam papers from IB Prepared Chemistry.

For direct access, click on the paper below.

Paper 1

Paper 2

Paper 3

[1
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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice exam papers

Paper 1

1. D 18. D 35. A

2. C 19. B 36. A

3. C 20. C 37. D

4. B 21. A 38. B

5. C 22. B 39. C

6. A 23. C 40. B

7. D 24. B 41. B

8. D 25. D 42. C

9. B 26. A 43. B

10. A 27. C 44. C

11. A 28. D 45. B

12. C 29. B 46. D

13. D 30. A 47. B

14. B 31. B 48. A

15. C 32. C 49. C

16. A 33. D 50. D

17. A 34. A

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Paper 2
1. (a) To score the full mark, you must state that the acid–base properties of the oxides
change from basic through amphoteric to acidic and write at least two chemical
equations from the table below.

Oxide Properties Equation(s)

MgO basic MgO(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq) + H2O(l)
Al2O3(s) + 6HCl(aq) → 2AlCl3(aq) + 3H2O(l)
Al2O3(s) + 2NaOH(aq) + 3H2O(l) → 2Na[Al(OH)4](aq)
Al2O3 amphoteric or
Al2O3(s) + 2NaOH(s) 2NaAlO2(s) + H2O(g)
SiO2 SiO2(s) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na2SiO3(aq) + H2O(l)
P4O10 P4O10(s) + 12NaOH(aq) → 4Na3PO4(aq) + 6H2O(l)
acidic
SO2 SO2(g) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na2SO3(aq) + H2O(l)
SO3 SO3(l) + 2NaOH(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + H2O(l)

Ionic equations are also acceptable. State symbols are not required.
2 2 6 2
(b) Mg: 1s 2s 2p 3s
2 2 6 2 4
S: 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p

(c) By losing one of its 3s electrons, magnesium gets closer to the stable electron
configuration [Ne]. In contrast, when sulfur loses one of its 3p electrons, it gets
further from the next stable electron configuration [Ar]. Therefore, the IE1 of
magnesium is lower than that of sulfur.
Magnesium can gain an electron only by accommodating it in the next energy
sublevel, 3p, which is unfavourable. In addition, this will bring magnesium further
from the stable electron configuration [Ne]. In contrast, sulfur can accommodate
an extra electron in its partly filled 3p sublevel and get closer to the next stable
electron configuration [Ar]. Therefore, the Eea of sulfur is lower (more negative)
than that of magnesium.
Note that explanations based on the positions of magnesium and sulfur in the
periodic table, general trends of IE1 and Eea in periods or the nuclear charges
and atomic sizes of these elements will not be accepted, as your answer must
refer to electron configurations from part (b).

(d) In the following calculations, some intermediate results are rounded to four
significant figures (one more than needed). The final results are rounded to the
correct number of significant figures (three).
(i) Mg(s) + S(s) → MgS(s)
–1
n(Mg) = 0.500 g / 24.31 g mol ≈ 0.02057 mol
–1
n(S) = 0.500 g / 32.07 g mol ≈ 0.01559 mol
Sulfur is the limiting reactant, so ntheor(MgS) = n(S) = 0.01559 mol
–1 –1
n(MgS) = 0.01559 mol × (24.31 g mol + 32.07 g mol ) ≈ 0.879 g

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice exam papers

(ii) If sulfur is used up completely, there will be 0.02057 – 0.01559 = 0.00498 mol of
unreacted magnesium in the final mixture.
–1
mfinal(Mg) = 0.00498 mol × 24.31 g mol ≈ 0.121 g
mfinal(mixture) = 0.879 g + 0.121 g = 1.000 g
ω(MgS) = (0.879 g / 1.000 g) × 100% = 87.9%
ω(Mg) = 100% – 87.9% = 12.1%

(e) (i) Your answer should include any two of the following:
 the solids dissolve;
 bubbles of gas are produced;
 the mixture/solution becomes warm/hot;
 a smell of rotten eggs appears.

Note that the smell might not appear if the experiment is carried out in a fume
cupboard. Answers like “magnesium/magnesium sulfide reacts with the acid”,
“hydrogen/hydrogen sulfide is given off”, “energy is released” or “magnesium
chloride forms” will not be accepted, as you must refer to observable changes,
such as changes in state, temperature, smell and so on.
(ii) Hydrogen sulfide, H2S(g), is toxic and has a foul smell, so students must not
inhale it.

2+ 2–
(f) In the solid state, all Mg and S ions occupy fixed positions in the crystal lattice
and cannot move. In molten magnesium sulfide, these ions move freely and thus
can carry electrical charge through the sample.

2. (a) Iodine and bromine are both non-metals with similar electronegativities
(2.7 and 3.0, respectively), so the I–Br bond is covalent.
Alternatively, your answer can be based on the bonding triangle:
Δχ = 3.0 – 2.7 = 0.3, χ̅ = (3.0 + 2.7) / 2 ≈ 2.9, so the bond is covalent.

(b) Simple molecular, as both elements in IBr are covalently bonded to each other
and have complete octets of electrons. Another reason is the fact that IBr is
volatile under standard conditions and has low melting and boiling points.

(c) Dipole–dipole forces (as the I–Br bonds are slightly polar due to the difference in
electronegativity between iodine and bromine) and London dispersion forces
(these forces exist in all substances).

(d) (i) T p Effect Reason

the forward reaction is endothermic
o
(ΔH > 0), so the reverse reaction will
decreases constant shift left
produce extra heat to partly compensate
the decrease in temperature
the total number of gas molecules on the
constant increases none left (reactant side) is the same as that on
the right (product side)

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice exam papers

(ii)

Note that all labels are required and the potential energy of the products must be
o
higher than that of the reactants (as ΔH > 0).

(e) (i) Oxidizing agent: Iodine(I) bromide, IBr(s).

Reducing agent: Sodium thiosulfate, Na2S2O3(aq). The answers “thiosulfate ions”
2–
or “S2O3 ” will also be accepted.
Note that iodine(I) bromide gains electrons while sodium thiosulfate loses
electrons.
–1
(ii) n(IBr) = 3.10 g / 206.80 g mol ≈ 0.0150 mol
n(Na2S2O3) = 2 × n(IBr) = 2 × 0.0150 mol = 0.0300 mol
–3 3
V(Na2S2O3) = 0.0300 mol / 0.100 mol dm = 0.300 dm

3. (a) (i) MgCO3(s) + H2SO4(aq) → MgSO4(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)

+ 2+
MgCO3(s) + 2H (aq) → Mg (aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l)
+ +
Either molecular or ionic equation (involving H or H3O ) will score the mark.
Note that carbonic acid, H2CO3(aq), is unstable and thus will not be accepted
as the reaction product.
(ii) As MgCO3(s) reacts with the acid, its quantity decreases, and so does its surface
area. The decreasing surface area reduces the number of successful collisions
between the reactants, so the reaction rate decreases.
(iii)

Note that the curve for a higher temperature must flatten out at the same level as
the original curve, as temperature does not affect the quantities of reactants and
thus the final mass loss.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice exam papers

(b) (i)
∆A 2 0.1 2
0.1 2
Relative uncertainty = √∑ ( ) = √(1.8) + (1.8) ≈ 0.08 or 8%
A

(ii) According to sections 1 of the data booklet, q = mcΔT. We can assume that
–3 –1 –1
dilute sulfuric acid is almost pure water (ρ = 1.00 g cm and c = 4.18 J g K )
and the heat capacity of the solid sample is negligible. In such a case:
3 –3
m1 = m2 = 100 cm × 1.00 g cm = 100 g
ΔT1 = 1.8 K, ΔT2 = 29.6 – 21.5 = 8.1 K
–1 –1
q1 = 100 g × 4.18 J g K × 1.8 K ≈ 750 J = 0.75 kJ
–1 –1
q2 = 100 g × 4.18 J g K × 8.1 K ≈ 3400 J = 3.4 kJ
(iii) The difference between q1 and q2 is due to the heat absorbed by the
decomposition of magnesite:
MgCO3(s) + H2SO4(aq) → MgSO4(aq) + CO2(g) + H2O(l) ΔH1
MgO(s) + H2SO4(aq) → MgSO4(aq) + H2O(l) ΔH2
MgCO3(s) → MgO(s) + CO2(g) ΔH3

To obtain the third equation, we need to subtract the second equation from the
first. According to the Hess's Law, ΔH3 = ΔH1 – ΔH2. Therefore:
–1
n(MgCO3) = 2.00 g / 84.32 g mol ≈ 0.0237 mol
–1
ΔH1 = –0.75 kJ / 0.0237 mol ≈ –31.6 kJ mol
n(MgO) = n(MgCO3) = 0.0237 mol
–1
ΔH2 = –3.4 kJ / 0.0237 mol ≈ –143 kJ mol (minus signs used as both reactions
are exothermic)
–1 –1 –1
ΔH3 = –31.6 kJ mol – (–143 kJ mol ) ≈ 111 kJ mol
(iv) Accuracy: Heat loss to the environment, difference in heat capacity of the
solution from that of pure water, non-zero heat capacities of the solid,
thermometer and calorimeter, evaporation of water during the reaction, purity of
starting materials, incomplete decomposition of magnesite.
Precision: Number of repetitions of the experiment(s), number of significant
figures recorded by the student, random variations in the ambient temperature,
masses of the samples and volumes of the solutions.
To score the full mark, you answer should include any one factor from each list.
You can also refer to the accuracy and precision of the laboratory equipment
(balance, measuring cylinder and thermometer) used in the experiments.
(v) Accuracy: Use several nested coffee cups; cover the cup(s) with a heat-
insulating material; use a smaller thermometer; determine the heat capacities of
the thermometer, calorimeter and solid samples and take them into account in
calculations; use an analytical-grade calorimeter instead of the coffee-cup
calorimeter; use a purer sample of magnesite.
Precision: Repeat each of the experiments several times and average the
results; use an analytical pipette, burette or volumetric flask instead of a
measuring cylinder when adding dilute sulfuric acid to the calorimeter; use a
more precise analytical balance; use a precise digital thermometer instead of the
glass thermometer; run all experiments at a constant ambient temperature;
record as many significant figures for each measurement as given by the
laboratory equipment; keep extra significant figures in intermediate results and
round only the final result to the correct number of significant figures.
Similar to part (iv), you answer should include any one factor from each list.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice exam papers

4. (a) 3-methylbutan-1-ol

(b) Acidified potassium dichromate or acidified potassium permanganate under

reflux.
Note that the words “acidified” and “reflux” are required for mark.

(c) (CH3)2CHCH2COOH + CH3OH (CH3)2CHCH2COOCH3 + H2O

–
(d) (CH3)2CHCH2COO

(e) Your answer may include any one of the techniques outlined below.
–3
 Prepare a 0.1 mol dm solution of the studied acid and measure its pH. If
pH = 1, the acid is strong; if pH > 1, the acid is weak.
–3
(For a 0.01 mol dm solution, the pH will be 2 for a strong acid and greater
than 2 for a weak acid.)
 Prepare two solutions, one of the studied acid and another of a known acid
with the same concentration. Then measure the pH values of both solutions.
If pH1 < pH2, then the studied acid is stronger than the known acid;
otherwise, it is weaker.
 Same as above, but measure the conductivities of both solutions. If the first
solution has a higher conductivity than the second, the studied acid is
stronger than the known acid; otherwise, it is weaker.
 Titrate a solution of the studied acid with a strong base. If at the equivalence
point pH = 7, the acid is strong; otherwise, it is weak. For a weak acid at the
half-equivalence point, pH = pKa. The lower the pKa, the stronger the acid.
 Prepare two solutions, one of the studied acid and another of a known acid
with the same concentration. Then add equal quantities of an active metal,
metal oxide, metal carbonate or metal hydrogencarbonate to each of the
solutions. The acid that reacts faster is the strongest of the two.
 Determine the enthalpy of neutralization of the studied acid. The greater
(more negative) the enthalpy, the stronger the acid.

5. (a) (i) [I2 ][Br2 ]

Kc =
[IBr]2
(ii) T = 135 + 273 = 408 K
o –1 –1
ΔG decomp(IBr) = 7.2 kJ mol = 7200 J mol
o
The reaction involves two moles of IBr, so the ΔG value for the reaction is
–1 –1
2 × 7200 J mol = 14400 J mol .
o
According to section 1 of the data booklet, ΔG = –RTlnKc, so:
14400 J mol–1
lnKc = – ≈ –4.25
8.31 J K–1 mol–1 × 408 K
–4.25
Kc = e ≈ 0.014

(b) (i)

Each bonding and lone electron pair can be represented by either two dots or
a line.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice exam papers

(ii) Electron domain geometry: trigonal bipyramidal (as there are five electron
domains around the iodine atom, including three bonding electron pairs
and two lone electron pairs).
Molecular geometry: T-shaped (as both lone electron pairs occupy equatorial
positions to minimize the mutual repulsion between the electron domains).
(iii) Less than 90° for Brax–I–Breq and less than 180° for Brax–I–Brax.

(c) According to the Lewis theory of acids and bases, this is a neutralization
reaction. The Lewis base IBr donates one of its lone electron pairs to the empty
electron orbital of the Lewis acid FeBr3.

(d) (i)

Note that iodine has lower electronegativity than bromine, so it has a partial
+
positive charge (δ ) and thus adds to the double bond first, producing the
+
secondary carbocation, H2C(I)–CH –CH3, which then reacts with the leaving
–
group, Br , and forms the main organic product, 2-bromo-1-iodopropane.
2 3
(ii) Propene: sp ; organic product: sp .

6. (a) (i) The slope of the tangent line to the curve at t = 0 will give the reaction rate
(in g of CO2(g) released from the mixture per second). To calculate the rate
–3 –1 –1
in mol dm s , we need to divide the slope by M(CO2) = 44.01 g mol and
3
by the volume of the solution (in dm ).
+
(ii) The concentration of H (aq) ions is proportional to the concentration of sulfuric
acid:
+ 2–
H2SO4(aq) → 2H (aq) + SO4 (aq)
When c(H2SO4) doubles, the initial rate also doubles, so the reaction is first order
+
with respect to H (aq) ions.
(iii) k E 1 1
According to section 1 of the data booklet, ln 1 = a ( – ). Since the
k2 R T2 T1
k1 v
concentrations of sulfuric acid in experiments 1 and 3 were identica = 1l,.
k3 v3
Therefore:
T1 = 21.4 + 273 = 294.4 K
T3 = 35.2 + 273 = 308.2 K

1.65 × 10–4 mol dm–3 s–1 Ea 1 1

ln –4 –3
= –1 –1
( – )
5.22 × 10 mol dm s–1 8.31 J K mol 308.2 K 294.4 K

Ea
ln(0.316) = ( –0.000152 K–1 )
8.31 J K–1 mol–1
4 –1 –1
Ea ≈ 6.30 × 10 J mol = 63.0 kJ mol
(iv) Your answer may include any one of the following: degree of dispersion/surface
area of magnesite; purity of magnesite; rate/method of stirring.
o –1 –1
(b) According to section 12 of the data booklet, ΔS (CO2(g)) = 213.8 J K mol .
Therefore:
o –1 –1
ΔS decomp(MgCO3(s)) = 27.0 + 213.8 – 65.7 = +175.1 J K mol
o o o
(c) According to section 1 of the data booklet, ΔG = ΔH – TΔS . The
o
decomposition will become favourable when ΔG < 0. Therefore:
–1 –1
111 kJ mol – T × 0.1751 kJ K mol < 0
o –1 –1 o
(Note that ΔS has been converted to kJ K mol because ΔH is expressed in
–1
kJ mol .)
–1
111 < T × 0.1751 K
T > 634 K

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice exam papers

Therefore, the decomposition will become favourable at T > 634 – 273 = 361°C.
o –1 o –1 –1
(If you used ΔH = 100 kJ mol and ΔS = 200 J K mol , your answer should
be T > 227 K).

(d) Both MgO(s) and CaO(s) are ionic compounds, so their lattices consist of doubly
charged cations and doubly charged anions. However, Mg is higher in group 2 of
2+ 2+
the periodic table than Ca, so the ionic radius of Mg is smaller than that of Ca .
2+
The smaller cations Mg will experience a stronger electrostatic attraction to
2–
O anions, so the ionic bonding in MgO(s) will be stronger than that in CaO(s).
–1
Therefore, the lattice enthalpy of MgO(s) (3791 kJ mol ) is greater than the
–1
lattice enthalpy of CaO(s) (3401 kJ mol ).
+ –
7. (a) KOH(aq) → K (aq) + OH (aq)
– –3
[OH ] = 0.0100 mol dm
+
Kw 1.00 × 10–14 –12 –3
[H ] = = = 1.00 × 10 mol dm
– 0.0100
OH
+ –12
pH = –log[H ] = –log(1.00 × 10 ) = 12.00
Alternative solution:
–
pOH = –log[OH ] = –log(0.0100) = 2.00
pH = 14 – pOH = 14 – 2.00 = 12.00

(b) The pH at the equivalence point is approximately 8.2 (see part (e)), so the best
indicator is phenol red (pKa = 7.9). Two other indicators, bromothymol blue
(pKa = 7.0) and phenolphthalein (pKa = 9.6), can also be used, as their pKa
values are within the pH jump of the titration curve.
3 3
(c) The equivalence point is reached at V(KOH) = 12.0 cm = 0.0120 dm , so:
–3 3 –4
n(KOH) = 0.0100 mol dm × 0.0120 dm = 1.20 × 10 mol

(d) HA(aq) + KOH(aq) → KA(aq) + H2O(l)

–4
n(HA) = n(KOH) = 1.20 × 10 mol
–3
m(HA) = 5.52 mg = 5.52 × 10 g
5.52 × 10–3 g –1
M(HA) = = 46.0 g mol
–4
1.20 × 10 mol

(e) The pKa of the acid is equal to the pH value at the half-equivalence point:
12

11

10
pH = 8.2
9

8
pH

6 pK a = 4.75

4
half-equivalence equivalence
3 point point

2
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 20
V (KOH) / cm3
3
Note that the equivalence point is reached at V(KOH) = 12.0 cm , so the half-
3
equivalence point is reached at V(KOH) = 6.0 cm . The acceptable range for pKa
values is 4.7–4.8.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice exam papers

(f)

Note that a condensed formula, such as HCOOH, will not be accepted, as a full
structural formula is required.

8. (a) At higher frequencies, the emission or absorption lines in the line spectrum of
titanium become closer to one another and eventually converge.
The IE1 of titanium can be found from the formula IE1 = hν, where h is the
Planck's constant and ν is the frequency at the limit of convergence.

(b) (i) The oxidation state of titanium is +3 in the first ion and +4 in the second ion.
Note that the answers “3+” and “4+” would not be accepted.
3+
(ii) The first ion, [Ti(H2O)6] , is coloured because the central atom in this ion has
one 3d electron (while in the second ion it has none). The energy of electron
transitions within the 3d sublevel corresponds to the frequency of visible light.
(iii) Note that the units given in the question are incorrect – they should be nm,
–1
not cm .
The wavelength 580 nm corresponds to yellow light. If yellow light is absorbed,
the light of the complementary colour (violet) is transmitted, so the complex
appears violet.
Note that in reality this complex appears purple rather than violet, as the
absorption at 580 nm is very broad and covers the range from 500 to 640 nm. As
a result, the complex absorbs not only yellow but also green and orange light.
The complementary colours to green and orange are red and blue, respectively.
The combination of red, blue and violet light produces the characteristic purple
colour of Ti(III) complexes.
+ 2+
9. (a) 2Ag (aq) + Ni(s) → 2Ag(s) + Ni (aq)
2+ +
(b) Ni(s) | Ni (aq) || Ag (aq) | Ag(s)
o 2+
(c) According to section 24 of the data booklet, E (Ni(s)/Ni (aq)) = –0.26 V and
o + o
E (Ag(s)/Ag (aq)) = +0.80 V. Therefore, E cell = +0.80 V – (–0.26 V) = 1.06 V.
Note that the answer “–1.06 V” would not be accepted, as the cell potential for a
spontaneous process must be positive.

(d) As any redox process, the reaction given in part (a) is reversible:
+ 2+
2Ag (aq) + Ni(s) 2Ag(s) + Ni (aq)
According to Le Châtelier's principle, an increase in the concentration of the
2+
product, Ni (aq), favours the reverse reaction and thus makes the forward
reaction less spontaneous. Therefore, the cell potential will decrease.
The same conclusion based on the Nernst equation (Topic C.6) would also be
accepted, although this equation is not a part of the core syllabus.

10. (a) Your answer may include the discussion any two techniques outlined in
table 10.1.4.

(b) C6H6 + HNO3 → C6H5NO2 + H2O

Conditions: a mixture of concentrated nitric and concentrated sulfuric acids
and heat.

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(c) (i)

Fisher projections would also be accepted.

(ii) Four signals with the integration ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 3.
Note that the protons of CH3 groups in the CH2CH3 and CHCH3 fragments are
in different chemical environments, so they will produce two signals, not one.
(iii) Bromine water (but-1-ene will decolourize it while the reaction product will not).

Paper 3
SECTION A

1. (a) pH = 6.89.
The acceptable range of answers is from 6.88 to 6.90. Note that the distance
between minor gridlines is 2°C on the x-axis and 0.04 pH units on the y-axis.
+ –pH –6.89 –7 –3
(b) [H ] = 10 = 10 ≈ 1.29 × 10 mol dm
– +
In pure water, [OH ] = [H ], so:
+ – –7 –3 2 –14 2 –6
Kw = [H ][OH ] = (1.29 × 10 mol dm ) ≈ 1.66 × 10 mol dm
–14
pKw = –logKw = –log(1.66 × 10 ) ≈ 13.78
Alternative solution:
pKw = pH + pOH. In pure water, pH = pOH, so pKw = 6.89 + 6.89 = 13.78

(c) To score the full mark, both axes in your sketch must be labelled, and the curve
must look similar to the one shown below, although it does not have to be drawn
to scale.
Kw

temperature
Note that the Kw values at different temperature are given in section 23 of the
data booklet.
+ –
(d) H2O(l) H (aq) + OH (aq)
+ +
An equation with H3O (aq) instead of H (aq) is also acceptable.

(e) The sketch in part (c) shows a positive correlation: as temperature increases, the
+ –
Kw value also increases. If Kw increases, then both [H ] and [OH ] also increase.
Therefore, an increase in temperature shifts the position of the equilibrium in part
(d) to the right (towards products). This is possible only for an endothermic
o
process, so ΔH > 0.

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2. (a) To score the first of the two marks, you need to mention any one of the following:
 measure the volume of gas released during the reaction / use a gas syringe
/ use an overturned measuring cylinder filled with water;
 measure the mass (or mass loss) of the mixture / place the reaction vessel
on an analytical balance;
 measure the pH of the solution / use a pH probe;
 measure the conductivity of the solution / use a conductivity probe;
 plot the volume/mass (loss)/pH/conductivity as a function of time.
To score the second mark, you need to state that the initial rate can be
determined from the slope of the tangent to the curve at t = 0.
3 –3
(b) n1(HCl) = 0.0500 dm × 1.00 mol dm = 0.0500 mol
3 –3
n2(HCl) = 0.0500 dm × 2.00 mol dm = 0.100 mol
–1
n1(Zn) = 1.00 g / 65.38 g mol ≈ 0.0153 mol
–1
n2(Zn) = 10.0 g / 65.38 g mol ≈ 0.153 mol
The second method would be least affected, as zinc was taken in excess, so any
variations in its mass would only slightly affect the reaction time (due to slight
differences in the surface area). In the first method, zinc was the limited reactant,
so any variations in its mass would directly affect the reaction time.

(c) Any one of the following: surface area, degree of dispersion, particle size, purity.

(d) A larger surface area, a higher degree of dispersion or a smaller particle size will
accelerate the reaction (due to the increased number of collisions between the
reactant particles). The lower purity can either slow down the reaction (if the
impurity is less reactive than zinc) or accelerate the reaction (if the impurity is
more reactive than zinc).

(e) No, it is not appropriate, as the differences between individual measurements

and their average value are much greater than 0.1 s.

(f) Approximately 80 s.
Note that in reality the average time will be slightly less than 80 s, as the
–3
concentration of the 2.00 mol dm HCl(aq) will decrease during the reaction by a
–3
smaller proportion than that of the 1.00 mol dm HCl(aq). However, you do not
have to state this to score the mark.

(g) Systematic error, as in all cases the stopwatch was started later than needed, so
the recorded reaction times were consistently shorter than the actual reaction
times.

SECTION B

Option A

3. (a) A composite is a heterogeneous material that consists of two distinct phases: a

matrix phase embedded into a reinforcing phase. Ceramic materials are typically
homogeneous and consist of a single inorganic phase where the constituent
elements form a giant ionic or covalent lattice.

(b) According to section 8 of the data booklet, the electronegativity values of

Zr and O are 1.3 and 3.4, respectively. The average electronegativity is
(1.3 + 3.4)/2 ≈ 2.4, and the electronegativity difference is 3.4 – 1.3 = 2.1.
According to section 29 of the data booklet, the bond is ionic.

(c) Because zirconium is more active than both carbon and hydrogen.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice exam papers

(d) Your answer should include at least one similarity and two differences, which are
outlined in the table below.

Homogeneous catalysts Heterogeneous catalysts

increase the reaction rate / speed up the reaction; lower the
similarities activation energy; provide an alternative pathway for a
reaction
distribute through the whole
provide a surface for the
volume of the reaction
reaction to occur;
mixture;
adsorb reactants onto active
chemically combine with
sites;
differences reactants;
bring reactants into correct
form intermediates or
mutual position and
transition states with
orientation to react;
reactants;
allows products to desorb
detach and release products

(e) (i) Plasma is a state of matter that consists of isolated atoms or small molecules,
cations and electrons. In other words, it is a partly or completely ionized gas.

(ii) To score the full mark, your answer should include any two of the following:
 argon/carrier gas passes through a quartz tube with an external electric coil;
 an alternating electric current in the coil creates an oscillating magnetic field
inside the tube;
 the magnetic field distorts electron orbitals in argon;
 some argon atoms lose their outer electrons / become ionized.

4. (a)

Note that all CH3 groups are on the same side of the hydrocarbon chain. A more
detailed structural formula that shows all carbon and hydrogen atoms is also
acceptable.

(b) The molecules of plasticizers keep the hydrocarbon chains apart and thus reduce
the strength of intermolecular London dispersion forces. As a result, plasticizers
reduce the density, hardness and mechanical strength of polypropene, making it
more flexible and permeable to gases and certain liquids.

(c) Your answer may include any two of the following: use of non-renewable
resources (fossil fuels) as starting materials; use of toxic/hazardous chemicals as
catalysts; low biodegradability; choking/entanglement hazard to animals; release
of carbon dioxide/greenhouse gases when polypropene is combusted; use of
land for the disposal of polypropene in landfills; leaching of biologically active
plasticizers into the environment.

(d) Your answer may include any one of the following: to preserve the value of
material (as mixed plastics have unpredictable/variable properties); to keep
thermoplastic and thermosetting plastics apart from each other (for further
processing); to allow the recycling of materials that are already made from
recycled plastics; to prevent the release of ozone-depleting agents, dioxins and
other toxic substances when recycled materials are combusted (this may happen
when RIC-3 plastic, PVC, is mixed with other plastics).

5. (a) Rod-shaped.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice exam papers

(b) The polarity enables the molecule to change its orientation in an external electric
field. This allows you to control the brightness of individual pixels in an LCD by
applying electric potentials to specific areas of the display.
The long hydrocarbon chains prevent close packing of the molecules but
contribute to their overall rod-shaped configuration, thus allowing the molecules
to align with one another. At the same time, the hydrocarbon chains reduce the
melting point of LCs, allowing them to exist in LC state at room temperature.

(c) Catalyst: iron nanoparticles, which are formed by the thermal decomposition of
iron(0) pentacarbonyl, Fe(CO)5.
Conditions: high pressure and high temperature.

(d) Any one of the following: specific health concerns (allergies, weakening of the
immune system, cancer, irritation of the respiratory system); unknown long-term
effects on human health; unknown effects on the environment; lack of information
for consumers (such as labelling the products containing nanoscale materials).

6. (a) Your answer should include at least one similarity and two differences, which are
outlined in the table below.

Type 1 semiconductors Type 2 semiconductors

have zero electrical resistance under certain conditions; expel
similarities
magnetic field; demonstrate Meissner effect
gradual transition to
sharp transition to
superconductivity;
superconductivity;
higher critical temperature;
lower critical temperature;
differences have two critical magnetic
have one critical magnetic
fields;
field;
alloys/ceramics/oxides/composi
usually pure metals;
tes;

–27 –1 –25
(b) m(unit cell) = 6 × 91.22 amu × 1.66 × 10 kg amu ≈ 9.086 × 10 kg =
–22
9.086 × 10 g
3 –22 3
V(unit cell) = 0.1394 nm = 1.394 × 10 cm
9.086 × 10–22 g –3
ρ(Zr) = ≈ 6.52 g cm
–22
1.394 × 10 cm–3
The answer must be rounded to three significant figures.

7. (a) Hydrogen chloride, HCl. The answer “2HCl” will also be accepted.

(b) The reaction can be represented as follows (the Mr values are shown under the
molecular formulas):
2C2H8N2 + 2C4H8Cl2O → C12H28N4O2 + 4HCl
60.12 143.02 260.44 36.46
From every 2 × 60.12 + 2 × 143.02 = 406.28 amu of atoms used, 260.44 amu of
atoms ends up in the target product. Therefore:
260.44 amu
%(atom economy) = × 100% ≈ 64.10%
406.28 amu

(c) Each chelate ligand forms several coordinate bonds with a metal ion. The greater the
number of bonds, the more energy is required to break these bonds. In addition, the
formation of chelate complexes in aqueous solutions releases many molecules of
water, which were initially bound to metal ions and free chelate ligands. This increases
the entropy of the system. Because of these two factors, collectively known as the
chelate effect, chelate complexes form readily and do not dissociate easily. In other
words, chelate ligands greatly reduce the concentration of free metal ions in solutions.

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Option B

8. (a) C6H12O6(aq) + 6O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(l)

(b)

(c) In a condensation reaction, two or more reactant molecules form one larger
molecule (target product) and one or more smaller, usually inorganic molecules
(by-product). In a hydrolysis reaction, one large molecule reacts with one or more
molecules of water to form two or more smaller molecules.

(d) Advantages: renewable/sustainable; can be broken down quickly by

microorganisms; reduce volume of plastic waste/landfill; reduce use of fossil fuels
(as hydrocarbon source); degrade into non-toxic products.
Disadvantages: require land (for plant growth); plants require fertilizers/pesticides
(which leach to the environment); might break down before the end of use;
release methane in landfills.

9. (a)

(b) High temperature and concentrated hydrochloric acid, HCl(aq).

Note that concentrated sulfuric or nitric acids cannot be used, as they will
decompose (dehydrate and/or oxidize) the amino acids.

(c)

To score the full mark, you need to show the spots of both histidine (His) and
proline (Pro) on the left, with histidine being further from the starting point than
proline. The spot of glutamic acid (Glu) must be on the right.
Note that both proline (pI = 6.3) and histidine (pI = 7.6) will be partly protonated
at pH = 6.0 and thus will move to the negative electrode. Proline will move slower
than histidine, as its pI is very close to the pH, so its average positive charge will
be very small. Glutamic acid (pI = 3.2) at pH = 6.0 will exist almost exclusively in
its anionic form and thus move to the positive electrode.
–1 –4
10. (a) n(acid) = 0.250 g / 280.50 g mol ≈ 8.91 × 10 mol
3 –3 –3
n(I2) = 0.0178 dm × 0.100 mol dm = 1.78 × 10 mol
–3 –4
number of C=C bonds = 1.78 × 10 mol / 8.91 × 10 mol ≈ 2

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice exam papers

(b) Another common fatty acid with two C=C bonds is linoleic acid, C 17H31COOH, or
C18H32O2 (see section 34 of the data booklet). The molecular mass of linoleic
–1
acid (280.50 g mol ) is identical to that of rumenic acid, so rumenic acid must
have the molecular formula C18H32O2.

(c) Because sucrose is more oxidized (has a higher proportion of oxygen to other
elements) than rumenic acid. Therefore, a complete oxidation of sucrose to
carbon dioxide and water would require less oxygen and thus will release less
energy per gram.
Your answer can also be based on the average oxidation states of carbon in
sucrose (0) and rumenic acid (approximately –1.56).

(d) Stearic and rumenic acids have similar molecular masses. However, the C=C
fragments in rumenic acid form kinks in the hydrocarbon chains, preventing the
chains from packing closely and weakening the intermolecular London dispersion
forces. Stearic acid has no C=C fragments, so the intermolecular forces between its
molecules are stronger and thus its melting point is higher than that of rumenic acid.
The answer “stearic acid is saturated while rumenic acid is not” would score one
point. The second point requires a reference to intermolecular forces and their
nature.

11. (a) Because it has many polar functional groups that can form hydrogen bonds with
water.

(b) Because it is a natural product and thus is biodegradable. In addition, its

oxidation product, C6H6O6, is a weak acid while the oxidation product of SO 2 is
H2SO4, which is a strong acid and thus is likely to cause more damage to the
environment.

12. (a) 1.0

V max
–1
reaction rate / 10 mol dm min

0.8
–3

0.6
–6

½V max
0.4

0.2

0.0
Km
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14
glucose concentration / 10–3 mol dm–3

–3 –3
According to the diagram, Km ≈ 1.0 × 10 mol dm .
Note that Km is equal to the concentration of glucose at ½Vmax and has the same
units as that concentration.

(b) It means that glucose-6-phosphate binds to hexokinase and reduces the activity
of hexokinase.
Note that the answer “reaction product binds to enzyme and reduces its activity”
would not score the mark, as references to specific product (glucose-6-
phosphate) and enzyme (hexokinase) are required.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice exam papers

(c) If Km is not affected, glucose-6-phosphate is a non-competitive inhibitor.

Therefore, it binds to an allosteric site.

(d) –CTATTGCAT–
Note that DNA contains thymine (T) instead of uracil (U) in RNA.

(e) Your answer may include any two differences that are outlined in table B.8.1.

13. (a)

Note that all five chiral carbon atoms are in the glucose residue.

(b) They have extended systems of electron conjugation. The electron transitions in
such systems have energies similar to those of photons of visible light.

(c) At pH = 3, the maximum of absorbance is at ≈ 520 nm (green light). According to

section 17 of the data booklet, the colour complementary to green is red.
Therefore, at pH = 3, the juice appears red. Similarly, at pH = 11, the juice
strongly absorbs light around 610 nm (orange) and thus appears blue, as blue is
complementary to orange.

(d) One of the C=C bonds in retinal changes its configuration from cis- to trans-.

Option C
o –1
14. (a) According to section 13 of the data booklet, ΔH c(C2H5OH) = –1367 kJ mol .
Therefore:
–1
M(C2H5OH) = 46.08 g mol
–1367 kJ mol–1 –1 –1
specific energy = –1
≈ 29.67 kJ g = 29.67 MJ kg
46.08 g mol

(b) Ethanol is less useful, as its specific energy is lower than that of gasoline.
Therefore, more ethanol will be required for the vehicle to travel the same
distance.

(c) (i) Vegetable oils are very viscous and virtually non-volatile, so they would clog the
engine if used without modification. Biodiesel has lower viscosity and higher
volatility than vegetable oils.
(ii) CH3(CH2)3(CH2CH=CH)2(CH2)7COOCH2CH3.
A more detailed structural formula would also be acceptable.
Note that the transesterification reaction also produces glycerol. However,
glycerol is usually removed from the reaction mixture and thus it is not a
part of biodiesel.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice exam papers

(iv) Advantages (any one will score the mark): renewable; biodegradable; have lower
carbon footprint than fossil fuels; can be produced from organic waste; can be
produced in countries with limited fossil fuel resources.
Disadvantages (any one will score the mark): take up land (for growing crops);
require fertilizers and pesticides; often produce more NOx than fossil fuels; more
expensive than fossil fuels; engines might need modification for running on
biodiesel.

(d) There are several possible answers, some of which are outlined in the table
below. All reactions require high temperature and the presence of a catalyst.
Method Equation
catalytic
cracking

catalytic or
reforming

Other possible reaction products are straight-chain and branched alkanes

(methane to pentane), alkenes (ethene to hexene), cycloalkanes and benzene.

15. (a) Similarity: in both fusion and fission reactions, the products have higher binding
energy per nucleon than the reacting species.
Difference: in fusion, two light nuclei combine together and form a heavier
nucleus (and sometimes other products); in fission, one heavy nucleus produces
two lighter nuclei (and several neutrons).

(b) A = 259 + 5 × 1 – 242 = 22

Z = 104 + 5 × 0 – 94 = 10
The nuclide with Z = 10 is neon (Ne).
A 22
Therefore, ZX is 10Ne.

(c) The quantity of Rf-259 in the sample decreases as follows:

1 ½ ¼ ⅛
9.6 s
The decay to ⅛ of the initial quantity takes three half-lives, so t1/2 = = 3.2 s.
3

16. A: UV; B: visible; C: IR; D: IR.

For C, the answer “visible and IR” will also be accepted.
Any two correct answers will score one mark.

17. Carbon dioxide dissolves in water to produce protons and

hydrogencarbonate ions:
+ –
CO2(g) + H2O(l) H (aq) + HCO3 (aq)
The increasing concentration of CO2(g) shifts the above equilibrium to the right,
+
increasing [H ] and thus decreasing the pH of oceanic water.
+ –
18. (a) Anode: CH3OH(aq) + H2O(l) → CO2(g) + 6H (aq) + 6e
+ –
Cathode: O2(g) + 4H (aq) + 4e → 2H2O(l)

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(b) To score the full mark, you need to mention any one advantage and any one
disadvantage, which are outlined below.
Advantages: can be used continuously (do not need to be recharged); has high specific
energy and thermodynamic efficiency; does not contain toxic lead compounds.
Disadvantages: expensive; needs constant supply of fuel; uses toxic and flammable
fuel (methanol); works well only when hot; produces a greenhouse gas (carbon
dioxide); electrodes can be poisoned by impurities in the fuel.

19. (a) Uranium hexafluoride has a simple molecular lattice, where individual UF 6
molecules are held together by weak London dispersion forces. In contrast,
4+ 2–
uranium dioxide has a giant ionic lattice, where individual U and O ions are
held together by strong electrostatic attraction forces (ionic bonding). The
stronger the forces in the lattice, the higher the boiling point.
–27
(b) According to sections 2 and 4 of the data booklet, 1 amu = 1.66 × 10 kg and
–27
m( 10n) = 1.674927 × 10 kg. Therefore:
1.674927 × 10–27
m( 10n) = ≈ 1.00899 amu
1.66 × 10–27
235
Δm(per 1 atom of U) =
235.04393 + 1.00899 – 136.90709 – 95.93427 – 3 × 1.00899 = 0.18459 amu
235
Δm(per 1 mol of U) =
–27 –1 23 –4
0.18459 amu × 1.66 × 10 kg amu × 6.02 × 10 ≈ 1.84 × 10 kg

20. (a) Any two of the following: both have extended systems of electron
conjugation/delocalization; both contain a metal ion / both are metal complexes;
both contain a polydentate ligand; in both complexes nitrogen atoms act as Lewis
bases.

(b) The darker the colour, the more visible light is absorbed. In other words, any
dark-coloured substance absorbs photons across the whole spectrum of visible
light. Therefore, the deep brown or black colour of the dye increases its efficiency
in absorbing solar radiation.

Option D

21. (a) Mild analgesics act at the source of pain/injury by interfering with the production
of pain-sensitizing substances (prostaglandins).

(b) Aspirin can be converted into a soluble aspirin by the reaction with a base, for
example:
CH3C(O)OC6H4COOH(s) + NaOH(aq) → CH3C(O)OC6H4COONa(aq) + H2O(l)
An ionic equation can be written instead of the molecular equation. Other bases,
such as KOH, Na2CO3 or NaHCO3, are also acceptable.

(c) (i) Opiates bind to opioid receptors in the brain/CNS and block the transmission of
pain impulses from the source of pain to the brain.
(ii) Iodomethane, CH3I, in the presence of a base, such as KOH.
Any other methylating reagent is also acceptable.
(iii) Codeine, as it is less polar than morphine and thus is more soluble in lipid-based
blood-brain barrier.
(iv) Codeine is less potent than morphine and thus poses a lower risk of overdose.
Note that the answer “codeine is less addictive” is incorrect.

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22. The beta-lactam ring is strained due to its unusual bond angles (90° instead of
3 2
109.5° for sp -hybrid atoms and 120° for sp -hybrid atoms) and thus is very
reactive. In bacteria, this ring opens and binds irreversibly to transpeptidase, the
enzyme responsible for cross-linking of bacterial cell walls.
+ –
23. (a) CO2(aq) + H2O(l) H (aq) + HCO3 (aq)
In this equation, the system CO2(aq) + H2O(l) acts as the conjugate acid while
–
HCO3 (aq) acts as the conjugate base. Therefore:
–
[HCO3 ] 24.0 mmol dm–3
pH = pKa(CO2) + log = 6.34 + log ≈ 7.39
[CO2 ] 2.14 mmol dm–3
–3
Note that the units of concentration do not need to be converted to mol dm as
long as they are identical in the numerator and denominator.

(b) The molecule of aspirin contains a carboxyl group, which can dissociate to
produce protons:
– +
CH3C(O)OC6H4COOH(aq) CH3C(O)OC6H4COO (aq) + H (aq)
+
As [H ] increases, the pH of the patient's blood decreases.

24. Ranitidine: H2 histamine receptors in the parietal cells of the stomach lining.
+ +
Omeprazole: receptors of the proton pump (H /K ATPase) in the parietal cells
of the stomach lining.

25. (a) Amino and ester.

Note that “amine” is a class name, not a functional group name.

(b) To score the full mark, your answer may include any two hazards from
table D.6.2.

(c) Influenza is caused by viruses, not bacteria, so antibacterial drugs are completely
ineffective against it. Viruses have no cell walls and no transpeptidase enzyme,
which is targeted by penicillin. An attempt to use penicillin against a viral infection
will only increase the resistance of bacteria to antibiotics and kill some beneficial
bacteria.

26. (a)

(b) Polarimeter.

(c) 13.

(d) Your answer should include any one of the following: IR spectroscopy, mass
spectroscopy, UV-vis spectroscopy, X-ray crystallography, elemental analysis,
chromatography, polarimetry, melting point determination.

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Answers to practice exam papers

27. (a) An alpha-decay decreases the atomic number (Z) by two units and the mass
A 216
number (A) by four units. Therefore, ZX is 84Po:
216 212 4
84Po → 82Pb + 2He

(b) According to section 1 of the data booklet, Nt = N0 × (0.5)t/t1/2 .

If N0 = 100%, then:
48.0/10.6
Nt = 100% × (0.5) ≈ 4.33%
Alternative solution:
ln 2 0.693
λ= ≈ ≈ 0.0654
t1/2 10.6
–λt –0.0654 × 48.0
Nt = N0e = 100% × e ≈ 4.33%

28. Anode (negative electrode):

+ –
C2H5OH(g) + H2O(l) → CH3COOH(aq) + 4H (aq) + 4e
Cathode (positive electrode):
+ –
O2(g) + 4H (aq) + 4e → 2H2O(l)

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IB Prepared Chemistry
Paper 1 answer sheet

Indicate your answers in the answer boxes provided.

1 A B C D 19 A B C D 33 A B C D

2 A B C D 20 A B C D 34 A B C D

3 A B C D 35 A B C D
Questions 21–30 are for
4 A B C D SL candidates only. 36 A B C D

5 A B C D 21 A B C D 37 A B C D

6 A B C D 22 A B C D 38 A B C D

7 A B C D 23 A B C D 39 A B C D

8 A B C D 24 A B C D 40 A B C D

9 A B C D 25 A B C D 41 A B C D

10 A B C D 26 A B C D 42 A B C D

11 A B C D 27 A B C D 43 A B C D

12 A B C D 28 A B C D 44 A B C D

13 A B C D 29 A B C D 45 A B C D

14 A B C D 30 A B C D 46 A B C D

15 A B C D 47 A B C D
Questions 31–50 are for
16 A B C D HL candidates only. 48 A B C D

17 A B C D 31 A B C D 49 A B C D

18 A B C D 32 A B C D 50 A B C D
IB Prepared Chemistry
Paper 2 answer sheet

Write your answers in the boxes provided.

1. (a) [3]

(b) [2]

Magnesium atom:

Sulfur atom:

(c) [2]

Ionization energy:

Electron affinity:

[1
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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 2 answer sheet

(d) (i) [3]

(ii) [2]

(e) (i) [2]

(ii) [1]

(f) [2]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 2 answer sheet

2. (a) [2]

(b) [1]

(c) [1]

(d) (i) [2]

T p Effect Reason

decreases constant

constant increases

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 2 answer sheet

(ii) [2]

(e) (i) [1]

(ii) [3]

3. (a) (i) [1]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 2 answer sheet

(ii) [2]

(iii) [1]

(b) (i) [1]

(ii) [2]

Experiment 1:

Experiment 2:

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 2 answer sheet

(iii) [3]

(iv) [2]

Accuracy:

Precision:

(v) [1]

4. (a) [1]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 2 answer sheet

(b) [2]

Reagents:

Reaction conditions:

(c) [2]

(d) [1]

(e) [2]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 2 answer sheet

The following questions are for HL candidates only.

5. (a) (i) [1]

(ii) [2]

(b) (i) [1]

(ii) [2]

Electron domain geometry:

Molecular geometry:

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 2 answer sheet

(iii) [1]

(c) [2]

(d) (i) [1]

(ii) [1]

Hybridization of C-2 in propene:

Hybridization of C-2 in the organic product:

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 2 answer sheet

6. (a) (i) [1]

(ii) [1]

(iii) [2]

(iv) [1]

(b) [1]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 2 answer sheet

(c) [3]

(d) [2]

7. (a) [1]

(b) [1]

(c) [1]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 2 answer sheet

(d) [1]

(e) [1]

(f) [1]

8. (a) [1]

(b) (i) [1]

Oxidation state in [Ti(H2O)6]3+

Oxidation state in [TiF6]2–

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 2 answer sheet

(ii) [1]

(iii) [1]

9. (a) [1]

(b) [1]

(c) [1]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 2 answer sheet

(d) [2]

10. (a) [2]

(b) [2]

Equation:

Reaction conditions:

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 2 answer sheet

(c) (i) [1]

(ii) [2]

Number of non-aromatic signals:

Integration ratio:

(iii) [1]

End of Paper 2

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IB Prepared Chemistry
Paper 3 answer sheet

Write your answers in the boxes provided.

Section A

1. (a) [1]

(b) [2]

(c) [2]

(d) [1]

[1
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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 3 answer sheet

(e) [1]

2. (a) [2]

(b) [1]

(c) [1]

(d) [1]

(e) [1]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 3 answer sheet

(f) [1]

(g) [1]

Section B

Option A — Materials
3. (a) [1]

(b) [1]

(c) [1]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 3 answer sheet

(d) [3]

(e) (i) [1]

(ii) [2]

4. (a) [1]

(b) [2]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 3 answer sheet

(c) [1]

(d) [1]

5. (a) [1]

(b) [2]

Polarity:

Long hydrocarbon chain:

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 3 answer sheet

(c) [2]

Catalyst:

Conditions:

(d) [1]

6. (a) [3]

(b) [2]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 3 answer sheet

7. (a) [1]

(b) [1]

(c) [3]

Option B — Biochemistry
8. (a) [1]

(b) [2]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 3 answer sheet

(c) [1]

(d) [2]

Advantage:

Disadvantage:

9. (a) [2]

(b) [1]

(c) [2]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 3 answer sheet

10. (a) [3]

(b) [1]

(c) [1]

(d) [2]

11. (a) [1]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 3 answer sheet

(b) [1]

12. (a) [1]

(b) [1]

(c) [1]

(d) [1]

(e) [1]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 3 answer sheet

13. (a) [1]

(b) [1]

(c) [2]

pH = 3:

pH = 6:

(d) [1]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 3 answer sheet

Option C — Energy
14. (a) [2]

(b) [1]

(c) (i) [1]

(ii) [1]

(iii) [2]

Reaction type:

Catalyst:

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 3 answer sheet

(iv) [2]

Advantage:

Disadvantage:

(d) [2]

15. (a) [2]

(b) [2]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 3 answer sheet

(c) [1]

16. [2]

Letter Radiation type

A
B
C
D

17. [2]

18. (a) [2]

Anode (negative electrode):

Cathode (positive electrode):

(b) [2]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 3 answer sheet

19. (a) [2]

(b) [1]

20. (a) [2]

(b) [1]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 3 answer sheet

Option D — Medicinal chemistry

21. (a) [2]

(b) [2]

(c) (i) [1]

(ii) [1]

(iii) [1]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 3 answer sheet

(iv) [1]

22. [2]

23. (a) [1]

(b) [1]

24. [2]

Ranitidine:

Omeprazole:

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 3 answer sheet

25. (a) [2]

(b) [2]

(c) [2]

26. (a) [1]

(b) [1]

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 IB Prepared Chemistry: Paper 3 answer sheet

(c) [1]

(d) [1]

27. (a) [2]

(b) [2]

28. [2]

End of Paper 3

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